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Osmotic fragility is increased in ?: (A) Sickle cell anaemia, (B) Thalassemia, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) Chronic lead poisoning | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis Osmotic fragility of Red blood cells. Red blood cell osmotic fragility is the resistance of RBC hemolysis to osmotic changes. o Normally RBC maintains osmotic equilibrium with the surrounding medium i.e., with serum that has 0.9% NaCl. o As the surrounding medium ... | |
Which drug is not used to prevent contrast nephropathy -: (A) Fenoldopam, (B) N-acetylcysteine, (C) Infusion of Hair normal saline, (D) Hemodialysis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fenoldopam Summary And Recommendations for prevention of contrast induced nephropathy (uptodate recommendation )o Optimal therapy to prevent contrast-induced acute renal failure remains uncertain. Patients with near-normal renal function are at little risk and few precautions are necessar... | |
Aminoacyl t-RNA is not require for -: (A) Proline, (B) Lysine, (C) Hydroxy lysine, (D) Methionine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hydroxylysine o The initial step in protein synthesis is the activation of amino acid in which each of the 20 amino-acids is covalently attached to their respective t-RNA, forming specific amino acyl t-RNA.o The reaction is catalyzed by ami noacyl t-RNA synthase.o Hydroxyproline and hydro... | |
Intermediate host for hydatid disease:: (A) Man, (B) Dog, (C) Cat, (D) Foxes | Answer is A. Man | |
Episodes of depression in major depressive disorder tend to:: (A) Increase in frequency with age, (B) Decrease in length with age, (C) Last for about 9 months when treated, (D) Have a rapid onset | Answer is A. Episodes of major depression tend to increase in both length and frequency with age. When treated, episodes of major depression last for about 3 months. If untreated, depression lasts from 6 to 12 months. Episodes of major depression often have a gradual onset and occur an average of 5 to 6 times over a 20... | |
Which of the following does cause epidemic kerato conjuctivitis -: (A) Adenovirus, (B) Enterovirus, (C) Coxsakie virus, (D) Herpes virus | Answer is A. adeno virus cause epidemic keratoconjuctivitis REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.482 | |
Sacrococcygeal teratoma is associated with:: (A) Meningocele, (B) Cardiac detects, (C) Hepatic cysts, (D) Cystic adenoid malformation | Answer is A. Ans: A (Menigocele) Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease: 8th editionExplanation:Sacrococcygeal TeratomasMost common teratomas of childhoodAccounts for 40% or more of casesFour times more common in girlsApproximately 10% of sacrococcygeal teratomas are associated with congenital anomaliesPri... | |
Which poisoning causes 'pink disease'?: (A) Arsenic, (B) Mercury, (C) Copper, (D) Lead | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Mercury Pink disease or Acrodvniao It is thought to be an idiosyncratic hypersensitivity reaction particularly seen in children. This can be caused by chronic mercury exposure in any form usually in children. The onset is insidious with anorexia, insomnia, sweating, skin rash and photophob... | |
What is the treatment of threshold ROP?: (A) laser photocoagulation, (B) slow reduction in oxygen, (C) retinal reattachment, (D) antioxidants | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' i.e. Laser Photocoagulation Threshold disease in ROP is defined as stage 3+ ROP in Zones 1 or 2 occupying at least five contiguous clock-hours or eight noncontiguous clock-hours of retina.Treatment of threshold disease is Laser Photocoagulation.'Laser therapy has largely replaced cryotherapy bec... | |
Diplopia is usually seen in ?: (A) Paralytic squint, (B) Non-paralytic squint, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Paralytic squint | |
Which is the most common lymphoma in adults?: (A) Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL), (B) Hodgkin lymphoma, (C) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), (D) Follicular lymphoma | Answer is C. DLBCL - Most common lymphoma in adults Follicular lymphoma - Most common indolent lymphoma in adults Chronic lymphocytic leukemia - Most common leukemia in adults | |
Mooning is a form of: (A) Exhibitionism, (B) Transvestism, (C) Voyeurism, (D) Eonism | Answer is A. Flashing: The act of momentarily exposing or revealing sexual body pa by quickly moving the clothing. Streaking: The act of running naked through a public place. Mooning: The act of displaying one's bare buttocks, by lowering the pants and bending over | |
All are seen in vitamin C deficiency except:: (A) Swollen bleeding gums, (B) Delayed wound healing, (C) Anemia, (D) Infeility | Answer is D. Vitamin C/Ascorbic acid deficiency leads toScurvy Clinical manifestation of scurvy: Swollen and bleeding gums Subcutaneous bleeding and brushing into skin/joints Delayed wound healing Anemia Weakness. | |
A person had injury to right upper limb he is not able to extend fingers but able to extend wrist and elbow. Nerve injured is -: (A) Radial, (B) Median, (C) Ulnar, (D) Posterior interosseus | Answer is D. Posterior interosseous emerges from the supinator on the back of the forearm .Here it lies between the superficial and deep muscles.At the lower border of the extensor pollicis brevis, it passes deep to extensor pollicis longus.it then runs on the posterior surface of the interosseous membrane up to the wr... | |
The patient with least risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents during induction of anesthesia is:-: (A) Markedly obese and NPO for eight hours, (B) Fed coffee four hours before elective surgery, (C) Scheduled for elective cesarean delivery and NPO for 20 hours, (D) NPO for four hours after a full meal | Answer is A. NPO is same for obese and normal. NPO guidelines - 6hrs for liquid and semisolid, 2 hours NPO for clear fluids. Subset of patients who are at high risk for aspiration - pregnant women, morbidly obese (rapid sequence induction), full fatty meal - 8 hours NPO. | |
Which of the following enzyme uses citrate in fatty acid synthesis?: (A) Aconitase, (B) Citrate synthase, (C) Malic enzyme, (D) ATP citrate lyase | Answer is B. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | |
Which of the following changes does not occur in malignant hypeension :: (A) Peticheal Haemorrhages on coical surface, (B) Fibrinoid necrosis of aerioles, (C) Intimal concentric thickening, (D) Hyaline aeriosclerosis | Answer is D. Answer is D (Hyaline Aeriosclerosis) : Hyaline aeriosclerosis is a feature of Benign Nephrosclerosis associated with benign phase of Hypeension. It is not a ,feature of Malignant Hypeension. | |
Which of the following nerves has the best prognosis for repair after injury -: (A) Ulnar, (B) Radial, (C) Median, (D) Lateral popliteal | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Radial nerveRecovery potential after nerve repairExcellent :- Radial, Musculocutaneous, femoral, digital nervesModerate :- Median, Ulnar, TibialPoor :- Common peroneal (lateral popliteal) | |
Treatment in post operative shivering?: (A) Pethidine, (B) Piritramide, (C) Methadone, (D) Pentazocine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pethidine Post-anaesthesia shivering (PAS) Post anaesthesia (post operative) shivering occurs in 40% of patients recovering from general anaesthesia. Some time it is preceded by central hypothermia and peripheral vasoconstriction, indicating that it is a thermoregulatory mechanism Pethidi... | |
Birbeck’s granules in the cytoplasm are seen in:: (A) Langerhans cells, (B) Mast cells, (C) Myelocytes, (D) Thrombocytes | Answer is A. Birbeck granules are rod Shaped/Tennis-racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles with a central linear density and a striated appearance.
They are diagnostic microscopic feature in Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Histiocytosis X) | |
Crural index is:: (A) Length of tibia/femur x 100, (B) Length of radius/humerus x 100, (C) Length of fibula/tibia x 100, (D) Length of radius/ulna x 100 | Answer is A. Ans. Length of tibia/femur x 100 | |
Primordial prevention is done to prevent development of ?: (A) Disease, (B) Risk factors, (C) Impairment, (D) Disability | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Risk factors LEVELS OF PREVENTION There are four levels of prevention :? Primordial prevention Primary prevention Secondary prevention Teiary prevention Primordial Level of Prevention: Is primary prevention (see below) in purest sense It is the prevention of the emergence or development o... | |
Anakinra is a -: (A) IL - 1 antagonist, (B) IL - 2 antagonist, (C) IL - 6 antagonist, (D) IL - 10 antagonist | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-1 antagonisto Anakinra is an IL-1 antagonist.o It is used for some rare syndromes dependent on IL-1 production :Neonatal - onset inflammatory diseaseMuckle - Wells syndromeFamilial cold urticariaSystemic juvenile - onset inflammatory arthritisRA | |
The gold standard for the definitive diagnosis of the extrahepatic biliary atresia is: (A) Per operative cholangiography, (B) Hepatobiliary scintigraphy, (C) Alkaline phosphatase level, (D) Liver biopsy | Answer is D. Biliary atresia Evaluation of biliary anatomy begins with ultrasound Other imaging modalities such as HIDA scintigraphy, MRCP and ERCP have been used with varying success Although these are useful adjuncts, liver biopsy is gold standard for the diagnosis of biliary atresia and can safely be done percutaneo... | |
All of the following passes through lesser sciatic foramen, except ?: (A) Pudendal nerve, (B) Internal pudendal vessels, (C) Nerve to obturator internus, (D) Inferior gluteal vessels | Answer is D. The lesser sciatic foramen is formed by the lesser sciatic notch of the pelvic bone, the ischial, the sacrospinous ligament and the sacrotuberous ligament. It transmits the following structures: The tendon of the Obturator internus Internal pudendal vessels Pudendal nerve Nerve to the obturator internus | |
Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of:September 2009: (A) Hereditary spherocytosis, (B) Sickle cell anemia, (C) Thalassemia, (D) Iron deficiency anemia | Answer is A. Ans. A: Hereditary spherocytosisThe normal red blood cell is a relatively impermeable biconcave disc which maintains osmotic equilibrium with the surrounding medium. As the surrounding medium becomes hypotonic, fluid will be taken into the cell to maintain stability. Eventually under very hypotonic conditi... | |
A three year old child is brought to the emergency depament having just ingested a large overdose of an antihistaminic drug. This drug is a weak base capable of entering most tissues including the brain. On physical examination the hea rate is 100/ minute, blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and the respiratory rate is 20/ ... | Answer is A. This question can be solved by the knowledge that basic drugs are ionized in the acidic medium and vice-a-versa. This antihistaminic drug is a weak base and will be highly ionized in the acidic urine. As ionized drugs cannot be reabsorbed in the nephron, urinary acidifying agents like NH4Cl will accelerate... | |
A patient on t/t for psychiatric disorder takes overdose of a drug, develops bradycardia, hypotension, decreased sweating and salivation. The likely drug is: (A) Amitryptilline, (B) Lithium, (C) Selegiline, (D) Amphetamine | Answer is A. A i.e. Amitryptilline | |
Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia -: (A) Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis, (B) Nocturnal frequency, (C) Recurrent urinary tract infection, (D) Voiding bladder pressures > 50 cm of water | Answer is C. Absolute indications for surgical treatment of BPH 1) Refractory urine retention (failing at least one attempt at catheter removal 2) Recurrent UTI from BPH 3) Bladder stones d/t BPH 4) Renal insufficiency d/t BPH 5) Large bladder diveicula secondary to BPH 6) Recurrent gross hematuria from BPH Ref : Cambe... | |
Phenylketonuria caused by deficiency of: (A) Tyrosine transaminase, (B) Tyrosine hydroxylase, (C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase, (D) Phenylketonuria hydroxylase | Answer is C. (C) Phenyalanine hydroxylase # Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder inherited from a person's parents.> It is due to mutations in the PAH gene which results in low levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.> This results in the build up of dietary phenylalanine to potentially toxic levels. It is auto... | |
Telefono is:: (A) Pulling of hair, (B) Beating on soles, (C) Beating on ears, (D) Beating on fingers | Answer is C. Simultaneous beating of both ears with the palms of the hands is known as TELEFONO. This may lead to rupture of the tympanic membrane causing pain, bleeding and hearing loss. It is difficult to detect this. The external ear may also get torn during pulling of the ears. | |
All of the following are direct causes of maternal moality except:: (A) APH, (B) PPH, (C) Hea disease, (D) Eclampsia | Answer is C. Ans. is c i.e. Hea disease | |
who introduced ECT: (A) manfred bleuler, (B) moerin seligman, (C) lucio bini, (D) freud | Answer is C. HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal... | |
MELD score includes all except: (A) S. bilirubin, (B) S. creatinine, (C) Prothrombin time, (D) Serum albumin | Answer is D. Serum albumin is not a part of MELD SCORE.
It is a part of child - pugh classification. | |
All of the following are carcinogenic except: (A) H. pylori, (B) Hepatitis B virus, (C) E.B. virus, (D) Campylobacter | Answer is D. None | |
All are hypercoagulable states, except ?: (A) Protein C resistance, (B) Protein S deficiency, (C) Antiphospholipid antibody, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is 'None' o All are hypercoagulable states. | |
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children:: (A) Mumps, (B) Arbovirus, (C) HSV, (D) Enterovirus | Answer is D. Answer is D (Enterovirus): Enteroviruses are the most common cause of viral meningoencephalitis. Arboviruses, HSV and Mumps virus are all impoant agents associated with viral meningoencephalitis, but Enteroviruses are the most commonly associated agents and the answer of choice. 'Enteroviruses are the most... | |
Use of this instrument during examination of the ear provides all except: (A) Magnification, (B) In suctioning of middle ear secretions, (C) Assessing Tympanic Membrane Movement, (D) Removal of Foreign body | Answer is D. None | |
Pneumocystic carnii infects:: (A) Human, (B) Monkey, (C) Rat, (D) Cats | Answer is C. Ans. c. Rat | |
All of the following are true about Roll back malaria except:(AIIMS November 2013, Nov 2012): (A) Insecticide treated mosquito nets, (B) Strengthening health system, (C) Development of newer insecticide, (D) Training of health workers | Answer is C. Ans. c. Development of newer insecticide (Ref; Harrison 19/e p14,18/e p14 WHO Roll Back Malaria Document] HTM_ MAL 2005. 1101.pdf (Roll Back Malaria)Roll Back Malaria:Messages on malaria case management, intermittent preventive treatment during pregnancy and insecticide- treated netsQ (ITNs) were promoted ... | |
All are associated with EBV except -: (A) Infectious mononucleosis, (B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, (C) Oral hairy leukoplakia, (D) Epidermodysplasi | Answer is D. EBV causes nadopharyngeal carcinoma,oral hairy luekoplakia&infectious mononucleosis REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.475 | |
Single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status is: (A) Haemoglobin concentration, (B) Serum ion concentration, (C) Serum ferritin, (D) Serum transferrin saturation | Answer is C. Serum ferritin is the single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status.It reflects the size of Iron stores in the body. Values below 10 mcg/L indicate an absence of stored iron.Park 23e pg: 623 | |
Chandu 32 years male presents with abdominal pain and vomitting. He also complain of some psychiatric symptoms & visual hallucination. Most likely diagnosis is: (A) Hypothyroidism, (B) Hypehyroidism, (C) Hysteria, (D) Intermittent Porphyria | Answer is D. D i.e. Intermittent porphyria | |
In ARDS, all are seen except :: (A) Dilated bronchioles, (B) Edema, (C) Fibrosis, (D) Alveolar damage | Answer is A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Aetiology and pathogenesis
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a diffuse neutrophilic alveolitis caused by a range of conditions and characterised by bilateral radiographic infiltrates and hypoxaemia. Activated neutrophils are sequestered into the lungs and capi... | |
Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is –: (A) 20000, (B) 30000, (C) 40000, (D) 25000 | Answer is A. One PHC for every 30,000 rural population in the plains.
One PHC for every 20,000 population in hilly, tribal and backward areas. | |
Which of the following factor determines the destructive power of bullet after firing?: (A) Weight of bullet, (B) Shape of bullet, (C) Size of bullet, (D) Velocity of bullet | Answer is D. A bullet's ability to injure is directly related to its kinetic energy at the moment of impact. Kinetic energy i.e. E = mv2 /2 The kinetic energy is directly propoional to weight (mass) of the bullet and the square of its velocity. Thus a bullet traveling at twice the speed of a second bullet of equal weig... | |
Baroreceptor stimulation producesa) Decreased heart rate & BPb) Increased heart rate & BPc) Increased cardiac contractilityd) Decreased cardiac contractility: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is D. Baroreceptors are present in carotid sinus and aortic arch. Increase in BP activates them which results in decrease in the sympathetic discharge. This leads to decrease in cardiac contraction, heart rate and BP. | |
Which of the following anti–cancer drug is NOT 'S'–phase specific ?: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Mercaptopurine, (C) Ifosfamide, (D) Thioguanine | Answer is C. None | |
Dose of vitamin A prophytaxis given in age group 16 years -: (A) 2000 iu, (B) 20000 iu, (C) 200000 iu, (D) 100000 iu | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 200000 iu | |
The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as -: (A) Laplace's law, (B) Bell-Magendle's law, (C) Frank-Starling's law, (D) Weber-Fechner's law | Answer is B. (B) (Bell Magendie law's) (157 - Ganang 23rd)* Bell Magandie law - In the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motors (DS - VM)* Weber Fachner law - Magnitude of sensation felt in proportionate to the log of intensity of the stimulus**.* Law of pro jection states than no matter where ... | |
Bullet that leaves a visible mark in its flight so that person can see the path is: (A) Tandem bullet, (B) Tracer bullet, (C) Dum-dum bullet, (D) Incendiary bullet | Answer is B. Tracer bullet: It leaves a visible mark or 'trace' while in flight, so that the path of bullet can be seen . Dum - dum bullet: The nose of the bullet is not covered by jacket & exposed. It expands or mushrooms on striking the target, producing a large hole & more damage. Incendiary bullets: Incendiary bull... | |
Of the following which does not categorise under Rape? Sexual intercourse with :: (A) Wife below 15 years, (B) Wife above 15 years, (C) Women below 16 years, (D) Women above 20 years | Answer is D. B i.e. Wife above 20 | |
Congenital rubella syndrome - true is A/E?: (A) Microcephaly, (B) VSD, (C) Conduction defect, (D) All | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Conduction defect | |
Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in ?: (A) Digital block, (B) Spinal block, (C) Epidural block, (D) Regional anaesthesia | Answer is A. None | |
Mesencephalo-oculo-facial-angiomatosis is seen in:: (A) KTW Syndrome, (B) NF-1 & 2, (C) Sturge-Weber syndrome, (D) Wyburn-Mason syndrome | Answer is D. D i.e. Wyburn-Mason syndrome - Wyburn-Mason syndrome (or Bonnet-Dechaume Blanc syndrome mesencephalo-oculo-facial or mesencephalo-optico retinal angiomatosis syndrome) is characterized by neuro (mesencephalo) - optico / oculo / retinal - facial angiomatosis (vascular-malformations). - Wyburn-Mason syndrome... | |
The following drug has anxiolytic action with least sedation: (A) Buspirone, (B) Triazolam, (C) Alprazolam, (D) Chlordiazepoxide | Answer is A. Features of Buspirone Non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic agentDoes not produce significant sedation or cognitive/functional impairmentDoes not interact with BZD receptor or modify GABAergic transmissionDoes not produce tolerance or physical dependence Does not suppress BZD or barbiturate withdrawal syndrome Has... | |
Age of gestation when ovaries and testis are first distinguishable :: (A) 4 weeks, (B) 8 weeks, (C) 12 weeks, (D) 16 weeks | Answer is B. 8 weeks | |
The testis descends the inguinal canal during...month.: (A) 5th, (B) 6th, (C) 7th, (D) 8th | Answer is C. C i.e. 7th | |
Index measuring deprivation in basic dimensions of human development: (A) Human povey index, (B) Human development index, (C) Physical quality of life index, (D) Development deprivation index | Answer is A. The Human Povey Index (HPI) was considered to better reflect the extent of deprivation to the HDI. In 2010 it was supplanted by the UN&;s Multidimensional Povey Index. | |
Cells occurring in greatest number in pulp are: (A) Cementoblasts, (B) Fibroblasts, (C) Osteoblasts, (D) Ameloblasts | Answer is B. None | |
Keratocyst has all of the following features except:: (A) It is more common in mandible, (B) May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid, (C) Low recurrence rate, (D) Expansion of bone clinically seen | Answer is C. None | |
A child with vesicoureteric reflex of grade 2 comes to OPD. What is the
preferred treatment method: (A) Antibiotics, (B) Observation, (C) Sting operation, (D) Ureteric reimplantation | Answer is A. Prophalyctatic antibiotics is given to all vesicoureteric reflex pts. | |
A 60 yr old person presents with a mass located at central bronchus causing distal bronchiectasis and recurrent pneumonia. Which of the following findings is expected from biopsy of the mass?: (A) Abundant osteoid matrix formation, (B) Contains all three germ layers, (C) Spindle cells with abundant stromal matrix, (D) ... | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Small round cells and hyperchromatic nuclei with nuclear moulding(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 715-717)This typical presentation of 60 yr/M presenting with a mass located at central bronchus causing distal bronchiectasis and recurrent pneumonia is suggestive of small cell Carcinoma.In Small cell Ca lung, l... | |
patient has decreased weight, need for thinness, the diagnosis is: (A) refeeding syndrome, (B) anorexia nervosa, (C) metabolic syndrome, (D) bulimia nervosa | Answer is B. Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Inte... | |
All cause viral hepatitis except -: (A) Measles, (B) EBV, (C) Rhinovirus, (D) Reovirus | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rhinovirus Impoant viruses causing hepatitis:? 1) Hepatotropic viruses : HAV, HBV, HCV, HD V, HEV. 2) Herpes viruses : CMV, EBV, HSV-1, VZV. 3) Flaviviruses : Yellow fever, dengue fever. 4) Filoviruses : Marburg virus, Ebola virus. 5) Occasinal causes Measles virus, adenovirus, Echoviruse... | |
Krukenberg tumor is associated mostly with which cancer?: (A) Stomach, (B) Breast, (C) Liver, (D) Pancreas | Answer is A. Krukenberg tumor is a distinctive bilateral tumor metastatic to the ovaries by the transcoelomic spread. The tumor is generally secondary to a gastric carcinoma but other primary sites where mucinous carcinomas occur (e.g. colon, appendix, and breast) may also produce Krukenberg tumor in the ovary. Rarely,... | |
All of the following are true about Nizatidine except: (A) It is a H2 blocker used in peptic ulcer disease, (B) It has 100% Bioavailability, (C) It also enhances gastric emptying, (D) It can also lead to tachycardia | Answer is D. Nizatidine is a H2 blocker with anticholinesterase activity, thus enhances gastric emptying and can also cause bradycardia. | |
The Halstead Retain battery involves all except :: (A) Finger oscillation, (B) Constructional praxis, (C) Rhythm, (D) Actual performance | Answer is B. In Halstead - Reitan battery test, the battery is composed of ten tests :
Category test.
Tactual performance test.
Rhythm test.
Finger - oscillation test.
Speech-sound perception test.
Trail - making test.
Critical flicker frequency.
Time sense test.
Aphasia screening test.
Sensory - perceptual test. | |
After mandibulectomy, muscle preventing falling back of tongue -: (A) Genioglossus, (B) Hyoglossus, (C) Palatopharyngeus, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about post - traumatic stress disorder?: (A) The onset of illness may occur many months after the traumatic event, (B) Individual debriefing and early counselling are most effective method of treatment, (C) Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing is effective, (D) There is high ... | Answer is B. Treatment of choice for PTSD is psychotherapy in the form of cognitive behavior therapy often in combination with pharmacotherapy.
There is no evidence that single - session individual psychological briefing is a useful treatment for PTSD.
Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is an effectiv... | |
Which of the following malignancy shows least lymph node involvement:: (A) Supraglottic, (B) Subglottic, (C) Glottic cancer, (D) Ca nasopharynx | Answer is C. Ans: c (Glottic cancer) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 372; 4th ed, p. 286No lymphatics in vocal cords so nodal metastasis are practically never seen in cord lesions unless the disease spreads beyond the membraneous cord. SupraglottisGlottisSubglottisSiteEpiglottisAryepiglottic foldArytenoidVentricular bandsVent... | |
Complex polysaccharides are converted to glucose and absorbed by the help of:: (A) Na+k+ATPase, (B) Sucrase, (C) Enterokinase, (D) Carboxypeptidase | Answer is B. Ans: b (Sucrase) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p.Sucrase or invert sugar converts sucrose (which is a complex polysaccharide) into 1 molecule of glucose and 1 molecule of fructose.Na+k+ ATPase is a membrane protein.Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme in intestinal mucosa which will activate trypsinogen to tryp... | |
The most prominent toxic effect associated with acetaminophen use is: (A) Respiratory alkalosis, (B) Haemorrhage, (C) Hepatic necrosis, (D) Gastric Ulceration | Answer is C. None | |
A 47-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis. Radiographic examination reveals a pituitary tumor involving the cavernous sinus, confirming the initial diagnosis. During physical examination it is suspected that the right abducens nerve of the patient has been damaged by the t... | Answer is B. (b) Source: GAS 849-852, 855; GA 450, 465, 536The right abducens nerve innervates the right lateral rectus, which mediates outward movement (abduction) of the right eye. Inward movement is accomplished by the medial rectus, supplied by the oculomotor nerve. Downward movement in the midline is accomplished ... | |
False about osteoahritis is ?: (A) Involves synol joints, (B) Progressive softening of the aicular cailage, (C) It is an inflammatory ahritis, (D) Marginal osteophytes are produced | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is an inflammatory ahritis Osteoahritis (OA) is a chronic disorder of synol joints in which there is progressive softening and disintegration of aicular cailage accompanied by new growth of cailage and bone at the joint margins (osteophytes), cyst formation and sclerosis in the subchon... | |
Orange-skin cornea results due to:: (A) Chalcosis, (B) Siderosis, (C) Ammonia burn, (D) Mustard gas | Answer is D. Ans. Mustard gas | |
Fracture of the hyoid bone results from all except :: (A) Throttling, (B) Hanging, (C) Choking, (D) Ligature strangulation | Answer is C. C i.e. Choking - Burking is a method of homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxiaQ. In smothering lips, gums, tongue, inner side of mouth & nose may show bruising or lacerationQ. Asphyxial signs (eg congestion, cynosis & patechiae) are severe except when the head & face is enclosed in plastic bag. In smo... | |
Accordian sign is seen in: (A) Pseudomembranous colitis, (B) Intussusception, (C) Ileocecal TB, (D) Ischemic colitis | Answer is A. The 'Accordion sign' (also known as 'conceina sign') is seen on CT examinations of the abdomen Refers to the similarity between the thickened oedematous wall of Pseudomembranous colitis and the folds of an accordion. This appearance is the result of hyperaemic enhancing mucosa stretched over markedly thick... | |
Melting temperature of DNA is directly proportional to: (A) GC Pairing, (B) AT Pairing, (C) Length of DNA, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. GC pairs have 3 hydrogen bonds and therefore melt at higher temperature compared to AT pairs which have 2 hydrogen bonds. | |
Which is the latest antiviral drug for bronchitis due to RSV-: (A) Ribavarin, (B) Acyclovir, (C) Amantadine, (D) Idoxuridine | Answer is A. None | |
Phase 2 of Damage control surgery occurs at: (A) Pre hospital management, (B) Resuscitation in ICU, (C) Resuscitation in operating room, (D) Definitive repair | Answer is B. Deadly triad of trauma Following a trauma protracted surgery in physiologically unstable patient, the three factors that carry moality are Hypothermia Acidosis Coagulopathy Hence originated a phenomenon - DAMAGE CONTROL SURGERY Phases of damage control surgery Phase1 :Initial exploration Phase 2: Secondary... | |
Romana's sign is seen in -: (A) Toxoplasma, (B) Trypanosoma cruzi, (C) Loaloa, (D) Wuchereria | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trypanosoma cruzi Romana's signo The classic finding in acute Chagas disease, which consists of unilateral painless edema of the palpebrae and periocular tissues - can result when the conjunctiva is the portal of entry.o These initial local signs may be follwed by malaise, fever, anorexia... | |
30 Yr old man which is most likely organism causing infection of epididymis -: (A) E.coli, (B) Gonococci, (C) Chlamydia, (D) Ureaplasma ureolyticum | Answer is C. None | |
An elderly diabetic with excruciating pain in ear, appearance of granulation in meatus, skull base infection with facial paralysis should be treated with: (A) Penicillin, (B) Ciprofloxacin, (C) 2nd generation ciphalosporin, (D) Erythromycin | Answer is A. All clinical features are suggestive of malignant otitis externa, an inflammatory condition of the external ear. Malignant otitis externa (also k/a Necrotizing external otitis) Malignant otitis externa is an inflammatory condition of the external ear usually spreading deep to cause osteomyelitis of tempora... | |
Meniere's disease is characterized by all except -: (A) Conductive deafness, (B) Sensorineural deafness, (C) Vertigo, (D) Tinnitus | Answer is A. None | |
Digoxin toxicity may result from the concurrent administration of digoxin with all of the following drugs EXCEPT: (A) Quinidine, (B) Hydrochlorothiazide, (C) Triamterene, (D) Furosemide | Answer is C. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that may protect against diuretic-induced digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may be caused by drugs that increase serum digoxin levels or increase the binding of digoxin to its receptor, the sodium-potassium adenosine tn phosphatase (ATPase). Quinidine decreases ... | |
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated along with spironolactone: (A) Chlorothiazide, (B) Beta blockers, (C) ACE inhibitors, (D) Amlodipine | Answer is C. CONTRAINDICATIONS / PRECAUTIONS Adrenal insufficiency, anuria, diabetes mellitus, hyperkalemia, renal disease, renal failure, renal impairment. ... Acid/base imbalance, metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis. ... Ascites, biliary cirrhosis, hepatic disease. ... Menstrual irregularity... | |
A 3-year-old male has come for a routine dental check up. Intra-oral examination reveals good oral hygiene and open proximal contacts. During previous dental appointments, he was cooperative. Which radiographic assessment should be done for this patient?: (A) No radiographic assessment., (B) Bitewing Radiographs, (C) I... | Answer is A. The American Dental Association (ADA), the American Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), the European Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (EAPD), and other organizations have published criteria that are meant to guide the dental professional in decision-making regarding appropriate radiographic imaging (Tab... | |
First to recover from post-operative ileus:: (A) Small intestine, (B) Stomach, (C) Colon, (D) None | Answer is A. POST-OPERATIVE ILEUS - Following most abdominal operations or injuries, the motility of GI tract is transiently impaired. - Proposed mechanisms responsible for this dysmotility are surgical stress-induced sympathetic reflexes, inflammatory response mediator release, and anesthetic / analgesic effects; each... | |
Watershed zone of large intestine ?: (A) Cecum, (B) Ascending colon, (C) Rectosigmoid, (D) Transverse colon | Answer is C. There are areas of colon with poor blood supply resulting from incomplete anastomosis of marginal aeries. These are watershed areas of colon and include :Splenic flexure (Griffith point) : Watershed area between superior mesenteric aery and inferior mesenteric aery.Rectosigmoid junction (Sudeck's point) : ... | |
Which one of the following is a relatively selective α2 adrenergic blocker with short duration of action ?: (A) Prazosin, (B) Yohimbine, (C) Terazosin, (D) Doxazosin | Answer is B. None | |
Oxidative deamination is catalyzed by ?: (A) Glutaminase, (B) Glutamine synthase, (C) Glutamate dehydrogenase, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glutamate dehydrogenase | |
Which of the following is indicated by the term 'mittelschmerz'?: (A) Fern pattern of cervical mucus, (B) Peritoneal irritation from corpus hemorrhagicum, (C) Rise of body temperature due to effect of progesterone, (D) LH surge before ovulation | Answer is B. The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming what is sometimes called a corpus hemorrhagicum. Minor bleeding from the follicle into the abdominal cavity may cause peritoneal irritation and fleeting lower abdominal pain ("mittelschmerz"). The granulosa and theca cel... | |
Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients: AIIMS 10: (A) GCS, (B) CT findings, (C) Age of the patient, (D) History | Answer is A. Ans. GCS | |
All the following are cyanotic hea disease except: (A) TOF, (B) PDA, (C) Tricuspid atresia, (D) Eisenmenger's complex | Answer is B. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1523 Patent ductus aeriosus is not classified as a cyanotic congenital heayh disease. PDA is an acyanotic hea disease with left to right shunt. | |
Aicular cailage is made up of-: (A) Type I collagen, (B) Type II collagen, (C) Type III collagen, (D) Type IV collagen | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Type H Collegen type Tissue distributionUbiquitous in hard & soft tissuesII & IX Cailage, interveebral disc, vitreousIn Hollow organs & soft tissuesIV Basement membraneV Blood vesselsVI Ubiquitous in microfibrilsVII Dermoepidemal junctionIX Cailage & VitrousNote : Amongst these type I, II... | |
Mechanism of action of the sulfonylureas is: (A) K+ ATP channel blocker, (B) Na ATP channel blocker, (C) Cl ATP channel blocker, (D) Ca ATP channel blocker. | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., K ATP channel blocker * Sulfonylurease provoke a brisk release of insulin from pancreas. They act on the so called "Sulfonylurea receptors" (SUR1) on pancreatic b-cell membrane - cause depolarization by reducing conductance of ATP sensitive K+ channels. This enhances influx of Ca+2 - degr... | |
Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in :: (A) Silicosis, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Cystic Fibrosis, (D) Asbestosis | Answer is D. Answer is D (Asbestosis): Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in Asbestosis. Silicosis, Sarcoidosis and Cystic Fibrosis are all associated with Upper Lobe Fibrosis Upper Lobe Fibrosis Fibrotic Disease Old Granulomatous Infection (Tuberculosis; Histoplasmosis; Coccidioidomycosis) Sarcoidosis Silicosis, Berylliosis ... | |
Which ocular muscle does NOT arises from apex of orbit: (A) Superior rectus, (B) Inferior rectus, (C) Superior oblique, (D) Inferior oblique | Answer is D. D. i.e. Inferior oblique | |
The cuspal inclines of the maxillary buccal cusps and the mandibular lingual cusps should be grounded if they are in deflective occlusal contact in:: (A) Working position only, (B) Balancing position only, (C) Both working and balancing positions, (D) Central position | Answer is A. None |
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