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Surgery for periductal mastitis -: (A) Hadfield's operation, (B) Patey's mastectomy, (C) Modified radical mastectomy, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
The medicolegal impoance of postmoem lividity is all except - (UP 07): (A) Cause of death elsewhere, (B) Time since death, (C) Manner of death, (D) Position of the body at the death | Answer is C. The postmoem hypostasis helps to estimate time since death with its extent, is a sign of death, posture and moving of body at death by its fixation. Cause of death can be determined from its colour. Dr.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 27th edition pg. 78. | |
Asherman syndrome is due to :: (A) Overdose drugs, (B) Postaboion curettage, (C) Speticemia, (D) Contraceptal pills | Answer is B. Postaboion curettage | |
All of the following are predominant motor neuropathy except -: (A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculo neuropathy, (B) Porphyric neuropathy, (C) Lead intoxication, (D) Arsenic intoxication | Answer is D. None | |
A three years old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is -: (A) Stricture urethra, (B) Neurogenic bladder, (C) Urethral calculus, (D) Posterior urethral valve | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e. Posterior urethral valve Poor urinary stream in 3 years old boy suggests urinary tract obstruction (usually infravesical) and the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child is posterial urethral valve. Posterior urethral valve These are symmetrical folds of urothelium extendi... | |
Pulled elbow means -: (A) Fracture of head of radius, (B) Subluxation of head of radius, (C) Fracture dislocation of elbow, (D) Fracture ulna | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Subluxation of head of radius Pulled elbowo If a young child is lifted by the wrist, the head of the radius may be pulled partly out of the annular ligament, i.e., subluxation of the head of the radius.o Ir occurs when forearm is pronated, elbow is extended and longitudinal traction is ap... | |
Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water-: (A) 0.2-0.5 mg/L, (B) 0.5-0.8 mg/L, (C) 0.8-1.2 mg/L, (D) 1.2-2.0 mg/L | Answer is B. Ans, is 'b' i.e., 0[?]5 - 0[?]8 mg/L o The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water in the country is accepted as 0-5 to 0-8 mg.; Liter. -Park o The maximum permissible limit is T5 mg/L it. | |
A 95-year-old woman touches a pot of boiling water. Within 2 hours, she has marked erythema of the skin of the fingers of her hand, and small blisters appear on the finger pads. This has led to which one of the following inflammatory responses?: (A) Fibrinous inflammation, (B) Granulomatous inflammation, (C) Purulent i... | Answer is D. Serous inflammation is the mildest form of acute inflammation. A blister is a good example of serous inflammation. It is associated primarily with exudation of fluid into the sub-corneal or subepidermal space. Because the injury is mild, the fluid is relatively protein-poor. A protein-rich exudate results ... | |
A 35 years old man presented with dry cough and rusty coloured sputum; He has history of eating in chinese restraunt very often with consumption of crabs often; What is the probable causative agent in this condition?: (A) Diphyllobothrium latum, (B) Pneumocystis jirovecii, (C) Paragonimus westermani, (D) Strongyloides ... | Answer is C. from above mentioned clinical scenerion Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke) is moste likely to be causitive organism:- Paragonimus westermani first intermediate host- snail 2nd intermediate host - crab in crab metacercarie larva which is cyst like stage is seen. It causes Red Brown sputum or endemic hemopt... | |
Hobnail pattern is seen in which type of RCC: (A) Clear cell, (B) Papillary, (C) Chromophobe, (D) Collecting duct | Answer is D. Renal cell carcinoma *Renal cancers are mostly sporadic, except for a 4% cases which appear familial *Familial renal cancers are due to mutation of VHL and MET genes*98% of all renal cancers (sporadic and familial) are due to VHL mutation encoded in chr3p*Most common cause of familial papillary renal cell ... | |
Treatable causes of dementia are -a) Alzheimer's ds.b) Hypothyroidismc) Multi-infarct dementia d) SDH (subdural h'ge) e) Hydrocephalus: (A) abc, (B) ade, (C) bde, (D) bce | Answer is C. Perhaps the use of word “treatable” is inappropriate here since all the types of dementia can be “treated”. The examiner most likely wants to ask the types which can be “reversed” or “cured” | |
Normal axial length of the eye -: (A) 18mm, (B) 20 mm, (C) 24mm, (D) 28 mm | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 24 mm o The length of the eyeball is approximately 24 mm, So the distances from the cornea / crystalline lens to the retina and the focal length of optical rays focused by the comea/crystalline lens propagating in the vitreous humor and imaging on the retina, are also about 24 mm.Dimensio... | |
The dose of radiation for point A for early and locally advancing cervical cancer during brachytherapy according to ABS guidelines is:: (A) 70-75Gy- 75-80Gy, (B) 75-75Gy- 80-85Gy, (C) 80-85Gy- 85-90Gy, (D) 85-90Gy- 90-95Gy | Answer is C. (Refer: John Hopkins’ Manual of Obstetrics & Gynecology, 4th edition, pg no: 554)
Brachytherapy of CA Cervix | |
All are tumor markers of HCC except: (A) Neurotensin, (B) AFP, (C) CA - 19-9, (D) PIVKA-2 | Answer is C. Tumor markers PIVKA Glypican-3 AFP fractions (AFP-L3) Neurotensin Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1458-1463 | |
The posterior cord of the Brachial plexus contains all except:: (A) Long thoracic nerve of Bell, (B) Axillary, (C) Radial, (D) Upper subscapular | Answer is A. Ans: A (Long thoracic nerve of Bell) Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 40th edition, pg.820 Explanation: Lateral cord Lateral pectoral C5, 6. 7 Museulocu taneous C5, 6. 7 Lateral root of median C(5), 6, 7 Medial cord (M4U) Medial pectoral C8. T1 Medial cutaneous of forearm C8. Tl Medial cutaneous of arm C8. T1 Ulnar C(... | |
Mad Cow Disease has been highly publicized in Great Britain. This disease, which is similar to scrapie, is caused by: (A) A prion, (B) A virus, (C) Rickettsiae, (D) An autoimmune reaction | Answer is A. Mad Cow Disease is related to both scrapie in sheep and bovine spongiform encephalopathy virus. The fear in Great Britain is the potential for acquiring Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, which is a slowly progressive neurodegenerative disease. Theoretically, such acquisition could be through ingestion of beef fro... | |
True about Bater&;s syndrome are all except: (A) Hyperkalemic alkalosis, (B) Presents in neonate with ototoxicity have Bain gene mutation, (C) Decreased K+ absorption from thick descending loop, (D) Autosomal recessive | Answer is A. Bater syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkosis , resulting from excessive chloride, potassium and sodium wasting in thick ascending loop of Henle . Reference : Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 501 | |
All are feature(s) of Beckwidth-Wide man syndrome except:: (A) Omphalocele, (B) Macrosomia, (C) Hyperglycemia, (D) Visceromegaly | Answer is C. Answer- C. HyperglycemiaBeckwidth- Wiedemann syndrome is an overgrowth syndrome that is characterized by visceromegaly, macroglossia, macrosomia,mphalocele and hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia. | |
Which of the following has to be present for diagnosis of major depressive disorder: (A) Loss of interest or pleasure, (B) Recurrent suicidal tendency, (C) Insomnia, (D) Indecisiveness | Answer is A. In typical depressive episodes of all three varieties described below (mild, moderate, and severe), the individual usually suffers from depressed mood, loss of interest and enjoyment, and reduced energy leading to increased fatigability and diminished activity. Reference: International classification of di... | |
Which of the following is/are true of blunt renal trauma?: (A) Blunt renal trauma and penetrating renal injuries are managed similarly, (B) Blunt renal trauma must be evaluated by contrast studies using either IVP or CT, (C) Blunt renal trauma requires exploration only when the patient exhibits hemodynamic instability,... | Answer is C. Renal trauma general management - Only those who have gross hematuria need undergo contrast studies. Microscopic hematuria is no longer an indication for contrast evaluation. Patients who have blunt renal trauma need to undergo exploration only if they are hemodynamically unstable. Conservative management ... | |
All of the following can lead to increased Intra cranial pressure accept -: (A) Meningitis, (B) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage, (C) Subdural hemorrhage, (D) Migraine | Answer is D. Answer-D. MigraineCommon causes include-Aneurysm rupture and subarachnoid hemorrhageBrain tumorEncephalitisHead injuryHydrocephalus (increased fluid around the brain)Hypeensive brain hemorrhageIntraventricularhemorrhageMeningitisSubdural hematomaStatus epilepticusStroke | |
All of the following are features of Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis (HLH), except:: (A) Fever, (B) Splenomegaly, (C) Hyperferritinemia, (D) Hyperfibrinogenemia | Answer is D. Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a reactive condition marked by cytopenias and signs and symptoms of systemic inflammation related to macrophage activation. For this reason, it is also sometimes referred to as macrophage activation syndrome. Some forms are familial and may appear early in life, ... | |
All are Narcotic drug as per NDPS (National Drug Psychotropic Substances Act) EXCEPT:: (A) Marijuana, (B) Ketamine, (C) Cannabis, (D) Heroine | Answer is B. ANSWER:(B)KetamineREF: Textbook Of Forensic Medicine And Toxicology: Principles And Practice By Vij 4th ed page 566, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) A... | |
Halban's disease is due to: (A) Persistent corpus luteum, (B) Deficient corpus luteum, (C) Persistent trophoblast, (D) Deficient trophoblast | Answer is A. Halban's disease: Rare, self-limiting process. Also called Irregular shedding endometrium Due to persistent corpus luteum due to incomplete withdrawal of LH even on 26 in day of cycle. The corpus luteum continues to secret progesterones Menstruation comes on time, is prolonged but not heavy. Slight bleedin... | |
The RPR test uses VDRL antigen containing fine: (A) Carbon paicles, (B) Iodine paicles, (C) Silver ions, (D) Sodium ions | Answer is A. The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is a macroscopic, nontreponemal flocculation card test used to screen for syphilis. RPR antigen is prepared from a modified VDR antigen suspension containing choline chloride to eliminate the need to heat inactivate serum, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) to enhance... | |
Human metapneumovirus is structurally similar to:: (A) Influenza virus, (B) Respiratory syncytial virus, (C) Measles virus, (D) Rubella virus | Answer is B. Ans. b. Respiratory syncytial virus | |
What is the mechanism of action of Fluconazole?: (A) Inhibits fungal mitosis, (B) Inhibits lanosterol 14 demethylase, (C) Inhibits squalene epoxidase, (D) Inhibit ß1,3 glucan synthase | Answer is B. Ref. KDT. Page. 793
Fluconazole
They inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme ‘lanosterol 14-demethylase’ and thus impair ergosterol synthesis leading to a cascade of membrane abnormalities in the fungus.
lower affinity for mammalian CYP450 enzymes and lesser propensity to inhibit mammalian sterol synthe... | |
Which of the following is the most common benign neoplasm of liver: (A) Hepatic adenoma, (B) Cavernous hemangioma, (C) Lipoma, (D) Nodular regenerative hyperplasia | Answer is B. Most common benign neoplasm is cavernous hemangioma
Most common hepatic neoplasm is metastasis
Most common primary malignant tumor is Hepatocellular carcinoma. | |
A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm%, WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis ?: (A) Thalassemia, (B) Sickle cell anemia, (C) Aplastic anemia, (D) Anemia of chronic disease | Answer is C. Answer- C. Aplastic anemiaThe patient in question is having Pancytopenia (anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia) - Feature of Aplastic anemia. | |
Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult cells do not divide -: (A) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult, (B) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells, (C) Proteinase is absent in fetus, (D) Absence of CD kinase | Answer is A. A cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor protein is a protein which inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase. Several function as tumor suppressor genes. Cell cycle progression is negatively controlled by cyclin-dependent kinases inhibitors (called CDIs, CKIs or CDKIs). CDIs are involved in cell cycle arrest at the G1 ... | |
Which aery does not contribute to little's area:: (A) Anterior ethmoidal aery, (B) Septalbrach of facial aery, (C) Sphenopalatine aery, (D) Posterior ethmoidal aery | Answer is D. Little's area-Anteroinferior pa of nasal septum- formed by- anterior ethmoidal aery,septal branch of superior labial aery,septal brach of sphenopalatine aery,greater palatine aery. Ref.Dhingra 6/e,p 176. | |
HSV 2 causes:: (A) Genital herpes, (B) Genital warts, (C) Herpes zoster, (D) Genital ulcer | Answer is A. Ans: a (Genital herpes) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 113Heipes genitalis is caused by HSV type 2. It is the most common DNA viral infection encountered in vulval disease.Symptoms: Tingling, itching, paraesthesia - vesicles - painful ulcers.Treatment: AcyclovirNote:Genital warts (condyloma accuminata) caused by H... | |
All of the following are anthropozoonosis except: (A) Rabies, (B) Plaque, (C) Anthrax, (D) Schistosomiasis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Schistosomiasis Zoonoses Zoonoses are diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between veebrate animal and man. The zoonoses may be classified according to the direction of transmission of disease : ? l. Anthropozoonoses Infection is transmitted to man from lower veebrate a... | |
A child with jaundice being given food intravenously. Which of the following can occur out of it –: (A) Infection, (B) Hyperglycemia, (C) Metabolic acidosis, (D) All of these | Answer is D. Complications of parentral nutrition in children
Infections
Liver dysfunction
Hyperglycemia
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperlipidemia
Electrolyte imbalance | |
The commonest site of surgical uretero-vaginal fistula is:: (A) Below infudibulopelvic ligament, (B) Below uterine aery in the mackenrodts ligament, (C) Vaginal angle, (D) Above uterine aery | Answer is B. B. i.e. Below uterine aery in Mackenrodt's ligament Maximum chances of ureteric injury is in hysterectomy while ligating uterine vessels in mackenrodt's ligament Ureter is also vulnerable to injury when ovarian vessels are being ligated during ovariectomy. | |
Chronic lymphoedema of the limb is predisposed to all of the following except -: (A) Thickening of the skin, (B) Recurrent soft tissue infections, (C) Marjolin' s ulcer, (D) Sarcoma | Answer is C. Morjolin's ulcer: - Refers to the development of malignant ulcers over chronic scars most commonly those from burns. Malignancy is usually a squamous cell carcinoma and has not been mentioned as a complication of lymphoedema.
Features of chronic lymphoedema of limb
Initially, the lymphoedema is soft and p... | |
What is normal range of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) for adequate glycaemic control in diabetic patient-: (A) 6% to 8 %, (B) 8 % to 10 %, (C) 4 % to 6 %, (D) 10 % to 12 % | Answer is A. normal Range in glycosylated haemoglobin 7% to 9 % for < 5 yrs 6 % to 8 % for > 5 yrs | |
Nephrotic range of proteinuria is: (A) > 30 mg/m2/hr, (B) > 40 mg/m2/hr, (C) > 2 gm/m2/24hrs, (D) > 4 gm/m2/24hrs | Answer is B. Nephrotic range of proteinuria is > 40 mg/m2/hr or > 1 gm/m2/24hrs. | |
Thyroxine is synthesized from which amino acid-: (A) Arginine, (B) Lysine, (C) Methionine, (D) Tyrosine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., TVrosine Thyroid hormones (Important facts)o Thyroid hormones are T4 (throxine) and T3 (Triiodothyroxine)o Thyroid hormones are synthesised from amino acid tyrosine.o Their synthesis is regulated by TSH, a hormone secreted by anterior pituitary.o T3 is the active form and T4 is converted ... | |
The normal time required to culture mycobacterium TB is :: (A) 4-8 weeks, (B) 2-3 weeks, (C) 6-10 weeks, (D) 21 days | Answer is A. M. tuberculosis 4-8 weeks is required before growth is detected. New methods have decreased the time required for bacteriologic confirmation of TB to 2-3 weeks. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1350 | |
True about Hematological change in Pregnancy: (A) Total blood volume increases 40% by term, (B) The hematocrit increases, (C) Red cell volume does not increase until 20 weeks, (D) Hematocrit increases due to an increased RBC volume relative to plasma volume | Answer is A. Hemoglobin concentration and Hematocrit decrease slightly during pregnancy. | |
Which of the following means of contraception is the best method to achieve Net Reproductive Rate (NRR)=1?: (A) IUCD, (B) Condoms, (C) Vasectomy, (D) Oral pills | Answer is C. NRR is the most significant indicator of feility. Sterilization accounts for 80% of effective couple protection and hence is the best method among the above choices. | |
Boundary of the Koch's triangle is not formed by?: (A) Tricuspid valve ring, (B) Coronary sinus, (C) Tendon of todaro, (D) Limbus fossa ovalis | Answer is D. Koch's Triangle is a triangle enclosed by the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve, the coronary sinus, and the membranous pa of the interatrial septum.Koch's triangle: Walter Karl Koch (1880-1962) was a distinguished German surgeon who discovered a triangular-shaped area in the right atrium of the hea th... | |
Prostaglandin was discovered from: (A) Tear, (B) Saliva, (C) Seminal fluid, (D) Blood | Answer is C. Prostaglandins were believed to be pa of the prostatic secretions, and eventually were discovered to be produced by the seminal vesicles. ... The biochemists Sune K. Bergstrom, Bengt I. Samuelsson and John R. Vane jointly received the 1982 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their research on prostag... | |
Which of the following is not a proinflammatory cytokine -: (A) IL 10, (B) IL 8, (C) IL 11, (D) TNF alpha | Answer is A. Cytokines
Proinflammatory Anti-inflammatory
o Major:- IL-1, o IL-4, IL-10, IL-13
TNF-alpha, IL-6
o Other:- IL-2, IL-4,
IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-11,
IL-12, IL-15, IL-21,
IL-23, IFN- gamma, GM-CSF
o Here, you can consider IL-4 as pro-infl... | |
Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother also died of the same condition. What is the mode of inheritance of kinky hair disease which is running in this family?: (A) X-linked recessive, (B) X-linked dominant, (C) Autosomal recess... | Answer is A. Menkes syndrome is an X linked recessive disorder characterized by a mutation in ATP7a or MNK gene encoding copper binding ATPase leading to deficient copper transpo and metabolism with subsequently low serum copper. Pili tori is the most common hair manifestation, showing flattening and twisting at 180 de... | |
Which is the principal virulence factor in Clostridium tetani: (A) Tetanolysin, (B) Tetanospasmin, (C) Tetanotactin, (D) Immobility factor | Answer is B. C.tetani produces two distinct toxins- a hemolysin(tetanolysin), and neurotoxin(tetanospasmin). Tetanospasmin: This is the toxin responsible for tetanus. This toxin acts pre-synaptically. The abolition of spinal inhibition causes an uncontrolled spread of impulses initiated anywhere in the central nervous ... | |
Most common radiation induced cancer:: (A) Thyroid Carcinoma, (B) Breast Carcinoma, (C) Leukemia, (D) Sarcomas | Answer is C. Leukemia is most common radiation induced cancer.
Others: Thyroid, Breast Carcinoma | |
Which of the following is a difference between herpangina and primary herpetic stomatitis:: (A) It is preceded by prodromal symptoms, (B) It is unilateral in nature, (C) Ulcers relationship seen on the anterior faucial pillars, (D) Viral etiology | Answer is C. None | |
Exposure to noise above--causes permanent loss of hearing:: (A) 85 dB, (B) 90 dB, (C) 100 dB, (D) 160 dB | Answer is D. 160 dB | |
Drug that may induce nail pigmentation - melanonychia:: (A) Retinoids, (B) Carbamazepine, (C) Tetracyclines, (D) Zidovudine | Answer is D. Anthracyclines, taxanes, fluorouracil, psoralens, and zidovudine may induce nail pigmentation through melanocyte stimulation in nail matrix resulting in melanonychia. It appears to be reversible and dose-dependent and appears 3-8 weeks after drug intake. | |
Inferior angle of scapula is at the level of?: (A) T4, (B) T5, (C) T6, (D) T7 | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) T7REF: Gray's Anatomy 30th edition page 819, Instant Anatomy by Robert H. Whitaker, Neil R. Borley 4th edition Page 199See APPENDIX- 9 below for "VERTEBRAL LEVELS"The scapula is a large, flat, triangular bone which lies on the posterolateral aspect of the chest wall, covering parts of the secon... | |
Plunging ranula refers to a mucocoele that has penetrated which muscle?: (A) Sternohyoid, (B) Stylohyoid, (C) Omohyoid, (D) Mylohyoid | Answer is D. None | |
Other than cataract, which one among the following is the highest prevalent cause of blindness in the world -: (A) Corneal opacity, (B) Diabetic retinopathy, (C) Glaucoma, (D) Trachoma | Answer is C. Cataract 39% Glaucoma 10% tracoma3% diabeticretinopathy 4% Ref-Park&;s textbook of Preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. . | |
Best prognostic factor for head injury is: (A) A.Glasgow coma scale, (B) B.Age, (C) C.Mode of injury, (D) D.CT | Answer is A. The severity of head injury is classified according to glassglow coma scale(GCS) as it is the best predictor of neurological outcome. Mode of injury and age of the patient help in initial evaluation and management, CT helps in confirmation of the diagnosis. Their prognostic value is less when compared to G... | |
Granular deposit of IgA at dermoepidermal junction is seen in -: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Bullous pemphigoid, (C) Dermatitis herpatiformis, (D) Pemphigus foliaceous | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermatitis herpatiformis Immunopathological appearance of vesicobullous disorderso Bullous pemphigoid-Linear band of IgG or C3 in epidermal basement membraneo Pemphigus vulgaris-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocyteso Pemphigus foliaceous-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocyt... | |
True statement regarding Prevalence:: (A) Cannot be used to determine the health needs of a community, (B) Independent of incidence, (C) Independent of duration, (D) Measures all cases | Answer is D. (Refer: K. Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no: 66, 67)
Incidence = New cases
Prevalence = New + Old cases
Prevalence = Incidence X Duration | |
The type of receptors present on T cells is-: (A) IgG, (B) IgD, (C) CD4, (D) Prostaglandins | Answer is C. T cell receptor for antigen: The TCR is the recognition molecule for T cells. The TCR is a transmembrane heterodimeric protein containing two disulfide-linked chains. It is composed of two different classes of TCR called: alpha-beta (a and b) and gamma-delta (g and d). The majority of the T cells contain t... | |
All are hepatotoxic except: (A) Halothane, (B) Chlorform, (C) Methoxyflurane, (D) Isoflurane | Answer is D. Isoflurane is metabolized to trifluoroacetic acid. Although serum fluoride fluid levels may rise, nephrotoxicity is extremely unlikely, even in the presence of enzyme inducers. Prolonged sedation (>24 h at 0.1-0.6% isoflurane) of critically ill patients has resulted in elevated plasma fluoride levels (15-5... | |
Pathological feature of pyogenic granuloma: (A) Epitheloid cells, (B) Cavernous hemangioma, (C) Granulation tissue, (D) Giant cells | Answer is C. Pyogenic granulomas) are pedunculated masses usually found on the gingiva of children, young adults, and pregnant women. These lesions are richly vascular and typically are ulcerated, which gives them a red to purple color. In some cases, growth can be rapid and raise fear of a malignant neoplasm. However,... | |
Effort during normal respiration is done due to: (A) Lung elasticity, (B) Respiratory air passages, (C) Alveolar air spaces, (D) Creating negative pleural pressure | Answer is A. None | |
Baby born prematurely at 29 wks, on examination at 42 weeks with ROP, both eyes shows stage 2 zone 1 `plus' disease, how will you manage the patient ?: (A) Examine the patient after 1 week, (B) Laser photocoagulation of both eyes, (C) Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of other eye, (D) Vitreoretinal surger... | Answer is B. The hallmark of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is abnormal retinal vasculature. Ophthalmologists diagnose and make decisions about the initial treatment of ROP based on the appearance of the retinal blood vessels. Dilatation and tortuosity of the retinal vessels at the posterior pole is termed plus' dise... | |
Treatment of Non-union of # shaft femur -: (A) Open reduction with external fixation, (B) Excision of the bone, (C) Bone grafting with internal fixation with K-Nail, (D) All of the following | Answer is C. Treatment of choice is open the fracture site for bone grafting and internal fixation.
Internal fixation technique may be : -
Intramedullary interlock nailing (Preferred)
Intramedullary 'K' nailing
Plating (compression plaiting). | |
Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty:: (A) Sexual maturity is attained early, (B) Mental function is increased, (C) No reproductive function, (D) Body proportions are enlarged | Answer is A. None | |
Cardiac anomaly associted with TOF False is -: (A) Cyanotic heart disease, (B) RVH, (C) ASD, (D) VSD | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., ASD Tetralogy of falloto Cyanotic heart disease (MC).o Defect in infundibular septum leads to :Pulmonary stenosisVSD (Not ASD)Dextroposition and overriding of aorta.Right ventricular hypertrophy (NOT LVH).o Pink TOF (Acyanotic TOF) when PS is mild to moderate balanced shunt tnt across the... | |
‘Accompanied MDT’ in NLEP implies: (A) A patient will be given MDT only in the presence of a MDT provider, (B) Any responsible person from family or village can collect MDT, if patient is unable to come, (C) MDT should be accompanied with Steroids/ Clofazimine to help fight Reversal reactions, (D) MDT prescription shou... | Answer is B. Accompanied MDT: If patient is unable to come to collect his/her MDT from clinic, any responsible person from family or village can collect it
Designed to help patients who have to interrupt their treatment due to any avoidable reason
Especially useful for irregular patients
Gives patients a choice: Patie... | |
Which of the following is a K+ channel opener ?: (A) Nifedipine, (B) Minoxidil, (C) Enalapril, (D) Atenolol | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is most characteristic of the brain in patients with Alzheimer’s disease: (A) Pigmentary degeneration in hippocampus, (B) Demyelination in cerebral cortex, (C) Posterior column degeneration, (D) Neuronal loss in cerebral cortex | Answer is D. Most prominent feature of alzheimer’s disease is neuronal loss, fibrillary tangles, loss of synapses and amyloid plaque formation. | |
True statement regarding sarcoma botryoides:a) Involvement of vaginab) Grape like growth seenc) Common in old aged) Malignant: (A) abd, (B) bcd, (C) abc, (D) ab | Answer is A. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common malignancy of the vagina in infants and children.
Most common subtype of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is sarcoma botyroides
Seen in infants and children less than 5 years of age.
"This rare tumor develops almost exclusively in girls younger than 5 years, althoug... | |
A mature pincer grasp is attained at ------ months: (A) 8, (B) 10, (C) 12, (D) 18 | Answer is C. Grasp is best as..~ by offering a red cube to the ol.j)d. A 6-month-old infant reaches and holds the cul-e {b.rg? object) in a crude manner usincr the ulnar asf'C'l-'i: of r~ hand (Fig. 3_27). He can transfer ~bjects from one h.md t::i oth~ by 6-1 months. The child is able to grasp from the radial side of ... | |
Hanging cuain sign seen in?: (A) Pityriasis rosea, (B) Pityriasis Versicolor, (C) Pityriasis rubra pilaris, (D) Pityriasis lichenoides chronica | Answer is A. Pityriasis rosea REF: Dermatology. 1995; 190(3): 252. PubMed PMID: 7599393, Clinical Pediatric Dermatology - By Thappa page 104 PITYRIASIS ROSEA The primary eruption, herald patch (Mother spot) is a single oval or round patch with a central wrinkled salmon colored area and a darker peripheral zone separate... | |
Height of child acquire 100 cm in?: (A) 2.5 year, (B) 3.5 year, (C) 4.5 year, (D) 5.5 year | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 4.5 year | |
Most common complication of tonsillectomy is-: (A) Hemorrhage, (B) Teeth injury, (C) Pneumonia, (D) Otitis media | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hemorrhage "Post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage is the most common complication, occuring in approximately 2 to 5%, and should be taken seriously "._________Bellenger's otolaryngologyComplications of tonsillectomyo Complications of tonsillectomy may beImmediateDelayedImmediate complicationsPrim... | |
Causes of epistaxis are all except: (A) Allergic rhinitis, (B) Foreign body, (C) Tumour, (D) Hypeension | Answer is A. Causes of epistaxis Trauma Infections Foreign bodies Neoplasms of nose and paranasal sinus Atmospheric changes Deted nasal septum Hypeension Pregnancy Leukemia Liver disease Kidney disease Idiopathic Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 197. | |
Most root canals that have not been instrumented are too narrow to be reached effectively by: (A) Microbes, (B) Disinfectants, (C) Gutta percha, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following drugs, is used for Smoking Cessation?: (A) Naltrexone, (B) Bupropion, (C) Buprenorphine, (D) Methadone | Answer is B. Answer is B (Bupropion): Bupropion (along with Varenicline and Nicotine replacement therapy) is a USFDA approved first line agent for pharmacotherapy in Smoking Cessation. USFDA Approved Agents for Smoking Cessation Nicotine Replacement Therapy (Transdermal Patch, gum, lozenges, oral inhaler, nasal spray) ... | |
LH surge occurs at: (A) At the time of ovulation, (B) 5-6 days before ovulation, (C) 24-36 hours before ovulation, (D) 24 - 72 hours after ovulation | Answer is C. C. i.e. (24 - 36 hours before ovulation) (37-Shaw's 14th/64-Dutta 4th)* LH surge precedes ovulation by 24 to 36 hours (mean 30 hours) and minimum of 75 ng/ml is required for ovulation (37 - Shaw's 14th)* LH levels remains almost static throughout the cycle except at least 12 hours prior to vulation. When i... | |
In abdominal surgery Lembe sutures refers to ?: (A) Single layer suturing, (B) Sero muscular sutures, (C) All coat intestinal suturing, (D) Skin suturing | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sero muscular sutures | |
Adrenal insufficiency in not associated with -: (A) Hyponatremia, (B) Hyperkalemia, (C) Hypoglycemia, (D) Metabolic alkalosis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Metabolic alkalosis o Features of adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) are :-i) Hypoglycemiaii) Hyperpigmentationii) Hyperkalemiaiv) Hyponatremiav) Hypotensionvi) Metabolic acidosiso Associated features are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal cramps. | |
Which of the following is an amino neurotransmitter: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) GABA, (C) Lignocaine, (D) Epinephrine | Answer is B. None | |
Barr body is absent in female having: (A) 46 XX genome, (B) 45 X0 genome, (C) 47 XXX, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Barr body is absent in those with genotype 45 XO . For a brr body to be present a minimum of 2 x chromosomes should be there . No of Barr body = no of x chromosomes - 1. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | |
Secondary amyloidosis occurs in ?: (A) Chronic osteomyelitis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Leprosy, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. Three options are correct i.e., 'a, b & c' | |
Splenectomy is most useful in :: (A) Thrombocytopenia, (B) Hereditary spherocytosis, (C) H.S. purpura, (D) Sickle cell anemia | Answer is B. Answer is B (Hereditary spherocytosis) Splenectomy is curative in hereditary spherocytosis. Splenectomy is carried out in all symptomatic patients Q because of the potential for gall stones and stones and episodes of bone marrow hyperplasia or hemolytic crisis Q It reliably corrects the anemia and RBC surv... | |
Epidemic hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by -: (A) HSV, (B) HZV, (C) HIV, (D) Picorna virus | Answer is D. Epidemic hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by Coxsackie Virus A24 or Enterovirus 70 (members of the Family Picornaviridae). HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)- causes oral herpes and genital herpes. HZV (Herpes Zoster Virus) -causes Shingles. HIV -cause AIDS. | |
The industry, with the highest accidental death rate and long held to be the most dangerous occupation is –: (A) Agriculture, (B) Construction, (C) Mining and quarrying, (D) Trade | Answer is C. Accidents are a common features in most industries.
In fact, some industries are known for accidents, eg: coal and other mining industries, quarrying, construction work. | |
A 22-year-old African American male wants to know if he has sickle cell trait. He has no previous history of the signs or symptoms of sickle cell anemia. What laboratory method or test can be used to detect the presence of hemoglobin S?: (A) Coombs' test, (B) Osmotic fragility test, (C) Metabisulfite test, (D) Sucrose ... | Answer is C. The metabisulfite test is used to detect the presence of hemoglobin S, but it does not differentiate the heterozygous sickle cell trait from the homozygous sickle cell disease. The test is based on the fact that erythrocytes with a large propoion of hemoglobin S sickle in solutions of low oxygen content. M... | |
Earliest clinical feature of Senile cataract: (A) Glare, (B) Frequent change of glasses, (C) Coloured halos, (D) Uniocular polyopia | Answer is A. Earliest clinical feature of Senile cataract is Glare
Most common symptom at presentation is Frequent change of glasses | |
30 out of 50 smokers and 10 out of 50 non smokers develop lung cancer. What is odd's Ratio: (A) 4, (B) 2.8, (C) 6, (D) 7 | Answer is C. None | |
Time taken for capacitation of sperms is: (A) 2-4 hours, (B) 4-6 hours, (C) 6-8 hours, (D) 8-10 hours | Answer is C. Capacitation is the process of reconditioning of the sperm, making it more suitable for penetration into the ovum.
It takes about 6-8 hours and occurs in FGT chiefly in the tubes. | |
Best method to remove confounding is: (A) Randomization, (B) Restriction, (C) Stratified randomization, (D) Multivariate analysis | Answer is C. Method Utility to control confounding Randomization 2nd best method Restriction Limiting study to people who have paicular characteristics Matching Mostly useful in case control studies, MC used method Stratification Useful for larger studies Statistical modeling When many confounding variables exist simul... | |
Nerve compressed by aneurysm of posterior communicating aery is: (A) Occulomotor nerve, (B) Optic nerve, (C) Hypophysis cerebri, (D) Trochlear nerve | Answer is A. Occulomotor nerve Most unruptured intracranial aneurysms are completely asymptomatic. Symptoms are usually due to rupture and resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage. Occasionally neurological symptoms may arise due to mass effect of the aneurysm. Progressively enlarging unruptured aneurysm most commonly involve... | |
Curschmann spirals are found in: (A) Broncitis, (B) Asthma, (C) Bronchiectasis, (D) Lung abscesses | Answer is B. (Asthma) (726- Robbins 7th) (485- 492- HM 5,h) (492- Basic pathology 8th)* Bronchial Asthma - Histologically the mucous plugs contain whorls of shed epithelium. Which give rise to the well known Curschmann spirals*, Numerous eosinophils and charcot Leyden crystals* are present* The other characteristic his... | |
All are TRUE about the relation of inguinal canal, EXCEPT:: (A) Internal oblique forms the roof, (B) Inguinal ligament forms the floor, (C) Fascia transversalis forms anterior wall, (D) Interfoveolar ligament forms lateral two third of anterior wall | Answer is D. Boundaries of Inguinal canal:Floor is formed by the grooved upper surface of the inguinal ligamentRoof is formed by the arching lower fibers of Internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles.Anterior wall is formed by the external oblique aponeurosis all through it is extentreinforced laterally by the I... | |
In emergency tracheostomy all of the following structures are damaged, EXCEPT:: (A) Isthmus of the thyroid, (B) Inferior thyroid aery, (C) Thyroid ima aery, (D) Inferior thyroid vein | Answer is B. Bleeding can occur immediately after a tracheostomy and in the late postoperative period. Sources of hemorrhage include granulation tissue in the stoma or trachea, and erosion of thyroid vessels or the thyroid itself, the tracheal wall (frequently from suction trauma), or the innominate aery. Inferior thyr... | |
Platelets transfusion must be completed in how many hours after entering the bag: (A) 1 hour, (B) 2 hour, (C) 3 hour, (D) 4 hour | Answer is D. Answer- D. 4 hour Once the blood bag is opened hy puncturing one of the sealed pos, the platelets must be administered within 4 hours | |
Rickets in infant present as all except -: (A) Cranitabes, (B) Widened Fontanel, (C) Rachitic Rosary, (D) Bow legs | Answer is D. Long bones of legs gets deformed when the child starts bearing weight. Therefore deformities of legs are unusual before the age of one year. | |
The maxillary nerve arises from the trigeminal ganglion in the middle cranial fossa. It passes forward in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and leaves the skull through which of the following foramen to enter the pterygopalatine fossa?: (A) Foramen ovale, (B) Foramen spinosum, (C) Foramen rotundum, (D) Foramen la... | Answer is C. It arises from the trigeminal ganglion, runs forwards in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus below the ophthalmic nerve, and leaves the middle cranial fossa by passing through the foramen rotundum. Next, the nerve crosses the upper pa of the pterygopalatine fossa. In the pterygopalatine fossa, the nerv... | |
What is seen in the X-ray of femur below: (A) Sunburst calcification, (B) Onion peel effect, (C) Codmann triangle, (D) Bone marrow invasion | Answer is C. . | |
Size of uterus in inches:: (A) 5x4x2, (B) 4x3x1, (C) 3x2x1, (D) 4x2x1 | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. 3x2x1 inchesRef: Jeffcoates Principle of Gynae 9/ed, pg 32Remember, best answer to this question is 3.25x2.5x1.5 inches. | |
Hypocalcemia with hyperphosphatemia are seen in.: (A) CRF, (B) Pseudobypoparathyoidsm, (C) Vit-D deficiency, (D) Vit-D deficiency | Answer is A. <p>Improved medical management of chronic kidney disease now allows many patients to survive for decades and hence time enough to develop features of renal osteodystrophy, which must be controlled to avoid additional morbidity. Impaired production of 1,25(OH) 2 D is now thought to be the principal factor t... |
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