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A girl with normal milestones spends her time seeing her own hand, do not interact with others, what is the diagnosis?
(A) ADHD
(B) Autism
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Depression | The correct answer is: Autism
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Autism Pervasive developmental disorder includes the following conditionAutismRett's disorderAsperger's disorderChildhood disintegrative disorderPervasive disorders not otherwise specifiedPervasive development disorders are characterized by three symptom clusters-Impairment in social reciprocity marked by poor eye contact, lack of interest in other people and failure to interact appropriately with others.Communicative impairment, it is characterized by either no language at all or by deviant speech with errors in tone, prosody, pitch, grammar, or pragmatics.Restricted and repetitive behaviors include using the same words and phrases repeatedly out of context, performing the same action in routine ways or insisting that others do so, or exhibiting other vocal or visual self-stimulatory behaviors. Stereotype movements are seen.Stereotype movements are apparently purposeless movements such as hand flapping, head rolling or body rocking.)Now, the salient feature of each pervasive disorder:Autistic disorderIt gives all the classical features of pervasive developmental disorder.The patient presents with problems in social interaction, communication and repetitive stereotype behaviour.In most of these patients there is subnormal intelligence.ExampleA 3 year old boy shows no interest in or connection to his parents, other adults or children. He does not speak voluntarily and is fascinated with watching rotating objects. He screams fiercely when his environment is altered in any way such as when his mother tries to dress him.Rett's disorderIt is seen exclusively in females.The characteristic feature of these patients is that they begin to lose their acquired skills.Example After 4 months of normal development, an infant begins to lose her acquired skills. By 18 months of age, she shows little social interaction with her parents, other adults or children and she uses strange hand gestures.Asperger's disorderThe important point in differential diagnosis of these patients is that they have normal intelligence. These are the only pervasive development disorders in which the intelligence is unimpaired.These patients often have some exceptional ability.They have little or no developmental language delay and relatively normal cognitive development.In the question the lack of social interaction and communication along with stereotypic behaviour (watching her own hard) suggests Autistic disorder.The patient does not give any symptoms of attention deficit disorder i.e. there are no symptoms indicating lack of concentration and hyperactivity.The patients of ADHD can also present with symptoms similar to pervasive developmental disorder but the main complaint will always be that of attention deficit and hyperactivity.Patients with depression should give other features of depression. | Psychiatry | Intellectual disability, communication, autism, and ADHD | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is the commonest type of malignancy of ovary?
(A) Serous type
(B) Mucinous
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Granulosa cell tumor | The correct answer is: Serous type
Explanation: More than half of all epithelial ovarian cancers have serous histology. Microscopically, the cells may resemble fallopian tube epithelium in well-differentiated tumors or anaplastic cells with severe nuclear atypia in poorly differentiated tumors. During frozen section, psammoma bodies are essentially pathognomonic of an ovarian-type serous carcinoma. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 35. Epithelial Ovarian Cancer. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 60-year-old man with suspected bronchogenic carcinoma. TB has been ruled out in this patient. Investigation to be done in this patient is:
(A) CT guided FNAC
(B) Bronchoscopy and biopsy
(C) Sputum cytology
(D) Chest X-ray | The correct answer is: Bronchoscopy and biopsy
Explanation: Ans. Bronchoscopy and biopsy | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Truma and injury severity score (TRISS) includes
(A) GCS+BP+RR
(B) Revised trauma score ^injury severity score +age
(C) Revised trauma score +injury severity score +GCS
(D) Revised trauma score + GCS +BP | The correct answer is: Revised trauma score ^injury severity score +age
Explanation: (B) (Revised Trauma score /injury severity score + Age) (The Trauma Manual by Moore 2 Mattox)Trauma and injury severity score (TRISS) Combines the Reviseds Trauma score (RTS)and injury severity score (ISS) with the 'Age' of patient together with the method of injury (Blunt or penetrating).Trauma and Injury Severity score (TRISS)* The TRISS is a combined scoring system used to predict the outcome following major trauma* It combines the anatomic derangements (ISS) and physiological derangements (RTS)together with patientsAge and Mechanism of Injury (Blunt or penetrating) to predict survival after trauma.TRISS (Trauma and injury Severity Score)* Injury severity Score (ISS)* Revised Trauma Score (RTS)* Age* Mechanism of injury (Blunt/penetrating)* The TRISS scoring system provides a rough predictor medicating whether mortality in a given patient is expected to be greater or less than 50 percent.TRIAGE- the screening and classification of sick, wounded or injured persons during war or other disaster to determine priorty needs for efficient uses of medical and nurshing manpower, equipment and facilities. It is also done in imergency rooms and in acute care clinics to determine priorty of treatment use of triage is essential if the maximum number of lives are to be saved during an emergency situation that produces many more sick and wounded than the available medical care facilities and personnel can possibly handle. | Surgery | Trauma | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vidian neurectomy is done in:
(A) Allergic rhinitis
(B) Vasomotor rhinitis
(C) Atrophic rhinitis
(D) Drug-induced rhinitis | The correct answer is: Vasomotor rhinitis
Explanation: Vidian neurectomy was first described for the treatment of intractable vasomotor rhinitis in the 1960s but fell into disrepute because of the recurrence of symptoms and significant complications. With subsequent improvements in the understanding of the nasal and sinus anatomy, endoscopic vidian neurectomy can now be performed with minimal dissection and morbidity The principle underlying vidian neurectomy is to sever the preganglionic fibers that reach the sphenopalatine ganglion through the vidian nerve. Several routes have been described to approach the deep seated vidian nerve: Transantral Transeptal Transpalatal Trans ethmoidal and Transnasal The most popular approach to the vidian nerve is the Transantral route. | ENT | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which parasite lives in bladder plexus?
(A) Schistosoma
(B) Fasciola
(C) Ascaris
(D) Echinococcus | The correct answer is: Schistosoma
Explanation: All the schistosomes live in venous plexus in the body of definitive host S. haematobium in urinary bladder S.mansoni in sigmodorectal region S. japonicum in ileocaecal region | Microbiology | FMGE 2018 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Increased gamma efferent discharge seen in all EXCEPT:
(A) Anxiety
(B) Jendrassik's maneuver
(C) Skin stimulation
(D) Shallow rapid breathing | The correct answer is: Shallow rapid breathing
Explanation: Shallow rapid breathing does not increases gamma efferent discharge. Anxious patients may sometimes exhibit hyperactive tendon reflexes. Stimulation of the skin, by noxious agents, increases g-efferent discharge to ipsilateral flexor muscle spindles while decreasing that to extensors; and produces opposite pattern in the opposite limb. Jendrassik's maneuver: When tendon jerks are not so prominent, the patient is asked to hook together his fingers and try to pull the hands apa, or asked to clench the teeth. This maneuver makes the tendon jerks prominent. Mechanism - Afferent impulses arising from hands (while hooking) increase the g-motor neuron discharge, which makes the muscle spindle more excitable. | Physiology | Motor System | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Child is suspected to have consumed some substance, presents with tachycardia, bronchodilation, elevated temperature and constipation. The substance ingested is most probably ?
(A) Nerium Odorum
(B) Mushroom
(C) Atropine
(D) Organophosphorus | The correct answer is: Atropine
Explanation: Alkaloids like atropine stimulates higher centers of the brain,Then the motor centres and finally cause depression and paralysis,especially of the vital centres in the medulla. The respiration is first stimulated,then depressed and the hea centre is stimulated. Peripheral effects are predominant and results from anticholinergic action. Hyperpyrexia is common with atropine.So in this child the substance ingested is probably Atropine. Ref: Geller R.J. (2012). Chapter 165. Atropine and Glycopyrrolate. In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e. | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
False regarding Cytochrome P-450 enzymes :
(A) They are involved in the production of steroids
(B) They absorb maximum light at 450nm wavelength
(C) They are present in endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells
(D) They are non-heme proteins | The correct answer is: They are non-heme proteins
Explanation: cytochrome P450 a microsomal enzyme is a hemoprotein, which serves as the terminal oxidase. The name cytochrome P450 (abbreted as P450 or CYP ) is derived from the spectral propeies of this hemoprotein. In its reduced (ferrous) form, it binds carbon monoxide to give a complex that absorbs light maximally at 450 nm. They are involved in the metabolism of various drugs The relative abundance of P450s, compared with that of the reductase in the liver, contributes to making P450 heme reduction a rate-limiting step in hepatic drug oxidations. CYP is vital to the formation of cholesterol, steroids and arachidonic acid metabolites Reference: Katzung 13th edition pg: 55 | Pharmacology | General anatomy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Lack of morphological and functional differentiation is best termed as:
(A) Metaplasia
(B) Dysplasia
(C) Anaplasia
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Anaplasia
Explanation: Anaplasia is defined as Lack of morphological and functional differentiation of cells. Features Metaplasia Dysplasia Anaplasia Definition Reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another adult cell type Loss of uniformity of the individual cells (mainly epithelial) as well as lack of architectural orientation with respect to one another Lack of morphological and functional differentiation of cells Behaviour Usually not precancerous Few forms of metaplasia may be termed precancerous Not all metaplasia lesions are precancerous Potentially precancerous may or may not progress to cancer Anaplasia is usually a hallmark of malignant transformation Orientation with respect to one another (tissue architecture) No loss of polarity Maintained, Regular Organization Loss of polarity Disturbance in organization and maturation Loss of polarity Disturbance in organization and maturation Cellular Pleomorphism Nuclear Atypia Absent (Usually not seen) Present in low grade Present in high grade Mitotic figures Absent Minimal at normal places Present Usually not atypical Present Atypical mitotic figures . Abnormal and atypical figures may be seen (multipolar spindles) Reversibility Reversible Reversible condition if triggering factors are removed Reversible in early stages May become irreversible if it involves the whole thickness of epithelium Irreversible N:C ratio Normal (1:4) Increased Increased Hyperchromactism Absent Present (small degree) Present (high degree) Tumor giant cells Absent Absent Present Example Columnar to squamous epithelium in respiratory tract of chronic smokers Barrett&;s esophagus Myositis ossificans Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) Carcinoma of the cervix, Carcinoma esophagus Ref: Harrison&;s 19th edition Pgno: 769 | Pathology | General pathology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Reccurent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is:
(A) Apthus ulcer
(B) Herpes
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Measels | The correct answer is: Apthus ulcer
Explanation: A i.e. Apthous ulcer Apthous Ulcers Vitamine deficiency & Stress are impoant etiological agents Charecterstically presents with reccurent painful oral ulcers with erythema & halo around itQ. | Skin | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are supplied by mandibular nerve except
(A) Masseter
(B) Tensor tympani
(C) Tensor palati
(D) Buccinator | The correct answer is: Buccinator
Explanation: D i.e. Buccinator | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Dr. Neelam decides to give estrogen therapy in a postmenopausal woman. The risk of which of the following will not be increased?
(A) Gall stones
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Endometrial carcinoma
(D) Breast cancer | The correct answer is: Osteoporosis
Explanation: (Ref: KDT 6/e p301) Estrogen is used for the treatment of osteoporosis in post-menopausal female. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Freeze dried vaccine are all except -
(A) BCG
(B) DPT
(C) Measles
(D) Yellow fever | The correct answer is: DPT
Explanation: . .DPT VACCINES are mainly two types.plain and adsorbed.DPT/DT vaccine should not be frozen.it should be stored in a refrigerator at a temp of 2 to 8 degreesC.the vaccine will lose potency if stored at room temperature for a lon period of time.DPT vaccine administration,ideal age for which is 6 weeks after bih.three doses which is usually 0.5 ml is considered optimal for primary immunisation.an interval 4 weeks or more is advusable.route of administration is deep intramuscular.fever and mild reactions may occur ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 153 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur, likely diagnosis is:
(A) Osteoclastoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Ewing's sarcoma
(D) Osteoid osteoma | The correct answer is: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation: Sclerotic lesion over diaphysis of a long bone in a young patient indicative of osteoid osteoma. Ref: Essential Ohopedics By Maheshwari 2nd Edition, Page 213 | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the statements are true about FLUORO QUINOLONES, except -
(A) Suspected of having teratogenic potential
(B) Ahropathy of limb-in children may occur
(C) Increase theophylline toxicity
(D) Increase neuromuscular blocking action | The correct answer is: Increase neuromuscular blocking action
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased Neuromuscular blocking action Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children < 18 years of age, because of evidence in animals of cailage damage in developing joints. o They are contraindicated in pregnancy because of concerm for the developing fetus (teratogenicity) o Fluoroquinolones are enzyme inhibitors and thus inhibit the metabolism of many drugs. Plasma concentration of theophylline is increased because of inhibition of its metabolism and this results in theo phylline toxicity. Fluoroquinolenes have no N-M blocking propeies. Antibiotics with N.M blocking propey are o Aminoglycosides o Polypeptide antibiotics o Lincomycin o Tetracyclines o Clindamycin | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 5-year-old girl presents with the sudden onset of diffuse arthralgias and skin rash. Physical examination shows a violaceous maculopapular rash on the lower torso. Urinalysis discloses oliguria and 2+ hematuria. Urine cultures are negative. This child's clinical presentation is commonly associated with which of the following diseases?
(A) Berger disease
(B) Goodpasture syndrome
(C) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
(D) Henoch-Schonlein purpura | The correct answer is: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation: Henoch-Schonlein purpura is the most common type of childhood vasculitis and is caused by vascular localization of immune complexes containing predominantly IgA. The glomerular lesion is identical with that of IgA nephropathy. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (choice C) is caused by exposure to Shiga toxin-producing strains of Escherichia coli and is not associated with angiopathy outside of the kidney. The other choices are not typically associated with rash.Diagnosis: Henoch-Schonlein purpura | Pathology | Kidney | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infraction, is approximately-
(A) 0-5%
(B) 5-15%
(C) 20-30%
(D) 30-40% | The correct answer is: 5-15%
Explanation: Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan)6th edition, page no.127 Embolism of the pulmonary aeries may produce pulmonary infarction, though not always. This is because lungs receive blood supply from bronchial aeries as well, and thus occlusion of pulmonary aery ordinarily does not produce infarcts. However, it may occur in patients who have inadequate circulation such as in chronic lung diseases and congestive hea failure.The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infraction, is approximately 5-15% | Pathology | Respiratory system | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
At physiological pH, the carboxy-terminal of a peptide is -
(A) Positively charged
(B) Negatively charged
(C) Neural
(D) Infinitely charged | The correct answer is: Negatively charged
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Negatively charged Net charge of Aminoacids at neutral pH.At Physiological pH, all amino acids have both a negatively charged group, carboxyl ion (COO- ) and a positively charged group Ammonium ion, (-NH3+). The amino acids are therefore dipolar ion (Zwitter ions). Zwitter ions - Molecules that contain an equal number of ionizable groups of opposite charge and therefore bear no net charge are termed Ziwetter ions.Also know isoelectric pointAt neutral pH amino acids exists predominantly as the dipolar form II in which the amino and carboxyl groups are ionized, but the net charge is zero.Thus isoelectric point is the pH at which an amino acid is electrically neutral - that, is, where the sum of the positive charges equals the sum of the negative charges.AmpholytesSubstances such as amino acids that can act either as an acid or base are defined as amphoteric and are referred to as ampholytes (amphoteric electrolytes). | Biochemistry | Structure & Function of Protein | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cystine is formed from
(A) Arginine
(B) Histidine
(C) Cysteine
(D) Alanine | The correct answer is: Cysteine
Explanation: The difference in structure of cysteine and cystine. Two molecules of cysteine are joined together by S--S bond to form one molecule of cystine.Ref: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 504 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cell mediated immunity is by viue of?
(A) Helper t cells
(B) Suppressor t cells
(C) Cytotoxic t cells
(D) All aboce | The correct answer is: All aboce
Explanation: All above REF: Jawetz's 24th ed chapter 8 Cell mediated immunity is effected by T cells Helper T cells, suppressor T cells, cytotoxic T cells are types of T Cells | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cherry-red colour in post moem staining is a feature of poisoning with:
(A) Nitrites
(B) Aniline
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Carbon Monoxide | The correct answer is: Carbon Monoxide
Explanation: Colour of Post Moem Staining in different conditions Condition Colour of Post moem staining Usual colour Reddish purple CO Cherry red HCN Bright Red or Dark Red or Brick Red Hypothermia, drowning Bright Pink Opium Black P or acute Cu poisoning- Dark Brown or Yellow Nitrites, Nitrates, potassium chlorate, Potassium bicarbonate, nitrobenzene, acetanilide, bromates, Aniline Red Brown or Copper Brown or Chocolate Brown or Coffee Brown Hydrogen Sulphide Bluish green CO2, Asphyxia, Aniline Deep blue (In Aniline Deep blue as well as Red Brown colour can occur) Haemorrhage, Anaemia Pale Clostridium Perfringes- Bronze | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 1 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Piebaldism refers to –
(A) Androgenetic alopecia
(B) Erythema nodosum leprosum
(C) Associated with white forelock
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Associated with white forelock
Explanation: Piebaldism is a hypopigmented disorder which is present since birth and is characterized by congenital white forelock and hypopigmented or depigmented macules on the central part of the forehead, ventral trunk, and upper & lower extremities. Involvement is bilaterally symmetrical. | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A depressed patient does not want to take medication on a daily basis. The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) most suitable for this patient is?
(A) Escitalporam
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Fluvoxamine
(D) Paroxetine | The correct answer is: Fluoxetine
Explanation: The half life of fluoxetine is longer than 72 hour so patient can take the medication every other day and thus it is most suitable for him. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
IPC 304 B is related to?
(A) Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives
(B) Dowry death
(C) Death caused by negligence
(D) Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murder. | The correct answer is: Dowry death
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Dowry deatho IPC 304 - Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murdero IPC 304 A - Death caused by negligenceo IPC 304 B - Dowry death : 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life.o IPC 498 - Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives. | Forensic Medicine | Introduction to Forensic Medicine and Medical Jurisprudence | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Spalding's ring is seen in :
(A) Still born
(B) Live born
(C) Premature
(D) Dead born | The correct answer is: Dead born
Explanation: Spalding sign : It is the irregular overlapping of the cranial bones on one another, due to liquefication of brain matter and softening of the ligamentous structures suppoing the vault. Appears 7 days after death. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 303. | Anatomy | Abnormal labor | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Barbiturates excretion in urine may be increased by :
(A) Diuretics
(B) Alkalinization
(C) Acidification
(D) Dialysis | The correct answer is: Alkalinization
Explanation: B i.e. Alkanization For facilitating elimination of drug in poisoning the - Urine is alkalinized in barbiturate & salicylate poisoningQ Urine is acidified in morphine & amphetamine poisoningQ Salicylates block uricosuric action of probenecid & sulfinpyrazoneQ & decrease tubular secretion of methotrexate Hemodialysis followed by forced alkaline diuresis is treatment of choice in barbiturate poisoning.Q Hemodialysis & diuretics are not effective in digitalis poisoningQ Kerosine oilQ, Organophosphate & Benzodiazepine poisoningQ | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In recording the border movement in the vertical plane, name the tracing produced by it:
(A) Diamond tracing
(B) Beak tracing
(C) Shield tracing
(D) None | The correct answer is: Shield tracing
Explanation: Border movement is the mandibular movement at the limits dictated by anatomic structures as viewed in a given plane.
Border movement recorded in:
• Horizontal plane produces characteristic 'diamond tracing'.
• Sagittal plane produces 'Beak tracing.
• Vertical plane produces 'Shield tracing'
• Combination of border movements in all three planes produces 'Envelop' of motion. | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A young man following RTA presented with proptosis and pain in the right eye after four days. On examination, there is a bruise on the forehead and right eye. What is the diagnosis -
(A) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(B) Internal carotid artery aneurysm
(C) Carotico-cavernous fistula
(D) Fracture of sphenoid | The correct answer is: Carotico-cavernous fistula
Explanation: Common causes of proptosis associated with craniofacial trauma are:-
1) Carotid-cavernous fistula
ii) Retrobulbar hematoma
iii) Superior orbital fissure and orbital apex syndrome
Rare causes are:-
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Subperiosteal hematoma
So, amongst the given options carotico-cavernous fistula is the only common cause.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis may also occur after trauma. But, trauma is a very rare cause of CST. It usually develops as complication of extension of infection from the adjacent sinus, teeth, ear, nose etc. | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by -
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Median nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Axillary nerve | The correct answer is: Ulnar nerve
Explanation: Ans. is'c'i.e., Ulnar nerve(Ref: Snell's th/e p. 354)Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand. | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All the statement about lactoferrin are true, except -
(A) It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil
(B) It is present in exocrine secretions of body
(C) It has great affinity for iron
(D) It transpos iron for erythropoiesis | The correct answer is: It transpos iron for erythropoiesis
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., It transpos iron for erythropoiesisTranspo of iron for erythropoesis is done by transferrin and not by LactoferrinLactoferrin o It is an iron binding protein and has high affinity for irono Lactoferrin is found in ?Specific / secondary granules in neutrophils.Many exocrine secretions and exudates - milk, tears, mucus, saliva, bile etc.o It apparently exes an antimicrobial activity by withholding iron from ingested bacteria and fungi. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a 21 year old female patient with the complain of forwardly placed upper front teeth, extraoral examination reveals a convex profile, acute nasolabial angle, increased lower facial height and an average mandibular plane angle.
The diagnostic examination carried out in this patient can also be termed as:
(A) Farkas’ analysis
(B) Facial index
(C) Poor man’s cephalometric analysis
(D) Martin and Saller index | The correct answer is: Poor man’s cephalometric analysis
Explanation: Profile Analysis
A careful examination of the facial profile yields the same information, though in less detail for the underlying skeletal relationships, as that obtained from analysis of lateral cephalometric radiographs. For diagnostic purposes, particularly to identify patients with severe disproportions, careful clinical evaluation is adequate. For this reason, the technique of facial profile analysis has sometimes been called the "poor man's cephalometric analysis." This is a vital diagnostic technique for all dentists.
Contemporary orthodontics, William Proffit, 4th edition page 179 | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Ahralgia is commonly caused by which ATT drug
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Pyrazinamide
(D) Ethambutol | The correct answer is: Pyrazinamide
Explanation: Ahralgia is caused by pyrazinamide ,which may be non gouty or due to hyperureemia secondary to inhibition of uric acid secretion in the kidney Ethambutol also produces hyperuricemia due to interferance with urate excretion Refer KDT 6/e p742 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with:
(A) Recurrent aboions
(B) Polyhydramnios
(C) Pregnancy induced hypeension (PIH)
(D) Prematurity | The correct answer is: Polyhydramnios
Explanation: Hypothyroidism is associated with early aboions, preterm labor, still bih. The baby of a severe hypothyroidism may be born a cretinism which is a severe form of brain dysfunction associated with deaf mutism, spastic motor disorder and hypothyroidism. The association with PIH results in an early delivery and hence a low bih weight. There is high association with PIH and is not known to give rise to polyhydramnios. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiological Changes of Pregnancy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following causes the majority of UTI’s in hospitalized patients?
(A) Lack of fluid intake
(B) Inadequate perineal care
(C) Invasive procedures
(D) Immunosuppression | The correct answer is: Invasive procedures
Explanation: Invasive procedures such as catheterization can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract.
A lack of fluid intake could cause concentration of urine, but wouldn’t necessarily cause infection. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Froment test is to check which muscle
(A) Abductor policis
(B) Palmar interosseous
(C) Adductor pollicis
(D) Dorsal interosseous | The correct answer is: Adductor pollicis
Explanation: Froment sign - compensatory flexion of interphalangeal joint of thumb due to paralysis of adductor policis Adductor policis supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve | Anatomy | Nerve Lesions | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are used for measurement of ECF volume except
(A) Antipyrine
(B) Inulin
(C) Mannitol
(D) Sodium Thiocyanate | The correct answer is: Antipyrine
Explanation: Antipyrine is used for measurement of total body water. | Physiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following represents the half life of I123 ?
(A) 3. 2 hours
(B) 13.2 hours
(C) 8 days
(D) 10 days | The correct answer is: 13.2 hours
Explanation: Half life of radioisotope I 123 is 13.2 hours. Half life of I 124 is 4.2 days and that of I 131 is 8days. | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vertical wrinkles of upper lip in CD patient is might be result of?
(A) Lack of proper lip support
(B) Lack of lip fullness
(C) Maxillary anterior teeth set labially
(D) Any of above | The correct answer is: Lack of proper lip support
Explanation: Proper lip support leads to normal lip appearance so Lack of proper lip support due to absence of anterior teeth or too far palatally placed anterior leads to appearance of vertical wrinkles on lip. | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Concentration of which of the following is maximum in a cell next to water ?
(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Sodium
(D) Carbohydrates | The correct answer is: Protein
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., ProteinMost of the cytosol is water, which makes up about 70% of the total volume of a typical cell.Next higher concentration is of proteins. Protein molecules that do not bind to cell membranes or the cytoskeleton are dissolved in the cytosol. The amount of protein in cells is extremely high, and approaches 200 mg/ml, occupying about 2030% of the volume of the cytosol | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following condition is associated with necrotizing lymphadenitis?
(A) Hodgkin's disease
(B) Kikuchi disease
(C) Kimura disease
(D) Sarcoidosis | The correct answer is: Kikuchi disease
Explanation: Kikuchi histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, or Kikuchi disease, is a self-limited disease that primarily affects women 20-30 years old. Patients typically have unilateral lymph node enlargement, most often in the posterior cervical chain, which may be accompanied by fevers, chills, myalgias, malaise, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly, or generalized lymphadenopathy. Abnormal laboratory values may include leukopenia and atypical lymphocytes. EBV has been implicated as one causative agent. Diagnosis is by biopsy of the affected lymph node, which typically shows histiocytic aggregates, atypical lymphoid cells, karyorrhectic debris, and patchy necrosis as well as absence of neutrophils or a granulomatous reaction. The disease typically resolves spontaneously after 1-6 months without treatment. Ref: Belazarian L.T., Lorenzo M.E., Pearson A.L., Sweeney S.M., Wiss K. (2012). Chapter 192. Exanthematous Viral Diseases. In L.A. Goldsmith, S.I. Katz, B.A. Gilchrest, A.S. Paller, D.J. Leffell, N.A. Dallas (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, 8e. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Increased episcleral venous pressure can:
(A) Increase IOP
(B) Decrease IOP
(C) No effect on IOP
(D) Initially increases then decreases IOP | The correct answer is: Increase IOP
Explanation: Increased episcleral venous pressure Increases IOP. Decreases drainage. | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Chediak Higashi syndrome is characterized by-
(A) Giant granules in leukocytes
(B) Albinism
(C) Mutation in LYST gene
(D) All the above | The correct answer is: All the above
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above | Pathology | Immune Deficiency Diseases | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done by?
(A) History and clinical examination
(B) Colposcopy
(C) CT scan
(D) PAP smear | The correct answer is: PAP smear
Explanation: Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 387 The prolonged early phase of cancer in situ can be detected by the Pap smear. The present strategy is to screen women using visual inspection after application of freshly prepared 5%acetic acid solution. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first -
(A) Pulmonary vein
(B) Pulmonary aery
(C) Bronchial aery
(D) Superior vena cava | The correct answer is: Bronchial aery
Explanation: Massive Hemoptysis Hemoptysis of >200-600cc in 24 hours. Massive Hemoptysis should be considered as a medical emergency Treatment Large-volume, life threatening Hemoptysis generally require immediate intervention regardless of the cause The first step is to establish a patent airway usually by endotracheal intubation and subsequent mechanical ventilation As most large - volume Hemoptysis Arises from an airway lesion, it is ideal if the site of the bleeding can be identified either by chest imaging or bronchoscopy (more commonly rigid than flexible) If bleeding doesnot stop with therapies of the underlying cause and passage of time, severe Hemoptysis from bronchial aeries can be treated with angiogrophic embolization of the culprit bronchial aery Bronchial aery are the major source of Hemoptysis Ref: Grainger Radiology 4th edition Pgno : 609 | Anatomy | Cardio thoracic surgery | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following infects hair, skin and nails
(A) Trichosporum
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Microsporum
(D) Epidermophyton | The correct answer is: Trichophyton
Explanation: Microsporum- hair and skin. Epidermophyton- skin and nail. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | Microbiology | mycology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All the following are peptide based except ?
(A) ACTH
(B) GnRH
(C) Thyroxin
(D) TRH | The correct answer is: Thyroxin
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thyroxin | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is called Dense deposit disease
(A) RPGN - I
(B) MPGN - II
(C) RPGN - II
(D) MPGN - I | The correct answer is: MPGN - II
Explanation: It is called Dense deposit disease because of deposition of abnormal, electron dense material within the GBM of kidney and often within Bructis membrance in the eye. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
(A) Vasodilatation
(B) Bronchodilatation
(C) Increased vascular permeability
(D) Pain | The correct answer is: Bronchodilatation
Explanation: Kinins cause marked bronchoconstriction and not bronchodilatation. Their effect on other smooth muscles is not prominent. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 455 - 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 181, 290, 399, 552, 725, 742. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Toxic epidermal necrolysis {TEN} involves body surface area
(A) <10%
(B) 10-20%
(C) 20-30%
(D) >30 | The correct answer is: >30
Explanation: Based on body surface area ( BSA) of skin involved, epidermal necrolysis is classified into SJS: less than 10% BSASJS_TEN overlap: 10-30% BSA TEN : more than 30% BSA. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 92 | Dental | Vestibulobullous disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Formation of primary palate is from which of the following ?
(A) Lateral nasal prominences
(B) Medial nasal prominences
(C) Maxillary prominences
(D) Mandibular prominences | The correct answer is: Medial nasal prominences
Explanation: Definitive palate =Fusion of primary and secondary palate ventrally in a Y shaped manner. Primary palate- From inter-maxillary segment (fusion of 2 medial nasal prominence) Secondary palate-From fusion of lateral palatine process ( from maxillary process) | Anatomy | Pharyngeal arch and its derivatives, pharyngeal arch aeries | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The ratio of c peptide: insulin in normal adults is
(A) 2:01
(B) 1:02
(C) 1:01
(D) 1:04 | The correct answer is: 1:01
Explanation: C peptide and insulin are released in an equal ratio from beta cells of the pancreas. The indirect way of measurment of insulin in ones body is measuring the C peeptide . Ref:HL sharma 3rd ed.Pg 634 | Pharmacology | Gastrointestinal tract | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________
(A) Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum
(B) Rapid induction and delivery by forceps
(C) Immediate LSCS
(D) Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery | The correct answer is: Immediate LSCS
Explanation: Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categories based on urgency such as emergency, urgency, scheduled, elective) Neonatal blood transfusion may be needed. Vagos method: It is a management technique used in Umbilical cord prolapse, where Foley catheter is placed and the bladder provides upward pressure on the fetus, thus alleting the compression on the cord. Ref: DC Dutta&;s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 301 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In an adult patient with plural effusion, the most appropriate site for plurisentesis done by inseing a needle is in:
(A) 5th intercostals space in midclevicular line
(B) 7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone
(C) 2nd intercostals space adjacent to the sternum
(D) 10th intercostal space adjacent to the veebral column | The correct answer is: 7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone
Explanation: Answer is B (7th Intercostal space in mid axillary line): Site of pleural effusion drainage is seventh intercostal space in mid-axillary line. Pneumothorax | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Normal finding in term neonate-
(A) Erythema toxicum
(B) Ebstein's pearl
(C) Subconjunctival hemorrhages
(D) All | The correct answer is: All
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythema toxicum; 'b' i.e., Ebstein pearls; 'c' i.e., Subconjunctival haemorrhage | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Resource person for Training ofASHA are
(A) AWW and MPW
(B) AWW and ANM
(C) MPW and ANM
(D) ANM and MO | The correct answer is: AWW and ANM
Explanation: Ans. is 'b i.e., AWW and ANM o Angan-Wadi Workers (AWW) and Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) act as resource persons far training of ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Puppe's rule deals with ?
(A) Chemical injuries
(B) Multiple impact injuries
(C) Sexual assault
(D) Percentage of burns | The correct answer is: Multiple impact injuries
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Multiple impact injuries Puppe's rule It deals with multiple impact injuries. In multi impact injuries fracture systems form a network, and according to puppe's rule the later fractures will not the earlier ones, but will terminate at the earlier ones. Thus it is used to reliably diagnose the sequence of the impact injuries. The rule was developed by Madea and is typically used to diagnose the sequence of shots in bullet injuries. | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A gardener comes with linear nodules on the hand for last one year , how will you treat the patient.
(A) Amphotericin B
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Ampicillin
(D) Iodine | The correct answer is: Iodine
Explanation: Diagnosis is Rose gardener disease/ Sporotrichosis commonly seen in farmers, gardeners, florists etc. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii (Thermally dimorphic) Fungi Fungus may produce a series of inflamed nodules along the line of lymphatic drainage (i. e. linear lesions). Three types: C/F Rx 1. Cutaneous Nodules Itraconazole 2. Lymphatic (MC) Linear nodules with Satellite lesions Itraconazole >Saturated Solution of KI (SSKI) S/E: Thyroid problem 3. Systemic Upper lobe of lung Amphotericin B | Dental | Fungal infections | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A woman with no history of any prenatal care is going to deliver a baby. She has no history of amniotic rupture and ultrasound showed severe oligohydramnios. Which of the following conditions can be the cause of oligohydramnios?
(A) Renal agenesis
(B) Anencephaly
(C) Trisomy 18
(D) Duodenal atresia | The correct answer is: Renal agenesis
Explanation: Oligohydramnios occurs due to congenital abnormalities of the fetal kidneys or genitourinary tract, such as renal agenesis or obstruction, that impede normal formation or excretion of fetal urine. Anencephaly, trisomy 18 and duodenal atresia causes polyhydramnios. | Pediatrics | congenital anomalies of kidney | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following drug is not used in Jorgenson technique:
(A) Pentobarbitol.
(B) Scopolamine.
(C) Propofol.
(D) Pethidine. | The correct answer is: Propofol.
Explanation: Jorgenson technique includes intravenous administration of opioids. The drugs used in Jorgenson technique are:
Pentobarbitol
Mepiridine
Scopalamine (Hyoscine)
Pethidine, etc. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Ureterovaginal fistula should best be treated by-
(A) Ureteroneocystostomy
(B) End-to-end anastomosis through an ureteric catheter
(C) Implantation into colon
(D) Ileal conduit | The correct answer is: Ureteroneocystostomy
Explanation: In case of ureteric transection ,paial or complete,a pyelography fails to show pa or whole of the ureter on the transected site and there may be pooling of dye in the peritoneal cavity. The immediate treatment is percutaneous nephrostomy and retrograde dye injection under fluoroscopy to help identify the site of transection. In a case of complete transection urinary diversion by nephrostomy is advisable to tide over the crisis,followed later with repair surgery. In case the transection is recognised during the surgery ,the surgeon must undeake anastamosis at the site of injury or implant the cut end of the ureter into the bladder or perform a Boari flap operation of Ureteroneocystostomy. SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:187,15th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Urogynecology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True about right atrium is :
(A) Auricle lies superolaterally
(B) Related to central tendon of diaphragm at Tio level
(C) Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC
(D) SVC opening is gaurded by endocardial valve | The correct answer is: Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC
Explanation: Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Phenylalanine deaminase test is positive in ?
(A) Salmonella
(B) Proteus
(C) Vibrio cholerae
(D) Helicobacter | The correct answer is: Proteus
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus The distinctive character of proteus genus is deamination of phenyl alanine to phenyl pyruvic acid (PPA + ye) | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following statement is true about Pinna except:
(A) In Treacher-Collins syndrome malformed pinna may be present
(B) Made up of elastic cailage
(C) Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only
(D) Helps in localization of sound | The correct answer is: Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only
Explanation: Ans. c. Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft onlyFirst branchial cleft is the precursor of external auditory canal.Around the sixth week of embryonic life, a series of six tubercles appear around the first branchial cleftBranchial clefts are ectodermal in origin.Pinna develops from 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True/false about bone tumours Most common malignant tumour of bone is metastases. Most common primary malignant bone tumour is multiple myeloma Codman triangle is specific for osteosarcoma. IOC for skeletal metastases is CT scan. Blow out bone metastases are seen in renal cell carcinoma.
(A) TTFFT
(B) FTFFT
(C) TTFFF
(D) FFFFT | The correct answer is: TTFFT
Explanation: Most common malignant tumour of bone is metastases. Most common primary malignant bone tumour is multiple myeloma. Codman triangle is seen in - osteosarcoma, ewing's sarcoma, metastases, GCT etc. IOC for skeletal metastases is bone scan. Blow out bone metastases is seen in RCC, thyroid ca, HCC. | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Regarding NK cells, FALSE statement is:
(A) It is activated by IL-2
(B) They express inhibitory receptors that recognize MHC class I
(C) It is a variant of large lymphocyte
(D) There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells | The correct answer is: There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
Explanation: Antibodies do not induce proliferation of NK cells. NK cells can kill virus infected cells without antibodies, but IgG antibody can enhance their effectiveness, a process called antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity. Impoant features of NK cells: Are large granular lymphocytes They lack T cell receptor, CD 3 proteins, and surface IgM and IgD Thymus is not required for its development Normal numbers of NK cells are found in patients with SCID They kill virus infected cells and cancer cells Killing is non specific and is not dependent on foreign antigen presentation by class I or II MHC proteins They produce gamma interferon that activates macrophages to kill ingested bacteria NK cells have receptors that detect the presence of class I MHC proteins on the cell surface. If a cell displays sufficient class I MHC proteins, that cell is not killed by the NK cell. Ref: Text Book of Microbilogy By Ananthanarayan, 8th Edition, Page 131 ; Robbins Basic Pathology, Page 83 ; Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 1754, 15th Edition, Page 1810 | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In dhatura poisoning 9 'Ds' include all except -
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Dysphagia
(C) Dilated pupil
(D) Drowsiness | The correct answer is: Diarrhea
Explanation: Clinical Features of datura * Dryness of mouth (dry as bone) * Bitter taste * Difficulty in talking * Dysphagia* Dilated pupils * Diplopia* Difficulty in vision (blurring of vision, blind as bat) * Dry hot skin with flushing (red as beet) * Hyperpyrexia (hot as hare) * Drunken gait (ataxia) * Hyperreflexia * Convulsions * Delirium, hallucinations, agitation, amnesia, incoherence, visual or auditory hallucinations (mad as a hen) * Deficit of recent memory. Remote memory undisturbed * Dysuria * Distention of bladder (retention of urine) * Death. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 344 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
About Neuropeptide Y, all are true except
(A) It decreses the activity of melanocoieotropin hormone
(B) Decreases thermogenesis
(C) Its level decreases during starvation
(D) Contains 36 Amino-acid residues | The correct answer is: Its level decreases during starvation
Explanation: Neuropeptide Y (NPY) is a 36-amino acid peptide neurotransmitter found in the brain and autonomic nervous system. It augments the vasoconstrictor effects of noradrenergic neurons.A natural substance that acts on the brain to stimulate eating. When energy stores of the body are low (as in starving), orexigenic neurons are activated to release NPY, which stimulates appetite. At the same time, firing of thePOMC neurons are reduced, thereby decreasing the activity of the melanocoin pathway and fuher stimulating appetite.Substances that block the NPY receptor reduce the appetite. Leptin, a hormone that stimulates weight loss, reduces the output of NPY from the hypothalamus, a major production centre. Another natural substance that stimulates the urge to eat is peptide YY.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-264 | Physiology | Endocrinology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Maximum working hours duration including overtime for a person working in a factory as per the factories act 1948 is
(A) 48 hours
(B) 60 hours
(C) 72 hours
(D) 80 hours | The correct answer is: 60 hours
Explanation: Factories Act* The act prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years and declares that age between 15 to 18 as adolescents.* Adolescents should be duly certified by the Certifying surgeons.* Adolescent s employees are allowed to work only between 6 AM and 7 PM.* Prescribes a maximum of 48 hours per week not exceeding 9 hours per day with 1/2 hr rest after 5 hours of continuous work.* The total number of hours of work in a week including overtime shall not exceed 60 hrs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
False regarding Bochdalek hernia is -
(A) Spleen and kidney can herniate
(B) Occurs posterolaterally
(C) Always occurs on right side
(D) Hernia may or may not have sac | The correct answer is: Always occurs on right side
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Always occur on the right side Bochdalek hernia occurs mostly on left side (80%) I have no idea about option 'd' | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is known as Preisz Nocard bacillus
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(B) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
(C) Influenza bacillus
(D) Salmonella | The correct answer is: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Explanation: Corynebacteria of veterinary impoance are Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Also called as Preisz - Nocard bacilli. Causes pseudotuberculosis in sheeps and suppurative lymphadenitis in horses. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker&;s; 9th edition; Page no: 242 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Southern blot is used to detect -
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Protein
(D) Ribosome | The correct answer is: DNA
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., DNA TechniqueSample analyzedGel usedProbeSouthern blotDNAQYesRadioactive DNAAllele specific oligonucleotide (ASO)DNANoAllele specific oligonucleotideMicroarraym-RNA or c-DNANoDNA probeNorthern blotRNAQYesDNA probeWestern (immuno) blotProteinQYesLabeled antibodySouth Western blotProtein DNANoDNA probeELISAProtein or antibodiesNoAntibodyQ (Specific for protein to be measured)ProteomicsProteinQYes-- | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is spared in modified radical mastectomy (MRM)?
(A) Pectoralis major
(B) Pectoralis minor
(C) Axillary lymph nodes
(D) Nipple | The correct answer is: Pectoralis major
Explanation: Ans. a (Pectoralis major). (Ref. Bailey & Love Surgery, 25th ed., 842)MASTECTOMY is now only strictly indicated for large tumors, central tumor beneath or involving nipple, multifocal disease, and local recurrence or for patient preference.Simple mastectomyRadical mastectomy (Halsted)Modified radical Mastectomy (Patey's)# Only breast & Axillary tail of breast# Breast# Axillary lymph nodes# Pectoralis major# Pectoralis minor# Whole breast# Large portion of skin including nipple# Dissection of axilla# All fat, fascia & lymph nodes of axilla.# Pectoral minor either divided or retracted# Intercostal brachial nerves divided.STRUCTURES SPARED IN MRM1. Pectoralis major2. Axillary vein3. Nerve to serratus anterior & latissimus dorsiEducational points:# Conservative breast cancer surgery is QUART (Quadrantectomy Axillary Dissection & RT).# Sentinel node biopsy localized by radionuclide scan or by injection of patent blue dye.# Reconstruction materials:- Silicone gel,- Musculocutaneous Flaps {TRAM gives best cosmetic results) | Surgery | Breast Cancer - Treatments | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Tensilon test is used for?
(A) Botulism
(B) Arsenic
(C) Iron
(D) Phenol | The correct answer is: Botulism
Explanation: TENSILON TEST : edrophonium is used to differentiate botulism from myasthenia gravis. Botulism Tensilon test Arsenic Marsh Test Iron Desferrioxamine colour test Phenol Ferric chloride test | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 3 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Not a radiosensitizing drug -
(A) 5-Fu
(B) BUDR
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Hydroxyrea | The correct answer is: Cyclophosphamide
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyclophosphamide RadiosensitizersA) Hypoxic cell radiosensitizers1) Nitroimidazoles:- Metronidazole, Misonidazole, Etanidazole, Nimorazole, Pimonidazole2) Anticancers:- Actinomycin D (Dactinomycin), Bleomycin, Cisplatin, Doxorubicin, 5-FU, Fludarabine, Gemcitabine, Hydroxyurea, Paclitaxel, Mitomycin - C, Topotecan, Vinorelbine.3) Hyperbaric oxygen (most potent)B) Non hypoxic cell radiosensitizers1) Haloginatedpyrimidines:- BUdR, IUdR.Cisplatin and 5-FU are two of the most commonly used radiosensitizing agents. | Radiology | Radiation treatment planning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Failure rate of contraceptive method is determined by -
(A) Pearl index
(B) Half life
(C) Number of accidental pregnancies
(D) Period of contraceptive practice continued | The correct answer is: Pearl index
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pearl index o Pearl index is "failure rate per hundred women years of exposurePearl indexo Contraceptive methods are evaluated by Pearl indexo Pearl index is "'failure rate per hundred women years of exposure (HWY)"Fai lure rate per HWY = -Total accidental pregnanciesTotal months of exposurex 1200o In applying the above formula, the total accidental pregnancies shown in the numerator, must include every known conception, whatever its outcome. The factor 1200 is the number of months in 100 yrs.o A failure rate of 10 per HWY would mean that in the lifetime of an average women about one fourth or 2,5 accidental pregnancies would result, since the average fertile period of a women is about 25 yrs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Family Planning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
CSF otorrhea is caused by
(A) Fracture of cribriform plate
(B) Fracture of parietal bone
(C) Fracture of petrous temporal bone
(D) Fracture of tympanic membrane | The correct answer is: Fracture of petrous temporal bone
Explanation: CSF otorrhea is seen in middle cranial fossa fractures. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following will decrease the physiologic dead space?
(A) Emphysema
(B) Neck flexion
(C) Increase in tidal volume
(D) IPPV | The correct answer is: Neck flexion
Explanation: Neck flexion decreases the volume of anatomic dead space and thus the total or physiologic dead (which includes anatomic dead space) will decrease. Physiologic dead space includes those alveoli which do not receive perfusion, making it a wasted ventilation in those alveoli. Physiologic dead space increases in emphysema. Increase in tidal volume increases anatomic dead space & thus physiologic dead space In IPPV, the positive pressure ventilation increases alveolar pressure, which in turn compresses vessels. This will decrease the blood flow to some regions of the lung. | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 1 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In testicular feminisation syndrome:
(A) Buccal smear is chromatin positive
(B) Normal breast size is observed
(C) Menstruation is scanty and infrequent
(D) Streak gonads seen | The correct answer is: Normal breast size is observed
Explanation: Ans. is b, i.e. Normal breast size is observedRef: Dutta Gynae 6th/ed, p443In testicular feminization syndrome:Genotype = 46 XY* Hence Barr body is absent i.e. chromatin negative (i.e., option a is incorrect)* Here gonads are testis and are not streak (option d is incorrect)* There is primary amenorrhea (option c is incorrect)(i.e. option d is correct).Rest all options you know. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sex Intersexuality | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Testicular aery is a branch of -
(A) Abdominal aoa
(B) Common iliac aery
(C) External iliac aery
(D) Internal iliac aery | The correct answer is: Abdominal aoa
Explanation: Testicular aery is direct branch of abdominal aoa. | Anatomy | FMGE 2019 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Mechanism of cyanide poisoning is by inhibiting -
(A) DNA synthesis
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Protein breakdown
(D) Protein synthesis | The correct answer is: Cytochrome oxidase
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome oxidase o Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase for oxygen utilisation in cells,o Death is due to cytotoxic/ histotoxic anoxia,o It is associated with a characteristic smell of bitter almonds. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient has subclinical folate deficiency. All of the following drugs can precipitate megaloblastic anemia in this patient except
(A) Alcohol
(B) Phenytoin
(C) chloroquine
(D) Sulfasalzine | The correct answer is: chloroquine
Explanation: Chloroquine doesnot produce megaloblastic anemia. Whereas all the other three drugs can precipitate megaloblastic anemia. From medical pharmacology padmaja 4th edition Page no 224,399,217,478 | Pharmacology | Hematology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 10-month old male child was having vomiting upon eating fruits, but is of normal weight. He has been exclusively breast fed till now. The doctor suggests fructose intolerance. Which of the following enzyme would be deficient in this child?
(A) Aldolase B
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Fructokinase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase | The correct answer is: Aldolase B
Explanation: Ans. a. Aldolase B | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient with clustered white lesions on the buccal mucosa opposite the upper 1st as 2nd molars pathognomonic for measles These are
(A) Leukoplaka
(B) Koplik spots
(C) Kaposi spots
(D) none | The correct answer is: Koplik spots
Explanation: ref : harrisons 21st ed | Medicine | All India exam | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient presented with sudden onset on thunderclap headache & dilated pupils. Finding are consistent with:
(A) Meningitis
(B) Brain stem encephalitis
(C) Acute ischemia of midbrain
(D) Acute aneurismal hemorrhage | The correct answer is: Acute aneurismal hemorrhage
Explanation: SAH- Thunder clap headache Cause- Rupture of berry's aneurysm If at post. communicating aery rupture-Involves oculomotor Nerve -So, Dilated pupils -Meningitis - Headache + fever + Nuchal rigidity -Brainstem encephalitis- Altered sensorium autonomic insufficiency -Acute ischemia of Brain/ Stroke - Aletred sensorium Quadri/ Para/ Hemiplegia. Prodromal symptoms suggest the location of a progressively enlarging unruptured aneurysm. A third cranial nerve palsy, paicularly when associated with pupillary dilation, loss of ipsilateral (but retained contralateral) light reflex, and focal pain above or behind the eye, may occur with an expanding aneurysm at the junction of the posterior communicating aery and the internal carotid aery. A sixth nerve palsy may indicate an aneurysm in the cavernous sinus, and visual field defects can occur with an expanding supraclinoid carotid or anterior cerebral aery (ACA) aneurysm. Occipital and posterior cervical pain may signal a posterior inferior cerebellar aery or anterior inferior cerebellar aery aneurysm ). Pain in or behind the eye and in the low temple can occur with an expanding MCA aneurysm. Thunderclap headache is a variant of migraine that simulates an SAH. Before concluding that a patient with sudden, severe headache has thunderclap migraine, a definitive workup for aneurysm or other intracranial pathology is required. | Medicine | FMGE 2018 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Reversible Dementia Is a feature of ?
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Cushing's disease | The correct answer is: Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of reversible dementiao Hypothyroidismo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Depressiono Drugso Alcoholo Vitamin B12 deficiency | Medicine | Psychiatry | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A child presents with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure. The muscle relaxant of choice to be used during surgery of exstrophy in this child is:
(A) Atracurium
(B) Mivacurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Rocuronium | The correct answer is: Atracurium
Explanation: Ans. (A) Atracurium(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p453, KDT 8th/e p380)Atracurium is eliminated by Hoffman's elimination i.e. it does not require liver or kidney. It is the muscle relaxant of choice in hepatic and renal failure. | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Rotation of sigmoid volvulus occur in which direction?
(A) Clockwise
(B) Anticlockwise
(C) Initially clockwise later anticlockwise
(D) Either clockwise or anticlockwise | The correct answer is: Anticlockwise
Explanation: "Rotation in sigmoid volvulus nearly always occur in anticlockwise direction" Remember Sigmoid volvulus --------- Anticlockwise Cecal volvulus ----------- Clockwise Ref: Bailey & Love 25/e, Page 1192; CSDT 13/e, Page 682; Textbook of Surgery by S. Das 3/e, Page 1031. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
An army jawan posted in remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104degF and pulse was 70 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting -
(A) High OX - 2
(B) High OX - 19
(C) High OX - K
(D) High OX - 19 and OX - 2 | The correct answer is: High OX - K
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., High OX - K . Fever, headache, erythmatous lesion along with generalized lymphadenopathy are suggestive of scrub typhus. . In scrub typhus, Weil - Felix reaction is strongly positive with the proteus strain OX - K. Note ---> In this question the key word is lymphadenopathy. Amongst the typhus group, lymphadenopathy is seen only in scrub typhus. | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Agent which dissolves rubber –
(A) Halothane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Isoflurane | The correct answer is: Halothane
Explanation: Halothane and methoxyflurane are absorbed by rubber. | Anaesthesia | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In normal pressure hydrocephalus, all are seen except-
(A) Convulsion
(B) Ataxia
(C) Dementia
(D) Incontinence | The correct answer is: Convulsion
Explanation: Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus is an uncommon syndrome consisting of
an abnormal gait (ataxia or apractic)
dementia (usually mild to moderate)
urinary incontinence
This is a communicating hydrocephalus with patent aqueduct of Sylvius.
NPH is presumed to be caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexity and delayed absorption into the venous system. The indolent nature of process results in an enlarged lateral ventricles but relatively little increase in CSF pressure.
Following conditions have been seen to cause NPH by producing scarring of basilar meninges (blocking upwards flow of CSF)
meningitis
subarachnoid haemorrhage
head injury
Approx 30-50% of the patients of NPH will show improvement with a ventricular shunting procedure. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Onabotulinum toxin A can be used for the treatment of:
(A) Cervical dystonia.
(B) Chronic migraine.
(C) Blepharospasm.
(D) Strabismus. | The correct answer is: Chronic migraine.
Explanation: Onabotilinum toxin A has recently been approved to prevent a headache in adult patients with chronic migraine. | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive cervical carcinoma by cone biopsy. Pelvic examination and rectal examination reveal the parametrium is free of disease but upper pa of vagina is involved with tumor.IVP and sigmoidoscopy are negative but CT Scan of abdomen and pelvis shows grossly enlarged pelvic and para aoic nodes. Thus patient is classified as stage:
(A) IIa
(B) IIb
(C) IIIa
(D) IIIb | The correct answer is: IIa
Explanation: Stage ll:clinically visible lesions limited to cervical uteri or pre-clinical cancers greater than stageIA Stage IIA:Without parametrial invasion, A1&A2 Stage llB:With obvious parametrial invasion D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:342,6th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological oncology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a child who has been raped hymen:
(A) Will be intact because it is elastic
(B) Will be intact because it is deep situated
(C) Will be perforated because very thin
(D) Will be perforated because superficial | The correct answer is: Will be intact because it is deep situated
Explanation: In case of rape on small children,hymen is usually intact, since it is deeply situated. In children, the hymen is deeply situated, and as the vagina is very small, it is impossible for the penetration of the adult organ to take place. In children, there are a few or no signs of general violence, as the child is unaware of the assault and incapable of resisting. A few indicators for routine enquiry are pain on urination and/or defecation, abdominal pain, inability to sleep, sudden withdrawal from peers/adults, feelings of anxiety, nervousness, helplessness, weight loss, and feelings of ending one's life. | Forensic Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In cotrimoxazole, sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim are in the ratio of-
(A) 2:01
(B) 1:01
(C) 5:01
(D) 1:05 | The correct answer is: 5:01
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 : 1 o Optimal synergy in case of most organism is exhibited at a concentration ratio of Sulphamethoxazole 20: Trimethoprim 1 (This ratio is obtained in plasma when two are given in a dose ratio of 5:1). | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Fast breathing in less than 2 month child the respiratory rate is
(A) 60 breaths per minute
(B) 50 breaths per minute
(C) 40 breaths per minute
(D) 30 breaths per minute | The correct answer is: 60 breaths per minute
Explanation: A. i.e. (60 breaths per minute) (144- Park 19th) (154- Park 20th)* FAST BREATHING is present when the respiratory rate is- 60 breaths per minute or more in a child less than 2 months of age- 50 breaths per minute or more in a child aged 2 months upto 12 months- 40 breaths per minute or more in a child aged 12 months upto 5 years. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following occurs first with the use of d-tubocurare:
(A) Diaphragmatic relaxation
(B) Abdominal wall relaxation
(C) Diplopia
(D) Ptosis | The correct answer is: Diaphragmatic relaxation
Explanation: Any neuromuscular blocker when given intravenously goes to highly perfused organ like diaphragm and intercostal muscle first then facial muscle , then upper limb and last lower limb. Thus sequence of block - diaphragm and intercostal muscle - facial muscle - upper limb - lower limb | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess -
(A) Diverticulitis
(B) Stricture of CBD
(C) Subdiaphragmatic abscess
(D) Empyema in chest | The correct answer is: Stricture of CBD
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stricture of CBD Routes of infection to liverAlong the bile ducts (MC)Stone impacted in CBDStricture of CBD - benign, malignantCryptogenicVia the portal veinVia the hepatic arteryBy direct extensionFrom a subdiaphragmatic abscessFrom an empyema in chestFrom suppuratative cholecystitisFrom perinephric abscessPenetrating or blunt traumaAlso knowo MC organisms (Ref. Sabiston, Schwartz)Escherichia coliKlebsiella pneumoniaAlso noteo Sabiston 18th ed. writes that now there are 2 most common cause of liver abscess i.e. Cryptogenic and infections from the biliary tree. It writes- "Along with cryptogenic infections, infections from the biliary' tree are presently the most common identifiable cause of hepatic abscess ". | Surgery | Hepatic Tumors, Cysts, and Abscesses | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Calcium channel blockers in anesthesia, True is :
(A) Needs to be decreased as they augment hypotension & muscle relaxation
(B) Withheld because they lower LES pressure
(C) Should be given in normal doses as they prevent MI & angina
(D) All of the above | The correct answer is: Should be given in normal doses as they prevent MI & angina
Explanation: C i.e. Should be given in normal dose as they prevent MI & Angina Calcium channel blockers potentiate neuromuscular-block, cause lowering of muscle tone of lower esophageal sphincter but there is no such indication of stoppage of this drug during anesthesia. CCB's prevent MI & angina during anesthesia & should be given in normal doses (preoperatively)Q. | Anaesthesia | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
An 8-year-old child is evaluated by the pediatrician, who notes small cafe-au-lait spots on the child's torso. In addition, on close inspection of the eyes, the presence of Lisch nodules is noted. The patient is eventually diagnosed with neurofibromatosis type 1. The protein that is mutated in this disorder normally does which of the following functions?
(A) Activates the GTPase activity of Ras
(B) Cleaves cellular proteins during apoptosis
(C) Functions as a cell cycle checkpoint regulator
(D) Promotes angiogenesis | The correct answer is: Activates the GTPase activity of Ras
Explanation: The normal function of NF1 is to promote the intrinsic GTPase function of the RAS oncogene. Mechanism:- RAS has an intrinsic GTPase activity that is accelerated by GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs), which bind to active RAS and augment its GTPase activity by more than 1000-fold, thereby terminating signal transduction. Thus, GAPs prevent uncontrolled RAS activity. When the Ras protein is bound to GTP, the growth-promoting function of the molecule is "ON". On hydrolysis of the GTP to GDP, Ras is conveed to an inactive state. GAPs (GTPase Activating Proteins), such as NF-1, suppress cell growth by stimulating GTP hydrolysis. Disabling mutations of neurofibromin 1, a GAP (GTPase-activating protein) encoded by the NF1 gene, are associated with the inherited cancer syndrome familial neurofibromatosis type 1. NF1 is therefore an example of a tumor suppressor gene that acts through negative regulation of RAS signaling (inhibitor of RAS/MAPK signaling). Other Options:- Caspases function to cleave cellular proteins once apoptosis is triggered Vascular endothelial growth factor promotes tumor angiogenesis RB and TP53 function as cell cycle checkpoint regulators | Pathology | Genetic Basics Of Carcinogenesis | medium | NEET | medmcqa |
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