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A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of recurrent oral ulcers, genital ulcers, intermittent ahritic pain of the knees and abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals shallow ulcerations of the mucosa of the glans penis, as well as oral aphthous ulcers and conjunctivitis. Pathergy test is positive. Which of... | The correct answer is: Behcet's syndrome
Explanation: Behcet's syndrome is a systemic vasculitis characterized by oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulceration and ocular inflammation, with occasional involvement of the nervous, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems. The mucocutaneous lesions show a nonspecific vasc... | Pathology | Vasculitis | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Phacoemulsification incision is at ?
(A) Sclero-corneal junction
(B) Cornea
(C) Sclera
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Sclero-corneal junction
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sclero-corneal junction In phacoemulsification very small 3 cmm incision is taken at the sclerocorneal junction. Phacoemulsification It is nothing else but an advancement in the method of doing ECCE. Here the nucleus is conveed into pulp or ... | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Low risk type of HPV
(A) Type-16
(B) Type-6
(C) Type-18
(D) Type-31 | The correct answer is: Type-6
Explanation: <p>HPV Human papilloma virus More than 200 types known .100 have been sequenced. These virus invade squamous epithelium and trigger cell proliferation. Viruses mainly being transmitted by fomites ,scratching, and auto inoculation. Low risk type-6 and 11 {Reference: IADVL text... | Dental | Sexually transmitted diseases | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Infant Eye is
(A) Myopic
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Hypermetropic
(D) None | The correct answer is: Hypermetropic
Explanation: C i.e. Hypermetropic | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
2 year old child with length 85cm and weight of 11kg was found to have serum urea of 49mg/dl, serum creatinine 2mg/dl What is the estimated GFR of this child, as per Schwartz formula?
(A) 9
(B) 18
(C) 48
(D) 90 | The correct answer is: 18
Explanation: schwartz formula for creatinine clearance :
= k X length / serum creatinine
( k = 0.42)
GFR = 0.42 X 85/2 = 17.8 ≈ 18. | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 42-year-old man who was in a house fire is transferred to your burn unit. He has singed nose hairs and facial burns. Direct laryngoscopy in the emergency room demonstrates pharyngeal edema and mucosal sloughing. He has 60% total body surface area burns. Which of the following is the next step in the management of thi... | The correct answer is: Intubation
Explanation: The patient requires intubation because of suspicion of upper airway burns. Clinical suspicion should be increased given the singed nose hairs and facial burns. Intubation should be considered in the presence of posterior pharyngeal edema, mucosal sloughing, or carbonaceo... | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is wrong:
(A) Dick test - Scarlet fever
(B) Neil Mooser reaction - Chlamydia
(C) Koch's phenomenon - TB/Guinea pigs
(D) Montenegro test-Leishmania | The correct answer is: Neil Mooser reaction - Chlamydia
Explanation: Ans. B. Neil Mooser reaction - ChlamydiaNeil Mooser reaction is done in guinea pigs and is positive for Rickettsia rickettsiae which causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever | Microbiology | Bacteria | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
About 12 days after a mild upper respiratory infection, a 12-year-old boy complains of weakness in his lower extremities. Over several days, the weakness progresses to include his trunk. On physical examination, he has the weakness described and no lower extremity deep tendon reflexes, muscle atrophy, or pain. Spinal f... | The correct answer is: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation: The paralysis of Guillain-Barre often occurs about 10 days after a nonspecific viral illness. Weakness is gradual over days or weeks, beginning in the lower extremities and progressing toward the trunk. Later, the upper limbs and the bulbar muscles can become... | Pediatrics | Musculo Skeletal Disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cause(s) of retention of urine in reproductive age group:a) Cervical fibroidb) Retroverted gravid uterusc) Unilateral hydronephrosisd) Severe UTIe) Posterior urethral valve
(A) acd
(B) bcd
(C) abc
(D) abd | The correct answer is: abd
Explanation: Important gynecological causes of acute retention:— | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The commonest histological type of carcinoma testis is -
(A) Teratoma
(B) Yolk sac turom
(C) Seminoma
(D) Chorio carcinoma | The correct answer is: Seminoma
Explanation: Tumors of the testis are a heterogeneous group of neoplasms that include germ cell tumors and sex cord stromal tumors. In postpubeal males, 95% of testicular tumors arise from germ cells, and all are malignant Seminomas are the most common type of germ cell tumor (~ 50% of ... | Pathology | Urinary tract | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Radical hysterectomy is done in which one of the following :
(A) Carcinoma in situ
(B) Endocervix cancer stage IA
(C) Microinvasive carcinoma of cervix
(D) Carcinoma cervix stage IB | The correct answer is: Carcinoma cervix stage IB
Explanation: Carcinoma cervix stage IB | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Renal threshold for serum glucose level-
(A) 100 mg/dl
(B) 200 mg/dl
(C) 300 mg/dl
(D) 400 mg/dl | The correct answer is: 200 mg/dl
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., 200 mg/dl * The transport maximum for glucose is 375 mg/min whereas the filtered load of glucose is only 125 mg/min.* Therefore, in normal conditions 100% of glucose is reabsorbed in proximal tubules.* When plasma glucose concentration is 100 mg/dl the fi... | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Most common presentation of a child with Wilm's tumour is
(A) Hematuria
(B) Hypertension
(C) Asymptomatic abdominal mass
(D) Abdominal pain | The correct answer is: Asymptomatic abdominal mass
Explanation: Most common initial clinical presentation for Wilm's tumour is incidental discovery of Asymptomatic abdominal mass by parents while bathing an affected child or by physician during routine physical examination. | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
About chronic hepatitis B , all are true, EXCEPT:
(A) 90 % chance for chronic infection if infected at bih.
(B) Mild chronic hepatitis B has 5 year survival 97 %
(C) Adult infection is usually symptomatic
(D) Chronicity if infected in adult age is about 10 % | The correct answer is: Chronicity if infected in adult age is about 10 %
Explanation: Chronic hepatitis B: 1. Infection at bih is clinically silent but carries a 90% chance of chronic infection. 2. Infection in young adulthood is clinically apparent acute hepatitis but a risk of chronicity of only approximately 1%. 3.... | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Bronchospasm is not caused by
(A) Regurgitation
(B) Aspiration
(C) Intubation
(D) Halothane | The correct answer is: Halothane
Explanation: D i.e. Halothane | Anaesthesia | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 75–year old patient presents with deterioration of vision. On examination the pupillary reflex is observed to be sluggish and the Intraocular pressure is normal. Optic disc evaluation shows a large and deep cup and primarily shows paracentral scotomas. The most likely diagnosis is –
(A) Primary Narrow Angle glaucoma
... | The correct answer is: Normal Tension Glaucoma
Explanation: Glaucomatous cupping (large and deep cup) along with glaucomatous visual field defect (paracentral scotomas are the most frequent) in a patient with normal intraocular pressure suggest a diagnosis of Normal Tension Glaucoma (NTG). | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Caplan's syndrome of rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis is characterized by
(A) Lung nodules and diffuse pulmonary fibrosis
(B) Bilateral symmetrical lung cavitations with pulmonary fibrosis.
(C) Air-space consolidation with patchy pulmonary fibrosis.
(D) Interstitial pneumonitis with hilar adenopathy. | The correct answer is: Lung nodules and diffuse pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation: Ans. a (Lung nodules and diffuse pulmonary fibrosis). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 16th ed., 1524)CAPLAN'S SYNDROME# Caplan's syndrome is characterized by triad of- Pulmonary nodules,- Pneumoconiosis (progressive massive fibrosis), and/in- Rh... | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Bacillus used to test the efficacy of Sterilization by Autoclave is?
(A) Bacillus subtilis.
(B) Bacillus pumilus
(C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(D) Coxiella burnetii | The correct answer is: Bacillus stearothermophilus
Explanation: Various bacilli are used to check the efficacy of sterilization methods are:
Autoclave- Bacillus stearothermophilus
Hot air oven- Bacillus subtilis subspecies niger
Ionising radiation- Bacillus pumilus | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following has a single ossification centre only
(A) Clavicle
(B) Carpals
(C) Metacarpals
(D) Metatarsals | The correct answer is: Carpals
Explanation: The carpal bones are ossified endochondrally (from within the cailage) and the ossification centers appear only after bih.The formation of these centers roughly follows a chronological spiral pattern staing in the capitate and hamate during the first year of life.The ulnar b... | Anatomy | General anatomy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Acedes aegypticus transmits -
(A) JE
(B) KFD
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Filaria | The correct answer is: Yellow fever
Explanation: aedes causes yellow fever,dengue,chickunguniya culex causes KFD,JE,filariasis anopheles -malaria | Microbiology | parasitology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Infantile autism is characterized by – a) Impaired visionb) Impaired Neurobehavioural developmentc) Impaired folate leveld) A socio–economic hazarde) Parenting
(A) bd
(B) d
(C) ab
(D) ac | The correct answer is: bd
Explanation: Autism is a neurological disorder.
It is more common in low socio-economic groups. | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Blood supply of femoral head is
(A) Femoral aery
(B) Obturator aery
(C) Internal pudendal aery
(D) Lateral circumflex aery | The correct answer is: Obturator aery
Explanation: BLOOD SUPPLY OF FEMORAL HEAD:- The head of femur is paly supplied by a branch of obturator aery along the ligamentum teres.Main aerial supply is from retinacular aeries, branch of medial circumflex femoral aery.These aeries get injured in intracapsular fracture neck o... | Anatomy | Lower limb | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
For growth of bone, which term is most appropriate:
(A) Enlargement
(B) Apposition
(C) Hyper plasia
(D) Hyperophy | The correct answer is: Apposition
Explanation: B i.e. Apposition Because bone tissue is made only by osteoblasts, the growth of bone is achieved only by deposition of new bone on pre existing surface - known as appositional growth. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are true about BCG vaccine except.
(A) WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain of M.bovis
(B) Given intradermally
(C) Normal saline is a diluent
(D) Site of injection should be cleaned with spirit | The correct answer is: Site of injection should be cleaned with spirit
Explanation: Site of injection should be cleaned with soap but not with disinfectant or spirit. | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Rabies can be transmitted by all of the following routes except -
(A) Aerosol
(B) Bites
(C) Ingestion
(D) Licks | The correct answer is: Ingestion
Explanation: <p> RABIES:- Rabies, an acute highly fatal viral disease of CNS caused by Lyssavirus type 1( neurotropic RNA virus). Mode of transmission- Deep bite/ scratch by an infected animal. Dogs are the main host and transmitter if rabies. Transmission can also occur when infectiou... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cart Wheel sign is seen in:
(A) ASOM
(B) Glomus
(C) OME
(D) CSOM | The correct answer is: ASOM
Explanation: (a) ASOM(Ref. Hazarika, 3rd ed., 149)In Glomus "rising sun sign" or "red reflex" is seen.In Otitis media with effusion (OME) TM appears dull, retracted and sometimes bluish.In CSOM the TM will be perforated | ENT | Ear | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Most common cause of infant moality?
(A) LBW
(B) Injury
(C) A
(D) Tetanus | The correct answer is: LBW
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., LBW | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The tensile strength of a bone is due to
(A) Strands of collagen
(B) Hydroxyapatite crystals
(C) Periosteum
(D) Metaphysis | The correct answer is: Strands of collagen
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stands of collagen o The strands of collagen give bone its tensile strength, and the interspersed crystals ofhydroxyapatite give bone its compressional strength. These effects are synergistic.o Bone components are:-1. Inorganic elements (65%)2. ... | Orthopaedics | Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which one of the following does not pass through the lungs?
(A) Hookworm
(B) Ascaris
(C) Strongyloidis
(D) Enterobius vermicularis | The correct answer is: Enterobius vermicularis
Explanation: Ans. (d) Enterobius vermicularis | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A benign tumour in the pterygoid canal would spare which of the following nerve fibers
(A) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
(B) Taste fibers from the palate
(C) Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
(D) General visceral afferent (GVA) fibers | The correct answer is: Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Explanation: Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers The nerve of the pterygoid canal (Vidian nerve), formed by the junction of the great (superficial)petrosal nerve and the deep petrosal nerve in the cailaginous substance which fills the foramen lacerum, pass... | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In case of cast restoration, if the contact is open, what should be done to prevent the complications?
(A) A new casting should be done
(B) A new contact area must be soldered to the casting
(C) The cavity preparation should be refined further
(D) Leave it as it is, no complications occur | The correct answer is: A new contact area must be soldered to the casting
Explanation: If the contact is open (short of touching the adjacent tooth), a new contact area must be soldered to the casting. An open contact is best detected by visual inspection with the aid of the mouth mirror. The region must be isolated w... | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In which of the following, Koebner phenomenon is NOT seen -
(A) Lichen planus
(B) psoriasis
(C) lichen nitidus
(D) Lichen simplex chronicus | The correct answer is: Lichen simplex chronicus
Explanation: koebners phenomenon is seen in lichen planus,psoriasis, lichen nitidus,vitiligo IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 107 | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vasponstricator L.A. is
(A) Cocaine
(B) Procaine
(C) Lidocaine
(D) Chlorprocain | The correct answer is: Cocaine
Explanation: All local anaesthetics are vasodilators except cociane which is a vasoconstrictor | Anaesthesia | Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of low mood.She repos a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. Clinical examination reveals cool peripheries and a pulse of 45 bpm. Thyroid function tests (TFTs) show the following: TSH:6.5 mU/L (0.4-4.0 mU/L) T4:4 pmol/L (9-24 pmol/L) Which o... | The correct answer is: Drug induced hypothyroidism
Explanation: In question : TSH || T4 || Bradycardia suggestive of 1o Hypothyoidism Option C- Pituitary damaged TSH| T3| T4| Option D- Hypothalamus is damaged TRH | TSH | In the question given history of Atrial fibrillation so 2 drugs given for it AMIODORONE & IBUTILID... | Medicine | Diseases of Thyroid | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A troubled youth has a long history of gasoline sniffing.For the above patient with a toxic ingestion or exposure, select the most likely clinical effect.
(A) combines with cytochromes and catalase to block hydrogen and electron transport, thus producing tissue asphyxia
(B) methemoglobinemia
(C) vertigo, hyperventilati... | The correct answer is: bone marrow depression
Explanation: Benzene is associated with bone marrow depression. Benzene is present to some extent in most gasolines, and poisoning may result from ingestion or vapors. Acute benzene poisoning can cause severe CNS symptoms such as blurred vision, tremors, shallow and rapid ... | Medicine | Toxicology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
To differentiate between stress incontinence and detrusor instability investigation done is
(A) Cystosurethroscopy
(B) Urodynamic study
(C) MCU
(D) Retograde urethroscopy | The correct answer is: Urodynamic study
Explanation: Ans is 'b' ie Urodynamic study Genuine stress incontinence is defined as urinary leakage occuring during increased bladder pressure when this is solely due to increased abdominal pressure and not due to increased true detrusor pressure. - It is caused by sphincter w... | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 5-year-old unimmunized child presented with high fever, sore throat, dysphagia & voice change. Throat swab from a whitish lesion showed the following diagnosis.
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Mumps
(C) Pertussis
(D) Streptococcal pharyngitis | The correct answer is: Diphtheria
Explanation: a. DiphtheriaOn Albert staining, C. diphtheriae appears green colored rod shaped bacteria with bluish black metachromatic granules at the poles | Pediatrics | General Considerations - Infectious Diseases | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Baby with history of convulsion vaccine contraindicated is ?
(A) DPT
(B) Measles
(C) BCG
(D) Rubella | The correct answer is: DPT
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., DPT | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Metastasis in thyroid gland come most commonly from carcinoma of
(A) Testis
(B) Prostate
(C) Breast
(D) Lungs | The correct answer is: Breast
Explanation: The above-mentioned book is solely dedicated to surgery and diseases of thyroid & parathyroid gland.
It writes -
"Metastatic disease to the thyroid may occur as a consequence of direct extension from upper aerodigestive malignancies, i.e., squamous cell Ca, or by hematogenou... | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
After 8 weeks of visit to female sex worker male patient develops painless ulcer over penis that bleeds on touch without any lymphadenopathy, diagnosis is?
(A) Primary Syphilis
(B) Chanchroid
(C) Herpes simplex virus
(D) Donovanosis | The correct answer is: Donovanosis
Explanation: Donovanosis (Granuloma Inguinale ) Chronic, progressively destructive bacterial infection of the genital region caused by K. granulomatis. Intracellular, gram-negative, pleomorphic, encapsulated bacterium. Genital ulcers: Single Base is beefy red, bleeds easily and painl... | Dental | Sexually Transmitted Infections | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In CSF rhinorrhea CSF from middle cranial fossa reaches the nose :
(A) Sphenoid sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Cribriform plate
(D) Fovea ethmoidalis | The correct answer is: Sphenoid sinus
Explanation: CSF from anterior cranial fossa reaches the nose cribriform plate, roof of ethmoid air cells or frontal sinus. CSF from middle cranial fossa reaches the nose sphenoid sinus. Fractures of temporal bone result in leakage of CSF into the middle ear and escapes through eu... | ENT | Diseases of Nose and Paranasal Sinuses | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Half life of Co60 is-
(A) 74.5 years
(B) 5.2 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 2.6 years | The correct answer is: 5.2 years
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5.2 years * Half life of cobalt - 60 is 5.2 years.Cobalt - 60* It is an artifical radioactive cobalt.* It has a half life of 5.2-5.3 years.* It is used as a teletherapy source as well as in brachytherapy.* It decays, emits beta and gamma rays, and has to ... | Radiology | Nuclear Medicine | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
'Draughtsman concentric rings' on culture are produced by the following organism:
(A) Yersinia pestis
(B) H ducreyi
(C) Peussis
(D) Pneumococci | The correct answer is: Pneumococci
Explanation: Pneumococci form small round colonies, at first dome-shaped and later developing a central depression with an elevated rim which is viewed from above giving 'draughtsman' or 'carrom coin appearance' to colony. Other colonies may appear glistening because of capsular poly... | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Atomic weight is equal to total number of:
(A) Protons
(B) Protons and neutrons
(C) Protons and electrons
(D) Protons, neutrons and electrons | The correct answer is: Protons and neutrons
Explanation: Ans. Protons, neutrons and electrons | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of these is the most important cause of cholestatic jaundice in a newborn?
(A) Hypoplasia of the biliary tract
(B) Choledochal cyst
(C) Neonatal hepatitis
(D) Physiological jaundice | The correct answer is: Neonatal hepatitis
Explanation: Ans. C. Neonatal hepatitisCholestatic jaundice is characterized predominantly by rise in the levels of conjugated bilirubin. It is due to obstruction to the bile flow, either occurring inside the live (intrahepatic cholestasis) or outside the liver (extrahepatic c... | Pediatrics | Gastro Intestinal System | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is the only shoulder girdle muscle which is not inseed on the bone in free upper limb?
(A) Coracobrachialis
(B) Pectoralis major
(C) Pectoralis minor
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Pectoralis minor
Explanation: Pectoralis minor is the only shoulder girdle muscle which is not inseed on the bone in free upper limb. It arises from the 3rd to 5th ribs and is inseed on the coracoid process. It lowers and rotates the scapula. It is innervated by pectoral nerves (C6-8). Coracobra... | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In which of the following oligonucleotide primer is used?
(A) RFLP
(B) PCR
(C) FISH
(D) Chromosomal walking | The correct answer is: PCR
Explanation: DNA sequencing is used to determine the nucleotides in a DNA strand. The Sanger chain termination method of sequencing uses a primer to sta the chain reaction. In PCR, primers are used to determine the DNA fragment to be amplified by the PCR process. Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p386 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Preferred route for giving TPN for a patient for <14 days is
(A) Peripheral vein
(B) IJV
(C) EJV
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Peripheral vein
Explanation: Peripheral Parental Nutrition : for feeding <2 weeks
Central Parenteral Nutrition : for feeding > 2 weeks | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The most impoant use of transrectal ultarsonography (TRUS) is for
(A) Screening for Ca prostate
(B) Distinguishing prostate cancer from BPH
(C) Systematic prostate biopsy in suspected prostate cancer
(D) Guiding transurethral resection of prostate cancer | The correct answer is: Systematic prostate biopsy in suspected prostate cancer
Explanation: A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) may also be called endorectal ultrasound. It is used to look at the prostate and tissues around it. A TRUS is often used to help diagnose prostate cancer if the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) le... | Surgery | Urology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
AII are true about Hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) except -
(A) Produce NADPH in oxidative phase of pathway
(B) Does not produce ATP
(C) Occurs in testes, ovaries, placenta and adrenal coex
(D) Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway | The correct answer is: Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway
Explanation: Ans is. 'd' i.e., Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway HMP shunt is a multicyclic process in which 3 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate give rise to 3 molecules of CO, and 3 molecules of 5-carbon sugars (ri... | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following forms the anterior wall of the Axilla?
(A) Subscapularis
(B) Teres major
(C) Clavipectoral fascia
(D) Latissimus dorsi | The correct answer is: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation: Clavipectoral fascia forms the anterior wall of the axilla.Also know:Boundaries of Axilla:Anterior wall: Pectoralis major, Pectoralis minor, Clavipectoral fasciaPosterior Wall: Subscapularis, Teres major, Latissimus dorsiMedial Wall: First rib and their associat... | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In PA view of X-ray chest, right border of the hea is formed by all except:
(A) Superior venacava
(B) Inferior venacava
(C) Right atrium
(D) Left atrial appendage | The correct answer is: Left atrial appendage
Explanation: Ans. Left atrial appendage | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Causes of DIC include:
(A) Leukemia
(B) Masive transfusion
(C) Abruptio placentae
(D) All of the above | The correct answer is: All of the above
Explanation: Answer is D (All of the above) DIC may be associated with all of the options provided in the question. Common Clinical causes of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: Sepsis Bacterial Staphylococci, streptococci, pneomococci, meningococci, gram-negative bacilli Vi... | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Renshaw cell inhibition is an example for
(A) Feedback inhibition
(B) Feed forward inhibition
(C) Direct inhibition
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Feedback inhibition
Explanation: Renshaw cell inhibition is an example of Feedback or Recurrent inhibition.
Impulses generated in the motor neuron activates inhibitory interneuron to secrete inhibitory mediators and this stops the discharge of motor neuron. | Physiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient presented with peripheral field loss and fundus examination shows waxy exudates & pale disc with pigmentation around retinal vessels, diagnosis is
(A) Behcet's syndrome
(B) Chorio- retinitis
(C) Open angle glaucoma
(D) Retinitis-pigmentosa | The correct answer is: Retinitis-pigmentosa
Explanation: D i.e. Retinitis-pigmentosa | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Obturator nerve enters thigh at
(A) Adductor canal
(B) Obturator canal
(C) Superficial inguinal ring
(D) Femoral canal | The correct answer is: Obturator canal
Explanation: It descends through the fibers of the psoas major, and emerges from its medial border near the brim of pelvis; it then passes behind the common illaic aery and on the lateral side of the internal illiac aery and ureter, and runs along the lateral wall of the lesser p... | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
TCBS agar is for?
(A) Leptospira
(B) Vibrio
(C) Legionela
(D) Bacteroides | The correct answer is: Vibrio
Explanation: Ans. b (Vibrio)# The Vibrio organism appears as gram-negative, curved, motile bacilli.# The A subunit of the Vibrio enterotoxin activates adenyl cyclase, resulting in the hypersecretion of water, sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate into the intestine (diahrrea).# Vib... | Microbiology | Bacteria | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following diseases is a lysosomal storage disease that is associated with the synthesis of abnormal myelin?
(A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Niemann-Pick disease
(C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
(D) Hurler disease | The correct answer is: Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Explanation: Metachromatic leukodystrophy is a lysosomal storage disease associated with the synthesis of abnormal myelin. The term leukodystrophy refers to the abnormality in myelin synthesis. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is an autosomal recessive disease character... | Unknown | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In all the following conditions bone age will be decreased except:
(A) Congenital hypothyroidism
(B) Constitutional delay
(C) Familial short stature
(D) Rickets | The correct answer is: Familial short stature
Explanation: 2Ans: c (Familial short stature) Ref: OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 50In familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age.Familial short stature* Short parents* Short child* Bone age normal i.e.,= chronological age* Ht < expected for age i.e., height age i... | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient met with Road Traffic Accident with injury to the left knee. Dial test was positive. What could be the cause ?
(A) Medial Collateral Ligament Injury
(B) Posterolateral Corner Injury
(C) Lateral Meniscus Tear
(D) Medial Meniscal Injury | The correct answer is: Posterolateral Corner Injury
Explanation: Dial test or Tibial External Rotation Test:
This is the test for posterolateral instability.
The tibia is externally rotated on femur first at 30° flexion and then at 90° flexion. Comparison is made with the normal side.
An increase in external rotatio... | Orthopaedics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Age limit for HDI?
(A) 25 to 85 yrs
(B) 25 to 50 yrs
(C) 15 to 45 yrs
(D) 50 to 75 yrs | The correct answer is: 25 to 85 yrs
Explanation: According to previous editions of Park (21st/e) the minimum and maximum established values for life expectancy atbirth was 25 years and 85 years, respectively.
However, Now the minimum established value is 20 years and maximum value is the highest observed value durin... | Unknown | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Activation of which receptor causes pulmonary vasoconstriction?
(A) Alpha 2 adrenergic
(B) H2 histamine
(C) M3 cholinergic
(D) ETA epithelial receptor | The correct answer is: ETA epithelial receptor
Explanation: Activation of ETA receptor causes pulmonary vasoconstriction. These are endothelin receptors.Ref: Ganong review of medical physiology, 23rd edition Page no: 609 | Physiology | Respiratory system | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by -
(A) B. Quintana
(B) B. bacilliformis
(C) B. henslae
(D) B. elizabethi | The correct answer is: B. henslae
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., B. henslae * Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by Bartonella henselae (most commonly) and B. quintana. | Microbiology | Bacteria | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Criteria for assessment of severity of disease in ICU is: September 2010
(A) APACHE II
(B) Glassgow scale
(C) Apgar score
(D) Bishop score | The correct answer is: APACHE II
Explanation: Ans. A: APACHE II APACHE II ("Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II") is a severity of disease classification system, one of several ICU scoring systems. After admission of a patient to an intensive care unit, an integer score from 0 to 71 is computed based on ... | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Hyaline in islets of Langerhans resemble ?
(A) Mucin
(B) Amyloid
(C) Glycolipid
(D) Phospholipid | The correct answer is: Amyloid
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amyloid | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Most common cause of Acute Intestinal Obstruction in neonatal small bowel obstruction
(A) Jejunal atresia
(B) Malrotation
(C) Duodenal atresia
(D) Acute Intussusception | The correct answer is: Duodenal atresia
Explanation: Duodenal atresia:occurs at the point of fusion between foregut and midgut .Diagnosis can be made antenatally charecteristic double bubble apperance in ultrasonography.the child vomits at bih and it is bile stained.(35% of all atresia). Jejunal atresia(15%of all atre... | Pediatrics | Gastrointestinal tract | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a patient with acute arsenic poisoning, which of these would show accumulation of As
(A) Liver
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Skin
(D) All | The correct answer is: All
Explanation: A i.e. Liver; B i.e. Bone marrow; C i.e. Skin The disadvantages of using As for homicide are As accumulates in liver > kidney > spleen, hair, nailQ, bonesQ, gastrointestinal tract & lungs and also excreted through urine, faeces, milk, bile sweat & other secretions. It retards pu... | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Nitrates are not used in -
(A) CCF
(B) Esophageal spasm
(C) Renal colic
(D) Cyanide poisoning | The correct answer is: Renal colic
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal colic Uses of nitrates Angina pectoris MI CHF and acute LVF --> nitroglycerine i.v. can be used Act by decreasing preload (LV filling pressure). Biliary colic and esophageal spasm (achalasia cardia) Acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina and non... | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
According to Herrington classification, the decerebrate rigidity is characterized by all except
(A) Rigidity occurs in all the muscles of the body
(B) Increase in the rate of discharge of the Y efferent neuron
(C) Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool
(D) Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal sh... | The correct answer is: Rigidity occurs in all the muscles of the body
Explanation: In decerebrate rigidity, there is rigidity in extensor muscles of all the four extremities (not all muscles of the body). Decerebration Complete transection of the brain stem between the superior and inferior colliculi permits the brain... | Physiology | All India exam | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cardiac event at the end of isometric relaxation phase:
(A) Atrioventricular valves open
(B) Atrioventricular valves closes
(C) Corresponds to peak of C wave in JVP
(D) Corresponds to T wave in ECG | The correct answer is: Atrioventricular valves open
Explanation: Isometric relaxation - Semilunar valves have closed. - AV valves yet to open In isometric relaxation ventricular muscle continues to relax without change in ventricular volume | Intraventricular pressure decreases back to the diastolic levels | AV valves... | Physiology | FMGE 2018 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Long term complication of bronchopulmonary dysplasia is -a) Decreased fuctional residual capacityb) Small airway diseasec) Large airway diseased) Interstitial lung disease
(A) acd
(B) bcd
(C) abd
(D) ab | The correct answer is: abd
Explanation: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a result of lung injury in infants requiring mechanical ventilation and Supplemental oxygen.
Following changes are seen :
Airway epithelial hyperplasia and squamous metaplasia
Peribronchial as well as interstitial fibrosis.
Thickening of basement... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Mother to child transmission of HIV:
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 75% | The correct answer is: 25%
Explanation: The transmission of HIV from a HIV-positive mother to her child during pregnancy, labour, delivery or breastfeeding is called mother-to-child transmission. In the absence of any intervention, transmission rates range from 15% to 45%. Rates can be < 5% with effective intervention... | Microbiology | Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses) | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which one of the following is the example of metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis -
(A) Salicylate overdose
(B) Severe pulmonary oedema
(C) Cardio-pulmonary arrest
(D) Pregnancy with vomiting | The correct answer is: Salicylate overdose
Explanation: Salicylate over dose : Metabolic alkalosis + Respiratory alkalosis. Alcoholic : metabolic alkalosis + metabolic acidosis. Cardiopulmonary edema : metabolic acidosis + respiratory alkalosis Pregnancy : metabolic alkalosis + respiratory alkalosis Ref: Harrison&;s 1... | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True statement regarding barret&;s esophagus
(A) Histamine antagonist
(B) Proton pump inhibitor
(C) Helicobactor pylori triple therapy
(D) Endoscopic surveillance with biopsy every 2 years | The correct answer is: Endoscopic surveillance with biopsy every 2 years
Explanation: Management of BARRETT&;S OESOPHAGUS * Regular endoscopic biopsy and surveillance for low-grade dysplasia. * Ablation of Barrett's oesophagus by laser. * Photodynamic therapy - through endoscopy. * Argon beam coagulation. * Proton pum... | Surgery | G.I.T | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Huhle cells seen in ?
(A) Papillary carcinoma
(B) Hashimoto Thyroiditis
(C) Granulomatous thyroiditis
(D) Thyroglossal cyst | The correct answer is: Hashimoto Thyroiditis
Explanation: Ans. is `b' i.e., Hashimoto ThyroiditisPathological features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 1. Cross featuresDiffuse symmetrically enlarged thyroidAlthough the gland is symmetrically enlarged, the accentuation of lobulations may make the gland appear lobular on gro... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The lymphocytic and histiocytic variant of Reed-Sternberg cell is seen in-
(A) Follicular center lymphoma
(B) Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's disease
(C) Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's disease
(D) Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease | The correct answer is: Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease
Explanation: Lymphocytic -histiocytic RS celle or polypoidal type or popcorn type seen in lymphocyte predominant type of HD .This type of RS cells are larger with lobulated nucleus in the shape of popcorn. In nodular sclerosis variety ,lacunar type is see... | Pathology | Haematology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In marasmus wasting is due to ?
(A) Prolonge dietery deficiency of calori
(B) Prolonge dietery deficiency of protein
(C) Excess catabolism of fat & muscle mass to provide energy
(D) All of above | The correct answer is: All of above
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Marasmus Prolonge deficiency of calory & protein due to starvation. Monkey facies- loss of buccal fat. Baggy pants appearance- loose skin of the buttocks hanging down. Loss of axillary fat. Appetite is preserved. No edema. | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 2 year old child with severe dehydration has sudden-onset Gross Hematuria with a unilateral flank mass. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Hemolytic syndrome
(B) Wilm's tumor
(C) Renal vein thrombosis
(D) Hydronephrosis | The correct answer is: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation: Renal vein thrombosis (RVT) is the formation of a clot in the vein that drains blood from the kidneys, ultimately leading to a reduction in the drainage of one or both kidneys and the possible migration of the clot to other pas of the body. RVT is the Most comm... | Pediatrics | Urinary tract | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Immune rejection in fetus is prevented by
(A) HCG
(B) HPL
(C) Oestrogen
(D) Progesterone | The correct answer is: HCG
Explanation: Chorionic gonadotropin (human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) (hCG) is a glycopeptide hormone that is produced by cells of the fetal placenta and maintains the function of the corpus luteum during the first few weeks of pregnancy. It is thought to promote steroidogenesis in the fet... | Physiology | Endocrinology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Following features are suggestive of:
(A) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(B) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Leukemia | The correct answer is: Multiple myeloma
Explanation: (A) At low power, the abnormal plasma cells of multiple myeloma fill the marrow.
(B) At medium power, the plasma cells of multiple myeloma here are very similar to normal plasma cells, but they may also be poorly differentiated. Usually, the plasma cells are differe... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Quinidine belongs to class antiarrhythmic drug is
(A) Class I
(B) Class II
(C) Class III
(D) Class IV | The correct answer is: Class I
Explanation: i.e. (class I): (510-17-KDT 6th) (367-68-MDT-l1)ANTIARRHYTHMIC DRUGSClass Ia Sodium channel blockers* Depress phase O depolarization* Slow conduction, prolong repolarization Drugs* Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide, MoricizineClass Ib * Shorten repolarization Drugs* Lido... | Pharmacology | C.V.S | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The normal defensive mechanism for protection of gastric mucosa against acid-pepsin digestion include which of the following?
(A) Secretion of bicarbonate into gastric mucosa
(B) Adequate blood supply
(C) Overproduction of PG by gastric epithelium
(D) All of the above | The correct answer is: All of the above
Explanation: Prostaglandin is one of the impoant defensive mechanism against erosion of the gastric mucosa. Impaired production of PG will result in peptic ulcer formation. Defensive mechanisms may be divided into anatomic and physiologic types. Anatomic mechanisms are adequate ... | Physiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Posterior gastric aery is a branch of
(A) Splenic aery
(B) Hepatic aery
(C) Left Gastric aery
(D) Right Hastric aery | The correct answer is: Splenic aery
Explanation: The fundic branches of the stomach can be defined as a group of vessels that can arise either directly or indirectly from the following source aeries: the left inferior phrenic aery, the accessory left hepatic aery, the left gastric aery, the left middle suprarenal aery... | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In Optic neurities in children all symptoms are present EXCEPT:
(A) Afferent pupillary defect
(B) Headache and vomiting
(C) Pain on movement of eye ball
(D) Sudden visionloss | The correct answer is: Headache and vomiting
Explanation: B i.e. Headache and vomiting Papilloedema (not papillitis) is caused by raised intracranial pressure and it presents with headache & vomiting . Features Papillitis (Optic neuritis) Papilloedema Aetiology Inflammation of intraocular pa of optic nerve Q (or optic... | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a child 1 years the commonest cause of resp. Infection with wheeze is –
(A) RSV
(B) Influenza viurs
(C) Adenovirus
(D) Para influenza | The correct answer is: RSV
Explanation: Wheezing due to respiratory tract infection in a 1-year-old child is due to bronchiolitis. | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Pantothenic acid is coenzyme for which of the following reaction
(A) Dehydrogenation
(B) Reduction
(C) Transamination
(D) Acetylation | The correct answer is: Acetylation
Explanation: The functions of pantothenic acid are exerted through coenzyme A or CoA (A for acetylation). Coenzyme A is a central molecule involved in all the metabolisms (carbohydrate, lipid and protein).
NOTE : Pantothenic acid as a part of CoA takes part in :
Fatty acid oxid... | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Macula involvement is common in -
(A) Toxoplasma
(B) Malaria
(C) CMV
(D) Syphilis | The correct answer is: Toxoplasma
Explanation: Decreased visual acuity may occur as a result of macular involvement or severe vitreous inflammation. ... An active toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis is whitish and moderately exudative with ill-defined borders and involves the macula in a majority of patients. | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which among the following is the commonest enzyme deficiency?
(A) Glucose-1-phosphatase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) Carbonic anhydrase
(D) Cystathione synthetase | The correct answer is: Glucose-6-phosphatase
Explanation: Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is the commonest genetically determined enzyme deficiency in the world. G6PD catalyzes the first step of pentose phosphate pathway and is the enzyme controlling the flux through the pathway. It s activity is controlled by the av... | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Respiratory depression is caused by A/E -
(A) Opium
(B) Barbiturate
(C) Strychnine
(D) Gelsemine | The correct answer is: Strychnine
Explanation: Strychnine causes respiratory stimulation.
Other three options can cause respiratory depression | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Endotoxin from gram negative organism is :
(A) Polysaccharide
(B) Glycoprotein
(C) Lipoprotein
(D) Lipo-polysaccharide | The correct answer is: Lipo-polysaccharide
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e. Lipopolysaccharide Distinguishing feature of Exotoxin and endotoxiinsExotoxinsEndotoxins* Proteins** Lipopolysaccharide** Heat labile** Heat stable** Secreted by cells** forms part of cell wall** Action enzymic** No enzymic action** Active in min... | Microbiology | General | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
When a palm is used as a measuring scale in estimating the burnt area, it is equal to
(A) 1% of body surface area
(B) 3% of body surface area
(C) 4.5% of body surface area
(D) 9% of body surface area | The correct answer is: 1% of body surface area
Explanation: Rule of palms: The surface area of a patient's palm (including fingers) is roughly 1% of TBSA. Palmar surface can be used to estimate small burns (< 15% TBSA) or very large burns (> 85%, when unburnt skin is counted). Ref - Srb's manual of surgery 5th edition... | Forensic Medicine | Thermal injury | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which is not included in NVBDCP -
(A) Dengue
(B) Malaria
(C) Japanese encephalitis
(D) Plague | The correct answer is: Plague
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Plague o NVBDCP includes 6 vector home diseases of public health importance in India :i) Malariaii) Dengueiii) Filariaiv) Kala-azarv) Japenese encephalitisvi) Chikungunyafever | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Programmes in India | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Parvovirus B-19 does not cause:
(A) Roseola infantum
(B) Aplastic anemia in sickle cell
(C) Fetal hydrops
(D) Collapsing FSGS | The correct answer is: Roseola infantum
Explanation: Ans. (a) Roseola infantum Roseola infantum or exanthem subitum is caused by HHV-6 and HHV-7 (rarely). Disc caused by Parvo virus: Erythema infectiosum Seronegative ahritis Aplastic crisis in hemolytic anaemia Fetal infection leading to non-immunohydrops fetalis Chro... | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium is :
(A) 0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L
(B) 0.7 - 1.2 meq/L
(C) 1.2 - 2.0 meq/L
(D) 2.0 - 2.5 meq/L | The correct answer is: 0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L
Explanation: Blood lithium levels :
Therapeutic level : 0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L.
(For t/t of acute mania)
Prophylactic level : 0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L.
(For relapse prevention in bipolar disorder)
Toxic lithium levels : > 2.0 mEq/L. | Psychiatry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which one is not converted to an active metabolite?
(A) Quinapril
(B) Fosinopril
(C) Benzopril
(D) Lisinopril | The correct answer is: Lisinopril
Explanation: Lisinopril: It is the lysine derivative of enalaprilat; does not require hydrolysis to become active ACE inhibitor.
KEY CONCEPT:-
All ACE inhibitors are prodrugs except captopril and lisinopril. Other drugs like enalapril are converted to its active metabolite (enalapri... | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 21-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle accident, resulting in destruction of the groove in the lower surface of the cuboid bone. Which of the following muscle tendons is most likely damaged?
(A) Flexor hallucis longus
(B) Peroneus brevis
(C) Peroneus longus
(D) Tibialis anterior | The correct answer is: Peroneus longus
Explanation: The groove in the lower surface of the cuboid bone is occupied by the tendon of the peroneus longus muscle. The flexor hallucis longus tendon occupies in a groove on the posterior surface of the body of the talus and a groove on the inferior surface of the calcaneus ... | Anatomy | Nerves of Lower Limb | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are examples of microdeletion syndromes, EXCEPT:
(A) Wilms' tumor-aniridia complex
(B) Miller Dieker syndrome
(C) Velocardiofacial syndrome
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: None of the above
Explanation: The term contiguous gene syndrome refers to genetic disorders that mimic a combination of single-gene disorders. They result from the deletion of a small number of tightly clustered genes. Because some are too small to be detected cytogenetically, they are termed m... | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True about mycetoma -
(A) Commonly occurs in hands
(B) Commonly erodes bone
(C) Drains through lymphatics
(D) Antibiotics has no role | The correct answer is: Commonly erodes bone
Explanation: Mycetoma
Commonly occurs in the foot.
The infection runs as a relentless course over many years, with the destruction of contiguous bone and fascia.
Spread to distant sites does not take place (does not drain through lymphatics).
Actinomycetoma may respond t... | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Diabetic gangrene is due to:
(A) Ischemia
(B) Increased blood glucose
(C) Altered defense by host and neuropathy
(D) All of the above | The correct answer is: All of the above
Explanation: Diabetic gangrene is related to: - Trophic changes from peripheral neuropathy - Ischemia as a result of microangiopathy and macroangiopathy (atherosclerosis) - Low resistance to infection because of excess sugar in the tissues | Surgery | Aerial disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following vaccine is given at birth
(A) DPT
(B) OPV
(C) Measles
(D) TAB | The correct answer is: OPV
Explanation: Ans) b (OPV) Ret Park 20th ed 113Refer National immunization schedule (Kerala 2009 Q155)OPV zero dose is given at birth. Measles vaccination is given at 9 months and DPT 1st dose is given at 6 weeksTAB is a heat killed Typhoid bacillus vaccine which contains 1000 million of S. T... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | medium | NEET | medmcqa |
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