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Involvement of the joints of hand is relatively uncommon in which of following ahritis?
Joints involved in ankylosing spondylitisAnkylosing spondylitis primarily affects the axial skeletonThe disease usually begins in the sacroiliac joints and usually extends upwards to involve the lumbar, thoracic, and often cervical spineIn the worst cases, the hips or shoulders are also affected. The hip joint is the most commonly affected peripheral jointRarely knee and ankle are also involved(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 302, 426)
1
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive ahritis
Psoriatic ahritis
Rheumatoid ahritis
Orthopaedics
All India exam
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The best investigation for colorectal carcinoma -
null
4
Exfoliative cytology
Air contrast barium enema
Ultrasound
Colonoscopy and biopsy
Surgery
null
d7721e32-bf89-4bb7-9a03-67448742bf3d
single
Which of the following is not true about ACE inhibitors?
null
3
Used in asthma
Increase quality of life
Postural hypotension is seen
Na level decrease
Pharmacology
null
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Asymptomatic gonorrhoea in females is due to infections of :
Endocervix
3
Vagina
Urethra
Endocervix
Fundus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Orphan drugs are:-
* Orphan drugs are defined as the medicines which are unlikely to be developed by pharmaceutical industry due to economic reasons but which respond to public health needs. * Orphan drug is developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition (affecting fewer than 200,000 people), the condition itself being referred to as an orphan disease. Ex- deferiprone to treat iron overload in thalassemia patients, N-acetylcysteine to treat paracetamol poisoning etc. * Since the pharmaceutical companies will not like to develop such a drug due to lack of financial benefits, a separate law known as 'The Orphan Drug Act' was passed in 1983. The intent of the Orphan Drug Act is to stimulate the research, development, and approval of products that treat rare diseases. Few examples of the orphan drugs: Liposomal amphotericin B Digoxin antibody Fomepizole
2
Commercially easy to obtain
Drugs to treat rare diseases
Developed with an intention of monetary gain
All of the above
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
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Renal collar which surrounds the aoa has its two limbs split by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Left renal vein The left renal vein normally passes anterior to the aoa to join the I.V.C. However sometimes the left renal vein may divide and send one limb anterior and one posterior to the aoa to reach the inferior vena cava k/a venal collar representing persistence of embryological state. Also remember The most common anatomic variant of the renal vessels is --> supernumerary renal aeries.
1
Left renal vein
Left renal aery
Isthumus of horseshoe kidney
All of the above
Surgery
null
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Which of the following drug is an Immunostimulant?
(Ref: Goodman & Gliman 11/e p1422) All other drugs listed in the options posses immunosuppressant propeies.
2
Prednisolone
Levamisol
Cyclosporine
Thalidomide
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
OCP's are contraindicated in A/E :
Ans. is c i.e. Polycystic ovarian disease
3
Smoking 35 years
Coronary occlusion
Polycystic ovarian ds
Cerebro vascular ds
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Japanese encephalitis vaccine is:
Ans. (a) Live attenuatedRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 286-87* JE vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. It is available in killed vaccine form also.* Strain: SA 14-14-2- liveNakayama strain- killed* One dose of JE vaccine is given at 16-24 months of age.Also Know* MC live vaccine used: BCG* MC killed vaccine used: Pertusis* All live vaccines are contra-indicated in I pregnancy EXCEPT: YF and OPVLive VaccineKilledToxoidsCell FractionCombined* BCG* OPV (sabin)* MMR* Yellow fever* Live J.E.* Live H1N1* Live choleraHep AHep B PertusisIPV (salk)Rabies Meningo- coccalKilled J.E.Killed H1N1DiphtheriaTetanusHep BMeningo- coccalHiBPneumo- coccalDPTMMR
1
Live attenuated
Inactivated toxoid
Cellular fractions
Combined
Social & Preventive Medicine
Principles of Immunization and Vaccination
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Which of the following is not a sign of reversible cell injury?
Ans. (b) Cell shrinkage(Ref: Robbins 9th/38;8th/pg 17)Features of reversible cell injury seen in light microscopy are cellular swelling and fatty change.Cell shrinkage is a feature of apoptosis (cell death)
2
ATP depletion
Cell shrinkage
Fatty acid deposition
Reduction of phosphorylation
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
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The tooth bud for the third molar is initiated at about the age of:
null
4
6th month I.U
1st year of life
2nd year of life
8th year of life
Dental
null
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single
Most common site for minor salivary glands tumor is:
null
3
Lip
Floor of oral mucosa
Hard palate
Gingivolabial folds
Surgery
null
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Wormian bones are not noted in -
Wormian bones Wormian bones are extra bone pieces that occur within a suture in the cranium. These are irregular isolated bones which appear in addition to the usual centres of ossification of the cranium. They occur most frequently in the course of the lambdoid suture. Causes of Wormian bones (Mnemonic - PORKCHOPS) Pyknodysostosis Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets Kinky hair syndrome Cleidocranial dysostosis Hypothyroidism (cretinism) / Hypophosphatasia Otopalatodigital syndrome Progeria Syndrome of Downs Wormian bone appears radiographically as islands of ossification in the skull in non ossified membranous bone. To be diagnostic value, the wormian bones should be 4 mm by 6 mm in size, 10 in number and arranged in a mosaic pattern. Wormian bones are not present in the normal skull.
1
Fibrous dysplasia
Osteogenesis inperfecta
Cretinism
Rickets
Orthopaedics
null
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Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disease of:
Hidradenitis suppurativa is chronic inflammation and secondary infection of apocrine sweat glands Aetiology : Unknown ,common in post-pubeal females, maybe inherited(AD in some families) C/F Rare chronic painful skin condition with inflammation of the skin at sites rich in apocrine glands (axilla, groin, natal cleft) O/E Papules/nodules and abscesses which often progress to cysts/sinus formation. Abscess may rupture--> Purulent discharge. Rx: Weight loss, antibiotics, oral retinoids and co-cyprindiol ('2 mg cyproterone acetate +35 ug ethinylestradiol' in females only) have been tried Severe recalcitrant cases- Sx , skin grafting and IV infliximab therapy Hidrocystoma- Eccrine sweat glandsHidradenitis suppurativa- Apocrine sweat glands
2
Eccrine sweat glands
Apocrine sweat glands
Kaposi sarcoma
Hair follicles
Dental
Disorders of sebaceous and sweat glands
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Positive G effect ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Black outEffects of positive G:Venous return decreases --> hence, cardiac output decreases.Blood rushes towards lower limbs --> hence increased pressure in lower limb vessels.Blood is drawn away from upper body --> hence decreased cerebral aerial pressure.At very high positive G:Difficulty in blood flow to brain --> results in cerebral ischemia & unconsciousness.Moments before unconsciousness, there is gray-out.Everything appears gray - Due to ischemia of cone & loss of color vision.Eg: Gray-out serves as warning sign for pilots - Indicates need for slowing down aircraft & reduce positive'G'.Gray-out followed by black-outBlack-out means total loss of vision.
2
Red out
Black out
Increased cerebral aerial pressure
Increased cardiac output
Physiology
null
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single
All of the following are preschool age problems EXCEPT: March 2013 (b, c, d)
Ans. B i.e. Temper tantrum Temper tantrum reaches its peak point during second and third year of life and gradually subsides in between 3-6 years as the child learns to control his negativism and complies to the request of others
2
Sleeping disorde
Temper tantrum
Pica
Stuttering
Pediatrics
null
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Squamous cell carcinoma spreads commonly via -
null
3
Implantation
Hematogenous spread
Lymphatic spread
Trancoelomic spread
Pathology
null
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Function of UGA codon -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Terminates protein synthesis o Termination (stop/nonsense) codons signal to terminate the translation. These are 3 stop codons UAA, UGA and UAGo Initiation codon - AUGo Stop codons (termination codons or nonsense codons) - UAA, UGA, UA G
3
Initiates transcription
Translates
Terminates protein synthesis
null
Biochemistry
Chemistry of Nucleotides
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Most common site of intracranial metastasis is from primary carcinoma of
MC brain tumor is metastasis,arising from - (1) Oat cell Ca lung/small cell Ca lung (2) Ca Breast (3) M. Melanoma MC 1deg Brain tumour- Glioma MC benign brain tumour - Meningioma
2
Breast
Lungs
Stomach
Testes
Medicine
FMGE 2018
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Regarding S3 heart sound all are true except
S3 is heard in chronic MR (not in acute MR)
3
May be physiological
Due to early diastolic filling of ventricles
S3 is heard in acute MR
Seen in Conditions associated with increased preload
Medicine
null
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A 65-year-old diabetic woman develops weakness on the left side of the face, right arm,and right leg. She also has diplopia on left lateral gaze. What is the site of lesion?
Weakness on the left side of the face Weakness of the right sides of arm and leg | Crossed hemiplegia / Millard gubler syndrome. Pontine stroke. I/L 6th N. palsy- Diplopia on looking laterally I/L 7th N. palsy- facial paralysis but sensations not affected Coicospinal tract damage in pons will lead to C/L hemiplegia in arms and legs.
2
Right pons
Left pons
Right midbrain
Left midbrain
Medicine
Stroke and TIA
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Buerger's Disease is
Buerger's Disease is non atherosclerotic inflammatory disorder involving medium sized and distal vessels. It is segmental, progressive , occlusive, inflammatory disease.
2
Non - progressive
Segmental
Non - inflammatory
Atherosclerotic
Surgery
null
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Most common nerve to be damaged in dislocation of shoulder is :
A i.e. Axillary Nerve
1
Axillary nerve
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Surgery
null
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Most common cause of stridor in infant and young children –
Laryngomalacia is the most common congenital laryngeal anomaly. It is the most common cause of stridor in infants and children.
3
Abductor palsy
Croup
Laryngomalacia
Epiglottitis
Pediatrics
null
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single
Mallory denk bodies are seen in all except
Mallory denk bodies are not seen in Hemochromatosis and 2o biliary cirrhosis.
4
Wilson's disease
Alcoholic fatty liver disease
Non alcoholic fatty liver disease
Hemochromatosis
Pathology
null
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multi
Which of the following statement is not true about NSAIDs
Acetylsalicylic acid (asprin) is an Irreversible inhibition of COX enzyme. IT results in inhibition of prostaglandin and TX synthesis at low doses for (40 to 325 milligrams) it exes antiplatelet action. this drug shows saturation kinetics at high doses that is kinetics changes from first order to zero order. therefore at high doses amount of drug exeed will be constant that means clearance il is not constant. Refer kDT 6/e p185
3
Acetylsalicylic acid is an Irreversible inhibitors of Cox enzyme acetylsalicylic acid is an Irreversible inhibitors of Cox enzyme
Acetylsalicylic acid reduces in Vivo synthesis of prostaglandins
Its clearance is independent of Plasma concentration
Antiplatelet effect of low dose aspirin is related to pre systemic Cox inhibition
Pharmacology
Autacoids
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Rothera&;s test used for detection of
The presence of ketosis can be established by the detection of ketone bodies in urine by Rothera&;s test.Rothera&;s test: Saturate 5 mL of urine with solid ammonium sulfate. Add a few drops of freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside followed by 2 mL of liquor ammonia along the sides of the test tube. Development of a purple ring indicates the presence of ketone bodies in urine. Strip tests based on the same principle are also available.Ref: D M Vasudevan 7th edition Page no: 166
4
Proteins
Glucose
Fatty acid
Ketones
Biochemistry
miscellaneous
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A man weighing 70 kg has a hematocrit of 45%. What would he his approximate plasma volume?
Ans. (d) 3080mL(Ref: Ganong Review of medical physiology, 21st ed p.2)8% of body weight is blood volumeSo, here for 70 kg man, Blood volume is 5.6 Litres (70*8/100)Blood Volume = Plasma volume/1-hematocritSo, Plasma volume = Blood volume*(1-hematocrit)Here, Plasma volume =5.6*(1-0.45)=3080mL
4
2310 mL
2695 mL
2890 mL
3080 mL
Physiology
General
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single
Median nerve supplies all muscles of the thumb except -
Median nerve supply in hand -        Flexor pollicis brevis -        Opponens pollicis -        Abductor pollicis brevis First two lumbricals Adductor pollicis is supplied by Ulnar nerve
4
Abductor-pollicis-brevis
Flexor-pollicis-brevis
Opponens pollicis
Adductor pollicis
Anatomy
null
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Secondary glaucoma in early stage of herpes zoster ephthalmicus occurs due to:
Ans. Trabeculitis
1
Trabeculitis
Iridocyclitis
Haemorrhagic hypopyon
Hypersecretion of aqueous humour
Ophthalmology
null
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Sodium content in mmol/L in WHO oral rehydration solution is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 90
3
20
80
90
111
Pediatrics
null
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Division of long thoracic nerve results in
Nerve to serratus anterior is also called long thoracic nerve(C5,C6,C7). A)Serratus anterior muscle along with the pectoralis minor pulls the scapula forwards around the chest wall to protract the upperlimb. B)The fibres inseed into the inferior angle of the scapula pull it forwards and rotate the scapula so that the glenoid cavity is turned upwards.In this action,the serratus anterior is helped by the trapezius which pulls the acromion upwards and backwards. when the muscle is paralyzed,the medial margin of the scapula gets raised specially when 'pushing movements' are attempted.This is called 'winging of scapula'. REF.B D Chaurasia's human anatomy,Vol.1,pg.47
4
Inability to retract the scapula
Wasting of pectoralis major muscle
Weakness of adduction of humerus
Winging of scapula
Anatomy
Thorax
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Epidemic dropsy is caused by
Ans. (a) Sanguinarine
1
Sanguinarine
Ergot
Alkaloid
BOAA
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
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Patient is having scanty, foul smelling discharge from middle ear, develops fever, headache and neck rigidity. CT of the temporal lobe shows a localized ring enhancing lesion, which of the following is least likely cause of this condition?
Commonest organisms in otogenic brain abscess include gram negative (Proteus, E coli, Pseudomonas) and anaerobic bacteria along with Staphylococcus and Pneumocci. H. Influenza infection is a rare cause of otogenic abscess.
4
S. aureus
Pseudomonas
S.Pneumoniae
H. influenza
ENT
null
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A 36-year-old woman has a cough and fever for 1 week. On physical examination, her temperature is 38.3deg C. She has diffuse crackles in all lung fields. A chest radiograph shows bilateral extensive infiltrates. CBC shows hemoglobin, 13.9 g/ dL; hematocrit, 42%; MCV, 89 mm3; platelet count, 210,000/mm3; and WBC count, 56,000/mm3 with 63% segmented neutrophils, 16% bands, 7% metamyelocytes, 3% myelocytes, 1% blasts, 8% lymphocytes, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy is obtained and shows normal maturation of myeloid cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Marked leukocytosis and immature myeloid cells in the peripheral blood can represent an exaggerated response to infection (leukemoid reaction), or it can be a manifestation of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Normal maturation of myeloid cells in the marrow rules out CML. Although not provided in this case, a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is high in the more differentiated cell population of reactive leukocytosis, whereas in CML, the LAP score is low. The Philadelphia chromosome (present in most CML cases) is lacking in patients with leukemoid reactions. Hairy cell leukemia is accompanied by peripheral blood leukocytes that mark with tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase. Hodgkin lymphoma is not characterized by an increased WBC count. A myelodysplastic syndrome is a stem cell maturation disorder involving all nonlymphoid cell lineages, not just granulocytes.
4
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia
Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion type
Leukemoid reaction
Pathology
Blood
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Secondary prevention is applicable to ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e.,Early stage of disease Primordial prevention - Before risk factor present.Primary prevention - Before onset of disease (risk factor present).Secondary prevention - In early stage of disease.Teiary prevention - Late stage of disease.
2
Causal factors
Early stage of disease
Late stage of disease
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
A leukemia patient who has undergone multiple courses of chemotherapy develops herpes simplex encephalitis. Which of the following would you expect a CT scan of the patient's brain to show?
Herpes simplex can cause a necrotizing, hemorrhagic acute encephalitis that may rapidly produce death. The encephalitis characteristically involves the lower poions of the cerebral coex, notably the temporal lobes and the base of the frontal lobes, possibly because the infection spreads from the oropharynx. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 33. Viral Infections of the Nervous System, Chronic Meningitis, and Prion Diseases. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e.
4
Generalized volume loss
Volume loss selectively in the basal ganglia
Volume loss selectively in the brainstem
Volume loss selectively in the temporal and frontal lobes
Medicine
null
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Diarrhoea syndrome in an AIDS patient can be d/t – a) Rota virusb) Cryptosporac) Adenovirusd) E. soli
Agents commonly causing diarrhea in HIV patient. Rota virus                    Isospora Cryptosporidium    Cyclospora Microsporidium Giardia Lambi    Bacterial pathogens
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Pediatrics
null
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single
Position that is least likely possible by means of bilateral saggital split osteotomy is
null
4
Advancement
Set back
Rotation
Transverse
Surgery
null
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Physiological jaundice of newborn may be managed by all except -
Ans. b (Phenytoin sodium). (Ref. Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 17th ed., 593, 597) # Jaundice during the 1st 24 hrs of life warrants diagnostic evaluation and should be considered to be due to hemolysis until proved otherwise. Septicemia and intrauterine infections such as syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and toxoplasmosis should also be considered, especially in infants with an increase in plasma direct-reacting bilirubin. # Jaundice after the 1st 24 hrs may be "physiologic" or may be due to septicemia, hemolytic anemia, galactosemia, hepatitis, congenital atresia of the bile ducts, inspissated bile syndrome after erythroblastosis fetalis, syphilis, herpes simplex, or other congenital infections. Physiologic jaundice (icterus neonatorum) # Under normal circumstances, the level of indirect-reacting bilirubin in umbilical cord serum is l-3mg/dL and rises at a rate of less than 5mg/dL/24hr; thus, jaundice becomes visible on the 2nd-3rd day, usually peaking between the 2nd and 4th days at 5-6 mg/dL and decreasing to below 2mg/dL between the 5th - 7th days of life. # Jaundice associated with these changes is designated "physiologic" and is believed to be the result of increased bilirubin production after the breakdown of fetal red blood cells combined with transient limitation in the conjugation of bilirubin by the liver. # Risk factors for indirect hyperbilirubinemia include maternal diabetes, race (Chinese, Japanese, Korean, and Native American), prematurity, drugs (vitamin K3, novobiocin), altitude, polycythemia, male sex, trisomy 21, cutaneous bruising, cephalohematoma, oxytocin induction, breastfeeding, weight loss (dehydration or caloric deprivation), delayed bowel movement, and a sibling who had physiologic jaundice. # A family history of neonatal jaundice, exclusive breastfeeding, bruising, cephalohematoma, Asian race, and maternal age older than 25 yr identify approximately 60% of cases of extreme hyperbilirubinemia. # Indirect bilirubin levels in full-term infants decline to adult levels (mg/dL) by 10-14 days of life. # Persistent indirect hyperbilirubinemia beyond 2 wk suggests hemolysis, hereditary glucuronosyl transferase deficiency, breast milk jaundice, hypothyroidism, or intestinal obstruction. Jaundice associated with pyloric stenosis may be due to caloric deprivation, deficiency of hepatic UDP-glucuronyl transferase or ileus-induced increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin. Treatment of hyperbilirubinemia Phototherapy # Clinical jaundice and indirect hyperbilirubinemia are reduced on exposure to a high intensity of light in the visible spectrum. # Bilirubin absorbs light maximally in the blue range (420-470 nm). Nonetheless, broad-spectrum white, blue, special narrow-spectrum (super) blue, less often, green lights are effective in reducing bilirubin levels. # Bilirubin in the skin absorbs light energy, which by photo-isomerization converts the toxic native unconjugated 4Z, 15Z-bilirubin into the unconjugated configurational isomer 4Z,15E-bilirubin. # Phototherapy also converts native bilirubin, by an irreversible reaction, to the structural isomer lumirubin, which is excreted by the kidneys in the unconjugated state. # When indications for exchange transfusion are present, phototherapy should not be used as a substitute. # However, phototherapy may reduce the need for repeated exchange transfusions in infants with hemolysis. # Phototherapy is indicated only after the presence of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia has been established. # The basic cause or causes of jaundice should be treated concomitantly. # Prophylactic phototherapy in VLBW infants may prevent hyperbilirubinemia and may reduce the incidence of exchange transfusions. # Dark skin does not reduce the efficacy of phototherapy. # Maximal intensive phototherapy should be used when indirect bilirubin levels approach. Such therapy includes "special blue" fluorescent tubes, placing the lamps within 15-20 cm of the infant, and placing a fiberoptic phototherapy blanket under the infant's back to increase the exposed surface area. # Complications of phototherapy include loose stools, erythematous macular rash, a purpuric rash associated with transient porphyrinemia, overheating and dehydration (increased insensible water loss, diarrhea), chilling from exposure of the infant, and bronze baby syndrome. # Phototherapy is contraindicated in the presence of porphyria. # The term bronze baby syndrome refers to a dark grayish brown discoloration of the skin sometimes noted in infants undergoing phototherapy. Almost all infants observed with this syndrome have had a mixed type of hyperbilirubinemia with significant elevation of direct-reacting bilirubin and often with other evidence of obstructive liver disease. # Those using phototherapy should remain alert to these possibilities and avoid any unnecessary use because untoward effects on DNA have been demonstrated in vitro. Exchange transfusion. # Exchange transfusion is performed if intensive phototherapy has failed to reduce bilirubin levels to a safe range and if the risk of kernicterus exceeds the risk of the procedure or the infant has signs of kernicterus. # Potential complications from exchange transfusion are not trivial and include acidosis, electrolyte abnormalities, hypoglycemia, thrombocytopenia, volume overload, arrhythmias, NEC, infection, graft vs host disease, and death. # The appearance of clinical signs suggesting kernicterus is an indication for exchange transfusion at any level of serum bilirubin. Other therapies # Tin (Sn)-protoporphyrin (or tin-mesoporphyrin) administration has been proposed for reduction of bilirubin. It may inhibit the conversion of biliverdin to bilirubin by heme oxygenase. A single intramuscular dose on the 1st day of life may reduce the need for phototherapy. Such therapy may be beneficial when jaundice is anticipated (G6PD deficiency) or when blood products are discouraged (Jehovah's Witness). Complications include transient erythema if the infant is receiving phototherapy. # IV immunoglobulin (500 mg/kg/dose over a 4hr period), given ql2hr for 3 doses, is effective in reducing bilirubin levels in patients with Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia, presumably by reducing hemolysis.
2
Metalloporphyrin
Phenytoin sodium
Phototherapy
None of the above
Unknown
null
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1, 25 (OH)2 Cholecalciferol is formed in-
25-hydroxy Cholecalciferol is formed in liver Whereas 1, 25 (OH)2 Cholecalciferol is formed in kidneys. Additional edge on synthesis of Vitamin D: Activation of 7-dehydro cholesterol by UV light in skin produces Cholecalciferol 25-hydroxylation in liver to form 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol 1-alpha- hydroxylation in kidneys to form 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol PTH activates 1-alpha hydroxylase of kidneys
4
Skin
Liver
Spleen
Kidney
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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single
Most common cause of obstruction in atrophic rhinitis is:
(a) Excessive formation of crust(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 695)The excessive crusting leads to nasal obstruction in spite of roomy cavities.On removal of crusts there is bleeding. But there is no synechiae formation. There is no polypoidal change .
1
Excessive formation of crust
Polyp
Synechiae
Hypertrophy of turbinate
ENT
Rhinitis
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single
Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis –
Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by picornaviruses (Enterovirus - 70, coxsackievirus A24) and sometimes Adenovirus type 11.
4
Adenovirus
Coxsackie – 24
Enterovirus – 70
Papilloma virus
Ophthalmology
null
b1d4887d-8229-4af1-89e6-a435e4cc09e2
single
A patient with acute leukaemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management
Cotrimoxazole is an antibiotic. As the patient is immunocompromised, most probable oppounistic infection is a fungal infection. And X-Ray shows fluffy infiltrates is suggestive of fungal infection. So antifungals are to be added. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
2
Add antiviral therapy
Add antifungal therapy
Add cotrimoxazole
Continue chemotheraphy
Microbiology
mycology
21e9a60d-8b45-4410-bfbc-1f78b4219f99
multi
A population is divided into relevant subgroups and random sample selection is done from each of the subgroups. This is which type of sampling method?
- in stratified random sample, the sample is deliberately drawn in a systematic way so that each poion of the sample represents a corresponding strata of the universe. - this method is paicularly useful where one is interested in analysing the data by a ceain characteristic of the population. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:850
2
Systematic random sampling
Stratified random sampling
Simple random sampling
Cluster sampling
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
d74d4814-098b-4866-8117-50149c5a9e50
single
In thin basement membrane disease, the defect is in
TBM disease (also known as benign familial hematuria and thin basement membrane nephropathy) is, along with IgA nephropathy, the most common cause of blood in the urine without any other symptoms. The only abnormal finding in this diseaseis a thinning of the basement membrane of the glomeruli (filters) in the kidneys. Refer robbins 9/e
2
a1 and a2 chains of type IV collagen
a3 and a4 chains of type IV collagen
a1 and a2 chains of type VI collagen
a3 and a4 chains of type VI collagen
Pathology
Urinary tract
197c922c-6f02-4ff8-9629-2e82f40864a8
single
A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X-ray, multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be-
A i.e. Pyloric obstruction
1
Pyloric obstruction
Duodenal atresia
Illeal atresia
Ladd \\ s bands
Radiology
null
36bb2006-8baf-4b25-bb66-d1bb860b8539
single
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) is seen in
PR3-ANCAs are also present in up to 95% of cases; they are a useful marker of disease activity and may participate in Wegener’s granulomatosis.
3
Rheumatoid arthritis
Diabetes mellitus
Wegener’s Granulomatosis
Churg-Strauss syndrome
Pathology
null
ade5ddec-73fa-487b-9958-4e76ff78a830
single
Patient with jaundice and white stools. Which of the following enzymes is not raised
Large increase in gamma glutamyl transferase and ALP ours biliary obstruction (Davidson; page 929) 5&;nucleotidase rise parallels ALP but more specific for diseases of hepatic origin (Harsh mohan page 594)
3
5' nucleotidase
Alkaline phosphatase
Glutamate reductase
Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
Medicine
G.I.T
83939c0a-197b-440a-a8f8-7e37f4f33371
single
Least clearance is for among these
Glucose is completely reabsorbed in proximal tubules. So its clearance is zero.
1
Glucose
Inulin
Urea
Creatinine
Physiology
null
b8b6cb77-cdd4-4633-a890-ee94c0feb74c
single
Characteristics of glycoprotein:
A i.e. Protein linked with glycosidic bond
1
Protein linked with glycosidic bond
Core protein
Sugar residues are long in carbohydrate poion of glycoprotein
null
Biochemistry
null
a6bee775-12c8-4675-a3f2-15c51cd3990d
multi
At what age baby with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis show symptoms
Baby show the symptoms of projectile vomiting, olive shaped mass and visible peristalsis
3
At the time of birth
First week
3rd to 4th week
Second month
Surgery
null
7e822c2e-b62b-4f0e-9306-9b5ec1ff9ca7
single
All of the following may be used to treat hypercalcemia, except:
Answer is A (Normal saline with forced diuresis with Thiazides): Thiazide diuretics should not be used in cases of hypercalcemia as these may themselves cause hypercalcemia.
1
Normal saline with forced diuresis with chlohiazide
Plicamycin
Gallium nitrate
Mitramycin
Medicine
null
89500db2-ff0d-4895-a9cf-86fb6c58d465
multi
The most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Graham's omentum patch repair
4
Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
Vagotomy and antrectomy
Vagotomy and perforation closure
Graham's omentum patch repair
Surgery
null
f5e78622-1e8a-4e33-a166-676c72d4c3f0
single
Donovan bodies are:
Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
4
Leukocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
EosinophiLs that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Monocytes that contain the organism, Haemophilus influenza
Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Microbiology
null
d54ab332-7771-48fd-8721-be014089d3fa
single
Which of the following structures seen in the cavernous sinus?
Ans. c. Internal carotid aery
3
Maxillary division of V nerve
Mandibular division of V nerve
Internal carotid aery
Trochlear nerve
Anatomy
null
60dc935f-82bf-49e1-aa25-58a037bb5f42
single
A symptom of medullary sponge kidney disease is -
Medullary sponge kidney is a congenital disorder characterized by cystic dilatation of papillary collecting ducts of one or both kidneys. Urinary stasis in the dilated ducts, hypocitraturia, and, occasionally, incomplete distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) contribute to the formation of small calcium-containing calculi. Most cases are asymptomatic or are discovered during investigation of asymptomatic hematuria. Symptomatic patients typically present as young adults with: Kidney stones with renal colic Recurrent hematuria Infection (UTI) Most cases are sporadic, while some show autosomal dominant inheritance Involvement is bilateral in most cases
4
Nocturia
Anemia
Azotemia
UTI
Surgery
null
71873be2-d2fa-4f70-bb70-f2b08942ecf9
single
Tardieu spots are a feature of which of the following forms of death?
Tardieu spots or petechial haemorrhages are pinhead size bleeding spots occurring as a result of rupture of venules and are most commonly seen in sclera, conjunctiva or on serous membranes. It is seen in case of mechanical asphyxia. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By V.V Pillay, 15th Edition, Page 275
2
Cyanide poisoning
Mechanical asphyxia
Cobra bite
Organophosphate poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
53b6d52f-ce67-475e-9f14-5731aa6bfb3b
single
Metastasis in neuroblastoma goes to -
Lung metastasis at initial diagnosis of neuroblastoma is associated with MYCN amplification and elevated LDH levels. Although lung metastasis at diagnosis was not independently predictive of outcome in this analysis, it remains a useful prognostic marker of an unorable outcome.
2
Liver
Lung
Bone
Bone marrow
Pathology
Pediatrics, environment and nutrition
286c7f83-dc51-4a9d-b407-b36c60de36e7
single
Deposition of protein 'A beta 2m' is seen in which clinicopathologic category of amyloidosis -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hemodialysis associated
2
Familial Mediterranean fever
Hemodialysis associated
Senile cerebral
Systemic senile
Pathology
null
92e72deb-d0bc-485c-81a3-6af699e85c8a
single
Aerial blood gas of a 5 year old child done at sea level gives the following results: pH 7.41, PaO2, 100 mmHg, and PaCO2, 40 mmHg. The child is being ventilated with 80% oxygen. What is the (A-a) DO2.-
Alveolar air equation: Using the alveolar air equation - PAO2 = - Data: Fraction of O2 in the inspired air = 80% Barometric pressure = 760 mm Hg (sea level) Water vapor pressure = 47 mm Hg Respiratory quotient = 0.8 Hence, Alveolar PO2 = - = 570.4 - 50 = 520.4 mm Hg Aerial PO2 is given = 100 mm Hg Hence, (A - a) DO2 = 520.4 - 100 = 420.4 mm Hg
4
570.4 mm Hg
520.4 mm Hg
470.4 mm Hg
420.4 mm Hg
Physiology
Respiratory System Pa 3
94c2904d-2d6d-4d92-9ad9-a88415418efb
single
A child presented with a history of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge from the same side, The diagnosis is -
Unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge in a child is highly suggestive of foreign body. Antrochoanal polyp does not cause bloody discharge. Angiofibroma most commonly presents with nasal obstruction and epistaxis (not purulent nasal discharge). Rhinosporidiosis presents most commonly with polypoid mass.
2
Antrochoanal polyp
Foreign body
Angiofibroma
Rhinosporidiosis
ENT
null
85a88804-96b9-42ec-93b8-a13c0b2daaf1
single
DNA fingerprinting was founded by:
C i.e. Jeffrey
3
Watson
Calton
Jeffrey
All of the above
Medicine
null
278a64a6-fe13-486e-83ab-b3541733296c
multi
For a class V cavity for amalgam:
null
3
Mesio-distal walls are parallel and occluso-gingival walls converging
Mesio-distal walls diverging, occlusogingival walls converging
MD walls diverging, OG walls diverging
MD walls and OG walls parallel
Dental
null
948272d8-4118-44e3-becc-6c60a3f8222a
multi
A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have
Answer is D (Vitamin D deficiency) Serum Ca Serum phosphorus Alkaline phosphatase PTH * Osteomalacia (Rickets) (|iNit. D) | | | | * Primary hyperparathyroidism bone disease | | , | | * Bone disease in renal failure with secondary hyperparathyroidism N/| | | | * Lytic bone neoplasms N/| N/| N/| N * Osteoporosis N N N N * Paget's disease N N | N
4
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Paget's disease
Osteoporosis
Vitamin D deficiency
Medicine
null
a6958436-9471-4225-b5d2-c477192da91d
single
During the Window period of patient with AIDS -
sero negative infective stage is known as the window period REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.579
3
ELISA is -ve
Western Blot is -ve
Both are -ve
PCR is -ve
Microbiology
Virology
24bfc067-fe79-4696-89ae-f92efce9d84e
multi
In Bismuth/ Strasberg classification system cystic blow out is classified as:
null
1
Type A
Type B
Type C
Type D
Surgery
null
851f0325-df1c-4498-80e3-4a5d276396a4
single
If circumflex aery gives the posterior interventricular branch, this circulation is described as
In about 10% of heas,the right coronary is rather small and is not able to give the posterior interventricular branch. In these cases the circumflex aery,the continuation of left provides the posterior interventricular branch and called left dominant. <img src=" /> B D CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME1 SIXTH EDITION Page no:265
2
Right dominance
Left dominance
Codominance
Undetermined
Anatomy
Thorax
9988d555-e41d-4f02-b78f-60f6b6f93b66
single
Parvovirus B19 does not cause
parvovirusB19 causesaplasyic crisi ,persistent anemia,erythema infectiosum&fetal hydrops REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.554
1
Roseola infantum
Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
Fetal hydrops
erythema infectiosum
Microbiology
Virology
9fe50a93-278b-41d1-898d-a31b95709b08
single
Marker of acute kidney injury all except?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Acid phosphatase o Acid phosphatase is not a market of AKI, instead it is alkaline phosphatase.o List of markers for AKI# Alanine aminopeptidase(AAP)# Alkaline phosphatase (AP)# a-GIutathione-S-transferase (a-GST)# g-Glutamyl transpeptidase (gGT)# N-Acetyl-b-(D) gluco-saminidase (NAG)# b2-Microglubulin# a1-Microglubulin# Retinol-binding protein# Cystatin C# Microalbumin# Kidney injury molecule-1 (KIM-1)# Neutrophil gelatinase associated lipocalin (NGAL)# Interleukin-18 (IL-18)# Cysteine-rich protein (CYR-61)# Osteopontin# Liver fatty acid-binding protein (L-FABP)# Sodium/hydrogen exchanger isoform (NHE3)# Exosomal fetuin-A
4
Clusterin
Osteopontin
Alanine aminopeptidase
Acid phosphatase
Medicine
Acute Renal Failure
6220ae04-06a1-47bf-81cc-b325989a0074
multi
Button hole sign is seen in:
Due to defect in dermis, pressure on a neurofibroma gives a feeling of hole in dermis, which is called as Button hole sign.
3
Lupus vulgaris
Intertigo
Neuro fibromatosis
Psoriasis
Dental
null
1a9dc641-10a9-4571-90d1-9483cb14029e
single
Lipoxins synthesized from arachidonic acid act by-
lopoxins are the metabolites produced lipooxygenase pathway. They act to regulate and counter Balance actions ad Leucotriens i:e, decreases leukocyte adhesion, migration and chemotaxis. .ref Robbins 9/e p46
1
Decrease leucocyte migration, adhesion, chemotaxis
Increase leucocyte migration, adhesion, chemotaxis
Vasoconstriction
Increased vascular permeability
Pathology
General pathology
108ab257-4a62-4cb6-804b-a8fb57aedf1a
single
Active management of 3rd stage of labour is needed for all the following EXCEPT
Ans. d (Delivery of first baby of twins) (Ref. Textbook of Obstetrics D.C. Dutta 6th/pg. 142)Accidental administration of ergometrine or methergin during delivery of first baby in undiagnosed twins produce grave danger to the unborn 2nd baby caused by asphyxia due to tetanic uterine contractions.MANAGEMENT OF THE THIRD STAGE OF LABORThe third stage of labor begins following the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta.Signs of spontaneous placental separation include an apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord, a gush of vaginal bleeding, and a change in shape of the uterus from discoid to globular along with a rise in fundal height.Active management of the third stage of labor, which involves prompt umbilical cord clamping and cutting, administration of an oxytocic agent, and gentle umbilical cord traction, reduces maternal blood loss and the frequency of postpartum hemorrhage, and lessens the risk that the third stage will be prolonged.# Cord clamping is part of management of 2nd stage of labour.# Cord traction should be used only against fundally applied counter-traction to lessen the potential for uterine inversion and catastrophic hemorrhage. If at any time heavy bleeding occurs during the third stage of labor or if the placenta is not delivered within 30 minutes of the birth, the placenta should be manually removed.# General anesthesia may be required for women who have no regional anesthesia, and curettage may be necessary if the placenta does not readily separate from the uterine wall.# Manual removal is accomplished by developing a cleavage plane with the intrauterine hand between the maternal surface of the placenta and the uterine wall, while simultaneously fixing the uterus with the abdominal hand, and progressively peeling the placenta free.# If any portion of the placenta or the membranes is missing, the uterine cavity should be manually explored. Some advocate routine exploration of the uterine cavity to reduce the risk of infection and bleeding from retained placental fragments. In most women, especially those without regional anesthesia, the benefit of manual exploration is outweighed by the discomfort it causes, as well as the increased risk for uterine infection.# The uterus should be frequently palpated following delivery of the placenta to ensure that it remains well contracted. Oxytocin, 10 to 20 U administered intramuscularly or as a dilute intravenous solution, has been demonstrated to decrease the incidence of postpartum hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony. The birth canal, including the cervix,vagina, and perineum should be inspected for lacerations requiring repair.
4
Rh incompatibility
Diabetic mother
Prolonged pregnancy
Delivery of first baby of twins
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
611702fc-bc99-44cf-a9bb-69e365205fbb
multi
Which is a DNA virus ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hepatitis B
2
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Microbiology
null
9f6df3d9-afba-4deb-a685-78f648de5caf
single
Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis?
Aldolase is the enzyme which catalyzes the reversible reaction of glycolysis. So this enzyme is utilized in gluconeogenesis.Glucokinase, pyruvate kinase and phosphofructokinase are enzymes which catalyze the irreversible reaction of glycolysis and which are bypassed by different sets of enzymes during gluconeogenesis.
3
Glucokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Aldolase
Phosphofructokinase
Microbiology
All India exam
d17e8812-8507-4726-b1f8-d82be8a09a9b
single
In pneumothorax due to blunt injury, treatment of choice is -
null
4
Observation
Pneumonectomy
Thoracotomy
Intercostal drainage
Surgery
null
390ec4b8-dd44-4cdd-8065-609d9fc943d9
single
A 53-year-old female nonsmoker is being evaluated with symptoms of progressive shoness of breath. She has a past history of trauma to the right side of the chest. There is no history of asthma, sputum production, or recent chest pain. CXR is shown in,The likely diagnosis is
There is a large, well-demarcated, calcified pleural-based opacity abutting the lateral chest occupying two-thirds of the left hemithorax. It has a rounded, intensely calcified inferior and medial border and thus suggests a pleural origin. The shadow is most consistent with a large, old organized hemothorax. The calcified and organized pleuralbased opacity is consistent with an old hemothorax secondary to previous trauma. The pulmonary functions in this case would show restrictive limitation due to fibrosis of the pleural space and decreased lung compliance.
2
Calcified cyst
Organized hemothorax
Blastomycosis
Asbestosis
Radiology
Respiratory system
29c07a2a-41e2-4929-a4af-b18191223ff9
single
Predisposing factors for endometrial carcinoma is :
All
4
Hypeension
Late menopause
Nulliparity and Diabetes mellitus both
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
9ddb4c7b-5115-4349-80c4-a973b09a0771
multi
Which of the following connective tissue disorder is associated with gastroesophageal reflux?
Scleroderma is systemic disease accompanied by esophageal abnormalities in approximately 80% of patients. The esophageal lesion consists of atrophy of the smooth muscles, manifested by weakness in the lower two-third of the esophageal body and incompetence of the LES. Gastroesophageal reflux is due to incompetent LES combined with poor esophageal clearance which inturn leads to severe reflux esophagitis and stricture formation. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 846; Harrison 17/e, Page 1850.
2
SLE
Scleroderma
Behcet's syndrome
Dermatomyositis
Surgery
null
7570ad1b-7a71-4a46-a6d7-0125cbc2a61a
single
Subdural Hematoma (SDH) is caused by
(A) Bridging veins # SUBDURAL BLEEDING arises from rupture of cortical vessels/bridging veins.> Relatively severe trauma> No lucid interval> Diffuse concave lesion on computed tomography> Require immediate transfer to a neurosurgical unit for decision on evacuation 50 per cent mortality.
1
Bridging veins
Caroticocavemous fistula rupture
Middle meningeal artery
null
Surgery
Miscellaneous
2f7b1086-cd8d-411b-a2e4-811532e8fbcb
multi
Thiazide diuretic used when GFR<30 ml/min?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metolazone o Metolazone is the only thiazide which is effective in severe renal failure.
1
Metolazone
Benzthiazidc
Chlohiazide
Hydrofulthiazide
Pharmacology
null
5487bd71-7f0e-4d50-91a6-9e486d860c72
single
Which of the following traditional medicines is effective in the treatment of hea failure
Ans. a. Terminalia Arjuna Terminalia Arjuna (An ayurvedic cardioprotective botanical) Although many Ayurvedic plants have shown to help coronary aery disease, Arjuna (Terminalia Arjuna) by far seems to be the best plant for hea health. Terminalia arjuna is a traditional ayurvedic plant containing tannins, triterpenoid saponins (arjungenin, arjunglucosides), flavonoids (arjunon, arjonolone), phytosterols, oligomeric proanthocyanidins (OPC's), calcium, magnesium, zinc, and copper.
1
Terminalia Arjuna
Neem bark extract
St. John's wo
Gingkoba biloba
Pharmacology
null
9c5a488d-97f1-4e77-b4d3-d21cb0f0c9f6
single
Selenocysteine is derivative of which aminoacid -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serine o Selenocysteine is considered as 21" standard amino acid. o It is present at the active site of some enzymes that catalyze redox reactions, e.g. thioredoxin reductase, glutathione peroxidase, and the deiodinase (converts thyroxin to triiothyronine). o Biosynthesis of selenocysteine requires cysteine, serine, ATP and a specific t-RNA o Serine provides the carbon skeleton of selenocysteine. o Selenocysteine has a structure similar to cysteine, but containing the trace element selenium in place of sulfur atom of cysteine.
1
Serine
Alanine
Arginine
Glycine
Biochemistry
Amino Acids Basics
95f22481-cf82-4c1f-bac4-be74a2e1997f
single
Which of the following local anaesthetic is NOT used as a surface anaesthetic?
Bupivacaine is a widely used amide local anesthetic. It is a potent agent capable of producing prolonged anesthesia. Its long duration of action plus its tendency to provide more sensory than motor block has made it a popular drug for providing prolonged analgesia during labor or the postoperative period. By taking advantage of indwelling catheters and continuous infusions, bupivacaine can be used to provide several days of effective analgesia. Lignocaine, tetracaine, and cocaine are used as local anaesthetics and anesthesia lasts for 30-45 minutes (30-60 minutes with tetracaine). Anesthesia is entirely superficial; it does not extend to submucosal structures. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
4
Lignocaine
Tetracaine
Cocaine
Bupivacaine
Anaesthesia
null
b010c4fd-35c5-440f-a8aa-8219c856ae18
single
Undescended testis can lead to all of the following complications except: March 2012
Ans: D i.e. Hyperophy of testes Complications of undescended testes Torsion can be seen in incomplete testicular descent Sterility is seen in bilateral cases (especially intra-abdominal testes) Incomplete testicular descent predisposes to malignant disease; cancer is more common in an incompletely descended testes-orchidopexy may or may not diminish the risk. Atrophy of an inguinal testes before pubey may possibly be caused by recurrent minor trauma.
4
Torsion
Sterility
Carcinoma
Hyperophy of testes
Surgery
null
f717c467-4c26-4e62-9e7a-fdfd8007986f
multi
Keratoderma Blenorrhagica is typically seen in
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reactive ahritis Keratoderma Blenorrhagica is the characteristic skin lesion seen in patients with Reactive Ahritis. "The Characteristic skin lesions in Reactive Ahritis, Keratoderma Blenorrhagica, consist ofvesicles that become hyperkeratotic, ultimately forming a crust before disappearing. These are seen in palms and soles.
3
Rheumatoid ahritis
Psoriatic Ahritis
Reactive Ahritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Medicine
null
45d980dc-0b54-4db0-b556-6df36cbc1534
multi
Initial amino acid in prokaryotic protein synthesis -
Ans. is 'c- i.e., Formyl-methionine o in prokaryotes and in mitochondria, the first amino acid methionine is modified by formylation, i.e. the initiator t-RNA carries an N-formylated methionine. The formyl group is added by the enzyme transformylase (formyl- transferase). In Eukaryotes, the initiator t-RNA carries a methionine that is not formylatedDifferenceProkaryotesEukaryotesm-RNAPolycistronic i.e. have several coding regions; each with its initiation & termination codon producing a seperate polypeptideMonocistr onic with one coding regionAmino acid incorporation rate18 aa/sec6aa/sec.Initial amino acidFormylated methionine ( f-met)Methionine r (Met)Initial t-RNAt-RNA/MettRNAMetTranscription & translationTranslation starts before transcription is ended (coupled)UncoupledInitiation factors (IF)3i.e.IF1,IF2,IF3> 10 designated elFDetermination of initiatingcodon# Shine Dalgarno sequencer# Facilitated by IF-2 bound to GTPKozak consensus sequencesr Facilitated by elF-2 bound to GTP (Plus additional elF)Elongation: Del Every of aminoacyl t-RNA to A site# Facilitated by EF-Tu & EF-TsFacilitated by EF1 a and EF 1 b yNucleotide exchange factors# EF - Ts (as it exchanges its GTP for GDP on EFTu)EF 1 b g (as it exchanges its GTP forGDP on EF a)Peptidyi transferase activity catalyzing peptide bond formation23 S rRNA of 50 S ribosomal subunit (ribozyme)28 S rRNA of 60 S ribosornal subunit (ribozyme)TranslocationRequires EF-G & GTPRequires EF-2 & GTPTerminationRelease factor (RF) 1 recognizes UAA & UAG, RF2 recognizes UAA & UGARF-3 (bound to GTP) causes release ofRF-1 or RF-2 as GTP is hydrolysedeRF recognizesail 3 UAA, UAGandUGA and release nascent polypeptide chaineRF-3 (bound to GTP) function like prokaryotic RF-3 & release eRF
3
Arginine
Methionine
Formyl-methionine
Alanine
Biochemistry
Amino Acids Basics
4fccd3d5-4706-4f62-8708-46c2d05b5faf
single
Antiglaucoma drug which acts by increasing uveo- sclerol outflow -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Latanoprost Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma MechanismMethods of AdministrationCholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecariumCiliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork, increased outflowTopical drops of gel; plastic film slow-release insertAlpha agonists UnselectiveEpinephrine, dipivefrinIncreased outflowTopical dropsAlpha2-selectiveDecreased aqueous secretion ApraclonidineBrimonidine Topical, postlaser only TopicalBeta-blockers Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, levobunolol, metipranololDecreased aqueous secretion from the ciliary epitheliumTopical dropsDiuretics Dorzolamide, brinzolamideDecreased aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3TopicalAcetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, Methazolamide OralProstaglandins Lantanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, unoprostoneIncreased outflowTopical
2
Apraclonidine
Latanoprost
Timolol
Brinzolamide
Pharmacology
Anti Adrenergic System
6bbd139e-6000-4acb-beb0-042dc471df1e
single
Most commonly affected organ in the disorder characterized by the peripheral blood smear is:
Hereditary Spherocytosis—Peripheral blood smear.   Splenomegaly is more common and prominent in hereditary spherocytosis than in any other form of hemolytic anemia. The splenic weight usually is between 500 and 1000 g. The enlargement results from marked congestion of the splenic cords and increases in the numbers of macrophages. Phagocytosed red cells are seen within macrophages lining the sinusoids and, in particular, within the cords. Robin’s Textbook of pathology 10th ed Page 442
3
Lungs
Kidney
Spleen
Liver
Pathology
null
f8000fa0-b8f6-47d3-9503-f2cd30e935f9
single
Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in
Tyrosinemia REF: Sapira's a & science of bedside diagnosis - Page 138, Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Medicine by Gary R. Fleisher, Stephen Ludwig Page 1566 Tyrosinaemia is an error of metabolism, inherited, in which the body cannot effectively break down the amino acid tyrosine, found in most animal and plant proteins. It is an autosomal recessive, which means two copies of an abnormal gene must be present in order for this to develop. There are three types of tyrosinemia, each with distinctive symptoms and caused by the deficiency of a different enzyme. One of the symptoms of Tyrodinaemia type 1 is an odor like cabbage or rancid butter.
2
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinemia
Isovaleric Acidaemia
Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Biochemistry
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All are side effects of clozapine expect:
Ref: KDT 8th ed Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug. It does not block D2 receptors, therefore chances of extrapyramidal symptoms are least with this drug.
4
Granulocytopenia
Seizures
Sedation
Extrapyramidal side effects
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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All of the following are true about staing betablocker therapy in cases of CHF, Except
Answer is A (They should be initiated at the effective doses) Beta blocker should be initiated at lower than effective doses in CHF Beta blockers should be initiated at lower than effective doses in CHF and be 'Beta blockers should be initiated at low doses followed by gradual increments in the dose if lower doses have been well tolerated. The dose of beta blockers should be increased until the doses used are similar to those that have been repoed effective in clinical trials. The titration of beta blockers should proceed no more rapidly than at 2 week intervals because the initiation and / or increased dosing of these agents may lead to worsening fluid retention' -- Harrison's 17th/1450 Special precaution should be taken in NYHA class III & IV 'Although data suggests that patients with NYHA class IHB and IV CHF may tolerate beta blockers and benefit from their use, this group of patients should be approached with considerable caution' --Goodman & Gillman's Manual of Pharmacology (2007)/570 Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred beta blockers in CHF `Non selective third generation beta blockers (Bucindolol, Carvedilol) as well a the Beta-I selective agent (Metoprolol) are generally well tolerated by patients with CHF'. -'Current Diagnosis & Treatment in Cardiology' 3,1/217
1
They should be initiated at the effective doses
They should be gradually increased over weeks
Special precautions should be taken in NYHA class III & IV
Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred drugs
Medicine
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A patient with a peptic ulcer was admitted to the hospital and a gastric biopsy was performed. The tissue was cultured on chocolate agar incubated in a microaerophilic environment at 37degC for 5 to 7 days. At 5 days of incubation, colonies appeared on the plate and were curved, Gram negative rods, oxidase positive. The most likely identity of this organism is
This organism is readily isolated from gastric biopsies but not from stomach contents. It is like Campylobacter species and grows on chocolate agar at 37degC in the same microaerophilic environment suitable for C. jejuni (Campy-Pak or anaerobic jar without the catalyst). H. pylori, however, grows more slowly than C. jejuni, requiring 5 to 7 days incubation. C. jejuni grows optimally at 42degC, not 37degC, as does H. pylori.
4
Campylobacter jejuni
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Haemophilus influenzae
Helicobacter pylori
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
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In CML serum vitamin B12 level is:
Wintrobes hematology mentiins granulocytes contain and release B12 binding proteins.Markedly elevated transcobalamin 1 level are seen in chronic myelocytic leukemia and myeloid metaplasia whereas low levels are seen in chronic leucopenia and aplastic anemia. Williams hematology 8th adds that the increase is propoional to the total leucocyte count in untreated patients and falls with treatment.(ref Robbins 7th /697-698)
4
Slightly decreased
Normal
Markedly decreased
Increased
Anatomy
Haematology
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A 52-year-old businessman with nephrotic syndrome after a non-stop flight from New York to New Delhi presents with sudden onset of breathlessness, haemoptysis, and chest pain. He is brought into Casualty in shock. His chest X-ray is normal. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia.
1. In this patient no pulmonary edema, MI absent and aoic dissection also absent. 2. Nephrotic syndrome patient will be in hypercoagulable state, long flight- DVT- pulmonary embolism- acute Cor pulmonale 3. Most common causes of Cor pulmonale- pulmonary embolism 4. CXR is normal because it is only a small clot and clot usually not visible on X-ray
3
Pneumothorax
Myocardial infarction
Pulmonary embolism
Aoic dissection
Medicine
Thromboembolism and Fat Embolism Syndrome
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single
A farmer has an ulcer on leg with indurated margin and multiple sinuses with discharging granules. The likely diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mycetoma Mycetoma (Maduramycosis) . Is a localized chronic granulomatous involvement of the subcutaneous and deeper tissues, commonly affecting the foot and less often the hand and other pas. . Presenting as a subcutaneous swelling with multiple discharging sinuses. . Sinuses discharge seropurulent fluid containing granules. . These granules are microcolonies of the etiological agents. . A similar condition called botryomycosis is caused by staphylococcus aureus.
1
Mycetoma
Scrofuloderma
Lupus vulgaris
Actinomycosis
Microbiology
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single
Spaghetti and meatball appearance is seen in
In pityriasis versicolor while doing  KOH mount shows a mixture of short , branched hyphae and spores described as spaghetti and meatballs appearance.
3
Dermatophytes
Aspergillus
Pityriasis versicolor
Candida
Dental
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multi
Drug which is useful in neuronal diabetes inspidus in both children and adults given intra nasally -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Desmopressin Desmopressin (intranasal) is the DOC for central DI.
2
Vasopressin
Desmopressin
Lypressin
Presselin
Pharmacology
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multi
Magnan syndrome is seen in which poisoning-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cocaine
4
Morphine
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine
Forensic Medicine
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single
The denominator in General feility rate
General feility rate (GFR) : Number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive age group 15-49 years in a given year Denominator : Takes 'mid-year population' of 15-49 years age females into account Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 539
3
Live bihs
Mid year population
Reproductive women in the age group 15-45 mid year population
Married women in the age group 15-45
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
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