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All of the following are Bipolar disorders except
Even a single episode of Mania alone is considered as bipolar disorder. Hence option 4 is false.
4
Mania + Depression
Hypomania + Depression
Mania alone
Depression alone
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Which of the following is not a primary failure of malnutrition treatment?
Failure to gain 5 gm/Kg/day for 3 consecutive days during rehabilitation is secondary failure of malnutrition treatment. Inpatient cases: Primary failure Secondary failure Failure to regain appetite by day 4 Failure to sta losing edema by day 4 Presence of edema on day 10 Failure to gain atleast 5g/Kg/day by day 10 Fai...
3
Failure to lose edema by 4 weeks in outpatient cases
Failure to gain atleast 5 gm/Kg/day by 10 in inpatient cases
Failure to gain 5 gm/Kg/day for consecutive days during rehabilitation in inpatient cases
Presence of edema on day 10 in inpatient cases
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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The inability to perceive the texture & shape an object occurs in lesion of:
D i.e. Nucleus cuneatus The middle pa of cuneate nucleus, the pars rotunds which receives impulses from digits, palm, dorsum of hand & forearm is specific for stereognosisQ.
4
Lateral spino-thalamic tract
Nucleus gracils
Spino reticular tract
Nucleus cuneatus
Physiology
null
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True about "Michaelis-Guttman" bodies?
Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref. Robbin's pathology 7th/ 1027).MALAKOPLAKIA#It is a rare chronic inflammatory process that most often affects the bladder but can involve the GIT.#It is diagnosed endoscopically, often as an incidental finding, and may appear as a mucosal plaque, a polypoid lesion, or even a stricture. Th...
4
Calcium deposition in lysosomes
Located in inter-cellular spaces
May involve lungs and colon apart from urinary tract
All of the above
Unknown
null
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multi
Which is/are not transpo protein (s):
B i.e. CollagenAlbumin, ceruloplasmin, transferrinn and hemoglobin are transpo proteins whereas collagen is a structural protein.
2
Transferrin
Collagen
Ceruloplasmin
Hemoglobin
Biochemistry
null
2ab4d36d-7015-45e4-83a2-d671e4a4abc6
single
Residual monomer content of chemically activated resins is
null
4
0.2% to 0.5%
2% to 5%
0.3% to 0.5%
3% to 5%
Dental
null
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multi
man with pain in defecation, no gastrointestinal symptoms, clustered ulcers extending into anal canal. Diagnosis-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Herpes genitalis Herpes genitalis is a sexually transmitted disease, characterized by appearance of multiple painful vesicles in clusteres in genital area which later on may ulcerate. These small ulcers may combine to form a large ulcer. First attack of this in infection may be associated with flu lik...
3
CM V
Gonorrhea
Herpes genitalis
HIV
Skin
null
dbfe1cf8-b0da-4d9c-9cd2-08f35632a6bd
single
Which of the following is a Fissural cyst is
null
3
Dentigerous cyst
Primordial cyst
Nasopalatine cyst
Radicular cyst
Pathology
null
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single
Insipisation is used to sterilise?
Media such as Lowenstein-Jensen and Loeffler serum are rendered sterile by heating at 80-85degC for half an hour on three successive days in an inspissator REF:Ananthanarayan & paniker's textbook of Microbiology 9th edition page no 30
4
Needles
Endoscopes
Scissors
Culture medium
Microbiology
general microbiology
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single
A 50-year-old female is admitted to the hospital after a traumatic injury of the abdomen. NCCT examination reveals the lesion. An emergency procedure is performed. Which of the following peritoneal structures must be carefully manipulated to prevent intraperitoneal bleeding?
CT shows a subcapsular hematoma with a splenic laceration extending from the capsule to the hilum with an intraparenchymal hematoma Leinorenal ligament, also known as the Splenorenal ligament contains: tail of the pancreas splenic aery splenic vein Hence it is needed to be manipulated carefully to prevent bleeding. Gas...
3
Coronary ligament
Gastrosplenic ligament
Lienorenal ligament
Phrenocolic ligament
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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Specific test for gout is:
B i.e. Raised uric acid in synol fluid of joint - Gout is a metabolic disorder of purine catabolismQ, and characterized by high level of uric acid in the blood . Uric acid is end product of purine catabolismQ - Pyrimidine nucleotide unlike purine rings can be opened & degraded to highly water soluble structure like, p-...
2
Raised serum uric acid level
Raised uric acid in synol fluid of joint
Raised urea level
Raised urease enzyme level
Biochemistry
null
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single
Colonoscopy was done for a patient who was suffering from recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and low volume diarrhea since six months. Colonoscopy showed many areas of mucosal edema and ulceration and some areas appeared normal. Microscopy of biopsy specimen from an ulcerated ared showed patchy acute and chronic inf...
Skip lesions are very characteristic of crohns disease. Generally, Crypt abscesses are more typical of ulcerative colitis, and granulomas are typical of crohn disease, but these  are not very common.
1
Crohns disease
Sarcoidosis
Ulcerative collitis
Amoebiasis
Pathology
null
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First product of tryptophan catabolism is:
Ans. (a) KynerunineRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 306-307* Tryptophan is degraded to amphibolic intermediates via the kynurenine-anthranilate pathway. Tryptophan oxygenase (tryptophan pyrrolase) opens the indole ring, incorporates molecular oxygen, and forms N-formyl kynurenine.* Hydrolytic removal of the for...
1
Kynerunine
Bradykinin
PAF
Xantheurenate
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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single
Delta waves in EEG are 'seen in :
A i.e. Deep sleep
1
Deep sleep
REM sleep
Awake with eyes open
Awake with eyes closed
Physiology
null
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The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids is present in:
Fatty acid content of different fats (%): Fats SFA* MUFA* PUFA* Coconut oil 92 6 2 Safflower oil 9 13 75 - highest amount Sunflower seed oil 12 22 62 Soya bean oil 14 24 53 Groundnut oil 19 41 32 Palm oil 39 46 11 Butter 68 29 2 (*SFA: Saturated Fatty Acids; MUFA: Mono-unsaturated Fatty Acids; PUFA: Poly-unsaturated Fa...
2
Groundnut oil
Soya bean oil
Margarine
Palm oil
Social & Preventive Medicine
Proteins, Fats, Rich Sources
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A cohort study is performed involving healthy adult men and women born 20 years ago. They are followed to assess the development of atherosclerotic cardiovascular diseases. Multiple laboratory tests are performed yearly during this study. An increase in which of the following is most likely to indicate the greatest rel...
CRP is an acute-phase reactant that increases in response to inflammation. It causes endothelial cell activation, promotes thrombosis, and increases leukocyte adhesiveness in developing atheroma. Because atherogenesis is partly an inflammatory process, CRP is an independent predictor of cardiovascular risk. PR3 is one ...
2
Anti-proteinase 3 (PR3)
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Cryoglobulin
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Pathology
Blood Vessels
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Occurrence of ovulation is indicated by :
All of the above
4
Progesterone
LH
Estradiol
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Cytochrome oxidase contains the following metal ion for transfer of four electrons from cytochrome c to O2:
Reduced cytochrome c is oxidized by Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase), with the concomitant reduction of O2 to two molecules of water. This transfer of four electrons from cytochrome c to O2 involves two heme groups, a and a3, and Cu. Electrons are passed initially to a Cu center (CuA), which contains 2Cu atoms linked ...
2
Fe
Cu
Mg
Mn
Biochemistry
null
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Increased nuchal fold thickness is a feature of :
Answer is C (Down's Syndrome) : Ultrasonography in a case of Down's syndrome Q may reveal increased nuchal fold thicknessY (Note that this is also a .feature of Turner's Syndrome.Q
3
Paul-Bunnel syndrome
De-pan syndrome
Down's syndrome
Cri-duchat syndrome
Medicine
null
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Blue Sclera is associated with: March 2009
Ans. D: All of the above Causes of blue Sclera: Pseudoxanthoma elasticum Osteogenesis imperfecta Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Marf an's syndrome Alkaptonuria Hypophosphatasia Juvenile paget's disease Normal in newborns Van der Hoeve's syndrome
4
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Marfan's syndrome
Alkaptonuria
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
The most common lesion of a mature placenta with no much clinical significance is:
Chorionic villi receive oxygen solely from maternal circulation through the uteroplacental vessels, which jet blood into the intervillous space. Uteroplacental diseases that diminish or obstruct this connection can lead to villous infarction. Although these are common lesions in mature placentas, if they are numerous, ...
1
Infarct
Hyperophic villous lesions
Marginal hematoma
Breus mole
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Killian's dehisense is seen in:
It is the area of weakness between the two pas of inferior constrictor muscle-subthyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus. Since it is an area of weakness it is one of the sites of esophageal perforation duting instrumentation and scopy-hence also called gateway of tears. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. Ref D...
3
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Cricopharynx
Vocal cords
Anatomy
null
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Side effects of Oxygen therapy are all except
Absorption atelactasis, decreased vital capacity and endothelial damage are the side effects of the oxygen therapy
2
Absorption atelectasis
Increased Pulmonary compliance
Decreased vital capacity
Endothelial damage
Anaesthesia
Anaesthetic equipments
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multi
Growth on a cell-free artificial solid medium is possible for following except -
null
4
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C and L form of proteus vulgaris
Chlamydia
Microbiology
null
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multi
PKU is due to deficiency of which enzyme:
Ans. (b) Phenylalanine hydroxylaseRef: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 434e1* PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by an increased concentration of phenylalanine and its byproducts in body fluids and by severe mental retardation if untreated in infancy.* It results from reduced activity of phenylalanine hydroxy...
2
Phenylalanine reductase
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Tyrosine reductase
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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single
Halban's disease is due to:
Halban's disease: • Rare, self-limiting process. • Also called irregular shedding. • It is due to persistent corpus luteum due to incomplete withdrawl of LH even on 26 day of cycle. The CL continues to secret progesterone • Menstruation comes on time, is prolonged but not heavy. Slight bleeding continues intermittentl...
1
Persistent corpus luteum
Deficient corpus luteum
Persistent trophoblast
Deficient trophoblast
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Prozone phenomenon is due to:
Ans: B (Antibody excess) Ref: Ananthonaravan. Panikar CJ Textbook of .Microbiology. 8th Edition. John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg. 104Explanation:Antigen and antibody can combine in various proportions.State of antibody excess - ProzoneOptimal ratio - Zone of equivalenceState of antigen excess - Postzone (See the following ...
2
Antigen excess
Antibody excess
Excessive immune complex
Acute phase reactants
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
The use of pit and fissure sealant is contraindicated in
null
4
Arrested caries
Recalcitrant caries
Remedial caries
Rampant caries
Dental
null
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single
Chondrosarcoma
Refer Robbins page no Pg 8th 1228 Chondrosarcomas are malignant tumors that produce cailage. They are subclassified histologically as conven- tional (hyaline cailage producing), clear cell, dedifferenti- ated, and mesenchymal variants. Conventional tumors are fuher subdivided by site as central (intramedullary) and per...
3
Intramedullary
Juxtracoical
Both
null
Anatomy
Musculoskeletal system
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multi
Child survival index is calculated by?
Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *Child survival rate =(1000- under 5 moality rate)/10.
3
1000-IMR\/10
IMR -1000\/10
1000-U5MR\/10
U5MR-1000\/10
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
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single
Air under central tendon of diaphragm is
The 'Cupola sign' is seen on a supine chest/abdominal radiograph in the presence of pneumoperitoneum. It refers to non-dependent gas that rises within the abdominal cavity of the supine patient to accumulate underneath the central tendon of the diaphragm in the midline.
2
Air under diaphragm sign
Cupola sign
Doges cap sign
Falciform ligament sign
Radiology
Gastrointestinal Radiology
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All of the following are metabolic effects of progesterone in normal pregnancy, EXCEPT:
Progesterone increases basal insulin levels and the rise in insulin after carbohydrate ingestion, but it does not normally alter glucose tolerance. However, long-term administration of more potent progestins, such as norgestrel, may decrease glucose tolerance. Progesterone stimulates lipoprotein lipase activity and see...
2
It increases basal insulin levels
Norgestrel increase glucose tolerance
Stimulates lipoprotein lipase activity
Does not alter glucose tolerance
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Hypoglossal nerve supplies to all the following muscles EXCEPT:
null
1
Palatoglossus
Genioglossus
Hyoglossus
Styloglossus
Anatomy
null
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multi
Cherry red spot is seen in: September 2010 March 2013
Ans. B: CRAO The cherry red spot is seen in central retinal aery occlusion, appearing several hours after the blockage of the retinal aery occurs. The cherry red spot is seen because the macula receives its blood supply from the choroid aery while the surrounding retina is pale due to retinal aery infarction. It is als...
2
CRVO
CRAO
Eale's disease
Retinitis pigmentosa
Ophthalmology
null
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single
A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia came with acute exacerbation of symptoms. Inj.Haloperidol was administered in the casuality and suddenly the patient had deviation of eye balls and torticollis. What is the diagnosis?
Acute dystonia is the earliest side effect seen immediately after the administration of antipsychotics. Acute dystonia is treated using anticholinergics like Benztropine, Promethazine.
2
Akathisia
Acute dystonia
Malignant hyperthermia
Drug induced parkinsonism
Psychiatry
null
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Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Kartagener's syndrome:
Ans. (c) Dysphagia(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 683-684)Kartagener syndrome refers to bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and situsinversus; QIt is seen in 50% patients with primary ciliary dyskinesia
3
Bronchiectasis
Ciliary dyskinesia
Dysphagia
Situs inversus
Pathology
Respiration
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single
If a person has normal musculature but has difficulty swallowing, which nerves should be tested for function?
The upper 2/3 of the esophagus contains striated muscle. It is derived from the pharyngeal arches and innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). The lower 1/3 contains smooth muscleft from splanchnic mesoderm and is innervated by the splanchnic plexus.
4
Hypoglossal and phrenic
Hypoglossal and splanchnic
Glossopharyngeal and vagus
Splanchnic and vagus
Physiology
All India exam
27ce654d-3137-435a-8950-31a97405e588
multi
Which of the following is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
Autosomal Dominant (A Very DOMINANT Hereditary Family ) Achondroplasia/ADPKD Von Hipple Lindau disease Dystrophia myotonica Osteogenesis imperfecta Marfan Syndrome Intermittent porphyria NF 1(von reckinghausen disease) Achondroplasia NF 2 Tuberous Sclerosis Huntington Disease Familial hypercholesterolemia Autosomal Rec...
2
Sickle cell disease
Achondroplasia
Hemochromatosis
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Pathology
NEET 2019
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Macroscopic manifestation of Dalen-Fuchs nodules are seen in the following condition:
Sympathetic ophthalmia is an inflammation in the second eye after the other has been damaged by penetrating injury. Histologic sections of the traumatized eye from a patient with sympathetic ophthalmia may show uniform infiltration of most of the uvea by lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, and giant cells. The overlying re...
1
Sympathetic ophthalmia
Phthisis bulbi
Absolute glaucoma
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Which biochemical reaction does not occur in the mitochondria:
D i.e. Fatty acid synthesis
4
Kreb's cycle
Urea cycle
Gluconeogenesis
Fatty acid synthesis
Biochemistry
null
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single
Which of the following combination is not true :
Schillar duval bodies - serous tumor
3
Call Hexner bodies - GC tumor
Rokitansky bodies - teratoma
Schillar duval bodies - serous tumor
Reinke crystal - Hilus cell tumor
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Odland bodies are seen in which layer of epidermis?
Odland bodies are present is: Skin: Stratum granulosum > upper pa of stratum spinosum. Lungs: Type-II alveolar cells in lungs Odland bodies also are known as lamellar bodies - play impoant roles in barrier function and intercellular cohesionwithin the stratum corneum. Consist of Ceramide, Fatty acids, cholesterol, etc....
4
Basal cell layer
Stratum corneum
Prickle cell layer
Stratum granulosum
Dental
Layers of epidermis, dermis
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Which of the following has the potential of undergoing `Spontaneous' malignant transformation?
Complications of the Paget's disease include stress fractures and secondary sarcomas.  Poor mechanical properties of pagetic bone results in incomplete stress fractures. Fractures occur most commonly in the femur followed by other stress-bearing bones such as tibia, humerus, spine, and pelvis. Osteosarcomas and to a le...
3
Osteomalacia
Albright's syndrome
Paget's disease of bones
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Pathology
null
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Concurrent list includes
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vital statistics
3
Census collection
International health relations
Vital statistics
Immigration
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Which is not seen in complete ectopic vesicae:
Epispadias is present, not the hypospadias in Ectopia vesicae. Umbilical hernia, Visible ureterovesical efflux and Waddling gate are seen in Ectopia vesicae. Clinical Features Posterior wall of the bladder protrudes through the defect with mucosal edges fused with skin and urine spus onto the abdominal wall from the ur...
3
Umbilical hernia
Visible ureterovesical efflux
Hypospadias
Waddling gate
Surgery
Urinary bladder
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A rapid method of chromosome identification in interphase is -
"FISH can be used in interphase cells to determine the chromosome number of one or more chromosomes as well as to detect some specific chromosome rearrangements that are characteristic for certain cancers. The primary advantage of interphase FISH is that it can be performed very rapidly if necessary, usually within 24 ...
1
FISH
PCR
SSCP
Karyotyping
Biochemistry
null
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Which of the following ranges of hemoglobin O2 saturation from systemic venous to systemic arterial blood represents a normal resting condition?
Ans. D. 75 to 98%In a normal resting condition, the blood leaving the lungs is 98% saturated with oxygen, and the blood returning to the lungs is 75% saturated with oxygen. With vigorous exercise, blood leaving the lungs is still 98% saturated, but blood returning is usually less than 75% saturated because more oxygen ...
4
25 to 75%
40 to 75%'
40 to 95%
75 to 98%
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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All of the following structures are removed in Whipple's procedure except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neck of Pancreas Whipples operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)o Is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas, o It includes resection of:# distal stomach# Duodenum# gall bladder# Proximal jejunum# CBD# Regional lymphatics# head ot pancreaso Restoration of gastrointestinal ...
3
Pylorus
Proximal Jejumum
Neck of Pancreas
CBD
Surgery
Pathophysiology - Neoplasms
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Which of the following muscle forms the lateral boundary of cubital fossa?
Boundaries of cubital fossa:Superior boundary: An imaginary line connecting the medial and lateral epicondyles of the humerusLateral boundary: Medial border of the brachioradialisMedial boundary: Lateral margin of the pronator teresApex: Lies inferiorly and formed by crossing of the brachioradialis across the front of ...
1
Brachioradialis
Pronator teres
Brachialis
Biceps
Anatomy
null
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Stress in cold working can be relieved by:
null
2
Age hardening
Annealing
Hydrochloric acid
Beating
Dental
null
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single
Tricyclic antidepressants cause all except
null
4
Coma
Prolongation of QRS complexes
Myoclonic jerks
Metabolic alkalosis
Medicine
null
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multi
A patient has IDDM diagnosed at age of 15 years. The most reliable indicator for diabetic nephropathy is
Answer is B (Urinary protein > 550 mg/day for 3 consecutive sample): The most reliable indicator for diabetic nephropathy is presence of ove proteinuria. Urinary protein > 550 mg/day in 3 consecutive samples confirms the diagnosis of ove proteinuria, reflects irreversible pathological changes in kidneys and confirms pr...
2
Urine albumin
Urinary protein >550 mg per day for 3 consecutive samples
Development of diabetic retinopathy
Hematuria
Medicine
null
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The sticky polysaccharide present in dental plague is
null
1
Dextran
dextrin
Glycogen
sucrose
Dental
null
1a206d3a-de35-4624-acd0-cc80947d6592
single
Tensile strength of wound after laparoscopic cholecystectomy in a 30 years old woman depends upon:
The recovery of tensile strength results from the excess of collagen synthesis over collagen degradation during the first 2 months of healing, and, at later times, from structural modifications of collagen fibers (cross-linking, increased fiber size) after collagen synthesis ceases.
2
Replacement of type 3 collagen
Extensive crosslinking of tropocollagen
Macrophage activity/invasion
Granulation tissue
Biochemistry
null
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Most common cause of first trimester aboion:
Common Causes of aboion First trimester: 1. Genetic factors (50%) 2. Endocrine disorders (luteal phase defect, thyroid abnormalities, and diabetes) 3. Immunological disorders (autoimmune and alloimmune) 4. Infection 5. Unexplained
1
Genetic factors
Endocrine disorders
Immunological disorders
Infection
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Aboions, Spontaneous & Induced Emergency Contraception (Hey,whats the hurry !)
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An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is:
A i.e. Accumulation of laudanosine
1
Accumulation of landonosine
Allergy to drug
Due to prolong infusion
All
Anaesthesia
null
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Difficulty in grasping objects is characterised by which type of cerebral palsy ?
CEREBRAL PALSY → Non progressive lesion which occurs in developing brain before, during or after birth, leaving the child with a variety of neurological problems. → Etiology  Infections of brain. Complications of labor. Congenital defects of brain. Ataxic palsy: Poor sense of balance and uncoordinated voluntary movem...
2
Dyskinetic
Ataxic
Spastic
Mixed
Dental
null
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The most impoant determinant of prognosis in Wilm's tumor:
Most impoant prognostic factor in most of malignancies- Stage (TNM) Exception- Wilms tumor and soft tissue sarcoma In Wilms tumor, Most impoant Prognostic Factor- Histology > Stage In soft tissue sarcoma, most impoant prognostic factor - Tumor grade
3
Stage of disease
Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 1p
Histology
Age less than one year at presentation
Surgery
Kidney and ureter
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Which of the following drugs is a full agonist at opioid receptors, has excellent oral bioavailability, analgesic equipotency to morphine and a longer duration of action with milder withdrawal symptoms on abrupt discontinuation?
Methadone is a long acting opioid agonist that has equal potency to morphine. It can be used orally for opioid replacement and opioid rotation therapy. Due to longer half life, it produces mild withdrawal symptoms.
3
Fentanyl
Hydromorphone
Methadone
Nalbuphine
Pharmacology
Opioids and Alcohols
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single
Which of the following disease is transmitted by rat flea?
parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition *rat fleas are known to transmit the following diseases :bubonic plague,endemic or murine typhus,chiggerosis,hymenolepis diminuta.
4
Trench fever
Chages disease
Oriental sore
Endemic typhus
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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single
Crew haircut appearance in X-ray skull and Gamna Gandy bodies are seen in -
The hair on end appearance is seen in Sickle cell anemia Hereditary spherocytosis G-6-PD deficiency  Among these disorders, Gamma Gandy bodies are seen in sickle cell anemia Gamma Gandy bodies are found in the spleen. These are nodules that develop through the organization of splenic micro hemorrhages followed by h...
4
G-6-PD deficiency
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle cell anaemia
Pathology
null
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Sequestration of lung is seen in:
Posterior pa of left lung
4
Right upper lobe
Right lower lobe
Lateral basal
Posterior pa of left lung
Anatomy
null
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The sialographic appearance of a normal salivary gland is
null
1
Branching with bloom
Branching with leaves
Branchless with fruit laden
Branchless with leaves
Radiology
null
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single
Myositis ossificans is most common around the -- joint
B i.e. Elbow
2
Knee
Elbow
Wrist
Hip
Surgery
null
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single
Remission with SSRI or TCA patient again having relapse. There may be deficiency of ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cobalamine "Subjects with vitamin B12 deficiency and depression may present with history of past episodes with spontaneous remission or response to treatment with antidepressants and later recognition or development B1,deficiency"
2
Pyridoxine
Cobalamine
Ascorbate
Retinol
Pharmacology
null
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single
Socratic Method of Education consists of:
Group discussion
3
Lecture
Seminar
Group discussion
Panel discussion
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Degree of mental disability of a child (low IQ), who is able to speak well enough for most communication needs, is classified as:
Classification of Intellectual Disability
2
Moderate
Mild
Severe
Profound
Dental
null
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single
In parathyroid crisis with sudden elevations of calcium over 16 mg/dl; the treatment consist of:
Hypercalcemic Crisis: Patients with PHPT may occasionally present acutely with nausea, vomiting, fatigue, muscle weakness, confusion, and a decreased level of consciousness; a complex referred to as hypercalcemic crisis. These symptoms result from severe hypercalcemia from uncontrolled PTH secretion, worsened by polyur...
2
Intravenous Vitamin D
Parathyroidectomy for removal of adenoma
Thyrocalcitonin
Intravenous bicarbonate
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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single
In a 25 day cycle ovulation occurs on :
11th day
3
14th day
13'h day
11'h day
12'h day
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The taste sensation to the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is subserved by?
The sensory nerve fibers from the taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travel in the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, and those from the posterior third of the tongue reach the brainstem the glossopharyngeal nerve. The fibers from areas other than the tongue (eg, pharynx) reach the brain stem t...
1
Chorda tympani nerve
Jacobson's nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following aminosteroid neuromuscular blocker is safe in renal disease patients
Vecuronium is safe in renal disease patients, among aminosteroids. Although atracurium is overall preferred non depolarizing neuromuscular blocker.
4
Pancuronium
Atracurium
Doxacurium
Vecuronium
Anaesthesia
null
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Amino acid linking Kreb's cycle & urea cycle:-
Urea cycle andTCA Cycle is linked by three way Fumarate in urea cycle is the most impoant integrating point with TCA cycle. Fumarate is conveed to malate and then to oxaloacetate in TCA cycle. Oxaloacetate undergoes transamination to produce aspaate which enters urea cycle. However, Fumarate is not an amino acid so ami...
1
Aspaate
Fumarate
Alanine
Arginine
Biochemistry
NEET 2019
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Which is not true about Down's syndrome
Ans. is 'b' i.e. decreased nuchal fold thickness Nuchal fold thickness is increased in Down's syndrome (not decreased). Infact this feature is used in suspecting the diagnosis of Down's syndrome prenatally.Nuchal fold thickness is assessed prenatally by ultrasound.Other characteristic feature of Down's SyndromeIt is th...
2
Decreased humerus length.
Decreased nuchal fold thickness.
Decreased femur length.
Duodenal atresia.
Pathology
Cytogenetic Disorders
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Which of the following is common risk factor for coronary heart disease except ?
null
2
Family H/O of IHD
Decreased homoscystinaemia
HDL <40 mg/dL
Type 1 DM
Medicine
null
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The function of common neutrophils ,monocytes, macrophages is
Ref Robbins 9/e p97 phagocytosis is a major mechanism used to remove pathogens and cell debris. The ingested material is then digested in the phagosome. Bacteria, dead tissue cells, and small mineral paicles are all examples of objects that may be phagocytized. Some protozoa use phagocytosis as means to obtain nutrient...
2
Immune response is reduced
Phagocytosis
Liberation of histamine
Destruction of old erythrocytes
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Causes of Acalculous cholecystitis are the following except
Ans. (b) SchistosomiasisRef: Sabiston Page 1508, 20th editionRisk factors of Acalculous cholecystitis:* Old age* Critical illness* Burns* Prolonged TPN* Major operations* Diabetes* Immunosuppression
2
Bile duct stricture
Schistosomiasis
Prolonged TNP
Major operations
Surgery
Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts
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A patient using contact lenses developed corneal infection. On investigation diagnosis of acanthomoeba keratitis is made. Which of the following is the drug of choice?
Acanthamoeba infection is an impoant cause of keratitis in contact lens wearers. Diagnosis is facilitated by confocal microscopy. Treatment is hampered by the organism's ability to encyst within the corneal stroma. Topical biguanides are probably the only effective primary treatment. Rx: Medical treatment is usually st...
4
Propamidine
Neosporine
Ketoconazole
Polyhexamethylene biguanide
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Lisfranc fracture dislocation
Lisfranc's fracture-dislocation: A fracture-dislocation through tarsometatarsal joint(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 496)
1
Fracture dislocation through tarso-metatarsal joints
fracture dislocation through ankle joint
Fracture dislocation through subtalar joints
Fracture dislocation through mid-tarsal joints
Orthopaedics
All India exam
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Type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with-
Type 1 DM is the result of interactions of genetic, environmental, and immunologic factors that ultimately lead to T-cell mediated autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells and insulin deficiency. Type 1 DM, which can develop at any age, develops most commonly before 20 years of age. Most individuals with typ...
4
Male gender
Old age
Gestational diabetes
HLADR3
Medicine
Endocrinology
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single
Z score is used in -
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849 To know whether the individual value falls above or below the mean value . A random variable is said to have been standardized when it has been adjusted so that mean is zero and SD=1.
2
Nominal data
Normal distribution curve
t test
Chi square test
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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single
Dimercaprol is/are used in poisoning with -a) Pbb) Hgc) Asd) Acetaminophene) Iron
BAL (dimercaprol) can be used in lead (as adjuvant), mercury and arsenic poisoning. It is contraindicated in iron poisoning.
1
abc
bc
acd
bcd
Forensic Medicine
null
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Which of the following is not the cause of macrocytic anemia
Abetalipoproteinemia has Acanthocytes (Spur cells). It is not a cause of macrocytic anemia.
4
Orotic aciduria
Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Transcobalamin deficiency
Abetalipoproteinemia
Pathology
null
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Organophosphate inhibits -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Esteratic site of AchEs Acetylcholinesterase has two sites: i) Catalytic or esteratic site -9 Active site ii) Anionic site It is quite obvious that to inhibit the action of acetylcholinesterase the active site has to be inhibited and it is esteratic site: i) Organophosphates phosphorylate esteratic si...
2
Anionic site ofAchEs
Esteratic site ofAchEs
Ach
null
Pharmacology
null
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To achieve a net reproduction rate (NRR) of 1, the couple protection rate (CPR) should be:
Ref. Foundations of Community medicine. Page. 113   Couple Protection Rate (CPR) • It is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community • Definition: the percentage of eligible couples effectively protected against childbirth by one or the other approved methods of family planning – Steriliza...
4
20%
30%
40%
60%
Unknown
null
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SeICIDs are derivatives of:
Another group of thalidomide analogs, selective cytokine inhibitory drugs (SelCIDs), are phosphodiesterase type 4 inhibitors with potent anti-TNF-a activity but no T-cell co-stimulatory activity. Several SelCIDs are currently under investigation for clinical use. Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 61.
3
Chloroquine
Retinoic acid
Thalidomide
None of the above
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Calcium Gluconate is not used in CPR in which condition :
Calcium gluconate should be used as a first-line agent in patients with EKG changes or severe hyperkalemia to protect cardiomyocytes. Insulin and glucose combination is the fastest acting drug that shifts potassium into the cells. Hemodialysis is the most effective and reliable method to remove potassium from the body ...
2
Hypocalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia
Calciunwttitagonism
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
A 55-year-old farmer develops recurrent cough, dyspnea, fever, and myalgia several hours after entering his barn. He has had similar reactions several times previously, especially when he feeds hay to his cattle. Which of the following statements is true?
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is characterized by an immunologic inflammatory reaction in response to inhaled organic dusts, the most common of which are thermophilic actinomycetes, fungi, and avian proteins. In the acute form of the illness, exposure to the offending antigen is intense. Cough, dyspnea, fever, chills, a...
3
The presence of fever and myalgia indicates that this is an infectious process.
Immediate-type IgE hypersensitivity is involved in the pathogenesis of his illness.
The causative agents are often thermophilic actinomycete antigens.
Demonstrating precipitable antibodies to the offending antigen confirms the diagnosis of hypersensitivity pneumonitis.
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
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All of the following produces cavitating lesion in the chest radiograph except: March 2010
Ans. D: HamaomaCauses of Lung cavitation:Alveolar hydatid diseaseBronchogenic carcinomaEmphysemaHistoplasmosisKlebsiella spTakayasu's aeritisMycobacterium tuberculosisNeurofibromatosis type 1ParagonimiasisPneumocystis cariniiPulmonary embolismRheumatoid diseaseStaphylococcus aureus
4
Caplan's syndrome
Hematoma
Squamous cell carcinoma lung
Hamaoma
Pathology
null
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The disclosing agent used in modified Quigley Hein plaque index is:
null
2
Carbol fuchsin
Basic fuchsin
Sodium Fluorescein
Two tone dye
Dental
null
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single
Antibodies most specific for drug induced lupus are -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antihistone o The best screen ins test for SLE is demonstration of anti-nuclear antibodieso Sensitive testfor SLE - Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)o Specific test for SLE - Anti dsDN A, Anti Smo Antihistone antibodies are positive in more than 95 percent of patients with drug induced lupus, and signify a...
4
Anti ds DNA
Anti Sm
ANA
Antihistone
Medicine
SLE
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single
Young female presents with hypeension with VMA >14 mg/day, associated with -
Answer is D.)'a' i.e. Medullary Ca thyroid, 'b' i.e. Von-Hippel Lindau disease, ; 'c' i.e. Sturge-weber syndrome A young female patient with hypeension and VMA > 14 mg/24 hrs (Normal VMA excretion in urine is less than 7 mg/24 hrs) is suggestive of pheochromocytoma. Familial syndromes associated with pheochromocytomas ...
4
Medullary Ca Thyroid
Von Hippel Lindau disease
Sturge weber syndrome
All
Surgery
null
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Sweaty feet odour in body fluids occur due to deficiency of
The impaired enzyme in isovaleric acidemia is isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase. Vomiting, acidosis and coma follow ingestion of excess protein. Accumulated isovaleryl-CoA is hydrolyzed to isovalerate and excreted. Characteristic odor of sweaty feet is present. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30 th edition page no 309
2
Biotin
Isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase
Thiamine linked decarboxylase
Leucine transaminase
Biochemistry
null
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single
Vitamin causing Encephalomalacia
null
1
Vit E
Vit A
Vit D
Vit B
Biochemistry
null
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Sex cord stromal tumours of the ovary include all except:
Sex cord stromal tumors of ovary- classification 1.granulosa stromal cell tumors cell tumor 2. Androblastoma cell tumor - Leydig cell tumor cell tumor cell tumor 3. Gynandroblastoma 4. Unclassified Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no:280 <\p>
1
Luteomas
Gynandroblastomas
Seoli-Leydig cell tumours of the ovary
Theca-fibroma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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Itching is produced by the stimulation of all except:
(D) Pacinian corpuscles > Both pain and itching are sensed by free nerve endings, carried by C fibres and travel to brain via. spinothalamic tracts.> Pacinian corpuscles sense touch and pressure.> Histamine is responsible for itching sensation
4
C fibres
Naked nerve endings
Histamine
Pacinian corpuscles
Physiology
Nervous System
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multi
Minimum depth for the lining of a sanitary well is
The lining of a sanitary well should go down at least 6 meters (20 feet) to ensure that water enters from the bottom and not from the sides of the well.The lining should extend upwards for about 60-90cm (2-3 feet) above the ground.Park 23rd edition pg: 709
2
5 meters
6 meters
7 meters
8 meters
Social & Preventive Medicine
Maternal and child care
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single
Which of the following reflexes is not present at bih
Symmetric tonic neck reflex appears by 4-6 months and disappears by 8 - 12 months. Moro&;s reflex - hand opening appears by 28 wks, extension and abduction of the upper extremities by 32 wks and anterior flexion by 37 wks of intrauterine life and disappears by 3 - 6 months after bih. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex appear...
3
Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
Moro's Reflex
Symmetric tonic neck reflex
Crossed extensor reflex
Pediatrics
New born infants
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single
Diameter of the optic disc is
Optic disc: It is a pink coloured, well-defined circular area of 1.5-mm diameter. At the optic disc all the retinal layers terminate except the nerve fibres, which pass through the lamina cribrosa to run into the optic nerve. A depression seen in the disc is called the physiological cup. The central retinal aery and ve...
1
1.5mm
2.5mm
3.5mm
5 mm
Ophthalmology
Anatomy, Development and clinical examination
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VDRL is an example of-
Option 3 Option 1, 2 Slide flocculation test: VDRL and RPR tests used for diagnosis of syphilis. 1. Slide agglutination: To confirm the identification and serotyping of bacterial colonies growni n culture. 2. Tube agglutination is routinely used for: Typhoid fever (Widal test): Detects Ab against both H (flagellar) and...
3
Slide agglutination
Tube agglutination
Slide flocculation
Tube flocculation
Microbiology
Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)
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single
A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after a car collision. Physical examination reveals a mallet finger. Which of the following conditions is expected to be present during radiographic examination?
Mallet finger, also known as baseball finger, is a deformity in which the finger will be permanently flexed at the distal interphalangeal joint, due to avulsion of the insertion of the extensor tendon at the distal phalanx.
4
A lesion of the ulnar nerve at the distal flexor crease of the wrist
A separation of the extension expansion over the middle interphalangeal joint
Compression of the deep ulnar nerve by dislocation of the lunate bone
Avulsion fracture of the dorsum of the distal phalanx
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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