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Klatskin tumor resembles-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cholangiocarcinoma o Extrahepatic adenocercinoma of bileducts, when proximal, is referred to as hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin's tumor).
2
Adenoma of liver
Cholangio CA
GB CA
Hepatic CA
Surgery
Gallbladder Cancer
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single
All are true about type 1 renal tubular acidosis except:
Ans. c. Sodium bicarbonate requirement Renal Tubular Acidosis Feature Type I(Distal) Type II(Proximal) Type IV Normal anion gap Yes Yes Yes Minimum urine pH >5.5deg <5.5deg <5.5 A filtered bicarbonate excreted <10 >15 <10 Serum potassium Low Low Highdeg Fanconi's syndrome No Yesdeg No Stones/Nephrocalcinosis Yesdeg No ...
3
Renal stones
Hypokalemia
Sodium bicarbonate requirement >4 mg/day
Urine pH > 5.5
Medicine
null
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multi
Cottage Loaf sign in Chest x-ray is seen in
Snowman or Figure of 8 or Cottage Loaf sign is seen in TAPVC.
2
TGA
TAPVC
ASD
VSD
Radiology
null
4c9811cc-ef45-4070-99f3-932aea193271
single
Dix Hallpike monouvre is used to assess ?
Ans. is'a'i.e., Differentiate peripheral and central lesions of vestibular systemRef: Dhingra Sh/e p. 47) Hallpike test is a test for assessing vestibular function.It is paicularly useful when patients complain of veigo in ceain head positions.It helps to differentiate peripheral and central lesions.
1
Differentiate peripheral and central lesions of vestibular system
Differentiate cochlear and retrocochlear deafness
Assess neonatal hearing loss
Assess patency of Eustachian tube
ENT
null
acfeb343-10e5-4bd3-a93f-982e37a246ee
multi
A child with an abdominal mass diagnosed of having Wilms tumour. The child may have all of the following features associated with Wilms tumour, EXCEPT:
Horseshoe kidney is associated with Wilms tumor not bilateral polycystic kidney. In a few children, Wilms tumor occurs in the setting of associated malformations or syndromes, including, Aniridia Hemihyperophy Genitourinary malformations Cryptorchidism Hypospadias Gonadal dysgenesis Pseudohermaphroditism Horseshoe kidn...
4
Aniridia
Hemihyperophy
Hypeension
Bilateral polycystic kidney
Pediatrics
null
107a71c7-6d81-445f-96c5-bf83a6780c11
multi
Which of the following contains both DNA and RNA?
Ans. (b) i.e., bacteria Microbe - DNA RNA Protein Bacteria + + + Virus +1-- +/-- Prion Fungi + Parasites Plasmids + -- Viroids Viroids: Plant pathogens that consists of sho, strech of circular single/double standed RNA.
2
Plasmids
Bacteria
Prions
Viroids
Microbiology
null
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multi
A 40 year old man with elevated mood: March 2007
Ans. B: ManiaMania is characterized by extremely elevated mood, energy, unusual thought patterns and sometimes psychosis.It is most often associated with bipolar disorder, where episodes of mania may cyclically alternate with episodes of major depression.Manic symptoms include irritability, anger or rage, delusions, hy...
2
Schizophrenia
Mania
Depression
Hysteria
Psychiatry
null
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single
All are given for control of thyrotoxicosis prior to surgery except
Carbimazole 30-40 mg per day is the drug of choice for preparation. When euthyroid (after 8-12 weeks), the dose may be reduced to 5 mg 8-hourly. The last dose of carbimazole may be given on the evening before surgery. An alternative method of preparation is to abolish the clinical manifestations of the toxic state, usi...
3
Carbimazole
Propranolol
Betamethasone
Lugol's iodine
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
c5f02557-c662-48a6-900a-6f88547ba892
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Amoebiasis is transmitted by all except-
infective cysts are passed in the faeces of convalescent and carriers Man acquires infection by ingestion of water and food containing these cysts. The infection can also be acquired by ano genital or orogenital sexual contact among homosexual males.(refer pgno:17 baveja 3 rd edition)
3
Cockroach
Faeco oral
Veical transmission
Oro-rectal
Microbiology
parasitology
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multi
Area under standard normal distribution curve-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1 Standard normal curve* It is also known as bell curve or Gaussian distribution.* The shape of the curve is like a bell - bell shaped curve.* The data are distributed symmetrically on either side of a central value.* Normal distribution curve looks symmetrical in the dispersion with the largest frequ...
2
0.5
1
1.5
2
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
bad14ddc-3106-4e47-a3af-2940cd603db0
single
A young male presents with central scotoma in left eye. His right vision showed 6/6 vision. On examination, in the left eye, there was focal foveal detachment. What would be the next step?
Ans. b. Inquire about the use of steroids (Ref: Khurana 5/e pe p290)A young male presents with central scotoma in left eye. His right vision showed 6/6 vision. On examination, in she left eye, there was focal foveal detachment The clinical picture points towards a diagnosis of central serous retinopathy (CSR). which is...
2
Examine retrolental cells
Inquire about the use of steroids
Ask for history of trauma in the other eye
Examination under slit-lamp
Ophthalmology
Retinal Detachment
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A 57-year-old woman has had pain on urination for 5 months and yesterday noted blood on her underwear. On examination, there is a tender red 1-cm nodule on the posterior lip of the external urethra. It is excised. What pathologic finding is most likely to be present on the microscopic examination of her lesion?
She has a urethral caruncle, which is most common in postmenopausal women as a result of urethral prolapse with atrophy from decreased estrogen. Topical estrogen creams and anti-inflammatory agents may shrink the lesion. It is not an infectious process, so multinucleated cells (herpes simplex virus) or plasma cell infi...
1
Granulation tissue
Multinucleated cells
Plasma cell infiltrates
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Pathology
Male Genital Tract
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True about anorexia nervosa is all except
Anorexia Nervosa Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by the following prominent clinical features: 1. It occurs much more often in females as compared to the males. The common age of onset is adolescence (13-19 years of age). 2. There is an intense fear of becoming obese. This fear does not decrease ev...
2
Binge eating is common
Unknown in male
Ammenorrhoea stas before severe loss of weight
Self-induced vomiting
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
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Wrist drop is due to injury to which nerve:
Ans. D. RadialWrist drop, is a medical condition in which the wrist and the fingers cannot extend at the metacarpophalangeal joints & wrist joint. The wrist remains partially flexed due to an opposing action of flexor muscles of the forearm. It is due to injury to radial nerve.
4
Median
Ulnar
Axillary
Radial
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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single
Neonate with anoxic spells and single S2. CXR shows all except?
Ans. (b) Pulmonary plethoraThe CXR shows an enlarged heart with boot shaped configuration and reduced vascularity of lungs. The clinical diagnosis is Tetralogy of Fallot, and due to subpulmonic stenosis it presents with pulmonic Oligemia.
2
Boot shaped heart
Pulmonary plethora
Right sided aortic arch
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Radiology
Cardiac and Pericardiac Imaging
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The inlay wax used for direct technique:
null
1
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Dental
null
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Soft S1 is seen in all except:
MS: | Trans-valvular gradient, faster opening and faster elastic recoil - l/t loud S1 Option A- Causes bradycardia l/t soft S1 Option B- Blood comes black in LV, so increased volume in L.V during diastole d/t defective aoic valve closure blood comes back into the ventricle.The gradient stas reducing so l/t soft S1 soun...
4
First degree hea block
AR
Calcified valve
Mild MS
Medicine
Valvular hea diseases
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Which of the following structure develops from the proctodeum?
Proctodeum or ectoderm lined anal pit is formed by the accumulation of mesodermal cells around the periphery of the anal membrane. This gives rise to lower 1/3rd of the anal canal. Cloaca is the terminal expanded poion of the primitive hindgut. The cloacal chamber is divided into dorsal and ventral cavities. The dorsal...
4
Rectum
Sigmoid colon
Upper 2/3rd of anal canal
Lower 1/3rd of anal canal
Anatomy
null
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The foetal pole with cardiac activity is detected with Transvaginal USG by what stage of gestation?
Using transvaginal USG, the gestational sac can usually be seen at 4 weeks, the yolk sac at 5 weeks, and the fetal pole with cardiac activity by 6 weeks. Cardiac activity can be seen simultaneously with the appearance of a fetal pole as a pulsation at the lateral aspect of the yolk sac. Normal embryonic hea rate may be...
1
6 weeks
8 weeks
10 weeks
12 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Cyanide affects respiratory chain by ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Non-competitive irreversible inhibition Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase (respiratory chain) irreversibly, and non-competitively. Types of enzyme inhibition Enzyme inhibition is of two types :? Reversible and Irreversible Reversible inhibition Reversible inhibition may be of following types :? i) C...
4
Non-competitive reversible inhibition
Competitive reversible inhibition
Suicide irreversible inhibition
Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
Biochemistry
null
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A patient was brought to the hospital with a history of RTA eight hours back. A few drops of blood is noted at the external urethral meatus. He has not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. The probable diagnosis is :
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Urethral injury Blood at urethral meatus and urine retention are suggestive of urethral injury.
1
Urethral injury
Rupture bladder
Urethral injury with extravasation of urine in the retroperitoneum
Anuria due to hypovolemia
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Urethra & Penis)
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9th cranial nerve supplies which of the following?
The stylopharyngeus arises from the styloid process It passes through the gap between the superior and middle constrictors to run downwards on the inner surface of the middle and inferior constrictors The pharynx is supplied by the pharyngeal plexus of nerves which lies chiefly on the middle constrictor.The plexus is f...
3
Cricothyroid
Cricopharyngeus
Stylopharyngeus
Tensor veli palati
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
The drug which is used for long-term maintenance in opioid addiction: AIIMS 06; Punjab 09; AI 11
Ans. Methadone
4
Nalorphine
Naloxone
Butarphanol
Methadone
Forensic Medicine
null
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Killing of Thyroid Cancer cells By I-131 is mainly by
*I-131 produces both Gamma and Beta Rays, but killing of thyroid cancer is mainly done by Beta Rays.
3
Alpha Rays
X rays
Beta Rays
Gamma Rays
Radiology
Nuclear medicine
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A children presents with recurrent upper respiratory tract infection with mouth breathing and impairment of hearing. Treatment is
(Adenoidectomy + Grommet insertion) (228- Dhingra 4th)* Recurrent URTI + mouth breathing and impairment of hearing reflects - diagnosis is ADENOIDSClinical featuresAetiology - Physiological enlargement* Recurrent attack of rhinitis, sinusitis or chronic tonsillitis* URTI** Nasal symptoms Aural Symptoms General Symptoms...
3
Tonsillectomy
Grommet insertion
Adenoidectomy + Grommet insertion
Tympanoplasty
ENT
Miscellaneous (E.N.T.)
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How many roots does a primary maxillary first molar have:
null
3
One
Two
Three
Four
Dental
null
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Retinoscopy is used for visualising the:
Ans. Detecting errors of refraction
3
Whole retina
Only the peripheral pa of the retina
Detecting errors of refraction
null
Ophthalmology
null
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A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following,except
The features given can occur as a pa of a chromosomal / teratogenic / mendelian syndrome. Polygenic inheritance is the answer of exclusion. In a polygenic inheritance, multiple genes are involved in the phenotypic expression. Some examples of polygenic inheritance are hypeension and diabetes. Reference: GHAI Essential ...
4
A chromosomal syndrome
A teratogenic syndrome
A mendelian syndrome
A polygenic syndrome
Pediatrics
Genetic and genetic disorders
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All of the following are known to cause biliary obstruction, except:
Biliary obstruction has been noticed in infection with Clonorchis, Fasciola and Ascaris but not with Ankylostoma duodenale infection. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1257, 1271
3
Clonorchis
Ascaris
Ankylostoma
Fasciola
Microbiology
null
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A 32-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for multiple organ injury resulting from trauma. He is discharged after 2 weeks in the hospital, only to be readmitted 3 days later because of abdominal pain and sepsis. The CAT scan shows an accumulation of fluid in the subhepatic space (Figure below). This space is likely to b...
Subhepatic (intrahepatic) space infection usually occurs after surgery or peritonitis in the supracolic compartment. It is an unlikely amplication of biliary pancreatitis. Infections in the subhepatic space may extend to the infra- colic compartment via the paracolic gutter (of Morrison). In addition to the stomach, th...
2
Inferior pole of the right kidney
Stomach
Uncinate process of the pancreas
Aortic bifurcation
Surgery
Stomach & Duodenum
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As per National Immunization Program, route of administration of BCG vaccine is
As per National Immunization Programme, route of administration of BCG vaccine is intradermal. Site - left upper arm. Dose 0.1 ml (0.05 ml until 1 month age) Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition pg 123
4
Subcutaneous
Intramuscular
Oral
Intradermal
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health programmes in India
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Hematuria, RBC casts and proteinuria are suggestive of: March 2004
Ans. C i.e. Acute nephritic syndrome
3
Nephritic syndrome
Renal cell carcinoma
Acute nephritic syndrome
Chronic renal failure
Medicine
null
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The half-life of Amiodarone is
After oral administration, amiodarone only has a bioavailability of 30%. It also has a half-life of approximately 50 days, so it can take weeks for therapeutic effects to appear.
4
3-8 min
3-8 hours
3-5 weeks
3-8 weeks
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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single
The highest percentages of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in
null
2
Groundnut oil
Soyabean oil
Margarine
Palm oil
Dental
null
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single
Indocyanine Green Angiography (ICG Angiography) is most useful in detecting –
Fluorescein angiography is primarily used for retinal vasculature because:- Fluorescein is readily bound to the albumin in the blood stream. The blood-retinal barrier, by preventing dye leakage in the physiological state facilitates the delineation of retinal vessels of all calibres. In the choroidal circulation, fluor...
1
Occult Choroidal Neovascularization (Occult CNV)
Classic choroidal neovascularization(Calssic CNV)
Angioid streaks with choroidal Neovascularization (CNV)
Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
Ophthalmology
null
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A patient who underwent abdominal surgery, developed infection at wound site. Awound swab was sent for culture, which revealed MRSA. All of following antibiotics can be used for his treatment except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cefclor o Ciprofloxacin, Cotrimoxazole and vancomycin are used for MRSA infections.
1
Cefclor
Cotrimoxzate
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Culture medium for campylobactor jejuni -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Skirrow's medium Media for Campvlobactoro Preston mediao Campylobactor agar baseo Skirrow*s mediao Butzlers mediao Aka Balton mediao Karmali agaro Columbia blood agaro Campylobactor enrichment broth,o CCDA (Charcol-cefoperazone-deoxycholate agar)o CVA (Cefoperazone, Vancomycin and amphotericin B)
2
BYCE medium
Skirrow's medium
Thayer-Martin medium
TCBS medium
Microbiology
Compylobactor
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Causes of raised J.V.P. with hypotension are allexcept
2nd degree A.V. block Differential diagnosis of increased venous pressure with hypotension Cardiac tamponade Constrictive pericarditis Right ventricular wall M.I. Restrictive cardiornyopathy Right hea failure
4
>Cardiac tamponade
>Right ventricular M.I.
>Hea failure
>2nd degree A.V. block
Surgery
null
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Chest compression during CPR depth: March 2013 (a, c, d, g)
Ans. B i.e. 2 inches
2
1 inch
2 inches
3 inches
4 inches
Anaesthesia
null
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single
What is false in relation to Carey Coombs Murmur?
In rheumatic carditis, the mitral valve is involved three times as frequently as the aoic valve. Therefore, mitral murmurs are more common. Mitral regurgitation is the most common finding. Mitral valvulitis during an episode of acute rheumatic fever can frequently cause sho mid-diastolic rumble, heard over the apical a...
3
Delayed Diastolic Murmur
Seen in Rheumatic Fever
Associated with AR
Low pitched Murmur
Medicine
All India exam
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What is false regarding DEC -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., DEC is microfilaristatic o DEC is the first drug used for filariasis; absorbed after oral ingestion; metaboized in liver and excreted in urine. It is microfilaricidal. o Most impoant action of DEC appears to alteration of organelle membrane of Mf promoting cell death. It is used in filariasis and trop...
2
DEC is excreted in urine
DEC is microfilaristatic
DEC is metabolised in liver
Most impoant action of DEC appears to alteration
Pharmacology
null
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multi
One unit of packed RBC increases the blood hemoglobin by
null
1
1 g/dl
6-7 g/dl
8-9 g/dl
null
Medicine
null
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Age for valid consent for operation is -
This question is tricky. Though the valid consent can be given by a person above 12 years of age, but not for the act which may result in death or grievous hurt. A person above 18 years can give valid consent to suffer any harm, which may result from an act not intended or not known to cause death or grievous hurt. A p...
2
12 years
18 years
21 years
Only guardian can give such consent
Forensic Medicine
null
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Primary sinusoidal dilation of liver is also known as
Hepatic sinusoidal dilatation refers to the enlargement of the hepatic capillaries. Most of the time this condition is caused by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, which results in vascular stasis and congestion of hepatic parenchyma. In this setting, hepatic sinusoidal dilatation can be related to pericardial disease...
2
Hepar lobatum
Pellosis hepatis
Von Meyenburg complex
Caroli's disease
Anatomy
General anatomy
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A death ceificate is given below, main underlying cause of death is :-
Death ceificate consists of two pas. Pa I is divided into three sub pas - (a), (b) and (c). These are for disease processes that have led directly to death, (a) is a direct cause of death and is a consequence of (b), which in turn is due to (c). it is the disease in 1(c) or 1(d) that is the most impoant, as it is the p...
4
Pulmonary embolism
Secondary carcinoma shaft of femur
Fracture of femur
Malignant neoplasm of breast
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
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Which of the following is NOT one of the many contributions of Louis Pasteur?
Louis Pasteur was a French chemist and microbiologist who was one of the most impoant founders of medical microbiology. He is remembered for his remarkable breakthroughs in the causes and prevention of diseases. He created the first vaccines for rabies and anthrax. His experiments suppoed the germ theory of disease. He...
4
Rabies Vaccine
Anthrax Vaccine
Germ Theory of Disease
Theory of Spontaneous Generation
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Sub-arachnoid space ends at
(A) S2 level> Subarachnoid space surrounds the brain & spinal cord, and ends below at the lower border of the second sacral vertebra.
1
S2 level
L5 level
S1 level
L3 level
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
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The pin that causes minimum stress in dentin is
null
2
Threaded pin
Cemented pin
Amalga pin
Friction lock pin
Dental
null
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All are true of benzodiazepines except:
Benzodiazepines are effective for the treatment of anxiety symptoms secondary to panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), social anxiety disorder, performance anxiety, post-traumatic stress disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and extreme anxiety associated with phobias, such as fear of flying. ​ The ben...
2
Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus
Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders
Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy
None of the above
Pharmacology
null
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Ring of Sommerring is seen in -
Ring of sommerring and Elsching's are seen in after cataract. (Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.285 & 21st/e p.279)
4
Galactosemia
Dislocztion of lens
Acute congestive glaucoma
After cataract
Ophthalmology
Lens
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Large PDA leads to:
d. All of above(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2189-2191, Ghai 8/e p 413-414)Complications of large PDA are Cardiac failure; Infective endarteritis, Pulmonary or systemic emboli, Pulmonary hypertension (Eisenmenger syndrome)
4
Endocardial valvulitis
Essenmenger syndrome
Heart failure
All of the above
Pediatrics
C.V.S.
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Transamination reaction requires -
Ans. is 'c- i.e., Pyridoxin o Transamination involves the reversible transfer of a-amino group of a-amino acid to an a-keto acidQ to form a new amino acid and a new keto acid.o The enzyme catalyze the reaction is called aminotransferase (transaminase).o Most transaminases use GL-ketoglutarate (a-keto acid) as a common ...
3
Biotin
Folic acid
Pyridoxin
Niacin
Biochemistry
Amino Acid Metabolism
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Myositis ossificans is differentiated from other reactive fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of:September 2009
Ans. C: Metaplastic boneMyositis ossificans usually develops in the athletic adolescents and young adults and follows an episode of trauma in more than 50% of cases.The lesion typically arises in the musculature of proximal extremities.It shows metaplastic bone.It should be differentiated from extraskeletal osteosarcom...
3
Dysplastic bone
Dystrophic bone
Metaplastic bone
Hyperophic bone
Pathology
null
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M/C uterine malformation associated with infeility
Septate uterus The two mullerian ducts are fused together but there is a persistance of septum in between the either two paially or completely Infeility and dyspareunia are often associated with vaginal septum D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:44,6th edition
3
Bicornuate
Unicornuate
Septate
Didelphys
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Congenital malformations
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Which of the following is inhalational induction agent of choice for induction.
To be agent of choice for induction agent should have low blood gas solubility for fast induction and good smell for easy acceptability to conscious patient. Sevoflurane a sweet smelling gas, non pregnancy and low blood : gas solubility (0.63) is agent of choice for induction. Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurg...
3
Halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
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Which of these amino acids does not have asymmetric carbon atom?
Glycine is the simplest amino acid with no optical activity.
2
Valine
Glycine
Alanine
Tryosine
Biochemistry
null
238d99f4-d77e-4b4b-aae8-d42322f1a293
single
A-34 year old person has rapidly developing cough, dyspnoea, expectoration and blood tinged sputum. He is febrile cyanosed and toxic.Chest examination reveals crepitation and rhonchi. The most likely diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pneumonic plague . Radidly developing cough, dyspnea, blood tinged sputum with fever and cyanosis is the classical presentation of pneumonic plague. About other options Option 'a' . Legionnaires pneumonia presents as mild cough, only slight production of cough . There is associated diarrhea and neurol...
2
Legionella pneumonia
Pneumonic plague
Septicaemic plague
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Microbiology
null
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single
Shortest incubation period -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Influenza Respiratory tract infectionsDiseaseCausative organismIncubation periodSmall poxVariola virus7-14 daysChicken poxHuman (alpha) herpes virus314-16 daysMeasles (Rubeolla)RNA paramyxovirus10-14 daysRubella (German Measles)RNA Togavirus14-21 daysMumpsRNA Myxovirus14-18 daysInfluenzaOrthomyxovirus...
2
Pertusis
Influenza
Diphtheria
Measles
Social & Preventive Medicine
Influenza
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single
APGAR stands for?
b. Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 798)APGAR score is based on 5 parameters: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
2
Appearance, Pressure, Grimace, Activity, respiration
Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
Appearance, Pressure, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
Awareness, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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single
The role played by major histocompatibility complex 1 and 2
Ref Robbins 8/e p191 Class I MHC molecules are encoded by three closely linked loci, designated HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C (Fig. 4-3). Each of these molecules is a heterodimer, con- sisting of a polymorphic 44-kDa a chain noncovalently associated with an invariant 12-kDa b2-microglobulin polypeptide (encoded by a separate...
3
Transduce the signal to T cells following antigen recognition
Mediate immunogenic class switching
Present antigens for recognition by T cells antigen receptor
Enhance the secretion of cytokine
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
In Rh negative mother, who has delivered a Rh positive baby, prophylactic anti-D is indicated: March 2004
Ans. A i.e. If the direct Coomb's test is negative
1
If the direct Coomb's test is negative
If the indirect Coomb's test is positive with rising titres
If the ICT is positive
As a routine procedure
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
cd9545e7-f1dd-4eea-93a3-7831672066d1
single
The stimulation of which of the following causes hyperventilation at high altitude
The composition of air stays the same, but the total barometric pressure falls with increasing altitude. Therefore, the PO2 also falls. At 3000 m (approximately 10,000 ft) above sea level, the alveolar PO2 is about 60 mm Hg and there is enough hypoxic stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors to definitely increase ...
1
Peripheral chemoreceptors
Vagal afferents
Central chemoreceptors
Proprioceptors
Physiology
Respiratory system
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single
Clinpro 5000 tooth paste used as remineralizing agent contain W/V:
One similar product to Clinpro" Tooth Crème is "Clinpro 5000 1.1% Sodium fluoride Anti-Cavity Toothpaste. It is sold to remineralize lesions throughout-not just on the surface. Clinpro" Tooth Crème is an anti-cavity toothpaste, from 3M, that aids in the prevention of dental cavities and can be used in place of your us...
3
0.5% NaF
0.21% NaF
1.1% NaF
0.02% NaF
Dental
null
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single
Stellate wound is produced with firearm in
Stellate wound is a characteristic of a contact wound. Specific appearances of contact shot: Muzzle/Recoil imprint mark is regarded as a patterned abrasion/ intradermal contusion caused by the expansive power of the gases lifting the skin forcibly up against the muzzle.- Characteristic imprint marks can provide clues t...
1
Contact shot
Close shot
Range within 60 cm
Distant shot
Forensic Medicine
Ballistics
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single
Epispadies is associates with?
In epispadiasis the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis, proximal to the glans. Most common site is at the abdominopenile junction. It is associated with a dorsal chordee(Chordee is a condition in which the head of the penis curves downward or upward, at the junction of the head and shaft of the penis), ectopia ve...
2
Bifid pubic symphysis
Chordee
Anal atresia
Intestinal obstruction
Surgery
Urology
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single
Positive dipstick for RBC with red color urine and red supernatant and clear sediment with positive dipstick-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rhabdomyolysis Approach to red to brown urineo The excretion of red to brown urine is observed in a variety of clinical settings. The initial step in the evaluation of this abnormality is centrifugation of the urine to see whether the red color is in the urine sediment or the supernatanto If the red c...
4
Porphyria
Hematuria
Hemolysis
Rhabdomyolysis
Medicine
Glomerular Diseases
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single
A chronic alcoholic patient was admitted in a hospital few days ago following an accident. He developed alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Which of the following clinical feature is NOT associated with alcohol withdrawal syndrome?
Insomnia, not hypersomnolence, is seen in alcohol withdrawal. Delirium tremens is the most advanced stage of alcohol withdrawal and includes hallucinatory behavior associated with severe tremors and autonomic hyperactivity. The essential feature of delirium tremens is a delirium, with impaired attention and memory, dis...
3
Hallucination
Tremors
Hypersomnolence
Autonomic hyperactivity
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Diagnosis of traumatic rupture of diaphragma) Laparoscopyb) Chest X rayc) Diagnostic peritoneal lavaged) IPPV
• Diaphragmatic injuries are often caused by penetrating injuries. • Patients sustaining penetrating injuries below the nipples and above the costal margins should be investigated to rule out diaphragmatic injury. Etiology • Penetrating trauma (knife, bullet, repair of hiatus hernia) • Blunt trauma (motor vehicle accid...
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Surgery
null
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single
Search for gestational diabetes is carried out at what gestational age?
Ans, c (28 weeks). (Ref. Textbook of Obstetrics by Dutta, 3rd ed., 292)Note: The actual answer is 24 to 28 weeks.GTT IN PREGNANCY# Screening for gestational diabetes should be done between 24-28 weeks of gestation by using glucose tolerance.# Test - 50 gm oral glucose without regard to time of day and last meal.# Plasm...
3
16 weeks
20 weeks
28 weeks
32 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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single
Schistosoma haematobium is most commonly associated with which of the following bladder cancers?
Squamous cell carcinoma bladder Schistosoma haematobium infections in endemic areas are an established risk for bladder cancer. 70% of cancers with history of S. haematobium infection are squamous cell carcinoma.
1
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma
Pathology
Renal carcinoma
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multi
Renal GFR is best measured by –
Inulin clearance is the gold standard for assessing GFR. It is the preferred measure of GFR when an accurate measure is critical. However, this method is not performed in clinical practice, because of technical complexity and limited availability. Next to inulin, radiocontrast agents (Tc - DTPA) are most accurate. Howe...
3
Tc 99 DMSA
Tc 99 Pyrophosphate scan
Tc 99 DTPA
Creatinine clearance
Radiology
null
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single
A 3 yr old completely unimmunized child comes to an immunization clinic at PHC for the first time. He should receive -
null
2
BCG; Measles, Vitamin-A
DT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
BCG; DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
"Brush-fire" pattern is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CMV retinitis o CMV retinitis is the most common ophthalmic manifestation of CMV, occuring as a congenital infection in infants or an opportunistic infection in the immunocompromised host,o Adults commonly affected include those individuals with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), oncology pati...
1
CMV retinitis
Toxoplasmosis
Congenital rubella
Syphilis
Ophthalmology
Inflammatory Disorders
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single
The Gold standard investigation for GERD is
(A) 24 hr pH monitoring > Useful investigations may include barium swallow X-rays, esophageal manometry, 24 hour esophageal pH monitoring and Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). In general, an EGD is done when the patient does not respond well to treatment, or has alarm symptoms including: dysphagia, anemia, blood in the...
1
24 hr pH monitoring
Endoscopy
CT scan
MRI
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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single
Which of the foolwing is not seen in HIV Patient with CD count less than 100 Per micro litre, who has non productive cough -
Ans is 'c' i.e., Mycoplasma pneumoniae . Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not among the oppounistic organisms causing Pneumonia in a patient with AIDS. Organisms causing Pneumonia in AIDS patient . Bacterial S. pneumoniae (most common) H. influenza . arasite Pneumocystis carinii . Fungal Cryptococcus Aspergillus Coccidioides i...
3
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Cryptococcal infection
Microbiology
null
2955be10-80c8-4f8f-83c9-b93771e67089
single
Which of the following can be used treat post operative gastric paresis
Bethanechol is a parasympathomimetic that acts on M3 receptors of Gastric smooth muscle to increase gut motility.
3
Atropine
Methacoline
Bethanecol
Oxtremorine
Pharmacology
null
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single
The nerve supply of Middle ear is from
(B) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve# Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by Glossopharyngeal nerve.> Tympanic Plexus It lies on the promontory and is formed by tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal and sympathetic fibres from the plexus round the internal carotid artery.> Tympanic plexus suppl...
2
Superior auricular nerve
Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
Pharyngeal branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
Great auricular nerve
Anatomy
Misc.
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single
Which form of alginic acid, which is present in alginate, provides strength to the impression material?
Alpha-d-mannuronic acid provides flexibility, which is extracted from certain brown seaweed, is a linear copolymer of β-D-mannuronic acid and α-L-guluronic acid. Mannuronic and guluronic acids are epimers. It is known that the block structure within the alginic acid can vary significantly. Alginates with higher guluron...
2
Alpha-d-mannuronic acid
Alpha-d-guluronic acid
Both of the above
None of the above
Dental
null
6812c1db-fb12-49e7-88e9-969db631f253
multi
False statement about treatment of Carcinoma Cervix:
Management of Cervical Cancer Stage Ia1: Cone biopsy or Type I Hysterectomy Stage Ia2: Type II Hysterectomy and Pelvic lymphadenectomy Stage Ib1: Type III Hysterectomy and Pelvic lymphadenectomy Stage Ib2 and IIa: Type III Hysterectomy with Pelvic and Para aoic lymphadenectomy Stage IIb onwards: Primary Chemoradiation ...
3
Radiotherapy is helpful in all stages
Prognosis of surgery is good if done in early stages
When radiotherapy is given, para-aoic Lymph Nodes should be included
Chemotherapy is reserved for late stages
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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multi
Clostridium difficile infection occurs after
Clostridium difficile causes acute colitis with bloody diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis. A common cause of nosocomial diarrhea. The disease follows the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics to which it is resistant. Exotoxin A and B involved in the pathogenesis. An oppounistic organism that causes disease only when th...
1
Prolonged antibiotic therapy
Pantoprazole increases the risk
Associated with use of rectal thermometer
Increased with propoion of hospital stay
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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single
Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth surface is dried, this is referred as
null
1
white spot
hot spot
translucent zone
body of lesion
Dental
null
53d1038d-8c30-4265-870f-eee41482c786
single
Most fulminant fungal meningitis is caused by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cryptococcus . Cryptococcal meningitis occurs after immunosuppression and the infection may be disseminated to involve other organs and skin.
3
Coccidioides
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus
Mucormycosis
Microbiology
null
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single
Genetic analysis shows N-myc gene in a child. She may have the following malignancy:
Neuroblastoma is associated with N-myc amplification. It is associated with a poor prognosis regardless of patient age. Regression of neuroblastoma generally occurs only in tumors with a near triploid number of chromosomes that also lack N-myc amplification and loss of chromosome arm 1p. Ref: Hackam D.J., Grikscheit T....
1
Neuroblastoma
Retinoblastoma
William's tumor
Nephroblastoma
Surgery
null
0d249d28-925d-4d81-9d0a-591aa5b12fbf
single
Steam at 100 degrees centigrade for 20min on 3 consecutive days is called as
Boiling,tyndallization and steam sterilizer are eg for temperature of 100 degree in moist heat sterilization Above 100 degree-autoclave Below 100 degrees- pasteurization, vaccine bath, inspissation Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:31
2
Boiling
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Pasteurization
Microbiology
general microbiology
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multi
Fish is deficient in which of the following nutrients?
Fish are less in iron. The fat of fish is Rich in vitamin A and D. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 582
1
Iron
Iodine
Vitamin A
Phosphorous
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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single
Sphenopalatine foramen opens into which wall of pterygopalatine fossa?
Sphenopalatine foramen opens into the medial wall of pterygopalatine fossa. It opens into the nasal cavity and transmits sphenopalatine aery and nasopalatine nerve.Pterygopalatine fossa boundaries:Anterior wall: posterior surface of maxilla posterior wall of maxillary sinus.Posterior wall: formed by pterygoid process a...
2
Lateral wall
Medial wall
Superior wall
Inferior wall
Anatomy
null
2fb5f0e1-8cdc-4b1a-9ab4-646a70c48d02
multi
The malleting force is directed:
First, hand pressure compaction is used to secure the pellet against the compacted E-Z Gold and spread it over the surface; next, mallet compaction is used. Likewise, each succeeding pellet is hand compacted, and then is compacted with the mallet. The condenser point is systematically stepped over the gold twice as mal...
3
Perpendicular to the walls
Parallel to long axis of crown
45° to the wall
None of the above
Dental
null
62a00d67-d337-4ce7-ae07-56b5899e03ff
multi
An increase in the action potential frequency in a sensory nerve signifies
↑ intensity of stimulus can increase frequency of action potential, but has no effect an amplitude of action potential
3
An increase in the action potential conduction velocity
An increase in amplitude of stimulus
Increased intensity of stimulus
All of the above
Physiology
null
b4835942-fc66-466a-b4a2-a4cdecbd6795
multi
Complement proteins constitute what percentage of serum proteins ?
Answer- C. 5-10%The complement system consists of alarge number of proteins that together constitute about 10% of the total circulating serum protein.
3
<1
5-Jan
5-10%
>10%
Pathology
null
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single
Increased intercondylar distance is seen in fracture of all, EXCEPT:
Intercondylar distance is increased in Fractures of medial epicondyle/condyle Fracture lateral epicondyle/condyle Fracture intercondylar humerus. Ref: Apley's 8/e, Page 596-609.
1
Olecranon
Medial epicondyle
Lateral epicondyle
Lateral condyle
Surgery
null
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multi
Haplike's test is done for
null
2
Cochleas function
Vestibular function
Middle Ear function
Not related to the Ear
ENT
null
80ba9684-d040-4483-942d-2aea83e2f08f
single
During rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia:
B i.e. Preoxygenation is mandatory
2
Sellick's maneuver is not required
Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
Suxamethonium is contraindicated
Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation
Anaesthesia
null
f4d55ba7-018f-4a1f-95a4-6b0670c3e0b1
multi
Gemination of teeth occur due to
null
2
Division of a single tooth bud after calcification
Division of a single tooth bud before calcification
Fusion of two teeth before calcification
Fusion of two teeth after calcification
Pathology
null
116a0c3d-044b-4ef5-9920-ee30769ac514
single
Height of children in 2–10 years of age is increased by –
"After 4 years, the child gains about 5 cm in height every year, until the age of 10 years" -- O.P. Ghai. "An average child gains approximately 7-8 cm in height between the age of 2-6 years and 6-7 cm in height between 6-12 years".    -- Nelson Amongst given option, 6 cm/year is the best answer.
3
2 cm/year
4 cm/year
6 cm/year
10 cm/ year
Pediatrics
null
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single
Hypertension is not seen with :
Levo-dopa may form dopamine in the periphery. It can act on receptors in the blood vessels but the increase in BP is not seen. Rather, postural hypotension is quite common with L-dopa therapy. It may be due to its central action resulting in the decrease in the central sympathetic outflow. Cyclosporine can produce neph...
4
Cyclosporine
NSAIDs
Erythropoietin
L–dopa
Pharmacology
null
c8e36859-1be4-4a66-8302-d2ecd26bf438
single
All are true about phosphorus except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Parathormone acts on NaPilic receptors
4
Comprises 1 % of the total body weight
85% remains in the bones
Diet is not a common source
Parathormone acts on NaPiIIc receptors
Biochemistry
null
71d31fc0-424a-40c0-8f49-aa6511e798f5
multi
Prophylactic Chemotherapy is indicated evacuation of H.Mole in all. Except
Ans. is d i.e. Nulliparous lady
4
Initial level of urine HCG is 40000 IU after 6 week of evacuation
Increase in HCG titre 24000 IU after 10 week of evacuation
Metastasis
Nulliparous lady
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
57a6359b-e3d3-41b7-84b0-9f8e464da41e
multi
The characteristic feature of apoptosis
The plasma membrane of the apoptotic cell remains intact, but the membrane is altered in such a way that the cell and its fragments become avid targets for phagocytes. The dead cell and its fragments are rapidly cleared before cellular contents have leaked out, so apoptotic cell death does not elicit an inflammatory re...
1
Cell membrane intact
Cytoplasmic eosinophillia
Nuclear moulding
Cell swelling
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Acantholysis means
Answer is option 2, loss of intercellular connections We performed scanning electron microscopy of an inveed blister roof in a case of pemphigus foliaceus. The loss of intercellular adherence could be easily seen with low magnification. The acantholytic keratinocytes displayed an irregular and sometimes polygonal conto...
2
Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia
Loss of intercellular connections
Intercellular edema of the epidermis.
Abnormal keratinization
Pathology
Endocrinology
c87acac5-eaae-41d1-b3f6-8351538141a6
single
Location of Arlt's line:
Ans. (d) Upper palpebral conjunctivaRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 169* Conjuctival scarring seen in trachoma as irregular stellate shaped scars over sulcus subtarsalis is called Arlts line.* It is seen in upper palpebral conjunctiva.
4
Sclera
Lens
Lower palpebral conjunctiva
Upper palpebral conjunctiva
Ophthalmology
Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective
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single