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A young man having pheochromocytoma has BP of 188/92 mm Hg and a hematocrit of around 50%. Pulmonary function tests and renal functions are normal. His catecholamines are elevated. Which of the following drugs should not be included in the anesthesia protocol?
* Halothane sensitizes the hea to arrhythmogenic action of catecholamines. * In pheochromocytoma, there are elevated levels of catecholamines. * Therefore, halothane should not be used in patients with pheochromocytoma.
3
Desflurane
Fentanyl
Halothane
Midazolam
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
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single
Ipsilateral third nerve lesion and contralateral ataxia
A third nerve palsy with contralateral ataxia (Claude's syndrome) or with contralateral hemiplegia (Weber's syndrome)The constellation of veigo, numbness of the ipsilateral face and contralateral limbs, diplopia, hoarseness, dysahria, dysphagia, and ipsilateral Horner's syndrome is called the lateral medullary (or Wall...
2
Weber syndrome
Claude's syndrome
Wallenberg's syndrome
Parinaud syndrome
Medicine
C.N.S
ec9d7e28-9d64-4f51-87f3-cf31cdba5822
multi
If you are in PHC, which anticoagulant is used to sent the blood sample for blood glucose estimation? -
It is used when blood is collected for glucose estimations. It is a weak anticoagulant but is often added as a preservative for blood glucose together with potassium oxalate as an anticoagulant. It is effective at a concentration of 2mg/ml blood. It inhibits the enzyme enolase (sodium fluoride) thus inhibiting glycolys...
4
EDTA
Heparin
Potassium oxalate
Potassium oxalate + sodium fluoride
Pathology
miscellaneous
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single
A female is on Mala N for contraception. After the end of the first strip, there was no withdrawal bleeding. What should be done?
(c) Urgent visit to hospital and check for pregnancy.Ref: WHO guidelines; CDC guidelinesAfter ruling out pregnancy, next cycle of OCPs can be started.
3
Start next cycle of tablets from 5th day
Start next cycle from next day
Urgent visit to hospital and check for pregnancy
Take two pills after 12 hours
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abortion
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single
For assembling cohos for Coho study, all of the following considerations are considered except
The diagnostic and eligibility criteria of the disease must be defined beforehand; this will depend upon the availability of reliable methods for recognizing the disease when it develops. The groups are followed, under the same identical conditions, over a period of time to determine the outcome of exposure in both the...
4
The coho must be free from the disease under the study
Study and control cohos should be equally susceptible to disease under study
Both groups should be comparable in respect of all the possible variable
The diagnostic and eligibility criteria of the disease must be defined after the staing of research
Social & Preventive Medicine
Classification, Coho Study
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The most common clinical pattern of basal cell carcinoma is
null
1
Nodular
Morphea form
Superficial
Keratotic
Surgery
null
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single
Which of the following fetal complications is associated with the penicillamine use in pregnancy?
Pencillamine interferes with the synthesis of collagen and elastin and can cause elastosis perforans serpiginosa and localized cutis laxa.
4
Conradi syndrome
Renal anomalies
Thymus hypoplasia
Cutis laxa
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Drugs in Pregnancy
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Visual area of coex is supplied by:
C i.e. Posterior cerebral aery
3
Anterior cerebral aery
Middle cerebral aery
Posterior cerebral aery
Posterior inferior cerebellar aery
Anatomy
null
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A case of carcinoma cervix who earlier received radiotherapy, relapses with new lesion, what should be the next line of management?
ANSWER: (C) Pelvic exenterationREF: Danforth's Obstetrics and Gynecology, 10th Edition P.983Treatment of Recurrent Cervical Cancer:Cervical cancer detected within the first 6 months after primary therapy is often termed persistent cancer, while that diagnosed later is referred to as recurrent disease.Appropriate treatm...
3
Repeat radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Pelvic exenteration
Complete hysterectomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Management (Carcinoma Cervix)
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Essential criteria for TOF includes all except
The four components of the tetralogy of Fallot are malaligned VSD, obstruction to RV outflow, aoic override of the VSD, and RV hyperophy due to the RV's response to aoic pressure the large VSD. ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no. 1926 )
1
Valvular stenosis
Infundibular stenosis
Over riding of aoa
RVH
Medicine
C.V.S
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multi
All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month old child,
Anti-HIV antibody detection by ELISA or any other method is done only after 18 months of birth when all maternal antibodies would have disappeared. HIV diagnosis <18 months: (i) HIV DNA detection (best), (ii) p-24 antigen, (iii) HIV RNA detection, (iv) virus isolation
3
DNA-PCR.
Viral culture.
HIV ELISA
p24 antigen assay
Microbiology
null
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multi
Microalbuminuria is dened as protein levels os -
Albuminuria in the range of 30-300 mg/24 hrs is called microalbuminuria , In patients with type 1 & 2 diabetes microalbuminuria appears 5-10 years after the onset of diabetes.
2
10-150 mg/dL
30-300 mg/dL
15-200 mg/dL
30-100 mg/dL
Medicine
null
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Measurement of Hb1AC is required for?
null
2
Screening of controlled diabetes
Monitoring of diabetes
Screening of uncontrolled diabetes
Confirmation of diabetes
Medicine
null
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Ectopic mucosa of Meckel's Diveicula is diagnosed by
The 99mTc- peechnetate is preferentially taken up by the mucus secreting cells of the gastric mucosa and ectopic gastric tissue in the Diveicula. It is less accurate in adults because of reduced prevalence of ectopic gastric mucosa. The sensitivity and specificity can be improved by pentagastrin and glucagon or H2-rece...
1
Tc-99m radionuclide scan
Angiography
CT
Endoscopy
Anatomy
G.I.T
b3d4ebb7-489f-4e4c-bf33-84c6e84ee48e
single
Earliest sign of rickets is:
Ans: bRef: Pedia ghai, 6th ed, p. 128
2
Rickety rosary
Craniotabes
Boe legs
Harrison's groove
Pediatrics
Metabolic Disorders
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single
Earliest menopausal symptom is :
Hot flushes
1
Hot flushes
Osteoporosis
Vaginal discharge
Spotting
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Physiological antagonism is found in
ref ; KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page no; 58) Physiological/functional antagonism; The two drugs act on different receptors or by different mechanisms but have opposite ove effects on the same physiological function, i. e . have pharmacological effects in the opposite direction, e.g.Histamine and adrenaline ...
4
Isoprenaline and salbutamol
Isoprenaline and adrenaline
Isoprenaline and propanolol
Adrenaline and histamine
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
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Presence of both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts are seen in all EXCEPT:
AMH DEFICIENCY or PMDS (Persistant Mullerian Duct Syndrome) Karyotype = 46XY and normal male external genitalia. Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome (PMDS) refers to the presence of a uterus and sometimes other Mullerian duct derivatives in a male. Both the Wolffian ducts and Mullerian ducts develop. The tissues are oft...
3
Anti-Mullerian hormone deficiency
Ovotestis
FSH receptor mutation
Mixed Gonadal dysgenesis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Intersex
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Concentrating ability of kidney is lost by damage to?
Ans. b (Loop of Henle & collecting duct). (Ref. Ganong, Physiology, 21st/pg.721)NEPHRONS# Proximal convoluted tubule-- reabsorbs all of the glucose, inorganic phosphate, Cl, lactate and amino acids and most of the bicarbonate, sodium, and water. Secretes ammonia, which acts as a buffer for secreted W+.QThin descending ...
2
Glomerulus
Loop of Henle & collecting duct
Macula densa
Renal Pelvis
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
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All are true about cluster sampling except?
.
1
Sample size is same as that of simple random sampling
It is a two stage sampling
It is cheapter than other methods of sampling
It has a disadvantage of higher sampling error
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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multi
Which of the following is the main form of oestrogen secreted from the ovary?
The major estrogens produced by women are estradiol (estradiol-17, E2), estrone (E1), and estriol (E3). Estradiol is the major secretory product of the ovary. Although some estrone is produced in the ovary, most estrone and estriol are formed in the liver from estradiol or in peripheral tissues from androstenedione and...
1
Estradiol
Estrone
Estriol
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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You are in the eye OPD and wish to use a topical Beta blocker in a patient. The Chosen dug by you should have all the following propeies except
Ref-KDT 6/e p144 Timolol and betaxolol are the preferred beta blockers for the treatment of glaucoma because they lack local anaesthetic activity. Drugs possessing this propey increase the risk of corneal ulcers
1
Strong local anaesthetic activity
High lipophilicity
High ocular capture
Low Systemic activity
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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Toxic effect of local anaesthetic include:
null
4
Convulsions
Asystole
Methemoglobinemia
All of the above
Surgery
null
4b8bbb6d-3acd-4f76-b528-4a81c96056ff
multi
which one of the following is not the appropriate treatment of hypehyroidism due to subacute thyroiditis?
Subacute thyroiditis is a self-limited thyroid condition associated with a triphasic clinical course of hypehyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. Subacute thyroiditis may be responsible for 15-20% of patients presenting with thyrotoxicosis and 10% of patients presenting with hypothyroidism ....
4
Propylthiouracil
Suppoive treatment
Subtotal thyroidectomy
beta blockers
Medicine
Endocrinology
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Not true regarding arcus senilis
Arcus senilis usually stas from inferior cornea and then involves superior cornea. Arcus senilis Corneal degeneration. Deposition of lipids in cornea. Seen in corneal periphery. There is clear margin between the limbus and the arcus deposition. It stas from inferior cornea and then involves superior cornea. Does not in...
4
Deposition of lipids in cornea
Seen in corneal periphery
There is clear margin between the limbus and the arcus deposition
It stas from superior cornea and then involves inferior cornea
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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The deficiency of all of the following factors increases the incidence of thrombus formation except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lipoprotein A
1
Lipoprotein A
Protein - C
Anti - thrombin III
Protein - S
Surgery
null
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multi
Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except -
null
4
Mycoplasma
Legionella pneumophila
Human corona virus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Microbiology
null
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multi
Pro-inflammatory cytokines are -
Ans. is All-`a' i.e.,IL-1;'b' i.e., IL-2;'c' i.e.,IL-4
4
IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
All
Pathology
null
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multi
Signs of organophosphorous poisoning are all EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (D) BronchodilatationREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice, 5/e By Krishan Vij page 533"Bronchoconstristition (bronchospasm) not bronchodilatation is seen in OPC poisoning"'Muscarinic signs of OPC poisoning can be remembered as SLUDGE- BBB: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination...
4
Bradycardia
Salivation
Miosis
Bronchodilatation
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
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As per immunisation schdule, Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended at?
2 year REF: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 17th edition page 1178, WHO website: vaccines/en/hepatitisa.shtml Hepatitis A vaccines "Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended at 24 months of age in states and regions with an increased incidence of disease. A second dose is administered 6-12 months later to complete the series"' ...
2
1 year
2 year
5 years
10 years
Pediatrics
null
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single
Casal's necklace' is seen in the following disease
The Casal necklace is an erythematous pigmented skin rash in the distribution of a broad collar (dermatomes C3 and C4). It is seen in patients with pellagra. It occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Pellagra is a disease characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Saty...
4
Beri-Beri
Scurvy
Pernicious anemia
Pellagra
Biochemistry
vitamins
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single
A 60 year old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is:
Retinal detachment
2
Vitreous hemorrhage
Retinal detachment
Central retinal aery occlusion
Cystoid macular edema
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Which of the following is not an action of growth hormone:
Insulin shows anti insulin effect and stimulate production of insulin like growth factor Anti insulin effect: increased lipolysis, hyperglycemia Effects mediated by insulin like growth factor: increased cailage and bone formation, increased protein synthesis and growth factor secretion, Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of ...
3
Anti insulin effect
Increased cailage formation
Decreased lipolysis
Increased protein synthesis
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
Impaired function of Aquaporin results in
ADH acts V2 receptors on DCT casuing facultative reabsorption of water by inseing Aquaporin -2 channels into apical (luminal side ). Nephrogenic DI-defect in aquaporins BATER SYNDROME - Autosomal recessive Defect in"Na-K-2Cl cotranspoer, Cl channel & ROMK"in loop of Henle LIDDLE SYNDROME - Gain of function of epithelia...
1
Nephrogenic DI
Liddle syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Baer syndrome
Physiology
NEET Jan 2020
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single
Which is true of malaria -
RBCs shape and size malaria: P. vivex - Enlarged, Round and Bizarre form P. falciparum - Normal in size P. malariae - Normal in size P. ovale - Enlarged, Oval and Fimbriated margin Relapse: Seen in P. vivax and P. ovale Recrudescence: Seen in P. falciparum and P. malariae infections Definitive host: Female Anopheles mo...
2
Rods forms are seen in P. malariae
RBC size is more in P. vivax
Relapse seen in P. falciparum
Male and female mosquito transmit disease
Microbiology
Parasitology Pa 1 (Protozoology)
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multi
Occlusion of left anterior descending aery results in ischemia of
Occlusion of left anterior descending aery result in ishemia of anteriolateral wall . Ref - BDC 6th edition vol1 pg 263-265
1
Anterolateral wall
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Interatrial septum
Anatomy
Thorax
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multi
The second messengers cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP (REPEAT)
.
2
Activate the same signal transduction pathways
Are generated by the activation of cyclases
Activate the same protein kinase
Are impoant only in sensory transduction
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except
A i.e. Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is supplied by main trunk of radial nerve above the level of elbow joint; whereas extensor carpi radialis brevis, finger extensors (extensor indics, extensor digitorum, extensor digits minimi) are supplied by its posterior interosseous branch a...
1
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Finger extensors
Sensation on dorsum of hand
Anatomy
null
cdb506e5-d6b5-45b3-a351-c6c3927fae6a
multi
The following can lead to acute renal failure (ARF) due to intrinsic renal disease except-
Lupus nephritis happens when lupus involves the kidneys. Up to 60% of lupus patients will develop lupus nephritis. When the kidneys are inflamed, they can't function normally and can leak protein. If not controlled, lupus nephritis can lead to kidney failure. Renal involvement in leptospirosis can vary from a subclinic...
3
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Leptospirosis
Hepatorenal syndrome
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Medicine
Kidney
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Despite blockage of the celiac trunk, the organs receiving their blood supply from the trunk continue to operate normally. This is due to anastomoses between which vessels?
The superior pancreaticoduodenal aery is a branch of the gastroduodenal aery, which is a branch of the common hepatic aery, itself a branch of the celiac trunk. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery is a branch of the superior mesenteric aery.
4
Left gastroepiploic aery and right gastroepiploic aery
Left gastroepiploic aery and right hepatic aery
Proper hepatic aery and gastroduodenal aery
Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery and inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery
Anatomy
All India exam
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multi
A 9 year old boy presents with growth retardation and propensity to hypoglycemia. Physical examination reveals sho stature, micropenis, increased fat and high-pitched voice. The skeletal survey reveals bone age of 5 years. Which of the following is most appropriate diagnosis -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Growth hormone deficiency Clinical features of Growth hormone deficiency o Sho children with normal body propoions o Markely increased subcutaneous fat o Delayed skeletal age than chronological age o The height age is less than skeletal age and chronological age. o Hypoplastic penis and scrotum o May ...
2
Malabsorption
Growth hormone deficiency
Adrenal tumour
Thyroxin deficiency
Pediatrics
null
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Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of -
Middle meningeal artery is a branch of the first part of the maxillary artery given off in the infratemporal fossa. It enters the middle cranial fossa through the foramen spinosum.
2
External carotid artery
Maxillary artery
Superficial temporal artery
Middle cerebral artery
Anatomy
null
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Horner's syndrome causes all of the following clinical manifestations, EXCEPT:
Horner's syndrome result from a lesion affecting the sympathetic supply to the eye. Manifestations of horner's syndrome includes 1-2mm ptosis, anhidrosis, enophthalmos and mild upper lid ptosis. Miosis in horner's syndrome occur from denervation of sympathetically innervated pupillary dilator muscle. Mild upper eyelid ...
2
Enophthalmos
Mydriasis
Anhidrosis
Narrowed palpebral fissure
Ophthalmology
null
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Most common cause of syncope in children?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neurocardiogenic syncope"The most common cause of childhood syncope is vasovagal syncope""Autonomic syncope" or "vasovagal syncope" or " vasodepressor syncope" is by far the most common cause of syncope in children, accounting for at least 50 percent of cases. "In susceptible children, pain and emotio...
3
Breath holding spells
Hypoglycemia
Neurocardiogenic syncope
Hypovolemia
Pediatrics
null
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single
In a village having a population of 1000, we found patients with ceain disease. The results of new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows Test Result Disease Disease Present Absent + 180 400 - 20 400 What is the prevalence of the disease?
Prevalence is defined as all current cases (Old+New) at a given point of time Prevalence= No. of all current cases of a disease at a time/Estimated total population at that time * 100 And "Cases are those persons having the disease" (controls are healthy people, without the disease) In the given question, Test Results ...
4
0.2
2
18
20
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Which of the following drug combination is supraadditive
Additive: Effect of drug A + B = effect of drug A + effect of drug B Aspirin + paracetamol as analgesic/ antipyretic Nitrous oxide + halothane as general anaesthetic Amlodipine + atenolol as antihypeensive Glibenclamide + metformin as hypoglycaemic Ephedrine + theophylline as bronchodilator Supra additive : Effect of d...
3
Nitrous oxide + halothane as general anaesthetic
Glibenclamide + metformin as hypoglycaemic
Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
Ephedrine + theophylline as bronchodilator
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
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single
The extension of the vaginal lumen around the intravaginal pa of the uterine cervix is the?
The cervix is the inferior end of the uterus that projects into the vagina. This means that the vagina comes up and wraps around the cervix, creating the vaginal fornix. There are multiple fornices at the top of the vagina: anterior, posterior, and lateral. The cervical canal is the passageway through the cervix to the...
3
Cervical canal
Uterine lumen
Fornix
Rectouterine Pouch
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Drug of choice for acute severe migraine is
Acute migraine is a general term for migraines that aren't diagnosed as chronic. Another name for this type is episodic migraine.People who have episodic migraines have headachesup to 14 days a month. Thus, people with episodic migraines have fewerheadaches a month than people with chronic ones. Triptans are drugs of c...
3
NSAID
Beta blockers
Sumatriptan
Caffeine
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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single
Which is not seen during the acute phase of Hepatitis B infection
Ans: C) IgM Anti HBe Ag
3
HBV DNA
HBs Ag
IgM Anti HBe Ag
IgM Anti HBc Ag
Unknown
null
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single
Increasing severity of mental retardation of male members over generations is a result of ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trinucleotide repeat mutation
4
Mitochondrial DNA mutation
Frameshift mutation
Y linked disorder
Trinucleotide repeat mutation
Pathology
null
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single
Most common type of lesion in Pott's spine:
The most common type of lesion in Pott's spine is Paradiscal area. Because the paradiscal area (lower pa of upper veebrae, upper pa of lower veebrae and the in-between veebral disc) arise from single mesodermal somite &has single supply of segmental aery through which tuberculosis spreads. Central (within the veebrae),...
3
Central
Anterior
Paradiscal
Appendiceal
Orthopaedics
FMGE 2017
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Opening of the jaw is done by the:
Ans: b (Lateral pterygoid) Ref.: BDC, 4th ed, VoL III, p. 152Depressing the jaw, ie. opening wide of the mouth is brought about mainly by the lateral pterygoid. The muscles which assist are the digastric, geniohyoid and mylohyoid.Movements that occur at the temporo-mandibular joint and muscles responsible:MOVEMENTMUSCL...
2
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Masseter
Temporalis
Anatomy
Temporomandibular Joint
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Soap bubble appearance is shown by:
null
1
Osteoclastoma
Osteosarcoma
Multiple myeloma
Ewing's sarcoma
Radiology
null
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single
The treatment of choice for primary grade V VUR involving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is:
Treatment of VUR: 1. Continuous antibiotic prophylaxis: Age < 1 year Grade 3-5 VUR with h/o febrile UTI Associated bowel bladder dysfunction 2. Surgery- break through UTI despite on continuous antibiotic prophylaxis
1
Antibiotic prophylaxis
Ureteric implantation
Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of Teflon
Bilateral ureterostomies
Pediatrics
Renal Tubular And Obstructive Disorders
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multi
Most common malignant tumor of parotid gland is
The major salivary glands include the parotid glands, subman- dibular glands, and sublingual glands. There are also approxi- mately 750 minor salivary glands scattered throughout the submucosa of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, parapharyngeal space, and nasopharynx. Salivary gland neoplasms are rare a...
1
Mucoepidermoid cancer
Adenoid cyst cancer
Acinic cell tumor
Lymphoma
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
'a'wave in JVP is seen in-
The a wave is due to atrial systole.some blood regurgitates into great veins when the atria contract.In addition,venous flow stops, the resultant rise in venous pressure contributes to a wave. (Ganong&;s Reviw of medical physiology,23rd edition,pg no.512)
1
Will be large when atria contracts against resistance
Filling of ventricles
It is followed by "V" waves
in inspiration
Medicine
C.V.S
1238a953-31bf-4853-a173-86f742a48068
single
Which of the following type of collagen is most prominent and important during repair:
Type 3 collagen which is normally present in the skin more also, is most prominent and important during the repair process.
2
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Type 6
Pathology
null
365f124a-299f-4021-9e05-80650016cfaf
single
Interval tonsillectomy is done following________ of quinsy drainage
Ans. a (4-6 weeks) (Ref: Diseases of ENT by PL Dhingra 2nd/pg. 261; 3rd/pg. 318)Tonsils are removed 4-6 weeks following an attack of Quinsy interval tonsillectomy,PERITONSILLAR ABSCESS (QUINSY)# Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) is a complication of acute tonsillitis caused mainly by a mixed flora containing anaerobes and...
1
4-6 weeks
4-6 months
12 months
Any of the above
ENT
Oral Cavity
ed203444-4dca-4d00-9523-a73a4f013ddd
multi
Glucose transport along cell membranes occurs along with ?
Ans. (b) Na+Ref Ganong's 23/e, chapter 28
2
K+
Na+
Cl-
HCO3-
Unknown
null
09f83828-2c22-4f18-b15a-0193523b13b9
single
Superficial inguinal ring is deficient of
It is a triangular opening that forms the exit of the inguinal canal, which houses the ilioinguinal nerve, the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and the spermatic cord (in men) or the round ligament (in women). At the other end of the canal, the deep inguinal ring forms the entrance. ref - BDC 6e vol2
3
External oblique abdominis
Internal oblique abdominis
External oblique aponeurosis
Internal oblique aponeurosis
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
c8fa80ed-9153-4b26-93a2-5d730b16f96b
single
Endodermal sinus tumour is characterized by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Schiller-Duval body
1
Schiller-Duval body
Psammoma body
Call-Exner bodies
Homer-Wright rosettes
Pathology
null
56038da9-9164-447c-93e7-f29d6287a636
multi
A 3 year old child suffers from burn injury with the following body parts involved: face including scalp, both buttocks and circumferentially around both thighs. How much is TBSA involved?
Using Modified Lund-Browder chart:
3
0.25
0.26
0.35
0.45
Surgery
null
80c622fd-ff2a-4795-945c-efe846c13dc1
multi
EGC in young heaithy person with 80 beats/min willnot show-
Normal values for waves and intervals are as follows: RR interval: 0.6-1.2 seconds. P wave: 80 milliseconds. PR interval: 120-200 milliseconds The normal duration (interval) of the QRS complex is between 0.08 and 0.10 seconds -- that is, 80 and 100 milliseconds. When the duration is between 0.10 and 0.12 seconds, it is...
1
PR interval between 80 to 120 msec
QRS interval less than 100 msec
Interval between 2 QRS is 750 msec
T. wave repressents repolarization
Medicine
C.V.S
9e6028b1-1bd0-45b4-af00-dc07537b20a0
single
In hydatidiform mole, blood cells does not develop because of defect in
As organs form, a process called organogenesis, mesoderm interacts with endoderm and ectoderm to give rise to the digestive tract, the hea and skeletal muscles, red blood cells, and the tubules of the kidneys, as well as a type of connective tissue called mesenchyme. Ref:Human embryology Inderber singh
2
Primary ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Trophoblast
Anatomy
General anatomy
a7dd554a-539e-4ab0-8697-fd5b639156af
single
In fracture of femur popliteal aery is commonly damaged by
B i.e. Distal fragment lit fracture supracondylar femur, the distal fragmentQ is markedly displaced by gastrocnemius, thus risking to the popliteal aery.
2
Proximal fragment
Distal fragment
Muscle haematoma
Tissue swelling
Surgery
null
a135fc13-5896-462d-bb20-5321a443469d
single
A family consist of husband, wife and 2 children wife's father has huntington's chorea. Which statement is true:
Ans. is 'c' If the wife does not get disease till age 50 children are not affected Huntington's chorea is an autosomal dominant* disease. The age of onset is usually 4th or 5th decade. But if the child has inherited the disease from father, juvenile onset of the disease is seen.In the question the lady has inherited th...
3
Chance of getting disease in child is 1:4
Can occur upto age of 50
If wife does not get disease till age 50 children are not affected.
Huntington's chorea is due to point mutation in gene.
Medicine
C.N.S.
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multi
Leprosy affects all the following except :
Complications of M. leprae Eye : uveitis, cataracts, glaucoma, corneal insensitivity and lagophthalmus. Testes : orchitis followed by impotence. Nerve abscesses : mostly seen in BT form, ulnar nerve is most frequently involved. Extremities : planter ulceration (most frequent complication of leprous neuropathy), footdr...
2
Testes
Ovaries
Eyes
Nerves
Microbiology
null
6e189252-f451-4807-ae42-3b3fa7e0ce37
multi
Alcoholic hyaline, in alcoholic liver disease is composed of
mallory body or hyaline degeneration consist of dense eosinophilic ropey cytoplasmic inclusion body GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK PGNO.449 IMAGE REF:
2
Lipofuscin
Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
Basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
Hemozoin
Pathology
G.I.T
c198305c-a99e-4661-a3fd-1456a696d0ab
single
Trichophyton species which is zoophilic ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e. mentagrophytes Zoophilic dermatophytes are the species which primarily infect animals and occasionally transmitted to humans. Zoophilic species of trichophyton are T. montegrophytes and T verrucosum. Other zoophilic species of dermatophytes is M. canis.
4
T. tonsurans
T. violaceum
T. schoenleinii
T. mentagrophytes
Microbiology
null
cb0bd296-4be0-424f-b8ef-6b0a6e81205f
single
Serial extraction should not be undertaken if there is
null
3
Crowding
Presence of ectopic eruption
Deep bite or open bite
None of these
Dental
null
ec2b92fe-cedb-4136-a03f-ba9aef411ab0
multi
Which of the following statements is true about Rectal atresia?
null
2
Usually a fistula is present with the urethra or bladder
Anus is usually normal
Stricture of the rectum
Common type of anorectal malformation
Surgery
null
c62ae132-7213-4e78-bd4b-ca3023556ce3
multi
Which of the following organs is not involved in autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome 2
Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2, a form ofautoimmune polyendocrine syndrome also known as Schmidt's syndrome, APS-II, or PAS II, is the most common form of the polyglandular failure syndromes.autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2 has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance, with an incomplete penetranc...
1
Parathyroid
Thyroid
Adrenal
Pancreas
Pathology
Endocrinology
a7438c56-ea90-43f4-9756-9828db5319b0
single
The pattern of fingerprint demonstrated here is
Loop Fingerprint patterns and their relative frequency: Loop - 67% Whorls - 25% Arches - 6-7% Composite - 1-2%
2
Arch
Loop
Whorl
Composite
Physiology
All India exam
2920bb0f-2d14-4df3-9b8f-b52dffd38b60
single
All are Characteristic of SAPHO syndrome except
The syndrome of synovitis, acne, pustulosis, hyperostosis, and osteitis (SAPHO) characterized by a variety of skin and musculoskeletal manifestations. Dermatologic manifestations include palmoplantar pustulosis, acne conglobate, acne fulminans, and hidradenitis suppurativa. Reference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal...
4
Synovitis
Acne
Pustulosis
Hyperpigmentation
Orthopaedics
Joint disorders
8f2ddd26-c260-4a0a-82bf-3320b4e84af3
multi
The neonatal teeth in infants are:
Most studies suggest that the etiology for the premature eruption or the appearance of natal and neonatal teeth is multifactorial. A possible factor involving  the early eruption of primary teeth seems to be familial, due to inheritance as an autosomal-dominant trait. A radiograph should be made to determine the amount...
1
Teeth of normal series usually
Supernumerary teeth
Only calcified structures
Only keratinised structures
Dental
null
b0f8442f-4105-41e7-b09e-35186b7b3e57
multi
Topical mitomycin C is used in the treatment of:
Ans. b. Tracheal stenosis "Topical Mitomycin C is the drug of choice used to aid the treatment of laryngeal stenosis. Topical Mitomycin C can inhibit fibroblast activity and restenosis."
2
Basal skull cancer
Trachea] stenosis
Skull base osteomyelitis
Angiofibroma
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
5f0aed57-f230-46ce-81ee-492b4bbd0898
single
The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blbcking agent which can be used as an alternative to Succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p345) Rocuronium is the fastest acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant (NDMR). It can be used for the rapid sequence endotracheal intubation in patients having contra-indications to the use of SCh. Mivacurium is the shoest acting NDMR. SCh is the shoest and fastest acting skeletal muscle relaxant. It is ...
1
Rocuronium
Pancuronium
Doxacurium
Pipecuronium
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
a90f5427-96c8-40c9-ac82-94185ddc233a
single
Inhibition of myenteric plexus results in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decreased gut motility o The gastrointestinal tract has a nervous system all its own called the enteric nervous system. It lies entirely in the wall of the gut, begining in the esophagus and extending all the way to the anus. The enteric nervous system is composed mainly of two plexus: -Myenteric plex...
3
Hyperacidity
Diarrhea
Decreased gut motility
Increased secretions
Physiology
General Principles of Gastrointestinal Function
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single
For determination of sex, smear is taken from
Buccal mucosa
1
Buccal mucosa
Vagina
Skin
Nose
Pathology
All India exam
375488e8-cf5f-45f3-b08d-45d5f85477bc
single
Mania is characterized by all except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypersomnia o Insomnia and not hypersomnia is a feature in mania.Diagnostic criteria for maniao Three or more of the following for at least 1 weeki) Inflated self esteem or grandiosityv) Distractibilityii) Decreased need for sleepvi) Psychom otor agitation or Increased goal directed activitiesiii) Ove...
1
Hypersomnia
Pressure of speech
High self esteem
Delusion of grandeur
Psychiatry
Substance Abuse
89c343ba-843b-4728-bbc7-d7e865e5839a
multi
Hemophilic A have following diagnostic features except-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., | PT
3
| VIII factor
| PTT
| PT
Normal BT
Pediatrics
null
e0dc9d76-e5ba-4d53-81fa-11b75ec66f32
multi
A patient presented with the extension of the MCP joint and flexion of IP which muscle is affected
Extension of MCP and flexion of IP joints is due to palsy of lumbrical and interossei muscles Action of lumbricals = flexion of Mcp,,extension of IP Tnt Action of palmar interossei =adduction of fingers Action of dorsal interossei =abduction of fingers ref : BD CHAURASIA
4
Extensor digitorum
Abductor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus
Interossei and lumbricalis
Anatomy
All India exam
e4bb90c9-0fbc-4d2d-b4e6-2a107fff5ec2
single
The minimal concentration of oxygen that should be used with Nitrous oxide analgesia is:
Nitrous oxide is a weak anaesthetic and while some patients can be brought to an unconscious level by mixture of Nitrous oxide and Oxygen containing at least 20% Oxygen.
2
10%
20%
30%
40%
Dental
null
4212d9ef-1390-42f2-934a-785b0795a3ae
single
A 6 year old boy presents with progressive weakness in muscles, and difficulty in walking upstairs. He has difficulty in walking on his toes and has a waddling gait. Hyperophy of calf muscles in noted. His CPK levels are 10,000 IU. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Duchenne muscular dystrophy Clinical features of DMD The age of onset is 2-5 years. Early development of the child is normal, the disease begins to manifest when the child stats walking. The child walks clumsily, has difficulty in climbing stairs and the gait is waddling. Hyperophy of calf muscle is a...
1
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Polymyositis
Congenital myopathy
Myotonia congenita
Pediatrics
null
0795a25b-3ace-4bd9-80d9-f3150c064417
single
Genes with purely or predominantly matrilineal inheritance without recombination are present in:
Ans. c (Mitochondrial chromosome). (Ref. Harper's Biochemistry 26th ed. 323; Ganong 22nd ed. 11, 27)Inherited mitochondrial disorders are transmitted in a matrilineal fashion; all children from an affected mother will inherit the disease, but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children. Heterogen...
3
X chromosome
Y chromosome
Mitochondrial chromosome
All of the above
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
41d2102e-063a-4d16-b493-aa0e0042127e
multi
Codex ali Men tarius is related to -
Ans. is 'd i.e., Food standardization Food standards are :- i) Coder alimentarius ii) The Agmark standards iii) Bureau of Indian standards iv) ETA standards
4
Water purity
Milk purity
Air pollution
Food stardardization
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
26324561-b7b1-47ed-b3fd-e2177f46b79f
single
Cause of hydrocele in infants ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Patent processus vaginalis
1
Patent processus vaginalis
Patent gubernaculum
Impaired drainage
Epididymal cyst
Surgery
null
611ee6f4-c41b-4f45-a9f0-a1ef3c0c93b6
single
Vaccine with maximum efficacy
b. Measles(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1546, Ghai 8/e p 145; IAP guidebook of Immunization 2013-14, p 222-223)Seroconversion rates after measles vaccination are around 60% at the age of 6 months, 80-85% at the age of 9 months and beyond 95% at the age of 12-15 months.
2
OPV
Measles
BCG
TT
Pediatrics
Immunization
535ded66-8217-4b1f-a5d1-411841dd3151
single
If a 4 nucleotides sequence code for an amino acid instead of 3, then theoretically how many unique amino acids could be coded by such a system?
Ans. d. 256 (Ref: Harper 28/e p353)If there would have been two nucleotides in each codon, the chance of their varied combination will be 42, i.e. 16, and three nucleotide in each codon means there will occur 43, i.e. 64 codons are possible. According to the above calculation, if there occurs 4 nucleotides in a codon, ...
4
16
64
128
256
Biochemistry
Structure of DNA
da92acb1-a7fc-4c23-883f-631d8d6a63f6
multi
A lady with 50% TBSA burn with involvement of dermis & subcutaneous tissue came to emergency depament. Burns will be classified as;
Third degree burns - Aka full thickness burn - Involvement of Epidermis + dermis + Subcutaneous fat - Burn Surface has Black coloured leathery eschar - Escharotomy is done to prevent compament syndrome - Characteristic features No pain, No blister, No pin prick sensation Healing occurs with contracture - To prevent con...
4
1st degree
2nd degree superficial
2nd degree deep
3rd degree burn
Surgery
FMGE 2019
e440e0ca-0a0c-4d2a-911b-fa3c2e1b0e87
single
A 4 month old female child presents with grade IV Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR); without dilation of urinary bladder. The Treatment of choice is –
Treatment of grade IV VIJR Age 0-5 years Give antibiotic prophylaxis first Follow up the patient, if recurrences occur, surgical management should be done. Age 6-10 years Unilateral      -3 Same as above Bilateral     --> Surgery
1
Septran + Follow up
Re – implantation of ureter
Injection of collagen at ureteric orifices
Bilateral Ureterostomy
Pediatrics
null
23879bed-cca2-48c3-b9c6-7086b21502f7
single
Type of joint TMJ has:
TMJ is condylar or diarthrodal or ginglymo-arthroidal joint as it has both hinge and sliding movements.
4
Condylar
Diarthrodal
Ginglymo-arthroidal joint
All of the above
Dental
null
130f64da-9ba0-40e8-8919-bac241d3af17
multi
All of the following abbretions are true except
TMP stands for thymidine monophosphateRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 560
4
AMP - Adenosine monophosphate
CMP - Cutidine monophosphate
GMP - Guanosine monophosphate
TMP - Thymine monophosphate
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
ab8ac386-0ad4-4c03-b821-44e2316353b0
multi
A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
C i.e. Psoriasis
3
Pityriasis
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Psoriasis
Secondary syphilis
Skin
null
367ee286-9591-42a2-89eb-7bedf3a8fa2e
single
Which of the following is false about intra-uterine devices (IUDs)?
Multioad Cu-375 is a newer copper intra-uterine device (IUD). The copper devices comprise the second generation IUDs. The non-medicated or ine devices are the first generation IUDs and the hormone-releasing devices are the third generation IUDs Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine, By K. Park, 19th Ed...
1
Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation intra-uterine device (IUD)
Copper devices are effective as post-coital contraceptives
LNG-20 (Mirena) has an effective life of 5 years
Pregnancy rates of Lippes Loop and T Cu-200 are similar
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
0e04a394-0781-4240-bf67-99ff3bc7ca9a
multi
Success of Block 1 is assessed by
Westphal's sign (Block 1 is Epidural block)
1
Westphal's sign
Gutierrez sign
Loss of resistance
Crawford sign
Anaesthesia
Spinal, Epidural, & Caudal Blocks
c9fd38f3-12da-4492-a4cf-19a26d79484f
single
On radiography widened duodenal 'C' loop with irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal barium series is most likely due to:
Ans. Carcinoma head of pancreas
2
Chronic pancreatitis
Carcinoma head of pancreas
Duodenal ulcer
Duodenal ileus
Radiology
null
800c3773-33da-44ae-8fc2-42d6846d57d1
single
Phobia is a type of
In ICD-10, neurosis, stress-related and somatoform disorders have been classified into the following types: Phobic anxiety disorders Other anxiety disorders Obsessive-compulsive disorders (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no 89)
2
Psychosis
Neurosis
Mania
Depression
Psychiatry
Anxiety disorders stress disorders and grief
24ab5dfe-5b8b-4e0a-8878-09c379a24d16
single
Macular sparing is seen in the affection of -
Macular sparing is seen in: - (i) Anterior occipital cortex lesion; (ii) Sometimes in total optic radiation lesions.
4
Optic nerve
Optic tract
Optic chiasma
Occipital lobe
Ophthalmology
null
1439f23d-006b-40f0-af9b-8889fde5ac77
single
Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:-
Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a variant of cutaneous tuberculosis in patients with good cell mediated immunity to M. tuberculosis. Rough verrucous way lesion usually heals with scar. Generally present on extremities. Tuberculid include Lichen scrofulosorum/ Micronodular TB Papulonecrotic TB Erythema induratum of bazi...
3
Tuberculid
Primary tuberculosis
Post primary tuberculosis with good resistance
Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance
Dental
Mycobacterial Infections
386ff4d9-284c-4ecd-970e-d0ff2f95cf76
single