falan42/meta_data · Datasets at Hugging Face

question stringlengths 1 1.57k	exp stringlengths 1 22.5k ⌀	cop int64 1 4	opa stringlengths 1 287 ⌀	opb stringlengths 1 287 ⌀	opc stringlengths 1 286 ⌀	opd stringlengths 1 301 ⌀	subject_name stringclasses 21 values	topic_name stringlengths 3 135 ⌀	id stringlengths 36 36	choice_type stringclasses 2 values
The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the	null	4	Morbidity index	Moratality index	Anesthetic ratio	Therapeutic index	Pharmacology	null	4547a3c5-df16-421f-b335-aa8591d07cc7	single
Higher auditory centre determines:	Sound localization Sound localization in horizontal plane depends on 2 things: 1. the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into the opposite ear, and 2.difference in intensities between the sound in the two ears The detectable time difference is said to be the most impoant factor at frequencies below 3000 Hz and the loudness difference more impoant for frequencies above 3000 Hz. Sounds coming from directly in front of the individual and the back of the individual cannot be differentiated by the above two mechanisms. Here shape of the pinna plays role, it changes the quality of the sound depending on the direction from which sound comes.	4	Sound frequency	Loudness	Speech discrimination	Sound localization	ENT	null	90c9c09a-e70b-4732-84b9-1b2c829d6e92	single
1st Permanent teeth to appear ______________	Permanent teeth begin to come in around the age of 6. In some children, the first permanentmolars are the first to emerge; in others, the incisors are the first to emerge. By the age of 13, most of the 28 permanent teeth will be in place. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition	1	Molor	Premolor	Incisor	Cannine	Pediatrics	Growth and development	015265c6-3b50-4912-8edd-71f2855c58d3	single
An infant present with hypotonia and hyporeflexia with significant prenatal history of polyhydraminos and decreased fetal movements. What do you suspect?	Among the given options, only spinal muscular atrophy presents in infancy and the rest in late childhood. Spinal Muscular atrophy (SMA) It is a degenerative disease of motor neurons, caused by the mutation of SMN gene with autosomal-recessive inheritance. Clinical features: Usually stas in infancy with hypotonia, hyporeflexia, and thin muscle mass Diagnosis: Genetic testing for SMN gene mutation. Muscle biopsy for cases of negative genetic testing. Treatment: Symptomatic and suppoive Ref: nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 3246	1	Spinal muscular atrophy	Classical myotonic dystrophy	Duchenne muscular dystrophy	Emery-Dreifuss syndrome	Pediatrics	Musculoskeletal disorders	842a7998-b8cf-45cb-b3a3-628f56dd4015	single
Pharmacokinetics is-	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Study of drug movement in the body Pharmakokineticso Pharmakokinetics is the quantitative study of drug movement, in through and out of the body,o That means, it is the study of the effect of body on the drug.o So, it is also known as ADME study as it deals with Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of a drug. RememberPharmacodynamics (D)- Drug does to bodyPharmacokinetics- Body does to drug.	1	Study of drug movement in the body	Study of drug effects	Study of drug responses, governed by heredity'	None of the above	Pharmacology	Pharmacokinetics	8ecc5a07-88d5-4201-b172-c7d58d336c81	multi
Korner's septum is seen in -	The petrosquamous suture may persist as a bony plate - the Korners septum.	1	Petrosquamous suture	Temporosquamous suture	Petromastoid suture	Frontozygomatic suture	ENT	null	b350d044-bc1b-4510-989d-7601ea5c2075	single
What is the inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome	All of the above inheritance pattern is seen, but if we have to choose one, it is X linked dominant pattern. Because it is the most common inheritance pattern.	3	Autosomal dominant	Autosomal recessive	X linked dominant	X linked recessive	Pathology	null	afbd8f0b-7b7d-4b4d-bac5-0b319ae01568	single
A 3 year old child comes with complaint of limp diagnosis is	.Septic ahritis, also known as jointinfection or infectious ahritis, is the invasion of a joint by an infectious agent resulting in joint inflammation. Symptoms typically include redness, heat and pain in a single jointassociated with a decreased ability to move the joint.	1	Septic Arhritis	Slipped capital femoral epiphysis	Pehe's disease	DDH	Pediatrics	Musculoskeletal disorders	41da97d2-ffff-4e11-8667-0898943e2635	single
Which of the following is not a labile cell	Ref Robbins 8/e p81-84; 9/e p101 Liable cells Rapid rate of replication Skin GIT,oral cavity Permanent cells Cannot divide in postnatal life Neurones , skeleton muscles	4	Bone marrow	Epidermal cells	Small intestine mucosa	Hepatocytes	Anatomy	General anatomy	934699ff-03d7-418a-8156-16c8fd8c61e2	multi
Pudendal nerve block involves?	ANSWER: (D) S2 S3 S4REF: Morgan 3rd ed p. 331. Essentials of Pain Management - Nalini Vadivelu, Richard D. Urman, Roberta L. Hines Page 428, Grant's atlas of anatomy - Page 270"Pudendal nerve block involves S2 S3 S4"The pudendal nerve innervates the lower vagina, perineum, and vulva. Block of this nerve can be used to supplement pain relief during the second stage of labor. The S2-S4 nerves give off branches to the pudendal nerve that pass between the pyriformis and coccygeal muscles. The nerve is blocked at the pudendal canal, just lateral and inferior to the sacroaspinous ligament. A pudendal nerbe block does not abolish sensation from anterior and lateral part of perineum and hence a block of ilioinguinal and/or posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh may also be required.	4	LI L2 L3	L3 L4 L5	SI S2 S3	S2 S3 S4	Anaesthesia	Spinal, Epidural, & Caudal Blocks	be0d8e8a-7596-45f0-af43-fec6d875b1d8	single
Hemianopia cortical blindness, amnesia and thalamic pain are associated with the occlusion of -	null	3	Anterior cerebral artery	Middle cerebral artery	Posterior cerebral artery	Basilar artery	Medicine	null	6c3a15b3-bce2-4ea3-a309-a200020db6af	single
Maximum velocity of conduction is seen in?	ANSWER: (D) Purkinje fibersREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition page 105Velocity of Signal Conduction in Cardiac Muscle:The velocity of conduction of the excitatory action potential signal along both atrial and ventricular muscle fibers is about 0.3 to 0.5 m/sec, or about 1/250 the velocity in very large nerve fibers and about 1/10 the velocity in skeletal muscle fibers. The velocity of conduction in the specialized heart conductive system-in the Purkinje fibers-is as great as 4 m/sec in most parts of the system, which allowTs reasonably rapid conduction of the excitatory signal to the different parts of the heart	4	SA node	AV node	Bundle of HIS	Purkinje fibers	Physiology	Heart: Rhythmical Excitation of the Heart	d8b5549f-e64a-4899-80f2-8da1aebe83cf	single
Deep inguinal ring is a defect in aponeurosis of:	Ans. (d) Transversalis fasciaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 955* Deep inguinal ring is the opening in the transversalis fascia through which the ductus deferens and gonadal vessels (or round ligament in the female) enter the inguinal canal.* Located midway between anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle, it is bounded medially by the lateral umbilical fold (inferior epigastric vessels) and inferiorly by the ilio-pubic tract. Indirect inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring.	4	External oblique muscle of abdomen	Internal oblique muscle of abdomen	Transverse abdominis muscle	Transversalis fascia	Surgery	Inguinal Hernias	2beacc2b-8318-47ce-8cb6-35230de0bd82	single
All are ECG changes in hypokalemia, except	null	4	U wave	ST segment sagging	T-wave flattening or inversion	QT interval prolongation	Medicine	null	06167a39-a36c-4e35-b6dd-788e5e4a58fa	multi
320 IPC is for –	According to sec. 320 IPC any of following injuries are grievous. Emasculation Permanent privation of sight of either eye Permanent privation of hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint Destruction or permanent impairing of power of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of head or face Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the victim to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits for a period of twenty days.	4	Defines hurt	Defines murder	Attempt to murder	Defines grievous hurt	Forensic Medicine	null	31517a16-ba77-46a5-8cbd-b19d27e8e263	single
A patient with alkaline urine which is cloudy with plenty of pus cells is suffering from infection with ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus	2	E. coli	Proteus	T.B.	null	Surgery	null	b181b960-3a68-4120-aa76-79bd7e1c28fa	multi
Which of the following is a mydriatic drug with longest duration of action	Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:152 Tropicamide is the shoest acting, so very commonly used for fundoscopy atropine is the longest acting - acts for 1 week not commonly used for adults, used only for children for fundoscopy - 1% atropine ointment	4	Cyclopentolate	Tropicamide	Homatropine	Atropine	Pharmacology	Autonomic nervous system	4641554c-923d-4dcf-9f65-e7bb9016b8cb	single
Granuloma is pathological feature of all of the following types of vasculitis, EXCEPT:	In microscopic polyangiitis, granulomas does not appear. Histologically it is characterized by the presence of segmental fibrinoid necrosis initially associated with neutrophilic infiltration and followed by monocyte, macrophage and lymphocyte. Giant cell aeritis is a focal, chronic, granulomatous inflammation found in temporal aeries. Microscopically there is granulomatous inflammation of the adventitia, media, and intima consisting of aggregates of macrophage, lymphocytes and plasma cells with varying mixtures of eosinophils and neutrophils. Churg Strauss syndrome is a small vessel vasculitis which occur in young patients and is characterized by asthma and eosinophilia. Pathology shows granulomatous lesions with intensely eosinophilic infiltrates in and around blood vessels. Wegener's granulomatosis is a systemic necrotizing vasculitis of unknown etiology characterized by granulomatous lesions of the nose, sinuses and lungs and renal glomerular disease. Ref: Essentials of Rubin's Pathology By Howard Reisner page 270-4.	2	Giant cell aeritis	Microscopic polyangiitis	Wegener's granulomatosis	Churg strauss disease	Pathology	null	f848faca-9224-4e37-8a92-1aa21c844acc	multi
Which nerve pierces the thyroid gland?	Ans. C Recurrent laryngeal nerveRef: BDC, Vol: 3 pg. 171, 172,173, 176.* It is recurrent laryngeal nerve that pierces the thyroid gland.Must know about Thyroid* The gland consists of 2 lobes that are joined to each other by the isthmus* The gland extends against vertebrae C5, C6, C7 and T1* It weighs about 25 g.* The thyroid gland is supplied by the superior and inferior thyroid arteries.# The superior thyroid artery is the first anterior branch of the external carotid artery.# The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of thyro cervical trunk* Nerve supply# Nerves are derived mainly from the middle cervical ganglion and partly also from the superior and inferior cervical ganglia.* It is made of following two types of Secretory cells# Folicular cells lining the follicles of the gland secrete T3 and T4.# Parafollicular cells (C cells) are fewer and lie in between the follicles. They secrete thyrocalcitonin.Extra MileWhat is the function of thyrocalcitonin?* It promotes deposition of calcium salts in skeletal and other tissues, and tends to produce hypocalcemia.	3	Superior laryngeal nerve	Inferior laryngeal nerve	Recurrent laryngeal nerve	Posterior laryngeal nerve	Anatomy	Neuroanatomy	6c4f19c6-0dd7-4780-b543-a746d1d48bae	single
Which of the following is false regarding brain abscess	Approximately one-third of brain abscesses are associated with otitis media and mastoiditis, often with an associated cholesteatoma. Otogenic abscesses occur predominantly in the temporal lobe (55-75%) and cerebellum (20-30%). In some series, up to 90% of cerebellar abscesses are otogenic. Abscesses that develop as a result of direct spread of infection from the frontal, ethmoidal, or sphenoidal sinuses and those that occur due to dental infections are usually located in the frontal lobes Hematogenous abscesses account for ~25% of brain abscesses. Hematogenous abscesses are often multiple, and multiple abscesses often (50%) have a hematogenous origin. These abscesses show a predilection for the territory of the middle cerebral aery (i.e., posterior frontal or parietal lobes). Hematogenous abscesses are often located at the junction of the gray and white matter and are often poorly encapsulated. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1013.	4	Most common source of infection is by direct spread from a contiguous cranial site of infection, such as paranasal sinusitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, or dental infection	Hematogenous abscesses are often multiple, and multiple abscesses often (50%) have a hematogenous origin.	Hematogenous abscesses show a predilection for the territory of the middle cerebral aery	Abscesses that develop as a result of direct spread of infection from the sinuses and dental infections are usually located in the temporal lobe.	Medicine	C.N.S	5a70b12d-b6eb-440e-888f-d2b205cf4de9	multi
Retention of mature neutrophils in bone marrow is known as:	null	1	Myelokathesis.	Myelocytosis	Leukocytosis	Leukemia	Pathology	null	3a2508ec-c22a-47a4-a034-b5cd995d18b4	single
Feces are disinfected best by ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5% cresol "The most effective disinfectant for general use is a coal-tar disinfectant with a Rideal-Walker (RW) coefficient of 10 or more such as cresol".	2	1% formaldehyde	5% cresol	5% phenol	Isopropyl alcohol	Microbiology	null	c3df5528-a18d-4253-b0d4-048c4e4d066e	single
Which of the following is true about splenic aery ?	Splenic aery branches from the celiac aery and follows a course superior to pancreas. Splenic aery gives off branches to the stomach and pancreas before reaching the spleen. Sho gastric aery is through the upper pa of greater curvature of stomach and fundus of the stomach. Some other branches are: Branch to the pancreas,Left gastro epiploic, Posterior gastric. Ref - BDC vol2 pg296	2	Smaller than left gastric aery	Gives sho gastric aeries along the fundus	Curves around the fundus	Arises from abdominal aoa	Anatomy	Abdomen and pelvis	10233431-b445-40f9-8b23-9cbc423991ff	multi
Closure of neural tube begins at which of the following levels:	Closure of neural groove into neural tube begins in cervical region(5th somite) and proceeds cranially and caudally in a bidirectional manner. But according to latest concept it has been postulated that closure begins at multiple sites and proceeds simultaneously.	1	Cervical region	Thoracic region	Cephalic end	Caudal end	Anatomy	General Embryology 2	386c4725-7713-44d3-92b4-cbf70c223313	single
Which of the following type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemic injury:	Ans. (a) Coagulative necrosisRef. Robbiti's pathology 9th ed. /41-43, 50COAGULATIVE NECROSIS* This pattern of necrosis is typically seen in hypoxic environments, such as infarction.* Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in tissues such as the kidney, heart and adrenal glands.* Severe ischemia most commonly causes coagulative necrosis.* Coagulation occurs as a result of protein denaturation, causing the albumin in protein to form a firm and opaque state.* It is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel- like) substance in dead tissues in which the architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy.Also KnowQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS* It is characterized by the digestion of dead cells to form a viscous liquid mass. This is typical of bacterial, or sometimes fungal, infections because of their ability to stimulate an inflammatory response.* The necrotic liquid mass is frequently creamy yellow due to the presence of dead leukocytes and is commonly known as pus.* Hypoxic infarcts in the brain presents as this type of necrosis, because the brain contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes and lipids, and cells therefore can be readily digested by their own enzymes.CASEOUS NECROSIS* It can be considered a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necroses, typically caused by mycobacteria, fungi and some foreign substances.* The necrotic tissue appears as white and friable, like clumped cheese.* Microscopic examination shows amorphous granular debris enclosed within a distinctive inflammatory border. Granuloma has this characteristic.FAT NECROSIS* It is specialized necrosis of fat tissue, resulting from the action of activated lipases on fatty tissues such as the pancreas.* In the pancreas it leads to acute pancreatitis, a condition where the pancreatic enzymes leak out into the peritoneal cavity, and liquefy the membrane by splitting the triglyceride esters into fatty acids through fat saponification.* Calcium, magnesium or sodium may bind to these lesions to produce a chalky-white substance. The calcium deposits are microscopically distinctive and may be large enough to be visible on radiographic examinations. To the naked eye, calcium deposits appear as gritty white flecks.Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis usually caused by immune-mediated vascular damage. It is marked by complexes of antigen and antibodies, sometimes referred to as "immune complexes" deposited within arterial walls together with fibrin.	1	Coagulative necrosis	Casseous necrosis	Liquifactive necrosis	Fat necrosis	Pathology	Mechanisms of Cell Injury	9a94579e-2a42-40e4-9db4-29234fcbe0d3	single
Von Gierkes disease is due to deficiency of?	null	4	Branching enzyme	Debranching enzyme	Phosphorylase	Glucose 6 phosphatase	Biochemistry	null	4ed0bd85-6b73-450d-ace5-249dce24cb49	single
Acetyl CoA is produced from various reactions in the body. Acetyl coA can be directly conveed to all, EXCEPT:	Acetyl CoA is formed from glucose. Following are the fate of Acetyl CoA after its formation: Oxidation in TCA cycle to form CO2 AND H2O Cholesterol biosynthesis Ketogenesis Fatty acid synthesis Acetylation reactions (Detoxication) Formation of acetyl choline Melatonin synthesis Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By Chatterjea, 2011, Page 442.	1	Glucose	Fatty acids	Cholesterol	Ketone bodies	Biochemistry	null	6b79e5ff-2945-4d97-b9b3-c5e7fa01aa63	multi
True about adenocarcinoma of lung-	Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.500 Adenocarcinoma: Adenocarcinoma, also called peripheral carcinoma due to its location and scar carcinoma due to its association with areas of chronic scarring,is the most common bronchogenic carcinoma in women and isslow-growing. Recent estimates on adenocarcinoma place this as the most frequent histologic subtype of lung cancer. Adenocarcinoma is fuher subclassified into 4 types: i) Acinar adenocarcinoma which has predominance of glandular structure and often occurs in the larger bronchi. ii) Papillary adenocarcinoma which has a pronounced papillary configuration and is frequently peripherally located in the lungs and is found in relation to pulmonary scars (scar carcinoma). iii) Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma is characterised by cuboidal to tall columnar and mucus-secreting epithelial cells growing along the existing alveoli and forming numerous papillary structures. Ultrastructurally, these tumour cells resemble Clara cells or less often type II pneumocytes. iv) Solid carcinoma is a poorly-differentiated adenocarcinoma lacking acini, tubules or papillae but having mucuscontaining vacuoles in many tumour cells.	1	More common in female	Smoking is not associated with	Central cavitations	Upper lobe involvement is most common	Pathology	Respiratory system	b94275cb-e62f-4505-8c68-8cd40a45b1eb	multi
Potassium-sparing diuretics are all except:	classification: High efficacy diuretics - Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide Medium efficacy( inhibit Na-Cl sympo ) - Thiazides ( Hydrochlorothiazide, Benzthiazide, Hydroflumethiazide, Clopamide ), Thiazide-like (Indapamide, Xipamide, Metolazone) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Acetazolamide Potassium-sparing - Spironolactone( Aldosterone antagonist), Amiloride, Triamterene ( inhibit renal epithelial Na channel ) Osmotic diuretics - Mannitol, Isosorbide, Glycerol ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 561 )	4	Spironolactone	Triamterene	Amiloride	Ethacrynic acid	Pharmacology	Kidney	0ae5dc6a-3f8c-4953-91fe-06da78fea732	multi
Metastatic calcification is most commonly seen in	Metastatic calcification may occur in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia. Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gastric mucosa, kidneys, lungs, systemic aeries, and pulmonary veinsReference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 2; Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death	4	Cornea	Extensor tendons	Brain	Renal tubules	Pathology	General pathology	6b3f923c-68fb-4ba1-882b-f4e17a8dcf9f	single
All are therapeutic role of recording base, except?	null	3	Establishment of VDR	Establishment of VDO	For chewcking under/overextended borders of final impression	Determination & recording of CR	Dental	null	1a2dce8b-f459-4efb-b9a1-409eda644293	multi
A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On fundoscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Most appropriate therapy for this patient?	This is the history of retinitis caused by CMV. CMV belongs to herpes group of viruses. It is also called as HSV5. The site of latent infection is the kidney and the salivary glands. This virus is the most common cause of oppounistic infection after solid-organ transplant and is also the most common cause of intrauterine infections. It produces intra-nuclear inclusions, which are called as owl-eye inclusions. The drug of choice is ganciclovir	4	Acyclovir	Amantadine	Flucytosine	Ganciclovir	Surgery	null	8672eeac-d6ba-4360-bdcc-6bfb1565d5bb	multi
A diabetic with HbA1c of 11% will requires all of management except?	Consensus statement from the ADA identifies six intervention with demonstrated efficacy in diabetic foot wounds : off-loading debridement, wound dressings, appropriate use of antibiotics, revascularization, and limited amputation. Off-loading is the complete avoidance of weight bearing on the ulcer, which removes the mechanical trauma that retards wound healing. Bed rest and a variety of ohotic devices or contact casting limit weight bearing on wounds or pressure points. Surgical debridement is impoant and effective, but clear efficacy of other modalities for wounds cleaning (enzymes, soaking, whirlpools) are lacking. Dressing such as hydrocolloid dressing promote wound healing by creating a moist environment and protecting the wound. Usage of antiseptic agents should be avoided.	3	Off loading	Debridement	Antiseptic agent dressings	Antibiotics	Medicine	Diabetes Mellitus	0abe88b5-bde3-43f5-863d-fe4164f59b8d	multi
Puerperium is the period:	Ans. A. 6wks following deliveryPuerperium begins as soon as the placenta is expelled and lasts for approximately 6wks when the uterus becomes regressed almost to the nonpregnant size.	1	6 wks. following delivery	3 wks. following delivery	1 wk. following delivery	None of the above	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Miscellaneous (Obs)	c16f43f5-4a08-48b7-bd13-554008bf9a8a	multi
Erythema multiforme Is most often related to	Erythema multiforme is associated with infections like herpes simplex virus mostly. And less commonly Mycoplasma pneumonia. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 186	2	Herpes zoster infection	Herpes simplex infection	Molluscurn contagiosum infection	Human papillorna virus infection	Dental	Vestibulobullous disorders	adf12de6-6ed0-40f8-8570-c6c94619ad11	single
Not a tributary of Azygos Vein among the following is	1. Formative tributaries of Azygos Vein are Lumbar Ascending vein, Subcostal Vein and lumbar azygos vein. 2. Right Bronchial Vein is the last tributary of Azygos Vein	3	Lumbar Ascending vein	Subcostal Vein	Intercostolumbar azygos vein	Right Bronchial Vein	Anatomy	null	39e77ab9-f92e-4fb9-a0f2-e79b8c9922c4	single
A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of –	Remember the following facts A sub centre caters a population of - 5000 in general, 3000 in hilly, tribal & backward areas A PHC caters a population of* - 30,000 in general, 20,000 in hilly, tribal & backward area. A Community health centre caters a population of - 80,000 to 1.2 lakh. A health assistant (male & females) are at a population of - 30,000 in general or (20,000 in hilly, tribal or backward area). Male and female health workers are at a population of - 5000 in general or 3000 in hilly, tribal or backward area. Health guide caters a population of - 1000 Anganwadi workers - 1000 Local dai -1000	3	1000	2000	3000	5000	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	78e73595-a7e5-409c-866c-7f580505aa20	single
Septal perforation is not seen in:	(c) Rhinophyma(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1150)Also known as potato nose Rhinophyma is due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of nose. It does not involve the septum.	3	Septal abscess	Leprosy	Rhinophyma	Trauma	ENT	Disease of External Nose & Nasal Septum	cfec8ed3-9f71-48be-ab44-802db72aeffe	single
Which of the following cranial nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus?(AIIMS May 2015, November 2014)	Ans. a. Abducent nerve (Ref: Gray's anatomy 40/e p240; Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178) Abducent nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus."Facial colliculus is situated in the pons. It overlies the abducent nucleus. The facial nerve originates from its nucleus and goes around the abducent nerve. This is called as neurobiotaxis. "---Gray s anatomy 40/e p240"On each side of the median sulcus is a longitudinal elevation, the medial eminence. lateral to which lies sulcus limitans. Its superior part is the locus ceruleus, coloured bluish-grey from the patch of deeply pigmented nerve cells. Also lateral to the upper part of the medial eminence is a slight depression, the superior fovea, and just below and medial in this fovea is a rounded swelling, the facial colliculus, which overlies the nucleus of the abducens (VI) nerve and the facial (VII) nerve fibers encircling in the motor nucleus of the facial nerve lies more deeply in the pons. Inferolateral to the superior fovea is the upper part of the vestibular area, which overlies parts of the nuclei of the vestibulococchlear (VIII) nerve. " Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178	1	Abducent nerve	Glossopharyngeal nerve	Facial nerve	Trigeminal nerve	Anatomy	Cranial Nerves	dd790351-25c3-4fd1-8501-067826ab7b4c	single
The following ECG represents ?	The ECG represents P mitrale pattern which is seen in left atrial hyperophy. P- mitraleis Broad, notched/bifid ( M shaped) P wave in limb leads. Width of P wave > 2.5mmwith anotch in Lead II. ( increased duration > 0.12s) Seen in MS,MR and Systemic HTN. Rabbit ear pattern is seen in Bundle Branch Block Delta wave is seen in WPW syndrome P pulmonale is seen in Right atrial enlargement.	4	Rabbit ear pattern	Delta wave	P pulmonale	P mitrale	Medicine	ECG and Arrhythmias 1	ae87e085-2991-427e-8af6-f5d547216d0f	single
Which of the following anticancer drugs acts by hypomethylation?	Decitabine is used to treat myelodysplastic syndromes (diseases of the blood and bone marrow; MDS) and ceain types of anemia. This medicine is an antineoplastic (cancer medicine) . Mechanism of Action: Inhibits DNA methyltransferase, causing hypomethylation of DNA & cellular differentiation or apoptosis Pharmacokinetics Protein Bound: <1% Vd: 63-89 L/m2 Half-life: 30-35 min REFERENCE : www.mayoclinic.org , www.medscape.com	3	Gemcitabine	5-FU	Decitabine	Homoharringotonine	Pharmacology	Chemotherapy	a36f28f3-5ced-4d4d-985c-963b2a79955d	single
All are true regarding cluster headache except:	Ans: C i.e. Bilateral Cluster headache Cluster headache shows a 5:1 predominance of males and onset is usually in the third decade The characteristic presentation of cluster headache is with periodic, severe, unilateral periorbital pain accompanied by unilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion and conjunctival injection, often with other features of Horner's syndrome Typically, the patient develops these symptoms at a paicular time of day (often in the early hours of the morning)	3	Most common in male	Periorbital in location	Bilateral	Symptoms seen in early hours of the morning	Medicine	null	491ef0ec-b526-461e-8dd6-df2a53bea5f8	multi
All are true about scleroderma crisis except?	Scleroderma crisis occurs in 12% of cases with systemic sclerosis. It is characterised by accelerated hypeension and a rapid decline in kidney function. Histopathological examination shows arcuate aery intimal narrowing and medial proliferation. This is characteristically called onion skinning. Anti-U3-RNP may identify the young patients at risk for scleroderma crisis. Anti-centromere is a negative predictor for scleroderma crisis. Maximum moality in scleroderma occurs due to Pulmonary aery hypeension and pulmonary fibrosis. NOTE : =In Scleroderma renal crisis - Prompt treatment with an ACE inhibitorcan reverse acute renal failure. =ACE inhibitors should be used even if the patient requires dialysis suppo. =MC cause of death in Systemic Sclerosis : Pulmonary Aerial Hypeension	3	Accelerated hypeension	Onion skinning of renal vessels	Anti - centromere antibody is a positive predictor of disease	ACE inhibitors reduced moality rate	Medicine	Scleroderma	fd6df8a1-a0fe-4ea3-aec1-e585238c121c	multi
True about congenital adrenal hyperplasia is all except	21 - Hydroxylase deficiency is most common.	2	Autosomal recessive disorder.	11 - β Hydroxylase deficiency is most common.	Commonest cause of genital ambiguity at birth.	Hypoglycemia is seen.	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	b405c042-b5f3-4d69-b955-fd04f8be13c8	multi
Which of the following prevents aspiration?	Ans. is 'd' i.e., Proseal LMA [Ref: Understanding Paediatric Anaesthesia Td/e p. 141A type of definite airwayDefinite airway is an airway that is adequately secured in trachea and it adequately protect the airway from aspiration.ProSeal (PLMA), a modification of Classic LMA, has a gastric drainage tube placed lateral to main airway tube which allows the regurgitated gastric contents to bypass the glottis and prevents the pulmonary aspiration.	4	LMA	Oropharyngeal airway	Nasopharyngeal airway	Proseal LMA	Anaesthesia	null	238a47a7-f936-4e00-bdd9-9f5ef7417b20	single
The following statements stand true for Mantoux test -	Test is read after 48 - 96 hours but 72 hours is ideal. Reactions exceeding 10 mm considered positive and between 6-9 considered doubtful. 92% of new cases occur in patients who are tuberculin reactors Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 195	3	Test is read before 48 hours	6-9 mm induaion shows maximum chances of developing Tb	A positive test does not indicate that the person is suffering from disease	New cases are more likely occur in tuberculin negative person than those who already are tuberculin reactors	Social & Preventive Medicine	Communicable diseases	6af12cdd-6fcf-4d34-afdf-4e286b953ba0	multi
The following drugs can be used for the management of status asthmaticus EXCEPT: September 2012	Ans. B i.e. Montelukast	2	Magnesium sulphate	Montelukast	Coicosteroid	Adrenaline	Medicine	null	eba9f63e-de59-4b71-8be0-fa972933f57b	multi
All are true about anthropometric measurements except:	d. Standing height is about 1.7cm less than recumbent length(Ref: Training Course on Child Growth Assessment WHO Child Growth Standards, 2008)If a child <2 years old, measure recumbent length.If>2 years age & able to stand, measure standing height.Standing height is about 0.7cm less than recumbent length.	4	Birth weight triples by 1 year	Skinfold thickness is measured in sub scapular region	Weight is measured to the nearest 100 gram	Standing height is about 1.7 cm less than recumbent length	Pediatrics	Growth, Development, and Behavior	c7e50fc6-2407-4a80-bd56-e5b0f46a326f	multi
Mrs. Katson 64-year-old obese woman with bilateral knee osteoahritis. She describes pain most days and limiting pain at least 2 days per week. She has tried activity modification (walking less) without success. All of the following therapies have been shown to be efficacious EXCEPT:	1. Recent guidelines Does not recommend the use of glucosamine or chondroitin for OA. 2. Glucocoicoid injections are efficacious in OA, but response is variable. Glucocoicoid injections are useful to get patients over acute flares of pain and may be especially indicated if the patient has coexistent OA and crystal deposition disease. 3. Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is the initial analgesic of choice for patients with OA in knees, hips, or hands. 4. NSAIDs are the most popular drugs to treat osteoahritic pain. They can be administered either topically or orally. 5. For failed medical treatment modalities, with limitations of physical function that compromise the quality of life, the patient should be referred for total knee or hip ahroplasty.	3	Acetaminophen	Glucocoicoid steroid intra-aicular injections	Glucosamine-chondroitin	Total joint ahroplasty	Medicine	Rheumatoid Ahritis	38aeb252-051d-4bac-be7b-860924f94513	multi
Following test is known as:	Ans. A. Finkelstein testFinkelstein test is performed to make a diagnosis of Dequervain's disease, which is tenosynovitis of Abductor polices longus (APL) and extensor polices brevis (EPB), which make the first dorsal compartment of the wrist.	1	Finkelstein Test	Tinel test	Phalen's test	Cozens test	Orthopaedics	Peripheral Nerve Injuries	3ee175ef-557b-4287-a8a0-c6110be542b0	single
A patient presented with multiple vesicles over the body with fish net like IgG deposition in the epidermis. Most likely diagnosis is –	null	1	Pemphigus vulgaris	Pemphigus folliaceous	Dermatitis herpetiformis	Bullous pemphigoid	Dental	null	7ee769b6-b142-4757-921e-f7ef6fc9784b	single
Which of the following doesn't elevate larynx?	The sternohyoid depresses the hyoid bone following its elevation during swallowing. The mylohyoid muscle elevates the hyoid bone, helps in depressing the mandible against resistance, and elevates floor of mouth and hence the tongue during the first stage of deglutition. The thyrohyoid depresses the hyoid during swallowing and elevates the larynx when hyoid is fixed by suprahyoid muscles. Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.121,94,95	1	Sternohyoid	Thyrohyoid	Mylohyoid	null	Anatomy	Head and neck	4e73766d-505e-4438-94d0-eb14cd93f5a9	multi
Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in	B i.e. Renal vein thrombosis - Nonvisualization of kidney (or absence of nephrogram) occurs in complete renal ischemia secondary to occlusion of main renal aery, (global absence) or focal renal infarction/ischemia secondary to focal aerial occlusion or renal vein thrombosisQ or space occupying lesions (segmental absence). - Persistent dense nephrogram (both increasingly or immediate) is seen in systemic hypotension, severe dehydrationQ, renal aery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis, tubular obstruction & damage and urinary tract obstruction (eg ureteral obstruction)Q but not in systemic hypeension. Although hydronephrosis usually 1/t scalloped/shell i.e. non smooth rim nephrogramQ.	2	Duplication	Renal vein thrombosis	Hydronephrosis	Hypoplasia	Radiology	null	720e98a5-a254-483b-a705-c47040d14eb4	single
True about vaccum extraction of fetus : (A)Can be used in non dilated cervix (B)Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix (C)Used in Face presentation (D)Applied 3cm post, to Anterior fontanel (E)Applied 3cm ant. to posterior fontanel	The centre of the cup should be over the sagittal suture and about 3 cm in front of the posterior fontanel toward the face. Anterior placement on the fetal cranium-near the anterior fontanel rather than over the occiput-will result in cervical spine extension unless the fetus is small'- William's Obstetrics 23rd/523 Ventouse Extraction: Indications As an alternative to forceps operation As an alternative to rotational forceps as in occipital transverse or posterior position Delay in the descent of the head in case of the second baby of twins. Delay in the late first stage of labour (uterine inertia). Conditions To Be Fulfilled There should not be slightest bony resistance below the head. The head of a singleton baby should be engaged. Cervix should be at least 6 cm dilated (preferably only cervical rim may be left behind). Contraindications: Any presentation other than vertex (face, brow, breech) Preterm fetus (<34 weeks). Chance of scalp avulsion or sub-aponeurotic haemorrhage. Suspected fetal coagulation disorder. Suspected fetal macrosomia	2	AB	BE	CA	DB	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	a993e1b7-4bc9-46e6-9132-69e5a4113cd3	multi
Vidian neurectomy done in:	ANSWER: (B) Vasomotor rhinitisREF: P L Dhingra 4th edition page 160, 1810%2806%2900013-3/abstractVidian neurectomy was first described for the treatment of intractable vasomotor rhinitisin the 1960s but fell into disrepute because of the recurrence of symptoms and significant complications. With subsequent improvements in the understanding of the nasal and sinus anatomy, endoscopic vidian neurectomy can now? be performed with minimal dissection and morbidityThe principle underlying vidian neurectomy is to sever the preganglionic fibers that reach the sphenopalatine ganglion through the vidian nerve. Several routes have been described to approach the deep seated vidian nerve:Trans antral Trans eptalTranspalatalTransethmoidal andTrans nasalThe most popular approach to the vidian nerve is the Transantral route.	2	Allergic rhinitis	Vasomotor rhinitis	Atrophic rhinitis	Drug-induced rhinitis	ENT	Rhinitis	7a8275bb-3536-40e7-9fb5-5144684a3f6f	multi
Capnography is useful for –	Uses of Capnography It is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubation in the trachea. Incorrect position of the tube in oesophagus instead of the trachea (oesophagal intubation) will yield ETCO2 = 0. Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will become zero. Obstruction or disconnections of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will fall. Diagnosing malignant hyperthermia → ETCO2 increases significantly (more than 100 mg Hg).	3	Determining Vaporizer malfunction or contamination	Determining circuit hypoxia	Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube	Detecting concentration of oxygen in the anesthetic circuit.	Anaesthesia	null	09557f67-2898-4fa2-a172-a90ca2212bc7	single
All are true statements about plant irritants except:	Abrus injection (sui needle) resembles viper snake bite. Ricinius communis produces diarrhea (cholera like action). Nux vomica contains strychnine, brucine and loganin.	1	Abrus ingestion resembles cobra snake bite.	Nux vomica contain strychnine.	Sui-picking involves abrus precatorius	Cholera like action is produced by ricinus communis	Forensic Medicine	Toxicology - 3	b009a7d2-d412-499d-b9a4-83585e22deb1	multi
Caspases are involved in -	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Apoptosis o Caspases and endonuclease cause chromatin fragmentation in apoptosis,o They are inactive, so first they should be activated,o Cytochrome 'c' binds with Apaf-1 and this complex activates caspases.o Caspases cause fragmentation of chromatin and also activate endonuclease.About option 'b'o Though Apaf-1 helps in activation of caspases, it has no role in chromatin fragmentation and It does not have two seprate forms active or inactive. It just forms complex with cytochrome 'C' to activate caspases.Neet Points about Apoptosiso Mitochondrion is the critical organelle required for apoptosis.o Chromatin condensation is the most characteristic feature.o Cell shrinkage is seen.o Gel electrophoresis demonstrates 'step ladder pattern'.o Annexin V is the marker for apoptosis.o CD 95 is the molecular marker for apoptosis.	1	Apoptosis	Pinocytosis	Cell signaling	Cell injury	Pathology	Apoptosis	17db0828-b126-41dd-a8d9-28802c614829	single
NOT true about LENS among the following is	Lens has no posterior epithelium in postnatal life.	3	Pre - equatorial are of lens capsule is the thickest part measuring 22-23 μm	Anterior epithelium is made up of single layer of Cuboidal Cells	Posterior epithelium in postnatal life is made up of Cuboidal epithelium	Relative dehydration in Cortex is due to action of Na+ – K+ ATPase pump	Ophthalmology	null	e872e5e1-527a-4d63-8a4b-0e6d22fb23c2	multi
The sarcoma which has equal propensity for maxilla and mandible is:	Chondrosarcomas are unusual in the facial bones, accounting for about 10% of all cases. They occur in the mandible and maxilla with equal frequency. Maxillary lesions typically occur in the anterior region in areas where cartilaginous tissues may be present in the maxilla. Mandibular lesions occur in the coronoid process, condylar head and neck, and occasionally the symphyseal region. Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 440	4	Fibrosarcoma	Osteosarcoma	Ewing’s sarcoma	Chondrosarcoma	Radiology	null	fda5f83f-cbfd-4020-a61f-e2719eb922a5	single
Cholinomimetics are useful in all of the following conditions except:	Ans. (D) Partial heart block(Ref: KDT 8th/e p119/122)Cholinergic drugs decrease the conduction from atrium to ventricle, thus should be avoided in partial heart blockCholinergic drugs like pilocarpine and physostigmine are used in angle closure glaucomaNeostigmine (acetylcholineesterase inhibitor, a cholinergic drug) is used for treatment of myasthenia gravisNeostigmine is also used for post operative paralytic ileus and post operative urinary retention.	4	Glaucoma	Myasthenia gravis	Post operative atony of bladder	Partial heart block	Pharmacology	A.N.S.	80b49e30-929a-45d8-947b-451cac17bedd	multi
A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible is -	Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis upto 12 months is coagulase-negative staphylococci (staph. epidermidis).	3	Staph. aureus	Strept. viridans	Staph. epidermidis	HACEK	Microbiology	null	e0c1f8f3-b0be-46e6-9e59-33baff786eff	single
A community in sub-African area has a weekly repo of 50-60 malarial cases, all in children. No adult case has been repoed. This week count of cases is 55. What kind of disease it would be classified as?	The above given case is an example of endemic disease as the no. of cases are still between the usually expected cases in an area and as only children are affected it is a holoendemic disease. Hyperendemic disease Refers to endemic disease affecting all age groups. It would have been labelled as epidemic if the no. of cases show an abrupt increase than expected cases in an area.	2	Epidemic	HoloEndemic	Hyperendemic	Outbreak	Social & Preventive Medicine	Time Distribution, Epidemics	024a9c2b-977a-4a99-9d93-f2b21a3a474b	multi
A 67-year-old male is found on rectal examination to have a single, hard, irregular nodule within his prostate. A biopsy of this lesion reveals the presence of small glands lined by a single layer of cells with enlarged, prominent nucleoli. From what poion of the prostate did this lesion most likely originate?	Knowledge of the anatomic division of the prostate is impoant in understanding the locations of the major pathologic diseases of the prostate. Most adenocarcinomas of the prostate originate in the peripheral zone, while hyperplastic nodules originate in the transition zone. This anatomic differentiation is the result of the physiologic fact that the transition zone is paicularly estrogen-sensitive, while the peripheral zone is paicularly androgensensitive. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is formed from testosterone by the action of 5-a-reductase, is responsible for the development of the prostate during fetal growth and also at the time of pubey. With aging, DHT levels are increased in the prostate, where DHT binds to nuclear DNA and causes prostatic hyperplasia. This hyperplastic effect by DHT is augmented by estrogen, which appears to function by induction of androgen receptors, and therefore this hyperplasia occurs in the poion of the prostate that is paicularly estrogen-sensitive. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition	3	Anterior zone	Central zone	Peripheral zone	Transition zone	Pathology	miscellaneous	22444b87-d3db-44c2-a731-845c674e2d2a	multi
Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in the:	null	3	Nucleus	Ribosomes	Mitochondria	Nonparticulate cytoplasm	Biochemistry	null	2bed5633-0fab-45dd-a8fe-2ab6245ccd38	single
What is true regarding congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis	Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis is more common in first born males.Symptoms usually sta after 3 weeks of age.Non-bilious vomiting is the initial symptom. After vomiting, the infant becomes hungry and wants to feed again.The metabolic disturbance is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.Clinical diagnosis is by palpation of hyperophic mass, confirmed by USG.The surgical procedure of choice is Ramstedt pylorotomy.Ref: Nelson 17th/e p1229	2	More common in girls	Hypochloremic alkalosis	Hellers myotomy is the procedure of choice	Most often manifests at bih	Medicine	All India exam	d024d905-ba6b-4c09-b53a-a8808ba1f2d8	multi
Most common symptom seen in pulmonary tuberculosis is	(D) Chronic Cough # Constitutional symptoms associated with Pulmonary tuberculsosi include Chronic productive cough for atleast 2 or 3 weeks Low grade evening raise of temperature Loss of apetite Significant weight loss Night cries in bone and joint tuberculosis	4	Chest pain	Breathlessness	High temperature	Chronic Cough	Medicine	Miscellaneous	800b8fa4-83ba-412c-9c43-050f17da13cd	single
The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:	Answer is C (Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis): Renal scarring is most commonly a result of chronic pyogenic infection of the kidney or chronic pyelonephritis. Chronic pyelonephritis occurs only in patients with major anatomic abnormalities, such as obstructive uropathy, struvite calculi, or, most commonly, VUR (in 30 to 45% of young children with symptomatic UTI). - Mercks manual ( `In children < 10 yr, about 30 to 50% of UTIs are associated with vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) which can lead to renal scarring and renal insufficiency if not treated' - Merck's manual Remember :Renal tuberculosis is always secondary to some primary focus elsewhere in body and occurs later in life then other forms (commonly around 20-40 years age group.)	3	Trauma	Trauma	Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.	Interstitial nephritis	Medicine	null	1bb94866-07c1-4b49-9a8a-0cf7326df65e	single
Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa ?	option a - 100% Glucose is reabsorbed from PCT by secondary active transpo, with the help of SGLT (Sodium Dependent Glucose Transpoer).	1	Early PCT	Henle loop	Collecting duct	Distal convoluted tubule	Biochemistry	Glucose Transpo	b157af8a-a205-4895-88f7-6055f03b5b10	single
Wide-split second hea sound is seen in -	The second hea sound is widelysplit and is relatively fixed in relation to respiration. A mid-diastolicrumbling murmur, loudest at the fouh intercostal space and alongthe left sternal border, reflects increased flow across the tricuspidvalve. In ostium primum ASD, an apical holosystolic murmur indicatesassociated mitral or tricuspid regurgitation or a ventricularseptal defect (VSD).These findings are altered when increased pulmonary vascularresistance causes diminution of the left-to-right shunt. Both thepulmonary outflow and tricuspid inflow murmurs decrease inintensity, the pulmonic component of the second hea sound anda systolic ejection sound are accentuated, the two components ofthe second hea sound may fuse, and a diastolic murmur of pulmonicregurgitation appears. Cyanosis and clubbing accompanythe development of a right-to-left shunt (see "Ventricular SeptalDefect" below). In adults with an ASD and atrial fibrillation, thephysical findings may be confused with mitral stenosis with pulmonaryhypeension because the tricuspid diastolic flow murmurand widely split second hea sound may be mistakenly thought torepresent the diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis and the mitral"opening snap," respectively. Harrison's principle of internal medicine,20th edition,pg no.1445	1	ASD	LBBB	PDA	MR	Medicine	C.V.S	52c57139-6208-4e15-acc0-a5abd57237d2	single
Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the following except: September 2007	Ans. C: Maternal alpha feto-protein level The two earliest tests that were introduced in the 1970's to assess fetal lung maturity were: The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio Detection of phosphatidylyglycerol Originally, both of these tests were performed by thin-layer chromatography (TLC), a technique that required considerable expeise and was both time-consuming and expensive to perform. In the early 1990's another test was developed. The TDx-FLM assay : This test employs fluorescence polarization to measure the ratio of surfactant to albumin (S/ A) in uncentrifuged amniotic fluid. It is simple, quantitative, can be performed in 60 minutes or less and is highly reproducible. TDx-FLM results correlate well with the L/S ratio and PG and with clinical outcomes. Another simple, rapid, and accurate test that can be performed on amniotic fluid to assess fetal lung maturity is the lamellar body (LB) count. LB are made by the type II cells in the alveoli that produce surfactant and, indeed, they are the packages in which surfactant is stored. They are released into the amniotic fluid from the lungs in increasing quantities that parallel surfactant production. Another test actually measures the functional capacity of the surfactants that are present in the amniotic fluid. This test is called the foam stability index (FSI). It too is simple, inexpensive, and can be rapidly performed.	3	Lecithin:sphingomyelinn ratio	Foam stability index	Maternal alpha feto-protein level	Amniotic fluid phosphatidylcholine level	Pediatrics	null	c25d3d06-97da-4e49-b474-dd15b916bcb9	multi
Health promotion is which level of prevention	Primary Level - Health Promotion and Specific Protection. Secondary Level - Early Diagnosis and Treatment. Tertiary Level - Disability Limitation and Rehabilitation.	2	Primordial	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	fcd25cfd-28f2-4d4d-acc4-b3313dda7adc	single
Miller's acidogenic theory of caries is also known as:	null	2	Proteolytic theory.	Chemioparasitic theory.	Proteolytic chelation theory.	None of the above.	Pathology	null	8d8c9639-f89f-4f79-ad16-48851d0a1e2c	multi
Sensory nerve supply of larynx below the level of vocal cord is	NERVE SUPPLY OF LARYNX Motor:- All the muscles which move the vocal cord (abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except the cricothyroid muscle. The latter receives its innervation from the external laryngeal nerve-- a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Sensory:- Above the vocal cords, larynx is supplied by internal laryngeal nerve--a branch of superior laryngeal, and below the vocal cords by recurrent laryngeal nerve. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-298	3	External branch of superior laryngeal nerve	Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve	Recurrent laryngeal nerve	Inferior pharyngeal nerve	ENT	Larynx	bc5fb7e2-c5d7-4ed2-ae58-8c69a83394db	single
Narrowing of periodontal ligament in labially placed mandibular canine with age is due to:	null	1	Due to deposition of cementum and bone	Down growths of gingival epithelium	Gingival cysts formed from cell rests	Reversal of function of horizontal and oblique fibres	Dental	null	a7478b5a-2972-4e03-97c3-dfe4d5eeabe8	multi
The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action	Disopyramide It is a quinidine like Class IA drug that has prominent cardiac depressant and anticholinergic actions, but no a adrenergic blocking propey. Disopyramide usually has no effect on sinus rate because of opposing direct depressant and antivagal actions. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-530	3	Quinidine	Lignocaine	Disopyramide	Procainamide	Pharmacology	Cardiovascular system	1f4c75b3-46a3-4b9f-a3ad-6ae61985fca1	single
Most potent mineralocoicoid is	Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocoicoid. Not used clinically because of the low oral bioavailability. most potent synthetic or man made is- fludrocoisone- having more mineralocoicoid activity (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 282)	1	Aldosterone	DOCA	Fludrocoeisone	Triamcinolone	Pharmacology	Endocrinology	17eb85b1-2fe6-47d3-b6fe-e53aa19d2c03	single
Which of the following is the most abundant diet of animal origin?	The triacylglycerols are esters of the trihydric alcohol glycerol and fatty acids and are available abundantly in animal diet Ref: Harper's Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 21; Lipids of Physiologic Significance	4	Phospholipids	Cholesterol esters	Cholesterol	Triglycerides	Physiology	General physiology	e975d179-37c5-454f-add0-dc3809875a66	single
ulimia nervosa is assosiated with	Bulimia nervosa * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Binge eating at least once a week for 3 months * Uses laxatives, diuretics, self-induced vomiting * Association= * Impulsive behaviors * increased interest in sex * They may be of normal weight * Less secretive * Mood disorders * Complication * Electrolyte abnormalities * Hypokalemia * Hypochloremia alkalosis * Russel's sign==== as these patients uses their fingers to be stick out in the throat and vomit, there is a lesion in meta carpo phalangeal joints. * Drugs * Carbamazepine * MAOI * SSRI Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no 509	1	impulsive behaviour	obesity	metabolic syndrome	amnorrhera	Anatomy	Sleep disorders and eating disorders	d4cd674c-3a81-41e3-9103-38105e6ea463	single
Ram Devi presented with generalized edema sweatingand flushing tachycardia and fever after bee sting. Thisis:	. IgE mediated reaction	2	T cell mediated cytotoxicity	IgE mediated reaction	IgG mediated reaction	IgA mediated hypersensitivity reaction	Pathology	null	db175a52-bf16-40b7-8cbc-882eb2cd34ac	single
A 3-year-old child reports with fever. He has reddish yellow ulcers of the facial mucosa and tongue. He is most probably suffering from:	null	2	Erosive lichen planus	Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis	ANUG	Leukemia	Dental	null	18b19b47-81c9-4265-9988-17601c622589	single
Patient present with severe energy deficiency. Which of the following vitamin might be deficient in this patient?	The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate, which plays a key role in energy metabolism of most cells, is paicularly impoant in tissues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of these two dehydrogenase-catalyzed reactions is decreased, resulting in a decreased production of ATP and, thus, impaired cellular function. 1. Beriberi: This is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet. Signs of infantile beriberi include tachycardia, vomiting, convulsions, and, if not treated, death. The deficiency syndrome can have a rapid onset in nursing infants whose mothers are deficient in thiamine. Adult beriberi is characterized by dry skin, irritability, disordered thinking, and progressive paralysis. 2. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome:In the United States, thiamine deficiency, which is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism, is due to dietary insufficiency or impaired intestinal absorption of the vitamin. Some alcoholics develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome--a thiamine deficiency state characterized by apathy, loss of memory, ataxia, and a rhythmic to-and-fro motion of the eyeballs (nystagmus). The neurologic consequences of Wernicke&;s syndrome are treatable with thiamine supplementation. Reference: Lippincott edition 5, pg no. 379	3	Pyridoxine	Riboflavin	Thiamin	Folic acid	Biochemistry	vitamins	765080b5-7009-49db-a737-e6ebdfb7f3fe	single
Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in	Raynaud phenomenon results from exaggerated vasoconstrictionof aeries and aerioles in the extremities, paicularlythe fingers and toes, but also sometimes the nose,earlobes, or lips. The restricted blood flow induces paroxysmalpallor or cyanosis; involved digits characteristicallyshow "red-white-and-blue" color changes from most proximalto most distal, reflecting proximal vasodilation, centralvasoconstriction, and more distal cyanosis, respectively.Raynaud phenomenon can be a primary entity or may besecondary to other disorders.Secondary Raynaud phenomenon refers to vascular insufficiencydue to aerial disease caused by other entitiesincluding systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, Buerger disease, or even atherosclerosis.(Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no.355)	1	SLE	Rheumatic fever	Hypeension	Diabetes mellitus	Pathology	Cardiovascular system	67fbcfe1-c082-455f-89b6-582f8a4a4689	single
Which of the following is a ground substance of pulp	null	4	Glycosaminoglycans	Chondroitin sulfate	Proteoglycans	All of the above	Dental	null	2e273458-1012-42c6-bba7-d80fe1739536	multi
Primary impact injury to brain: DNB 10	Ans. Concussion	1	Concussion	Cerebral edema	Hypoxic injury	Intracerebral hematoma	Forensic Medicine	null	26423e53-60bb-42f4-af75-a212fe24f194	single
A 55-year old woman was found to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management	Ans. b. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy Radiotherapy was cornerstone of advanced stage CA cervix management. Current evidence indicates that "concurrent chemotherapy" significantly improves overall and disease free survival of women with advanced cervical cancer. Thus most patients with Stage JIB to IVA are best treated with "chemoradiation". Cisplatin containing regimens are associated with best survival rates.	2	Surgery plus chemotherapy	Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy	Chemotherapy	Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	4e78b4e0-be08-4ff1-998a-0b8d1b2f53cc	multi
An appendicular fistula is least likely to heal if ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon	2	The stump was sutured with vicryl	There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon	Superadded infection	null	Surgery	null	4a15aae9-d4aa-489e-a18c-cffac573a254	multi
All of the following are causes of acalculous cholecystitis except:	Causes of Acalculous Cholecystitis Elderly and critically ill patients after trauma Burns Longterm TPN Major operation (abdominal aneurysm repair and cardiopulmonary bypassQ) Diabetes mellitus	2	Bile duct stricture	Schistosoma	Prolonged TPN	Major operations	Surgery	Gallbladder	a4148ac9-580f-404e-9e1f-4dd30608a981	multi
Fibroid causes all the following Except	Symptoms of fibroid are:Menorrhagia, polymenorrhea and metrorrhagia Infeility, recurrent aboionsPainAbdominal lumpPressure symptomsVaginal dischargeAround 50% women are asymptomatic.Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology; Chapter 29; Benign diseases of the uterus	2	Infeility	Amenorrhea	Pelvic mass	Menorrhagia	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Uterine fibroid	172d8173-1ef2-4fa3-88e1-88e0279f998b	multi
Which of the following is not a diarthrosis -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement)o Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow:Synarthrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synarthrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures).Amphiarthrosis - Permits slight mobility. Most amphiarthrosis joints are cartilaginous joints (e.g., intervertebral discs).Diarthrosis - Freely movable. All diarthrosis joints are synovial joints (e.g., shoulder, hip, elbow, knee, etc.), and the terms "diarthrosis" and "synovial joint" are considered equivalent by Terminologia Anatomica	3	Elbow joint	Interphalangeal joint	Skull sutures	Hip joint	Orthopaedics	Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing	b211aaa8-5eb5-4d7f-b651-eedba204c3cc	single
Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to :	Imperforate hymen	1	Imperforate hymen	Asherman's syndrome	Mullerian agenesis	All	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	842a4baa-e6e3-4929-9aa3-a416a4e06e6d	multi
A 53-year-old man develops weakness, malaise, cough with bloody sputum and night sweats. A chest X-ray reveals numerous apical densities bilaterally, some of which are cavitary. Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis was documented 20 years ago, and M. tuberculosis is identified in his sputum. Which of the following describes the expected lung pathology in this patient?	Secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis occurs due to: Reactivation Fresh infection Secondary TB: characterized by the formation of granulomas and extensive tissue destruction (caseous necrosis). Mycobacteria typically spread to the apices of the lungs and produce large cavities, which are associated with hemoptysis. Apical lesion: Supraclavicular- Puhl's focus Infraclavicular- Assmann's focus Hilar LN- not affected. Miliary tuberculosis refers to widespread seeding of bacteria in the lungs and distant organs. Granulomatous inflammation may induce fibrosis as a secondary feature.	3	Dense fibrosis	Eosinophilic infiltration	Granulomas	Plasma cell infiltration	Pathology	Pulmonary Tuberculosis and Lung Abscess	43d83090-8b2b-4f56-81e2-e2f22c19904b	multi
An infant presented with failure to thrive, stridor, otitis media and esophagitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?	GERD In infants presents with esophagitis, failure to thrive, obstructive apnea, stridor, otitis media, sinustis.	4	Tracheoesophageal fistula	Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis	Duodenal atresia	Gastroesophageal reflux disease	Pediatrics	null	ae5665ad-f852-4797-82ed-a43d2cc87561	single
Anatomical snuff box contains:	Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 22, 5th ed. pg. 102* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the hand.* Boundaries of snuff box:# Postero-medial border is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.# Antero-lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus.#The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius.# The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles.	2	Axillary nerve	Radial artery	Brachial artery	Ulnar artery	Anatomy	Hand	aede1d22-b740-45ac-88ff-d5fb3dbc7f0e	single
Enterotoxigenic E. Coli causes:	Option 1 HUS By EHEC or Shigella dysenteriae type 1. Dissemination of toxin- Verocytotoxin or Shiga toxin to glomerular capillaries. Option 2 Ischemic jejunitis: Not caused by any pathogen. Due to local or systemic pathlogy Option 3 Toxic shock syndrome By Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Due to toxins that act as superantigens. Option 4 ETEC Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea in the world. Most common cause of bacterial diarrheas in all ages.	4	Haemolytic uremic syndrome	Ischemic jejunitis	Toxic shock syndrome	Travellers diarrhea	Microbiology	Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)	fca1281f-4904-4d2a-95e1-a8cb4cc9ff19	single
All the following statements about purification of water are true except	null	2	Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water	Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination	Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine	Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method and indole production at 44 degrees	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	bed15e65-59f9-425f-abd7-d51fc3d0ce82	multi
CSF is partly absorbed by lymphatics around cranial nerves -	CSF is absorbed through 3 ways: Arachnoid villi and granulations (main) Perineural lymphatics around 1st, 2nd, and 8th cranial nerves and Veins related to spinal nerves.	1	I, II, VII, VIII	I, II, VI, VII	I, III, VII, VIII	I, II, VI, VIII	Anatomy	null	82bb9d20-9f22-4d49-8389-51092bbb18a4	single
Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is characterized by which of the following statements?	All of Koch's postulates have been verified for the relationship between infectious mononucleosis and Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus. However, the relationship between this virus and Burkitt's lymphoma, sarcoid, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is less clear. Infectious mononucleosis is most common in young adults (14 to 18 years of age) and is very rare in young children. There is no specific treatment. Heterophil antibody titer is helpful in diagnosis, but is not expressed as a function of clinical recovery.	3	It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old	It is caused by a rhabdovirus	The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus	Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies	Microbiology	Virology	070688df-853c-4640-9faa-3728ff3e47f1	multi
Level of prolactin, above which is said to be hyperprolactinemia	Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 754 A fact based question. Answer 200	4	50	100	150	200	Unknown	null	98ae17ac-5d68-4e3c-af81-1832a00280a0	multi
Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with	Ans. a (Inquest). (Ref. Parikh, Textbook of FMT, 5th/5)INQUEST (legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain matter of fact). : Section 174 Cr.P.C. -# When a person dies it is necessary to determine the cause of death either natural or unnatural to meet with the requirement of law.# In forensic, an inquest generally means an inquiry into the ca use of death (not due to natural cause).# Types of inquest in India:- Coroner's inquest (Mumbai and culcutta)- Police inquest- Magistrate inquest# Coroner's inquest was abolished in India in the year: 1999.# The most common type of inquest in India: Police inquest.# In India, inquest is NOT carried out by: Doctor# In case of death in prison, inquest can be conducted by: Executive Magistrate.# Supposed to be the best inquest internationally: Medical examiner's inquest.	1	Inquest	Inquiry	Murder	Medical negligence	Forensic Medicine	Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn	58fe4bee-8a6a-40ba-aac7-fcc4f798000d	single

The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the

null

4

Morbidity index

Moratality index

Anesthetic ratio

Therapeutic index

Pharmacology

null

4547a3c5-df16-421f-b335-aa8591d07cc7

single

Higher auditory centre determines:

Sound localization Sound localization in horizontal plane depends on 2 things: 1. the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into the opposite ear, and 2.difference in intensities between the sound in the two ears The detectable time difference is said to be the most impoant factor at frequencies below 3000 Hz and the loudness difference more impoant for frequencies above 3000 Hz. Sounds coming from directly in front of the individual and the back of the individual cannot be differentiated by the above two mechanisms. Here shape of the pinna plays role, it changes the quality of the sound depending on the direction from which sound comes.

4

Sound frequency

Loudness

Speech discrimination

Sound localization

ENT

null

90c9c09a-e70b-4732-84b9-1b2c829d6e92

single

1st Permanent teeth to appear ______________

Permanent teeth begin to come in around the age of 6. In some children, the first permanentmolars are the first to emerge; in others, the incisors are the first to emerge. By the age of 13, most of the 28 permanent teeth will be in place. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition

1

Molor

Premolor

Incisor

Cannine

Pediatrics

Growth and development

015265c6-3b50-4912-8edd-71f2855c58d3

single

An infant present with hypotonia and hyporeflexia with significant prenatal history of polyhydraminos and decreased fetal movements. What do you suspect?

Among the given options, only spinal muscular atrophy presents in infancy and the rest in late childhood. Spinal Muscular atrophy (SMA) It is a degenerative disease of motor neurons, caused by the mutation of SMN gene with autosomal-recessive inheritance. Clinical features: Usually stas in infancy with hypotonia, hyporeflexia, and thin muscle mass Diagnosis: Genetic testing for SMN gene mutation. Muscle biopsy for cases of negative genetic testing. Treatment: Symptomatic and suppoive Ref: nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 3246

1

Spinal muscular atrophy

Classical myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Emery-Dreifuss syndrome

Pediatrics

Musculoskeletal disorders

842a7998-b8cf-45cb-b3a3-628f56dd4015

single

Pharmacokinetics is-

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Study of drug movement in the body Pharmakokineticso Pharmakokinetics is the quantitative study of drug movement, in through and out of the body,o That means, it is the study of the effect of body on the drug.o So, it is also known as ADME study as it deals with Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of a drug. RememberPharmacodynamics (D)- Drug does to bodyPharmacokinetics- Body does to drug.

1

Study of drug movement in the body

Study of drug effects

Study of drug responses, governed by heredity'

None of the above

Pharmacology

Pharmacokinetics

8ecc5a07-88d5-4201-b172-c7d58d336c81

multi

Korner's septum is seen in -

The petrosquamous suture may persist as a bony plate - the Korners septum.

1

Petrosquamous suture

Temporosquamous suture

Petromastoid suture

Frontozygomatic suture

ENT

null

b350d044-bc1b-4510-989d-7601ea5c2075

single

What is the inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome

All of the above inheritance pattern is seen, but if we have to choose one, it is X linked dominant pattern. Because it is the most common inheritance pattern.

3

Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

X linked dominant

X linked recessive

Pathology

null

afbd8f0b-7b7d-4b4d-bac5-0b319ae01568

single

A 3 year old child comes with complaint of limp diagnosis is

.Septic ahritis, also known as jointinfection or infectious ahritis, is the invasion of a joint by an infectious agent resulting in joint inflammation. Symptoms typically include redness, heat and pain in a single jointassociated with a decreased ability to move the joint.

1

Septic Arhritis

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Pehe's disease

DDH

Pediatrics

Musculoskeletal disorders

41da97d2-ffff-4e11-8667-0898943e2635

single

Which of the following is not a labile cell

Ref Robbins 8/e p81-84; 9/e p101 Liable cells Rapid rate of replication Skin GIT,oral cavity Permanent cells Cannot divide in postnatal life Neurones , skeleton muscles

4

Bone marrow

Epidermal cells

Small intestine mucosa

Hepatocytes

Anatomy

General anatomy

934699ff-03d7-418a-8156-16c8fd8c61e2

multi

Pudendal nerve block involves?

ANSWER: (D) S2 S3 S4REF: Morgan 3rd ed p. 331. Essentials of Pain Management - Nalini Vadivelu, Richard D. Urman, Roberta L. Hines Page 428, Grant's atlas of anatomy - Page 270"Pudendal nerve block involves S2 S3 S4"The pudendal nerve innervates the lower vagina, perineum, and vulva. Block of this nerve can be used to supplement pain relief during the second stage of labor. The S2-S4 nerves give off branches to the pudendal nerve that pass between the pyriformis and coccygeal muscles. The nerve is blocked at the pudendal canal, just lateral and inferior to the sacroaspinous ligament. A pudendal nerbe block does not abolish sensation from anterior and lateral part of perineum and hence a block of ilioinguinal and/or posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh may also be required.

4

LI L2 L3

L3 L4 L5

SI S2 S3

S2 S3 S4

Anaesthesia

Spinal, Epidural, & Caudal Blocks

be0d8e8a-7596-45f0-af43-fec6d875b1d8

single

Hemianopia cortical blindness, amnesia and thalamic pain are associated with the occlusion of -

null

3

Anterior cerebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

Posterior cerebral artery

Basilar artery

Medicine

null

6c3a15b3-bce2-4ea3-a309-a200020db6af

single

Maximum velocity of conduction is seen in?

ANSWER: (D) Purkinje fibersREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition page 105Velocity of Signal Conduction in Cardiac Muscle:The velocity of conduction of the excitatory action potential signal along both atrial and ventricular muscle fibers is about 0.3 to 0.5 m/sec, or about 1/250 the velocity in very large nerve fibers and about 1/10 the velocity in skeletal muscle fibers. The velocity of conduction in the specialized heart conductive system-in the Purkinje fibers-is as great as 4 m/sec in most parts of the system, which allowTs reasonably rapid conduction of the excitatory signal to the different parts of the heart

4

SA node

AV node

Bundle of HIS

Purkinje fibers

Physiology

Heart: Rhythmical Excitation of the Heart

d8b5549f-e64a-4899-80f2-8da1aebe83cf

single

Deep inguinal ring is a defect in aponeurosis of:

Ans. (d) Transversalis fasciaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 955* Deep inguinal ring is the opening in the transversalis fascia through which the ductus deferens and gonadal vessels (or round ligament in the female) enter the inguinal canal.* Located midway between anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle, it is bounded medially by the lateral umbilical fold (inferior epigastric vessels) and inferiorly by the ilio-pubic tract. Indirect inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring.

4

External oblique muscle of abdomen

Internal oblique muscle of abdomen

Transverse abdominis muscle

Transversalis fascia

Surgery

Inguinal Hernias

2beacc2b-8318-47ce-8cb6-35230de0bd82

single

All are ECG changes in hypokalemia, except

null

4

U wave

ST segment sagging

T-wave flattening or inversion

QT interval prolongation

Medicine

null

06167a39-a36c-4e35-b6dd-788e5e4a58fa

multi

320 IPC is for –

According to sec. 320 IPC any of following injuries are grievous. Emasculation Permanent privation of sight of either eye Permanent privation of hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint Destruction or permanent impairing of power of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of head or face Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the victim to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits for a period of twenty days.

4

Defines hurt

Defines murder

Attempt to murder

Defines grievous hurt

Forensic Medicine

null

31517a16-ba77-46a5-8cbd-b19d27e8e263

single

A patient with alkaline urine which is cloudy with plenty of pus cells is suffering from infection with ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus

2

E. coli

Proteus

T.B.

null

Surgery

null

b181b960-3a68-4120-aa76-79bd7e1c28fa

multi

Which of the following is a mydriatic drug with longest duration of action

Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:152 Tropicamide is the shoest acting, so very commonly used for fundoscopy atropine is the longest acting - acts for 1 week not commonly used for adults, used only for children for fundoscopy - 1% atropine ointment

4

Cyclopentolate

Tropicamide

Homatropine

Atropine

Pharmacology

Autonomic nervous system

4641554c-923d-4dcf-9f65-e7bb9016b8cb

single

Granuloma is pathological feature of all of the following types of vasculitis, EXCEPT:

In microscopic polyangiitis, granulomas does not appear. Histologically it is characterized by the presence of segmental fibrinoid necrosis initially associated with neutrophilic infiltration and followed by monocyte, macrophage and lymphocyte. Giant cell aeritis is a focal, chronic, granulomatous inflammation found in temporal aeries. Microscopically there is granulomatous inflammation of the adventitia, media, and intima consisting of aggregates of macrophage, lymphocytes and plasma cells with varying mixtures of eosinophils and neutrophils. Churg Strauss syndrome is a small vessel vasculitis which occur in young patients and is characterized by asthma and eosinophilia. Pathology shows granulomatous lesions with intensely eosinophilic infiltrates in and around blood vessels. Wegener's granulomatosis is a systemic necrotizing vasculitis of unknown etiology characterized by granulomatous lesions of the nose, sinuses and lungs and renal glomerular disease. Ref: Essentials of Rubin's Pathology By Howard Reisner page 270-4.

2

Giant cell aeritis

Microscopic polyangiitis

Wegener's granulomatosis

Churg strauss disease

Pathology

null

f848faca-9224-4e37-8a92-1aa21c844acc

multi

Which nerve pierces the thyroid gland?

Ans. C Recurrent laryngeal nerveRef: BDC, Vol: 3 pg. 171, 172,173, 176.* It is recurrent laryngeal nerve that pierces the thyroid gland.Must know about Thyroid* The gland consists of 2 lobes that are joined to each other by the isthmus* The gland extends against vertebrae C5, C6, C7 and T1* It weighs about 25 g.* The thyroid gland is supplied by the superior and inferior thyroid arteries.# The superior thyroid artery is the first anterior branch of the external carotid artery.# The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of thyro cervical trunk* Nerve supply# Nerves are derived mainly from the middle cervical ganglion and partly also from the superior and inferior cervical ganglia.* It is made of following two types of Secretory cells# Folicular cells lining the follicles of the gland secrete T3 and T4.# Parafollicular cells (C cells) are fewer and lie in between the follicles. They secrete thyrocalcitonin.Extra MileWhat is the function of thyrocalcitonin?* It promotes deposition of calcium salts in skeletal and other tissues, and tends to produce hypocalcemia.

3

Superior laryngeal nerve

Inferior laryngeal nerve

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Posterior laryngeal nerve

Anatomy

Neuroanatomy

6c4f19c6-0dd7-4780-b543-a746d1d48bae

single

Which of the following is false regarding brain abscess

Approximately one-third of brain abscesses are associated with otitis media and mastoiditis, often with an associated cholesteatoma. Otogenic abscesses occur predominantly in the temporal lobe (55-75%) and cerebellum (20-30%). In some series, up to 90% of cerebellar abscesses are otogenic. Abscesses that develop as a result of direct spread of infection from the frontal, ethmoidal, or sphenoidal sinuses and those that occur due to dental infections are usually located in the frontal lobes Hematogenous abscesses account for ~25% of brain abscesses. Hematogenous abscesses are often multiple, and multiple abscesses often (50%) have a hematogenous origin. These abscesses show a predilection for the territory of the middle cerebral aery (i.e., posterior frontal or parietal lobes). Hematogenous abscesses are often located at the junction of the gray and white matter and are often poorly encapsulated. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1013.

4

Most common source of infection is by direct spread from a contiguous cranial site of infection, such as paranasal sinusitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, or dental infection

Hematogenous abscesses are often multiple, and multiple abscesses often (50%) have a hematogenous origin.

Hematogenous abscesses show a predilection for the territory of the middle cerebral aery

Abscesses that develop as a result of direct spread of infection from the sinuses and dental infections are usually located in the temporal lobe.

Medicine

C.N.S

5a70b12d-b6eb-440e-888f-d2b205cf4de9

multi

Retention of mature neutrophils in bone marrow is known as:

null

1

Myelokathesis.

Myelocytosis

Leukocytosis

Leukemia

Pathology

null

3a2508ec-c22a-47a4-a034-b5cd995d18b4

single

Feces are disinfected best by ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5% cresol "The most effective disinfectant for general use is a coal-tar disinfectant with a Rideal-Walker (RW) coefficient of 10 or more such as cresol".

2

1% formaldehyde

5% cresol

5% phenol

Isopropyl alcohol

Microbiology

null

c3df5528-a18d-4253-b0d4-048c4e4d066e

single

Which of the following is true about splenic aery ?

Splenic aery branches from the celiac aery and follows a course superior to pancreas. Splenic aery gives off branches to the stomach and pancreas before reaching the spleen. Sho gastric aery is through the upper pa of greater curvature of stomach and fundus of the stomach. Some other branches are: Branch to the pancreas,Left gastro epiploic, Posterior gastric. Ref - BDC vol2 pg296

2

Smaller than left gastric aery

Gives sho gastric aeries along the fundus

Curves around the fundus

Arises from abdominal aoa

Anatomy

Abdomen and pelvis

10233431-b445-40f9-8b23-9cbc423991ff

multi

Closure of neural tube begins at which of the following levels:

Closure of neural groove into neural tube begins in cervical region(5th somite) and proceeds cranially and caudally in a bidirectional manner. But according to latest concept it has been postulated that closure begins at multiple sites and proceeds simultaneously.

1

Cervical region

Thoracic region

Cephalic end

Caudal end

Anatomy

General Embryology 2

386c4725-7713-44d3-92b4-cbf70c223313

single

Which of the following type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemic injury:

Ans. (a) Coagulative necrosisRef. Robbiti's pathology 9th ed. /41-43, 50COAGULATIVE NECROSIS* This pattern of necrosis is typically seen in hypoxic environments, such as infarction.* Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in tissues such as the kidney, heart and adrenal glands.* Severe ischemia most commonly causes coagulative necrosis.* Coagulation occurs as a result of protein denaturation, causing the albumin in protein to form a firm and opaque state.* It is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel- like) substance in dead tissues in which the architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy.Also KnowQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS* It is characterized by the digestion of dead cells to form a viscous liquid mass. This is typical of bacterial, or sometimes fungal, infections because of their ability to stimulate an inflammatory response.* The necrotic liquid mass is frequently creamy yellow due to the presence of dead leukocytes and is commonly known as pus.* Hypoxic infarcts in the brain presents as this type of necrosis, because the brain contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes and lipids, and cells therefore can be readily digested by their own enzymes.CASEOUS NECROSIS* It can be considered a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necroses, typically caused by mycobacteria, fungi and some foreign substances.* The necrotic tissue appears as white and friable, like clumped cheese.* Microscopic examination shows amorphous granular debris enclosed within a distinctive inflammatory border. Granuloma has this characteristic.FAT NECROSIS* It is specialized necrosis of fat tissue, resulting from the action of activated lipases on fatty tissues such as the pancreas.* In the pancreas it leads to acute pancreatitis, a condition where the pancreatic enzymes leak out into the peritoneal cavity, and liquefy the membrane by splitting the triglyceride esters into fatty acids through fat saponification.* Calcium, magnesium or sodium may bind to these lesions to produce a chalky-white substance. The calcium deposits are microscopically distinctive and may be large enough to be visible on radiographic examinations. To the naked eye, calcium deposits appear as gritty white flecks.Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis usually caused by immune-mediated vascular damage. It is marked by complexes of antigen and antibodies, sometimes referred to as "immune complexes" deposited within arterial walls together with fibrin.

1

Coagulative necrosis

Casseous necrosis

Liquifactive necrosis

Fat necrosis

Pathology

Mechanisms of Cell Injury

9a94579e-2a42-40e4-9db4-29234fcbe0d3

single

Von Gierkes disease is due to deficiency of?

null

4

Branching enzyme

Debranching enzyme

Phosphorylase

Glucose 6 phosphatase

Biochemistry

null

4ed0bd85-6b73-450d-ace5-249dce24cb49

single

Acetyl CoA is produced from various reactions in the body. Acetyl coA can be directly conveed to all, EXCEPT:

Acetyl CoA is formed from glucose. Following are the fate of Acetyl CoA after its formation: Oxidation in TCA cycle to form CO2 AND H2O Cholesterol biosynthesis Ketogenesis Fatty acid synthesis Acetylation reactions (Detoxication) Formation of acetyl choline Melatonin synthesis Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By Chatterjea, 2011, Page 442.

1

Glucose

Fatty acids

Cholesterol

Ketone bodies

Biochemistry

null

6b79e5ff-2945-4d97-b9b3-c5e7fa01aa63

multi

True about adenocarcinoma of lung-

Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.500 Adenocarcinoma: Adenocarcinoma, also called peripheral carcinoma due to its location and scar carcinoma due to its association with areas of chronic scarring,is the most common bronchogenic carcinoma in women and isslow-growing. Recent estimates on adenocarcinoma place this as the most frequent histologic subtype of lung cancer. Adenocarcinoma is fuher subclassified into 4 types: i) Acinar adenocarcinoma which has predominance of glandular structure and often occurs in the larger bronchi. ii) Papillary adenocarcinoma which has a pronounced papillary configuration and is frequently peripherally located in the lungs and is found in relation to pulmonary scars (scar carcinoma). iii) Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma is characterised by cuboidal to tall columnar and mucus-secreting epithelial cells growing along the existing alveoli and forming numerous papillary structures. Ultrastructurally, these tumour cells resemble Clara cells or less often type II pneumocytes. iv) Solid carcinoma is a poorly-differentiated adenocarcinoma lacking acini, tubules or papillae but having mucuscontaining vacuoles in many tumour cells.

1

More common in female

Smoking is not associated with

Central cavitations

Upper lobe involvement is most common

Pathology

Respiratory system

b94275cb-e62f-4505-8c68-8cd40a45b1eb

multi

Potassium-sparing diuretics are all except:

classification: High efficacy diuretics - Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide Medium efficacy( inhibit Na-Cl sympo ) - Thiazides ( Hydrochlorothiazide, Benzthiazide, Hydroflumethiazide, Clopamide ), Thiazide-like (Indapamide, Xipamide, Metolazone) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Acetazolamide Potassium-sparing - Spironolactone( Aldosterone antagonist), Amiloride, Triamterene ( inhibit renal epithelial Na channel ) Osmotic diuretics - Mannitol, Isosorbide, Glycerol ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 561 )

4

Spironolactone

Triamterene

Amiloride

Ethacrynic acid

Pharmacology

Kidney

0ae5dc6a-3f8c-4953-91fe-06da78fea732

multi

Metastatic calcification is most commonly seen in

Metastatic calcification may occur in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia. Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gastric mucosa, kidneys, lungs, systemic aeries, and pulmonary veinsReference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 2; Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death

4

Cornea

Extensor tendons

Brain

Renal tubules

Pathology

General pathology

6b3f923c-68fb-4ba1-882b-f4e17a8dcf9f

single

All are therapeutic role of recording base, except?

null

3

Establishment of VDR

Establishment of VDO

For chewcking under/overextended borders of final impression

Determination & recording of CR

Dental

null

1a2dce8b-f459-4efb-b9a1-409eda644293

multi

A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On fundoscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Most appropriate therapy for this patient?

This is the history of retinitis caused by CMV. CMV belongs to herpes group of viruses. It is also called as HSV5. The site of latent infection is the kidney and the salivary glands. This virus is the most common cause of oppounistic infection after solid-organ transplant and is also the most common cause of intrauterine infections. It produces intra-nuclear inclusions, which are called as owl-eye inclusions. The drug of choice is ganciclovir

4

Acyclovir

Amantadine

Flucytosine

Ganciclovir

Surgery

null

8672eeac-d6ba-4360-bdcc-6bfb1565d5bb

multi

A diabetic with HbA1c of 11% will requires all of management except?

Consensus statement from the ADA identifies six intervention with demonstrated efficacy in diabetic foot wounds : off-loading debridement, wound dressings, appropriate use of antibiotics, revascularization, and limited amputation. Off-loading is the complete avoidance of weight bearing on the ulcer, which removes the mechanical trauma that retards wound healing. Bed rest and a variety of ohotic devices or contact casting limit weight bearing on wounds or pressure points. Surgical debridement is impoant and effective, but clear efficacy of other modalities for wounds cleaning (enzymes, soaking, whirlpools) are lacking. Dressing such as hydrocolloid dressing promote wound healing by creating a moist environment and protecting the wound. Usage of antiseptic agents should be avoided.

3

Off loading

Debridement

Antiseptic agent dressings

Antibiotics

Medicine

Diabetes Mellitus

0abe88b5-bde3-43f5-863d-fe4164f59b8d

multi

Puerperium is the period:

Ans. A. 6wks following deliveryPuerperium begins as soon as the placenta is expelled and lasts for approximately 6wks when the uterus becomes regressed almost to the nonpregnant size.

1

6 wks. following delivery

3 wks. following delivery

1 wk. following delivery

None of the above

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Miscellaneous (Obs)

c16f43f5-4a08-48b7-bd13-554008bf9a8a

multi

Erythema multiforme Is most often related to

Erythema multiforme is associated with infections like herpes simplex virus mostly. And less commonly Mycoplasma pneumonia. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 186

2

Herpes zoster infection

Herpes simplex infection

Molluscurn contagiosum infection

Human papillorna virus infection

Dental

Vestibulobullous disorders

adf12de6-6ed0-40f8-8570-c6c94619ad11

single

Not a tributary of Azygos Vein among the following is

1. Formative tributaries of Azygos Vein are Lumbar Ascending vein, Subcostal Vein and lumbar azygos vein. 2. Right Bronchial Vein is the last tributary of Azygos Vein

3

Lumbar Ascending vein

Subcostal Vein

Intercostolumbar azygos vein

Right Bronchial Vein

Anatomy

null

39e77ab9-f92e-4fb9-a0f2-e79b8c9922c4

single

A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of –

Remember the following facts A sub centre caters a population of - 5000 in general, 3000 in hilly, tribal & backward areas A PHC caters a population of* - 30,000 in general, 20,000 in hilly, tribal & backward area. A Community health centre caters a population of - 80,000 to 1.2 lakh. A health assistant (male & females) are at a population of - 30,000 in general or (20,000 in hilly, tribal or backward area). Male and female health workers are at a population of - 5000 in general or 3000 in hilly, tribal or backward area. Health guide caters a population of - 1000 Anganwadi workers - 1000 Local dai -1000

3

1000

2000

3000

5000

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

78e73595-a7e5-409c-866c-7f580505aa20

single

Septal perforation is not seen in:

(c) Rhinophyma(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1150)Also known as potato nose Rhinophyma is due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of nose. It does not involve the septum.

3

Septal abscess

Leprosy

Rhinophyma

Trauma

ENT

Disease of External Nose & Nasal Septum

cfec8ed3-9f71-48be-ab44-802db72aeffe

single

Which of the following cranial nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus?(AIIMS May 2015, November 2014)

Ans. a. Abducent nerve (Ref: Gray's anatomy 40/e p240; Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178) Abducent nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus."Facial colliculus is situated in the pons. It overlies the abducent nucleus. The facial nerve originates from its nucleus and goes around the abducent nerve. This is called as neurobiotaxis. "---Gray s anatomy 40/e p240"On each side of the median sulcus is a longitudinal elevation, the medial eminence. lateral to which lies sulcus limitans. Its superior part is the locus ceruleus, coloured bluish-grey from the patch of deeply pigmented nerve cells. Also lateral to the upper part of the medial eminence is a slight depression, the superior fovea, and just below and medial in this fovea is a rounded swelling, the facial colliculus, which overlies the nucleus of the abducens (VI) nerve and the facial (VII) nerve fibers encircling in the motor nucleus of the facial nerve lies more deeply in the pons. Inferolateral to the superior fovea is the upper part of the vestibular area, which overlies parts of the nuclei of the vestibulococchlear (VIII) nerve. " Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178

1

Abducent nerve

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Facial nerve

Trigeminal nerve

Anatomy

Cranial Nerves

dd790351-25c3-4fd1-8501-067826ab7b4c

single

The following ECG represents ?

The ECG represents P mitrale pattern which is seen in left atrial hyperophy. P- mitraleis Broad, notched/bifid ( M shaped) P wave in limb leads. Width of P wave > 2.5mmwith anotch in Lead II. ( increased duration > 0.12s) Seen in MS,MR and Systemic HTN. Rabbit ear pattern is seen in Bundle Branch Block Delta wave is seen in WPW syndrome P pulmonale is seen in Right atrial enlargement.

4

Rabbit ear pattern

Delta wave

P pulmonale

P mitrale

Medicine

ECG and Arrhythmias 1

ae87e085-2991-427e-8af6-f5d547216d0f

single

Which of the following anticancer drugs acts by hypomethylation?

Decitabine is used to treat myelodysplastic syndromes (diseases of the blood and bone marrow; MDS) and ceain types of anemia. This medicine is an antineoplastic (cancer medicine) . Mechanism of Action: Inhibits DNA methyltransferase, causing hypomethylation of DNA & cellular differentiation or apoptosis Pharmacokinetics Protein Bound: <1% Vd: 63-89 L/m2 Half-life: 30-35 min REFERENCE : www.mayoclinic.org , www.medscape.com

3

Gemcitabine

5-FU

Decitabine

Homoharringotonine

Pharmacology

Chemotherapy

a36f28f3-5ced-4d4d-985c-963b2a79955d

single

All are true regarding cluster headache except:

Ans: C i.e. Bilateral Cluster headache Cluster headache shows a 5:1 predominance of males and onset is usually in the third decade The characteristic presentation of cluster headache is with periodic, severe, unilateral periorbital pain accompanied by unilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion and conjunctival injection, often with other features of Horner's syndrome Typically, the patient develops these symptoms at a paicular time of day (often in the early hours of the morning)

3

Most common in male

Periorbital in location

Bilateral

Symptoms seen in early hours of the morning

Medicine

null

491ef0ec-b526-461e-8dd6-df2a53bea5f8

multi

All are true about scleroderma crisis except?

Scleroderma crisis occurs in 12% of cases with systemic sclerosis. It is characterised by accelerated hypeension and a rapid decline in kidney function. Histopathological examination shows arcuate aery intimal narrowing and medial proliferation. This is characteristically called onion skinning. Anti-U3-RNP may identify the young patients at risk for scleroderma crisis. Anti-centromere is a negative predictor for scleroderma crisis. Maximum moality in scleroderma occurs due to Pulmonary aery hypeension and pulmonary fibrosis. NOTE : =In Scleroderma renal crisis - Prompt treatment with an ACE inhibitorcan reverse acute renal failure. =ACE inhibitors should be used even if the patient requires dialysis suppo. =MC cause of death in Systemic Sclerosis : Pulmonary Aerial Hypeension

3

Accelerated hypeension

Onion skinning of renal vessels

Anti - centromere antibody is a positive predictor of disease

ACE inhibitors reduced moality rate

Medicine

Scleroderma

fd6df8a1-a0fe-4ea3-aec1-e585238c121c

multi

True about congenital adrenal hyperplasia is all except

21 - Hydroxylase deficiency is most common.

2

Autosomal recessive disorder.

11 - β Hydroxylase deficiency is most common.

Commonest cause of genital ambiguity at birth.

Hypoglycemia is seen.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

b405c042-b5f3-4d69-b955-fd04f8be13c8

multi

Which of the following prevents aspiration?

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Proseal LMA [Ref: Understanding Paediatric Anaesthesia Td/e p. 141A type of definite airwayDefinite airway is an airway that is adequately secured in trachea and it adequately protect the airway from aspiration.ProSeal (PLMA), a modification of Classic LMA, has a gastric drainage tube placed lateral to main airway tube which allows the regurgitated gastric contents to bypass the glottis and prevents the pulmonary aspiration.

4

LMA

Oropharyngeal airway

Nasopharyngeal airway

Proseal LMA

Anaesthesia

null

238a47a7-f936-4e00-bdd9-9f5ef7417b20

single

The following statements stand true for Mantoux test -

Test is read after 48 - 96 hours but 72 hours is ideal. Reactions exceeding 10 mm considered positive and between 6-9 considered doubtful. 92% of new cases occur in patients who are tuberculin reactors Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 195

3

Test is read before 48 hours

6-9 mm induaion shows maximum chances of developing Tb

A positive test does not indicate that the person is suffering from disease

New cases are more likely occur in tuberculin negative person than those who already are tuberculin reactors

Social & Preventive Medicine

Communicable diseases

6af12cdd-6fcf-4d34-afdf-4e286b953ba0

multi

The following drugs can be used for the management of status asthmaticus EXCEPT: September 2012

Ans. B i.e. Montelukast

2

Magnesium sulphate

Montelukast

Coicosteroid

Adrenaline

Medicine

null

eba9f63e-de59-4b71-8be0-fa972933f57b

multi

All are true about anthropometric measurements except:

d. Standing height is about 1.7cm less than recumbent length(Ref: Training Course on Child Growth Assessment WHO Child Growth Standards, 2008)If a child <2 years old, measure recumbent length.If>2 years age & able to stand, measure standing height.Standing height is about 0.7cm less than recumbent length.

4

Birth weight triples by 1 year

Skinfold thickness is measured in sub scapular region

Weight is measured to the nearest 100 gram

Standing height is about 1.7 cm less than recumbent length

Pediatrics

Growth, Development, and Behavior

c7e50fc6-2407-4a80-bd56-e5b0f46a326f

multi

Mrs. Katson 64-year-old obese woman with bilateral knee osteoahritis. She describes pain most days and limiting pain at least 2 days per week. She has tried activity modification (walking less) without success. All of the following therapies have been shown to be efficacious EXCEPT:

1. Recent guidelines Does not recommend the use of glucosamine or chondroitin for OA. 2. Glucocoicoid injections are efficacious in OA, but response is variable. Glucocoicoid injections are useful to get patients over acute flares of pain and may be especially indicated if the patient has coexistent OA and crystal deposition disease. 3. Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is the initial analgesic of choice for patients with OA in knees, hips, or hands. 4. NSAIDs are the most popular drugs to treat osteoahritic pain. They can be administered either topically or orally. 5. For failed medical treatment modalities, with limitations of physical function that compromise the quality of life, the patient should be referred for total knee or hip ahroplasty.

3

Acetaminophen

Glucocoicoid steroid intra-aicular injections

Glucosamine-chondroitin

Total joint ahroplasty

Medicine

Rheumatoid Ahritis

38aeb252-051d-4bac-be7b-860924f94513

multi

Following test is known as:

Ans. A. Finkelstein testFinkelstein test is performed to make a diagnosis of Dequervain's disease, which is tenosynovitis of Abductor polices longus (APL) and extensor polices brevis (EPB), which make the first dorsal compartment of the wrist.

1

Finkelstein Test

Tinel test

Phalen's test

Cozens test

Orthopaedics

Peripheral Nerve Injuries

3ee175ef-557b-4287-a8a0-c6110be542b0

single

A patient presented with multiple vesicles over the body with fish net like IgG deposition in the epidermis. Most likely diagnosis is –

null

1

Pemphigus vulgaris

Pemphigus folliaceous

Dermatitis herpetiformis

Bullous pemphigoid

Dental

null

7ee769b6-b142-4757-921e-f7ef6fc9784b

single

Which of the following doesn't elevate larynx?

The sternohyoid depresses the hyoid bone following its elevation during swallowing. The mylohyoid muscle elevates the hyoid bone, helps in depressing the mandible against resistance, and elevates floor of mouth and hence the tongue during the first stage of deglutition. The thyrohyoid depresses the hyoid during swallowing and elevates the larynx when hyoid is fixed by suprahyoid muscles. Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.121,94,95

1

Sternohyoid

Thyrohyoid

Mylohyoid

null

Anatomy

Head and neck

4e73766d-505e-4438-94d0-eb14cd93f5a9

multi

Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in

B i.e. Renal vein thrombosis - Nonvisualization of kidney (or absence of nephrogram) occurs in complete renal ischemia secondary to occlusion of main renal aery, (global absence) or focal renal infarction/ischemia secondary to focal aerial occlusion or renal vein thrombosisQ or space occupying lesions (segmental absence). - Persistent dense nephrogram (both increasingly or immediate) is seen in systemic hypotension, severe dehydrationQ, renal aery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis, tubular obstruction & damage and urinary tract obstruction (eg ureteral obstruction)Q but not in systemic hypeension. Although hydronephrosis usually 1/t scalloped/shell i.e. non smooth rim nephrogramQ.

2

Duplication

Renal vein thrombosis

Hydronephrosis

Hypoplasia

Radiology

null

720e98a5-a254-483b-a705-c47040d14eb4

single

True about vaccum extraction of fetus : (A)Can be used in non dilated cervix (B)Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix (C)Used in Face presentation (D)Applied 3cm post, to Anterior fontanel (E)Applied 3cm ant. to posterior fontanel

The centre of the cup should be over the sagittal suture and about 3 cm in front of the posterior fontanel toward the face. Anterior placement on the fetal cranium-near the anterior fontanel rather than over the occiput-will result in cervical spine extension unless the fetus is small'- William's Obstetrics 23rd/523 Ventouse Extraction: Indications As an alternative to forceps operation As an alternative to rotational forceps as in occipital transverse or posterior position Delay in the descent of the head in case of the second baby of twins. Delay in the late first stage of labour (uterine inertia). Conditions To Be Fulfilled There should not be slightest bony resistance below the head. The head of a singleton baby should be engaged. Cervix should be at least 6 cm dilated (preferably only cervical rim may be left behind). Contraindications: Any presentation other than vertex (face, brow, breech) Preterm fetus (<34 weeks). Chance of scalp avulsion or sub-aponeurotic haemorrhage. Suspected fetal coagulation disorder. Suspected fetal macrosomia

2

AB

BE

CA

DB

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

a993e1b7-4bc9-46e6-9132-69e5a4113cd3

multi

Vidian neurectomy done in:

ANSWER: (B) Vasomotor rhinitisREF: P L Dhingra 4th edition page 160, 1810%2806%2900013-3/abstractVidian neurectomy was first described for the treatment of intractable vasomotor rhinitisin the 1960s but fell into disrepute because of the recurrence of symptoms and significant complications. With subsequent improvements in the understanding of the nasal and sinus anatomy, endoscopic vidian neurectomy can now? be performed with minimal dissection and morbidityThe principle underlying vidian neurectomy is to sever the preganglionic fibers that reach the sphenopalatine ganglion through the vidian nerve. Several routes have been described to approach the deep seated vidian nerve:Trans antral Trans eptalTranspalatalTransethmoidal andTrans nasalThe most popular approach to the vidian nerve is the Transantral route.

2

Allergic rhinitis

Vasomotor rhinitis

Atrophic rhinitis

Drug-induced rhinitis

ENT

Rhinitis

7a8275bb-3536-40e7-9fb5-5144684a3f6f

multi

Capnography is useful for –

Uses of Capnography It is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubation in the trachea. Incorrect position of the tube in oesophagus instead of the trachea (oesophagal intubation) will yield ETCO2 = 0. Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will become zero. Obstruction or disconnections of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will fall. Diagnosing malignant hyperthermia → ETCO2 increases significantly (more than 100 mg Hg).

3

Determining Vaporizer malfunction or contamination

Determining circuit hypoxia

Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube

Detecting concentration of oxygen in the anesthetic circuit.

Anaesthesia

null

09557f67-2898-4fa2-a172-a90ca2212bc7

single

All are true statements about plant irritants except:

Abrus injection (sui needle) resembles viper snake bite. Ricinius communis produces diarrhea (cholera like action). Nux vomica contains strychnine, brucine and loganin.

1

Abrus ingestion resembles cobra snake bite.

Nux vomica contain strychnine.

Sui-picking involves abrus precatorius

Cholera like action is produced by ricinus communis

Forensic Medicine

Toxicology - 3

b009a7d2-d412-499d-b9a4-83585e22deb1

multi

Caspases are involved in -

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Apoptosis o Caspases and endonuclease cause chromatin fragmentation in apoptosis,o They are inactive, so first they should be activated,o Cytochrome 'c' binds with Apaf-1 and this complex activates caspases.o Caspases cause fragmentation of chromatin and also activate endonuclease.About option 'b'o Though Apaf-1 helps in activation of caspases, it has no role in chromatin fragmentation and It does not have two seprate forms active or inactive. It just forms complex with cytochrome 'C' to activate caspases.Neet Points about Apoptosiso Mitochondrion is the critical organelle required for apoptosis.o Chromatin condensation is the most characteristic feature.o Cell shrinkage is seen.o Gel electrophoresis demonstrates 'step ladder pattern'.o Annexin V is the marker for apoptosis.o CD 95 is the molecular marker for apoptosis.

1

Apoptosis

Pinocytosis

Cell signaling

Cell injury

Pathology

Apoptosis

17db0828-b126-41dd-a8d9-28802c614829

single

NOT true about LENS among the following is

Lens has no posterior epithelium in postnatal life.

3

Pre - equatorial are of lens capsule is the thickest part measuring 22-23 μm

Anterior epithelium is made up of single layer of Cuboidal Cells

Posterior epithelium in postnatal life is made up of Cuboidal epithelium

Relative dehydration in Cortex is due to action of Na+ – K+ ATPase pump

Ophthalmology

null

e872e5e1-527a-4d63-8a4b-0e6d22fb23c2

multi

The sarcoma which has equal propensity for maxilla and mandible is:

Chondrosarcomas are unusual in the facial bones, accounting for about 10% of all cases. They occur in the mandible and maxilla with equal frequency. Maxillary lesions typically occur in the anterior region in areas where cartilaginous tissues may be present in the maxilla. Mandibular lesions occur in the coronoid process, condylar head and neck, and occasionally the symphyseal region. Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 440

4

Fibrosarcoma

Osteosarcoma

Ewing’s sarcoma

Chondrosarcoma

Radiology

null

fda5f83f-cbfd-4020-a61f-e2719eb922a5

single

Cholinomimetics are useful in all of the following conditions except:

Ans. (D) Partial heart block(Ref: KDT 8th/e p119/122)Cholinergic drugs decrease the conduction from atrium to ventricle, thus should be avoided in partial heart blockCholinergic drugs like pilocarpine and physostigmine are used in angle closure glaucomaNeostigmine (acetylcholineesterase inhibitor, a cholinergic drug) is used for treatment of myasthenia gravisNeostigmine is also used for post operative paralytic ileus and post operative urinary retention.

4

Glaucoma

Myasthenia gravis

Post operative atony of bladder

Partial heart block

Pharmacology

A.N.S.

80b49e30-929a-45d8-947b-451cac17bedd

multi

A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible is -

Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis upto 12 months is coagulase-negative staphylococci (staph. epidermidis).

3

Staph. aureus

Strept. viridans

Staph. epidermidis

HACEK

Microbiology

null

e0c1f8f3-b0be-46e6-9e59-33baff786eff

single

A community in sub-African area has a weekly repo of 50-60 malarial cases, all in children. No adult case has been repoed. This week count of cases is 55. What kind of disease it would be classified as?

The above given case is an example of endemic disease as the no. of cases are still between the usually expected cases in an area and as only children are affected it is a holoendemic disease. Hyperendemic disease Refers to endemic disease affecting all age groups. It would have been labelled as epidemic if the no. of cases show an abrupt increase than expected cases in an area.

2

Epidemic

HoloEndemic

Hyperendemic

Outbreak

Social & Preventive Medicine

Time Distribution, Epidemics

024a9c2b-977a-4a99-9d93-f2b21a3a474b

multi

A 67-year-old male is found on rectal examination to have a single, hard, irregular nodule within his prostate. A biopsy of this lesion reveals the presence of small glands lined by a single layer of cells with enlarged, prominent nucleoli. From what poion of the prostate did this lesion most likely originate?

Knowledge of the anatomic division of the prostate is impoant in understanding the locations of the major pathologic diseases of the prostate. Most adenocarcinomas of the prostate originate in the peripheral zone, while hyperplastic nodules originate in the transition zone. This anatomic differentiation is the result of the physiologic fact that the transition zone is paicularly estrogen-sensitive, while the peripheral zone is paicularly androgensensitive. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is formed from testosterone by the action of 5-a-reductase, is responsible for the development of the prostate during fetal growth and also at the time of pubey. With aging, DHT levels are increased in the prostate, where DHT binds to nuclear DNA and causes prostatic hyperplasia. This hyperplastic effect by DHT is augmented by estrogen, which appears to function by induction of androgen receptors, and therefore this hyperplasia occurs in the poion of the prostate that is paicularly estrogen-sensitive. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition

3

Anterior zone

Central zone

Peripheral zone

Transition zone

Pathology

miscellaneous

22444b87-d3db-44c2-a731-845c674e2d2a

multi

Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in the:

null

3

Nucleus

Ribosomes

Mitochondria

Nonparticulate cytoplasm

Biochemistry

null

2bed5633-0fab-45dd-a8fe-2ab6245ccd38

single

What is true regarding congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis

Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis is more common in first born males.Symptoms usually sta after 3 weeks of age.Non-bilious vomiting is the initial symptom. After vomiting, the infant becomes hungry and wants to feed again.The metabolic disturbance is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.Clinical diagnosis is by palpation of hyperophic mass, confirmed by USG.The surgical procedure of choice is Ramstedt pylorotomy.Ref: Nelson 17th/e p1229

2

More common in girls

Hypochloremic alkalosis

Hellers myotomy is the procedure of choice

Most often manifests at bih

Medicine

All India exam

d024d905-ba6b-4c09-b53a-a8808ba1f2d8

multi

Most common symptom seen in pulmonary tuberculosis is

(D) Chronic Cough # Constitutional symptoms associated with Pulmonary tuberculsosi include Chronic productive cough for atleast 2 or 3 weeks Low grade evening raise of temperature Loss of apetite Significant weight loss Night cries in bone and joint tuberculosis

4

Chest pain

Breathlessness

High temperature

Chronic Cough

Medicine

Miscellaneous

800b8fa4-83ba-412c-9c43-050f17da13cd

single

The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:

Answer is C (Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis): Renal scarring is most commonly a result of chronic pyogenic infection of the kidney or chronic pyelonephritis. Chronic pyelonephritis occurs only in patients with major anatomic abnormalities, such as obstructive uropathy, struvite calculi, or, most commonly, VUR (in 30 to 45% of young children with symptomatic UTI). - Mercks manual ( `In children < 10 yr, about 30 to 50% of UTIs are associated with vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) which can lead to renal scarring and renal insufficiency if not treated' - Merck's manual Remember :Renal tuberculosis is always secondary to some primary focus elsewhere in body and occurs later in life then other forms (commonly around 20-40 years age group.)

3

Trauma

Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.

Interstitial nephritis

Medicine

null

1bb94866-07c1-4b49-9a8a-0cf7326df65e

single

Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa ?

option a - 100% Glucose is reabsorbed from PCT by secondary active transpo, with the help of SGLT (Sodium Dependent Glucose Transpoer).

1

Early PCT

Henle loop

Collecting duct

Distal convoluted tubule

Biochemistry

Glucose Transpo

b157af8a-a205-4895-88f7-6055f03b5b10

single

Wide-split second hea sound is seen in -

The second hea sound is widelysplit and is relatively fixed in relation to respiration. A mid-diastolicrumbling murmur, loudest at the fouh intercostal space and alongthe left sternal border, reflects increased flow across the tricuspidvalve. In ostium primum ASD, an apical holosystolic murmur indicatesassociated mitral or tricuspid regurgitation or a ventricularseptal defect (VSD).These findings are altered when increased pulmonary vascularresistance causes diminution of the left-to-right shunt. Both thepulmonary outflow and tricuspid inflow murmurs decrease inintensity, the pulmonic component of the second hea sound anda systolic ejection sound are accentuated, the two components ofthe second hea sound may fuse, and a diastolic murmur of pulmonicregurgitation appears. Cyanosis and clubbing accompanythe development of a right-to-left shunt (see "Ventricular SeptalDefect" below). In adults with an ASD and atrial fibrillation, thephysical findings may be confused with mitral stenosis with pulmonaryhypeension because the tricuspid diastolic flow murmurand widely split second hea sound may be mistakenly thought torepresent the diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis and the mitral"opening snap," respectively. Harrison's principle of internal medicine,20th edition,pg no.1445

1

ASD

LBBB

PDA

MR

Medicine

C.V.S

52c57139-6208-4e15-acc0-a5abd57237d2

single

Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the following except: September 2007

Ans. C: Maternal alpha feto-protein level The two earliest tests that were introduced in the 1970's to assess fetal lung maturity were: The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio Detection of phosphatidylyglycerol Originally, both of these tests were performed by thin-layer chromatography (TLC), a technique that required considerable expeise and was both time-consuming and expensive to perform. In the early 1990's another test was developed. The TDx-FLM assay : This test employs fluorescence polarization to measure the ratio of surfactant to albumin (S/ A) in uncentrifuged amniotic fluid. It is simple, quantitative, can be performed in 60 minutes or less and is highly reproducible. TDx-FLM results correlate well with the L/S ratio and PG and with clinical outcomes. Another simple, rapid, and accurate test that can be performed on amniotic fluid to assess fetal lung maturity is the lamellar body (LB) count. LB are made by the type II cells in the alveoli that produce surfactant and, indeed, they are the packages in which surfactant is stored. They are released into the amniotic fluid from the lungs in increasing quantities that parallel surfactant production. Another test actually measures the functional capacity of the surfactants that are present in the amniotic fluid. This test is called the foam stability index (FSI). It too is simple, inexpensive, and can be rapidly performed.

3

Lecithin:sphingomyelinn ratio

Foam stability index

Maternal alpha feto-protein level

Amniotic fluid phosphatidylcholine level

Pediatrics

null

c25d3d06-97da-4e49-b474-dd15b916bcb9

multi

Health promotion is which level of prevention

Primary Level - Health Promotion and Specific Protection. Secondary Level - Early Diagnosis and Treatment. Tertiary Level - Disability Limitation and Rehabilitation.

2

Primordial

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

fcd25cfd-28f2-4d4d-acc4-b3313dda7adc

single

Miller's acidogenic theory of caries is also known as:

null

2

Proteolytic theory.

Chemioparasitic theory.

Proteolytic chelation theory.

None of the above.

Pathology

null

8d8c9639-f89f-4f79-ad16-48851d0a1e2c

multi

Sensory nerve supply of larynx below the level of vocal cord is

NERVE SUPPLY OF LARYNX Motor:- All the muscles which move the vocal cord (abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except the cricothyroid muscle. The latter receives its innervation from the external laryngeal nerve-- a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Sensory:- Above the vocal cords, larynx is supplied by internal laryngeal nerve--a branch of superior laryngeal, and below the vocal cords by recurrent laryngeal nerve. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-298

3

External branch of superior laryngeal nerve

Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Inferior pharyngeal nerve

ENT

Larynx

bc5fb7e2-c5d7-4ed2-ae58-8c69a83394db

single

Narrowing of periodontal ligament in labially placed mandibular canine with age is due to:

null

1

Due to deposition of cementum and bone

Down growths of gingival epithelium

Gingival cysts formed from cell rests

Reversal of function of horizontal and oblique fibres

Dental

null

a7478b5a-2972-4e03-97c3-dfe4d5eeabe8

multi

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action

Disopyramide It is a quinidine like Class IA drug that has prominent cardiac depressant and anticholinergic actions, but no a adrenergic blocking propey. Disopyramide usually has no effect on sinus rate because of opposing direct depressant and antivagal actions. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-530

3

Quinidine

Lignocaine

Disopyramide

Procainamide

Pharmacology

Cardiovascular system

1f4c75b3-46a3-4b9f-a3ad-6ae61985fca1

single

Most potent mineralocoicoid is

Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocoicoid. Not used clinically because of the low oral bioavailability. most potent synthetic or man made is- fludrocoisone- having more mineralocoicoid activity (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 282)

1

Aldosterone

DOCA

Fludrocoeisone

Triamcinolone

Pharmacology

Endocrinology

17eb85b1-2fe6-47d3-b6fe-e53aa19d2c03

single

Which of the following is the most abundant diet of animal origin?

The triacylglycerols are esters of the trihydric alcohol glycerol and fatty acids and are available abundantly in animal diet Ref: Harper's Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 21; Lipids of Physiologic Significance

4

Phospholipids

Cholesterol esters

Cholesterol

Triglycerides

Physiology

General physiology

e975d179-37c5-454f-add0-dc3809875a66

single

ulimia nervosa is assosiated with

Bulimia nervosa * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Binge eating at least once a week for 3 months * Uses laxatives, diuretics, self-induced vomiting * Association= * Impulsive behaviors * increased interest in sex * They may be of normal weight * Less secretive * Mood disorders * Complication * Electrolyte abnormalities * Hypokalemia * Hypochloremia alkalosis * Russel's sign==== as these patients uses their fingers to be stick out in the throat and vomit, there is a lesion in meta carpo phalangeal joints. * Drugs * Carbamazepine * MAOI * SSRI Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no 509

1

impulsive behaviour

obesity

metabolic syndrome

amnorrhera

Anatomy

Sleep disorders and eating disorders

d4cd674c-3a81-41e3-9103-38105e6ea463

single

Ram Devi presented with generalized edema sweatingand flushing tachycardia and fever after bee sting. Thisis:

. IgE mediated reaction

2

T cell mediated cytotoxicity

IgE mediated reaction

IgG mediated reaction

IgA mediated hypersensitivity reaction

Pathology

null

db175a52-bf16-40b7-8cbc-882eb2cd34ac

single

A 3-year-old child reports with fever. He has reddish yellow ulcers of the facial mucosa and tongue. He is most probably suffering from:

null

2

Erosive lichen planus

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

ANUG

Leukemia

Dental

null

18b19b47-81c9-4265-9988-17601c622589

single

Patient present with severe energy deficiency. Which of the following vitamin might be deficient in this patient?

The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate, which plays a key role in energy metabolism of most cells, is paicularly impoant in tissues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of these two dehydrogenase-catalyzed reactions is decreased, resulting in a decreased production of ATP and, thus, impaired cellular function. 1. Beriberi: This is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet. Signs of infantile beriberi include tachycardia, vomiting, convulsions, and, if not treated, death. The deficiency syndrome can have a rapid onset in nursing infants whose mothers are deficient in thiamine. Adult beriberi is characterized by dry skin, irritability, disordered thinking, and progressive paralysis. 2. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome:In the United States, thiamine deficiency, which is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism, is due to dietary insufficiency or impaired intestinal absorption of the vitamin. Some alcoholics develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome--a thiamine deficiency state characterized by apathy, loss of memory, ataxia, and a rhythmic to-and-fro motion of the eyeballs (nystagmus). The neurologic consequences of Wernicke&;s syndrome are treatable with thiamine supplementation. Reference: Lippincott edition 5, pg no. 379

3

Pyridoxine

Riboflavin

Thiamin

Folic acid

Biochemistry

vitamins

765080b5-7009-49db-a737-e6ebdfb7f3fe

single

Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in

Raynaud phenomenon results from exaggerated vasoconstrictionof aeries and aerioles in the extremities, paicularlythe fingers and toes, but also sometimes the nose,earlobes, or lips. The restricted blood flow induces paroxysmalpallor or cyanosis; involved digits characteristicallyshow "red-white-and-blue" color changes from most proximalto most distal, reflecting proximal vasodilation, centralvasoconstriction, and more distal cyanosis, respectively.Raynaud phenomenon can be a primary entity or may besecondary to other disorders.Secondary Raynaud phenomenon refers to vascular insufficiencydue to aerial disease caused by other entitiesincluding systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, Buerger disease, or even atherosclerosis.(Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no.355)

1

SLE

Rheumatic fever

Hypeension

Diabetes mellitus

Pathology

Cardiovascular system

67fbcfe1-c082-455f-89b6-582f8a4a4689

single

Which of the following is a ground substance of pulp

null

4

Glycosaminoglycans

Chondroitin sulfate

Proteoglycans

All of the above

Dental

null

2e273458-1012-42c6-bba7-d80fe1739536

multi

Primary impact injury to brain: DNB 10

Ans. Concussion

1

Concussion

Cerebral edema

Hypoxic injury

Intracerebral hematoma

Forensic Medicine

null

26423e53-60bb-42f4-af75-a212fe24f194

single

A 55-year old woman was found to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management

Ans. b. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy Radiotherapy was cornerstone of advanced stage CA cervix management. Current evidence indicates that "concurrent chemotherapy" significantly improves overall and disease free survival of women with advanced cervical cancer. Thus most patients with Stage JIB to IVA are best treated with "chemoradiation". Cisplatin containing regimens are associated with best survival rates.

2

Surgery plus chemotherapy

Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy

Chemotherapy

Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

4e78b4e0-be08-4ff1-998a-0b8d1b2f53cc

multi

An appendicular fistula is least likely to heal if ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon

2

The stump was sutured with vicryl

There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon

Superadded infection

null

Surgery

null

4a15aae9-d4aa-489e-a18c-cffac573a254

multi

All of the following are causes of acalculous cholecystitis except:

Causes of Acalculous Cholecystitis Elderly and critically ill patients after trauma Burns Longterm TPN Major operation (abdominal aneurysm repair and cardiopulmonary bypassQ) Diabetes mellitus

2

Bile duct stricture

Schistosoma

Prolonged TPN

Major operations

Surgery

Gallbladder

a4148ac9-580f-404e-9e1f-4dd30608a981

multi

Fibroid causes all the following Except

Symptoms of fibroid are:Menorrhagia, polymenorrhea and metrorrhagia Infeility, recurrent aboionsPainAbdominal lumpPressure symptomsVaginal dischargeAround 50% women are asymptomatic.Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology; Chapter 29; Benign diseases of the uterus

2

Infeility

Amenorrhea

Pelvic mass

Menorrhagia

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Uterine fibroid

172d8173-1ef2-4fa3-88e1-88e0279f998b

multi

Which of the following is not a diarthrosis -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement)o Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow:Synarthrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synarthrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures).Amphiarthrosis - Permits slight mobility. Most amphiarthrosis joints are cartilaginous joints (e.g., intervertebral discs).Diarthrosis - Freely movable. All diarthrosis joints are synovial joints (e.g., shoulder, hip, elbow, knee, etc.), and the terms "diarthrosis" and "synovial joint" are considered equivalent by Terminologia Anatomica

3

Elbow joint

Interphalangeal joint

Skull sutures

Hip joint

Orthopaedics

Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing

b211aaa8-5eb5-4d7f-b651-eedba204c3cc

single

Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to :

Imperforate hymen

1

Imperforate hymen

Asherman's syndrome

Mullerian agenesis

All

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

842a4baa-e6e3-4929-9aa3-a416a4e06e6d

multi

A 53-year-old man develops weakness, malaise, cough with bloody sputum and night sweats. A chest X-ray reveals numerous apical densities bilaterally, some of which are cavitary. Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis was documented 20 years ago, and M. tuberculosis is identified in his sputum. Which of the following describes the expected lung pathology in this patient?

Secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis occurs due to: Reactivation Fresh infection Secondary TB: characterized by the formation of granulomas and extensive tissue destruction (caseous necrosis). Mycobacteria typically spread to the apices of the lungs and produce large cavities, which are associated with hemoptysis. Apical lesion: Supraclavicular- Puhl's focus Infraclavicular- Assmann's focus Hilar LN- not affected. Miliary tuberculosis refers to widespread seeding of bacteria in the lungs and distant organs. Granulomatous inflammation may induce fibrosis as a secondary feature.

3

Dense fibrosis

Eosinophilic infiltration

Granulomas

Plasma cell infiltration

Pathology

Pulmonary Tuberculosis and Lung Abscess

43d83090-8b2b-4f56-81e2-e2f22c19904b

multi

An infant presented with failure to thrive, stridor, otitis media and esophagitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

GERD In infants presents with esophagitis, failure to thrive, obstructive apnea, stridor, otitis media, sinustis.

4

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Duodenal atresia

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Pediatrics

null

ae5665ad-f852-4797-82ed-a43d2cc87561

single

Anatomical snuff box contains:

Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 22, 5th ed. pg. 102* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the hand.* Boundaries of snuff box:# Postero-medial border is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.# Antero-lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus.#The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius.# The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles.

2

Axillary nerve

Radial artery

Brachial artery

Ulnar artery

Anatomy

Hand

aede1d22-b740-45ac-88ff-d5fb3dbc7f0e

single

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli causes:

Option 1 HUS By EHEC or Shigella dysenteriae type 1. Dissemination of toxin- Verocytotoxin or Shiga toxin to glomerular capillaries. Option 2 Ischemic jejunitis: Not caused by any pathogen. Due to local or systemic pathlogy Option 3 Toxic shock syndrome By Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Due to toxins that act as superantigens. Option 4 ETEC Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea in the world. Most common cause of bacterial diarrheas in all ages.

4

Haemolytic uremic syndrome

Ischemic jejunitis

Toxic shock syndrome

Travellers diarrhea

Microbiology

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)

fca1281f-4904-4d2a-95e1-a8cb4cc9ff19

single

All the following statements about purification of water are true except

null

2

Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water

Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination

Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine

Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method and indole production at 44 degrees

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

bed15e65-59f9-425f-abd7-d51fc3d0ce82

multi

CSF is partly absorbed by lymphatics around cranial nerves -

CSF is absorbed through 3 ways: Arachnoid villi and granulations (main) Perineural lymphatics around 1st, 2nd, and 8th cranial nerves and Veins related to spinal nerves.

1

I, II, VII, VIII

I, II, VI, VII

I, III, VII, VIII

I, II, VI, VIII

Anatomy

null

82bb9d20-9f22-4d49-8389-51092bbb18a4

single

Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is characterized by which of the following statements?

All of Koch's postulates have been verified for the relationship between infectious mononucleosis and Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus. However, the relationship between this virus and Burkitt's lymphoma, sarcoid, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is less clear. Infectious mononucleosis is most common in young adults (14 to 18 years of age) and is very rare in young children. There is no specific treatment. Heterophil antibody titer is helpful in diagnosis, but is not expressed as a function of clinical recovery.

3

It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old

It is caused by a rhabdovirus

The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus

Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies

Microbiology

Virology

070688df-853c-4640-9faa-3728ff3e47f1

multi

Level of prolactin, above which is said to be hyperprolactinemia

Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 754 A fact based question. Answer 200

4

50

100

150

200

Unknown

null

98ae17ac-5d68-4e3c-af81-1832a00280a0

multi

Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with

Ans. a (Inquest). (Ref. Parikh, Textbook of FMT, 5th/5)INQUEST (legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain matter of fact). : Section 174 Cr.P.C. -# When a person dies it is necessary to determine the cause of death either natural or unnatural to meet with the requirement of law.# In forensic, an inquest generally means an inquiry into the ca use of death (not due to natural cause).# Types of inquest in India:- Coroner's inquest (Mumbai and culcutta)- Police inquest- Magistrate inquest# Coroner's inquest was abolished in India in the year: 1999.# The most common type of inquest in India: Police inquest.# In India, inquest is NOT carried out by: Doctor# In case of death in prison, inquest can be conducted by: Executive Magistrate.# Supposed to be the best inquest internationally: Medical examiner's inquest.

1

Inquest

Inquiry

Murder

Medical negligence

Forensic Medicine

Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn

58fe4bee-8a6a-40ba-aac7-fcc4f798000d

single