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Dangerous area of the eye is
Any trauma to the ciliary body can cause sympathetic ophthalmitis ; hence it is considered the dengerous area of the eye
3
Retina
Sclera
Ciliary body
Optic nerve
Ophthalmology
Trauma
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Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in:
Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in the gray matter of the spinal cord. They receive axonal collaterals from nearby motor neurons; it inhibits the activity of the same or related adjacent motor neurons. This recurrent inhibition by the Renshaw cell facilitates and sharpens the activity of the projecting motor neuron from which it receives the collaterals.
3
Gray matter of brain
White matter of brain
Gray matter of the spinal cord
White matter of spinal cord
Physiology
null
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Coronary ligaments of the knee joint connect ?
CORONARY LIGAMENT * Fibrous Capsule is attached to periphery of Menisci. * Connects the periphery of the menisci to the tibia * They are the poion of the capsule that is stressed in rotary movements of the knee ref : maheswari 9th ed
1
Menisci to tibia
Menisci to femur
Lateral meniscus to capsule
Anterior horns of both menisci
Orthopaedics
Forearm wrist and hand injuries
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A 55-year-old obese woman complains of declining visual acuity. Funduscopic examination shows peripheral retinal microaneurysms. Urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria and 3+ glucosuria. Serum albumin is 3 g/dL, and serum cholesterol is 350 mg/dL. These clinicopathologic findings are best explained by which of the following mechanisms of disease?
- Given clinical features point towards nephropathy & retinopathy resulted as complication of type-2 DM - Type-2 diabetes mellitus results from complex interplay b/w Underlying insulin resistance in its metabolic target tissues (liver, skeletal muscle & adipose tissue) & Reduction in glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, which fails to compensate for increased demand for insulin. - In obese persons, release of inhibitory mediators from adipose tissue interferes with intracellular signaling by insulin. - Hyperinsulinemia secondary to insulin resistance also downregulates number of insulin receptors on plasma membrane. Other choices are not related to pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes.
1
Peripheral insulin resistance
Increased peripheral insulin uptake
Irregular insulin secretion
none of the above
Pathology
Diabetes
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Thalidomide is useful in: March 2007
Ans. B: Treatment of type II lepra reaction Thalidomide is a sedative-hypnotic, and multiple myeloma medication. The drug is a potent teratogen. Thalidomide was chiefly sold during the late 1950s and early 1960s to pregnant women, as an antiemetic to combat morning sickness. Children were born with severe malformities, including phocomelia, because their mothers had taken thalidomide during pregnancy. Apa from its infamous tendency to induce bih defects and peripheral neuropathy, the main side effects of thalidomide include fatigue and constipation. It also is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis especially when combined with dexamethasone,for treatment of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma patients, concomitant use with zoledronic acid may lead to increased incidence of renal dysfunction. High doses can lead to pulmonary oedema, atelectasis, aspiration pneumonia and refractory hypotension. It is very effective in dermatolgical conditions like: ENL, aphthous stomatitis, Behcet's disease, LE, and prurigo nodularis
2
Treatment of leprosy
Treatment of type II lepra reaction
Treatment of type I lepra reaction
Treatment of neuritic leprosy
Pharmacology
null
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Transitional cell carcinoma bladder caused by
Risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder - 1. Smoking → Major etiological factor. 2. Occupational exposure to chemicals → Nephthylamine benzidine, aniline dyes, acrolein. 3. Schistosoma haematobium (Bilharziasis) → It is a risk factor for both TCC & SCC. 4. Drugs → Phenacetin 5. Cyclophosphamide therapy 6. Pelvic irradiation
1
Schistosomiasis
Ascariasis
Malaria
null
Pathology
null
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Krogmans table system is used for ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sex determination Krogman's table is used to determine the percentage of accuracy in sex determination from isolated skeletal pas.According to Krogman, the degree of accuracy in sexing adult skeletal remains is :-Entire skeleton - 100 %Pelvis alone 95 %
2
Age determination
Sex determination
Dental examination
Calculating estimated height
Forensic Medicine
null
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When gold fused with porcelain is fired at very high temperature, greenish discoloration of cervical margin is due to:
Discoloration of the porcelain near the cervical region of the metal-ceramic prosthesis has been reported to occur when a silver-containing alloy is used as the substrate. Color changes included green, yellow-green, yellow-orange, orange and brown hues. This discoloration  phenomenon has generally been called “greening.” It was likely caused by the colloidal dispersion of silver atoms entering body and incisal porcelain or the glazed surface from vapor transport or surface diffusion. The extent of porcelain discoloration was most severe for higher-silver-content alloys, lighter shades, multiple firing procedures, higher temperatures, body porcelain in direct contact with the alloy, vacuum firing cycles and with certain porcelains containing lower opacifier and higher sodium contents. Silver is added to Au-Ag-Cu casting alloys to offset the reddish hue contributed by Cu. Ref: Phillips 12 ed page no 413
3
High firing temperature
Disintegration of opaque layer
Presence of silver
Formation of excess oxides
Dental
null
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Which glaucoma is associated with cataract
Answer- A. Phacomorphic glaucomaPhocomorphic glaucoma :- It occurs in intumescent stage of cataract. The swollen lens leads to relative pupillary block (pupillary block glaucoma), iris bombe and angle closure. It is a type of angle closure glaucoma and anterior chamber is very shallow.
1
Phacomorphic glaucoma
Neovascular glaucoma
Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma
Buphthalmos
Ophthalmology
null
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Sideroblastic anemia is caused by all except ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron deficit Causes of sideroblastic anemia Hereditary o X-linked recessive sideroblastic anemia. Acquired Hematological Drugs & chemicals Others Myelofibrosis INH RA Myelodysplasia Penicillamine Myxedema Acute leukemia Lead SLE Lymphoma Alcohol Iron overload Myeloma Pyridoxin dificiency Porphyria Polycythemia vera Chloromphenicol Hemolytic anemia
2
Collegen vascular disease
Iron deficit
Lead poisoning
Cutaneous porphyria
Pathology
null
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Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascularisation is/are -
Retinal laser photocoagulation is the ideal treatment for treating diabetic Retinopathy neovascularization. Ref AK khurana 6/e p 282
1
Retinal laser photocoagulation
Pars plana vitrectomy
Phacoemulsion
LASIK
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
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Noninfective cause of genital ulcer is -
Bechet's disease is characterized by a triad of recurrent oral ulcers (aphthous ulcers), recurrent genital ulcers and uveitis. Important non-infective causes of genital ulcer are Trauma, Bechet's disease, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and carcinoma.
1
Behcets disease
Hansen's disease
Ramsons's disease
Syphilis
Dental
null
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45-year-old female has history of slip in bathroom complaints of pain right hip, tenderness in scarpas triangle and normal X-ray. Next investigation is:
(c)This case refers to post-traumatic pain in proximal femur, scarpas triangle refers to area of femoral neck and for stress or occult fracture of neck femur where traumatic marrow edema is seen - MRI is investigation of choice.
3
USG guided aspiration
CT
MRI
Bone scan
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
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A 9 years old child presented to OPD with complaints of high grade fever, vomiting, one episode of seizure. CSF examination was done and Gram staining of the culture showed the following finding. What is the probable causative agent
* Gram staining clearly shows Gram positive cocci (violet/purple coloured) in pairs - classical image of Streptococcus pneumoniae or pneumococci. Infections caused by Pneumococcus: - * Pneumonia * Meningitis * Otitis media * Bacteremia * Septic ahritis * It is the most impoant cause of infections in splenectomy patients, chronic alcoholics, sickle cell anaemia patients. Ref:- Ananthanarayan and Paniker T.B of microbiology 10th ed; pg num:- 225
2
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Escherichia coli
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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CVEK pulpotomy is not known by the name:
null
4
Partial pulpotomy.
Cervical pulpotomy.
Pulp curettage.
null
Dental
null
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Most common site of glioblastoma multiforme is-
Ans. 'b' i.e., Frontal lobe A glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is a type of brain tumour called an astrocytoma. Astrocytomas are some of the most common brain tumours. They develop from the highly vascular and quickly reproducing astrocyte cells in our brain and are often malignant.
2
CP angle
Frontal lobe
Brainstem
Occipital lobe
Pathology
CNS Tumors
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Pataus syndrome due to -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trisomy 13 Trisomv 13 (Patau's syndrome)Head & FaceChestExtremitieso Scalp defects (cutis aplasia )o Congenital heart diseaseo Overlapping of finger &o Microphthalmia, comeal(VSD, PDA, ASD in 80%)toes (Clinodactyly, polydactyly)abnormalitieso Thin posterior ribs (missingo Hypoplastic & hyperconvexo Cleft lip & palate (60-80%)ribs)nailso Microcephaly o Sloping head o Hoioprosencephaly o Capiiary hemangioma o Deafness o Severe developmenal delays & prenatal, postnatal growth retardation & renal abnormalities is seen in trisomy 13.o Only 5% patients of trisomy 13 live more than 6 months.
4
Trisomy 21
Trisomy 18
18 P
Trisomy 13
Pathology
Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects
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"Opioids" differ from "opiates" in that they are:
Opiods are synthetics while opiates are semi synthetic. Opiods include pethidine,fentanyl,methadone,dextropropoxyphene,tramadol. Semisynthetic opiates include heroin ,pholcodine,ethylmorphine . Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
3
More powerful in action
More long acting
Synthetic derivatives
Derived directly from opium
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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Beta HCG is secreted by
In molecular biology, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, a component of the feilized egg, after conception. Following implantation, the syncytiotrophoblast gives rise to the placenta.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-414
4
Ovary
Pituitary
Corpus luteum
Placenta
Physiology
Endocrinology
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An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is -
Solitary collapsed vertebra (vertebra plana) with preserved disc spaces in a child suggests the diagnosis of Eosinophilic granuloma (a type of Histiocytosis).
3
Ewing's sarcoma
Tuberculosis
Histiocytosis
Metastasis
Radiology
null
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Persistent marrow aplasia is caused by which hepatitis virus: September 2006
Ans. D: None of the abovePersistent marrow aplasia appear after a variety of viral infections, most commonly viral hepatitis of the non-A, non-B, non-C, non-G type, which is associated with 5% to 10% of cases.
4
HAV
HBV
HCV
None of the above
Pathology
null
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True regarding secular trends-
.long term or secular trends implies changes in the occurrence of disease over a long period of time.generally several years or decades.a secular trend implies a consistent tendency to change in a paicular direction or a definitive movement in one direction. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 63
4
Changes in disease pattern in terms of months
Changes in disease pattern seasonally
Changes in disease pattern over a sho period of timer
Changes in disease pattern over a long period of time
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Alagille syndrome is
Alagille syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting liver,hea,kidney,etc.Liver biopsy in Alagille syndrome shows too few bile ducts(bile duct paucity) or in some cases,the complete absence of bile ducts(biliary atresia).Bile duct paucity results in reduced absorption of fat & vitamins(A,D,E,K) which may lead to rickets/a failure to thrive in children.
1
Bile duct paucity
IHBR dilation
PBC
PSC
Surgery
G.I.T
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Griesofulvin is not useful in one of the following
Refer CMDT 2010/110 *griesofulvin is used for dermatophytoses including Tinea capitis, Tinea cruris, Tinea pedis, Tinea ungunum and Tinea corporis *Tinea versicolor is caused by yeast Malassezia furfur .it is treated by selenium sulfide AMD ketaconazole shampoo
3
Tinea capitis
Tinea Cruris
Tinea versicolor
Tinea pedis
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Human is dead end host for?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bubonic plague A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle. The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : ? Japanies encephalitis Trichinosis Bubonic plaque Echynococcosis (hydatid disease) Tetanus
3
Malaria
Typhoid
Bubonic plague
Filaria
Microbiology
null
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Mucin secreting Goblet cells are present in all of the following structures, EXCEPT:
The classic example of a unicellular, exocrine gland is the goblet cell, found scattered among epithelial cells lining the trachea, small intestine, and colon. The cell has a narrow base and an expanded apex filled with secretory granules. These cells secrete mucin. Goblet cells are not found in the normal stomach, so the presence of cells with goblet cell morphology represents a clear metaplastic process with intestinal phenotype cells.
4
Small intestine
Large intestine
Esophagus
Stomach
Anatomy
null
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Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia?
Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are the causative agents of cutaneous warts as well as proliferative squamous lesions of mucosal surfaces. Although most infections by human papillomavirus are benign, some undergo malignant transformation into in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Both HPV and polyomavirus have icosahedral capsids and DNA genomes. JC virus, a polyomavirus, was first isolated from the diseased brain of a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who was dying of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). This demyelinating disease occurs usually in immunosuppressed persons and is the result of oligodendrocyte infection by JC virus. JC virus has also been isolated from the urine of patients suffering from demyelinating disease. Cryotherapy and laser treatment are the most popular therapies for warts, although surgery may be indicated in some cases. At the present time, there is no effective antiviral therapy for treatment of infection with polyomavirus or HPV West Nile virus is an arbovirus. While prevalent in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, it was not seen in the United States until the summer of 1999. It is transmitted by mosquitoes and birds, especially crows; these animals are a reservoir. WNV causes a rather mild encephalitis in humans, the exception being older patients or those who may be immunocompromised.
1
Human papillomavirus
West Nile virus
Tick-borne encephalitis virus
Polyomavirus
Microbiology
Virology
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Most commonly injured tarsal bone-
*Calcaneum is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone. ref : maheswari 9th ed
4
Talus
Navicular
Cunieform
Calcaneum
Orthopaedics
Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries
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Who is the Father of Public Health?
Father of Modern medicine - Hippocrates Father of Indian medicine - Charaka Father of Modern surgery - Ambroise pare Father of Indian surgery - Sushruta Father of Epidemiology/ Modern Epidemiology - John Snow Father of Bacteriology - Louis Pasteur Father of Genetics - Mendel Father of Public Health - Cholera Father of Psychoanalysis - Sigmund Freud First distinguished epidermologist - Syndenham
1
Cholera
John snow
Edward Jenner
Louis Pasteur
Social & Preventive Medicine
Disease Causation, Measurements, Milestones
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Which of the following HLA types is associated with IDDM?
Major susceptibility gene for Type 1 DM is located in the HLA region on chromosome 6. 95% of patients with IDDM express HLA DR3 or DR4. Concordance rate of Type 1 DM in identical twins ranges between 40- 60%. Type 2 DM has a strong genetic component. The concordance of type 2 DM in identical twins is between 70 and 90%. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition chapter 344.
1
HLA DR3, DR4
HLA B27
HLA B47
HLA DR2
Medicine
null
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Nernst potential of Na+ is
Equilibrium potential of ions is calculated by NERNST EQUATION. For Na, it is +60 mV to +55mV approximately (REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY -23rd EDITION. Page No-7)
2
94
61
-64
-94
Physiology
General physiology
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Nelson syndrome is associated with:
Nelson syndrome refers to development of ACTH secreting pituitary macroadenoma after therapeutic bilateral adrenalectomy.
4
BRCA2 mutation
Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Bilateral adrenalectomy
Surgery
null
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Which of the following group of enzymes act by mediating transfer of one molecule to another?
Transferases catalyze the transfer of groups such as methyl or glycosyl groups from a donor molecule to an acceptor molecule e.g., hexokinase. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Pages 49-50; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 31
4
Lyases
Oxidases
Peptidases
Transferases
Biochemistry
null
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The three germ cell layers in embryo separate by the process of?
Ans. C. Gastrulation.(Ref: Langman's Medical Embryology 9th/pg. 65).Longman's Medical Embryology 9th/pg. 65.........."The most characteristic event occurring during the third week of gestation is gastrulation, the process that establishes all three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) in the embryo. Gastrulation begins with formation of the primitive streak on the surface of the epiblast. Thus, the epiblast, through the process of gastrulation, is the source of all of the germ layers, and cells in these layers will give rise to all of the tissues and organs in the embryo".GASTRULATION# Definition: Gastrulation is a process that establishes the three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.- This process is first indicated by the formation of the primitive streak within the epiblast.- The formation of the primitive streak is one of the first signs of gastrulation.# It is characterized as a furrow in the midline of the embryonic disk at the future caudal end of the embryo. This furrow is formed by the ingression of epiblast cells that will go on to form the definitive endoderm and mesoderm by replacing hypoblast cells.# The epiblast cells then develop into the definitive ectoderm. Gastrulation, or formation of the germ layers, continues in caudal segments while cranial structures are differentiating, causing embryo to develop cephalocaudally.Educational points:# Week 2: Bilaminar germ disc# Week 3: Trilaminar germ disc (Gastrulation, Primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm and its organization, and neural plate begin to form)# Week 4: Four limbs appear.Heart begins to beat.# Week 3-8 (Embryonic Period): Neural tube formed by neuroectoderm,closes by wk 4.0rganogenesis. Extremely susceptible to teratogens.# Week 6: Fetal cardiac activity visible by transvaginal ultrasound.# Week 10: Genitalia have male/female characteristics.Tumors Associated With GastrulationSometimes, remnants of the primitive streak persist in the sacrococcygeal region. These clusters of pluripotent cells proliferate and form tumors, known as sacrococcygeal teratomas, that commonly contain tissues derived from all three germ layers. This is the most common tumor in newborns. These tumors may also arise from primordial germ cells (PGCs) that fail to migrate to the gonadal ridge.
3
Ovulation
Neurilation
Gastrulation
All of the above
Anatomy
Fertilization and Development of Embryo
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Id, ego, superego are terms coined by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid freud IMPOANT CONTRIBUTORS IN PSYCHIATRY Term Demence precoce Coined by Dementia precox Catatonia, cyclotymia Hebephrenia Schizophrenia Ambivalence Free association Psychoanalysis, Psychodynamics Id, ego, Superego Psychiatry Moral Emil Kraepelin Kahlbaum Hecker Eugen Bleuler Eugen Bleuler Sigmund Freud Sigmunnd Freud Sigmund Freud Johann christion Rei
1
Sigmand Freud
Bleuler
Moral
Kraepelin
Psychiatry
null
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According to Kim's classification of microsurgical cases, which class represents a tooth with an apical lesion and complete denudation of the buccal plate but no mobility:
Kim's classification of microsurgical cases   Class A: Represents a tooth with no periradicular lesion, no mobility, and normal pocket depth. The clinical symptoms have not resolved, though non-surgical options have been exhausted. Clinical symptoms are the only reason for the surgery. Class B: Represents a tooth with presence of a small periradicular lesion with clinical symptoms. The tooth has normal periodontal probing depth and no mobility. The teeth in this class are ideal candidates for microsurgery. Class C: Represents a tooth that has a large periradicular lesion, progressing coronally; without periodontal pocket and mobility. Class D: Represents a tooth that is clinically similar to that in Class C, but has deep periodontal pockets. Class E: Represents a tooth that has a large periradicular lesion with an endodontic-periodontal communication to the apex, but no obvious fracture. Class F: Represents a tooth with an apical lesion and complete denudation of the buccal plate, but no mobility. Textbook of Endodontics Nisha GARG 3rd ED
4
Class C
Class D
Class E
Class F
Dental
null
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Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is charactersitic of -
Sagittal (central) lesions of the chiasma. These are characterised by bitemporal hemianopia and bitemporal hemianopic paralysis of pupillary reflexes. These usually lead to paial descending optic atrophy. Common causes of central chiasmal lesion are: suprasellar aneurysms, tumours of pituitary gland, craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma and glioma of third ventricle, third ventricular dilatation due to obstructive hydrocephalus and chronic chiasmal arachnoiditis. Ref:AK Khurana 4thE pg 290
3
Glaucoma
Optic neuritis
Pituitary tumour
Retinal detachment
Ophthalmology
Neuro-ophthalmology
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'Dropped shoulder' occurs due to paralysis of -
Dropped shoulder occurs due to paralysis of Trapezius.
3
Deltoid
Teres major
Trapezius
Serratus anterior
Anatomy
null
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Cullen's sign is seen in
Signs indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding in severe pancreatitis Flank ecchymosis - Grey Turner sign Periumbilical ecchymosis- Cullen's sign Inguinal ecchymosis - Fox sign Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1527
3
Acute cholecystitis
Acute pancreatitis
Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
Blunt injury abdomen
Anatomy
G.I.T
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A young lady lost her job, loss of appetite wakes up at 3 am. What's the diagnosis
In this question, the details are inadequate, however among the given options the best answer is A, depression
1
Depression
Schizophrenia
OCD
Mania
Psychiatry
Mood disorders
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Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with which of the following
Ans. a. Oral cavity Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with oral cavity. "The site of index cancer influences the most likely site of a second primary malignancy, as an example, in a series of 1257 patients with SCC of the head and neck, patients with an index malignancy arising in the larynx were more like to develop a second primary cancer in the lung, while those arising in the oral cavity were more likely to develop a second primary in the head and neck or esophagus. This relationship has been observed in other studies as well."- Second primary malignancies in patients with head and neck cancers by Sandeep Samant, Head and Neck 2005; 27; 1042 Patients with head and neck SCC are at increased risk for the development of second primary malignancies compared with general populationQ. These second primary malignancies typically develop in the aerodigestive tract (lung, head and neck, esophagus)Q. MC second primary malignancy: Lung cancerQ Highest relative increase in risk is for a second head and neck cancerQ
1
Oral cavity
Hypopharynx
Larynx
Paranasal sinuses
Surgery
null
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Treatment of choice in a perimenopausal woman with bleeding PV due to multiple fibroids Is :
TAH
2
TAH with BSO
TAH
Vaginal hystrectomy
Enucleation of fibroids
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Transmigration of WBC across the endothelium is called
Ans. (d) Diapedesis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 76-77)Migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium, is called transmigration or diapedesis.It is mediated by PECAM-1
4
Margination
Rolling
Pavementing
Diapedesis
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
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All can be used for systemic fungal infections except :
null
4
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Amphotericin B
Griseofulvin
Pharmacology
null
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In Down's syndrome -
null
4
Gap (sandle gap)
Cliodactyly
Hypotonia
All
Medicine
null
dc196982-0cee-4434-a4a0-ea8a446ef857
multi
The EEG cabins should be completely shielded by a continuous sheet of wire mesh of copper to avoid the picking of noise from external electromagnetic distrubances. Such a shielding is called as -
null
3
Maxwell cage
Edison's cage
Faraday cage
Ohm's cage
Radiology
null
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multi
A 12 year old boy has a productive cough characterized by large volumes of foul-smelling sputum. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with pancreatic insufficiency, as evidenced by repetitive gastrointestinal symptoms of steatorrhea. After culture of the sputum, colorless, oxidase-positive colonies with a fruity aroma develop on the agar. The function of which of the following proteins is most likely inhibited by the bacteria responsible for this boy's infection?
The boy is displaying the characteristic symptoms of cystic fibrosis with bronchiectasis (accounting for the foul-smelling sputum) and pancreatic insufficiency, producing steatorrhea. However, the question directly relates to the infectious agent causing the pneumonia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, an oxidase-positive bacteria with a fruity aroma. P. aeruginosa is a strictly aerobic gram-negative rod that produces an exotoxin (exotoxin A) that ADP-ribosylates, and therefore inhibits, eukaryotic elongation factor 2 (eEF-2), which is a G-protein involved in the eukaryotic translation of proteins. The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conduction regulator (CFTR) protein is the product of the cystic fibrosis gene, a large 24 exon gene located on the long arm of chromosome 7 (7q31). This protein has two nucleotide binding domains. In 70% of the families with the disease, a three base pair deletion at codon 508 of exon 10 results in the deletion of a phenylalanine (DF508). This codon is critical for one of the nucleotide binding sites of the CF gene product, resulting in poor channel in the apical membrane of epithelial cells. The defective chloride channel leads to impaired secretion of chloride in the lumen and promotes the absorption of sodium inside the cells. Water follows, concentrating the airway secretions. The increased viscosity of the airway secretions predisposes the patient to repeated infections. A GTP-binding protein similar to the one coupled with & alpha;2-adrenergic receptors refers to a G-protein that inhibits adenylate cyclase, lowering cAMP. This G-protein is sensitive to Peussis toxin. A GTP-binding protein similar to the one coupled with & beta;-adrenergic receptors refers to a G-protein that stimulates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP. This G-protein is sensitive to cholera toxin. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 16. Pseudomonads, Acinetobacters, and Uncommon Gram-Negative Bacteria. In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
2
A CFTR protein lacking a phenylalanine in exon 10 at position 508
A GTP-binding protein involved in the elongation step of protein synthesis
A GTP-binding protein similar to the one coupled with & alpha 2-adrenergic receptors
A GTP-binding protein similar to the one coupled with & beta-adrenergic receptors
Microbiology
null
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multi
Patient with a history of fall presents weeks later with headache and progressive neurological deterioration. The diagnosis is:-
Chronic Subdural Hematoma Chronic SDH: collection of blood breakdown products that is at least 3 weeks old Chronic SDHs often occur in patients without a clear history of head trauma, as they may arise from minor trauma . A chronic SDH >1 cm or any symptomatic SDH should be surgical drained .
3
Acute subdural hemorrhage
Extradural hemorrhage
Chronic subdural hemorrhage
Fracture skull
Surgery
Cerebrovascular Diseases
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multi
Vaginal bleeding in a neonate is commonly due to:
Hormonal withdrawal
3
Sarcoma boytroides
Trauma of delivery
Hormonal withdrawal
Viral infection
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1d254d63-92aa-4c07-841b-6efc97fe944c
single
True statement about standard normal curve:
(Refer: K. Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:886 ) Normal distribution Gaussian / Standard distribution Symmetric with respect to same mean, median & mode & frequencies tapers off rapidly and symmetrically on both sides
1
Equal distribution on either side of the curve
The total area under the curve is 2
Its mean is 1
Standard deviation is 0
Unknown
null
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multi
You have given ViPS vaccine to a person. How often will you ask him to take booster doses?
The injectable typhoid vaccine ViPS is a single dose vaccine which requires booster doses every 3 year. Ty21a vaccine is the oral typhoid vaccine. 3 doses are taken on day 1,3 and 5. It is effective for up to 7 years after last dose. It is recommended in people travelling to endemic areas and during out breaks. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 215
3
Every year
Every 2 year
Every 3 year
Every 4 year
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
A pt. was treated with amitryptiline for depression developed urinary retention, constipation and blurring of vision, most likely cause is :
Ans. is 'a' Anticholinergic side effects Tricyclic Antidepressants have prominent Anticholinergic side effects. Symptoms are -Dry mouthBad TasteBlurred vision (mydriasis)ConstipationUrinary retentionEpigastric distress
1
Anticholinergic side effects
Expressed symptoms of depression
Superadded prostatic enlargement
Any of the above
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy Management of Children and Adolescents
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multi
Paraplegia involves;
Paraplegia is due to impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower extremities.
2
Both the upper limb.
Both the lower limb .
One upper and lower limb.
Any of the above.
Medicine
null
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In shigella dysentry associated Hemolytic Uremic syndrome, the false statement is
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a well-described process that is known to cause severe renal dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. HUS is typically associated with toxins (shiga-like and shigella toxin) found in strains of E. coli and Shigella spp . Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), which is comprised of the triad of haemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and renal insufficiency, occurs in about 13% of dysenteric patients with shigellosis due to Shigella dysenteriae type 1 (SD1) infections, who are mostly children less than five years old. HUS is most common in children. It is the most common cause of acute kidney failure in children. Several large outbreaks have been linked to undercooked hamburger meat contaminated with E coli. Symptoms STEC-HUS often begins with vomiting and diarrhea, which may be bloody. Within a week, the person may become weak and irritable. People with this condition may urinate less than normal. Urine output may almost stop. Red blood cell destruction leads to symptoms of Irritability Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
Leucocytosis
Neurological abnormalities
Hepatic Failure
Thrombatic Angiopathy
Pediatrics
Urinary tract
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Which of the following is not used in enterococcal infection?
Ans: d (Cephalexin) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 830; Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 733Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins; therefore this class of antibiotics should not be used for treatment of enterococcal infections. Usual treatment for enterococci is combination of penicillin or ampicillin with an aminoglycoside. If patient is penicillin allergic, vancomycin can be used instead.Treatment options for anti biotic-resistant enterococcal infectionsResistance PatternBeta-Lactamase productionRecommended TherapyGentamicin plus ampicillin/sulbactam, amoxicillin/clavulanate, imipenem, or vancomycinBeta-Lactam resistance, but no beta-lactamase productionGentamicin plus vancomycinHigh-level gentamicin resistanceStreptomycin-sensitive isolate: Streptomycin plus ampicillin or vancomycinStreptomycin-resistant isolate; No proven therapy(continuous-infusion ampicillin, prolonged treatment)Vancomycin resistanceAmpicillin plus gentamicinVancomycin and beta-lactam resistanceNo uniformly bactericidal drugs; linezolid (all enterococci) or quinupristin/dalfopristin ( only)Linezolid is a member of the oxazolidinediones, a new class of synthetic antimicrobials.It is active against gram-positive organisms including staphylococci, streptococci, enterococci, gram-positive anaerobic cocci, and gram-positive rods such as corynebacteria and Listeria monocytogenes.It is primarily a bacteriostatic agent except for streptococci, for which it is bactericidal. The principal toxicity of linezolid is hematologic-reversible and generally mild.Thrombocytopenia is the most common manifestationNeutropenia may also occur, most commonly in patients with a predisposition to or underlying bone mairow suppression.Linezolid is 100% bioavailable after oral administrationLinezolid is approved for vancomycin-resistant E.faeciuminfections; nosocomial pneumonia; community- acquired pneumonia; and skin infections, complicated or uncomplicated. It should be reserved for treatment of infections caused by multidrug-resistant gram-positive bacteria.TEICOPLANINTeicoplanin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is very similar to vancomycin in mechanism of action and antibacterial spectrum. It can be given intramuscularly as well as intravenously.Teicoplanin has a long half-life (45-70 hours), permitting once-daily dosing.It is indicated in enterococcal endocarditis, MRSA and penicillin resistant streptococcal infections, osteomyelitis, as alternative to vancomycin.
4
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Teichoplanin
Cephalexin
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain -a) Reticulocytesb) Basophilic stipplingc) Heinz bodiesd) Howell-Jolly bodiese) Cabot ring
Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films. They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophilic granules are basophilic and stains blue. Hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red. Various modifications available are Leishman’s stain, Wright’s stain, Giemsa and Jenner’s stain. Basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly body and Cabot rings are seen by Romanowsky stain. Basophilic stippling: These are small blue or black granules in red cells seen in megaloblastic anemia, heavy metal poisonings, etc. Howell-Jolly Body: These are remnants of the nucleus seen as small, round dark blue particles near the periphery of the cells; found in postsplenectomy, asplenia and severe hemolytic anemia. Cabot ring: These are pale staining nuclear remnants in the form of rings or figure of eight seen in hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia, leukemia and after splenectomy. These are arginine rich and acidophilic. Heinz bodies are denatured hemoglobin which does not stained with Romanowsky stain. It is demonstrated by supravital stains such as crystal violets. Reticulocytes also require Supravital staining.
4
abcd
bcde
acde
abde
Pathology
null
21221870-22db-4e25-b5da-7262819e5ab5
single
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone therapy ?
null
4
Pulmonary Fibrosis
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
Systemic lupus erythematosis
Pharmacology
null
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Drug used for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting:
Ans. (A) Prazosin(Ref: Harrison 20th/e p3329)Scorpion sting is a dreadful medical emergency.Scorpion stings cause a wide range of symptoms, from severe local reactions to cardiovascular, respiratory and neurological manifestations.Alpha-receptors play vital role in the pathogenesis of cardiac failure and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting.Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker. It dilates veins and arterioles, thereby reducing pre-load and left ventricular impedance without rise in heart rate and renin secretion. It also inhibits sympathetic outflow in central nervous system. It enhances insulin secretion, which is inhibited by venom action. It has also been found useful even in cases with hypotension. Thus, its pharmacological properties can antagonize the hemodynamic, hormonal and metabolic effects of scorpion venom action.
1
Prazosin
Clonidine
Furosemide
Mannitol
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
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single
A boy has developed epistaxis. What is the treatment of choice
Most of the time, bleeding occurs from the Little's area and can be controlled by pinching the nose with thumb and index finger for about 5 min. This will compress the vessels of the Little's area Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 199.
1
Digital pressure
Nasal packing
Cauterization of vessels
Surgical ligation
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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Which of the following is NOT true about amniotic fluid index (AFI)?
Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by adding the veical depths of the largest pocket in each of four equal uterine quadrants. Significant hydramnios is defined by an index greater than 24 cm. Fluid restriction or dehydration may lower the AFI. Peak AFI is seen at approximately 32 weeks followed by a steady decline until 42 weeks. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 21. Disorders of Amnionic Fluid Volume. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
4
It is calculated by adding the veical depths of the largest pocket in each of four equal uterine quadrants
Fluid restriction may lower the AFI
Significant hydramnios is defined by an index greater than 24 cm
There is steady increase in AFI after 36 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Commonest site of oesophagus - squamous cell carcinoma is
OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA,6 th most common carcinoma in the world, can be predisposed to dietary deficiencies, human papillomavirus infections, achalasia cardia, oesophageal webs etc.it is most commonly seen in middle third of oesophagus (50%)and also at lower third(33%) and upper third(17%).in the lower pa adenocarcinoma is common .in India 90%are squamous carcinomas.dysphagia, regurgitation, anorexia, loss of weight, ascites, palpable left supraclavicular lymph nodes are the clinical features. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 806.
2
Upper 2/3
Middle 1/3
Lower 1/3
Crico-esophageal junction
Surgery
G.I.T
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According to myogenic hypothesis of renal autoregulation, the afferent aerioles contract in response to stretch induced by
Most vascular beds have an intrinsic capacity to compensate for moderate changes in perfusion pressure by changes in vascular resistance, so that blood flow remains relatively constant. This capacity is well developed in the kidneys (), but it has also been observed in the mesentery, skeletal muscle, brain, liver, and myocardium. It is probably due in pa to the intrinsic contractile response of smooth muscle to stretch (myogenic theory of autoregulation). As the pressure rises, the blood vessels are distended and the vascular smooth muscle fibers that surround the vessels contract. If it is postulated that the muscle responds to the tension in the vessel wall, this theory could explain the greater degree of contraction at higher pressures; the wall tension is propoional to the distending pressure times the radius of the vessel (law of Laplace; see Chapter 32), and the maintenance of a given wall tension as the pressure rises would require a decrease in radius. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 563
3
NO release
Noradrenaline release
Opening of ca2+ channels
Adenosine release
Physiology
Renal physiology
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An ophthalmoplegic migraine means
Ophthalmoplegic migraine is characterized by recurrent attacks of ophthalmoplegia, following severe migrainous headaches. The condition almost always begins in childhood, and is considered to be rare in adults. However, OM may occur for the first time in adult life. The typical clinical picture of OM includes a child with severe migraine that lasts for several days and is followed soon after, by ptosis and diplopia due to isolated oculomotor nerve palsy, as the headache remits. Pupillary involvement with a 'full blown' pupil is the rule in children.However, pupillary sparing is not uncommon, especially in adults. Abducens nerve involvement is uncommon and trochlear nerve palsy is rare. Recovery is the rule. Rarely, deficits persist after multiple attacks. ref - pubmed.com
1
When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III rd and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania.
When the headache is followed by paial paralysis of the IIIrd nerve on the same side as the hemicrania with out any scotoma.
Headache associated with IIIrd, IVth and VIth nerve paralysis.
Headache associated with optic neuritis
Medicine
All India exam
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single
The monsaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements?
Two monosaccharide units are linked by a glycosidic bond or yield 2 monosaccharide units on hydrolysis. Depending on their reducing property, they are divided into: Nonreducing disaccharides: The functional groups are involved in the glycosidic bond formation, hence free functional groups are not available Reducing disaccharides: Free functional groups are available. Key Concept: Glucose forms part of sucrose and is attached to fructose to form disaccharide i.e.,sucrose.
4
It usually exists in the furanose form
It is a ketose
It possesses an anomeric C-2 carbon atom
It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose
Biochemistry
null
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multi
During ocular surgery, when eye surgeon touches the medial rectus, he asked to assistant to measure heart rate because of
null
1
Occulocardiac reflex
Occulocephalic reflex
Occulovagal reflex
null
Anaesthesia
null
232d8b77-14ad-4ae1-9424-fa8196bdc7b5
multi
A female at 37 wks of gestation has mild labour pain for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1CM dilated but non effaced. What will be the next appropriate management?
This is a nulliparous patient and is in latent phase of labor. Latent phase duration normally in a nulliparous female is less than 20hrs and in a multiparous female its is 14 hours. The optimal treatment for this patient is administer sedation and observe the patient. Prolonged latent phase occur when the duration exceeds the above parameters. It could be due to unripe cervix, false labor or sedation. Prolonged first stage of labor occur when cervix dilates less than 1 cm/hr in nulliparous women and less than 1.5cm/hr in multiparous women. Management of prolonged first stage includes observation, augmentation by amniotomy or oxytocin, and continuous suppo. Cesarean delivery is warranted if maternal or fetal status become non reassuring. Ref: Obstetrics and Gynecology edited by Charles R. B. Beckmann page 106
1
Sedation and wait
Augmentation with syntocin
Cesarean section
Amniotomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Contraceptive LNG-IUD (levonorgesterol intra-uterine device) has the cumulative pregnancy rate at 5 yrs of:
This is the closest choice in reference to the claimed rate by the manufacturer after phase three trials where the five-year cumulative pregnancy rate is 0.7 percent.LNG-IUD releases approximately 20 mcg levonorgestrel per day initially then 10 mcg /day. LNG does not increase the risk of PID. Lesser ectopic pregnancy as compared with copper devices.
1
0.5
1
1.5
2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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single
A 40 year old man has megaloblastic anemia and early signs of neurological abnormality. The drug most probably required is:
Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia and demyelination. It can cause subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord and peripheral neuritis.
4
Folic acid
Iron sulphate
Erythropoietin
Vitamin B12
Pharmacology
Hematology
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single
Study the following carefully -(AI 05)Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is -
X-linked recessive type
4
Autosomal recessive type
Autosomal dominant type
X-Linked dominant type
X-linked recessive type
Unknown
null
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False about Gastric lymphoma is:
Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice [Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. Stomach is the most common extranodal site of lymphoma. It is of two types - Primary & Secondary Primary gastric lymphoma - is lymphoma of the stomach which exhibits no evidence of liver, spleen, mediastinal lymph nodes or bone marrow involvement at the time of diagnosis (regional lymph node involvement may be present) Primary gastric lymphoma is mainly (>95%) Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphoma of B cell origin. Most of the primary lymphomas (about 60%) arise in MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue). MALT is usually associated with chronic H. pylori infection. So low-grade MALT lymphomas are thought to arise because of chronic H. pylori infection. These low grade lymphomas may later on degenerate to high grade lymphomas Immunodeficiency and H. pylori infection are risk factors for B cell lymphoma. Most common site of involvement (like that of adenocarcinoma) is gastric antrum. Secondary gastric lymphoma Stomach is the most common extranodal site of systemic lymphoma. Almost all of them are Non-Hodgkins types Treatment The role of gastric resection is controversial. Recent studies have shown similar disease free 5 year survival rates in patients treated with surgery+chemotherapy+radiotherapy and patients treated with chemotherapy+ radiation therapy alone. (Most patients with high grade gastric lymphomas are now treated with chemoradiation alone, without surgical resection. For disease limited to the stomach and regional nodes, radical subtotal gastrectomy may be performed, especially for bulky tumors with bleeding and/or obstruction.) Most common chemotherapeutic regimen is - CHOP plus rituximab [CHOP stands for cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin,vincristine
3
Stomach is the most common site
Asosciate with H. pylori infection
Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
5 yr survival rate after treatment is 60%.
Surgery
All India exam
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multi
Wimberger ring sign is present in:
Wimberger ring sign - seen in scurvy
2
Rickets
Scurvy
Secondary syphilis
Tuberculosis
Pediatrics
Scurvy
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single
Renal tuberculosis is characterised by -
null
3
Loin pain
Painful hematuria
Sterile pyuria
Constitutional symptoms
Surgery
null
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single
Mycophenolate mofetil is used in
Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant used to prevent rejection of allogeneic cardiac, hepatic, and renal transplants. It is administered orally or intravenously. indications It is used to prevent rejection of organ transplants and for prophylaxis of organ rejection in allogeneic cardiac transplants. Contraindications Known hypersensitivity to this drug or to mycophenolic acid prohibits its use.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition Page no:75
1
Prevention of organ transplantation rejection
Tuberculosis
Leprosy
Methanol posisoning
Physiology
General physiology
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single
Liver cirrhosis is associated with which type of emphysema in Pizz phenotype mutation?
In individuals with the Pizz phenotype, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, its blood levels are less than 15% of normal, and patients are likely to develop panacinar emphysema at a young age; 50% of these patients will develop liver cirrhosis, because the A1AT is not secreted properly and instead accumulates in the liver. A liver biopsy in such cases will reveal PAS-positive, diastase-resistant granules.
2
Centriacinar
Panacinar
Paraseptal
Multifocal
Medicine
null
14e67c31-0045-414c-ad36-8a97d2c7966b
single
An addict presents with increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, yawning and rhinorrhea. These symptoms may occur due to withdrawal of?
Heroin is a semi synthetic derivative of opium. Withdrawal symptoms are lacrimation, sweating, yawning,anxiety,restlessness, rhinorrhoea and tremors seen 8-12 hours after last dose. All the other drugs donot have the above set of side effects. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
1
Heroin
Cocaine
Cannabis
Alcohol
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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single
Chemotherapy for dysgerminoma is:
Management of Dysgerminoma: • The treatment of early dysgerminoma. Surgical – including resection of the primary lesion (unilateral oophorectomy) and proper surgical dissection. • Metastatic Disease – Chemotherapy or Radiation therapy. Chemotherapy: The most frequently used chemotherapy regimens for germ cell tumors are: • BEP – Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin • VBP – Vinblastin, Bleomycin, Cisplatin • VAC – Vincristine, Actinomycin, Cyclophosphamide Results suggest that patients with advanced stage, incompletely resected dysgerminoma have an excellent prognosis when treated with cisplatin based combination chemotherapy. The best regimen is 4 cycles of BEP.
1
Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin
Cyclophophamide, vincristine, prednisolone
Adriamycin, cyclophophamide, cisplatin
Methotrexate, oncovin, cyclophosphamide
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
93d4dad2-b320-428c-b321-989c22fd3d5a
single
Which of the following is a Longer acting Erythropoietin derivative?
Darbopoietin is a Long acting EPO derivative drug. It has a T1/2 24-36 hrs. So it is given once a week. Epoietin has a half life of 6-10 hrs. Uses - Anemia of chronic renal failure(CRF) Anaemia in AIDS patients treated with Zidovudine. Cancer chemotherapy induced anaemia. Preoperative increased blood production for Autologous transfusion during surgery. Oprelvekin is recombinant Interleukin-11 analogue (eleven) Sargramostim is recombinant GM-CSF analogue
2
Sargramostim
Darbepoetin alfa
Dornase alfa
Oprelvekin
Pharmacology
Hematology
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single
Methods of fusing two cells in genetic recombination technique include all of the following techniques, except
Ref: <a href="
4
Fusion mediated by Ethylene Glycol
Fusion mediated by by Electric current
Fusion mediated by viral transformation
Fusion Mediated by altering membrane viscocity
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
b2fe0d72-a8c4-4054-9cba-68489dcdf1a4
multi
Best way to plot the changes of incidence of disease over time is:
null
2
Histogram
Line chart
Scatter diagram.
Ogive.
Dental
null
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single
Sensitivity is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., True positive/true positive + false negative Sensitivity =Number of true positive--------------------------------------------Number of true positives + Number of false negative
1
True positive/true positive + false negative
True positive/false positive + true negative
True negative/true negative + false positive
True negative/false negative + true positive
Social & Preventive Medicine
Screening for Disease
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multi
Topical Mitomycin C is used for _________
Topical application of Mitomycin C after endoscopic dilatation of laryngotracheal stenosis prevents restenosis. Mitomycin-C (MMC) inhibits fibroblast proliferation and synthesis of extracellular matrix proteins, and thereby modulates wound healing and scarring. Mitomycin C is an antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces caespitosus. It is an alkylating agent that undergoes metabolic activation through an enzyme-mediated reduction to generate an alkylating agent that cross-links DNA. Hypoxic tumor stem cells of solid tumors are more sensitive to the cytotoxic actions of mitomycin than normal cells and oxygenated tumor cells. Its main clinical use is in the treatment of squamous cell cancer of the anus along with fluorouracil and radiation therapy. Additional uses are in cancers of: - cervix - stomach - pancreas - lung - bladder (intravesical treatment)
4
Endoscopic treatment of angiofibroma
Treatment of skull base osteomyelitis
Sturge Weber syndrome
Treatment for laryngeal stenosis
ENT
null
c2ae4328-5284-454d-9c5f-7b9583b0e6ab
single
Refsum's syndrome is associated with -
Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Retinitis pigmentosa Associations of retinitis pigmentosa1. Ocular associations : These include myopia, primary open angle glaucoma, microphthalmos, conical cornea and posterior subcapsular cataract.2. Systemic associations : These are in the form of following syndromesLaurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome : It is characterised by retinitis pigmentosa, obesity, hypogenitalism, polydactyly and mental deficiency.Cockayne's syndrome : It comprises retinitis pigmentosa, progressive infantile deafness, dwarfism, mental retardation, nystagmus and ataxia.Refsum's syndrome : it is characterized by retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuropathy and cerebellar ataxia.Usherfs syndrome : It includes retinitis pigmentosa and labyrinthine deafness.Hallgren's syndrome : It comprises retinitis pigmentosa, vestibulo-cerebellar ataxia, congenital deafness and mental deficiency.
1
Retinitis pigmentosa
Xerophthalmia
Chalcosis
Diabetes retinopathy
Ophthalmology
Dystrophies and Degenerations
79bf64f7-5219-44f8-a68b-5a5987ed37db
single
Most common presentation of chronic pancreatitis
Ans. (c) PainRef: Bailey and Love 27th ed; pg. 1230* MC symptom of Chronic pancreatitis - Pain* Site of pain depends on the foci of disease:# Head: Epigastric and Right Subcostal Pain# Left Side pancreas: Back pain# Diffuse pain is also seen sometimes.# Radiation to shoulder also can be seen
3
Nausea
Steatorrhea
Pain
Brittle Type 3 diabetes
Surgery
Pancreas
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The chief cause of perinatal moality in term frank breech presentation is :
Intracranial hemorrhage
1
Intracranial hemorrhage
Prolapse of umbilical cord
Delay in delivery of head
Abnormalities
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Treatment of a cause of Endometriosis at a younger age group :
Ans. is a i.e. Progestin Adolescent Endometriosis : The incidental finding of minimal to mild endometriosis in a young woman without immediate interest in pregnancy is a common clinical problem. 70% of girls with chronic pelvic pain unresponsive to OCP's or NSAID's are affected by endometriosis. Mild disease can be treated by surgical removal of implants at the time of diagnosis followed by continuous administration of low dose combination oral pills to prevent recurrence. More advanced disease can be treated medically for 6 months, followed by continuous OCP's to prevent disease progression. The question now arises - which medical therapy is best suited for young women. Danazol causes virilising side effects and so not should be given to young women. GnRH causes severe osteoporosis and without backup therapy (like progesterone, OCP or tibolone) should not be used in young women especially in adolescent less than 16 years. So, best option is progestin.
1
Progestin
Danazol
GnRH analogues
Hysterectomy with oophorectorny
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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When can one diagnose acute respiratory distress in a child?
Diagnostic criteria of ARDS in children: BERLIN DEFINITION CRITERIA Timing Within 1 wk of a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms Chest X-rays or tomography scan Bilateral opacities not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules Origin of edema Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload Oxygenation Mild: PaO2/FiO2 - 200-300 mm Hg Moderate: PaO2/FiO2 - 100-200 mm Hg Severe: PaO2/FiO2 <100 mm Hg
4
Within 7 days of known insult
Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure
No left ventricular dysfunction
All of the above
Pediatrics
Other Respiratory Disorders
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Not true regarding influenza virus is -
Antigenic drift the gradual sequential change in antigenic structure occurring regularly at frequent intervals. Antigenic drift is due to mutation and selection. It accounts for the periodic epidemics of influenza. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-499
1
All types exhibit antigenic shift
Onlybtype A shows antigenic drift
Drift is accumulation of point mutations
None of the above
Microbiology
Virology
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Anterior cerebral artery supplies which part of brain?
Most of the medial surface is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. It also supplies the medial part of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe Middle cerebral artery supplies most of the superolateral surface of brain. It also supplies the temporal lobe and the lateral part of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe Most of the inferior surface(except the temporal pole )and occipital lobe is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery.
3
Anterior
Lateral
Medial
Posterior
Anatomy
null
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Secretomotor fibers in the superior salivatory nucleus pass through the following nerves to reach the Submandibular ganglion:
null
4
Facial nerve.
Chorda tympani.
Lingual nerve.
All of the above.
Anatomy
null
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Call Exner Bodies are seen in :
Granulosa cell tumours
4
Dyserminomas
Hilus cell tumours
Brenner's
Granulosa cell tumours
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Diabetes is associated with all of the following in the elderly EXCEPT
null
3
Cerebrovascular accident
Cognitive decline
Fall risk
Myocardial infarction
Medicine
null
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Glomerular basement membrane showing "tram-track" appearance is seen in
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1:MPGN is best considered a pattern of immune-mediated injury rather than a specific disease. The glomeruli are large and hypercellular. The glomeruli have an accentuated "lobular" appearance due to the proliferating mesangial cells and increased mesangial matrix. The GBM is thickened, and often shows a "double contour" or "tram-track" appearance, especially evident in silver or PAS stains. This is caused by "duplication" of the basement membrane (also commonly referred to as splitting), usually as the result of new basement membrane synthesis in response to subendothelial deposits of immune complexes.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 20; The Kidney; Page no: 920
1
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis type 1
Membranous nephropathy
Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Minimal-Change Disease
Pathology
Urinary tract
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Destruction of ovaries prior to 7th week following fertilization results in:
In females: If ovaries are destructed prior to 7 weeks then it will lead to decrease in estrogen so secondary sexual characteristics in female will not develop, and she will complain of amenorrhea. Uterus develops from mullerian duct, hence uterus will be present (i.e. option b incorrect) but underdeveloped (infantile) due to lack of estrogen. Pseudohermaphroditism in females means Gonads are ovaries but external genitalia are of male. External genitalia of male is due to exposure of androgens in females at early stages of development, and not because of absence of ovaries hence both option a and c are incorrect.
4
Pseudohermaphroditism
Uterine agenesis
Masculinisation
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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A 70-year-old male patient with intentional tremor, drunken gait, and past pointing is having a lesion in which of the following structures
"Most abnormalities associated with damage to the cerebellum are apparent during movement Ataxia is manifest not only in the wide-based, unsteady, "drunken" gait of patients but also in defects of the skilled movements involved in the production of speech, so that slurred, scanning speech results. Voluntary movements are also highly abnormal when the cerebellum is damaged. For example, attempting to touch an object with a finger results in overshooting. This dysmetria or past-pointing promptly initiates a gross corrective action, but the correction overshoots to the other side, and the finger oscillates back and foh. This oscillation is called an intention tremor."
3
Basal ganglia
Pyramidal tract
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Physiology
Nervous system
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Eltrombopag is a
Eltrombopag is a thrombopoietin analogue used in ITP, but carries the risk of hepatotoxicity. Lustrombopag & Avatrombopag are other thrombopoietin analogues used to prevent bleeding in patients of liver disease.
3
Erythropoietin analogue
Erythropoietin receptor agonist
Thrombopoietin analogue
GMCSF analogue
Pharmacology
null
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Which of the following is method of treating venous ulcer
Bisgaard method is method for treating venous ulcer.
3
Hilton's method
Trivex method
Bisgaard method
Tessari method
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is false about gestational hypeension?
Ans. is 'C i.e., It is associated with lower incidence of essential hypeension in the later life as compared to pre eclampsia Gestational hypeensionA sustained rise of blood pressure to 140/90 mm Hg or more on atleast 2 occasions 4 or more hours apa beyond the 20thweeks of pregnancyor during the first 24 hours after delivery in a previously normotensive woman is called gestational hypeension.It is associated much higher incidence of essential hypeension in later life than pre eclampsia. The hypeensive effect is actually astressresponse.Perinatal moality remains unaffected in a case of gestational hypeension.The patients with gestational hypeension are more likely to develop hypeensionwith the use of oral contraceptives or in sub sequent pregnancies.B.P. returns to normal within 6 weeks of delivery
3
There is a sustained rise of BP > 140/90 mmHg
Blood pressure returns to normal within 6 weeks of delivery
It is associated with lower incidence of essential hypeension in the later life as compared to pre eclampsia
Perinatal moality remains unaffected
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Which of the following is Initial Tooth Preparation stage?
Initial Tooth Preparation Stage Step 1: Initial depth and outline form. Step 2: Primary resistance form. Step 3: Primary retention form. Step 4: Convenience form. Final Tooth Preparation Stage Step 5: Removal of defective restorative material and/or soft dentin. Step 6: Pulp protection. Step 7: Secondary resistance and retention forms. Step 8: External wall finishing. Step 9: Final procedures: debridement and inspection.   Reference: Sturdevant operative dentistry 7th edition, Page No:125
3
External wall finishing
Pulp protection
Convenience form
Debridement and inspection
Dental
null
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All of the following are features of ischemia in anterior choroidal aery territory except?
Anterior choroidal aery Arises from the internal carotid aery. Supplies the posterior limb and genu of the internal capsule Occlusion- Contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, hypesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia. Internal capsule Blood supply ANTERIOR LIMB A.C.A. (medial striate A) + M.C.A (lateral striate A.) GENU I.C.A. ( ant. choroidal A) + lenticulostriate A. POSTERIOR LIMB I.C.A. ( Ant. choroidal A) + M.C.A (lateral striate A.)
4
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory loss
Homonymous hemianopia
Predominant involvement of the anterior limb of internal capsule
Medicine
Stroke and TIA
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Lens antigen are?
ANSWER: (B) Sequestrated antigenREF: Ananthanarayan & Paniker 7th ed page 171, Textbook Of Medical Physiology ByKhurana 2009 ed page 207Hidden antigen or sequestrated antigen:Certain self antigens are present in the close system and never exposed to the immune system during fetal life. These are known as hidden antigen or sequestrated antigens. E.g.Sperm antigen, Lens proteins being enclosed in capsule
2
Neoantigen
Sequestrated antigen
Altered antigen
Cross reacting antigen
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous (Lens)
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