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All are features of somatization disorder except -
Professional patient refers to Munchausen syndrome (factitious disorder).
4
Frequently changing pain sites
Sexual symptoms
Paresthesia
Professional patients
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Most common site for Osteomyelitis:
Ans. (b) MetaphysisRef.: Maheshwari 5th ed. 1168* Hematogenous osteomyelitis is an infection caused by bacterial seeding from the blood.* Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is characterized by an acute infection of the bone caused by the seeding of the bacteria within the bone from a remote source. This condition primari...
2
Epiphysis
Metaphysis
Diaphysis
Sub-chondral growth plate
Orthopaedics
Osteomyelitis
68c8cd1c-2611-4392-8079-3e1100cc711a
single
Release ferroportin store is controlled by?
Ans. (a) Hepsidin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 649; 8th/pg 659)Ferroportin which regulates the Iron release from tissue store house is regulated by hepsidin hormone released by liver.
1
Hepsidin
Transferrin
Ferritin
Hepoxin
Pathology
Misc. (R.B.C)
f01146bf-ec9c-4ec9-a726-1a31f8bb3263
single
Which protease inhibitor has boosting effect?
Retroviral protease Inhibitors (Pis): An aspaic protease enzyme encoded by HIV is involved in the production of structural proteins and enzymes (including reverse transcriptase) of the virus. The large viral polyprotein is broken into various functional components by this enzyme. This protease acts at a late step in HI...
4
Amprenavir
Tenovir
Nelfinavir
Ritonavir
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
If a person has visual acuity 6/6. At what distance will he/she be able to read 6/24 lines
Answer- B. 24 metresVisual acuity 616 means that a Person with normal visual acutiy can read the smallest line at a distance of 6 meters.Visual acdty 6124 means that this person can read paicular letters/lines at a distance of 6 meters which a person with normal visual acuity can read from a distance of 24 mm.
2
6 metres
24 metres
36 metres
48 metres
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Which of the following is not a function of gut flora
If the intestinal microbes are eliminated, the intestinal contents become voluminous, the caecum is dilated and the intestine remains thinly walled. Historically, in germ-free animals, the villi are shoer, epithelial cell turnover is reduced and gut-associated lymphoid tissue is atrophic. From a functional point of vie...
3
Protection against parenteral infections
Synthesis of vitamin K
Decreased proliferation of epithelial cells
Fermentation of mucin
Physiology
G.I.T
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A well Differenciated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best Differentiated from a Follicular Adenoma by
FNAC is is of limited value in the preoperative diagnosis of follicular thyroid cancer. Diagnosis of follicular thyroid cancer requires demonstration of cellular invasion of the capsule or vascular or lymphatic channels. Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg : 905
3
Huhle cell change
Lining of tall columnar and cuboidal cells
Vascular invasion
Nuclear features
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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True regarding Monteggia fracture is:
: Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial head Monteggia fracture-dislocations are classified by the Bado system Bado type I injuries are characterized by a proximal ulnar fracture with anterior dislocation of the radial head. This is due to a forceful pronation injury of the forearm and is the most common type. Bado ...
1
Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial head
Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulna
Lower radial fracture & dislocated ulna
Lower ulnar fracture & dislocated radius
Orthopaedics
All India exam
19703614-adc5-4a98-92f9-065da2f0f15b
multi
Vasoconstrictor anong these ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Angiotensin-IIImpoant chemical regulator of CVS are :Vasoconstrictors : Noradrenaline, Adrenaline, ADH (vasopressin), angiotension II, Endothelins, PGF2, thromboxane A2.Vasodilators : Kinins (Bradykinin, lysyl-bradykinin), PGE,, PGL (prostacyclin), VIP, ANP, Nitric oxide (NO)
3
NO
PGI2
Angiotensin-II
ANP
Pathology
null
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Most common cause of Foley catheter induced UTI
Ans. (a) E. coliRef Bailey and Love 26th Edition, Page 276* Urinary infection is the most commonly associated infection in postoperative period* Most common organism isolated in catheter related Infections: E. coli
1
E. coli
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Staphylococci
Surgery
Urethra & Penis
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A 22-year-old woman experiences a sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain. Physical examination shows no masses, but there is severe tenderness in the right lower quadrant. A pelvic examination shows no lesions of the cervix or vagina. Bowel sounds are detected. An abdominal ultrasound scan shows a 4-cm focal enlar...
Conditions predisposing to ectopic pregnancy include chronic salpingitis (which may be caused by gonorrhea, but a culture would be positive only with acute infection), intrauterine tumors, and endometriosis. In about half of the cases, there is no identifiable cause. Gestational trophoblastic disease associated with a ...
2
Cervical culture positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin in serum
69, XXY karyotype on decidual tissue cells
Pap smear showing pseudo hyphae of Candida
Pathology
Female Genital Tract
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Most of the neurons in the Autonomic Nervous System are
Ans: a (cholinergic) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/ p.226Most of the neurons in ANS are cholinergic.Autonomic Nervous System:Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres have a long course.Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres have a short course. This is because the parasympathetic ganglions are located near the tissues it supplies.Eac...
1
Cholinergic
Adrenergic
Noradrenergic
Dopaminergic
Physiology
Nervous System
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One of the following is not true of International classification of Disease
ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) Medical classification list by the World Health Organization (WHO); Revised every 10years Consists of 21chapters The ICD-10 consists of: Tabular lists containing cause-of-death titles and codes (Vol...
2
It is revised once in 10 years
It was devised by UNICEF
The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters
It is accepted for National and International use
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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Expressed breast milk can be stored at room temperature for how many hoursRpt question need to be changed
EXPRESSED BREAST MILK (EBM) STORAGEDURATIONRoom temperature6-8 hoursRefrigerator(4 C)24 hoursFreezer compament(-15 C)2 weeksDeep freezer (-18 C)3-6 months
2
4
8
16
24
Pediatrics
All India exam
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Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is a feature of?
Causes of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias Idiopathic (50%) Drugs - Methyl dopa; CLL, Lymphomas M. Pneumoniae infection. IMN, SLE and other connective tissue disorders.
4
ALL
CML
Burkett's Lymphoma
Lymphoma
Unknown
null
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A patient with oral cancer, had ipsilateral lymph node measuring 2 cm, single in number with capsular spread. According to TNM staging it is included under:
Nx: Nodal status can't be assessed. No: No lymph nodes. N1: Single ipsilateral lymph node <3 cm N2: A: Single ipsilater lymph 3.6 cm B: Multiple ipsilater lymph <6 cm C: Bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes <6 cm. N3: Any lymph node with >6 cm, or Any lymph node with capsular invasion.
4
Nx
N1
N2
N3
Surgery
null
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Tinea unguium effects –
Tinea unguium starts either from distal edge of nail plate or from base of nail. It slowly involves the entire nail plate.
2
Nail fold
Nail plate
Joints
Inter digital space
Dental
null
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single
Feature of aging periodontium is
null
4
Lacunae in bone and cementum
Increased cell size
Increased cell number
Scalloping of cementum & alveolar bone surface
Dental
null
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multi
Regarding severe combined immunodeficiency disease ,which of the following statement is true
Ref Robbins 8/e p234;9/e p239 SCID represent a constellation of genetically distinct syndrome, all having in common defect in both humoral and cell mediated immune response
1
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Decreased circulating lymphocytes
NADPH oxidase deficiency
C1 esterase deficiency
Anatomy
General anatomy
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In nasal endoscopy Eustachian tube is examined at?
Ans. is'a'i.e., 1st passNasal endoscopy is done in three passes :-First Pass: Examination of nasal cavity, nasopharynx, opening of eustachian tube, walls of nasopharynx, upper surface of soft palate and uvula, opening of eustachian tube of opposite side opening of nasolacrimal duct and inferior meatus.
1
1st pass
2nd pass
3rd pass
4th pass
ENT
null
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Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kaposi sarcoma Neoplastic disease in AIDS . Kaposi sarcoma (most common tumor) . Non Hodgkin lymphoma - Immunoblastic lymphoma (most common lymphoma) - Primary CNS lymphoma (associated with EBV) - Burkitt's lymphoma . Other less common neoplasm are - Hodgkin's disease - Leukemia - Cervical Ca - Brain ...
1
Kaposi sarcoma
Astrocytoma
Gastric Carcinoma
Primary CNS lymphoma
Microbiology
null
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Urethral and bladder neck supports include all except
Supports of Bladder neck Pubourethral Ligaments Arcus tendineus fascia Levator ani muscles Vagina and its lateral fascial condensations.
4
Pubourethral Ligaments
Arcus tendineus fascia
Levator ani muscles
Uterosacral Ligament
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
The height of a child is double the bih height at the age of-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4 years o An infant usually doubles his bih height by the age of 41/2 years Age Bih 3 months 9 months 1 year 2 years 41/2 years Height 50 cm 60 cm 70 cm 75 cm 90 cm 100 cm
4
1 year
2 years
3 years
4 years
Pediatrics
null
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The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is :
Answer is C (Stretptococcus pneumonia): 'Streptococcus pneumonia or pneumococcus is the most common cause of community acquired acute pneumonia -Robbins 7th/748 Lobar pneumonia refers to an acute bacterial infection that results in consolidation of a large poion of a lobe or an entire lobe. Streptococcus pneumonia prod...
3
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pheumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Medicine
null
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single
Familial Renal Cell carcinoma is associated with:
Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
4
Turners syndrome
Alpos syndrome
Peutz-jeghers syndrome
Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
Pathology
null
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Posterior staphyloma is most commonly seen in: March 2012
Ans: D i.e. Degenerative myopia Staphyloma & causes The usual causes of intercalary staphyloma are perforating injuries of the peripheral cornea, marginal corneal ulcer, anterior scleritis etc. Developmental glaucoma, end stage primary or secondary glaucoma, scleritis & trauma to the ciliary region of the eye are some ...
4
Perforating injuries of the peripheral cornea
Developmental glaucoma
Sloughing corneal ulcer
Degenerative myopia
Ophthalmology
null
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Unna boot is used for treatment of
Answer- B. Varicose ulcersIt is named for the dermatologist Paul Gerson Unna.This boot can be used to treat uninfected nonnecrotic leg and foot ulcers that result from such conditions as venous insuftciency (varicose ulcers) and stasis dermatitis.
2
Diabetic foot ulcer
Varicose ulcers
Ankle instability
Calcaneum fracture
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is not a step of b-oxidation?
4 repetitive steps of fatty acid oxidation : 1. FAD dependent oxidation 2. Hydration 3. NAD dependent oxidation 4. Thiolysis It is NAD dependent oxidation, not NADP dependent
1
NADP dependent oxidation
FAD dependent oxidation
Thiolysis
Hydration
Biochemistry
Beta oxidation of fatty acids
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Reticulocytes are stained with
Reticulocytes are stained in living state in vitro so staining with dyes like brilliant cresyl blue and new methylene blue is referred to as supravital staining.
2
Methyl violet
Brilliant Cresyl blue
Sudan black
Indigo carmine
Pathology
null
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Which is NOT TRUE with regards to antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
Plasmid mediated resistance can be transmitted both horizontally and veically. Routes of horizontal transfer of plasmid mediated resistance are conjugation, transduction and transformation. 3 main mechanisms of drug resistance: Production of beta lactamases: Most common mechanism of penicillin resistance in both gram +...
3
Most common mechanism is production of antibiotic destroying enzymes
Lack of target binding site may be mechanism of resistance in some enterococci against vancomycin
Plasmid mediated resistance is transmitted only veically
Target binding shifting is the mechanism in some pneumococci
Microbiology
null
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Changes in blood passing through the systemic capillaries are all except
In systemic capillaries pO2<CO2The decrease in O2 affinity of hemoglobin when the pH of blood falls is called the Bohr effect and is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin which occure in systemic capillaries. The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve s...
3
Increase in hemotocrit
pH decreases
Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left
Increase in protein content
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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Aspergillus causes all except:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermatophytosis(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1655, 16561)* Dermatophytosis is caused by dermatophytes and Aspergillus is not a dermatophyte. Other options are correct.
3
Bronchopulmonary allergy
Otomycosis
Dermatophytosis
Keratitis
Microbiology
Mycology
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Which cranial nerve's fibers are myelinated by oligodendrocytes?
The fibers of the optic nerve (CN II) are myelinated by oligodendrocytes. This is an impoant distinction from the Other cranial nerves ( myelinated by Schwann cells) because the optic nerve is considered a tract of the central nervous system
2
I
II
III
VII
Anatomy
Brainstem, cerebellum and ventricles
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The antihypeensive which cause decrease libido and impoance is
Diabetics have a maximum risk of causing sexual dysfunction followed by beta blockers Atenolol ,metaprolol and Carvedilol have high risk whereas nevibolol has maximum risk of erectile dysfunction ACE inhibitors decrease the risk Refer kDT 6/e p139
1
Atenolol
Enalapril
Prazosin
Diltiazem
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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Which cranial nerve passes through diaphragm?
null
4
6
7
8
10
Anatomy
null
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Mesosomes in bacteria are the functional unit for -
Mesosomes (chondroid)  Mesosomes are formed by invagination of plasma membrane into the cytoplasm. They are more prominent in gram-positive bacteria. They are the principal sites of respiratory enzymes in bacteria and are analogous to mitochondria of eukaryotes. They coordinate nuclear and cytoplasmic division during ...
3
Lipid storage
Protein synthesis
Respiratory enzymes
None
Microbiology
null
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All of the following are true about vagina except
Vaginal mucosa is lined by non-keratinized squamous epithelium.
3
Direction of vagina is parallel to plane of brim of true pelvis.
Posterior wall is 11.5 cm and anterior wall is 9 cm long
Vaginal mucosa is lined by keratinized squamous epithelium
No glands open into vagina
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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USG is/are based on:
Ans. A. Piezoelectric effectUltrasonography:Ultrasonic image(sonographic/echographic) is based on mechanical oscillations of the crystal excited by electrical pulses (Piezoelectric effect).
1
Piezoelectric effect
Diamagnetic effect
Paramagnetic effect
Ferromagnetic effect
Radiology
null
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Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aoa (Leriche syndrome)?
. Ans : (d) Gangrene localised to feet In chronic atherosclerotic occlusive disease usually it is confined to distal abdominal aoa below the renal aeries. Frequently extends to iliac aeries . Claudication characteristically involves buttocks , thighs and calves & may associated with impotence in males (Leriche syndrome...
4
Claudication of the buttock and thigh
Claudication of the calf
Sexual impotence
Gangrene localized to the feet
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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A 30-year old male presents with severe pain chest, breathlessness, hypotension and ECG shows ST elevation in V3, V4, V5 and V6 leads. He will be best treated with :
null
4
Streptokinase
t-PA
Heparin
PTCA
Medicine
null
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Prolonged postoperative ileus is best treated by?
Most patients developed transient ileus after a major abdominal operation. Most of these resolve within 3 to 5 days. Condition like extensive operative manipulation, major small bowel injury, heavy narcotic use, intra abdominal infection and pancreatitis- can prolong the ileum to 5 to 7 days. Ileus prolonged beyond thi...
3
Long tube inseion
Calcium pantothenate
Laparotomy and exploration
Peristaltic stimulants
Surgery
null
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A 4-year baby is having a large face, large jaw, large ear and macroorchidism is –
Fragile X syndrome Fragile X syndrome is the prototype of diseases in which the mutation is characterized by a long repeating sequence of three nucleotides. Normally, a codon is triplet (trinucleotide). In these type of disorders, this trinucleotide sequence undergoes amplification and the same sequence is repeated ma...
4
Mc Cuneal bright syndrome
Down's syndrome
Cri–du chat syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Pediatrics
null
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In which of the following procedures sperms are aspirated from the testes?
Aspiration of sperms from testes is done in Testicular sperm aspiration(TESA). In this technique, an aspiration needle is inseed percutaneously to the testis parenchyma to aspirate fluid or small pieces of seminiferous tubules to obtain sperm. Ref: Feility Cryopreservation By Ri-Cheng Chian, Page 52-3; Feility Preserva...
3
ZIFT
GIFT
TESA
MESA
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with ?
History of color change from pallor to cynosis on cold exposure suggests raynaud's phenomenon. Raynaud's phenomenon is the most common and earliest manifestation of generalized scleroderma (systemic sclerosis).
1
Scleroderma
Leukemia
Lung infections
Hepatosplenomegaly
Dental
null
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A 5 year old boy presents with leukocoria in the right eye which is diagnosed as diffuse retinoblastoma involving the entire globe. Examination of the left eye revealed a small 2-3mm tumor in the periphery. What will be the ideal management of this patient?
Enucleation remains the treatment of choice for significantly advanced tumors and for tumors with no potential for visual salvage. Focal therapy is used for small tumors usually in patients with bilateral disease and in combination with chemotherapy. Ref: Ophthalmic Oncology - Page 195; Cancer in Children and Adolescen...
3
Enucleation of both eyes
Enucleation of right eye and observation for left eye
Enucleation of right eye and focal therapy of the left eye
Six cycles of Chemotherapy
Ophthalmology
null
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Prolonged thumb sucking directly results in all of the following except:
Effects on Maxilla Proclination of maxillary incisors. Increased arch length. Increased anterior placement of apical base of maxilla. Increase in SNA angle. Increased clinical crown length of maxillary incisors. Increased counter-clockwise rotation of occlusal plane. Decreased width of palate.  Atypical root resorptio...
1
Deep overbite
Proclination of upper centrals
Anterior open bite
Constriction of maxilla
Dental
null
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A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. Patient is unconscious and his right pupil is dilated. CT scan is not available. Whats the next step in management
Burrhole should be made at the side of dilated pupil.
4
Cranlotomy left side
Craiotomy right side
Burrhole left side
Burrhole right side
Surgery
null
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What is the probable genetic defect in this child with recurrent infections, tetany, oral candidiasis & a hea murmur?
Digeorge syndrome: Caused by 22q deletion C- Cardiac anomaly A- Abnormal facies (hypeelorism, antimongoloid slant, sho philtrum, mandibular hypoplasia. T- Thymic hypoplasia C- Cleft palate H- Hypocalcemia
3
21q deletion
21p deletion
22q deletion
22p deletion
Pediatrics
Primary Immunodeficiency
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Cell cycle specific anti-cancerous drug is?
Ans. b (Vincristine). (Ref. Harrison Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., 469 Fig. 70.3)CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTICANCEROUS DRUGSS-Phase specific drugsM-Phase specific drugsG,Phase specific drugsHydroxyurea,Methotrexate,Dactinomycin,Cytarabine,5-FU,MercaptopurineThiogauanine,ColchicinesVinca alkaloids and taxols (e.g., ...
2
Cyclophosphamide
Vincristine
Nitrogen mustard
Doxorubicin.
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
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All are contents of cubital fossa except
Contents of the cubital fossa: Mnemonic: from medial to lateral:MBBR Median nerve Brachial aery Tendon of Biceps Radial nerve. REF:B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 98.
4
Median nerve
Biceps tendon
Brachial aery
Ulnar nerve
Anatomy
Upper limb
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Tautomerization
Tautomerization or enolization The process of shifting a hydrogen atom from one carbon atom to another to produce enediols is known as tautomerization. Sugars possessing anomeric carbon atom undergo tautomerization in alkaline solutions. When glucose is kept in alkaline solution for several hours, it undergoes isomeriz...
1
Shift of hydrogen
Shift of carbon
Shift of both
None of these
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Commonest cause of fungal uveitis is:
Ans. Candida
1
Candida
Aspergillus
Fusarium
Mucor mycosis
Ophthalmology
null
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Barrets esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Adenocarcinoma Barret's esophagus is the single most important risk factor for adenocarcinoma of esophagus.Barret's esophagus is metaplastic change of distal esophageal mucosa from normal squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium, in response to chronic gastro-esophageal reflux.The junction between sq...
1
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sarcoma
Gastrointenstinal stromal tumor
Surgery
Esophageal Diseases - Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease, Carcinoma
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A patient presented with Aldrich-Mee's lines which are characteristic of which heavy metal poisoning?
Aldrich-Mee's lines: Hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles with irregular thickening of the nails and development of bands of opacity in the fingernails. It is seen in prolonged contact of Arsenic. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 475
3
Lead
Mercury
Arsenic
Copper
Forensic Medicine
null
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Lucid interval is a characteristic pathognomonic feature of\
(A) Extradural haemorrhage # Extradural haemorrhage.> It is a period in which person is liable for acts> Lucid interval is a period occurring in insanity, during which all the symptoms of insanity disappear completely. The individual is able to judge his acts soundly and he becomes liable for his acts.> If he commits a...
1
Extradural haemorrhage
Intracerebral haemorrhage
Tumour in the frontal lobe
Intracerebral abscess
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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Placement of a double lumen tube for lung surgery is best confirmed by -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bronchoscopy * During thoracic surgery, there is a need for one lung to be deflated and or isolated.This offers the surgeon easier and better access within the designated hemothorax.In order to achieve these double-lumen endobronchial tubes are used that allow the anesthetist to selectively deflate on...
4
EtC02
Airway pressure measurement
Clinically by auscultation
Bronchoscopy
Unknown
null
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multi
Which of the following microorganism is incriminated in infection after hemodialysis
Hemo-dialysis catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) are a major complication of long-term catheter us in HD. Gram positive organism are seen followed by gram negative organisms. Similarly in peritoneal dialysis, the clinical presentation typically consists of pain and cloudy dialysate, often with fever and o...
1
Gram positive organisms
Chlamydia
Gram negative
Anaerobes
Medicine
null
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single
Causes of soft S1 include:
Answer is D (All of the above) Long standing severe M.S. (calcified mitral valve), obesity, mitral regurgitation and pleural effusions are all established causes of soft S1.
4
Long standing severe MS
Obesity
Mitral Regurgitation
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
Myasthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivity-
In mystenia grevis antibodies are directed against Ach Receptors so this a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. 1. Type II cytotoxic reaction is mediated by antibodies directed against antigens on the cell membrane that activates complement thereby causing antibody-mediated destruction of cells. The cell membrane is damag...
2
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Microbiology
Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)
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single
Which of the following is the drug of choice for long-term management of panic disorder?
SSRIs are the drugs of choice for long-term management of panic disorder Benzodiazepines are DOC for acute panic attacks
4
Phenothiazine
Azapirone
Beta blocker
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Pharmacology
Psychiatric Illness
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single
Bone tumor arising from epiphyses is
Giant cell tumor refer Robbins page no 1233 Pathogenesis. Current evidence suggests that the neoplas- tic cells of giant cell tumor are primitive osteoblast precur- sors but they represent only a minority of the tumor cells. The bulk of the tumor consists of non-neoplastic osteoclasts and their precursors. The neoplast...
4
Osteogenic sarcoma
Ewings sarcoma
Giant cell tumor
Chondromyxoid fibroma
Anatomy
Musculoskeletal system
bb14ea81-ba6d-4f73-9951-0542c52573e9
single
Which of the following is not true about the autistic specific disorder
Core symptoms of Autism are 1. Persistent deficts in social communication and interaction, 2. Restricted, repititive patterns of behaviour, interests and activities, 3. Associated physical characteristics. Associated behavioural symptoms include- Disturbance in language development and usage, Intellectual disability, I...
4
Impaired communication
Impaired imagination
Language developmental delay
Vision problems
Psychiatry
Child psychiatry
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multi
Which of the following agents is used for day care surgery
Refer Katzung 12th/440 Propofol is drug of choice for day care surgery
1
Propofol
Thiopentone
Diazepam
Ketamine
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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single
A 30-year-old male, Kallu, with a history of sexual exposure comes with a painless indurated ulcer over the penis with everted margins. The diagnosis is
null
1
Syphilis
Chancroid
Lymphogranuloma venerum
Granuloma inguinale
Medicine
null
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multi
Phenobarbitone inhibits which complex of ETC?
Ans. A. Complex I(Ref: Harper 31/e page 123)Inhibitors of ETC at Complex I1. An insecticide and a fish Poison Rotenone2. Amobarbital which is a barbiturate.3. Piericidin
1
Complex I
Complex II
Complex III
Complex IV
Biochemistry
Respiratory Chain
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single
Which of the following antitubercular drugs are associated with hypothyroidism?
Ethionamide is thought to prevent organification of iodine in thyroid hormone synthesis, as it is structurally related to other thionamides (propylthiouracil and methimazole). So, it can lead to hypothyroidism.
1
Ethionamide
Streptomycin
PZA
Rifampicin
Pharmacology
null
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single
Osgood Shattiler disease -
Osgood-shaltter disease is osteochondritis of tibial tuberosity (just below the knee joint).
1
Involve the knee joint
Pelvis
Wrist joint
Cervical spine
Orthopaedics
null
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single
For deted nasal septum, surgery is required for:
Indications for Surgery in DNS Persistent unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent headaches Detion causing recurrent sinusitis or otitis media Recurrent epistaxis from septal spur Access for operation in polypectomy with DNS As a pa of septorhinoplasty for cosmetic correction of external nasal deformities. As a appr...
4
Septal spur with epistaxis
Marked septal detion
Persistent rhinorrhea
All
ENT
null
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multi
In a given population, total bihs in a year are 4050. There are 50 still bihs. 50 neonates die within first 7 days of life whereas the number of deaths within 8-28 days of life is 150. What is the Neonatal moality rate in the population?
In the given question, Total neonatal deaths = Total early neonatal deaths + Total late neonatal deaths = 50 + 150 = 200 Total live bihs = Total bihs - Total stillbihs = 4050 - 50 = 4000 NMR= Neonatal death/Live bihs*1000 Thus, Neonatal moality rate, NMR = 200/4000 X 1000 = 50 per 1000 live bihs.
2
12.5
50
49.4
62.5
Social & Preventive Medicine
Obstetric Care in RCH: Visits, IFA, TT, MCH Indicators
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single
Protein requirement of an adult is
Protein requirement of an adult: 0.7 gm/kg/day in terms of Egg protein or 1.0 gm/kg/day in terms of mixed vegetable protein (NEW GUIDELINE: 0.83 g/kg/d) Egg protein has the highest NPU of 96. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recommended 1.0 gm protein per kg of body weight for an Indian adult, assuming a...
3
0.7 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 0.7 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
1.0 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 1.0 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
0.7 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 1.0 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
1.0 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 0.7 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Lack of insight is not a feature of :
A i.e. Panic disorder
1
Panic disorder
Schizophrenia
Mania
Reactive Psychosis
Psychiatry
null
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single
Stye is suppurative inflammation of glands of ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zeis
1
Zeis
Meibonian
Wolfring
All the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Incubation period of syphilis is: September 2006
Ans. C: 9-90 days Acquired syphilis: - Primary syphilis: incubation period 2-3 weeks (range 9-90 days): local infection - Secondary syphilis: incubation period 6-12 weeks (range 1-6 months): generalised infection - Early latent syphilis: asymptomatic syphilis of less than 2 years duration - Late latent syphilis: asympt...
3
10-14 days
30-60 days
9-90 days
3-6 months
Skin
null
2c88fd28-82ed-4caf-88a6-b5fd04a77b6c
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A 27-year-old G1P0 female at 36 weeks gestation presents to her obstetrician with a 3-day history of abrupt onset of extremely pruritic and urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk. She states that the itching has worsened such that it is interfering with her everyday life.
Ans- D Erythematous urticarial patches and plaques (classically periumbilical) that progress to tense vesicles and blisters in a pregnant woman is herpes gestationis (also known as pemphigoid gestationis). There is no association to the husband's URI. Herpes gestationis is a pruritic blistering dermatologic disorder un...
4
Herpes zoster
Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Herpes gestationis
Unknown
null
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single
Nucleus pulposis is derived from ?
The nucleus pulposus is the sole remnant of the embryonic notochord, the initial longitudinal skeletal axis of the body. The developing bodies and interveebral discs of the veebral column replace the notochord. NOTOCHORD: The notochordal plate becomes the centrally placed notochord, which acts as a foundation around wh...
2
Neural crest
Notochord
Sclerotome
None of the above
Anatomy
null
ade663f7-b194-4dcf-a545-54e0bc0b24ec
multi
Oral Factor Xa Inhibitor is
Factor Xa inhibitors * Oral Direct Factor Xa (Stua-Prower factor) Inhibitors are Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Betrixaban and Edoxaban * Rivaroxaban inhibits free and clot associated Factor Xa AE reducing !rombin generation AE suppressing Platelet aggregation and Fibrin formation. * Other options: * Dabigatran etexilate is an...
4
Dabigatran etexilate
Fondaparinux
Bivalirudin
Rivaroxaban
Pharmacology
Hematology
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single
Death due to cyanide poisoning results from which of the following types of anoxia?
Ans. D. Histotoxic anoxiaHypoxia or Anoxia O2 deficiency at the tissue level Type:a. Hypoxic Hypoxia (anoxic anoxic)i. PO2 of arterial bloodii. Chemoreceptor stimulatedb. Anaemic Hypoxiai. Arterial PO2 is normal but amount of Hb available to carry O2 is reducedii. Chemoreceptors are not stimulated, since dissolved O2 i...
4
Anoxic anoxia
Anaemic anoxia
Stagnant anoxia
Histotoxic anoxia
Physiology
Respiratory System
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single
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder is NOT associated with
(B) Thought insertion # THOUGHT INSERTION is more commonly associated with shizophrenia.> OBSESSIVE-COMPULSIVE DISORDER (OCD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts that produce uneasiness, apprehension, fear or worry (obsessions), repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing the associated anxiety (compu...
2
Repetitive behavior
Thought insertion
Anxiety
Paranoid behavior
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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single
All are seen in cirrhosis of liver except
(A) (Enlargement of testes) (943- Davidson 22nd)Clnical features of hepatic cirrhosis* Hepatomegaly (although liver may also be small)* Jaundice* Ascites* Circulatory changes spider telangiectasia, palmar erythema, cyanosis* Endocrine changes; loss of libido, hair lossMen; gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy, impotenceWo...
1
Enlargement of testis
Gynaecomastia
Absence of pubic and facial hair
Loss of libido
Medicine
G.I.T.
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multi
Angle formed between mandibular plane and the long axis of mandibular central incisor is:
null
1
90° ± 5°
25°
120°
80°± 2°
Dental
null
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single
The Hb-O2 dissociation curve is shifted to left by
2,3-BPG is very plentiful in red cells. It is formed from 3phosphoglyceraldehyde, which is a product of glycolysis the Embden-Meyerhof pathway (Figure 36-4). It is a highly charged anion that binds to the bchains of deoxyhemoglobin. One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds 1 mol of 2,3-BPG. In effectHbO2 + 2,3-BPG =Hb - 2,3-B...
4
Metabolic acidosis
Increased temperature
Increased PCO2
Decreased 2, 3 DPG
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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single
Most serious adverse effect of ketoconazole is:
Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimi...
1
Adrenal insufficiency
Pellagra like skin lesion
Liver injury
Prostate cancer
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
While playing cricket, a child broke his distal end of radius. He was put on POP. Which of the following is the late complication of Colles fracture?
Early complications of Colles fracture include, Median nerve compression Tendon damage Ulnar nerve contusion or compression Compament syndrome Fragment displacement with loss of reduction Decreased range of motion of the wrist Prolonged swelling Late complications of Colles fracture include, Stiffness of the fingers, s...
1
Stiffness of wrist joint
Ulnar nerve palsy
Median nerve palsy
None of the above
Surgery
null
0334a920-2530-482f-979e-ebbae4891c85
multi
A 62-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a restrictive pulmonary disease. Which of his following lung measurements is likely to be normal
null
3
FEV1
FVC
FEV1/FVC
FRC
Medicine
null
408d53b0-f06c-4e92-87f2-7f8436040ab8
single
Which of the following cement has most anticariogenic effect used while placing bands on molar to prevent caries?
GIC has fluoride releasing property and it also binds with the tooth chemically. So, it should be the cement of choice.
1
GIC
Polycarboxylate
Zinc phosphate
Silicate
Dental
null
2d02e49e-b28e-4923-ac54-557fc4057fee
single
A very potent and sho acting benzodiazepine was given to a patient Kallu for the purpose of causing hypnosis but the drug caused psychiatric disturbances in him. Which of the following can be the hypnotic used?
(Ref: KDT 7th/405) Triazolam is a very potent BZD with ultra rapid elimination. Some cases of paranoia and psychiatric disturbances have been noted with this drug.
4
Flurazepam
Nitrazepam
Temazepam
Triazolam
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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multi
Not true about population pyramid -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., India has narrow base o In countries with high birth rates as ours, population pyramid is broad based conical (narrow apex) because of high birth rate and tapering of population with increase in age.o The pyramid of developing country (e.g. India) has a broad base and a tapering top.o In developed cou...
2
India has broad base
India has narrow base
India has narrow apex
Developed countries have bulge in the center
Unknown
null
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multi
Selegiline is
(B) MAO-B inhibitor # Selegiline is a MAO-B inhibitor.> MAO exist in forms MAO-A & MAO-B.> MAO-A predominates in peripheral adrenergic structures & intestinal mucosa.> MAO-B predominates in brain & Blood platelets. Selegline, along c- levodopa, prolongs its action, & wearing-off effect.> Based on the theory that oxidat...
2
Dopa decarboxylase inhibitor
MAO-B inhibitor
COMT inhibitor
MAO-A inhibitor
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
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single
A female with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with fever and dysuria. A preliminary diagnosis of cystitis was made. Which of the following drugs will be safe to use for this patient?
Antibiotics safe in pregnancy P - Penicillin C - Cephalosporin M - Macrolides Ciprofloxacin causes cailage and bone destruction Gentamycin causes hearing loss in fetus Cotrimoxazole contains sulfonamides which can cause kernicterus in the child
4
Ciprofloxacin
Gentamicin
Cotrimoxazole
Amoxicillin
Pharmacology
Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors
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single
Antihelminthic also acting as immunomodulator is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Levamizole
2
Albendazole
Levamizole
Mebendazole
Piperazine
Pharmacology
null
c63bbe38-cf93-4dc9-8e69-dbe89f96d170
single
The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is which of the following -
Central chemoreceptors are situated in the deeper pa of medulla oblongata, close to the dorsal respiratory group of neurons. This area is known as a chemosensitive area, and the neurons are called chemoreceptors. Chemoreceptors are in close contact with blood and cerebrospinal fluid. Central chemoreceptors are connecte...
1
CO2
Oxygen
NO
HBO3
Anaesthesia
Fundamental concepts
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single
A seven year old child with recurrent chest infections and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is suspected of having cystic fibrosis Sweat chloride levels have been observed between 40-60 mmo1/1 on two separate occasions. Which of the following test should be performed next to suppo the diagnosis of Cystic fibrosis:
Answer is B (Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference) Nasal Potential Difference is a sensitive test of electrolyte transpo (CFTR function) that can be used to suppo or refute a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis when sweat chloride levels are normal or border line and two CF mutations cannot be demonstrated by DN...
2
Repeat Sweat chloride levels on a different day
Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference
Demonstrate an abnormal F508 mutation by DNA analysis
Demonstrate an abnormal 72 hour fecal fat
Medicine
null
b1fd2546-bd8f-4e2b-860e-a762ac039f84
single
A patient is found to have sun-sensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia he must be suffering from the deficiency of which of the following.
The most common symptoms of niacin deficiency involve the skin, the digestive system, and the nervous system. The symptoms of pellagra are commonly referred to as the three "Ds": sun-sensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. A fourth "D," death, occurs if pellagra is left untreated
1
Niacin
Riboflavin
Folic acid
Iron
Biochemistry
null
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single
Drugs with high affinity can be used in :
Affinity is the ability of a drug to combine with the receptor.
2
High concentration.
Low concentration.
Moderate concentration.
None.
Pharmacology
null
4e062a23-9da8-4ddb-bcc9-32c376d60ed2
multi
Which hormone stimulates pancreatic secretion that is rich in bicarbonate?
.
2
Somatostatin
Secretin
CCK
Gastrin
Pathology
All India exam
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single
Which of the following drugs should not be administered concomitantly with warfarin as it decreases the effect of oral anticoagulants
Oral contraceptives Estrogen increases the synthesis of various clotting factors and produce a hypercoagulable state. Thus OCP containing estrogen decrease the effectiveness of warfarin and other oral anticoagulants.
4
Broad spectrum antibiotic
Cimetidine
Aspirin
Oral contraceptive
Pharmacology
null
3d3fc67e-3193-4623-8a01-b19d9ea2741c
single
Best heat test agent for pulp testing:
null
1
GP sticks.
Rubber wheel.
Barlew disk.
Rotation friction heat.
Dental
null
65ea8d84-f7d5-44c4-9dd9-12db881e3249
single
Tonometer with variation in application surface
Ans. d. Maklakov tonometer Indentation tonometry Indentation tonometry was devised by SchiotzQ. Because of its simplicity, reliability, low price and relative accuracy, it is the most widely used tonometer in the world. For repeated use in multiple patients it can be sterilized by dipping the footplate in ether, absolu...
4
Mackey Marg tonometer
Rebound tonometer
Dreger's tonometer
Maklakov tonometer
Ophthalmology
null
4c792e63-310f-41f7-8989-1e460674d570
single
In a lady of 32 weeks pregnancy injection dexa- methasone is to given to prevent:
Administration of dexamethasone before delivery: – Reduces the incidence and severity of intraventricular hemorrhage – Accelerates fetal lung maturation in preterm labour and prevents hyaline membrane disease. It should be given atleast 24 hours before delivery. Its effect lasts for 7 days therefore earlier it was sa...
1
Respiratory distress syndrome
Neonatal convulsions
Neonatal jaundice
Cerebral palsy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
7bdc8144-4b5f-4ec7-b4ad-68f73e9cf05a
single
Early diastolic notching of uterine aery disappears by which week of gestation?
Diastolic Notching in uterine aery Doppler usually disappears beyond 22 weeks of gestation. Persistence of uterine notch beyond 22 weeks is indicator of preeclampsia.
3
20
21
22
24
Radiology
ULTRASOUND
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single