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All are true regarding Primary CNS lymphoma except:
Ans is 'a' i.e. ie Radiotherapy and chemotherapy is of no value Primary CNS lymphomaThese are B cell malignancies that present within the neuraxis without evidence of systemic lymphoma.They occur most frequently in immunocompromised individuals, specifically organ transplant recipients or patients with AIDS.In immunoco...
1
Radiotherapy and chemotherapy is of no value
Occurs in AIDS pt.
Commonly occurs in immuno-compromised persons
EBV may be a cause /
Surgery
Central Nervous System Tumors
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multi
Which of the following is the most common site of secondaries in a case of choriocarcinoma?
In 75% of cases metastasis from choriocarcinoma occurs into the lungs and rest usually occurs in the vagina. Other organs which may also contain metastases are vulva, kidneys, liver, ovaries, brain and bowel.
3
Vagina
Urethra
Lung
Brain
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
374dbef4-00f7-4dd4-96b1-e1e30a82b764
single
Hot air oven cannot be used for sterilising:
null
3
Liquid paraffin
Instruments
Culture media
Needles
Microbiology
null
8018f9d7-d26d-4d4d-a18f-608e9b8ef32d
single
Normal value of ankle branchial index is
Ankle Brachial Index ABI= Systolic BP at the ankle/systolic BP in the arms Compared to the arm, lower blood pressure in the leg is an indication of blocked aeries (peripheral vascular disease) ABI is calculated by dividing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle by the systolic blood pressures in the arm ABI is calcul...
2
0.8
1
1.2
1.4
Surgery
Vascular surgery
590e95ab-808c-4bac-a2b9-b4049c8193cb
single
In a patient of liver disease, which maneuvers, may lead to the development of hyperammonemia?
The use of loop diuretics promotes kaliuresis and therefore may lead to hyperammonemia
3
Protein restriction
The use of neomycin
The use of loop diuretics
A branched-chain amino acid-enriched protein mixture
Pharmacology
All India exam
a52216a3-44a4-417b-ad05-a395613ac6f2
single
Which of the following is the best-known metabolic function of the lung
Extracellular ACE on the surface endothelial cells in pulmonary circulation activates Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II.
2
Inactivation of serotonin
Conversion of angiotensin–I to angiotensin–II
Inactivation of bradykinin
Metabolism of basic drugs by cytochrome P–450 system
Physiology
null
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single
Type of laser used for capsulotomy is:
Ans. Nd:YAG
3
CO2
Ruby
Nd:YAG
Argon
Ophthalmology
null
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single
One of the following is used for sex chromatin testing :
Chromosomal sex can be determined by the study of the leucocytes or by simply taking a smear from the buccal mucosa The nuclei of the female chromosome contains a stainable body called the sex chromatin, hence female cells are termed as chromatin positive. In epithelial cell nuclei this small peripherally situated dark...
1
Barr body
Testosterone receptors
Hormone levels
Phenotypic features
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sexuality and intersexuality
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single
Semiclosed circuit system
Semiclose breathing circuit is less economical, causes more environmental pollution. It is simple portable and no need of advanced monitoring.
3
Needs advanced monitoring
Complex
More environmental pollution
More economical
Anaesthesia
null
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single
A 40-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency depament with a 2 days history of right knee pain with associated swelling and erythema. The patient is febrile with a holosystolic murmur at the right lower sternal border. Complete blood count reveals leukocytosis. Blood and synol fluid cultures are sent, ...
Gram-positive bacteria remain the most common cause of septic ahritis. Staphylococcus aureus accounts for the majority of culture-positive septic ahritis, especially within ceain patient subgroups such as hemodialysis patients and intravenous drug abusers. The predominance of S. aureus in septic ahritis has remained un...
4
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Borrelia burgdorferi
Staphylococcus aureus
Orthopaedics
Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries
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single
All except one are features of Thromboangitis obliterans
Arterial Lumen is blocked but not thickened in TAO.
4
Initimal hyperplasia
Panarteritis
Vasospasmitis
Arterial thickening
Surgery
null
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A 7-year-old boy, Manoj underwent successful chemotherapy and cranial radiation for the treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia. One month after the completion of therapy, the patient presented with excessive thirst and urination plus hypernatremia. Laboratory testing revealed pituitary diabetes insipidus. To corect th...
(Ref: KDT 6/e p57) Drugs used for the treatment of central (pituitary) diabetes insipidus are: - Desmopressin (selective V2 agonist) - Thiazides - Chlorpropamide - Carbamazepine Drugs used for the treatment of nephrogenic (renal) diabetes insipidus are: - Thiazides - Amiloride (for lithium induced) Thiazides are useful...
2
Coicotropin
Desmopressin
hCG
Menotropins
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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Dogs are responsible for transmission of all the following except-
null
2
Hydatid disease
Toxoplasmosis
Kala-azar
Toxocara canis
Microbiology
null
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multi
The best marker to diagnose thyroid related order is -
null
3
T3
T4
TSH
Thyroglobulin
Medicine
null
64cff7d3-cd5d-48c2-819c-f6f7d8bc1a3c
single
Which enzyme converts Testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5 a reductase* 5 a reductase is the enzyme which converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone (DHT).* Testosterone is sufficient to support male secondary sexual characteristics* Dihydroxytestosterone (DHT) is however, essential for male type external genitalia to get established. DHT is found to ha...
2
Aromatase
5 a reductase
5 a hydroxylase
7 a hydroxylase
Biochemistry
Enzymes
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single
Which of these following is an example of a leading question?
Leading question: Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive. It includes a material fact and admits of a conclusive answer by a simple 'Yes' or 'No' Leading questions not permitted in Leading questions permitted in -Examination in chief(Section 142 IEA) -Re-examination ...
3
How did you get cuts on T shi
Cause of injury
Whether it is caused by knife
Size of incised wound
Forensic Medicine
Indian Legal system, Legal sections & Cou procedures
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A 33-yr old man presented with a slowly progressive swelling in the middle 113d of his right tibia. X-rays examination revealed multiple sharply demarcated radiolucent lesions separated by areas of dense and sclerotic bone. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen revealed island of epithelial cells in a fibrous st...
Adamantinoma of long bone Introduction: Unusual neoplasm, almost always located in tibial shaft. Clinical features: Localized swelling and pain for several years. Age: Between 15-55 yrs. Radiological features: * An eccentric well demarcated area of destruction usually involving the anterior poion of the tibial shaft. *...
1
Adamantinoma
Osteofibrous dysplasia
Osteosarcoma
Fibrous coical defect
Surgery
null
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A 52 year female pt. presents with symptoms of pheochromocytoma. She also has a thyroid carcinoma. Her thyroid Ca is of which type :
Ans. is 'b' ie. Medullary carcinoma (Ref Harrison 17/e p2359 (16/e, p 2231, 15/e, p 2185) & Q. Nov. 2000)Pt. is having MEN syndrome type II.MEN syndrome is associated with medullary Ca of thyroid.
2
Anaplastic
Medullary
Folliculare
Papillary
Surgery
Thyroid Malignancies
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The first permanent tooth to appear is:
Ans: A (1st molar) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010.Explanation:Appearance of temporary teeth:Lower central incisor (6 mths)Upper central incisor (7 M)Upper lateral incisor (8 M)Lower lateral incisor (9 M)1 st molar ( 1 yr)Canine (1 1/2 yr)2nd molar (2 yr)A...
1
1st molar
Lateral incisor
Upper canine
1st premolar
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
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single
Radical retroperitoneal lymphnode dissection is indicated for all the following testicular tumours except -
null
4
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Teratocarcinoma
Seminoma
Medicine
null
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multi
A young patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision with systolic murmur over chest, ocular examination reveals - cherry red spot in macula with clear AC, with perception of light, diagnosis:
A i.e. Central retinal aery occlusion All the above can lead to sudden painless loss of vision, but Cherry-Red Spot is seen only in CRAO Sudden Painful Painless * Acute * Macular edema congestive * CRAO Q (central retinal aery (angle occlusion) closure) * CRVO Q (central retinal vein occlusion) glaucoma Q * Central ser...
1
Central retinal aery occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion
Macular choroiditis with infective endocarditis
Central serous retinopathy
Ophthalmology
null
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single
True about malignant hypehermia -
Malignant hypehermia (MH) is a rare genetic hyper metabolic muscle disease. The characteristic phenotypical signs & symptoms most commonly occur with exposure to inhaled anesthetic agents and Succinylcholine. Clinical Manifestations of Malignant Hypehermia: Early Signs: Elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide Tachypnea and/o...
2
It is genetic, hypometabolic muscle disease
It is genetic, hypermetabolic muscle disease
It is preoperative complication
It is inherited in Autosomal recessive form
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
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multi
Best IOL is –
The best position of IOL is within the capsular bag in posterior chamber.
2
Anterior chamber
Posterior chamber
Iris supported
Angle supported
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA ---> Citrate + CoASH. This reaction is:
In citric acid cycle, the initial reaction between acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate to form citrate is catalyzed by citrate synthase, which forms a carbon-carbon bond between the methyl carbon of acetyl-CoA and the carbonyl carbon of oxaloacetate. The thioester bond of the resultant citryl-CoA is hydrolyzed, releasing citra...
2
Reversible
Exothermic
Can be reversed by catalase
Competitive
Biochemistry
null
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single
In children which of the following virus has been implicated in the pathogenesis of choroid plexus tumour?
Simian virus 40
1
Simian virus 40
HIV
Herpes simplex
Hepa s B
Pathology
All India exam
210b43e9-4168-4a8c-8e97-5db05e66a996
single
Intracardiac defibrillator (ICD) is useful in which of the following ?
Ref. AHA guidelines   ICD Indications (AHA Guidelines) Class I indications (ie, the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered) are as follows: Structural heart disease, sustained VT Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS) Left ventricular ...
4
Person with Brugada
Person with Arrhythmogenic RV dysplasia
Person after acute MI with CAD
All of the above
Unknown
null
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multi
The minimal current amplitude of indefinite durationrequired for the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes is:
Rheobase is the minimal current amplitude of indefinite duration that results in the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes being reached (i.e. an action potential or the contraction of a muscle). Chronaxie (or chronaxy) is the minimum time over which an electric current, double the strength of the rheobase, ne...
2
Threshold
Rheobase
Chronaxie
Refractory period
Physiology
null
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single
Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage in hepertensive hemorrhage is -
null
1
Basal ganglia
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Hippocampus
Medicine
null
bff80773-9511-4e6b-b3cb-a45f2e9d0e3f
single
Which of the following impart structural durability in a three quarter crown preparation on a mandibular molar?
null
4
Occlusal shoulder
Functional cusp bevel
Proximal groove
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Direct coomb's test detects -
null
2
Antigen in serum
Antibodies in RBC surface
Antigen in RBC surface
Antibodies in serum
Pathology
null
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single
Hailey - hailey disease is:
A. i.e. Benign Familial Chronic Pemphigus
1
Benign familial chronic pemphigus
Pemphigus acutus
Pemphigus
Lyell's syndrome
Skin
null
1194e643-82ea-429e-9f86-537186400854
single
What is the characteristic of a lacerated wound over bony surface due to blunt trauma without excessive skin crushing?
Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to bone, and the subcutaneous tissues are scanty, may produce a wound which by linear splitting of the tissues, may look like incised wound. Lacerations produced without excessive skin crushing may have relatively regular sharp margins. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medici...
2
Irregular margins
Regular sharp margins
Tearing
Flaying
Forensic Medicine
null
401312ad-f021-4556-aa5e-251b17ee6b2c
single
A coin foreign body is stuck in esophagus at 25cm from incisors. This is approximately situated at which of the following levels?
On endoscopy, 3 narrowing's are seen from upper incisors. Mnemonic B - 15 AL - 25 D - 40 B - At beginning/cricopharynx 15 cm from upper incisors A- At Arch of aoa 25cm from upper incisors L- At Left Bronchus 25 cm from upper incisors D- At Diaphragm 40cm from upper incisiors
1
Left mainstem bronchus
Diaphragm
Cricopharyngeal constriction
Gastroesophageal junction
Surgery
Esophagus
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single
False rejection of a true null hypothesis is due to?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type I error Statistical errors Statistical errors are used to describe possible errors made in statistical decision. Before reading about the types of error you must know null hypothesis because these tests are related to null hypothesis. Null hypothesis says - Any kind of difference or significance ...
2
Type II error
Type I error
Beta error
Error of second kind
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Eleven years after undergoing right modified radical mastectomy, a 61-year-old woman develops raised red and purple nodules over the right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare complication of long-standing lymphedema, most frequently described in a patient who has previously undergone radical mastectomy (Stewart-Treves syndrome). It usually presents as blue, red, or purple nodules with satellite lesions. Early metastasis, mainly to the lung, may develop if it is n...
3
Lymphangitis
Lymphedema
Lymphangiosarcoma
Hyperkeratosis
Surgery
Arterial Disorders
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single
Which of the following "oncogenic viruses" is so far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Adenovirus . Adenovirus type 12 and 18 produce sarcoma when inoculated into baby hamsters. . However there is no evidence at all relating adenoviruses to natural malignancy in human or animals. . All other viruses given in option are oncogenic in man.
4
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein - Barr virus
Herpes simplex Type 2
Adenovirus
Microbiology
null
72ee487b-da15-430c-bc53-410162b0251d
single
Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease
Meniere's disease, also called endolymphatic hydrops, is a disorder of the inner ear where the endolymphatic system is distended with endolymph. It is characterized by (i) veigo,(ii) sensorineural hearing loss, -- Hearing improves after the attack and maybe normal during the periods of remission. This fluctuating natur...
3
Sensorineural deafness
Veigo
Pulsatile tinnitus
Fluctuating deafness
ENT
Ear
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single
After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transpoers reduced in
GluT4 is the major glucose transpoer in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.GluT4 is under the control of insulin.In Type 2 diabetes mellitus, membrane GluT4 is reduced, leading to insulin resistance in muscles and fat cells.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 107
3
Brain cells
RBCs
Adipocytes
Hepatocytes
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
99023c78-540d-4c18-bf21-ba0ef9396849
single
In the inflammatory process the prostaglandins E1and E2 causes
ref Robbins 9/e p85
1
Vasodilation
Increased gastric output
Decreased body temperature
Vaso constriction
Anatomy
General anatomy
a09dec0c-bdde-43b1-8520-84f075f161e4
single
Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy?
b. Toxoplasmosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2814, Ghai 8/e p 574)Cerebral calcification with hydrocephalus in seen in congenital toxoplasmosis.
2
Rubella
Toxoplasmosis
CMV
Herpes
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
7f444937-f1ae-403c-9427-34f6d5c18aa6
single
Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base?
Guanine is a purine base Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p329
3
Cytosine
Uracil
Guanine
Thymine
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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single
All of the following are aerial supply of sternocileidomastoid muscle, except:
Posterior auricular aery
1
Posterior auricular aery
Occipital aery
Thyrocervical trunk
Superior thyroid aery
Anatomy
null
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multi
Which of the following is the source of energy for a cardiac muscle at normal conditions?
Hea consumes more energy than any other organ. It utilizes about 6 kg of ATP per day, 20-30 times of its own weight. Cardiac muscle derives its energy by oxidative metabolism of fatty acids (60-90%) and glucose 10-40%. Ketone bodies are also normally metabolized. In addition, energy transfer to hea's myofibrils occurs ...
1
Fatty acids
Ketone bodies
Glucose
Any of the above
Biochemistry
null
be25be49-cf41-421d-9f1e-7d9904b6ef9b
multi
Testosterone production is mainly contributed by
Testosterone- the principal male sex hormone (androgen) that is produced by Leydig&;s cells of the testes in response to luteinizing hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. It is also produced by the adrenal coex in both males and females. Its chief function is to stimulate the development of the male reproductive org...
1
Leydig cells
Seolie cells
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
Best statistical data diagram to depict incidence change over a period of tissue is
null
4
Pie char
Histogram
Scatter diagram
Line diagram
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
A 40-year old male presents with history of vomiting of blood 2 hours ago. The volume of vomitus was estimated to be 500 ml. His BP was 90/58 mm Hg and pulse was 110/min. On abdominal examination, the spleen was palpable 5 cm below the costal margin. The most likely cause of the bleeding is:
Ans. a. Portal hypertension (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1164)Splenomegaly and massive bleeding leading to hypotension and tachycardia in the patient are in favor of portal hypertension.Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal HemorrhageNon-variceal Bleeding(80%)QPortal Hypertensive Bleeding(20%)QPeptic ulcer disease (MC)Q30-50...
1
Portal hypertension
Gastric ulcer
Duodenal ulcer
Drug-induced mucosal erosion
Surgery
Abdominal Injury
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single
The advantage of unfilled methyl methacrylate is that:
null
1
It can be finished smoothly
It has a low degree of flow
It's non-irritation to pulp
It's wear resistant is high
Dental
null
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single
Regarding HIV which of teh following is nopt true -
HIV genome is diploid composed of 2 identical single stranded positive sense RNA copies.In association with reverse transcriptase enxyme. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:571
1
It is a DNA retrovirus
Contains Reverse Transcriptase
May infect host CD4 cells other than T lymphocytes
Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
Microbiology
Virology
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multi
Most common extra pulmonary involvement of TB ?
Most common extra pulmonary involvement: lymph nodes > pleura> ileocecal - GI TB most common site- ileocecal
2
Bone
Lymph nodes
Pleura
Ileocecal
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
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single
Which of the following anti-hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy:
Ans. (b) ACE inhibitorsRef KDT 6th ed. 553; Williams 24th ed, /: 1025* ACEs are the drugs which inhibit the conversion of angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II. They can cause severe fetal malformations when given in the second and third trimesters.* These include: Hypocalvaria and renal dysfunction and are also teratogenic ...
2
Beta blockers
ACE inhibitors
Methyldopa
Ca channel blockers
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Management and Long-Term Consequences
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single
Menke's Kinky hair syndrome is due to defect in
Menke's kinky hair syndrome is due to mutation in ATP7A gene, leading defective copper transporter.
2
Ca transporter
Cu transporter
Zn transporter
Se transporter
Biochemistry
null
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Most common cause of U/L mucopurulent rhinorrhea in a child is:
A unilateral nasal discharge is nearly always due to foreign body and if duscharge has an unpleasant smell,it is pathognic. If a child presents with unilateral,foul smeling nasal discharge,foreign body must be excluded. Ref Dhingra 6/e,p 161.
1
Foreign body
Adenoids which are blocking the airways
Deted nasal septum
Inadequately treated acute frontal sinusitis
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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single
In thyroid gland, iodine is transpoed into the lumen of the follicles by
Pendrin protein is a chloride-iodide transpoer protein encoded by the gene responsible for Pendred syndrome, impoant in function of thyroid gland, kidney, and inner ear.Endocytosis is defined as the uptake by a cell of material from the environment by invagination of the plasma membrane; it includes both phagocytosis a...
2
Endocytosis
Pendrin protein
Antipo
Primary active transpo
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
Intermediate host for schistosoma haematobium is: March 2013
Ans. D i.e. Fresh water snail Schistosoma haematobium It is an impoant digenetic trematode, and is found in the Middle East, India, Pougal and Africa. It is a major agent of schistosomiasis; more specifically, it is associated with urinary schistosomiasis. Adults are found in the Venous plexuses around the urinary blad...
4
Cat
Dog
Rat
Fresh water snail
Microbiology
null
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single
All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT :
First generation cephalosporins like cefadroxil are mainly effective against gram +ve organisms and possess little activity against Pseudomonas.
1
Cefadroxil
Cefepime
Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime
Pharmacology
null
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multi
A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disorder. Genetic anylysis shows that the patient&;s gene for the muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the most likely effect of this mutation?
Because the mutation creates an additional splice acceptor site (the 3'-end) upstream of the normal acceptor site of intron 1, the 19 nucleotides that are usually found at the 3'-end of the excised intron 1 lariat can remain behind as pa of exon 2. Exon 2 can, therefore, have these extra 19 nucleotides at its 5'-end. T...
4
Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
Capping of dystropin mRNA will be defective
Termination of dystrophin transcription will be deficient.
Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Uterine prolapse is prevented by all the following EXCEPT:
Ans-A (Broad ligament of uterus). (Ref. Shaw's Text book of Gynaecology 13th/pg. 16)The supports of uterus and bladder are seen to be triradiate condensation of endopelvic fascia:Ligaments of the uterusSuspensory ligament of ovaries# Contains the ovarian vessels.Transverse cervical (Cardinal/Macken rodt's ligament)# Ma...
1
Broad ligament of uterus
Levator ani muscle
Uterosacral ligament
Transcervical ligament
Unknown
null
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multi
In children below 5 years of age, most common cause of gingivitis is
null
1
local irritating factors
herpes
vitamin deficiency
malocclusion
Dental
null
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single
Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is -
<p>Plasma ferritin is a measure of iron stores in tissues & is the best test to confirm iron deficiency & is a very specific test . </p><p>Plasma iron & total iron binding capacity are measures of iron availability ;hence they are affected by many factors besides iron stores.</p><p>Plasma iron has a marked diurnal & da...
2
Serum iron levels
Serum ferritin levels
Serum transferrin receptor population
Transferrin saturation
Medicine
Haematology
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A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis -
Neutropenic enterocolitis (NE) is also known as typhlitis, ileocecal syndrome, cecitis, or necrotizing enterocolitis. Despite the previous use of the term "necrotizing enterocolitis" to describe NE cases, necrotizing enterocolitis is a different inflammatory illness seen in newborns and is beyond the scope of this revi...
4
Appendicitis
Leukemic colitis
Perforation peritonitis
Neutropenic colitis
Medicine
G.I.T
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Which of the following cause Teratogenecity -
Vit A is teratogenic and can cause craniofacial CVS and CNS defects.
3
Vit. C
Vit. E
Vit. A
Vit. D
Pathology
null
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single
Double arch aoa arises from?
HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:254 The arch of aoa is derived from the ventral pa of the aoic sac ,its left horn,and the left fouh arch aery
4
Right 6th aoic arch
Left 6th aoic arch
Right 4th aoic arch
Left 4th aoic arch
Anatomy
General anatomy
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A 48-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of sudden-onset dizziness. He notices an abrupt onset of a "spinning" sensation when sitting up or lying down in bed. The symptoms last for 30 seconds and then resolve completely. He has no hearing change or other neurologic symptoms, and his physical examination is com...
This person has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), which is characterized by sudden-onset brief episodes of vertigo lasting less than a minute. The symptoms are usually brought on by head movement. The cause is commonly attributed to calcium debris in the semicircular canals, known as canalithiasis. The debri...
4
basilar migraine
brain stem ischemic events
benign cerebellar tumors
calcium debris (calcium carbonate crystals) in the semicircular canals
Medicine
C.N.S.
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multi
62 year old patient underwent radical mastectomy 10 years back. She has long standing lymphedema. Now the biopsy shows angiosarcoma. This is known as
Long standing lymphedema leading to angiosarcoma is known as Stewart treves syndrome.
1
Stewart treves syndrome
Monodors disease
Zuskas disease
Tietz syndrome
Surgery
null
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single
Children can reach for objects by:
Ans: A (4 months) Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Pg 27. Explanation: (See following table) Fine motor milestones MilestoneAverage age of attainment (in months)Developmental implicationsGrasps rattle3.5Object useReaches for objects4Visuomotor coordinationPalmar grasp gone4Voluntary releaseTransfers ob...
1
4 months
6 months
8 months
10 months
Pediatrics
Developmental-Behavioral Screening and Surveillance
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Which is the most common site of metastatic disease-
Invasion and metastasis are complex processes involving multiple discrete steps; they begin with local tissue invasion, followed byinfiltration of nearby blood and lymphatic vessels by cancer cells.Malignant cells are eventually transpoed through haematogenousand lymphatic spread to distant sites within the body, where...
3
Lung
bone
Liver
Brain
Medicine
Oncology
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All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis of gastrointestinal tract except:
If there is no intestinal obstruction conservative antitubercular treatment is advised. If obstruction is present, surgery is advised under cover of antitubercular treatment. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 23rd Edition, Page 1046; Oxford Textbook of Surgery, 2nd Edition, Page 3243; Sho Textbook of Surg...
4
Presents with a mass in RIF
Barium meal shows' pulled up caecum'
Most common site is ileocecal junction
ATT is the treatment of choice.
Surgery
null
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multi
River blindness is caused by:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Onchocerca(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1421)* Onchocerciasis is also known as River blindness Q and fly involved is Simulium fly.
1
Onchocerca
Loa Loa
Ascaris
B. malayi
Microbiology
Parasitology
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single
Eating disorder with normal weight is?
Ans. B. Bulimia nervosaAnorexia nervosa - Under weightBulimia nervosa - Normal WeightBinge eating disorder - Over weight.
2
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Binge eating disorder
None of the above
Psychiatry
null
2c200974-4377-4902-ac68-52c14ae700c0
multi
All are true about type 1 schizophrenia except?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Negative symptoms Type I (Reactive or acute schizophrenia) Type II (Process schizophrenia) Characteristic symptoms Type of illness Response to neuroleptics Outcome Intellectual impairment Etiology Positive symptoms (Hallucination,Acute Delusion, Thought) Good Reversible Absent Dopamine overactivity Go...
3
Acute illness
Good prognosis
Negative symptoms
Intellect maintained
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Excitatory Neurotransmitter in CNS-
Glutamate is the chief excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS.
4
Acetyl choline
Glycine
GABA
Glutamate
Physiology
null
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single
Anita 15-year-old, complains of heavy periods since 2 months. O/E: wt 40 kg and BP 120/80 mmHg. All of the following investigations are indicated, except :
Investigations in a case of pubey menorrhagia : 1.Blood profile--Hb%, bleeding and clotting time, coagulation factors; blood film. 2.X-ray chest for tuberculosis. 3.Thyroid function tests. 4.Pelvic ultrasound PCOD, early fibroid. 5.If medical treatment fails, D&C should be done to rule out endometrial tuberculosis by P...
4
TSH
Platelet count
Bleeding and clotting time
Estradiol levels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Disorders of menstruation
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Which of the following is/are sign of fracture ?
Sure signs of fracture :- 1 Abnormal mobility(best) 2 Failure to transmit movements proximally 3 Crepitus 4 Tenderness(Commonest sign)
4
Abnormal mobility
Crepitus
Failure to transmit movement proximally
All of above
Orthopaedics
Upper Limb Traumatology
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multi
Antidepressant drug that can be used in nocturnal enuresis is?
Ans. (A) Imipramine(Ref: CMDT 2010/966)Imipramine is efficacious however, Desmopressin is the first choice drug for nocturnal enuresis.
1
Imipramine
Fluvoxamine
Phenelzine
Bupropion
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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Deltoid ligament is attached to all, except
DELTOID LIGAMENT:-Very strong Triangular shape Present on medial side of ankle.Ligament is crossed by the tendons of Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus.Prone to injuries in inversion.Superficial and deep pa. Both pas have common attachments above to the apex and margins of medial malleolus. Superficial pa:-...
2
Medial malleolus
Medial cuneiform
Spring ligament
Sustentaculum tali
Anatomy
Upper limb
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multi
40 year old male with sputum AFB +ve,complains of Hoarseness of voice and painful swallowing on examination vocal cord shows mamillated adenoids and hyperaemia the most likely diagnosis is
null
3
Rinke's edema
Epiglottitis
TB larynx
Cancer of larynx
ENT
null
b1633061-085e-49ae-9488-12e39b81c05b
multi
Case fatality rate describes:
Case fatality rate: Deaths/cases x 100 CFR represents "Killing power of a disease". It is closely related to "Virulence of organism". It is applicable only for acute diseases. Time interval is not specified.
3
Communicability of infection
History of disease
Virulence of organism
Contribution of a disease among all deaths
Social & Preventive Medicine
Other Key Definitions & Concepts
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multi
Laser Endometrial ablation is done in abnormal uterine bleeding in all cases except
Females who desire future pregnancy should not be offered endometrial ablation for AUB.
3
Women not preferring surgery
Small uterine fibroids
Women preferring reproductive function
Failed medical treatment
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1dea8001-f385-45a9-86bd-5d53c8f5b229
multi
A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of midsternal chest pain. Which of the following nursing action should take priority?
The priority nursing action for a patient arriving at the ED in distress is always assessment of vital signs. This indicates the extent of physical compromise and provides a baseline by which to plan further assessment and treatment. A thorough medical history, including onset of symptoms, will be necessary and it is l...
3
A complete history with emphasis on preceding events.
An electrocardiogram
Careful assessment of vital signs
Chest exam with auscultation
Pathology
null
8377884d-3b9b-494c-bf23-ccfa4ddefbc9
single
Palpable purpura is seen in –
null
1
PAN
ITP
TTP
DIC
Dental
null
8c131157-5c72-488b-83d6-186b3dd671d9
single
Which of the following causes retinal pigmentation?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine * Chloroquine is a 1st line anti malarial drug, which is an erythrocytic schizonticide.* However, its prolonged use of high doses (as in DLE, rheumatoid arthritis) may cause loss of vision due to retinal damage in the form of retinal pigmentation.* Chloroquine may also cause corneal deposi...
2
Quinine
Chloroquine
Mefloquine
Atovaquone
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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single
Development of labia majora is from -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Genital swelling Embryogical structureFate in femaleFate in maleGenital ridgeOvaryTestisGenital swellingLabia majoraScrotumGenital foldLabia minoraVentral aspect of penis penile urethraGenital tubercleClitorisGians penis
4
Urogenital sinus
Mullerian duct
Genital ridge
Genital swelling
Anatomy
Urogenital System
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single
All of the following are features of Premature Ventricular Complexes, Except
Answer is D (Prolonged PR interval) PR interval does not characterize Ventricular Premature complexes because AV conduction is not involved. Wide QRS complex, Absent P wave and a frequently Complete Compensatory Pause are all characteristic features of Premature ventricular complexes. The basic ECG characteristics of P...
4
Wide QRS complex
Absent P wave
Complete compensatory pause
Prolonged PR interval
Medicine
null
fc492047-cb2c-4889-b4d5-f6af6996a86c
multi
Pediculus humanus can transmitt:
Ans. c. Chaga's disease
3
Sleeping sickness
Plague
Chaga's disease
Relapsing fever
Microbiology
null
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single
Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning:September 2010
Ans. D: Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450Cyanide poisoning occurs when a living organism is exposed to a compound that produces cyanide ions (CN-) when dissolved in water. Common poisonous cyanide compounds include hydrogen cyanide gas and the crystalline solids potassium cyanide and sodium cyanide.The cyanide ion halts ...
4
Inhibits protein breakdown
Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits protein syntheisi
Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
SSRIs should be carefully used in the young for the management of depression due to increase in:
The use of SSRIs can increase suicidal ideations. This side effect is more common in children and adolescents and hence these medications should be used cautiously in that age group.
3
Nihilism ideation
Guilt ideation
Suicidal ideation
Envious ideation
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
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single
The number of times an individual swallows per day while awake:
null
1
600
800
700
900
Dental
null
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multi
At the CEJ, which of the following occurs
null
4
Cementum meets enamel
Cementum overlaps enamel
Cementum does not meet enamel
All of the above
Dental
null
4db215e7-7557-4120-999c-079e5f1975c3
multi
Which among the following drug is not used in the treatment of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Calcium channel blockers reduce systemic Vascular resistance which incsceases blood flow into Aorta and decreases blood to pulmonary vasculature. This adds to the pathology and worsens the condition.
3
β blocker
α agonists
Calcium channel blockers
Morphine
Pediatrics
null
b40c634a-eb69-4b15-8051-a66981efdda2
multi
Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia?
Ans. (b) Elementary body is metabolically active Reproductive Cycle of Chlamydiae Elementary body (EB) Stable spherical form, metabolically inactive - Extracellular phase Infectious form 200 - 300 nm diameter Rigid trilaminar cell wall Electron dense nucleoid (contains DNA) DNA = RNA Attach to surface of susceptible ep...
2
Has biphasic life
Elementary body is metabolically active
Reticulate body undergoes binary fission
Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
Microbiology
null
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multi
Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess -
null
1
Biliary Sepsis.
Biliary Colic
Appendicitis
Sigmoid Diverticulitis
Surgery
null
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single
Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase Role of insulin in lipogenesis: Insulin promotes lipogenesis by increasing activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity, the principal enzyme of lipogenesis Insulin promotes the entry of glucose in some tissues such as skeletal muscle and adipocytes and thus increases the availability of ...
3
Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
Increases the transpo of glucose into the cells
Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Biochemistry
null
5e855c1e-eb5a-40fd-aaae-1e1b121b6dc1
multi
The ratio of ICF volume to Extracellular fluid volume reaches adult values at the age of
Total body water is divided between 2 main compaments: intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF). In the fetus and newborn, the ECF volume is larger than the ICF volume. The normal postnatal diuresis causes an immediate decrease in the ECF volume. This is followed by continued expansion of the ICF volume,...
1
1 year
2 years
3 years
4 years
Pediatrics
Fluid and electrolytes
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single
Emporiatrics deals with the health of the following group of people:
Emporiatrics is the term coined to describe the science of the health of travellers. Health maintenance recommendations are based not only on the traveler's destination but also on assessment of risk, which is determined by such variables as health status, specific itinerary, purpose of travel, season, and lifestyle du...
2
Farmers
Travellers
Industrial workers
Mine workers
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
4f6a9210-2083-430a-b6d4-fa906163de5c
single
Compared to the other leukemias, hairy cell leukemia is associated with which of the following infections -
Hairy cell leukaemia is seen in patients susceptibility to infections with mycobacterium avium intracellulare. Nontuberculous mycobacteria, also known as environmental mycobacteria, atypical mycobacteria and mycobacteria other than tuberculosis, are mycobacteria which do not cause tuberculosis or leprosy. NTM do cause ...
3
Parvovirus D19
Mycoplasma
HTLV2
Salmonella
Pathology
Haematology
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single
Resting membrane potential of nerve is equal to equilibrium potential of
B i.e. Chloride ion
2
Na+
Cl-
K+
HCO3-
Physiology
null
0180702b-6b64-4fa2-8238-739c8d94e34b
single
Which of the following statements about fluconazole is most accurate?
* Fluconazole (Azoles) act by inhibiting the enzyme lanosterol-14-a-demethylase resulting in reduced ergosterol synthesis. * It has very good CNS penetration and oral bioavailability. * It is not very effective against aspergillosis (voriconazole is the drug of choice).
4
It is highly effective in the treatment of aspergillosis
It does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
Its oral bioavailability is less than that of ketoconazole
It inhibits demethylation of lanosterol
Pharmacology
Anti-Fungal Drugs
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multi
Excess of avidin causes deficiency of:
Excess consumption of raw eggs, which contains a protein 'avidin' - a biotin binding protein leads to biotin deficiency When cooked, avidin is paially denatured and its binding to biotin is reduced. So cooked egg whites are safe to consume.
4
Folate
Choline
Vitamin B12
Biotin
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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single
Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases included all of the following except -
increase in complex carbohydrate consumption that is vegetables ,fruits,legumes and whole grains
2
Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake
A decrease in complex carbohydrateconsumption
Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake
Reduction of cholesterol to below 100mg per 1000kcl per day
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Treatment of choice for Aniseikonia
Treatment 1. Optical aniseikonia may be corrected by aniseikonic glasses, contact lenses or intraocular lenses depending upon the situation. 2. For retinal aniseikonia treat the cause. 3. Coical aniseikonia is very difficult to treat. Image : Aniseikonia Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,Edition 4,Page-39
4
Ohoptic exercise
Spectacles
Surgery
Contact lens
Ophthalmology
Optics and refraction
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