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The adverse effect of clozapine -
Side effects of clozapine Agranulocytosis Urinary incontinence Unstable BP & Tachycardia Hypersalivation (sialorrhoea) Worsening of diabetes Weight gain Seizures Sedation
2
Hypertension
Sialorrhea
Extrapyramidal S/E
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Psychiatry
null
f0f4b676-ab5a-4469-916c-bdfd4113be62
single
Most common cause of death in criminal abortion is?
ANSWER: (B) SepsisREF: Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By R.N.Karmakar page 230, Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Krishan Vij 5th ed fig 26.2The most common complication from illegal abortion is retained product of conception; the most frequent cause of death is infection and sepsis.NATURAL VS CRIMINAL AB...
2
Hemorrhage
Sepsis
Air embolism
Perforation
Unknown
null
54941263-b5cb-47b5-9078-427f5c9d1817
single
Most potent statin -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rosuvastatin o Two most potent statins are Pitavastatin (most potent) and rosuvastatin most potent).
3
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
Rosuvastatin
Simvastatin
Pharmacology
null
5ba3d7de-9e3f-42cf-9ba8-7330fd1c1701
single
Contraception of choice for a post paum village woman with one child :
Copper T
2
Barrier
Copper T
Oral pills
Spermicide
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
786b732a-ad84-4eed-a356-cf042326920e
single
All of the following antifungal drugs inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis EXCEPT :
null
3
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Amphotericin B
None of these
Pharmacology
null
4a8925ce-13f8-4d7c-b753-873cc4765df8
multi
A 33-year-old male immigrant from Taiwan presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. The pain is dull, and it does not radiate or change with eating. On examination the abdomen is soft, there is a mass in the RUQ, and no ascites is clinically detected. He has a prior history of hepatitis B. His laboratory...
(b) Source: (Devita, pp. 533-534) Only the chronic carrier state increases HCC risk, not previous infection. The majority, but not all, of HCC associated with HBV occurs in the setting of cirrhosis (60-90%). Because the latency period of HBV infection is 35 years, before HCC supervenes, early-life infection is strongly...
2
hepatoma
hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
metastatic cancer
hepatic hemangioma
Medicine
Oncology
f8d1aab7-88d9-4a6a-982d-8f8ad20ddd8a
multi
Which of the following is not done before ABG?
Done Before ABG Allen test: integrity of palmer arch. Heparin: to rinse the syringe Poking the aery at 45-degree angle. Extend wrist joint: Radial Aery tent.
3
Allen test
Heparin to rinse the syring
Flexion of wrist
Poking the aery at 45 degrees angle
Medicine
Blood Bank & Transfusion Therapy
76f0ee5a-e1a2-4021-b892-34dda1735a99
multi
Focal lesion in liver is best detected by
MRI in Liver lesions MRI had emerged as the best imaging test for liver lesion detection and characterization MRI provides high lesion-to-liver contrast and does not use radiation Liver-specific contrast media, such as mangofodipir trisodium (taken up by hepatocytes) and ferrumoxides (taken up by kupffer cells) demonst...
1
MRI
CT
USG
PET
Surgery
G.I.T
ab67dd74-7d14-41f7-9591-9b8e7a4c4151
single
Admixed high copper alloy powder contains
null
1
9-20% copper
13-20% copper
9-30% copper
13-30% copper
Dental
null
507d5e62-2027-48e6-a7ba-07c8f343da89
multi
A patient presents with LMP 8 weeks ago. She has history of delayed cycles in the past. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?
CRL is the best USG parameter to determine gestational age in first trimester Crown rump length - it is the longest straight line measurement of the embryo from the other margin of cephalic pole to rump mid-sagittal plane with fetus in neutral , non fixed position - Best seen on TVS - Overall best USG parameter to asse...
3
Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination
Quantitative serum HCG level
Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound
Determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
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single
Pectinate line is an impoant landmark because?
All of the above
4
It marks a divide in nerve supply
It marks the location of change in type of epithelium
It represents a lymphatic and venous divide
All of the above
Anatomy
null
2f186270-7452-4e77-889d-c0a9bc89b0cc
multi
A lady used to repeatedly wash her hands due to the fear of acquiring AIDS is due to
(A) OCD # Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a psychiatric anxiety disorder most commonly characterized by a subject's obsessive, distressing, intrusive thoughts and related compulsions (tasks or "rituals") which attempt to neutralize the obsessions.# Obsessions are defined by:> Recurrent and persistent thoughts, i...
1
OCD
Mania
Depression
Anxiety
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
c337bf74-49d1-4b5d-9838-04319f80bd54
single
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a fever of 103degF (38.7degC), chest pain, and productive cough. The patient has a history of recurrent pulmonary disease and respiratory distress. What microorganism recovered from the lungs of this child is virtually diagnostic of cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is the most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in the white population. The disease is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and...
4
Klebsiella sp.
Legionnella sp.
Pneumocystis sp.
Pseudomonas sp.
Pathology
Infectious Disease
df8d695f-de6a-4843-aeed-e80a6ea24c76
multi
Conduction velocity in AV node 8c SA node-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0.05 meter/sec Cardiac tissueConduction velocity (meter/second)SA node0 [?] 05Inteatrial pathways1Atrial muscle0 [?] 30AV node0 [?] 05 (minimum)Bundle of His1Purkinje system4 (maximum)Ventricular muscle1
1
0.05 meter/sec
0.5 meter/sec
1 meter/sec
5 meter/sec
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
5c30c58e-aa88-4ad7-9c3f-59e0fbae78c0
single
Which of the following cells do Natural killer cells attack?
. Cells which are not able to express MHC 1
2
Cells which express MHC 1
Cells which are not able to express MHC 1
MHC cells which express MHC 2
Cells which are not able to express MHC
Pathology
null
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single
Continues scrutiny of factors that affect the occurence of a disease is -
Surveillance has been defined as the continuous scrutiny of all aspects of occurrence and the spread of diseases that are peinent to effective control. Surveillance goes beyond the passive repoing of cases Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 138
3
Epidemiology
Monitoring
Surveillance
Screening
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
382bb95e-7844-47d5-8371-4cfd97a22c7d
single
Most common site of tear in Mallory-weiss syndrome is in
MALLORY WEISS syndrome is seen in adults with severe prolonged vomiting, causing a longitudinal tear in the mucosa of the stomach at and just below the cardia leading to severe hematemesis.violent vomiting may be due to a migraine or veigo or following a bout of alcohol.common in 1 o' clock position.investigations incl...
4
Upper esophagus
Mid operation
Lower esophagus
Cardia stomach
Surgery
G.I.T
d5e663c9-e7c1-4d04-866a-8fd26dea53b1
multi
A patient presented with 2 months history of increased ICP, with massive parietal edema, CT/MRI shows single and were circumscribed region lesion
(A) Granuloma > Granuloma usually presents with increased ICP, with massive parietal edema. CT/MRI shows single circumscribed region lesion. Gliomas include astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas and mixed tumours. Common sites include the cerebellum, optic nerve and chiasma, hypothalamus and brainstem. Diffuse astrocytomas ...
1
Granuloma
Metastases
Glioblastoma
All of the above
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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multi
Incineration is done for waste category ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Category 6
3
Category 7
Category 9
Category 6
Category 5
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
5a4be86e-b212-46aa-91ba-101c6bf23dd7
single
Pathognomic factors involved in foot ulcers in DM include all, Except:
Answer is C (Microangiopathic changes in blood vessels): Macroangiopathic changes in blood vessels in the form of peripheral aerial disease contribute to the generation of foot ulcers and non microangiopathic changes. Pathogenic Factors in generation of foot ulcers in DM Neuropathy (Peripheral Sensory neuropathy): Trop...
3
Trophic ulcers
Neuropathy
Microangiopathic changes in blood vessels
Macroangiopathy
Medicine
null
daeb3aaf-6056-484e-a38a-5ef8af889e9a
multi
Finding on histopathological examination in liver in case of malaria is :
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around periportal area laden with pigments * In severe infections with plasmodium falciparum, the vital organs are packed with erythrocytes containing mature form of the parasite.* There is abundant intra and extraerythrocytic pigment and organs s...
2
Microabscess formation
Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around periportal area laden with pigments.
Non caseating granuloma
Non specific finding of neutrophilic infiltratio
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
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single
Which of the following is true about sickle cell red blood cells?
HbA/S heterozygotes (sickle cell trait) have a sixfold reduction in the risk of dying from severe falciparum malaria. This decrease in risk appears to be related to impaired parasite growth at low oxygen tensions and reduced parasitized red cell cytoadherence. Parasite multiplication in HbA/E heterozygotes is reduced a...
4
Stability
Altered function
Decreased oxygen carrying capacity
Protective against adult malaria
Pathology
null
ebedbb4a-c05e-4942-907c-d7a3f943b37f
multi
Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cotrimoxazole
1
Cotrimoxazole
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Metronidazole
Pharmacology
null
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single
A 26-year-old man is admitted through the casualty of the hospital for a heroin overdose. His hea rate is 45 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 75/40 mm Hg. Which of the following best depicts the results from an aerial blood sample?
This man has a respiratory acidosis. Overdose with drugs that suppress ventilation (e.g., heroin, morphine, barbiturates, methaqualone, and "sleeping pills") often causes hypercapnia. In patients with an intact renal response, the respiratory acidosis causes a compensatory rise in plasma HCO3-, which lessens the fall i...
1
pH 7.22, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 66, HCO3- (mEq/L) 26
pH 7.34, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 29, HCO3- (mEq/L) 15
pH 7.40, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 40, HCO3- (mEq/L) 24
pH 7.47, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 20, HCO3- (mEq/L) 14
Medicine
null
9002d192-e641-4d19-8c77-f898455cf855
single
Most common bone fracture in body is:
Ans: b (Clavicle)Ref: Maheshwari Ortho, 3rd ed, p. 73
2
Radius
Clavicle
Femur
Vertebra
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around Shoulder
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single
Drug treatment for laryngeal stenosis is
Mitomycin-C is an antineoplastic antibiotic that acts as an alkylating agent by inhibiting DNA and protein synthesis. ... Topical application of mitomycin-C (0.4 mg/mL) was used as an adjuvant treatment in the endoscopic laser management of laryngeal and tracheal stenosis Ref: Internet sources
2
Adriamycin
Mitomycin C
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
ENT
Larynx
78287b9c-d2ff-40bd-aa9f-afa70e8d805d
single
A 40 year old presenting with dizziness on standing with systolic reduction of BP of 50mm Hg; appropriate treatment
Graduated compression stockings (GCS) help prevent the formation of blood clots in the legs by applying varying amounts of pressure to different pas of the leg. Thigh or waist-high stockings help reduce pooling of blood in the legs and help prevent lightheadedness or falling when you stand up (ohostatic hypotension). S...
1
Graded compression stockings
Salbutamol
Fludrocoisone
b-blockers
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
WHO global programme for oral health targets for 2000 irtclude;
null
2
<2 DMFT at 12 years
<3 DMFT at 12 years
<4 DMFT at 12 years
<5 DMFT at 12 years
Dental
null
74f8db4f-702b-45d5-a690-e3f2cac78a5f
single
A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11kg, respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is ?
Ans. is `c' i.e., Classify as severe pneumonia, sta antibiotics and refer urgently
3
Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital
Classify as pneumonia, sta antibiotics and advise to repo after 2 days
Classify as severe pneumonia, sta antibiotics and refer urgently
Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6756d58a-7931-4c20-a4eb-e0d91428056c
single
A 40-year-old female have a right hypochondriac pain. USG is taken. What is the inference?
USG shows highly reflective echogenic focus within the gallbladder lumen, with prominent posterior acoustic shadowing, characteristic of Cholelithiasis. If there is associated cholecystitis, gallbladder wall thickening along with the pericholecytic fluid. Murphy&;s sign might be elicited with probe over gallbladder.
1
Gall stone
Cholecystitis
Porcelain gall bladder
Cholangiocarcinoma
Surgery
All India exam
a4ca461a-ede2-4d85-906a-419003eccfd9
multi
Dentogingival unit comprises of
null
2
Gingival fibres
Gingival fibres and junctional epithelium
P.D. fibres and ligament
None of the above
Dental
null
fe71c76c-f651-44dd-9cce-ab9d8782fba3
multi
All of the following are known predisposing factors for Alzheimer's disease except :
Answer is C (Smoking):Smoking has not been mentioned as a risk factor, for Alzheimer's disease.
3
Down-syndrome
Low education level
Smoking
Female sex
Psychiatry
null
00c45685-53fb-40a9-a05a-1c75446522cd
multi
Action of alpha subunit of G-protein is:
Ans. (C) Breakdown of GTP to GDP(Ref: KDT 8th/e p54)Alpha subunit of G protein contains GTPase activity and thus dissociates GTP to form GDP. This result in re-uniting a subunit with b and g subunit
3
Binding of agonist
Conversion of GDP to GTP
Breakdown of GTP to GDP
Internalization of receptors
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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single
A 50 year old with history of jaundice in the past has presented with right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Examination and investigations reveal chronic calculous cholecystitis. The liver functions tests are within normal limits and on ultrasound examination, the common bile ducts is not dilated. Which of the following...
In the given question there was an episode of jaundice, but LFT is normal and CBD is not dilated. The best option is laparoscopic cholecystectomy only Management of CBD stones associated with GB stones * Pre-operatively detected stones:- * Unsuspected stones found at the time of cholecystectomy:- Experienced laparoscop...
1
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Open choledocholithotomy followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy
ERCP + choledocholithotomy followed by Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy followed by ERCP + choledocholithotomy
Surgery
Gallbladder
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single
Which muscle paralysis can cause ‘Winging of scapula’?
LONG THORACIC NERVE ■ Arises from ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7. ■ Descends behind the brachial plexus on the lateral surface of the serratus anterior, to which it supplies. ■ The serratus anterior muscle can be examined by asking patient to push against a wall with both hands. Winging of scapula will be typically not...
1
Serratus anterior
Supraspinatus
Teres minor
Deltoid
Anatomy
null
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single
True about proximal fragment In supratrochantric fracture is
The peritrochanteric fracture is one of the most serious causes of mortality and morbidity in the elderly. Subtrochanteric fractures account for approximately 10-30% of all peritrochanteric fractures, and they affect persons of all ages. 1,2 The subtrochanteric region of the femur is generally recognized to be the area...
4
Flexion
Abduction
External rotation
All of the the above
Orthopaedics
null
64d1c32f-b4b3-4730-a2a8-c825824c1b17
multi
The BEST method for teaching mothers about using ORS is:
A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill or procedure. Here a procedure is carried out step by step before an audience. Demonstration is found to have high education value in programmes like teaching a mother the use of oral rehydration therapy at home. Ref: Park 21st edition,...
2
Group discussion
Demonstration
Lecture
Flannel graph
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6661e270-bfeb-47fd-84db-a8335649f1c9
single
A female wanted to have an emergency contraception after an unprotected intercourse. Which of these is NOT useful as an emergency contraceptive?
Post coital or emergency contraceptives are, Ethinyl oestradiol Conjugated estrogen Ethinyl oestradiol + Norgestrel Levonorgestrel Mifepristone Copper IUDs Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D.C. Dutta, 6th edition, Page 550.
1
LNG IUD
Oral Mifepristone
Oral Levonorgestrel
Cu-containing IUD
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A characteristic feature of Still's disease -
Stills disease is a variant of rheumatoid commonly occurring in adults in 20's and 30's. Patients characteristics clinical features are: High spiking fever often up to 40°C. Sore throat Evanescent salmon coloured non pruritic rash, seen on chest & abdomen Lymphadenopathy Pericardial effusion Wrist joint involvement ...
2
Prominent kidney involvement
Rashes
Positive Rheumatoid factor
Neutropenia
Pathology
null
40475463-bff9-4d47-9def-271d7ca80d6d
single
Which of the following is false regarding endemic bladder stones?
PRIMARY BLADDER CALCULI (ENDEMIC BLADDER CALCULI) Mainly seen in underdeveloped countries (Noh Africa, Thailand, Myanmar, Indonesia), in pediatric age group. Most common in children <10 Years, with a peak incidence at 2 to 4 years of age. Related to chronic dehydration and low protein, low phosphate, exclusive milk & h...
1
Always associated with recurrence
High incidence in cereal based diet
Peak incidence in 3 years old children in India
Most common type is ammonium urate or calcium oxalate
Surgery
Urinary bladder
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multi
Which of the following is present normally in the urine of a pregnant women in the third trimester and lactation?
Glucosuria during pregnancy is not necessarily abnormal. The appreciable increase in glomerular filtration, together with impaired tubular reabsorptive capacity for filtered glucose, accounts in most cases for glucosuria. Though glucosuria is common during pregnancy, the possibility of diabetes mellitus should not be I...
1
Glucose
Lactose
Galactose
Fructose
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Physiological Changes of Pregnancy
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multi
All are major symptoms of sinusitis except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Halitosis The clinical symptoms of acute sinusitis have been classified into major and minor Major Facial pain or pressure Purulent nasal discharge Fever Nasal congestion Nasal obstruction Hyposmia or Anosmia Facial congestion or fullness Minor Headache Cough Fatigue Halitosis Dental pain Ear pain or ...
4
Nasal bluckage
Facial congeion
Nasal congestion
Halitosis
ENT
null
83b407ed-1452-40fc-bf28-1e5120ba340a
multi
Which of the following is the most widespread method of genetic transfer among bacteria?
Option a, b, c, d * There are three mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria:- 1.Transformation 2. Transduction 3. Conjugation (Most common mechanism), It was discovered first by Lederberg and Tatum. * Conjugation plays an impoant role in the transfer of plasmids coding for antibacterial drug resistance and b...
4
Transformation
Transduction
Lysogenic conversion
Conjugation
Microbiology
General Microbiology (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics)
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single
Which of the following is not an inflammatory mediator
steps: (1) migration and proliferation of fibroblasts into the site of injury and (2) deposition of ECM proteins produced by these cells. The recruitment and activation of fibroblasts to syn- thesize connective tissue proteins are driven by many growth factors, including PDGF, FGF-2 (described earlier), and TGF-b. The ...
2
Tumor necrosis factor
Myeloperoxidase
Interferons
Interleukins
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
A drug given for metoclopramide induced dystonic reaction is :
"Acute muscle dystonia caused by antiemetic-antipsychotic drugs is promptly relieved by parenteral promethazine or hydroxyzine." This is based on the central anticholinergic action of the drugs. Promethazine is a first-generation anti-histaminic which has a maximum penetration of blood-brain barrier and maxi­mum antich...
2
Pheniramine
Promethazine
Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more?
Mother's milk has more lactose as compared to cow's milk.
1
Lactose
Vitamin D
Proteins
Fat
Pediatrics
Breast Milk & Breast Feeding
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single
When pulp cannot be extirpated in narrow canals, which of the following can be used
null
4
Obtundant
Astringent
Haemostatic
Mummifying agent
Dental
null
56191ff4-6fcc-4c6f-9344-111dfc8fac69
single
A man presented with persistent ear pain and discharge, retro-orbital pain and modified radical mastoidectomy was done to him. Patient comes back with persistent discharge, what is your diagnosis?
In a patient with CSOM, persistent ear discharge with or without deep seated pain in spite of an adequate coical or modified mastoidectomy points towards petrositis. Spread of infection from middle ear and mastoid to the petrous pa of temporal bone is petrositis it can also involve adjacent 5th cranial nerve and 6" cra...
3
Diffuse serous labyrinthitis
Purulent labyrinthitis
Petrositis
Latent mastoiditis
ENT
null
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single
Child presents with linear verrucous plaques on the trunk with vacuolisation of keratinocytes in S.Spinosum and S.Granulosum. Diagnosis is ?
Verrucuous epidermal nevus Linear verrucuous lesions, with characteristic histopathological feature of granular degeneration of the epidermis ours the diagnosis of verrucous epidermal nevus. Epidermal nevus Epidermal nevi are hamaomas that are characterized by hyperplasia of the epidermis and adnexal structures. These ...
3
Incontinenta pigmenti
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Verrucous epidermal nevus
Linear darriers disease
Skin
null
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single
A swelling behind the ear suggest fracture of:
null
4
Zygomatic complex
Temporal bone
Orbital floor fracture
Condylar fracture
Surgery
null
440ced06-5425-41ca-9509-5b64d2082026
single
Best test to detect pneumoperitoneum is:
X-ray abdomen in lateral decubitus
4
Chest X-ray
X-ray abdomen in supine position
X-ray abdomen in supine position
X-ray abdomen in lateral decubitus
Radiology
null
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single
In the intraepthielial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of
IEL are6 a distinctive population of T cells dispersed among the luminal epithelial cells. paicularly in the small intestine there is a predominantly of CD8+T cells
2
B cell
T cell
Plasma cells
Basopils
Anatomy
G.I.T
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single
Terry Thomas sign is seen in
scapholunate dislocation : * Most common ligamentous instability of the wrist * Patients may have high degree of pain despite apparently normal radiographs * Physicians should suspect this injury if patient has wrist effusion and pain seemingly out of propoion to the injury * If improperly diagnosed can lead to chronic...
2
Keinbock's disease
Carpal dislocation
Calcaneal disorder
Hip trauma
Orthopaedics
Forearm wrist and hand injuries
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single
The basic reason for "reperfusion injury" to the myocardium is:
After MI, there is failure of Na+-K+ pump resulting in NCX failure Thus intracellular Ca+2 increases Now when perfusion is established (nutrients are available), because of increased ICF Ca+2, cardiac fibers contract very strongly Already muscle fibers are fragile due to M.I, now this contraction results in fuher damag...
3
Generation of free radicals
Extension of the ischemic zone
Increased ICF
Increased ECF
Physiology
Conducting System of Hea
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single
The maxillary teeth which have single antagonist are:
null
4
Lateral incisors
Permanent canines
Permanent central incisors
Third molars
Dental
null
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single
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her parents noticed red blood in her stool. Physical examination reveals mucocutaneous pigmentation. Small bowel radiography discloses multiple, small- to medium-sized polyps that are diagnosed pathologically as hamartomas. Which of the following is the most likely di...
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant, hereditary disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation, which is particularly evident on the face, buccal mucosa, hands, feet, and perianal and genital regions. The polyps seen in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are hamartomato...
3
Congenital teratoma
Hyperplastic polyp
Peutz-Jeghers polyp
Tubular adenoma
Pathology
G.I.T.
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multi
First indices to change in iron deficiency anemia is -
The single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status is by measurement of serum ferritin. Hemoglobin concentration is relatively insensitive. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 623
3
S. Iron
Total iron binding capacity
S. Ferritin
S. Haemoglobin concentration
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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Which of the following is associated with the disease pathology seen in this child?
Child with right sided po-wine stain- seen in sturge weber syndrome. Features of sturge weber syndrome: S- Seizure T- Trigeminal distribution of po wine stain U- Unilateral weakness R- Retardation( mental retardation) G-Glaucoma E- Buphthalamos here, glaucoma is associated with surface ocular vascular malformations .
3
Leg length discrepancy
Airway involvement
Glaucoma
Growth hormone deficiency
Dental
Pediatric dermatology
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Self etching primers
null
1
Simultaneously etch and prime dentin and enamel
Etches enamel only
Only bonds to enamel
Only removes smear layer
Dental
null
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Patient came with hydrops and scarring of cornea. What would be the treatment modality you would opt for him:
Penetrating keratoplasty has to be done in cases of deep corneal scar or hydrops. SURGICAL MODALITIES FOR KERATOCONUS Keratoplasty for Keratoconus DALK (deep anterior Lamellar keratoplasty): when > 1/2 of stroma is involved. ALTK (Anterior lamellar therapeutic keratoplasty) : When less than 1/2 of stroma is involved. P...
1
Penetrating Keratoplasty
Endothelial lamellar Keratoplasty
Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty
Collagen cross linking
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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Incubation period of Mumps -
Incubation period of mumps varies from 2 to 4 weks, usually 14- 18 days Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no.162
3
4-5 days
7-15 days
12-24 days
50 days
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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single
Drainage of venous blood from testes following division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is by: March 2009
Ans. A: Cremasteric veinVaricocelectomy, the surgical correction of a varicocele, is performed on an outpatient basis.The three most common approaches are inguinal (groin), retroperitoneal (abdominal), and infrainguinal/subinguinal (below the groin).Possible complications of this procedure include hematoma (bleeding in...
1
Cremasteric vein
Dorsal vein of penis
Internal pudendal vein
Pampiniform plexus
Surgery
null
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In Moore's classification of omphalocole (examphalos), type I umbilical defect is less than ________ cm.
Moore suggested a classification of omphalocele into types 1, 2 and 3 with the diameters of < 2.5 cm, 2.5 to 5 cm and > 5 cm respectively.
2
0.5
2.5
3.5
4.5
Surgery
null
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A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by
null
4
Surgical excision
Removal of adjacent teeth
Irradiation of the Lesion
Conservative surgery
Pathology
null
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Lyme disease is transmitted by -
Hard ticks transmit the following disease Tick typhus Viral encephalitis Viral fever Viral hemorrhagic fever Tularemia KFD Tick paralysis Human babesiosis Soft tick transmits Q fever Relapsing fever KFD(outside India) Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 840
2
Rat flea
Tick
Mite
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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multi
A 35-year-old woman, on hemodialysis for chronic renal disease, complains of pain in the hands. On examination, the joints are normal with no inflammation or tenderness on palpation. Lab values reveal a low calcium, high phosphate, and high PTH level. What is the most likely diagnosis? (See Figure below.)
The diagnosis is secondary hyperparathyroidism as a consequence of the chronic renal disease. Calcium deposits are seen in the periarticular areas of the fourth and fifth metacarpophalangeal, third proximal interphalangeal, and fourth distal interphalangeal joints. There is slight soft tissue swelling, especially, of t...
3
scleroderma
gout
secondary hyperparathyroidism
pseudogout
Medicine
Endocrinology
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Hyaline in islets of Langerhans resemble -
null
2
Mucin
Amyloid
Glycolipid
Phospholipid
Pathology
null
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Emphysema aquosum is associated with?
Emphysema aquosum is a sign of wet drowning. Drowning fluid actually penetrates alveolar walls to enter the tissues and the blood vessels. This has been described as emphysema aquosum. Cause of death in wet drowning: Disruption of pulmonary surfactant Dry drowning: Water does not enter the lungs, but death results from...
2
Dry drowning
Wet drowning
Immersion syndrome
Secondary drowning
Forensic Medicine
Drowning
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Fosphenytoin different from phenytoin in which of the following-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Can be mixed with saline o While phenytoin cannot be injected in a drip of glucose solution, fosphenytoin can be injected with saline and glucose.
2
Can be used in absence seizures
Can be mixed with saline
Can be given orally
It is the drug of choice for myoclonic seizures
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Macrocytic anemia is seen in all EXCEPT -
Robbins basic pathology 8th edition, page no 423, Answer is option3, post hemorrhagic anemia Post Hemorrhagic anemia is normocytic and normochromic. With chronic blood loss, iron stores are gradually depleted. Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis and effective eeythropoiesis, and it's deficiency thus leads to chr...
3
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Hemolytic anemia
Post hemorrhagic anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Pathology
Haematology
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Chyluria is due to-
The most common presentations of the lymphatic filariases are asymptomatic (or subclinical) microfilaremia, hydrocele , acute adenolymphangitis (ADL), and chronic lymphatic disease. If there is obstruction of the retroperitoneal lymphatics, increased renal lymphatic pressure leads to rupture of the renal lymphatics and...
3
Carcinoma
Tuberculosis
Filaria
Malaria
Medicine
Infection
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single
Which of the following is true about pathophysiology of skeletal fluorosis?
Fluorosis: Excessive deposition of fluorine occurs in bone and soft tissues. Fluorine stimulates osteoblastic activityand fluoroappatite crystals are laid down in bone which are resistant to osteoclastic resorption. This leads to calcium retention, impaired mineralization and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Interosseous...
2
Fluorine increases PTH levels by direct action
Fluoroappatite crystals are resistant to osteoclasts
Fluorine decreases vitamin D levels
Fluorine erodes bone, thereby decreasing bone density
Orthopaedics
Metabolic disorders - 1
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Patient is on Autocoids for 1 year now complains of severe pain Epigastrium relieved by antacid drugs. He complaints of Right Iliac fossa pain and loss of liver dullness. Diagnosis is:
Ans. (a) Perforation of duodenum* This is a clear-cut case of drug induced ulcer and perforation - Duodenal ulcer perforation* Features are diffuse abdominal pain with right iliac fossa pain due to tracking of pus in right colic gutter - Valentino Syndrome* Obliteration of liver dullness* Board like rigidity
1
Perforation of duodenum
Diverticulitis
Gastroenteritis
Enteric perforation
Surgery
Stomach & Duodenum
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Upon contact between the sperm head and the zona pellucida, penetration of the sperm into the egg is allowed because of
.
1
The acrosome reaction
The zona reaction
The perivitelline space
Pronuclei formation
Pathology
All India exam
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A person switches from high fat diet to low fat diet with compensatory increase in carbohydrates to maintain the same calories. Which of the following fat component will be increased ?
As excess of carbohydrates are conveed to fat in the body (liver) which eventually gets packed into VLDL so, VLDL represents the amount of fat production in the body, or in other words, it also represent excess dietary carbohydrate intake. While Chylomicrons represents the externally taken fats. Function Lipoproteins L...
2
Chylomicron
VLDL
IDL
HDL
Biochemistry
Lipoproteins
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G-cells are present mostly in- G-cells are present mostly in-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyloric antrum
3
Fundus
Cardia
Pyloric antrum
Body
Surgery
null
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single
Which type of cells are prominently infiltrated in Rheumatoid arthritis?
(B) T-cells[?]Role of T cells in RAoProminent T-cell infiltrate in RA synoviumoGenetic similarities between RA patients-Specific human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DR genes - HLA DR4, DR14 and DR1oShared Epitope: The third hypervariable region of DR b chains, especially amino acids 70 through 74.oCD4+ T helper (Th) cells ma...
2
B cells
T-cells
NK-cells
Both B & T Cells
Pathology
Immunity
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multi
Most common cause of isolated splenic metastasis is:
Causes of isolated splenic metastasis: Carcinoma Ovary (27%) > Colorectal carcinoma (26%) > Uterine cancer (17%) MC primary for metastasis of spleen: Malignant melanoma (30-50%) > Ca Breast (21%) > Ca lung (18%)
3
Carcinoma pancreas
Carcinoma stomach
Carcinoma ovary
Carcinoma cervix
Surgery
Spleen
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single
Cellular oxidation is inhibited by :
A i.e. Cyanide
1
Cyanide
Carbon dioxide
Chocolate
Carbonated beverages
Biochemistry
null
bcba6895-89ca-4701-98c4-720de400d0c6
single
Which of the following includes the contents of the orbit
Content of Orbit: Eyeball - Eyeball occupies anterior 1/3rd of orbit. Fascia - Orbital and bulbar fascia. Muscles - Extraocular and intraocular muscles. Vessels - Ophthalmic artery, superior and inferior ophthalmic veins and lymphatics. Nerves - Optic, oculomotor, trochlear and abducent, branches of ophthalmic and max...
4
Orbital and bulbar fascia
Abducent nerve
Superior Ophthalmic Veins
All of the Above
Anatomy
null
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Pulse pressure in severe aoic regurgitation is equal to-
Therefore, a defining characteristic of aoic regurgitation is an increase in aoic pulse pressure (systolic minus diastolic pressure). ... Early in the course of regurgitant aoic valve disease, there is a large increase in left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and left atrial pressure.pulse pressure usually between 75...
4
30-45mmHg
45-60mmHg
60-75 mmHg
75-90 mm Hg
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Transplacental exchanges that take place are essential to the well being of the fetus. Which of those listed below is NOT a method?
Placental exchanges that take place occur according to different mechanisms. Simple diffusion is the movement of molecules of gas and water from a high concentration to a low concentration. Iodine readily crosses the placental barrier. Active transpo is another method. This method transpos specific molecules across a m...
4
Simple diffusion
Active transpo
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Physiology
null
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single
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from all of the following except:
Superficial Inguinal Lymph NodesThe horizontal groupThe medial members of the group receive superficial lymph vessels from the anterior abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus and from the perineum. The lymph vessels from the urethra, the external genitalia of both sexes (but not the testes), and the lower half...
3
Urethra
Anal canal below the pectinate line
Glans penis
Perineum
Anatomy
null
5d81196e-b944-48a1-ae0e-3ecdcae74003
multi
Which of the following anticancer drug can cause flagellated dermatitis?
FLAGELLATED DERMATITIS: It is characterised by pruritic, erythematous, linear streaks that resemble whiplash marks, hence the name flagellated. Bleomycin is metabolized by an enzyme hydrolase. This enzyme is deficient in skin and lungs. Therefore, the major adverse effects of bleomycin is related to skin (flagellated d...
4
Cisplatin
L-asparginase
Doxorubicin
Bleomycin
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Hypoplastic defects in permanent central and lateral incisors are likely to result due to severe illness or other factors during:
null
1
First nine months of life
First two years of life
First month of life
Two or three years of life
Pathology
null
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The commonest cranial nerve involved in acoustic neuroma is:
As the eighth nerve schwannoma grows, it extends into the posterior fossa to occupy the angle between the cerebellum and pons (cerebellopontine angle). In this lateral position, it is so situated as to compress the seventh, fifth, and less often the ninth and tenth cranial nerves, which are implicated in various combin...
3
IX
VI
VIII
X
ENT
null
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single
The first case introduced into the population group to be studied is called:
Ans: b (Primary case) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 90The term primary case refers to the first case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit being studied.The term index case refers to the first case to come to the attention of the investigator; it is not always the primary case. Secondary cases are thos...
2
Index case
Primary case
Initial case
Reference case
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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multi
Long thyroid stimulating agent is
Answer is option 2, antibody to thyroid receptors. Thyrotropin receptor (TSHR) antibodies that stimulate the thyroid (TSAb) cause Graves' hypehyroidism and TSHR antibodies which block thyrotropin action (TBAb) are occasionally responsible for hypothyroidism. Unusual patients switch from TSAb to TBAb (or vice versa) wit...
2
Antibody to thyroid globulin
Antibody to thyroid cell receptors
Antibody to thyroxine
Antibody to thyroid cells
Pathology
Endocrinology
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single
Pungent volatile anesthetic agents are:
B i.e. Isoflurane
2
Halthane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Anaesthesia
null
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single
What are the minimum and maximum possible values of Glasgow Coma Score?
Ans. a. Minimum = 3. Maximum = 15 (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1730, 18/e p3381-3382; Sabiston 19/e p1894; Schwartz 9/e p1522; Bailey 26/e p312. 25/e p301. 302)In Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). maximum score is 15 and minimum score is 3.Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)Eye OpeningVerbal responseBest Motor responseSpontaneous4Oriented5Obeys ...
1
Minimum = 3, Maximum = 15
Minimum = 0, Maximum = 13
Minimum = 0, Maximum = 15
Minimum = 3, Maximum = 18
Surgery
Head Injury
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single
Iron is absorbed in: March 2012
Ans: B i.e. DuodenumSite of absorptionStomach is the site of absorption of water and alcoholDuodenum is the site of absorption of iron and calciumIleum is the site of absorption of vitamin B12 and bile salt
2
Stomach
Duodenum
Ileum
Duodenum + Jejunum
Physiology
null
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single
Falanga is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beating of feet * Beating may be of following types -i) Falanga (Falolka/Baatinada) : Beating of soles of feet with blunt object.ii) Telefono : Simultaneous beating of both ears with palms.iii) Quirofana : Beating on abdomen while upper half of body lying unsupported on table.
2
Suspension by wrist
Beating of feet
Placing electric wires in vagina
Clamping of thighs between bamboos
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
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single
The most ideal explanation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is
null
3
Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining
Friability of the epithelial lining
Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts
Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina
Pathology
null
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single
Cognitive model of depression is given by ?
Beck Cognitive therapy is a psychotherapy developed by American pyschiatrist Aaron T. Beck. Cognitive therapy is one of the therapeutic approaches within the larger group of cognitive behavioural therapies. Cognitive therapy seeks to help the client overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinki...
2
Ellis
Beck
Godfrey
Meicheinbanon
Psychiatry
null
eef4bc79-54f8-44a9-97a5-47bdc62e9822
single
A 22 years old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenecity in the right lobe of the liver on USG. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following test should be done next?
MRI as the diagnostic test of choice for hepatic hemangioma at most centers. Nuclear medicine studies may be used to confirm the diagnosis when a probable hemangioma is detected on ultra-sonography. Nuclear medicine studies may also help to clarify the nature of a lesion when the diagnosis is equivocal on CT or MRI. Pe...
2
Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
Hepatic scintigraphy
Hepatic angiography
Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
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single
Dye used for myelography
contrast agents used for myelography are : Iohexol Iopamidol Metrizamide Myodil
2
Conray 320
Myodil
Dianosil
Iopaoic acid
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
858c4c56-8d14-48dd-bb95-5195df720725
single
Which is NOT pyrogenic Interleukin
(C) IL-4 # Pyrogenic cytokines: Known pyrogenic cytokines include IL-1, IL-6, TNF, ciliary neurotropic factor (CNTF), and interferon (INF)a. Others probably exist; although IL-18 - a membrane of the IL-1 family - does not appear to be pyrogenic cytokine. Each cytokine is encoded by a separate gene, and each pyrogenic c...
3
IL-1
TNF-a
IL-4
IL-6
Pathology
Misc.
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single
A 45-year old male presented with severe respiratory distress. O/E he had pedal edema, bilateral crepitation on auscultation. He was admitted to emergency department and expired 2 days of admission. Lung biopsy done suggested the following. What is your diagnosis?
Ans. (d) Heart failure cellsThe lung biopsy shows intra-alveolar transudate granular pale pink material along with alveolar micro-hemorrhages & hemosiderin-laden macrophages ("heart failure" cells) seen in left-sided congestive heart failure.
4
CMV pneumonitis
Small cell Ca lung
Tuberculosis
Heart failure cells
Pathology
Respiration
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multi
Murder is.............. offence.
Ans: (a) Cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailableRef: The First Schedule, Classification of Offences, Indian Penal CodeCognizable offencesCognizable offences are more serious crimes wherein police can arrest the suspect without any warrant.Ex. rape, murder, ragging, dowry death etc.Compoundable offencesCompoundabl...
1
Cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailable
Cognizable, compoundable and bailable
Non-cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailable
Non-cognizable, compoundable and bailable
Forensic Medicine
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
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single
In stage III ovarian cancer patient with upper abdominal disease < 5cm, management of choice is
Management of Advanced stage diseaseIncludes stage III and IVDebulking surgery versus neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by Postoperative chemotherapyPrimary cytoreduction surgery is the preferred in1. Retroperitoneal only disease preoperatively 2. Patients with stage IIIC or IV disease with good performance status who ...
1
Debulking surgery
Mantle cell irradiation
Abdomino-pelvic radiotherapy
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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single