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Cardiac output is increased by all except
Standing from lying down because of pooling of blood in lower limb decrease in cardiac o/p by 20-30%Increasing factorsAnxiety and excitement (50-100%)Eating (30%)Exercise (up to 700%)High environmental temperaturePregnancyEpinephrine 2. Decreasing factorsSitting or standing from lying position (20-30%)Rapid arrhythmias...
4
Exercise
Pregnancy
Hot atmosphere
Standing from lying down
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
879c3167-4b1b-47c2-a78a-45d332763bf6
multi
An 8 year old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows >20% lympho plasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
Ans. B. Infectious MononucleosisThe given clinical situation suggests Infectious MononucleosisFeatures of Infectious Mononucleosis:* Cervical Lymphadenopathy* Fever* History of sore throat* >20% atypical lymphocytesHepatomegaly may be absent (Occurs only in 30% of cases)
2
Tuberculosis
Infectious Mononucleosis
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Influenza
Pediatrics
Viral Infections
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Regarding Good pasture's syndrome all are true except
Good pasture's syndrome causes glomerulonephritis that results in rapidly progressive renal failure.
4
Auto immune disease
Anty body against collagen type IV alpha3 chain of GBM and pulmonary capillaries
Diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
Slowly progressive Renal failure
Medicine
null
f30468a1-c664-4eaa-8fbc-f5b8ae7567ae
multi
A 60-year-old man with diabetes acutely develops double vision and discomfort in his left eye. On examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid, the eye is rotated down and out, and the pupil is 3 mm and reactive to light. The right eye is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Third nerve palsy can result in ptosis of the eyelid. There is also loss of the ability to open the eye, and the eyeball is deviated outward and slightly downward. With complete lesions, the pupil is dilated, does not react to light, and loses the power of accommodation. In diabetes, the pupil is often spared. The sixt...
3
fourth nerve palsy
diabetic autonomic neuropathy
third nerve palsy
sixth nerve palsy
Medicine
C.N.S.
68ff9908-2480-44a0-b76d-a50dd05032f9
single
Lethal midline granuloma arises from ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., NK cellso Lethal midline granuloma or polymorphic reticulosis is a lymphoma of natural killer (NK) cells infected with EBV.
3
T-cells
B-cells
NK cells
Macrophages
Pathology
null
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single
In near vision what is the change?
Ans. b. Depth of focus increasesThe most common problems developed in adults between ages 41 to 60 may to seeing clearly at close distances, especially when reading and working on the computer.This normal change in the eyes focusing ability, called presbyopia.
2
Power of lens decreases
Depth of focus increases
Lateral recti contraction
Zonular tension increases
Ophthalmology
Errors of Refraction
66d59725-ee93-4dc9-986f-971aaf098de3
single
In a community of 5000 people, the crude bih rate is 30 per 1000 people. The number of pregnant female is?
Crude Bih rate: Annual number of live bihs per 1000 mid year population Here, CBR is 30 per 1000 population So for 5000 population - 30/1000 x5000 = 150 That implies, no of pregnant women is 150 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 532
1
150
65
175
200
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
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single
A young male presents with fever, followed by headache, confusion, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. MRI shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Patient is showing features suggestive of herpes simplex encephalitis. Clinical manifestations in viral encephalitis includes altered level of consiousness (confusion, behavioral abnormalities), mild lethargy to coma, evidence of both focal or diffuse neurologic signs and symptoms and focal or generalized seizures. Inv...
2
Acute pyogenic meningitis
Herpes simplex encephalitis
Neurocysticercosis
Carcinomatous meningitis
Medicine
null
05a8b60e-7619-4b98-bbab-9ad7883ab979
single
The shake test shown below can be done to know:
Shake test: - Test done to check cold damage to Vaccine due to freezing. - Once the vaccine is frozen, it tends to form flakes which gradually settle to the bottom, after the l is shaken. - Thus, sedimentation occurs faster in a vaccine l which has been frozen as compared to control l. - These ls should be discarded ir...
2
Whether vaccine was exposed to heat
Whether vaccine had been frozen at some point of time in the cold chain
Whether expiry date of vaccine has reached
Whether the vaccine needs to be mixed with normal saline
Pediatrics
Storage of vaccines
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Largest embrasure lies between:
null
3
Maxillary central incisors
Maxillary central and Lateral incisor
Maxillary canine and first premolar
Maxillary lateral incisor and canine
Dental
null
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single
Absence of lamina dura in the alveolus occurs in:
Radiological Features of Hyperparathyroidism Subperiosteal resorption of terminal tufts of phalanges, lateral end of clavicle and symphysis pubis. Loss of lamina dura (i.e. thin coical bone of tooth socket surrounding teeth is seen as thin white line, is resorbed). Fig : Loss of Lamina Dura Brown Tumor Salt and Pepper ...
4
Rickets
Osteomalacia
Deficiency of vitamin C
Hyperparathyroidism
Orthopaedics
Metabolic disorders - 1
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single
Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy-
(B) (Methyldopa) (506 Dutta 7th)* Intravenous labetalol or hydralazine are drugs most commonly used to manage preeclampsia (56-H 8th).* Antihypertensive drugs are essential when the BP is 160/110 mm Hg to protect the mother from eclampsia, cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac failure and placental abruption.* First line therap...
2
Hydralazine
Methyldopa
Labetalol
Nifedipine
Unknown
null
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single
Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is
(A) Retinopathy # Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is diabetic retinopathy, with diabetic retinopathy being the most common preventable cause of blindness> Ocular features of diabetes mellitus: Blurring of vision Cataract formation Diabetic pupil Diabetic retinopathy Macular edema Retinal neovas...
1
Retinopathy
Cataract
Rubeosis iridis
Vitreous hemorrhage
Medicine
Miscellaneous
1cbc1e30-83a5-441e-88ae-bdbb01c3c049
single
Hyaline casts are seen in
Hyaline casts Normal urine , Febrile disease, diuretics thereapy, prerenal azotemia.
3
Acute tubular necrosis
Thrombotic microangiopathy
Normal urine
Pyelonephritis
Medicine
null
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single
Absense of taste sensation is termed as:
(B) Ageusia # Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue, particularly the inability to detect sweetness, sourness, bitterness, saltiness, and umami (the taste of monosodium glutamate). It is sometimes confused for anosmia--a loss of the sense of smell. Because the tongue can only indicate texture and differe...
2
Hypogeusia
Ageusia
Dysgeusia
Partial ageusia
Physiology
Misc.
474c328c-5f55-4822-bde3-3c0e167a5281
single
Hutchinsons secondaries In skull are due to tumors in
Adrenal neuroblastomas are malig8nant neoplasms arising from sympathetic neuroblsts in Medulla of adrenal gland Neuroblastoma is a cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in several areas of the body.Neuroblastoma most commonly arises in and around the adrenalglands, which have similar origins to nerve cel...
3
Lung
Breast
Adrenal
Liver
Anatomy
miscellaneous
9409edf0-7977-4824-ad70-2172bef513f5
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Which of the following constitute grievous injury-
null
3
Incised wound of scalp
Incised wound of thigh
Fracture Tibia
Laceration of the scalp
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
NiTi alloy shows superelasticity through:
Superelasticity and shape memory of NiTi alloys is because of phase transformation in their crystal structures when cooled from the stronger, high temperature form (Austenite) to the weaker low temperature form (Martensite).
1
Conversion from Austenite to Martensite phase
Conversion from Martensite to Austenite phase
M wire phase
Austenite + Martensite + R phase
Dental
null
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multi
Assessment of obesity by following measurement except
null
3
Quetelet’s index
Broca index
Sullivan’s index
Corpulence index
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the n...
D i.e. HaloperidolThe diagnosis of this lady is morbid grief When there is an exaggeration of one or more symptoms of normal grief or the duration becomes prolonged beyond 6 months without recovery, it is k/a morbid grief.Preoccupation with the memory of deceased is a characteristic featureQ.Idealization of deceased (i...
4
Clornipramine.
Aiprazolam
Electroconvulsive therapy.
Haloperidol.
Psychiatry
null
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All endothelial cells are involved in the production of thrombomodulin EXCEPT those found in:
Endothelium of the blood vessels plays an active role in preventing the extension of clots into blood vessels. All endothelial cells except those in the cerebral circulation produce thrombomodulin. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology By Ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 543; Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Pag...
3
Hepatic circulation
Cutaneous circulation
Cerebral microcirculation
Renal circulation
Pathology
null
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Heme is conveed to bilirubin mainly in:
C i.e. Spleen Breakdown of heme to bilirubin occurs in macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system mainly in the spleenQ also in the liver and bone marrow.
3
Kidney.
Liver.
Spleen
Bone marrow.
Physiology
null
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single
All of the following cause osteonecrosis except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above o Osteonecrosis is a pathologic process that has been associated with trauma, with numerous atraumatic conditions, and with therapeutic interventions, most commonly corticosteroid use and excessive alcohol intake. o Compromise of the bone vasculature, leading to the death of bone and...
4
Sickle cell anemia
Corticosteroid use
DIC
None of the above
Unknown
null
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multi
Which of the following is involved in tumor metastasis cascade -
null
2
Fibronectin
E-Cadherin
Type IV collagenase
Tyrosine kinase
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is avoided in a HIV positive patient on zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir therapy who develops TB?
RIFAMPACIN: Powerful enzyme inducer of the Hepatic Cytochrome P450 system. It increasesmetabolism of many drugs and as a consequence, can make them less effective, or even ineffective in some cases, by decreasing their levels in the plasma. Rifampicin can induce the metabolism of Indinavir and can result in therapeutic...
4
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid
Ethambutol
Rifampicin
Pharmacology
Anti-HIV Drugs
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single
TRUE about RU - 486 is :
Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy
1
Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy
Used along with contraceptive pill
Acts on the cytoplasmic receptor
Used for preventing ectopic implantation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5e98358b-691f-4beb-b607-369fd8461820
multi
Which of the following is sign of severe Dehydration in a child
Sunken eyes, mouth and tongue very dry , condition lethargy ,skin pinch goes back very slowly The patient has 2 / more signs there is severe dehydration Ref: Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 293
1
Lethargy
Irritability
Increased duration of skin pinch
Suken eyes
Pediatrics
Fluid and electrolytes
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Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true -
option A is correct : Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution Ionic dimers and non ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per one paicle in solution Non ionic dimers have six iodine atoms per one paicle in solution option B is incorrect : High osmolar agents (ionic monomers) are only ionic lo...
1
Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution
High osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or non ionic
Gadolinum may cross the blood brain barrier
Iohexol is a high osmolar contrast media
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
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A 6-year-old child presents with lesions on face, covered with honey colored crusts. Pruritus is present. The possible cause can be:
Ans. a. ImpetigoNon bullous impetigo or impetigo contagiosa lesions have golden yellow, honey coloured crusting
1
Impetigo
Herpes
Chickenpox
Molluscum contagiosum
Skin
Bacterial Infection of Skin
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single
In Medullary Carcinoma thyroid Tumour marker is-
null
2
TSH
Calcitonin
T3, T4 and TSH
Alpha Feto protein
Surgery
null
780b3df9-b2ff-416f-af2f-a435169779ab
single
Xylitol affects the MS stains by:
null
4
Reduced adhesion are seen.
Less virulence properties are seen.
Less acid production are seen.
Anyone of the above.
Dental
null
6d4ac045-42a9-46dd-b419-376ca84a8fd2
multi
Spigelberg criteria is used in:
Ans. is a, i.e. Ovarian pregnancySite of ectopicCriteria for diagnosisOvarian ectopicAbdominal ectopicCervical ectopicSpigelberg criteriaStuddiform ectopicRubin criteria/ Palmann criteria
1
Ovarian pregnancy
Abdominal pregnancy
Cervical pregnancy
Tubal pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ecotopic Pregnancy
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single
Hemiparesis is NOT a feature of -
null
4
Carotid artery occlusion
MCA occlusion
ACA occlusion
Vertebral artery occlusion
Medicine
null
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single
Calculate degree of freedom Material Location X Y Glass 8 23 Cupboard 56 3 Metal 1 14
Degree of freedom = (C-1) (R-1) Given rows = 3 ; columns = 2 DOF = (2-1) (3-1) = 1x2 = 2
2
1
2
3
4
Social & Preventive Medicine
Central tendency, Dispersion
057c1ee3-f001-4deb-836d-9eb3114b4c26
single
Which of the following enzyme of TCA cycle is analogous to Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase catalyses an oxidative decarboxylation reaction similar to that of pyruvate dehydrogenase. uses the same coenzymes as the PDH complex (their E3 components are identical). Like PDH complex, its E2 is inhibited by arsenic.
2
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
TCA Cycle
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single
Auditory area located in which lobe:
Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices extend over much of the insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the paritetal lobe
1
Temporal
Parietal
Frontal
Occipital
Physiology
null
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single
Classical symptom of endocervical polyp is
Intermenstrual bleeding is classical symptom of endocervical polyp.
3
Cervical prolapse
Dyspareunia
Intermenstrual bleeding
Dysmenorrhea
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are
C i.e. Co-60
3
1-123
Cs-137
Co-60
Tc-99
Radiology
null
5ac8c4e2-ff75-4ac1-8cab-4c4f48a3c5b0
single
The most likely inheritance pattern depicted in the following pedigree is:
. X-linked dominant
3
Autosomal dominant
X-linked recessive
X-linked dominant
Autosomal recessive
Pathology
null
37b20e22-1fac-4ccf-9856-6d01c1a7e74d
single
Which vitamin required for hydroxylation of proline
null
3
A
D
C
K
Biochemistry
null
51daa449-724c-427d-8883-a61110f9604f
single
Afferents to basal ganglia rests in
The main inputs to the basal ganglia terminate in the striatum. They include the excitatory coicostriate pathway from M1 and premotor coex. There is also a projection from intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus to the striatum (thalamostriatal pathway).Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition.
1
Striatum
Globus pallidus
Striatum
Subthalamus nuclei
Physiology
Nervous system
c5b72144-dbe1-47a6-8312-cdb42994bb01
multi
Maximum contraction of gall bladder is seen with:
A i.e. CCK Most potent stimulus for causing gall bladder contraction is CCK-PZQ.
1
CCK
Secretin
Gastrin
Enterogastrone
Physiology
null
a707b0a3-4a84-421a-9471-36d8442c38ad
multi
The most impoant stimulant of respiratory centre is:
Response to Co2, PaCO2 is most impoant factor in control of ventilation under normal conditions. PCo2 is most impoant input regulating magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. Changes in alveolar ventilation have immediate, pronounced effect on aerial Pco2 (unlike Po2). Even slight alterations from normal Pco...
4
Alkalosis
Decrease PCo2
Increase PCo2
Decrease Pao2
Physiology
null
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single
An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-hour history of fever, shaking chills, and disorientation. Her blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. Physical examination shows diffuse purpura on her upper arms and chest. Blood cultures are positive for Gram-negative organism. Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in t...
Septicemia (bacteremia) denotes the clinical condition in which bacteria are found in the circulation. It can be suspected clinically, but the final diagnosis is made by culturing the organisms from the blood. In patients with endotoxic shock, lipopolysaccharide released from Gram-negative bacteria stimulates monocytes...
4
Interferon-g
Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGFb)
Platelet-derived growth factor
Tumor necrosis factor-a
Pathology
Chemical mediators in plasma: Kinin system
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A patient with blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg presents with pronounced cyanosis. Blood drawn from peripheral veins is observed to be chocolate brown in colour. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer is A (Methaemoglobinemia) Pronounced cyanosis together with chocolate brown colour of 'freshly drawn blood suggests a diagnosis of methaemoglobinemia Methaemoglobinemia * * * Methaemoglobinemia is an uncommon but distinct cause of central cyanosis in the absence of hypoxemia or cardio vascular compromise Methaem...
1
Methaemoglobinemia
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Hemorrhagic shock
Medicine
null
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single
A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks ,the most likely diagnosis is
Red degeneration of fibroid: It results from softening of surrounding connective tissue The capillaries tend to rupture and blood effused out into the myoma causing a diffuse reddish discoloration The tumor it self assumes a peculiar purple red colour and develops a fishy odour,if the tumor is carefully examined We may...
3
Preterm labour
Torsion of fibroid
Red degeneration of fibroid
Infection in fibroid
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Anatomy of the female genital tract
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Call Exner bodies are found in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulosa Ceil Tumour "The formation of Call - Exner bodies is a distinct feature of granulose cells and can be readily recognised in certain types of granulosa cell tumours. "
1
Granulosa Cell Tumour
Embryonal cell carcinoma
Choriocarcinoma
Androblastoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pathology (Carcinoma Ovary)
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multi
Monteggia fracture is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation Eponymous injuries of forearmNameInjuryMonteggia fracture dislocationFracture of upper third of ulna with dislocation of the radial headGalleazi fractureFracture of distal third of radius with dislocation or subluxation of inferior (distal) ra...
1
Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation
Radial head subluxation
Tear in interosseus membrane between radius and ulna with proximal ulna fracture
Distal radius Fracture with injury to Distal radio ulnarjoint
Orthopaedics
Injuries of the Forearm
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Commonest cause of esophageal perforation: March 2007
Ans. D: Instrumentation Instrumentation is by far the most common cause of perforation Boerhaave syndrome/Esophageal perforation, is rupture of the esophageal wall caused by excessive vomiting in eating disorders such as bulimia although it may rarely occur in extremely forceful coughing or other situations, such as ob...
4
Boerhaave syndrome
Carcinoma of esophagus
Acid ingestion
Instrumentation
Surgery
null
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single
Sensory supply for skin over angle of jaw is
Cervial plexus supplies Skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland. Lower margin of the lower jaw
3
Opthalmic nerve
Mandibular nerve
Cervical plexus
Maxillary nerve
Anatomy
null
3810ff6e-9750-4596-b3e2-27815b024b43
single
Population covered by a community health centre?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 100,000
3
5000
30,000
100,000
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
11ac7075-cd3a-41eb-9fa7-6bf00861e8b0
multi
The fastest type of nerve fibers are
According to erlanger and gasser classification, A fibers are myelinated and has large diameter The conduction velocity is 120m per second Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:73
1
A
B
C
All
Physiology
Nervous system
5971a5c1-d823-4c72-8a34-47e674b38073
multi
A 26-year-old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given until culture sensitivity result come?
null
4
Penicillin G
Ceftriaxone + metronidazole
Doxycycline
Cefotaxime + vancomycin
Pharmacology
null
57e7248e-85a1-4b07-8a23-3002573f0850
single
Form of vitamim D which is measured in serum ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 25 hydroxyvitamin DThough, 1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) is the active form of vitamin D, its serum measurement does not provide any information about vitamin D status because it is often normal or elevated due to secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with vitamin D deficiency...Measurement...
4
Cholecalciferol
25 hydroxyvitamin D
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
24,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
Biochemistry
null
643f473d-b481-4fd6-a6d9-1487ff253065
single
High speed includes the R.P.M between
null
2
20000-50000
50000-100000
100000-200000
above 200000
Dental
null
1237557e-8e22-42bb-b2c4-9b12056adeb9
multi
Which of the following factors are present in the final common terminal complement pathway?
C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 are the factors present in common terminal pathway. The classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin activation pathway and alternative activation pathway converge on the final common terminal pathway. The cleavage of C3 by each pathway (classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin act...
3
C4
C3
C5
Protein B
Pathology
null
36bd2440-c375-4399-843a-b024711eaf7b
single
Peptic ulcer is caused by
A. i.e. (H. pylori) (594 - Basic pathology 8th)PEPTIC ULCER - two conditions are key for the development of peptic ulcers1. H. pylori infection(i) 70 - 90% persons with duodenal ulcer(ii) 70% persons with gastric ulcers2. Mucosal exposure to gastric acid and pepsin* NSAIDs are the major cause of peptic ulcer disease in...
1
H. pylori
Campylobacter jejuni
Pneumocystis carinii
Crypto sporidium
Pathology
G.I.T.
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single
All are resected in whipples operation except:
Ans is 'c' ie Portal vein Whipple's operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas.It includes resection of: distal stomach - duodenumgall bladder - proximal jejunumCBD - regional lymphatics head of pancreasRestoration of gastrointestinal continuity require...
3
Duodenum
Head of pancreas
Portal vein
Common bile duct
Surgery
Pathophysiology - Neoplasms
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multi
Prevalence of a disease depends upon the following?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both of the above Prevalence = Incidence 'x mean duration
3
Incidence
Duration
Both of the above
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
2aa01833-0896-4fa5-bf67-8e7b35783cc2
multi
The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary type [Ref: Schwartz 9/e p1361 (8/e p1417); Harrison 17/e p.2242 (16/e, p.2122)\o "Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of ail thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - Schwartzo Incidenc...
3
Medullary type
Follicular type
Papillary type
Anaplastic type
Surgery
Thyroid Malignancies
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single
Transection of the brain stem at the mid-pontine level with bilateral vagotomy causes ______
Transection of the brainstem at the midpoint level with bilateral vagotomy causes apneusis. At mid pontine level lesion, the apneustic centre is intact while the pneumotaxic centre is seperated. Concurrent removal of vagus inputs causes this kind of abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspirati...
4
Ceasation of spontaneous respiration
Continuation of regular breathing
Irregular but rhythmic respiiration
Apneusis
Physiology
Respiratory system
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single
The ureteric bud develops from ?
Development of kidneys - The definative human kidney arises from two distinct sources, 1). The secretory pa , I.e., excretory tubules or (nephrons) are derived from the lowest pa of the nephrogenic cord this pa is the metanephros, the cells of which form the metanephric blastema 2). The collecting pa of the kidney is d...
1
mesonephric duct
metanephric duct
pronephric duct
genital sinus
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
True about treatment of carcinoma left colon with acute obstruction
Ans. is ' a ' , ' b ' , ' c '
4
Haman's procedure
Left colectomy with anastomosis
Proximal colostomy
All
Surgery
null
e544cdb2-18f4-49af-8562-76aca04399e5
multi
Superantigens true is -
Superantigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release. Superantigens bind first to the MHC Class II and then coordinate to the variable alpha or beta chain of T-cell Receptors . Reff: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook ...
4
They bind to the left of the MHC
Needs to processed before presentation
They are presented by APC'S to T cells
Directly attached to lateral aspect of TCR b chain
Microbiology
Immunology
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multi
Which of the following is true about colour vision
Opponent theory for colour vision is proposed by Hering This theory states that the three primary colours red, blue and green oppose one another so that the opponent processing cells can't detect the presence of both colours at the same time Neurotransmitter stored in rods and cones is glutamate Ref: Ganong 25th ed/pag...
3
Independent of wavelength of light
Depends on intensity discrimination
Involves opponent colour cells
Minimum at fixation point
Physiology
Nervous system
69f2ea5b-4cdc-4f8d-abf5-e018d66a4f3f
multi
In which of the following ahritis erosion are not seen
Ref Semantischolar.org
2
Rheumatoid ahritis
Systemic lupus ehematosus
Psoriasis
Gout
Medicine
Immune system
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single
Alvarado score is used for
Answer- B. Acute appendicitisScoring system for Acute Appendicitis: Alvarado Score:The diagnosis of appendicitis is based primarily on clinical history and physical examination assisted by blood counts. A number of clinical and laboratory based scoring systems have been devised to assist diagnosis.The most widely used ...
2
Acute cholecystitis
Acute appendicitis
Acute apncreatitis
Acute epidydimitis
Surgery
null
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single
Indication of fetal distress is:
Ans: d
4
Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH
Meconium staining
Late deceleration of heart rate
All of the above
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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multi
AED stands for?
ADE is automated external defibrilater An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a poable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia,and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of...
2
Automatic external defibrillator
Automated external defibrillator
Automatic electrical defibrillator
Automated electrical defibrillator
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of ?
null
1
Aldolase B
Fructokinase
Triokinase
Aldolase A
Biochemistry
null
1ce164cc-d15b-4689-883b-8404e8fa6e32
single
Which cardiovascular change is physiological in last trimester of pregnancy?
Ans. is c, i.e. Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in the left 4th intercostal spaceRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 52; Williams Obs. 25/e, p 60-62, 119, 960Clinical findings related to cardiovascular changes occuring during pregnancy:Heart rate (resting) increases by about 10-15 bpm. QApex beat shifts to the 4th int...
3
Mid-diastolic murmur
Occasional atrial fibrillation
Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in left 4th intercostal space
Cardiomegaly
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Physiological changes during Pregnancy
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multi
Na-K ATPase
Na+-K+ATPase, which actively moves Na+and K+ against their electrochemical gradient. The electrogenic Na K ATPase plays a critical role in cellular physiology by using the energy in ATP to extrude 3 Na+ out of the cell in exchange for taking two K+ into the cell. (REF.GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION ...
1
3 Na out / 2K in
3Na in / 2K out
2Na out / 3K in
2Na in / 3K out
Physiology
General physiology
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single
Which of the following anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?
The complications of IVRA is mainly attributable to the use of the tourniquet. On inflation of the touniquet there is physiological deoxygenation. In patients with sickle cell disease this might lead to sickling crisis. In these patients IVRA causes stasis, local acidosis and hypoxia. Hence IVRA is best avoided in sick...
3
General anaesthesia
Brachial plexus block
IV. Regional Anaesthesia
Spinal
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Raynaud's phenomenon seen in all EXCEPT:
Juvenile rheumatoid ahritisREF: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery 9' edition Chapter 23. Aerial Disease, Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition Chapter 243 Table 243-1 "Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis not Juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis" The term Raynaud's phenomenon applies to a heterogeneous symptom ar...
3
Scleroderma
Dermatomyositis
Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis
SLE
Surgery
null
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multi
All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -
Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroidism Hyperpar...
3
Hyperparathyroidism
Steroid use
Flurosis
Thyrotoxicosis
Medicine
Endocrinology
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multi
Protein of muscle which helps in relaxation is
Titin Location: Reaches from the Z line to the M line.Function: Largest protein in the body. Role in relaxation of the muscle.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 51 Muscle & the Cytoskeleton
2
Nebulin
Titin
Desmin
Calcineurin
Biochemistry
miscellaneous
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single
Levamisole is used as all except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Immunodepressant in high doses Levamisol o Levamisole is an immunomodulator - restores depressed T cell function -3 Immunostimulant (not immunodepressant). o Single dose of levamisol can be used in ascariasis. Other uses --> A. duodenal (less active against N. americana). o It causes tonic paralysis (...
4
Single dose in ascariasis
Immunostimulant
Paralysis of worms by depolarisation
Immunodepressant in high doses
Pharmacology
null
8f434b52-2ebc-46df-883d-dd0d6fb2ff27
multi
Which of following is not absorbed in PCT:
D i.e. H+
4
Bicarbonate
Sodium
Phosphate
H+
Physiology
null
26c6de78-a388-45bb-bbe1-c4262e02cbcd
single
IPD records of patients are preserved for how many years ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 years Medical Council recommends that the medical records of the indoor patient to be aintained for atleast a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of treatment.
2
1 year
3 years
5 years
7 years
Forensic Medicine
null
eca59089-c0d5-4293-974e-991b07fcd09a
single
The matrix band for restoring a Class-I with lingual extension is
null
3
Tofflemire
Ivory No.8
Barton
T band
Dental
null
adb3decb-9983-4daf-b705-49760cc8268b
single
Auditory pathway passes through -
Ans-A
1
Medial geniculate body
Lateral geniculate body
Reticular formation
Cerebellar fornix
Unknown
null
974ca715-7c6e-4692-9a32-a85aa3cdde19
single
Durck granuloma is seen in
Ans. (d) Cerebral malaria(Ref: Malaria - Page 76)In malignant cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, causing ring hemorrhage which is accompanied by necrosis of surrounding parenchyma.The damage leads to formation of Durck's granuloma - collection of micr...
4
Congenital syphilis
Cat scratch disease
Histoplasmosis
Cerebral malaria
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
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single
All vaccines are given in disaster,except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cholera Vaccines recommended in disasters o Following vaccines are recommended 1) Children < 10 years :- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus. 2) ...
1
Cholera
Influenza
Measles
Tetanus
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
The goal of NRR=1 can be best achieved by use of following contraceptive methods -
Sterilization is the most effective contraception to achieve NRR =1 Male sterilization Male sterilization or vasectomy being a comparatively* simple operation can be performed even in primary health centres by trained doctors under local anaesthesia. When carried out under strict aseptic technique, it should have no ri...
3
Condom 72/year
IUCD
Vasectomy
Oralpills
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
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All of the following agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children, EXCEPT:1
Morphine has pharmacokinetic differences in young individuals, that may predispose them to develop respiratory depression. So this drug should be used with caution in infants less than 6 months of age who are not ventilated. Drugs used in the induction of anesthesia in children are a mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide...
3
Halothane
Servoflurane
Morphine
Nitrous oxide
Anaesthesia
null
fa667763-829c-4bdd-b022-316802de1244
multi
Which of the following agents is of value in the postoperative care of the hemophilic patient?
null
3
Vitamin K
Monsel's solution
Aminocaproic acid
Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
Pathology
null
e44a7338-5e2b-4a9d-83f1-8cfe53ddf14f
single
A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The causative agent is diagnosed by the -
The causative agent is Enterobius vermiculais & is diagnosed by NIH swab or perianal swab moistened with saline ie by applying the adhesive surface of cellophane tape to perianal skin in the morning & then this is examined on a glass slide inder microscope. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1102
1
NIH swab method
String test
Hetrazan test
Encysted larvae on muscle biopsy
Medicine
Infection
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single
A histological section of the left ventricle of a deceased 28-year-old male shows classic contraction band necrosis of the myocardium. Biological specimens confirm the presence of cocaine and metabolites. Activity of which of the following enzymes was most likely increased in the patient's myocardial cells sholy prior ...
Cocaine causes contraction band necrosis by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, resulting in excessive vasoconstriction of coronary vessels, leading to ischemia and infarction of hea tissue. Under these pathological conditions, myocardial cells switch to anaerobic metabolism and therefore glycolysis becomes the so...
2
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
3923b210-4b02-44cc-9af9-cc3c1fe952c8
single
All are hypercoagulable states, except :
Answer is B (factor V Leiden deficiency) Factor V Leiden mutation (or T Factor V Leiden levels) are associated with a hypercoaguable state and not a Factor V Leiden deficiency. Inherited Defective inhibition of coagulation factors Factor V Leiden (resistant to inhibition by activated protein C) - Antithrombin III defic...
2
Protein C resistance
Factor V Leiden deficiency
Antiphospholipid antibody
Polycythemia
Medicine
null
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multi
Parasites not transmitted through soil:
Ans: (c) TapewormRef: K.D. Chatterjee, 13th edition, Page 212-222Nematodes based on mode of infection:Mode of InfectionOrganismsIngestionEggsEnterobius , Ascaris , Irichuris (EAT)Larva within intermediate hostDrancunculus medinensisEncysted larva in muscleTrichinella spiralisPenetration of skinStrongyloides, Ancylostom...
3
Pin worm
Hookworm
Tapeworm
Roundworm
Microbiology
Parasitology
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single
Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases?
Phosphorylation occurs at the hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine, and tyrosine. A protein kinase is a kinase enzyme that modifies other proteins by chemically adding phosphate groups to them (phosphorylation). Phosphorylation usually results in a functional change of the target protein (substrate) by changing enzyme ...
3
Threonine
Tyrosine
Asparagine
Serine
Microbiology
All India exam
ffd29814-4b7d-4e36-85e4-c61e782384f3
single
All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in an APH patient except
The definite management - comprises prompt delivery, this is considered when ever The patient has her first bout of bleeding after 37 completed weeks. Successful conservative treatment brings the patients upto 37 weeks. If the initial or a subsequent bout of bleeding is very severe Patient is in labour Evidence of mate...
3
37 weeks
IUD
Transverse lie
Significant bleeding
Anatomy
All India exam
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multi
Note a delayed type of hypersensitive reactions -a) Arthus reactionb) Bronchial asthmac) Hemolytic anemiad) Multiple sclerosis
null
3
ab
bc
abc
bcd
Microbiology
null
593811da-563e-4de0-b4d1-dd75b542910e
single
Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome :
Ans. is b i.e. Amniocentesis In a pregnant lady with H/0 previous Down syndrome, the chances of recurrence are increased. Extensive screening should be carried out in all such females. Now in the question given - female is presenting at 18 weeks and investigation of choice is being asked which will definately be amnioc...
2
Triple screen test
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villous biopsy
Ultrasonography
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
6f2173d7-b66f-422c-92a9-02dc927e8f2c
single
Hypersensitivity angitis is seen in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Henoch schonlein purpurao HSP is not hypersensitivity angitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most impoant differential of hypersensitivity angitis.Hypersensitivity angitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angitis or leukocytoclastic angitis is a ...
3
SLE
Polyaeritis nodosa
Henoch schonlein purpura
Buergers disease
Pathology
null
dd19b7e6-2446-4e43-85fc-9ed7a57f96f1
single
Train of four is characteristically used in concern with-
Train of four is used for monitoring neuromuscular block during anaesthesia. Fade on TO4 is the characteristic feature of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockage.
2
Malignant hypehermia
Non -depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
Mechanical ventilation
To check hemodynamic parameters
Anaesthesia
Muscle relaxants
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multi
The commonest site of lodgement of a pulmonary embolus is in the territory of -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lt. upper lobe
4
Rt. lower lobe
Rt. upper lobe
Lt. lower lobe
Lt. upper lobe
Surgery
null
7d0558ce-5aec-471c-a50c-a125f9b47758
single
Plummer vinson syndrome is characterised by all except
rare disease characterized by difficulty swallowing, iron-deficiency anemia, glossitis, cheilosis and esophageal webs.Treatment with iron supplementation and mechanical widening of the esophagus generally provides an excellent outcome.
3
Glossitis
Esophagal webs
Megaloblastic anemia
Esophagal dysplasia
Anatomy
null
22b25c15-11c5-43d2-8faf-d8eb3c84fa00
multi
Which of the following drug is an enzyme inducer?
(Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 59; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 27)Enzyme induction involves microsomal enzyme in liver as well as in other organ.It increases the rate of metabolism 2 - 4 fold. Therefore, effect of drug decreases.Enzyme inhibitors also involves microsomal enzyme.It inhibits the microsomal enzyme, which decreases drug...
1
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Ketokonazole
Erythromycin
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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single
Trantas spots are seen in –
Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are discrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degenerated eosinophils.
1
Vernal conjunctivitis
Eczematous conjunctivitis
Ophthalmia nodosa
Tularemia
Ophthalmology
null
eebcf59f-4836-4016-a11a-c976f4c63955
single