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A woman has a fracture of the left tenth and eleventh ribs. The organ most likely to get injured by these fractured ribs is
It is the most commonly injured organ in the abdomen.
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All of the following nerves pass through Jugular foramen except:
D i.e. 12th nerve
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In a 70 year old male who was working in asbestos factory for 10-15 years. On routine X-ray, a mass was seen in right apical region of the lung. Biopsy was taken from the mass, Which of the following is seen on electron microscopic examination -
. Neumerous long, slender microvilli
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All are true about Desvenlafaxine except
Desvenlafaxine is an antidepressant of the serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor class from Wyeth.
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A patient presents to emergency with a pinpoint pupil, salivation lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level Was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
organophosphates are anticholinesterases so it reduces cholinesterase level. op compounds have muscurnic, nicotinic, and central actions so it causes lacrimation, salivation, tremors.
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Na+ K+ pump which enzyme is used
Ans. (a) ATPaseIn primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from breakdown of ATPOne of these ATPases is sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (Na, K ATPase), which is also known as the Na, K pump
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Insulin is required for glucose transpo in all of the following except: March 2009
Ans. A: RBCInsulin facilitates entry of glucose into muscle, adipose, and several other tissues.The only mechanism by which cells can take up glucose is by facilitated diffusion through a family of hexose transpoers. In many tissues - muscle being a prime example - the major transpoer used for uptake of glucose (called...
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Most common cause of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most common form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia.It is characterised by exeional dyspnea,non productive cough,inspiratory crackles with or without digital clubbing.HRCT show patchy,predominantly basilar,subpleural reticular opacities,traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing.Pul...
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Not true about the anal canal is:
A. i.e. Completely lined by stratified squamous epithelium
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In a 4 x 5 table for Chi-square test, what is the degree of freedom?
Ans. (c) Used to test ignificanc of association between two quantititve dataRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 852* DEGREE OF FREEDOM: it is the no. of observations in a dataset that can freely vary once the parameters have been estimated.* It is used in chi-square test and t-test.* DOF: (c-1) (r-1), where c is no. of columns an...
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Tumor-containing cells of all three germ layers are called -
All Tumors, benign or malignant, have two basic components → Proliferative neoplastic cells → constitute parenchyma. Supportive stroma → made up of connective tissue and blood vessels. The name of tumor is usually based on the cell, e.g. smooth muscle cell tumor → leiomyoma or leiomyosarcoma, skeletal muscle cell t...
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All are recommended for treatment of Primary lung abscess except:
Metronidazole alone is never recommended in the treatment of lung abscess, It is effective against anaerobic organism but the streptococci (Microaerophilic) will be spared which are often the component of flora causing lung abscess. Treatment regimen 1. Clindamycin- 600 mg IV TDS When fever disappear and clinical impro...
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About ICF, true is
Intracellular Fluid (28L)- 40% Body Weight- 67% TBW.
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Brodie syndrome is
Brodie syndrome is an abnormality of transverse occlusal relationships and was named after Allan G. Brodie, who was the first author to present the case of a patient with this malocclusion in 1952 .  Other names can be found in the literature: Brodie bite, exaggerated occlusion, or even scissors bite. The term “syndrom...
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Cyclodevelopmental type of transmission is seen in-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Filaria o Transmission by vectors may be of following types :A) Mechanical transmission# The infectious agent is mechanically transported by vector, e.g., through souling of feet of flying arthropod.# There is no development or multiplication of infectious agent within the vector.B) Biological transmi...
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Among the following, the maximum redox potential is for:
D i.e. Fe2+ Because electrons tend to flow spontaneously from carries of lower redox potential (Edeg) to carries of higher redox potential. The order (sequence) of electron carriers in ETC of mitochondria (and so the increasing order of redox potential) is Substrate --> NADP+ /NADPH --> NADVNADH --> NADH dehydrogenase ...
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MHC II are not presented by -
MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class II molecules are a family of molecules normally found only on antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes, some endothelial cells, thymic epithelial cells, and B cells Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 140
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10 year old boy developed hoarseness of voice following on attach of diphtheria, No other significant OLE or VR is paralysed, treatment of choice is
It is right recurent Laryageal nerve palsy, hense only hoarsness is seen,so wait for recovery.
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Which of the following is not true regarding ETC-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., No role of inorganic phosphate o Inorganic phosphate (Pi) is required in ETC to generate ATP.ADP + Pi -- ATPo ETC occurs in mitochondria and involves transfer of reducing equivalent to generate ATP.
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A patient with mitral stenosis had to undergo surgery. A pre-anaesthetic checkup revealed the increased liver enzymes. Which of the following inhalational agent should be preferred in this patient?
Halothane is hepatotoxic and all fluorinated anesthetic agents can cause a dose-dependent decrease in arterial BP and de­pression of heart. Xenon has minimal effect on CVS function.
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What is the mechanism of acute rheumatic fever -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen Acute Rheumatic fever results from immune response to group A streptococci.The main factor responsible for virulence in infection with streptococcal A group is "M" protein.The body mounts an immune response against streptococci A organism by producing antibodie...
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A 25 year old man has pigmented macules over the palms, soles and oral mucosa. He also has anemia and abdominal pain. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cushing Syndrome Presents with lemon on sticks with hypeension and anemia Albright syndrome At least 2 / 3 features: 1. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia 2. Cafe-au-lait skin pigmentation 3. Autonomous endocrine hyperfunction (eg, gonadotropin-independent) Peutz Jehgers syndrome Located primarily around the nose and mouth,...
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Features of hypothyroidism in infancy include the following except
Hypothyroidism characterized by wide open ( delayed closure) of posterior fontanelle,umbilical hernia,large head,coarse facies,constipation. Reference : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:517,table 17.6.
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Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is -
Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is high, upto 90%.
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NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome?
(A) Loss of taste sensation # HORNER'S SYNDROME results due to interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by the classic Triad of Miosis (constricted pupil), Partial ptosis, & Loss of hemifacial sweating (Anhidrosis).> Von Passow syndrome is an association of Horner syndrome with iris ...
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Efficiency of measles vaccine -
<p>MEASLES VACCINE:- Live attenuated vaccine Person to person transmission of measles vaccine strains has never been documented. Freeze dried product. In the year 2010, the worlds two most populous countries made promising advances in measles control: china held the largest ever SIA , vaccinating > 103 million children...
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Which of the following is not a medicated sealer:
The basic ingredient of the medicated sealer is zinc oxide, but usually they contain other contraindicated ingredients, including paraformaldehyde. Sargenti advocated the use of a sealer containing 6.5% paraformaldehyde and lead that was marketed as N2 and later as RC2B. Lead is toxic to the humans and adds little bene...
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For the following statements, select the most likely type of thyroid cancer.Has the best prognosis of all thyroid malignancies.
Papillary cancer has the best prognosis of all thyroid cancers. Although it is 7 times more common than follicular cancer, fewer people die from it. Even with follicular cancer, most patients will die of other diseases. In common with other thyroid cancers, age seems to be an independent risk factor for poor prognosis.
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Investigation of choice for acute osteomyelitis?
MRI is the investigation of choice for Acute Osteomyelitis MRI is the Investigation Of Choice For evaluating Bone Marrow pathologies Avascular Necrosis of the femur Pehes disease Ankylosing Spondylitis Stress fracture Figure: MRI showed advanced osteomyelitis of the distal femur with a central bone sequestrum and septi...
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In type -II respiratory failure, there is
Type ll respiratory failure occurs as a result of alveolar hypoventilation and results in the inability to eliminate carbon dioxide effectively.It can be caused by drug overdose,brainstem injury,hypothyroidism,myasthenia gravis,Guillain -Barre syndrome,electrolyte derangements,myopathy,etc.So there will be hypoxia and ...
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All of the following are side effects of valproic acid, except-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nephrotoxicity
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Superficial inguinal ring in the female transmits:
The superficial inguinal ring is a triangular apeure in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle and is situated above and medial to the pubic tubercle. In the female, the superficial inguinal ring is smaller and difficult to palpate; it transmits the round ligament of the uterus.
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Dimorphic fungi are all except
Candida is a yeast-like fungus and is not having a mycelial phase Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition
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Vaginal atresia is associated with all except:
Ans. is d, i.e Presence of cervixRef: Williams gynae 3/e, pg 419* Vaginal atresia is a condition where the urogenital sinus fails to develop hence lower part of vagina is absent & is replaced by a fibrous strand.* Genotype of female =46XX* Gonads = Normal ovaries* Secondary sexual characteristics are normal* Upper repr...
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Water Deprivation Test is used to assess
Answer is C (Distal Tubular Function) Water Deprivation Test is used to assess Distal Tubular Function. Water Deprivation Test Water deprivation test is used to assess the tubule's ability to concentrate urine. When a normal person is deprived of water, ADH secretion occurs, which acts on the distal tubule and collecti...
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How does MDR gene act?
The multidrug resistance (MDR) gene encodes a protein that actively pumps drugs out of tumor cells. This gene confers resistance on a variety of antitumor drugs, including the antibiotics and plant-derived compounds. Tumor resistance to a given chemotherapeutic agent can often be overcome by the administration of multi...
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Hypertonic urine is excreted due to absorption of water in
Concentrated urine is formed due to the reabsorption of water in collecting ducts.
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Propey of acquiring antibiotic resistance from the viral colony is by -
TRANSDUCTION: the transfer of a poion of the DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is known as transduction. bacteriophages are viruses that parasitize the bacteria and consist of a nucleic acid core and a protein coat. a phage paicle may have its core beside its own nucleic acid a segment of host DNA. W...
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An young man is brought to casualty with history of hematemesis. There is mild splenomegaly on examination. Cause of bleeding is: March 2009
Ans. B: Oesophageal varices Physical findings in esophageal varices: Pallor may suggest active internal bleeding. Low blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and postural drop of blood pressure may suggest blood loss. Parotid enlargement may be related to alcohol abuse and/or malnutrition. A hyperdynamic circulation with...
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Facial nerve supplies
Facial nerve is the motor nerve of the face. its five terminal branches, temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular and cervical emerge from the parotid gland and diverge to supply the various facial muscles as follows. Temporal - frontalis, auricular muscles,orbicularis oculi. Zygomatic- orbicularis oculi. Bucca...
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All of the following statements about Zenker&;s diveiculum are true Except
It is a protrusion of mucosa through Killian's dehiscence, a weak area of posterior pharyngeal wall between thyropharyngeus (oblique fibres) and cricopharyngeus(transverse fibres) of the inferior constrictor muscle of pharynx. Barium swallow-lateral view shows pharyngeal pouch. It is a false diveiculum because it conta...
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Locus heterogeneity is feature of
Ans. c (Muscular dystrophies) (Ref. H - 18th/Ch. 63; 16th/pg. 360).Many disorders exhibit the feature of locus heterogeneityf which refers to the fact that mutations in different genes can cause phenotypicaily similar disorders. For example, osteogenesis imperfecta, long QT syndrome, muscular dystrophy, homocystinuria,...
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Registration of birth & death with a 6 monthly survey is done in -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sample registration system Sample registration systemo Sample registration system (SRS), initiated in mid 1960s provides reliable estimates of birth (fertility) and death (mortality) rates at state and national Levels.o It is a dual record system .consisting of continuous enumeration of birth and deat...
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A 30 year old male with a history of alcohol abuse for 15 years is brought to the hospital emergency with complaints of fearfulness, misrecognition, talking to self, aggressive behavior, tremulousness and seeing snakes and reptiles that are not visible to others around him. There is a history of drinking alcohol two da...
This patient has:- H/O alcohol abuse Abstinence from alcohol drinking for two days Visual hallucinations (seeing snake & reptiles) Disorientation (misrecognition, talking to self) Anxiety (fearfulness and tremulousness) All suggest the diagnosis of delirium tremens.
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OR is not required in which fracture:?
B i.e. Outer 1/3rd of radius Treatment Plan of Fracture Head of Radius Undisplaced split Single large displaced Small, displaced non - Comminuted fracture 1 aicular (inner 2/3) aicular (outer 1/3.1) - Fracture dislocation * Immobilization in above elbow fragment fragment POP with cuff & collar sling. 1 1 Excision of ra...
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A patient comes in eye OPD presents with diplopia,headache and blurring of vision. On examination while attempting right gaze, right eye abducts but left eye fails to adduct. Patient's right gaze is normal,convergence is also normal. The lesion is most probably in the following:-
Right cerebral coex is the command centre for right gaze origination. These signals runs through right paramedian reticular formation (PPRF) From PPRF signals reach VI cranial nerve nucleus of same side (Right here) which in turn supplies the lateral rectus causing abduction. Signals from Right PPRF also goes to III cr...
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Cervical stroma consists of?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Racemose glands The glands which dip into the stroma are of complex racemose type and are lined by secretory columnar epithelium.There is no stroma in the cervix unlike the corpus and the lining epithelium rests on a thin basement membrane.The change in the epithelium and the glands during menstrual c...
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Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
C i.e. H+ Major difference between x-rays & light are wave length (A) & energyQ Electromagnetic radiation or photon waves are non paiculate (0-mass), non charged (0-charge) waves, that do not require a medium to travel (i.e. can travel in vaccum) and transfer energy from one location to another at the speed of light (c...
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The oxidation of Galactose with strong oxidizing agent produces:
Option a : Oxidation of galactose with strong oxidizing agent produces mucic Acid In the presence of strong oxidizing agent, both first and last carbon of sugar is oxidized to produce Saccharic Acid. If Aldehyde group (C1) is oxidized, then Aldonic Acid is produced. If last carbon (C6) is oxidized, then Uronic Acid is ...
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Site of diabetic foot ulcera) Medial Malleolusb) Lateral malleolusc) Heeld) Head of metatarsale) Head of toes
"Diabetic ulcers commonly result from decreased protective sensation. Diabetic ulcers are usually found on the plantar surface of the foot over the metatarsal heads or heel." - Sabiston.
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About rectal route true is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Used for irritant and unpleasant drugs Rectal route of administration It is a route of systemic drug delivery. Irritant or unpleasant drugs can be put into the rectum as suppositories or retention enemas. Can be used in a patient with recurrent vomiting and in unconscious patient. Absorption of drug i...
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Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to be done is: September 2008, March 2009
Ans. B: Suprapubic cystostomy Patient should be discouraged from passing urine if urethral rupture is suspected. Drainage of full bladders with paial tears can be managed with a suprapubic catheter. Suprapubic cystostomy has the benefit of avoiding urethral manipulation, which can produce fuher urethral trauma and allo...
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All are symptoms of Plumbism, except
Chronic lead poisoning is manifested by facial pallor, anaemia, basophilic stippling of red cells, blue line in the gum (Buonian line), retinal stippling and in the later phase by colic, constipation, palsy, encephalopathy, disturbance of genito-urinary and cardiovascular system . Aldrich-Mees lines are seen in arsenic...
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Charas is -
Charas or Hashish is resinous exudates from the leaves and stems of plant cannabis indica or cannabis sativa.
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Investigation of choice to diagnose congenital hip dislocation in neonates?
Ans BIn neonates the femoral head is cartilaginous and not ossified hence it cannot be identified on radiographs but well demonstrated on USG. Also the Graf's classification using Alpha and Beta angles are very definitive in assessment and can be readily calculated on USG.
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Duration of action of flumazenil is
Duration of action of flumazenil is 30-60min. So the best answer seems to be 30min The onset of action is about 1 to 2 minutes; 80% response is seen within the first 3 minutes. Peak effect is 6 to 10 minutes after administration.Duration range is from 19 minutes to 50 minutes as it depends on the dose was given and ben...
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Anaesthetic that has a smooth induction is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiopental o This question is straight forward as amongst the given options only thiopental is used as inducing agent. o Iv. inducing agents are used for induction because of rapid and smooth induction and drugs used for this purpose are: i) Thiopentone iii) Propofol ii) Methohexitone sod iv) Etomidat...
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Genetic deficiency of complement factor causes:
Ans: d (All of the above) Ref: Ananthanaraya 7th ed, p. 115Deficiency of complement components are associated with a variety of syndromesDeficiencySyndromeCl inhibitorHereditary angoneurotic edema (main mediator of edema is C2 kinin released)C1C2C4SLE & collagen vascular disordersC3 & C3b inactivatorRecurrent pyogenic ...
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At a flow rate of 3L/min, inspiratory (FUO2) concentration of 30–60% can be achieved by using a –
Nasopharyngeal catheter deliver 32% of O2 (FiO2 → 0.32) at flow-rate 3 litre / minute.
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No change of genetic material occurs in which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities?
Inversion Rearrangement that involves two breaks within a single chromosome with reincorporation of the inveed, intervening segment. Not associated with change in genetic material.
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All are true in paralytic squint except
Clinical features of paralytic squint are : Symptoms : Diplopia Confusion Nausea and veigo Ocular detion Signs : Primary detion Secondary detion- It is greater than Primary detion due to the fact that the strong impulse of innervation required to enable the eye with paralysed muscle to fix is also transmitted to the yo...
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Which of the following is true about Eruption of teeth __________
Eruption times vary from child to child.The first teeth begin to break through the gums at about 6 months of age. Usually, the first two teeth to eruptare the two bottom central incisors (the two bottom front teeth). Next, the top four front teeth emerge. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
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Antenatal screening test done in the maternal serum is _______
Antenatal screening test done in the maternal serum is cell-free fetal DNA testing, which is a non-invasive prenatal screening. This test is done using the freely circulating fetal cells in the maternal serum. It is useful for karyotyping and for detecting single gene disorders. Invasive procedures for prenatal diagnos...
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ECT causes -
Most common complication of ECT is amnesia. Both retrograde and antegrade amnesia occurs. Retrograde amnesia is more common than antegrade.
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True about infiltrating lobular breast carcinoma:-
LCIS originates from the terminal duct lobular units and develops only in the female breastQ. LCIS is mostly multicentric & bilateralQ Increased risk of invasive carcinoma is in the both breastsQ. Calcifications associated with LCIS typically occur in adjacent tissues (neighborhood calcification)Q Histologic hallmark o...
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"Hitler intended to improve German race by killing the weak and defective"- this is an example of:
Negative eugenics has little application in civilized world. People suffering from serious hereditary diseases may be sterilized or otherwise debarred from producing children. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 767.
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Oil and Grease are sterilized by:
Ans: A (Hot air oven) Ref: A nanthana ray an, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg. 30-38.Explanation: (See table below) Disinfectant/ SterilisationActive againstUseEthyl alcoholBactericidal but not sporicidalSkin antisepticsMethyl alcoholActive against bacterial and fu...
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50 people are suffering from cholera in a population of 5000. Out of 50, suffering from cholera, 10 died. But the total deaths are 50. What is the death rate
One DALY is equal to one year of healthy life lost.  It is a disability indicator and Japanese life expectancy is used as a standard. Disability - adjusted life year (DALY1 o DALY is a measure of :- i. The burden of disease in a defined populaon ii. The ef ectiveness of inten'entions  It expresses years lost to prematu...
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Stage of 16 cells is
A morula is distinct from a blastocyst in that a morula (3-4 days post feilization) is a 16-cell mass in a spherical shape whereas a blastocyst (4-5 days post feilization) has a cavity inside the zona pellucida along with an inner cell mass
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Rossmann fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme?
Lactate dehydrogenase is comprised of two domains, an N-terminal NAD+ -binding domain and a C-terminal binding domain for the second substrate, pyruvate. Lactate dehydrogenase is one of the family of oxidoreductases that share a common N-terminal NAD(P)+ -binding domain known as the Rossmann fold. By fusing a segment o...
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Seoli cells in the testis have receptors for
Seoli cells secrete inhibin. They have receptors for FSH. LH acts on Leydig cells, which secrete testosterone.
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Hypersensitivity vasculitis is seen most commonly in
HYPERSENSITIVITY VASCULITISIn hypersensitivity vasculitis, postcapillary venules are the most commonly involved vessels, capillaries and aerioles are involved less frequently.It is primarily a disease of small vessels.It is characterized by leukocytosis, a term that refers to the nuclear debris remaining from the neutr...
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Increased IgA deposits are seen in -
Henoch schonlein purpura This syndrome consists of Pruritic skin lesions characteristically involving the extensor surfaces of arms and legs as well as buttocks. Abdominal manifestations → Pain, vomiting, bleeding Nonnzigratory arthralgia Renal abnormalities The disease most commonly affects children between 3 to...
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Which of the following is not true about acute retropharyngeal absess:
M/C cause acute retropharyngeal abscess in children is suppuration of retro pharyngeal lymphnodes secondary to infection of adenoids, nasopharynx and nasal cavity. The M/C cause of acute retropharyngeal abscess in adutls is penetrating injury of posterior pharyngeal wall or cerivcal esophagus.
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Single most common finding in Aphasic Patients
*A deficit of naming (anomia) is the single most common finding in aphasic patients. The persistent inability to find the correct word is known as anomia (literally, 'without names'). Anomia is actually a symptom of all forms of aphasia, but patients whose primary language problem is word retrieval are diagnosed as hav...
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Which of the following insulin should not be mixed with other insulins?
Insulin preparations: Sho acting insulin - Aspa Glulisine Lispro Regular Intermediate acting -> Lente insulin Long acting insulin Detemir Degludec NPH Ultra long acting insulin: Glargine Inhaled insulin - Afrezza All insulin preparation are available at neutral pH. Insulin glargine has acidic pH<4, so insulin glargine ...
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A 20-year-old female presents with excess facial hair and oligomenorrhea, increased levels of free testosterone, and normal ovaries on USG. Most likely diagnosis is:
Ans. A. PCODa. PCOS/PCOD is a disorder of chronically abnormal ovarian function (oligo/anovulation) and hyperandrogenism frequently a/w hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance, resulting in menstrual irregularity, infertility, and hirsutism.b. Rotterdam 2003 criteria for diagnosis of PCOS/PCOD:c. At least 2 of 3 should...
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All are true regarding Seminoma EXCEPT
C. i.e. (Radio resistant) (1312 - 13. S. Das 5th) (1385-B & L 25th)* Testicular seminoma is remarkably radiosensitive tumour and vigorous attempt should be made to irradicate the tumour even in patients with advanced diseaseSEMINOMA - is the most common form of testicular tumour in the adult (Between 35 and 45 years). ...
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Longest muscle in the body
REF BD CHAURASIAS HUMAN ANATOMY SIXTH EDITION VOLUME 2 PAGE 53 Saorius is long narrow and ribbon like it run downwards and medially across the front of thigh .it is the longest muscle in the body. It orgin :anterior superior iliac spine Ipper half of notch below spine Inseion: medial surface of shaft of tibia upper pa
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Giant papillary conjunctivitis can be secondary to:
Ans. (b) Contact lensGIANT PAPILLARY CONJUNCTIVITIS* It is the inflammation of conjunctiva with formation of very large sized papillae.* Cause: It is a localized allergic response to a physically rough or deposited surface (contact lens, prosthesis, left out nylon sutures).* Symptoms: Itching, stringy discharge and red...
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All of the following features are seen in asbestosis except
Asbestosis is a diffuse interstitial fibrosing disease of the lung that is directly related to the intensity and duration of exposure.The disease resembles other forms of diffuse interstitial fibrosis. Past exposure to asbestos is specifically indicated by pleural plaques on chest radiographs, which are characterized b...
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All of the following clinical features are seen in a patient with cystic fibrosis, EXCEPT:-
Cystic fibrosis is associated with hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis not metabolic acidosis. It can also cause respiratory acidosis. Impoant causes of chronic respiratory acidosis in children are chronic lung disease, cystic fibrosis, extensive bronchiectasis and neuromuscular defects. Children with cystic fibrosis dev...
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A 2-day-old male infant is hospitalized in the intensive care unit with acute respiratory distress. Radiographic examination reveals that the patient has anuria, oligohydramnios, and hypoplastic lungs. Facial characteristics are consistent with Potter syndrome. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for ...
Potter sequence, or Potter syndrome, is a rare autosomal recessive trait and is associated with renal agenesis or hypoplasia. Altered facial characteristics include flattened nasal bridge, mandibular micrognathia, malformed low-set ears, etc. Absence or lack of proper development of the kidneys causes oligohydramnios, ...
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The most common indication for liver transplantation in end stage liver disease is
.
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Which of the following is not a phospholipid ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ganglioside Phospholipids are : Glycerophospholipids (glycerol containing) :- Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin), phosphatidylethanolamine (cephaline), phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylinositol, plasmalogens, lysophospholipids, cardiolipin. Sphingophospholipids (sphingosine containing) :- Sphingomyeline
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A 17 years male presented with swelling in the cheek with recurrent epistaxis. Most likely diagnosis is
A. i.e. (Angiofibroma) (230 - Dhingra 4th) (296 - maqbool 11th)NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA* Benign but locally invasive lesion of the nasophagrynx* Exclusively in males 10 and 25 years of age* Lesions arise from the ventral periosteum of the skull as a result of hormonal (imbalance or persistence of embryonic tissue* G...
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Second intermediate host of Dichyllobothrium latum is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fresh water fish
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Which of the following is true regarding mallet finger?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rupture of extensor tendon * Mallet finger Has been explained in previous sessions
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In the shown lateral view, the GIT structure marked with arrow head is?
Normal Lateral Chest Xrays: Normal Findings: - Sternum - Retrosternal space and retrocardiac space should be : clear spaces or lucent areas - Obliteration of Retrosternal space: Right Ventricular Hyperophy - Tracheal Lucency - Lucency of veebra should increase- more black- as we go from top to bottom . - Right dome of ...
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All are features of Vitamin D Its intoxication, except –
There is polyuria (not oliguria) Hypervitaminosis   The sign and symptoms of vitamin D intoxications are secondry to hypercalcemia which is caused by - Excessive bone resorption (major cause) Vit D causes bone resorption. Increased calcium absorption Manifestations are - GIT         --> Nausea, vomiting, anorexi...
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Which of the following is true about alpha 1 antitrypsin?
Alpha 1 antitrypsin : anti elastase protein coded by gene PiMM gene. Any mutation in this gene lead to abnormal formation of alpha 1 antitrypsin protein which leads to Storage of this abnormal enzyme inside hepatocyte instead of it's secretion resulting in manifestation of micronodular cirrhosis of liver and Pan acinar...
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Which disorder involves a loss of pain sensation on one side of the body coupled with the loss of proprioception, precise tactile localization, and vibratory sensations on the contralateral side of the body?
The Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterized by the loss of pain sensation on one side of the body coupled with a loss of discriminative sensations, such as proprioception, vibratory sensation, stereognosis & motor loss on the opposite side of the body.
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Conscious proprioception is carried by
Sensations carried by posterior column -        Proprioception, Vibration, kinesthesia, fine touch. Sensations carried by anterolateral column -        Temperature, pain (lateral) and crude touch (anterior)
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Superimposition technique is used in -
Superimposition technique determines whether the skull is that of a person in a photograph or not.
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For the pathologic sign "Renal stones" select the mediastinal tumor with which it is most likely to be associated (SELECT 1 TUMOR)
Neuroblastoma, a highly malignant tumor of children, occurs along the distribution of the sympathetic nervous system. It is derived from ganglion cell precursors and thus usually causes an increased excretion of catecholamines and their metabolites. Because of its propensity to metastasize to bone and its histological ...
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Structure which passes through both greater and lesser sciatic foramen
GREATER SCIATIC FORAMEN:- Gateway of gluteal region.1. pyriformis: key muscle of the region. 2. structures passing above pyriformis.A. Superior gluteal nerve B. Superior gluteal vessels. 3. Structures passing below the pyriformis:-Inferior gluteal nerve and vessels.Sciatic nerve Posterior cutaneous nerve of thighNerve ...
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Enzyme deficient in Galactose, most commonly
Galactose is a substrate for aldose reductase, forming galactitol, which accumulates in the lens of the eye, causing cataract. The condition is more severe if it is the result of a defect in the uridyl transferase since galactose-1-phosphate accumulates and depletes the liver of inorganic phosphateUltimately, liver fai...
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Child pugh criteria is used for prognosis of which disease
The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score is a scoring system to measure the severity of chronic liver disease inclusive of cirrhosis.It employs the following: serum bilirubin, albumin, presence of ascitis, mental status ( hepatic encephalopathy ), nutrition and prothrombin time seconds prolonged(Pugh's modification ) Reference : ...
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In compartment syndrome earliest finding is
Ans: a (Pain on passive..) Ref Rocksvood& Greens 6th edPain is considered to be the first symptom of acute compartment syndrome. The pain experienced by the patient is by nature ischemic and usually severe and out of proportion to the clinical situation.Symptoms and signs of compartment syndromeThere are classically 5 ...
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Equatorial diameter of the lens is -
Circumferance of the lens is known as equator. its diameter varies from 8.8mm-9.2mm and the anteroposterior diameter varies with accommodation. REF IMG
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