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Peusis toxin acts by all of the followingmechanisms except ?
Increased calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum IRef: Harrison 170i/e p. 933] Peussis toxin is an exotoxin that has A and B subunits. B subunit binds to the target cells whereas A subunit acts on the target. First, the peussis toxin itself gets activated by glutathione and ATP. Once the toxin gets activated it ac...
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In a child of one month age with history of nonbilious vomiting and no weight gain with palpable epigastric lump, first investigation to be done is
Ans. b (Ultrasonography) (Ref. Bailey and Love 25th/pg. 79)CONGENITAL HYPERTROPHIC PYLORIC STENOSIS (CHPS/IHPS)# Increased incidence in firstborn male child with M:F ratio 4:1. Incidence of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is approximately 2-5 per 1,000 births per year.# Most commonly affects boys aged 2-8 weeks# Characte...
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Basophilic inclusion bodies are seen in:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenovirus Inclusion bodies are aggregates of stainable substances in the nucleus or cytoplasm.Cowdry inclusion bodies are classified into two groups called type A and B.Type A included those (a) which were granular and (b) which produced a severe reaction in the cell leading to death.Type B were thos...
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Persistent primary hyperplastic vitreous is associated with -
Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV), also known as Persistent Fetal Vasculature (PFV), is a rare congenital developmental anomaly of the eye that results following failure of the embryological, primary vitreous and hyaloid vasculature to regress seen in Trisomy 13 -patau syndrome,Norrie disease,Walker-warbu...
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The drug mainly causing afterload reduction is:
ACE inhibitors are mixed dilators. They inhibit the generation of angiotensin II resulting in dilatation of aerioles which decreases peripheral vascular resistance and thereby after load. Nitrates are primarily venodilators- decrease Cardiac output mainly calcium channel blockers are mainly aeriolar dilators -decreases...
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All are poor prognostic for multiple myeloma except
A - Commonest mutation associated with multiple myeloma is 13q deletion. Poor prognostic factor associated with multiple myeloma are: 1. t (14 16) 2. 1q gain 3. 3.t (4 14) Risk Stratification in Myeloma CHROMOSOMAL ABNORMALITIES Method Standard Risk (80%) (Expected Survival 6-7+ Years) High Risk (20%)(Expected Survival...
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A 22-year-old primigravida gives birth to a boy at 38 weeks' gestation. On physical examination, the infant appears normal except for an abnormal right hip click with the Ortolani maneuver. Ligamentous laxity of the hip is noted. The mother asks if there is any risk that future children will be born with a similar malf...
This is developmental dysplasia of the hip. Most congenital malformations, particularly malformations that are isolated defects, have no readily identifiable cause. Most defects are believed to be caused by the inheritance of a certain number of genes and by the interaction of those genes with environmental factors. Th...
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A female presents with the history of slashed wrists and attempted suicide, now present with similar history. The diagnosis is:
Ans. is 'a' (Border line personality disorder) The symptomatic profile of the pt. is in accordance with Borderline personality disorder.Characteristics of Borderline personality disorder is -Unstable mood & behaviourSuicide attemptsBoredomFeeling of emptiness & lonelinessImpulsivenessThe diagnosis can be confused with ...
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An anti-arrhythmic drug that is not proarrhythmic?
Ans. a (Lignocaine). (Ref. KD Tripathi, Pharmacology, 6th /513)# Most anti-arrhythmic can themselves precipitate serious arrhythmias i.e., they have arrhythmogenic potential, hence called proarrhythmic.- Encainide, flecainide, moricizine have higher incidence of sudden death.# Terfenadine, astemizole, cisapride and hal...
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A 59-year maie pg cNvitts with dimness of near vision. On examination, the media was clear in both the eves. What would he the next step?
Ans. a. Refraction with near add A 59-year-old male presents with dimness of near vision. On examination, the media was clear in both the eyes. For diminuation of vision this age, one should think for cataract; but in this case, media (cornea/aqueothens/vitreous) is clear, so cataract is ruled out As there is dimness o...
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Acute hyponatremia become symptomatic at:
Hyponatremia is commonly defined as a serum sodium <135 mmol/L (<135 mEq/L). In patient with hyponatremia that develops over hours, life-threatening seizures and cerebral edema may occur at values as high as 125 mmol/L. In contrast some patients with more chronic hyponatremia that has slowly developed over months to ye...
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Which among the following is the most common site of ectopic phaeochromocytoma?
Almost all pheochromocytomas (about 90%) occur in the abdomen, and most of these (85%) are in the adrenal medulla. Extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas (including sympathetic and parasympathetic paragangliomas) are found in the perirenal area, the organ of Zuckerkandl, the urinary bladder, the hea, the neck, and the posteri...
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A pregnant lady with persistent variable decelerations with cervical dilatation of 6 cm is planned for emergency LSCS. Which of the following is NOT done in management while preparing patient for surgery
Variable decelerations are attributed to umbilical cord compression A supine position will have a mechanical compression from the fetus on the umbilical cord resulting in fetoplacental insufficiency and is hence avoided. Patient is therefore made to lie in left lateral position till surgery Catheerisation is done and I...
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Drug not to be given in ishchemic hea disease
Refer kDT 6/e p547 Isopreterenol is a beta adrenergic agonists and is contraindicated in ishchemic hea disease. As it can increase myocardial oxygen demand by causing tachycardia
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Type of collagen found in basement membrane is ?
Ans. is `d i.e., Type IVTypes of collagen There are at least 28 distinct types of collagen made up of over 30 distinct polypeptide chains Type I is the most abundant collagen. The impoant ones are :?Type of collagen DistributionType] Skin, tendon, bone, corneaType 11 Aicular cailage, interveebral disc, Vitreous humorTy...
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Sex ratio of children population in the age group of 0-6 years according to the 2011 census is -
This information has been added in 22nd /e of Park Child sex ratio (9-6 years) has reached an all time low of 914 since 1961. The fall has been 13 points from 927 (in 2001) to 914 (in 2011) for the country.
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In a study, it is observed that the right ovary ovulates more than the left all are possible explanation for the same except
Right ovary ovulates more becauseAnatomical asymmetryDifference in blood supplyEmbryonal causes
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Flaring of anterior ends of the ribs is characteristically seen in
C i.e. Rickets Flaring of anterior ends of rib is charcteristically seen in ricketsQ and beaded ribs are found in osteogenesis imperfectaQ. Other causes of multiple anterior rib flaring are - achondroplasia, scurvy, thanatophoric dysplasia & normal variants.
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By what coagulation pathway does clotting occur in blood sample collected in a capillary tube?
The extrinsic pathway begins with the release of tissue thromboplastin(tissue factor ) in response to vascular injury or contact between traumatized extravascular tissue and blood. Since there is no source of tissue thromboplastin release as the blood is with the capillary tube, thus clotting proceeds intrinsic pathway...
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Which of the following is not a component of Innate immunity?
The major components of innate immunity are epithelial barriers that block entry of microbes, phagocytic cells (mainly neutrophils and macrophages), dendritic cells, natural killer (NK) cells, and several plasma proteins, including the proteins of the complement system.The adaptive immune system consists of lymphocytes...
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Fracture ala signature is a type of -
Ans. is 4b' i.e.. Depressed fracture of skull o Fracture -ala-signature / signature fracture is also known as depressed fracture of skull vault.o Depressed fracture (signature fracture or fracture-ala signature) :1c caused by a heavy w eapon with a small striking surface, e.g. hammer which causes a piece of skull bone ...
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ASD is associated with all of the following features, except:
Left atrial hyperophy or dilatation is not seen in ASD, instead it is seen in Mitral stenosis. In ASD, left atrium has two outflow tracts. One into L.V through mitral valve and the other into R.A through ASD. These two outflow tracts cause resistance against which the L.A pump is decreased, thus explaining absence of L...
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Regarding Golgi tendon organ true isa) Senses dynamic length of muscleb) Involved in reciprocal innervationc) α-motor neuron stimulationd) Senses muscle tension
Reciprocal innervation is seen in -        Stretch reflex- Reciprocal inhibition   -        Golgi tendon organ reflex- Reciprocal excitation
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In a child with exercise-induced asthma, which is done –
Treatment of exercise-induced asthma Exercise-induced bronchospasm should be anticipated in all asthma patients. Treatment immediately prior to vigorous activity or exercise is usually effective. Treatment is - Short-acting inhaled β-agonist plus cromolyn. or Short-acting inhaled β-agonist plus nedocromil.
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Which of the following food components has maximum thermic effect?
Thermic effect (specific dynamic action) is highest for protein. It indicates energy expenditure above resting metabolic energy.
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The most common consequence of bleaching nonvital teeth is:
There have been reports of external cervical root resorption following intracoronal bleaching procedures. This is probably caused due to the diffusion of hydrogen peroxide through unprotected dentinal tubules leading to resorptive changes in the periodontium.  The caustic nature of hydrogen peroxide can cause the necro...
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A 67-year-old woman complains of paresthesia's in the limbs. Examination shows loss of vibratory sense, positional sense, and sense of light touch in the lower limbs. She is found to have pernicious anemia. Endoscopy reveals an ulcer in the body of the stomach. What does she most likely have?
Patients with pernicious anemia have achlorhydria and an increased risk (about 5%) of developing gastric carcinoma. There is a deficiency in vitamin B12 that leads to megaloblastic anemia and neurologic involvement (subacute degeneration of the dorsal and lateral spinal columns).
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Blood transfusion should be completed within how many hours of initiation-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 4 hours o Blood transfusion should be completed in less than 4 hours because of the dangers of bacterial proliferation. which may occur as blood warms to room temperature."One unit of red cells is often given in 1 to 4 hours. Infusion of a unit for longer than 4 hours in not recommended, as there is a...
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Marker for granulosa cell tumor:
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Inhibin Inhibin is a peptide hormone produced by ovarian granulosa cells that are made up of an alpha sub unit and Beta subunit.Inhibin are of two types - inhibin A and inhibin B.Both inhibin A and B can be elevated in granulosa cell tumours but inhibin B levels are usually elevated more.Typical cutoff...
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Which of the following is a topical sulfonamide ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mafenide Classfication of sulfonamides Sho acting - Sulfadiazine, Sulfisoxaxole, Sulfamethizole, Sulfacystine. Intermediate acting - Sulfamethoxazole. Long acting - Sulfadoxine, Sulfamethopyrazine. Topical Sulfonamides - Sulfacetamide sodium, Mafenide, silver sulfadiazine. Sulfonamide for RA and ulcer...
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Most common site for the osteoporotic veebral fracture is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dorsolumbar spine Osteoporosis is an asymptomatic disorder unless complications (predominantly fractures) occur. Most common symptom of osteoporosis is back pain secondary to veebral compression fracture. Dorso-lumbar spine is the most frequent site. Other common sites of fracture are lower end radius...
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1930. The first-line drug therapy in chronic myeloid leukemia is -
Imatinib,dasatinib, and nilotinib specifically inhibit BCR ABL tyrosine kinase activity and reduce the uncontrolled proliferation of white cells They are recommended as first line therapy in chronic phase CML,producing complete cytogenic response(disappearance of the Ph chromosome) Reference :Davidson&;s principles & p...
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All of the following are features of Mobiz type I block except-
Type 1 Second-degree AV block, also known as Mobitz I or Wenckebach periodicity, is almost always a disease of the AV node. ... Today, Mobitz I hea block is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval on consecutive beats followed by a blocked P wave (i.e., a dropped QRS complex Ref Harrison 20th editi...
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In multibacillary leprosy the follow up examination after adequate treatment should'be done yearly for -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 years Surveillance after treatment o Clinical surveillance of cases after completion of treatment is an impoant pa of the current recommendations for multidrug therapy. o It is essential for the assurance of long term success of treatment and for the early detection of any relapses. o The recommenda...
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Which of the following is the branch of forensic medicine which is a study of death in all its aspects?
Thanatology deals with death in all its aspects. It deals with scientific study of death, types of death, postmoem changes, and its medicolegal significance. The word "death" denotes the death of a human being (S.46, I.P.C.). Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th edition, Page 119.
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All are characteristic radiological features of cardiogenic pulmonary edema except:
Ans: D (Oligemia) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th ed.Explanation:There are two basic types of pulmonary edema. One is cardiogenic edema caused by increased hydrostatic pulmonary capillary pressure.The other is termed non-cardiogenic pulmonary- edema, and is caused by either altered capillary membra...
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Whipworm among the following is
Species Disease/Most affected Form/Transmission Diagnosis Treatment Trichuris trichiura WhipwormCecum, appendicitis, andrectal prolapse EggsIngested Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs in stools Albendazole Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 172-175
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A patient presented with headache and flushing He has a family history of his relative having died of a thyroid tumour. The investigation that would be required for this patient would be -
This patient is having MEN syndrome more specifically MEN type 2, which includes. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid and Pheochromocytoma Headache and flushing are manifestation of pheochromocytonia which can be diagnosed by measuring catecholamine level in urine or blood
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Which of the following statements about Cefepime is true
Refer Goodman Gilman 12th/1498 Cefepime is 4th generation cephalosporin with good activity against pseudomonas. It is given 8-12 hourly
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Cri du chat syndrome involve:
Cri du chat (named after cry of infant like that of a cat) syndrome occurs due to deletion of short arm of chromosome 5. Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 254
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A 32-year-old woman is found to have an empty sella.Which is the most common endocrine evaluation you would expect to find in this patient?
The empty sella syndrome is frequently encountered as the result of x-ray examination of the head for reasons other than suspected pituitary disease. It occurs commonly in obese multiparous women with hypeension. An incomplete diaphragm sella is thought to allow an arachnoid diveiculum containing cerebrospinal fluid to...
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All are seen in chronic MS except-
The first hea sound (S 1 ) is usually accentuated and slightly delayed. The pulmonic component of the second hea sound (P 2 ) also is often accentuated, and the two components of the second hea sound (S 2 ) are closely split. The opening snap (OS) of the mitral valve is most readily audible in expiration at, or just me...
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Tandem bullet is?
Ans is 'b' i.e. Bullet not released on first fire but comes out with second bullet on second shot Tandem bullet (Piggey tail bullet)o It is called one-behind-other bullet because two bullets are ejected one after the other, when first bullet failed to leave the burrel and is ejected by subsequently fired bullet.o There...
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Muscle of fascial expression, which is not supplied by facial nerve ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Levator palpebrae superioris Nerve supply of face Each half of the face is supplied by foueen nerves, one is motor and the rest are sensory. Motor supply is derived from facial (7") nerve which supplies all facial muscles except levator palpeprae sperioris, which is supplied by sympathetic fibers and ...
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Temporary and permanent hardness of water is removed by -
REMOVAL OF HARDNESS: Temporary hardness: Boiling Addition of lime Addition of sodium carbonate Permutit process (Na2 Al2 SiO2 H2O) Permanent hardness: Addition of sodium carbonate Base exchange process (permutit process) Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 787
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All are true about Bullous keratopathy except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Seen in Macular dystrophy Fuch's epithelial - endothelial dystrophy Fuch's dystrophy-slowly progressive bilateral condition affecting females more than males. Primary open angle glaucoma is associated with this condition. Stages and clinical features i) Stage of cornea guttata Hassal - Henle type of e...
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Succinyl CoA is formed from which glucogenic acid ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Valine
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A middle-aged man presents with a lower jaw swelling. Clinically, there is expansion of the left ramus and the X-ray mandible shows soap bubble appearance. What is the clinical - diagnosis?
Ameloblastoma/Adamantinoma is a rare, benign or cancerous tumor of odontogenic epithelium (ameloblasts, or outside poion, of the teeth during development) much more commonly appearing in the lower jaw than the upper jaw. Diagnosis Ameloblastoma is tentatively diagnosed through radiographic examination and must be confi...
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Cephalic index is for determination of -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Race Race determination of skeletonCephalic Index (Cl)Cephalic index is defined as the index of breadth of skull.Max. breadth of skull ,Cephalic index = ------------------------------------------------------100Max. AP length of skullBased of cephalic index races are clasified into following threeDolic...
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Fluorescent dye for ophthalmological diagnosis is injected in:
A i.e. Ante-cubital vein In Fluorscein angiography for diagnosis of ophthalmological diseases dye is injected through Cubital VeinQ
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Not a Cause of Salt & Pepper retinopathy
Salt and pepper retinopathy: Fundoscopic examination reveals granular, pigmentary mottling in the macula and periphery, with punctuate hypopigmentation & hyperpigmentation Causes of Salt & Pepper retinopathy * Congenital Syphilllis * Rubella * Thioridazine *Birdshot chorioretinopathy * Stargardt (rarely)
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Which of the following does not posses both DNA and RNA?
Ans. c. Virus
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Successful treatment of a Zenker diveiculum involves?
Treatment of Choice -Cricopharyngeal Myotomy + Diveiculoplexy (most common among elderly, diabetics for which Diveiculoplexy is a safer procedure) Other alternative procedures: - -Diveiculectomy (for larger diveicula's > 4cm) - Diveiculo-esophagostomy (aka Dohlman procedure) -performed endoscopically.
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Pain along the medial aspect of the arm in a post-mastectomy patient is due to?
POST MASTECTOMY PAIN The breast, axilla and upper are innervated by a variety of nerves; the lateral cutaneous branch of T2 (intercostobrachial nerve), T3 and T4 provide innervation to the anterior chest wall and upper back, the torso and nipple. Sympathetic innervation of the cutaneous structures of the breast is pr...
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First immunoglobin to appear following infection:
IgM
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Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except:
Ans: D (Neuritic) Ref: Thappa, Essentials in Dermatology. 1st ed. Pg 236Explanation:Ridley and Jopling classified leprosy taking into account the immunological and histopathological basis in addition to clinical and bacteriological findings.ClassificationTuberculoid Tuberculoid (TT)Borderline T uberculoid (BT)Borderlin...
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When an intervention is applied to community to evaluate its usefulness, it is termed as a trial for-
.
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Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a defective virus that can replicate only in cells already infected with which of the following viruses?
Hepatitis D virus is a defective virus with an RNA genome and a hepatitis B surface antigen envelope. Two types of HDV infection occur: simultaneous HDV and HBV infection, or HDV superinfection with chronic HBV infection. Diagnosis is made by demonstrating IgM or IgG antibodies, or both.
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All are seen in D.I.C except:
DIC: Findings include the prolongation of PT and/or aPTT; platelet counts <100,000/mL3. The presence of schistocytes (fragmented red cells) in the blood smear with elevated levels of FDP is diagnostic of DIC. Fibrinogen can be decreased or normal but NEVER increased in cases of DIC.
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All of the following will produce conductive hearing loss except
Otosclerosis, serous otitis media, suppurative otitis media come under acquired causes of conductive hearing loss Endolymphatic hydrops which is Meniere's disease is associated with sensorineural deafness. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 32,34.
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In area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following is to be done -
Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *API is a sophisticated measure of malaria incidence in a community. It is based on intensive active and passive surveillance and cases are confirmed by blood examination.
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Best prognosis amongst the following histological variants of breast carcinoma is seen with -
.
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Following statement is true concerning Galactorrhea except:-
All the patients with Hyperprolactinemia do not present with Galactorrhoea Elevations in prolactin may cause Amenorrhea or Galactorrhea or both Normal Prolactin levels Males: 2-20 ng/mL Females (non-pregnant): 2-30 ng/mL Pregnant females: 10-200 ng/mL Galactorrhea , secondary to hyperprolactinemia, is associated with A...
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Pheochromocytoma is usually associated with: September 2007
Ans. C: Neurofibromatosis Pheochromocytoma linked to MEN II ca be caused by RET oncogene mutations. Both syndromes are characterized by pheochromocytoma as well as thyroid cancer (thyroid medullary carcinoma). MEN IIA also presents with hyperparathyroidism, while MEN IIB also presents with mucosal neuroma. Pheochromocy...
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What is the embryolgical remnant of median umbilical ligament?
Median umbilical ligament is a remnant of urachus If patent urachus in adults, urine dribbles from umbilicus known as wheeping umbilicus
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Another name for oral thrush is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Candidiasis Oral thrush Also called: oral candidiasis It is the fungal infection of the oral cavity. It is caused by candida albicans. It manifests as greyish white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue.\\When wiped off it leaves an erythematous mucosa. This is more common in infants and children. Adu...
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Drug of choice for treatment of CML is:
Answer is A (Imatinib) The drug of choice for drug treatment of CML is Imatinib mesylate.
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Marker of Chronic Kidney disease
Others: Liver type Fatty acid Binding protein.
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A 30 year old pregnant woman devolopes tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Streptomycin o Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal ototoxicity. o Recommended treatment in pregnancy is (2HRZ + 4HR) for 6 months by WHO and British Thoracic Society. o Ethambutol can be added during late but not early pregnancy. o In India, t...
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A young female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostal space. Her ECG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2189, Ghai 8/e p 413)Wide fixed splitting of S2 in association with ejection systolic murmur suggests the diagnosis of atrial septal defectThe presence of left axis deviation in A.S.D., suggests ostium primum type of defect.
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Lowe's syndrome is characterised by the following except-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Undescendended testes Lowe's syndrome It is also known as oculocerebrorenal syndrome of Lowe. o It is X-linked disorder. It is characterized by : i) Congenital cataract ii) Mental retardation iii) Fanconi syndrome --> Aminoacidurina o The disease is caused by mutation in the OCRL1 gene, which encodes ...
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Lowest projection of ligamentum denticulatum lies at which level -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., T12 L1 "The last of the dentate ligament lies between the exiting twelfth thoracic and first lumbar spinal nerves " -- Gray s Ligamentum denticulatumo Running longitudinally along each lateral margin of the spinal cord there is a thickening of piamater that projects laterally.o This thickening is the ...
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Manifestations of endemic cretinism include:
c. Strabismus and spastic diplegias(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2669-2773, Ghai 8/e p 516-521)The term endemic cretinism includes two different overlapping syndromes: Neurologic and Myxedematous.In Neurological Cretinism, there is goiter, but the child is euthyroid; Deaf mutism, squint and cerebral diplegia are usually presen...
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Which of the following is seen in Seropositive Rheumatoid Arthritis?
(D) All of the above[?]Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory disease of unknown etiology marked by a symmetric, peripheral polyarthritis.It is the most common form of chronic inflammatory arthritis & often results in joint damage and physical disability.Because it is a systemic disease, RA may result in a...
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Which of the following is the rationale to perform a spinal tap on a newly diagnosed client with leukemia?
B: A spinal tap can determine if leukemia has infiltrated to the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). A: A spinal tap can be done to rule out bacterial meningitis but this is not the reason for the test on a client with leukemia. C&D: Spinal tap is not done to identify the classification of leukemia and to decrease intracrania...
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A drug X has affinity to bind with albumin and Y has 150 times more affinity to bind with albumin than X. TRUE statement is :
Ans. is 'a' Drug X will be available more in tissues In the question drug X has 150 times lower affinity to bind with albumin than drug Y and it is clearly given in the book that highly plasma protein bound drugs are largely restricted to the vascular compartment and tends to have lower volume of distribution. So it is...
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Runt disease is due to
Runt disease is graft versus host disease produced experimentally in Laboratory animals.
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All decrease CO2 absorption in circuit except
A i.e. Resistance in circuit 3 times of minute volumeQ volumeQ " v:shapes="_x0000_s1027">CO2 absorbers increase circuit resistanceQ. Granule size is a compromise between high resistance & high absorptive surface area of small granules and lower resistance to gas & lesser absorptive surface area of larger granules (d/t ...
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The total volume of CSF is :
C i.e 150 ml
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Cause of death in breech delivery
Ans. is a i.e. Intracranial hemorrhage Intracraniai hemorrhage is the most common cause of fetal loss. occurs due to tear of tentorium cere.belli and falx cerebri. It is caused by traumatic delivery of the after coming head of breech or too rapid delivery of the soft head of a premature baby.
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Which of these is true regarding CML :
Answer is A (Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis) Splenomegaly or size of enlarged spleen is used as a prognostic indicator in CML as pa of the 'Sokal index'. Sokal index: Prognosis in CML -- % of Circulating blasts Spleen size Platelet count Age Cytogenetic clonal evaluation In CML, the dominant cell lines in the...
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Best result in tuboplasty are seen in :
Isthmic - Isthmic type
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False about shwachman's disease
Shwachman's disease is a disorder of phagocytosis Characterised by neutropenia not leucocytosis.
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Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid?-
harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *all types of amyloid have affinity for Congo red stain and amyloid stains pink red in color. If the stained section is viewed in polarised light the amyloid shows apple green birefringence due to cross beta pleated sheet configuration of amyloid fibre
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Regarding laryngomalacia all of the following are true except
Laryngomalacia (congenital laryngeal stridor) It is the most common congenital abnormality of the larynx. It is characterized by excessive flaccidity of supraglottic larynx which is sucked in during inspiration producing stridor and Sometimes cyanosis. Stridor is increased on crying but subsides on placing the child in...
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Which one of the following is not a component of Lofgren's syndrome
Parotid enlargement is seen in Heerfordt's syndrome or uveoparotid fever.
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Slowest conduction velocity in which part of conducting system-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., AV node * Speed of conduction is slowest in AV node and SA node.Cardiac tissueConduction velocity (meter/second)SA node0 [?] 05Inteatrial pathways1Atrial muscle0 [?] 30AV node0 [?] 05 (minimum)Bundle of His1Purkinje system4 (maximum)Ventricular muscle1
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Which of the following is the most common site of injury to the spinal cord
The most common site of injury to the spinal cord - LOWER CERVICAL The common sites of injury to the spinal cord in order of frequency are : Lower cervical region > Thoracolumbar junction > Upper cervical region
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Nasal valve is formed by -
The upper limit of vestibule on the lateral wall is marked by limen nasi (nasal valve) which is formed by the caudal (inferior) margin of upper lateral cartilage.
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All the following are true regarding 5th cranial (Trigeminal) nerve except:
(Refer: Richard S. Snell’s Clinical Anatomy by Regions, 9th edition, pg no: 607- 610) Trigeminal nerve Mesencephalic nucleus is situated in midbrain, spinal nucleus of trigeminal it extends from pons to C3 segments. It carries parasympathetic fibres to salivary glands. Four peripheral parasympathetic ganglia (Ciliary,...
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Anti-CD25 Humanized monoclonal antibody used for immunosuppression in organ Transplant patient is:
Basiliximab is an Anti-CD25 Antibody (IL-2 receptor antagonists used for immunosuppression in organ transplant patiennts. Monoclonal Antibodies as Immunosuppressive agents in Organ Transplantation: Anti-CD3- Muromonab-CD3 Anti-CD20-Rituximab Anti-CD25 (IL 2 receptor)- Basiliximab(Chimeric), Daclizumab(Humanized) Anti-C...
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Which of the following statement is true about inspiratory capacity:
Ans. C Tidal volume + Volume inspired forcefullyFunctional residual CapacityIt represents the volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiration of a normal breath.Inspiratory capacityIt is the maximum amount of air inspired from end expiratory level.Vital lung capacityMaximum amount of air expired from fully inflat...
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All are associated with wilms tumour except one :
Ans. is 'c' ie Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita Anomalies associated with Wilms' tumorHemihypertrophy*Aniridia*Genitourinary anomalies *Beckwith - Wiedemann syndrome*Perlman syndromeWAGR syndrome*Wilms tumor,AniridiaGenitourinary anomalies (esp. horse shoe kidney), &Retardation of intellect)CryptorchidismDennis Drash...
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Amniotic fluid at 38 weeks in normal pregnancy is:
Ans. is a i.e. 800cc
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Class III Vaughan - Williams classification consists of?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., K channel blocker
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Which of the following alpha-blocker drug is used in BPH without producing hypotension?
Ans. C. Tamsulosina. Tamsulosin, Silodosinb. Higher affinity for a1A/1D receptors (found on prostate smooth muscle) than for a1B subtype (found on vascular smooth muscle)c. Minimal effect on blood pressured. High oral bioavailabilitye. Silodosin is a newer a1A blocker used in BPH.
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Ribosomes are attached to ?
Ribosomes Ribosomes are the actual sites of protein synthesis.The ribosomes are small granules of RNAs.Ribosomes usually occurs in clusters called polyribosomes attached to one mRNA molecule, an arrangement that increases the rate of polypeptide synthesis.
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Moro's Reflex disappears at-
Ans. is `c' i.e., 6 months Also know Rooting reflex o When mother's breast touches the baby's upper lip or the side of mouth, the baby opens his mouth and searches for the nipple with an open mouth. Sucking reflex o Stimulation of the upper and lower lips produces movement of the lip and tongue in the direction of the ...
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Measles stored at PHC at what temperature?
ANSWER: (B) 2-8degCREF: APPENDIX-46 below TYPES OF VACCINE & IMMUNIZATION APPENDIX - 46Types of VaccineTypeContentExamplesKilled vaccineskilled, but previously virulent, microorganisms that have been destroyed with chemicals or heat.Avian Flu vaccine; developed by Reverse Genetics techniques. Reverse genetics' is an ap...
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Which of the following is TRUE about poal vein?
Poal vein collects blood from the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. The poal vein is located deep to the hepatic aery and cystic duct and is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein, deep to the neck of the pancreas. Blood from poal vein transpoed to the hepatic sinusoids of the liver for filtra...
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