query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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Which vessel is most likely to get affected in ulcer perforation involving 1st pa of duodenum? | Gastroduodenal aery is most likely to get affected in ulcer perforation of first pa of duodenum as it is closely associated with the posterior wall of the duodenum. Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Regions edited by Richard S. Snell - 2007, Page 298 | 150,000 | medmcqa_train |
Neurological involvement is pronounced in which type of leprosy? | (B) Lucio leprosy # Lepromatous type is more infective than the other types. The prognosis is poor.> Lucio Type (a type of Lepromatous) in which nerves involvement is more common> Cell mediated immunity is deficient and the lepromin test is negative in lepromatous leprosy.> On the other hand, there is an exaggerated an... | 150,001 | medmcqa_train |
Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by: | B i.e. Infrared photography | 150,002 | medmcqa_train |
Arrange the following stages of family cycle in chronological sequence - | Family life cycle Families are not constant; they are ever changing. A normal family-cycle is generally conceived as having six phases Such a model, however, tends to apply only to areas of low moality and requires amendment in high moality situations to reflect the early death of children and even the death of the mot... | 150,003 | medmcqa_train |
Following features are suggestive of: | (A) At low power, the abnormal plasma cells of multiple myeloma fill the marrow.
(B) At medium power, the plasma cells of multiple myeloma here are very similar to normal plasma cells, but they may also be poorly differentiated. Usually, the plasma cells are differentiated enough to retain the function of immunoglobuli... | 150,004 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is given at intervals as a pulsatile therapy? | Only pulsatile exposure to GnRH induces FSH/LH secretion while continuous exposure desensatizes pituitary gonadotropes resulting in loss of Gn release GNRH agonists are usually given in pulsatile manner while antagonists are given in continous manner (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page N... | 150,005 | medmcqa_train |
Fecal-oral transmission occurs in: March 2013 | Ans. C i.e. Poliomyelitis Polio IM injections and tonsillectomy should be avoided during polio epidemic because: Risk of paralytic polio increases Cause of death in polio: Respiratory paralysis Pulse polio was introduced in India in: 1995 Pulse polio is given to children below: 5 years A country is said to be polio FRE... | 150,006 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anti diabetic drugs can cause vitamin B12 deficiency | Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 1259 Lactic acidosis and Megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency are the major adverse effects of these drugs Lactic acidosis is more likely to occur in the presence of hepatic and renal impairment or alcohol ingestion | 150,007 | medmcqa_train |
Route of administration of LMWH for prophylaxis of thrombosis in a patient who had undergone surgery few hours back is: | Ans. (A) i.e. Subcutaneous(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13thed; pg. 589)LMWH and fondaparinux can be used by subcutaneous route once a day for both treatment and prophylaxis of thrombosis.Unfractionated heparin can be used by subcutaneous route twice a day for prophylaxis and by intravenous route four times a day for treatment ... | 150,008 | medmcqa_train |
TNF-alpha inhibitor is | (A) Infliximab [Harrison18-2491; G&G12-1018; Il,h-I419;# ANTI-TNF-ALPHA INHIBITORS:> Adalimumab, etanercept, and infliximab are antibodies that bind TNF alfa a proinflammatory cytokine.> Blocking TNF alfa from binding to TNF receptors on inflammatory cell surfaces results in suppression of downstream inflammatory cytok... | 150,009 | medmcqa_train |
The following Thiazide diuretic is active if the GFR is 30-40 mm Hg | Although most thiazide diuretics lose their effectiveness in renal failure, metolazone remains active even when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is below 30-40 mL/min (moderate renal failure). This gives it a considerable advantage over other thiazide diuretics, since renal and hea failure often coexist and contrib... | 150,010 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common presentation of hemophilia A? | The most common presentation is with pain in a weight-bearing joint such as the hip, knee, or ankle. Hematuria is also common. Bleeding can occur at almost any site without prior trauma. | 150,011 | medmcqa_train |
Management of essential hypertension is? | ANSWER: (C) Diet modification and drugsREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 241"The mainstay of treatment of essential hypertension is lifestyle, diet modification and drugs" | 150,012 | medmcqa_train |
A 37 year old female was diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Her husband wanted to know about the poor prognostic factors. Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor? | Good Prognostic factors
Bad prognostic factors
Acute onset
Insidious onset
Late age group
Early age group
Female
Male
Type I
Type II
Precipitating factors present
Precipitating factors absent
Family history of Mania
Family history of Schizophrenia. | 150,013 | medmcqa_train |
Inferior mesenteric vein drains into | Inferior mesenteric vein usually terminates when reaching the splenic vein, which goes on to form the poal vein with the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). | 150,014 | medmcqa_train |
A 27-year-old man is seen with a history of chronic sinus and pulmonary infections. He works as a salesperson in a retail outlet and denies any specific occupational exposure. He lives with his wife of 4 years and has no children. Family and travel history is noncontributory. On examination, he is in no acute distress.... | This x-ray shows a bilateral lower zone hazy density with small cystic-appearing shadows. There is dextrocardia with situs inversus totalis, i.e., a right aoic arch, the stomach bubble on the right side, and the left diaphragm higher than the right. The chest x-ray shows dextrocardia and bilateral bronchiectasis as see... | 150,015 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following delusion of infidelity is seen? | Ans. B. Othello syndromePathological jealousy, also known as Morbid jealousy, Othello syndrome or delusional jealousy, is a psychological disorder in which a person is preoccupied with the thought that their spouse or sexual partner is being unfaithful without having any real proof, along with socially unacceptable or ... | 150,016 | medmcqa_train |
T-4d in TNM staging of breast cancer is | OT4a: Extension to the chest wall, not including pectoralis muscleOT4b: Edema (including peau d'orange) or ulceration of the skin, or satellite skin nodules confined to the same breastOT4c: Both T4a and T4bT4d: Inflammatory carcinoma | 150,017 | medmcqa_train |
Long term effect of for CNS tumor in children are all except | D i.e. Neuropsychological effects are independent of radiation dose | 150,018 | medmcqa_train |
A 56-year-old woman presents to the hospital because of symptoms of dyspnea, blurry vision, and headaches. The symptoms started that morning and are getting worse. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. She stopped taking her anti-hypertensive medications 3 months ago because of si... | Nitroprusside is very effective in lowering blood pressure and is easy to titrate and adjust to response. Labetalol is also useful since is can be administered in an oral preparation, but has more contraindications. It is particularly useful in the setting of angina or myocardial infarction. Regardless of which drug is... | 150,019 | medmcqa_train |
A 24 year old lady with a past history of psoriasis presents with fever and multiple pus filled lesions in a generalized distribution. What is the drug of choice? | The patient described in this question is suffering from generalized pustular psoriasis, also known as impetigo herpetiformis, if it occurs in pregnancy. Treatment of choice in generalized pustular psoriasis is Methotrexate except in pregnancy where it is systemic steroids. Ref: Obstetric Dermatology: A Practical Guide... | 150,020 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is / are characteristics of the Sjogren's syndrome? | Sjögren syndrome is a chronic, systemic autoimmune disorder that principally involves the salivary and lacrimal glands, resulting in xerostomia (dry mouth) and xerophthalmia (dry eyes). The effects on the eye often are called keratoconjunctivitis sicca (sicca means “dry”), and the clinical presentation of both xerostom... | 150,021 | medmcqa_train |
Donepezil has the following mechanism of action | Donepezil: cerebro selective and reversible anti-AchE produces improvement in several cognitive as well as non cognitive (activities of daily living) scores in Alzheimer's Dementia. The benefit is ascribed to elevation of Ach level in the coex, especially in the surviving neurons that project from basal forebrain to ce... | 150,022 | medmcqa_train |
The lab repos of a patient given below pH = 7.2 HCO3 = 10 mEq/L PCO2 = 30 mmHg This exemplifies which of the following disorder | Parameters normal values Blood Ph 7.35-7.45 HCO3 22-26 meq/L(avg=24meq) PCO2 35-45mmhg CHLORIDE 96-106 meq/l PO2 60-100 mmhg In given scenerio ph=7.2 indicating acidosis . Bicarbonate is significantly reduced that is 10 mmhg indicating metabolic acidosis. Decreased HCO3- Increased excretion of NH4Cl occurs with renal c... | 150,023 | medmcqa_train |
A 30 years old male from a rural background presents to the ophthalmology clinic with history of difficulty in vision for 10 days. He gives history of vegetative material falling into the left eye about 15 days back. On examination an ulcerative lesion in the cornea with feathery margins and creamy exudates is seen. Fe... | B i.e. Fusarium sp. | 150,024 | medmcqa_train |
Despite their sho half-lives (2 hrs), proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) cause a prolonged Suppression of acid secretion (up to 48 h) because: | The only significant pharmacological action of proton pump inhibitor is dose dependent suppression of gastric acid secretion; without anticholinergic or Hz blocking action. It is a powerful inhibitor of gastric acid: can totally abolish HCl secretion, both resting as well as that stimulated by food or any of the secret... | 150,025 | medmcqa_train |
F 30 in ICD 10 denotes | ICD CHAPTERS ICD is a text book for classification of psychiatric disorders. The below table comprises chapter numbers dealing with various psychiatric disorders. Ref. International classification of mental disorders, 10 th edition | 150,026 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of intubation is preferred in case of bilateral mandibular fractures? | Ans. (a) Orotracheal intubationRef. Robert kellman, Cranio Maxial Trauma * Regardless of associated injuries the primary means of securing airway in bilateral mandibular fracture is orotracheal intubation.* If there is any difficulty in orotracheal intubation - fibre optic Naso tracheal intubation is used. | 150,027 | medmcqa_train |
Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon is seen in - | pseudo koebner's phenomenon:-Occurrence of new anisomorphic lesions in a linear fashion due to autoinoculation of virus along the lines of taruma. Seen in was, molluscum contagiosum koebner's phenomenon:Occurrence of new isomorphic lesions over the site of trauma.Seen in psoriasis,Lichen planus ,Vitiligo. IADVL textboo... | 150,028 | medmcqa_train |
Adson&;s test is positive in - | Adson&;s test is a provocative test for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome accompanied by compression of the Subclan aery by a cervical rib or tightened anterior and middle scalene muscles. Ref : Bailey and love surgery text book 27th Ed. | 150,029 | medmcqa_train |
Kamla, a 48-years-old lady underwent a hysterectomy. On the seventh day, she developed fever, burning micturition and continuous urinary dribbling. She can also pass urine voluntarily. The diagnosis is: | Continuous dribbling of urine following hysterectomy points towards urinary fistulas as the diagnosis.
In case of urinary fistulas, if the patient never needs to void as there is continuous dribbling it signifies that the fistula communicates with the bladder. If, there is filling and emptying of bladder along with the... | 150,030 | medmcqa_train |
Unilateral ovarian tumor has spread to peritoneum but not to uterus. What is the FIGO staging of ovarian neoplasm in this case? | In this case the tumor has spread to peritoneum not uterus which is usually seen in stage IC of ovarian neoplasm. In stage IC: tumor is either stage IA or IB, but with tumor on the surface of one or both ovaries, or with ruptured capsule, or with ascites containing malignant cells or with positive peritoneal washings. ... | 150,031 | medmcqa_train |
In which case homologus aificial insemination is used in females : | Cervical factor | 150,032 | medmcqa_train |
Relapse is seen in which malaria?1. P. vivax2. P. falciparum3. P. malariae4. P. ovale | ANS. D P. falciparumP. vivaxP. ovaleP malariaeTissue schizogony5-6 days8 days9 days13 daysErythrocytic phase48 hours48 hours (benign tertain)49-50 hours (ovale tertian)72 hours (quartan)Red cells affectedAllReticulocytesReticulocytesMature RBCsHypnozoitesNoYesYesNo, but blood forms can persist up to 30 yearsIncubation ... | 150,033 | medmcqa_train |
Rate of newly formed Osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by? | Ans. C. Tetracycline labelingTetracycline labeling of bonea. Tetracycline labeling is used to determine the amount of bone growth within a certain period of time (approx. 21-day period).b. Osteoid is new bone that has been laid down by the osteoblasts and is non-mineralized.c. Usually tetracycline is given for several ... | 150,034 | medmcqa_train |
Brodie&;s abscess is the terminology for | It is a long standing localized pyogenic abscess in the bone(long standing because of strong defence mechanism of the body.) It usually involves long bones. Brodie&;s abscess - A circumscribed, round/oval cavity containing pus and pieces of dead bone (sequestra) surrounded sclerosis - Most commonly seen in tibial / fem... | 150,035 | medmcqa_train |
Numerator in maternal mortality ratio - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Female death during pregnancy & puerperium * Maternal mortality ratio is defined as total number of maternal deaths i.e. deaths due to complications of child birth, pregnancy or within 42 days of delivery from 'puerperal causes' in the area during a given year Per 1000 or (100,000) live births in the ... | 150,036 | medmcqa_train |
Dinoprost is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., PG F2 alpha o Dinoprost - PG F2 alpha, intraamniotically for midterm aboion. o Dinoprostone - PG E2, intravaginally for midterm aboion. | 150,037 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following nerve innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle? | The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve which give rise to the mylohyoid nerve innervates the mylohyoid muscle. Ref: Mastery of surgery, Volume 1 edited by Josef E. Fischer, K. I. Bland, Mark P. Callery | 150,038 | medmcqa_train |
A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.90) between systolic P and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong inte retation of the correlation coefficient observed- | Correlation coefficients:
– Pearson’s Correlation coefficient:
– Spearman’s Rank Correlation coefficient
Coefficient of determination:
– Is the percentage of variation in a variable that is explained by one or more of the others
– Is generally obtained in a regression setup
– Coefficient of determination = (Correlat... | 150,039 | medmcqa_train |
Pre maxillary part of maxilla develops from: | The primary palate (also called premaxilla) develops from the frontonasal process. The secondary palate develops from the palatine process of the maxillary processes. | 150,040 | medmcqa_train |
Adrenocoical suppression causing drugs are all except ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Spironolactone Drugs causing adrenocoical suppression are: Steroids (prednisone, hydrocoisone, and dexamethasone) Aminoglutethimide Fludrocoisone Ketoconazole Megestrol Metyrapone Mitotane | 150,041 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following are the first incisors to erupt in an infant __________ | Eruption times vary from child to child. As seen from the cha, the first teeth begin to break through the gums at about 6 months of age. Usually, the first two teeth to erupt are the two bottom central incisors (the two bottom front teeth). Next, the top four front teeth emerge. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8t... | 150,042 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ig immunoglobulin Intravenous immunoglobulin is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease Q.The mechanism of action of IVIg, in Kawasaki disease is unknown but treatment results in rapid deference and resolution of clinical signs of illness in most patients.Treatment of Kawasaki diseaseAcute stageI... | 150,043 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not true about newborn assessment - | Ans is 'a' i.e., APGAR at 7 min indicates neonatal moality depression Later times APGAR score (after 5 minutes) indicates about long term neurological damage (not neonatal moality) Interpretation ofAPGAR Score The test is generally done at one and five minutes after bih, and may be repeated later if the score is and re... | 150,044 | medmcqa_train |
Medulla oblongata is supplied by the following aeries, except | Blood to the medulla is supplied by a number of aeries:Anterior spinal aery: This supplies the whole medial pa of the medulla oblongata.Posterior Spinal aeryPosterior inferior cerebellar aery: This is a major branch of the veebral aery, and supplies the posterolateral pa of the medulla, where the main sensory tracts ru... | 150,045 | medmcqa_train |
A 2 year old boy presents with pain in his groin that has been increasing in nature over the past few weeks. He is found to have a degenerative malformation of the transversalis fascia during development. Which of the following structures on the anterior abdominal wall is likely defective | Deep inguinal rinng lies in the transversalis fascia, just lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Superficial inguinal ring is the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle Inguinal ligament and the anterior wall of the inguinal canal are formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. The sac of a dire... | 150,046 | medmcqa_train |
Most common organism causing laryngotracheobronchitis is | Para-influenza virus I and II is the most common organism causing laryngotracheobronchitis. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 328 | 150,047 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is specifically used for grading of SAH? | *The initial clinical manifestation of SAH can be graded using the Hunt-hess scale or world federation of neurosurgical societies classification schemes . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567 | 150,048 | medmcqa_train |
Best contraceptive for newly married couples | HORMONAL CONTRACEPTIVES Hormonal contraceptives when properly used are the most effective spacing methods of contraception. Oral contraceptives of the combined type are almost 100 per cent effective in preventing pregnancy. They provide the best means of ensuring spacing between one childbih and another. More than 65 m... | 150,049 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following drugs does not have active metabolite? | Lisinopril is a lysine derivative of enalaprilat which is an active metabolite of enalapril. It is an oral prodrug that is conveed by hydrolysis to a conveing enzyme inhibitor, enalaprilat. Enalaprilat itself is available only for intravenous use, primarily for hypeensive emergencies. All other ACE inhibitors are prodr... | 150,050 | medmcqa_train |
A test has a high false positive rate in a community. True is | The propoion of false-positive results among those who test positive is 1 minus the positive predictive value. False positive (discovery) rate = 1- positive predictive valueAs the disease prevalence increases, the positive predictive value increases. (PPV)As prevalence increase, PPV increase, False positive rate decrea... | 150,051 | medmcqa_train |
Features of parkinsons disease- | Rigidity is seen in Parkinson's disease. Two types : 1) Cogwheel type, mostly upper limbs(due to tremor superimposed on rigidity) 2) Lead pipe rigidity Rigidity causes stiffness and flexed posture. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1567 | 150,052 | medmcqa_train |
What are the major functions of "P" cells present in coical collecting ducts? | Sodium & water reabsorption from the lumen.Potassium secretion into the lumen.ADH controlled water reabsorption.FUNCTIONS OF 'P' CELLS:1. Sodium & water reabsorption:Reabsorbed from lumen.Occurs through Na2+ channels (ENaC channels). Approximately 3% Na reabsorption occurs.2. Potassium secretion:Secreted into lumen.K+ ... | 150,053 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is the major determinant of plasma osmolality ? | Sodium homeostasis Most of the body's sodium is located in the ECF, where it is by far the most abundant cation. Accordingly, total body sodium is the principal determinant of ECF volume. Sodium intake varies widely between individuals, ranging between 50 and 250 mmol/24 hrs. The kidneys can compensate for these wide v... | 150,054 | medmcqa_train |
Superior suprarenal artery is a branch of:(Repeat, Please refer Q 8, 2006) | Ans: c (Inferior phrenic) Ref: Chaurasia, 3rd edi., Vol-2, Pg. 266Venous drainageRight suprarenal veinIVC Left suprarenal vein Left renal veinArterial supplyArteryBranch of Superior suprarenal arteryInferior phrenic artery Middle suprarenal arteryAbdominal aorta Inferior suprarenal arteryRenal arteryNote: Accessory sup... | 150,055 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is used to treat Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ? | Eculizumab is monoclonal antibody against C5 complement used in the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. | 150,056 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture? | A i.e. MRI Radiological Investigation for urethral stricture Retrograde urethrographyQ -It should not be done within 3-4 weeks of significant urethral trauma (can cause extravasation of the dye into the spongy tissue, lymphatics & veins of pelvis). -Mainstay of investigation. | 150,057 | medmcqa_train |
Which enzyme is not released as a proenzyme | Proenzyme of
- Elastase- Proelastase
- Trypsin- Trypsinogen
- Chymotrypsin- Chymotrypsinogen | 150,058 | medmcqa_train |
Dialectical behavior therapy is used in the management of | Dialectical behavior therapy, Transference based therapy, Mentalization therapy are used in the management of Borderline personality disorder. | 150,059 | medmcqa_train |
True about ulcerative colitis, all except - | Noncaseating granuloma is seen in Crohn disease. | 150,060 | medmcqa_train |
Most virulent dengue fever strain is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 "Dengue type-2 strain is being considered to be more virulent strain". | 150,061 | medmcqa_train |
Constituents of a typical embalming solution are all except: | D i.e. Ethanol Formaline & methanol or methyl alcohol (as preservatives), glycerine (wetting agent), phenol (germicide)(2 are essential components of embalming (aerial & cavity) fluids. | 150,062 | medmcqa_train |
NALGONDA technique' is used in - | The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute Nagpur developed a techniwue for removing flouride by chemical treatment. it is called Nalgonda techniqueREF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-596 | 150,063 | medmcqa_train |
Recurrent corneal erosions are seen in: March 2011, March 2012 | Ans. A: Corneal dystrophyEpithelial and subepithelial corneal dystrophies may present with bouts of recurrent corneal erosions Bowman layer corneal dystrophy usually presents with recurrent corneal erosionsRecurrent corneal erosionIt is characterized by the failure of the cornea's outermost layer of epithelial cells to... | 150,064 | medmcqa_train |
IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following, EXCEPT: | Integrated management of childhood illnesses (IMCI) is a strategy developed by WHO and UNICEF to manage childhood illnesses in a integrated way. The diseases included are diarrhea, malaria, ARI, malnutrition and measles. IMCI was launched in four selected districts each in in Uttranchal, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasth... | 150,065 | medmcqa_train |
DTPA scan of hypertensive young lady is normal, USG shows small kidney on left side. Next investigation will be - | Hypertension in a young female is most probably due to renal artery stenosis (cause fibromuscular dysplasia)
DTPA scan which shows the GFR comes to be normal because of increased renin activity.
Digital subtraction angiography or Doppler U/S will show the stenosis.
Now MRA (Magnetic resonance angiography) has replaced ... | 150,066 | medmcqa_train |
Medial wall of orbit formed by: | A i.e., Body of sphenoid | 150,067 | medmcqa_train |
Common mode of transmission in pyogenic TB salpingitis:- | Genital TB Almost always a secondary infection Common primary sites : Lungs > Lymph > abdomen Route of spread - Hematogenous Most common site of genital TB is fallopian tubes (Bilateral involvements) > Uterus In fallopian tubes - Most commonly affected pa is ampulla Most common symptom is infeility Sites of genital TB ... | 150,068 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is associated with aging | . Increased free radical injury | 150,069 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest cause of primary amenorrhea with ambiguous genitalia in a female with 46XX chromosome | Ans. is 'a' i.e. 21-hydroxylase deficiency Primary amenorrhoea with virilization (ambiguous genitalia) in females is seen in21 hydroxylase def.11 hydroxylase def17-hydroxylase def. does not cause virilization. It causes in females- Primary amenorrhoea and failure of development of secondary sexual characteristics."21-h... | 150,070 | medmcqa_train |
Operation theatres are sterilized by? | FORMALDEHYDE GAS is used for sterilizing instruments and heat sensitive catheters and for fumigating wards, sick rooms, and laboratories REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:36 | 150,071 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statement are true regarding CNS infection except: | Ans. (b) CMV virus causes B/L temporal lobe infarction CNS manifestation of CMV: CMV rarely cause CNS infection. Two forms of CMV encephalitis are seen: Resemble HIV encephalitis and present as progressive dementia. Ventriculoencephalitis-- Characterized by cranial nerve deficit, nystagmus and ventriculomegally. In imm... | 150,072 | medmcqa_train |
Most specific marker of pheochromocytoma: | Pheochromocytoma - tumor for Adrenal gland which secretes high amount of epinephrine & Nor-epinephrine catabolic products of catecholamine - VMA VMA can be measured in 24 hours urine sample | 150,073 | medmcqa_train |
You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know- | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test o Probability allows for an accurate method of calculating how much the likelihood of changes as new information (i.e., a test result) becomes available. o Probability of disease after a given test (post-term probability) can be calcula... | 150,074 | medmcqa_train |
Down&;s syndrome predisposes to ............ cancer | Down syndrome:- Trisomy 21 Patients with down syndrome have mental and physical retardation, flat facial profile, an upward slant of eyes and epicanthic folds. Oblique palpebral fissure seen. Nose is small with flat nasal bridge. Mouth shows narrow sho palate with small teeth and furrowed protruding tongue. There is si... | 150,075 | medmcqa_train |
Serum amyloid associated protein is form in | The AA (amyloid associated) type of amyloid fibriprotein is derived from a unique non- Ieg protein madeby the liver.
A fibrils are derived by proteolysis from a larger (12,000 daltons) percursorian the serum called SAA (serum amyloid - associated) protein that is synthesized in the liver and circustesbound to high den... | 150,076 | medmcqa_train |
Antibody in drug induced Lupus | Anti-Histone antibodies - Drug induced Lupus.
Anti-Ribosomal antibodies - CNS Lupus. | 150,077 | medmcqa_train |
Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except? | G6PD deficiency does not present with pancyopenia. Cause of Pancytopenia with Cellular Bone Marrow Primary bone marrow diseases Myelodysplasia Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Myelofibrosis Some aleukemicleukemia Myelophthisis Bone marrow lymphoma Hairy cell leukemia Secondary to systemic diseases Systemic lupus ery... | 150,078 | medmcqa_train |
Patient presents with fasting sugar as 167mg/dl, skin pigmentation and hypogonadism. His liver enzymes showed SGOT as 678 and SGPT as 692. Most probable diagnosis is? | Hemochromstosis clinical features Initial symptoms are often nonspecific and include lethargy, ahralgia, skin pigmentation, loss of libido, and features of diabetes mellitus. Hepatomegaly, increased pigmentation, spider angiomas, splenomegaly, ahropathy, ascites, cardiac arrhythmias, congestive hea failure, Excessive s... | 150,079 | medmcqa_train |
This tympanogram is seen in: | Flat line is seen on tympanometry in patient with a perforation in tympanic membrane. It is not indicated in cases with a diagnosis of perforation of tympanic membrane. However it can be of help in cases with a suspicion of very small perforation in TM (not clearly visible on otoscopy). Flat line confirms a perforation... | 150,080 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of choice for sternocleido-mastoid tumour is: | The presence of a lateral neck mass in infancy in association with rotation of the head toward the opposite side of the mass results from fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The mass may be palpated in the affected muscle in approximately two thirds of cases. In the overwhelming majority of cases, physical ther... | 150,081 | medmcqa_train |
In MI following are used except | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1605 The principal goal of fibrinolysis is prompt restoration of full coronary aerial patency. The fibrinolytic agents tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), streptokinase, tenecteplase (TNK), and reteplase (rPA) have been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for intravenous use in pa... | 150,082 | medmcqa_train |
Emergency retentive force for the maxillary complete denture is: | Base of the tongue provides emergency retentive force. | 150,083 | medmcqa_train |
Internal thoracic aery is a branch of ? | Internal thoracic aeryIt arises from Ist pa of subclan aery and descends through anterior ends of upper six intercostal spaces lying 1.25 cm lateral to sternal margin.It divides into two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric in 6th intercostal space.Branches of internal thoracic aery are (i) mediast... | 150,084 | medmcqa_train |
A 55-year-old man presents with a 10 day history of confusion. His friend mentions that he drinks 15 units of alcohol per day. Which of the following strongly suggests a diagnosis of Korsakoff's psychosis: Karnataka 07; Jharkhand 11; KCET 12; PGI 14 | Ans. Confabulation | 150,085 | medmcqa_train |
Prokaryotes are characterised by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Absence of nuclear membrane Some differences between Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Character Prokaryotes Eukaryotes Nucleus Nuclear membrane Absent Present Nucleolus Absent Present Deoxyribonucleoprotein Absent Present Chromosome One (circular) More than one (linear) Mitotic division Absent Present... | 150,086 | medmcqa_train |
The demonstrated abnormality is seen in paralysis of? | In this video, the patient is waking lurching gait or a.k.a duck waddling gait. In paralysis of the hip muscles gluteus medius and minimus , the gait is described as "duck-like waddle(Waddling gait) or Sailors gait or Trendelenburg gait and consists of an inclination to the side on which the weight is born i.e. the nor... | 150,087 | medmcqa_train |
Primary Membranous Nephropathy has antibodies against ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phospholipase A2 receptorPrimary Membranous NephropathyPrimary (also called idiopathic) membranous nephropathy is considered to be an autoimmune disease linked to ceain HLA alleles such as HLA-DQA1 and caused in most cases by antibodies to a renal autoantigen.In many adult cases the autoantigen is the... | 150,088 | medmcqa_train |
Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes - | Ans. is `c i.e. Mg+2 | 150,089 | medmcqa_train |
Not a B cell lymphoma - | Mycosis fungoides is a slowly evolving cutaneous T-cell lymphoma occuring in middle aged adult males Ref: Harshmohan textbook of pathology pg:359 | 150,090 | medmcqa_train |
Which is phase - II drug metabolic reaction - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methylation .o Phase I reactions : - Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization, decyclization.o Phase II reactions : - Acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glucoronide conjugation (glucuranization), glycine conjugation, methylation, sulfate conjugation (sulfuranation), nucleotide synthesis. | 150,091 | medmcqa_train |
A 48 year old diabetic patient comes to OPD for check up, during the neurological examination - to check retinopathy, doctor checked the light reflexes - On flashing light in front of Left eye - Right pupil constricts but no effect on left, but on flashing ight in front of right eye- right pupil constricts but no effec... | Efferent pupillary defect A lesion occurs in the oculomotor nerve's pupilloconstrictor nerve fibers. Results in dilation of the ipsilateral pupil (Due to unattended effect of the intact sympathetic supply). There will be failure of constriction of the pupil to light, light reflex will be preserved in the other eye. Lig... | 150,092 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following results in increased renin secretion except _____ | The increased amount of Na+ and Cl- reabsorption across macula densa (DCT) is inhibitory to renin secretion. All other factors increase renin secretion. Renin leads to a series of events through the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone pathway that finally, in simple terms, leads to salt and water retention and increases bloo... | 150,093 | medmcqa_train |
A case of spontaneous pnemothorax comes to you . What will be the earliest treatment of choice | "Open Pneumothorax is one in which full thickness segment of the chest wall has been destroyed and the negative intrapleural pressure sucks air directly through the chest wall defect rather than through the trachea into the alveoli. It occurs most commonly after shotgun blasts explosion with flying debris. The pt. is s... | 150,094 | medmcqa_train |
A man with diabetes insipidus has a glomerular filtration of 155 L/day. Which range most likely represents the upper limit for urine flow rate in this individual if he were not receiving treatment but had free access to water? | Ans. C. 15 to 20 L/dayUrine flow rate in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can approach approximately 10% to 13% of the glomerular filtration therefore, for a glomerular filtration of 155 L/day, urine flow could be as much as 15 to 20 L/ day. To maintain this level of urine flow, the individual must consume an ... | 150,095 | medmcqa_train |
Number of cells in a morula is ? | Once the zygote has reached the two-cell stage, it undergoes a series of mitotic divisions, increasing the numbers of cells. These cells, which become smaller with each cleavage division, are known as blastomere. After the third cleavage, however, blastomeres maximize their contact with each other, forming a compact ba... | 150,096 | medmcqa_train |
Soft exudates are found in: | Ans. All | 150,097 | medmcqa_train |
All are routes of transmission of Toxoplasma except | Toxoplasmosis is usually spread by Ingestion of parasites in undercooked meat Ingestion of oocysts from cat faeces Transplacental Blood transfusion REF:Jawetz microbiology 27th edition pg 708 | 150,098 | medmcqa_train |
A thirty-year-man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT /SGPT (AST/ALT) 1230/900 IU/ ml The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg , IgM anti HBc and HBeAg . The most likely diagnosis: | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 548 and 8th/e, p. 544)* Presence of HBsAg, IgM anti HBc and HBeAg suggest the diagnosis of acute hepatitis B with high infectivity. HBsAgAnti HBsAgHBeAg Anti HBeAg Anti HBcAgAcuteHBV (high infectivity)+-+ IgMAcute HBV (l... | 150,099 | medmcqa_train |
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