query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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All are features of pagets disease except - | Answer- B. Common in femalesPaget's disease is stightly more common in males and is seen after 40 years of age,The pelvic and tibia being the commonest sites, and femur, skull, spine (veebtae) anil clavicle the next common.Deafness and osteosarcoma (rarely) are complications of Paget's disease.\\Primary defect is in os... | 151,700 | medmcqa_train |
Which stain is used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae ? | Ans. is b' i.e., AlbeThe diphtheria bacillus was first observed and described by Klebs (1883) but was first cultivated by Loeffler (1884).Therefore, it is known as Klebs - Loeffler bacillus (KLB).Corynebacterium diphtheria is gram positive slender rod (bacilli) which is noncapsulated and non-motile.The bacilli are arra... | 151,701 | medmcqa_train |
Cells charcteristic of Hodgkin's disease are- | <p>The classical diagnostic feature of Hodgkin's disease is the presence of Reed -Sternberg cell.Classic RS cell is characterised by
bilobed nucleus appearing as mirror image of each other, each nucleus contains a prominent , eosinophilic, inclusion like nucleolus with a clear halo around it,
giving it an owleye appea... | 151,702 | medmcqa_train |
Anorchia best diagnosed by: | Ans. Laparoscopy | 151,703 | medmcqa_train |
Potassium Channel Openers are following except | Ans, d (Amiodarone) (Ref. KDT 6th/534)Drugs acting on potassium channelPotassium channel openersPotassium channel blockersAmiodarone (blocks myocardial delayed rectifier K+channels)OldNovel MinoxidilNicorandilQ DiazoxidePinacidil0Cromakalim Antiarrhythmics-- K+ channel blockers (class III) - Amiodarone. Ibutilide, Dofe... | 151,704 | medmcqa_train |
SSPE is a complication of: | SSPE (Sub sclerosing panencephalitis) is a late complication of measles (10 -15 yrs ) of infection. Measles - family - Paramyxoviridae. Characteristic features: Koplik spots | Present opposite lower second molar SAR- 85% (secondary attack rate) Infectivity period of measles: | 4 days before-Rash-5days after Isolation p... | 151,705 | medmcqa_train |
Transpulmonary pressure is the difference between: | Transpulmonary pressure is the pressure difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure. Before the sta of inspiration or at the end of expiration it is about +5cm H2O. Positive transpulmonary pressure keeps the alveoli open. Intrapleural pressure is the pressure between two layers of pleura. It is about... | 151,706 | medmcqa_train |
NK cells have which CD marker ?- | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *NK cells comprises about 10 to 60 % of circulating lymphocytes. These lymphocytes do not have B or T cell marker.NK cell carries surface molecule of CD2, CD16, CD56 but negative for T cell marker CD3 | 151,707 | medmcqa_train |
Group of 4-8 expes talking in front of a large group of audience is known as: September 2011 | Ans. D: Panel Discussion In a panel discussion, 4-8 persons who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem, or the topic, in front of a large group of audience Panel Discussion A panel consists of a small group of four or eight persons, who carry on a guided and informal discussion before an ... | 151,708 | medmcqa_train |
A 35-year-old man developed a brown pigmentation on the face after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for fever, joint pain and malaise. What is the diagnosis? | ANS. C* The image shows a hyperpigmented lesion, and with the history of drug intake, the diagnosis is fixed drug eruption.Close differentials of hyperpigmented lesions in faceMelasma (brown pigmentation in face) | 151,709 | medmcqa_train |
Clearance- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Clearance of a drug is the theoretical volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed in unit time,o It refers to efficacy of elimination of a drug:Clearance =Rate of eliminationPlasma concentrationo As drug is to be removed from plasma in unit time, clearance can not be... | 151,710 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following fracture needs a force? | "Fractures of first two or three ribs and of the clavicle indicate a violent trauma since they are thicker and well protected by the thoracic muscle".................................. Essentials of orthopedics
Fracture neck femur, IT fracture and colle's fracture are more common in old age and with trivial injury.
Imp... | 151,711 | medmcqa_train |
In celiac disease A/E - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Associated with HLAB8 | 151,712 | medmcqa_train |
EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following, except : | Answer is B (Locked in state): `Normal a- activity on the EEG in a patient of coma ales the clinician to the locked in syndrome or to hysteria or catatonia.' - Harrison 16th/1629 All conditions other than the 'locked in state' present characteristic EEG patterns. EEG Characteristic; Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ... | 151,713 | medmcqa_train |
Fall on outstretched hand leads to fracture of the following bones | Clavicle is commonly fractured by falling on the outstretched hand (indirect violence). The most common site of fracture is the junction between the two curvatures of the bone, which is the weakest point. The lateral fragment is displaced downwards by the weight of the limb as trapezius muscle alone is unable to suppo ... | 151,714 | medmcqa_train |
The intake of Iodine in to the Thyroid Gland is an example of which of the followings means of molecular transpo? | Secondary active transpo or co-transpo, uses energy to transpo molecules across a membrane against a concentration/electrochemical gradient.In contrast to primary active transpo, there is no direct coupling of ATP; instead, the electrochemical potential difference created by pumping ions out of the cell is used. Primar... | 151,715 | medmcqa_train |
In a case of hypersplenism all are true, EXCEPT | (D) Splenomegaly absent # Hypersplenism: The complete blood count may reveal cytopenia of one or more blood cell types, which should suggest hypersplenism.> This condition is characterized by splenomegaly, cytopenia(s), normal or hyperplastic bone marrow & a response to splenectomy. | 151,716 | medmcqa_train |
Marfan syndrome is due to mutation of: | Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which encodes Fibrillin-1. Fibrillin normally binds to TGF-b (Transforming Growth Factor) Mutated fibrillin can't bind to TGF-b. Elevated levels of TGF-b contribute to the features of Ectopia lentis, arachnodactyly, and aoic dilatation. | 151,717 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements best describes the sulcus limitans? | The sulcus limitans seperates the sensory alar from the motor basal plates. It is found in the developing spinal cord and on the surface of the adult rhomboid fossa of the fouh ventricle. The bulbopontine sulcus (inferior pontine sulcus) seperates the medulla from the pons. The hypothalamic sulcus seperates the thalamu... | 151,718 | medmcqa_train |
Adrenal arteries arises from all the following except | Ans) d (Coeliac axis) Ref: BD ChaurasiaAdrenal artery cannot arise from Coeliac axisArterial supply of adrenal glandSuperior suprarenal artery- a branch of inferior phrenic artery.Middle suprarenal artery- a branch of the abdominal aortaInferior suprarenal artery- branch of renal artery. | 151,719 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly man presented with a painful red eye, and on examination shows the pupil dilated and fixed, what is the next line of investigation? | (A) Tonometry# Acute painful red eye> Suspected condition is acute angle closure condition> Symptoms: Severely painful, halos around lights, may be systemically unwell (nausea, vomiting, headache). Usually > 50 years.> Decreased VA, hazy cornea, fixed, semi-dilated or oval pupil. Within 24 hours.> Keratitis Photophobia... | 151,720 | medmcqa_train |
Under the registration act of 1969, bih should be registered within - | . | 151,721 | medmcqa_train |
Under National Poliomyelitis Elimination Programme, Poliomyelitis is diagnosed by:- | Polio virus diagnosis in India: Is done by Viral culture and isolation from Stool Samples collected from cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Previously it was done through 'Antibody titre rise'. 2 stool samples b/w 24-48hrs each weighing 8gm is taken & sent it to lab through reverse cold chain. | 151,722 | medmcqa_train |
Purkinje cells from cerebellum end in | Purkinje cells from cerebellum and in in deep cerebellar nuclei Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:780,781,782 | 151,723 | medmcqa_train |
A 32 week preterm infant, weighing 1400 gm, vitals stable, admitted in NICU, What is the best feeding procedure ? | 32 - 34 weeks : sta feed by spoon or paladai ( Total enteral nutrition ) Ref : Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 159 | 151,724 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 month old infant presented with multiple erythematous papules & exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother has H/o itchy lesions. The most likely diag is: | A ie Scabies The diagnosis is scabies, which is characterized by severe itching and diffusely scattered papular and papulo-vesicular lesions which may appear on all pas of body except the face. It is common to find other individuals especially children staying in same house also showing similar features. In infants, ec... | 151,725 | medmcqa_train |
A 13 year girl with fatigue and weakness was found to be having reduced hemoglobin. Her MCV 70FC, MCH22pg and RDW 28. What is her likely diagnosis | Decreased heamoglobin with the clinical features of fatigue and weakness is diagnostic of anemia.
MCV is 70% Ft, So, microcytosis is present (normal MCV is 80-96ft)
MCH is 22pg, so, decreased MCH is suggestive of hypochromic anermia (normal MCH is 27 - 33 pg)
Red Cell distribution with (RDW) is the co efficient of vari... | 151,726 | medmcqa_train |
Tense and painful thyroiditis is | Answer- A. Dequern's thyroiditisDequervain thyroidits (granulomatous thyoiditis) - Most common cause of thyroid pain. | 151,727 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to anticancer therapy and is known to stimulate progenitor megakaryocytes? | Oprelvekin (IL-11) is used to prevent and treat thrombocytopenia. | 151,728 | medmcqa_train |
Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which pa of the temporal bone | Exostoses are multiple and bilateral, often presenting as smooth, sessile, bony swellings in the deeper pa of the meatus near the tympanic membrane. Outer 1/3rd pa of the external auditory meatus is formed by cailage and inner 2/3rd pa is formed by the temporal bone. It is often seen in persons exposed to the entry of ... | 151,729 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is recommended as a dual-active drug targeting both HBV and HIV? | Tenofovir is a recommended dual-active drug with sufficient activity in targetting both HBV and HIV. Among the Antiretroviral Drugs, Tenofovir (TDF/TAF), Laminvudine (3TC) and Emtricitabine (FTC) have sufficient activity against HBV. Entecavir is an HBV nucleoside analog that only weak/paial HIV activity and is not pre... | 151,730 | medmcqa_train |
Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all of the following except: March 2007 | Ans. D: Acromegaly Basal ganglia calcification is seen in: Endocrine-Hypoparathyroidism, hypothyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism Normal Metabolic-Mitochondrial disorders Toxic-Hypoxia, carbon monoxide, lead Chemotherapy/radiation-mineralizing angiopathy most prominent in the basal gangli... | 151,731 | medmcqa_train |
In holiday hea syndrome, most common feature seen is: Odisha 09; DNB 10 | Ans. Atrial fibrillation | 151,732 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following blood vessel is related to the paraduodenal fossa? | Paraduodenal fossa is also termed as fossa of Landzer. This fossa is seen only 2% cases, it is situated at some distance to the left of the ascending colon or fouh poion of the duodenum and is caused by the raising up of a peritoneal fold by the inferior mesenteric vein as it runs along the lateral side of the fossa an... | 151,733 | medmcqa_train |
True statement is : | A i.e. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocyte | 151,734 | medmcqa_train |
The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is- | "Penetrating injuries are the most common cause, but fistulas are sometimes seen after blunt trauma" - CSDT | 151,735 | medmcqa_train |
On otological examination, all of the following will have positive fistula test, EXCEPT: | In a positive fistula test, a pressure change in the external ear canal is transmitted to the labyrinth by an abnormal opening thereby producing nystagmus and veigo. It also implies that the labyrinth is still functioning, and is absent when labyrinth is dead. The abnormal opening caused by a cholesteatoma eroding into... | 151,736 | medmcqa_train |
True about blood supply of scaphoid? | Major blood supply (70-80%) of scaphoid comes through dorsal surface dorsal branches of radial aery.These dorsal vessels enter the scaphoid at or just distal to waist area and supply the proximal pole in retrograde fashion. | 151,737 | medmcqa_train |
Brock's Syndrome is | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Middle Lobe Bronchiectasis Brock's Syndrome Right middle lobe bronchiectasis occurring as a late sequel ofprimaiy tuberculosis is known as Brock's syndrome or middle lobe syndrome. Brock's syndrome is believed to be caused by pressure of lymph nodes in primary tuberculosis on the middle lobe bronchus.... | 151,738 | medmcqa_train |
Cervical spine fracture in A patient, what is the first thing to do | Since there are high chances of injury to cervical segments of spinal cord, immobilization of cervical spine is really impoant. Ref : SRB's 4thE At site of accident: Suspected cervical injury spine injury - one person hold the neck in traction by keeping the head pulled. In emergency depament: Two sand bags should be u... | 151,739 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following fat-soluble vitamin is cell membrane component and antioxidant? | Vitamin E Is the Major Lipid Soluble Antioxidant in Cell Membranes & Plasma Lipoproteins | 151,740 | medmcqa_train |
The inverse stretch reflex is due | Golgi tendon | 151,741 | medmcqa_train |
A 20-year-old female presented with complaints of nausea, vomiting and pain in the legs. Her physical examination and lab investigations are normal. Still she persistently request for investigations and treatment despite repeated assurance by her doctor. What would be the most probable diagnosis: September 2012 | Ans. C i.e. Somatisatic 7 disorder Somati3ation disorder Patient presents with multiple physical complaints (referable to different organ systems), Formal diagnostic criteria require the recording of at least 4 pains: - 2 gastrointestinal, - 1 sexual and - 1 pseudo-neurologic symptom | 151,742 | medmcqa_train |
A PATIENT WITH DIABETES AND COPD DEVELOPED POST OPERATIVE URINARY RETENTION .WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED FOR SO TERM TREATMENT TO RELIVE SYMPTOMS ? | BETHANECOL : ITS A M3 RECEPPTOR ANTAGONIST ITS USES ARE : FOR CONSTIPATION., PARALYTIC ILEUS, POST OPERATIVE URINARY RETENTION . REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED | 151,743 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following parenteral anticoagulants is a dual coagulation factor inhibitor? | ClavatadineXla inhibitorTifacoginVIIa inhibitorTanogitranDual IIa/Xa inhibitorFlovagatranIIa inhibitor | 151,744 | medmcqa_train |
A female presented with loss of vision in both eyes and on examination has normal pupillary responses and normal fundus, Her visually evoked response (VER) examination shows extinguished responses.The most likely diagnosis is - | Lesions upto optic tract (i.e. retina, optic nerve, optic chiasma and optic tract) affect pupillary (light) reflex. In the question light reflex is normal, thus optic neuritis and retinal detachment can be ruled out.
Now we are left with hysteria and cortical blindness. This can be differentiated by VER which is normal... | 151,745 | medmcqa_train |
A 65-yr-old man with H/O back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. On examination marked stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found. On x-ray, syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae. Diagnosis is - | The clinical profile of the given case fits into Ankylosing spondylitis (A.S.) except for the age.
A.S. is usually seen in 2nd or 3rd decades of age with a median age of 23. However "in 5% ofpatients, symptoms begin after 40" - Harrison
All other features, i.e. raised ESR, marked stiffness, restriction of chest movemen... | 151,746 | medmcqa_train |
38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation, TOC is : | Ans. is c i.e. LSCS | 151,747 | medmcqa_train |
Kupffers cells in liver are | A. i.e. (Macrophages) (54- Basic pathology 8th)Kupffer cells belonging to the reticuloendothelial systemsMarophages the dominant cells of chronic inflammation, are tissue cells derived from circulating blood monocytes, macrophages also found in(i) Liver - Kupffer cells(ii) Spleen and lymph node - Sinus histiocytes(iii)... | 151,748 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following antifungal drug have a broad antifungal spectrum: March 2011 | Ans. A: Posaconazole Posaconazole is the broadest spectrum anti fungal azole, and the only one with consistent activity against the Mucorales. | 151,749 | medmcqa_train |
Posterior relation of poal vein | The poal vein usually measures approximately 8 cm in adults. It originates behind the neck of the pancreas and is classically formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg282 , researchgate.net | 151,750 | medmcqa_train |
“Aschoff bodies” are seen in: | Rheumatic fever (RF)
Morphology
During acute RF, focal inflammatory lesions are found in various tissues.
Distinctive lesions occur in the heart, called Aschoff bodies, which consist of foci of lymphocytes (primarily T cells), occasional plasma cells, and plump activated macrophages called Anitschkow cells (Pathognomo... | 151,751 | medmcqa_train |
Which gene is involved in pathogenesis of Type 1 Diabetes mellitus? | Polymorphism in promoter region of insulin gene, CTLA-4 contributes to susceptibility to type 1 Diabetes mellitus. The most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus is autoimmunity. Most patients have DR3 and/ or DR4 haplotype. | 151,752 | medmcqa_train |
Shortest acting competitive neuromuscular blocker? | Ans. a (Mivacurium) (Ref. Anaesthesia by Ajay Yadav, 3rd ed., p 93)# MIVACURIUM is Shortest acting nondepolarising muscle relaxant is (10 min).MIVACURIUM# Among all nondepolarising muscle relaxants it has shortest duration of action,# Is an ideal M-relaxant for day care anesthesia.# Usually no reversal required.# Mivac... | 151,753 | medmcqa_train |
All are features of cleidocranial dysostosis except | They usually have long 2nd metacarpal
Autosomal dominant condition | 151,754 | medmcqa_train |
Height in cms by cube root of body weight is known as: | Ponderal index | 151,755 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most reliable bacteriological indicator of water pollution: September 2010, March 2012, March 2013 (a, b, f) | Ans. C: Escherichia coli Coliforms: Gram-negative, non spore-forming, oxidase-negative, rod-shaped facultative anaerobic bacteria that ferment lactose to acid and gas within 24-48h at 36+-2degC. Not specific indicators of fecal pollution. Thermotolerant coliforms: Coliforms that produce acid and gas from lactose at 44.... | 151,756 | medmcqa_train |
A new drug is found to be highly lipid soluble. It is metabolized at a slower rate of 10% per hour. On intravenous injection, it produces general anaesthesia that lasts only for 15 min. This short duration of anaesthesia is due to: | - Highly lipid soluble drugs get initially distributed to organs with high blood flow (Brain, heart, kidney etc). Later to less vascular tissues (muscle, fat). The plasma concentration falls and the drug is withdrawn from these sites. If the site of action was in one of the highly perfused organs, redistribution result... | 151,757 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis: | Ans. CT scan with contrast | 151,758 | medmcqa_train |
Spontaneous abortion in 1st trimester is caused by:a) Trisomy 21b) Monosomy c) Traumad) Rh-incompatibility | Common causes of abortion | 151,759 | medmcqa_train |
The smoky stool is seen in which poisoning? | Ans. is 'A' i.e., Phosphorus Acute poisoning of phosphorus* Breath smells of garlic.* Vomitus and stools may be luminous in the dark.* Smoky stool syndrome Faint fumes may emanate from the stools.* Manifestations of liver damage - tender hepatomegaly, jaundice which may progress to an olive green hue, flapping tremor o... | 151,760 | medmcqa_train |
A 24 years old primigravida wt = 57 kg, Hb 11,0 gm% visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester of pregnancy seeking advice on dietary intake. She should be advised - | Ans. is 'None' o Females have increased energy requirments during vulnerable periods such as lactation & pregnancy. | 151,761 | medmcqa_train |
The following instrument is used to measure | Sling Psychrometer is used to measure both the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures at the time. These temperatures are a measure of humidity content in the air.kata thermometer consisting principally of an alcohol thermometer used to measure air cooling. | 151,762 | medmcqa_train |
Which vessel causes Wallenburgs syndrome is: | Posterior inferior cerebellar aery | 151,763 | medmcqa_train |
False about tibia-fibula is ? | Common peroneal nerve is related to neck of fibula (not tibia). Nutrient aery of tibia is a branch of posterior tibial aery. Nutrient aery of fibula is a branch of peroneal aery. Tibia is the commonest site of osteomyelitis. | 151,764 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is used for the treatment of Myopia – | Most commonly used procedures in refractive surgery are performed with an excimer laser. | 151,765 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are histopathologic features of sympathetic ophthalmia except: | Necrosis Necrosis is not generally seen in sympathetic ophthalmia. Lymphocytes, giant cells, and eosinophils are seen within the choroid. Some have stated that eosinophils may be seen in early disease, before granulomatous inflammation is present, although this is not, diagnostic. | 151,766 | medmcqa_train |
Alcoholics may develop fatal lactic acidosis due to inhibition of which of the following enzyme? | Pyruvate is decarboxylated by the pyruvate dehydrogenase component of the enzyme complex to a hydroxyethyl derivative of the thiazole ring of enzyme-bound thiamin diphosphate. Arsenite and mercuric ions react with the 'SH groups of lipoic acid and inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase, as does a dietary deficiency of thiamin ... | 151,767 | medmcqa_train |
A 16 year old athlete boy was diagnosed with an isolated avulsion fracture of the lesser tubercle of the humerus. It is caused by the forceful contraction of which of the following muscles ? | The subscapularis muscle is inseed on the lesser tubercle of the humerus. Forceful contraction of subscapularis muscle to resist the abduction and external rotation of the shoulder may cause an isolated avulsion fracture of lesser trochanter. Ref : Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41e pg 806. | 151,768 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis? | microsomal 7-a hydroxylaseis rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis The first intermediate in the synthesis of bile acids is 7a-hydroxycholesterol It is catalyzed by the enzyme 7a-hydroxylase, a microsomal CYP450 enzyme, which requires NADPH, oxygen, and vitamin C as co-factors. | 151,769 | medmcqa_train |
Inconclusive autopsy is known as? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., No cause of death is found on gross as well as histopathological examination Types of autopsy1) Normal autopsy - cause is apparent from gross examination2) Defective autopsy - cause was ascertainable, but was not ascertained due to constrains on the part of doctor, hospital, facilities etc3) Obscure a... | 151,770 | medmcqa_train |
Branches of coeliac axis are all except: | D. i.e. Inferior Phrenic aery | 151,771 | medmcqa_train |
Day light factor in living rooms should be: | 8% | 151,772 | medmcqa_train |
which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSORE ? | Thoraco score is a score used to predict the in hospital moality in a patient require thoracic surgery REF : BAILEY AND LOVE 27TH ED | 151,773 | medmcqa_train |
Endometrial implants are deficient in which enzyme | 17 β - hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2,which inactivates estrogen is absent in endometrial implants. | 151,774 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about anesthesia machine | A i.e. Desflurane vapourizer is heated to 39degC Rotameter is constant pressure, variable orifice (area) flow meter for gases and liquid bothQ. - Halothane vaporizes at 50.2degC (ie boiling point) -O2 sensor can be attached both on expiratory and inspiratory limb of circle system's breathing circuit but not into the fr... | 151,775 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following play most important role in memory | Ans. (a) Synaptic network(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.284)Memory information is stored across diffuse network of neurons in brainSynapses across those neuronal network is strengthened by repetition of what is learned | 151,776 | medmcqa_train |
A 10-year-old boy presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain. There is a past history of bronchitis but no history of pneumonia. On examination, there has been no significant increase in weight over the past 3 years, with flattening of the growth curve. Trace digital clubbing is noted. Most appropriate test to be... | Sweat test. The most common cause of digital clubbing in children, other than cyanotic congenital hea disease, is cystic fibrosis. The history of bronchitis and of abdominal pain (probably secondary to malabsorption) is compatible with this diagnosis. Therefore, a sweat test is the best test to order. Pulmonary functio... | 151,777 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year old young male with abdominal pain after sustaining blunt trauma to his abdomen during a road traffic accident has brought to emergency depament. His BP is 120/80 and pulse rate is 72bpm. The next best step in management of this patient is? | * Initial Investigation in a patient with abdominal trauma is USG to detect hemoperitoneum * Investigation of choice to know the source of hemoperitoneum in a stable patient is CECT-Abdomen. Radiological evaluation of abdominal trauma in emergency: Order of FAST Views : 1.Subxiphoid View to detect pericardial collectio... | 151,778 | medmcqa_train |
What is the total number of goals in the Millennium Development Goals? | The Millennium Development Goals were adopted in 2000. There are 8 goals, of which 3 are directly related to health. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 11. | 151,779 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following immunoglobulins is rich in serum and body secretions? | IgA is the second most abundant immunoglobulin constituting 10-13% of the total. It is the predominant immunoglobulin in seromucous secretions such as saliva, tears, colostrum, breast milk and tracheobronchial and genitourinary secretions. In human sera more than 80% of IgA occurs as monomer containing 2H and L chains ... | 151,780 | medmcqa_train |
Emesis is not contraindicated in | Emesis should be used only if there is difficulty in obtaining gastric lavage. Vomiting can be produced if the medullary centers are still responsive. Due to danger of aspiration of gastric contents, vomiting should only be induced in a conscious patient. Contraindications: Severe hea and lung diseases. Advanced pregna... | 151,781 | medmcqa_train |
The thickest nerve of the body is: | Sciatic nerve (L4-S3) is the largest peripheral nerve in the body.It is the longest and widest single nerve in the human body, going from the top of the leg to the foot on the posterior aspect The sciatic nerve is comprised of the tibial and common peroneal nerve and exits the pelvis inferior to the piriformis muscle, ... | 151,782 | medmcqa_train |
Anti-thyroid drug of choice for thyroid storm is:- | Thyroid storm is an extreme form of thyrotoxicosis. The drugs used in thyroid storm are: Propanolol to control severe cardiovascular manifestations. It is life saving drug in thyroid storm and is DOC. CCBs like Diltiazem are used, if beta-blockers are C/I (as in asthmatics). Propylthiouracil is used to reduce the synth... | 151,783 | medmcqa_train |
Drug used in hepatitis B infection is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Entecavir o Entecavir is the DOC for chronic hepatitis B infection. | 151,784 | medmcqa_train |
Salivary amylase is activated by: March 2007 | Ans. B: Chlorine IonSalivary Amylase break large, insoluble starch molecules into soluble starches (amythrodextrin, achrodestrin and ultimately maltose.Ptyalin acts on linear alpha (1,4) glycosidic linkages.Optimum conditions for ptyalinOptimum pH - 5.6 -6.9Human body temperature-37 degrees CelsiusPresence of ceain ani... | 151,785 | medmcqa_train |
Blood agar is an example of ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enriched media | 151,786 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is not used topicallyfor open angle glaucoma? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetazolamide Topical antiglaucoma drugs Pilocarpine Q%) -> 4ttmes a day Beta-blockers - a iimotot (0,25-0.5%) eye drops + 1-2 times a day a Timolot gel -+ Once a dny Betaxalol (0.5%) + twice daily c Levobunolol (0.25-0.5%) -+ l-2 times a day Caeolol (l -2%) -+ l-2 time a day u Metipranolot (0. 1-0.6%... | 151,787 | medmcqa_train |
A 42- year old man is undergoing chemotherapy after resection of a cecal adenocarcinoma with positive lymph nodes. Which of the following potentially operable complications is a common occurrence among patients receiving systemic chemotherapy? | A surgeon is frequently asked to evaluate patients who are receiving systemic chemotherapy Most complications of chemotherapy do not require surgical therapy. Perirectal abscesses are more common in these immunosuppressed patients. 'Gastrointestinal bleeding occurs secondary to mucosal irritation and thrombocytopenia, ... | 151,788 | medmcqa_train |
A female presented with the severe headache of sudden onset. On CT scan a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage is made. The most common site of subarachnoid haemorrhage is - | Excluding head trauma the most common cause of SAH is rupture of a saccular aneurysm (Berry aneurysm or congenital aneurysm)." Ref : Harrison, 17/e p1726 | 151,789 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs cannot cross the blood placental barrier | Refer kDT 7/e p116 Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound and is this water soluble and unable to penetrate blood brain barrier | 151,790 | medmcqa_train |
Non-pathogenic Ebola virus:- | Ebola virus is a deadly human disease most commonly affecting people and non human primates(monkeys and gorillas). Ebola Virus belongs to family Filoviridae. Cause haemorrhagic fever. Out of many subtypes only 4 i.e Ebola,Sudan,Tai and Bundibugyovirus causes disease in people whereas Reston virus is known to cause dise... | 151,791 | medmcqa_train |
First commissure to develop ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anterior commissure | 151,792 | medmcqa_train |
Among the following statements, true about DCIS breast is: | Ductal Carcinoma in Situ (DCIS) DCIS is a malignant clonal proliferation of epithelial cells limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane DCIS can spread throughout the ductal system and produce extensive lesions involving an entire sector of a breast. DCIS is almost always detected by mammography. Histologica... | 151,793 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following drugs cause hemolysis in G-6PD deficiency except:- | * G6PD protects RBC from free radical injury * Impoant drugs causing hemolysis in G6PD deficiency are - Primaquine - Nitrofurantoin - Sulfonamides - Furazolidone | 151,794 | medmcqa_train |
30 years old primipara in labour with transverse lie.Treatment of choice is: | Patients in labour with transverse lie can be managed by external cephalic version followed by surgical rupture of the membrane.
But it is important to note that the patient is a primigravida with age 30 years, i.e. elderly primi, so ECV is contraindicated.
This patient requires an emergency cesarean section.
Guidelin... | 151,795 | medmcqa_train |
A 20 years female has hepatosplemegaly, fever, pallor and generalized lymphadenopathy. Lab test useful for diagnosis is/are - | General symptoms of leukemia==bleeding,bruising problems,increased risk of infections,(assume===fever,tiredness,)---generally due to lack of normal blood cells===so blood tests help to Dx or assess.Acute leukemias generally are more common in children.So based on age in Question, we can clinically rule out leukemia. Ch... | 151,796 | medmcqa_train |
Complement is a series of impoant host proteins which provide protection from invasion by foreign microorganisms. Which one of the following statements best describes complement? | Both IgG and IgM activate complement by the classic pathway, while IgA activates it by the alternative pathway. Neither IgD nor IgE can activate complement. Complement is a system of several proteins that is activated by either an immune or a nonimmune pathway. Both of these pathways result in the production of many bi... | 151,797 | medmcqa_train |
Fordyce spots are seen on- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lips Fordyce spots (Fordyce granules or Fordyce disease)* Fordyce's spot represents ectopic sebaceous glands on lips (most common site) and oral mucosa. They may also appear on vulva and penis, where they are called Tyson's gland, i.e., ectopic sebaceous gland at penis (prepuce) and vulva is called ty... | 151,798 | medmcqa_train |
The cerebral peduncle consists of all the following pas except | Each half of the midbrain anterior to the aqueduct is called the cerebral peduncle. Each cerebral peduncle is subdivided into (a) The crus cerebri, anteriorly; (b) the substantia nigra, in the middle; and (c) the tegmentum, posteriorlyRef: BD Chaurasia; Volume 3; 6th edition; Brain; Page no: 328 | 151,799 | medmcqa_train |
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