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All of the following are true about corneal endothelium except:
Ans. Corneal decompensation occurs when cell count is decreased by 50 percent
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A patient developed paraplegia. On routine examination and X-ray it was found that there are osteoblastic lesion in his spine. Most probable diagnosis is -
Most common tumor producing osteoblastic bone metastasis is carcinoma prostate.
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Good pasture's syndrome is charachterized by:
Answer is D (All of the above): Harrison's syndrome is typically associated with anti-GBM antibodies, crescenteric glomerulonephritis (RPGN) and diffuse alveolar haemorrhage `Good pasture's syndrome is charachterized by the combination of Diffuse Alveolar Haemorrhage (DAH) and glomerulonephritis (Crescents; RPGN) assoc...
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a-helix of protein is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary structure a-helix It is a spiral structure consisting of a polypeptide chain that is coiled around a longitudinal axis in a helical fashion.It is the most common secondary structure and a vast variety of proteins contain the a-helical structure.The a-helix is produced by formation of hydroge...
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Lesion in female child born to a mother treated with stilbesterol is :
Vaginal adenosis
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Distal clearance in surgery for carcinoma rectum is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2 cm
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Onion skin thickening of arteriolar wall is seen
Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis is associated with malignant hypertension in which concentric thickening of the walls and luminal narrowing leads to “onion skin like lesions”.
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Which of the following is not an antioxidant?
Antioxidant Vitamin Vitamin E Vitamin C Beta Carotene selenium Metabolic antioxidants Glutathione: Reduced glutathione (GSH) plays a key role in the biological antioxidant enzyme system others: Ceruloplasmin, Transferrin, Albumin, Bilirubin, Haptoglobin enzymatic antioxidants (superoxide dismutase, catalase) ref satyan...
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A 60-year-old male presents with hematuria, weight loss. Cystoscopy biopsy of the superficial lesion in bladder shows hyperchromatic nucleus, increased nuclear - cytoplasmic ratio, the lesion involves full thickness of epithelium but doesn't invade basement membrane. The diagnosis is:
Ans. (c) Bladder Carcinoma in situRef: Bailey 26th Edition, Page 1333* Carcinoma in situ stands when the lesion does not invade basement membrane.
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All of the following are features of Scleroderma are following except
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Diffuse periosteal reaction Skin involvement in systemic sclerosis Skin involvement is a nearly universal feature of systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by variable extent and severity of skin. Thickening and hardening. The fingers, hands, and face are generally the earliest areas of the bod...
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The most life threatening complications of septic aboion includes :
None
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Insulin stimulated glucose transport is which type of transport-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Facilitated diffusion * Glucose is transported into the cells by two mechanismsi) Facilitated diffusion By glucose transporters (GLUT)ii) Secondary active transportBy sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT)* Insulin increases glucose uptake by increasing the GLUT4 on the cell membrane. Thus, insul...
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A traveling nerve impulse does not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because:
When an AP is initiated at a point, the point goes into refractoriness when the Na+ entered through that point has excited the adjacent (2nd) point. so it will travel in single direction Hyperpolarization event is after the refractory period.
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The thyroid inhibitor with fastest mechanism of action is?
Though iodine is a constituent of the thyroid hormones, but still it is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor. All the facets of thyroid function seemed to be affected by iodine. But the most impoant function of it is inhibition of the release of the thyroid hormone from the follicular cells which has been already synth...
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Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for:
Ans. D. All of theseCyclic AMP is a very important second messenger synthesized by ATP in the presence of adenylate cyclase. Here the hormones bind to the cell surface (Plasma membrane) receptors and stimulate the release of second messengers.Second MessengerHormonesc-AMPCatechol amines, ACTH, hCGADH, Calcitonin, FSH, ...
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In which of the following tumors alpha fetoprotein is elavated
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a normal component of plasma protein of the human foetus secreted by yolk sac and embryonal hepatocytes which reduces 2-3 weeks after bih and persists as a low value level. Normal value is up to 10 ng/ml of plasma.It is an impoant tumour marker for HCC and more often HCC with cirrhosis (betwe...
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Inclusion bodies seen in progressive myoclonic epilepsy -
Answer- D. Lafora bodiesLafora bodies- progressive myoclonic epilepsyHirano bodies- Alzheimer diseaseBuschino bodies- lateral sclerosisLewy bodies- Parkinson's disease and Lewy body disease
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Widmark's formula is used for measurement of blood levels of:
Widmark's a = p.r.c., a= wt of alcohol in gms in body, p= body wt in kg, c= conc. of alcohol in blood in gm/kg, r = constant (0.6 for men, 0.5 for women). For Urine, formula is- a = 3,4p.r.q, where q is the conc. of alcohol in urine in mg/kg.
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First centre that get activated before skilled voluntary movements is?
ANSWER: (A) Neo cortexREF: Ganong's 22nd edition page 203Repeat from June 2011"The lateral corticospinal tract is concerned with skilled movements"See APPENDIX-15 for detailsOrigin: primary motor cortex (30%), premotor and supplementary motor area (30%) and somatosensory areas posterior to central sulcus (40%)It passes...
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The classic triad of congenital rubella includes all except -
Congenital rubella syndrome  Maternal viremia associated with rubella infection during pregnancy may result in infection of the placenta and fetus.  The most important factor in the pathogenicity of rubella virus for the fetus is the gestational age at the time of infection. “In general, the earlier in pregnancy in...
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Friedlanders bacillus also known as:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Klebsiella pneumoniae(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 280 and 8th/e, p. 278)"Klebsiella pneumoniae is also known as Friedlander's bacillus or Bacillus mucosus capsulatus."(Karl Friedlander, 1847-1887, German bacteriologist) - who helped discover the bacterial cause of pneumonia in 1882.
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Which of the following can be used for self tonometry?
In self tonometry patient himself measures the intraocular pressure. The dynamic contour tonometer represents a potentially new technology for non-invasive and direct intraocular pressure (IOP) measurement, and has been proposed to accurately measure the true IOP irrespective of the corneal thickness. The Perkins tonom...
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EDRF is
Endothelial cells that line the inside of blood cells could release a substance that relaxes smooth muscle (endothelial-derived relaxing factor, EDRF). CLINICAL BOX 5-7 Common Drugs That Act on Smooth Muscle Overexcitation of smooth muscle in the airways, such as that observed during an asthma attack, can lead to bronc...
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Collection of urine sample of a patient of TB/kidney is done :
Ans. Is 'c' i.e. In early morning " Genitourinary tuberculosisGenitourinary tuberculosis accounts for about 15% of all extrapulmonary cases.Local symptoms predominate-Urinary frequency (MC) dysuria hematuria and flank pain are common presentations.Urinalysis gives abnormal results in 90% of cases, revealing pyuria and ...
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A person is responsible for his crime even if done under the influence of alcohol after becoming intoxicated with his own will, comes under
Refer the byte "Legal sections".
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Which of the following is the function of MHC I and II?
The function of MHC molecules is to display peptide fragments of protein antigens for recognition by antigen specific T cells.
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Which of the following circumstances trigger non invasive to invasive ventilation
Circumstances in which non invasive positive pressure ventilation should be changed to invasive ventilation Resp arrest Rr > 35/min Sev dyspnea with use of accessory muscles and possibly paradoxical breathing Life threatening hypoxemia PaO2 <40 mm hg Or PaO2/FiO2 <200 Sev acidosis (pH <7.25 ) and hyperapnia (PaCO2 >60 ...
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Krukenberg's spindle seen in patients with pigmentary glaucoma refers to deposition of pigment on:
Ans. Back of cornea
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The commonest method of detection of diphtheria carriers is:
Schick test, method for determining susceptibility to diphtheria; it laid the basis for inoculation against the disease. A minute amount of diphtheria toxin is injected into the skin of the forearm.  Redness at the site of injection after three days indicates a positive reaction (absence of circulating antibody) or a f...
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Serology of a young man shows HBsAg, however HBeAg is negative with normal levels of AST and ALT. He is asymptomatic. What is the next line of management?
Ans. (a) Wait and watch In hepatitis B, among previously healthy adult who present with clinically apparent acute hepatitis recovery ocurs in 99% therefore, antiviral therapy is not likely to improve the rate of recovery and is not required. In this case also patient is viually asymptomatic, so no treatment is required...
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Micro Munro abscess is seen in
Munro micro abscesses are seen in psoriasis it is the collection of neutrophils in stratum corneum. IADVLtextbook of dermatology page 1041
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Testis tumor is associated with secondary hydrocele in
• Approximately 5-10% of testicular tumors may be associated with hydroceles.
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Upon Hysteroscopy which of the following cannot be seen:
Hysteroscopy is best for diagnosing lesions within the uterine cavity Also: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding Oligomenorrhea amenorrhea, Recurrent Pregnancy loss Endometrial carcinoma, Un-explained infeility Suspected anomalies Missing IUCDs Diagnosing intra uterine submucous fibroids, Polyps, adhesions Septums etc.
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A 35-year-old male develops involvements of PIP, DIP and metacarpophalangeal joints with sparing of the wrist and carpometacarpal joints. The probable diagnosis is -
First let me exclude the other options : MTP joint involvement is not seen in OA. DIP joint involvement is not seen in RA. In pseudogout, large joints like knee, ankle are involved. Small joint are not involved. Now we are left with psoriatic arthritis. In Psoriatic arthritis any pattern of joint involvement can be...
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Preformed toxin is impoant in food poisoning due to all, EXCEPT:
Food poisoning is of three types: INFECTIVE TYPE: In this type, multiplication of bacteria occurs in vivo when infective doses of microorganisms are ingested with food. Incubation period is generally 8 to 24 hours. The typical example of this type of food poisoning is by Salmonella typhimurium, S. Enteritidis, S. Heide...
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A 27-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) comes to the delivery floor at 37 weeks gestation. She has had no prenatal care. She complains that, on bending down to pick up her 2-year-old child, she experienced sudden, severe back pain that now has persisted for 2 h. Approximately 30 min ago she noted bright red blood comin...
The patient described in the question presents with a classic history for abruption-that is, the sudden onset of abdominal pain accompanied by bleeding. Physical examination reveals a firm, tender uterus with frequent contractions, which confirms the diagnosis. The fact that a clot forms within 4 min suggests that coag...
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Normal Brown colour of stool is due to
Hemoglobin from RBC undergo metabolism and produces bilirubin and biliverdin. This, in turn, conveed into urobilinogen and stercobilinogen.This urobilin and stercobilin are responsible for giving colour to urine and stool respectively.During obstructive jaundice absence of this stercobilin leads to clay colored urine(R...
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Pond's fractures are common in: AP 09
Ans. Children
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Which of the following is example of Nominal variable
Roll number is an identity in the class ; Hence it is an example of nominal variable OTHER EXAMPLES NOMINAL VARIABLES ORDINAL VARIABLES METRIC ABO blood grouping Rh Types of anemia Sex - male/ female etc TNM staging of cancer Hypeension classification Severity of anemia Weight Height Hb Blood sugar levels Serum cholest...
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Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHC–R, requisite is –
District tuberculosis centre (DTC) is the nucleus of DTP The function of DTC is to plan, organize and implement the DTP in the entire district, in association with general Health services. When DTP activities (Sputum microscopy, chest X-ray, Anti-TB treatment) are introduced in an organized manner in a peripheral healt...
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From Ist Jan 2007 to 30th June 2007, 22 new cases of tuberculosis were repoed per 1, 65, 000 population. But during this period 120 suspected cases of TB were newly registered. What will be the incidence rate?
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 60 Incidence = (no. of new cases of specific disease during a given time period / Population at-risk during that period) x1000 Incidence rate = (22/165000)x10,00000 = 133.3 per 10lakh
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All of the following constitute supraglottic cancer except:
The lingual surface of the epiglottis and valleculae are in the oropharynx. The glottis comprises the vocal cords and the anterior and posterior cornmissures. Subglottis is a small area extending from the lower border of the cricoids to the under surface of the vocal cords
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Most common renal stone is
Calcium oxalate stones - 60% Phosphate stones( hydroxyapatite and brushite) - 22% Uric acid stones -7 % ,struvite 7%.Cystine stones - 2% Reference : Campbell and Walsh urology 11th edition , chapter 51 , pg no 1181
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A 40-year-old alcoholic develops cough with foul smelling sputum and fever. Chest x-ray shows an air-fluid level in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. The most likely etiologic agent is
(Braunwald, 15/e, p 1478.) Of the organisms listed, only anaerobic infection is likely to cause a necrotizing process. Type III pneumococci have been repoed to cause cavitary disease, but this is unusual. The location of the infiltrate suggests aspiration, also making anaerobic infection most likely. The superior segme...
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Omental bursa (lesser sac)A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the following
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Omental bursa BDC writes - "The posterior surface of the stomach is related to structures forming the stomach bed, all of which are separated from the stomach by the cavity of the lesser sac." Thus an ulcer on the posterior wall of stomach would perforate into the lesser sac. Also remember Most perfor...
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Typhoid is treated by all except
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythromycin The older agents used for the treatment of typhoid were : Chloramphenicol Ampicilin Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole Beta lactam Parenteral - Ceftriaxone Orall - Cefixime These drugs are not used nowdays because of widespread resistance. o Nowdays the drug of choice for Typhoid all over the ...
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After finding a case of AFP, next step is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Repoing of case Every case of AFP in any child under 15 years should be repoed. The number of AFP cases repoed each year is used as an indicator of a country's ability to detect polio, even in countries where the disease no longer occurs.
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The pathological feature in Wegener&;s granulomatosis on renal biopsy
Wegener's granulomatosis is a necro-inflammatory lesion having 4 components granulomas of the upper respiratory tract, granulomas of the lungs, systemic vasculitis (page 403) and focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis. Ref: Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition page 495.
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Antioxidant vitamin -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o There are two types of antioxidant systems :-Enzymatic antioxidant systemThis includeCatalaseSuperoxide dismutase (SOD)Glutathione peroxidaseNon-enzymatic antioxidant systemThis is further subdivided intoVitamins : Vitamin E, Vitamin A & beta carotene. Vitamin C.Minerals : Selenium,...
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True about Pringles maneuver:
PRINGLE's Maneuver Aka Total Inflow Occlusion Clamping in foramen of Winslow and we occlude the Poal triad. It controls bleeding from Poal Vein and Hepatic Aery. Bleeding is effectively controlled from Poal Vein as compared to Hepatic Aery. It doesn't control bleeding from IVC and Hepatic Vein
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Test for ACL injury is -
Ans. is `a' i.e., Lachman ACL injury ACL is the most commonly injured ligament of knee. Most common mechanism of injury is twisting (medial rotation) with valgus injury on semiflexed knee. Often with this mechanism MCL and medial meniscus are also injured. This triple injury of ACL , MCL and medial meniscus is called O...
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True statement regarding inverse agonists is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binds to receptor and causes opposite action o Receptors are specific binding site with functional correlate,o In relation to action through receptors, two terms are important.i) AffinityAbility of the drug to combine with the receptor.It determines the concentration of drug required to form a signifi...
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In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs during:
Arginase the final enzyme of urea cycle is a hydrolase i.e. it uses water to break the bond in arginine It breaks arginine into urea and ornithine Urea is transpoed to kidneys from liver blood and then excreted in urine
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Accumulation of lipoproteins in atherosclerosis in the form of
(Oxidised LDL) (499-Robbins-Pathologic basis of disease 8th)Accumulation of lipoproteins mainly LDL and its oxidized forms in the vessel wall OXIDIZED-LDL1. In ingested by macrophages through scavenger receptors distinct from the LDL receptor thus forming foam cells2. Increases monocytes accumulation in lesions3. Stimu...
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Calcium carbonate is used for
Ref: Katzung's, 14th ed. pg. 1089* This medication is used to treat symptoms caused by too much stomach acid such as heartburn, upset stomach, or indigestion.* It is an antacid that works by lowering the amount of acid in the stomach.* It can also be used in renal osteodystrophy with hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia and...
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Hypochondriasis is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Preoccupation with fear of a serious illness Hypochondriasis* The primary feature of hypochondriasis is persistent preoccupation with excessive fear of a serious (e.g., cancer) or incurable (e.g., AIDS) disease, which is based on person's own interpretation of physical symptoms or sensation, i.e., mis...
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Daily energy requirment for reference female, who is sedentary (in Kcal) -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1900
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What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in newborns?
Transient tachypnea of the newborn is a respiratory problem that can be seen in the newborn sholy after delivery. It is caused by retained fetal lung fluid due to impaired clearance mechanisms. It is the most common cause of respiratory distress in term neonates. Ref : essential paediatrics op ghai 9edition Pg no : 210
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Eye of newborn is
Eye at bih Anteroposterior diameter of eyeball is about 16.5 mm Corneal diameter is about 10 mm Anterior chamber is shallow and angle is narrow Pupil is small and doesnot dilate fully. Lens is spherical at bih Retina is fully differentiated at bih. Macula differentiates 4-6 months after bih Myelination of optic nerve f...
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Urge to urinate begins at what volume of urine in bladder?
The first urge to void is felt at a bladder volume of about 150 mL, and a marked sense of fullness at about 400 mL The suppression of urge after initial experience is a manifestation of the law of Laplace. This law states that the pressure in a spherical viscus is equal to twice the wall tension divided by the radius. ...
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Frontal lobe syndrome involves
Frontal lobe syndrome : Euphoria  Impaired recent memory Flight of ideas Attention deficit
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Uterine contractions are clinically palpabel when there intensity is more than
Uterine contractions: Palpable when intensity exceeds 10 mm Hg Painful when exceeds 15 mm Hg
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Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of post operative shivering?
Treatment of post operative shivering involves oxygen administration to prevent hypoxia, active warming and use of drugs. Pethidine at a minimum dose of 0.35mg/kg is the most effective opioid in the treatment of post anaesthetic shivering. Fentanyl, Aalfentanil and Doxapram at a dose of 0.2mg/kg is also effective. Ref:...
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Best disinfectant for endoscopes is:
Activated 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde is used for decontaminating flexible endoscopes. Advantages  Relatively non-corrosive  Will kill spores with prolonged exposure (3- 10 hours). Disadvantages Toxic. Irritant. Possible alternatives:  Ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA) peracetic acid.  Chlorine dioxide (ClO2) products (su...
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The risk of neonatal chicken pox is the maximum, if maternal infection occurs -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Within 5 days of delivery o Risk of neonatal chicken pox is maximum if maternal infection occurs near delivery ( 5 days before delivery or 48 hours after).
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Hypersensitivity angiitis is seen in -
HSP is not hypersensitivity angiitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most important differential of hypersensitivity angiitis. Hypersensitivity angiitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angiitis or leukocytoclastic angiitis is a small vessel vasculitis due to hy...
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Cocaine withdrawal causes all except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Creeping bugs Patients withdrawing from cocaine typically experience fatigue, dysphoria, diurbed sleep, and some craving; some may experience depression".___________ Kaplan & Saddock. o Creeping bugs are seen in chronic cocaine abuse (not due to withdrawal). Cocaine Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from...
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About 90 days post-bone marrow transplant, a 55-year-old white woman began to complain of dry cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. She was started on antibiotics and blood culture obtained at the time was negative and there was not improvement. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the lungs showed a halo of low at...
Aspergillus is widespread in nature and produces small conidia that are easily aerosolized. Atopic individuals often develop severe allergic reactions to the conidial antigens. In immunocompromised patients, the conidia may germinate to produce hyphae that invade the lungs and other tissues. Progress of disease can be ...
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True about vagina development is all except
Mullerian duct forms upper 2/3rd of vagina.
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Minimum hCG level that a urine pregnancy test can detect is?
5 m IU/ ml REF: Danfoh's Obstetrics and Gynecology, 10th Edition page 4, Current OB/GYN > Chapter 9. Normal Pregnancy & Prenatal Care > Normal Pregnancy > URINE PREGNANCY TEST: Sensitive, early pregnancy test measure changes in levels of hCG. There is less cross-reaction with luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulat...
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In competitive inhibition the relation Km and Vmax is one of the following -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Km increase and Vmax is the same Competitive inhibition-Km is high Vmax is sameNon Competitive inhibition-Vmax lowered Km unaltered Type of inhibitorKmVmaxReversible inhibbitor o CompetitiveIncreasedNo effecto Non-competitiveNo effectDecreasedo UncompititiveDecreasedDecreasedIrrversible inhibitor (sam...
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Organ of rosenmullar is remnant of
The epoophoron or epoophoron (also called organ of Rosenmuller or the parovarium) is a remnant of the mesonephric tubules that can be found next to the ovary and fallopian tube
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Which of the following organism can penetrate the normal cornea –a) Gonococcusb) Pseudomonasc) Diphtheriad) Streptococcuse) Staphylococcus epidermidis
The organisms which can penetrate intact corneal epithelium are Neisseria gonorrhoea, Haemophilus Aegyptus, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Listeria species and Neisseria meningitides.
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A major source of Von Willebrand factor (vWF) –
Circulating factor VIII has two components. a)   Factor VIIIc (Procoagulant protein) This is the smaller component It is synthesized in the liver (main source) and kidney. It is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. b)   Von Willebrand factor (vWF) This is the larger component. It is p...
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Aniseikonia refers to
ANISEIKONIA Aniseikonia is defined as a condition wherein the images projected to the visual coex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size and/or shape. Etiological types: 1. Optical aniseikonia: may occur due to either inherent or acquired anisometropia of high degree. 2. Retinal aniseikonia: may develop du...
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Hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the interphalangeal joints is caused by injury in the
i.e. (Ulnar nerve): (59, 134-BDC-l 5th)An ulnar nerve lesion at the writ produces ulnar claw hand'CLAW HAND - due to the un opposed action of the long flexors and extension of the fingers, there is hyperextension at the metacarpo phalangeal joint and flexion at the interphalangeal joints involving the ring and little f...
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Which of the following grows in cell culture media
Chlamydia - cell lines that have been irradiated with a metabolic inhibitor are used for isolation of chlamydia. McCoy cell treated with cycloheximide are the most commonly used cell lines. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition
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Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the following except: September 2005
Ans. C: Fever >42 degree celsiusAppendicitis is more common in men The risk of perforation is:Less than 10 years old = 50%10-50 years old = 10%Over 50 years old = 30%Clinical features of appendicitis:Central abdominal pain moving to right iliac fossaNausea, vomiting, anorexiaLow-grade pyrexia (37.2-37.7 degree celsius)...
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Glucagon is secreted by
Glucagon, a peptide hormone secreted by the pancreas, raises blood glucose levels. Its effect is opposite that of insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels. The pancreas releases glucagon when blood sugar (glucose) levels fall too low. Glucagon causes the liver to conve stored glycogen into glucose, which is released ...
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All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of macularedema in diabetic retinopathy except
Ans. (a) Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunctionRef: Harrision 17/e, p. 2286-2287; Yanoff and Duker 2/e, p. 877- 880; Parson's 20/e, p. 294 - 298Pathogenesis of macular edema is due to the same changes as overall for DR.
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The following structure represents all the 3 components of the embryonic disc
The outer epithelial layer formed by the ectoderm, inner mucosal layer by the endoderm and middle fibrous layer by the mesoderm. Ref: Dhingra 6th edition page no.12
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The cardiac jelly formed around the hea tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
Prior to looping, the acellular space between the myocardium and endocardium in the hea is filled with a deformable extracellular matrix, the cardiac jelly, secreted by the myocardium. Radioactive labeling demonstrates that proteins produced in the myocardium flow toward the endocardium and are incorporated into the ba...
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Most common presentation of organ damage in Diabetes mellitus is
(A) Retinal changes # CHRONIC SYMPTOMS OF DIABETES are due to vascular damage from persistent hyperglycemia.> Vascular damage leads to end-organ damage.> Other conditions associated with diabetes, such as hypertension, dyslipidemia (as well as smoking) accelerate the development of vascular damage and the chronic compl...
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A 52-year-old woman loses her right kidney following an automobile accident. A CT scan of the abdomen 2 years later shows marked enlargement of the left kidney. The renal enlargement is an example of which of the following adaptations?
Hyperophy Response to trophic signals or increased functional demand and is commonly a normal process. The molecular basis of hyperophy reflects the increased expression of growth-promoting genes (proto-oncogenes) such as myc and ras. -Hyperplasia (choice C) of renal tubular cells may occur, but an enlargement of the k...
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"adder head" appearance on excretory urography is seen in
(Ureterocele) (1310-LB) (1290-B & L 25th)Ureterocele is a cystic enlargement of the intramural portion of the ureter thought to result from congenital atresia of the ureteric orifice.* The "adder-head' on excretory urography is typical* Usually the cyst wall is composed of urothelium only and the diagnosis is confirmed...
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Cardiac hyperaemia/vasodilation is due to which mediator?
Histamine and adenosine are vasodilators seen in cardiac muscles.Parasympathetic stimulation releases Ach at their endings which causes vasodilation. The effect is more in glands and GIT.Adrenaline acts alpha and beta receptors. It causes vasoconstriction alpha receptors in the blood vessels of the skin and mucous memb...
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Folic acid supplementation is necessory for -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pregnant females Body stores of folate are not large, about 5-10 mg, and therefore, folate deficiency can develop quickly.Folic acid requirements are greatest in conditions where there is rapid cell multiplication, such as during growth in young children and during pregnancy.Folic acid supplementation...
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Lower border of pharynx is the level of:
Pharynx, the upper portion of gut tube, is funnel-shaped fibromuscular tube that extends from the base of the skull to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage at the level of C6 vertebra.  It continues inferiorly as the esophagus.
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Which of the following is not a chronic myelopro liferative disorder
Example of mycloproliferative disorders Polycythemia vera 1o myelofibrosis Essential thrompocythemia CML
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Best investigation for Zenker's diverticulum is:
Ans. (a) Barium swallowRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1020-1022* IOC for Zenker's - Barium swallow* IOC for Achalasia - Manometry* IOC for Barret's - Endoscopic biopsy
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Which of the following treatment for menorrhagia is not suppoed by evidence?
Ethamsylate is known to reduce capillary fragility. Hence it is not effective for uterine bleeding which is more due to the vasodilator prostaglandins. Antiprostaglandins are used since NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and decreasing the ratio of prostacyclin to thromboxane. Prostaglandin...
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All of the following are predominant motor neuropathy except
Motor predominant neuropathies are immune neuropathies: acute GBS,a cute intermittent porphyria,laed neuropathy,diphtheric neuropathy,brachial neuritis-,diabetic lumbosacral plexus neuropathy,hereditarymotor-sensory neuropathy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567
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Which of the following should be avoided initially in hemorrhagic shock: March 2011
Ans. B: Dextrose 5% Hypotonic solutions (e.g. dextrose) are poor volume expanders and should not be used in the treatment of shock unless the deficit is free water loss (e.g. diabetes insipidus) or patients are sodium overloaded (e.g. cirrhosis) Glucose containing solutions should not be used in shock (they exacerbate ...
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Auto-splenectomy is associated with -
Answer- A. Systemic lupus erythematosusSLE patients with thrombocytosis anil antiphospholipid sytdrome are at risk of developing autosplenectomy.
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% of children with simple febrile seizures developing epilepsy is –
Children with febrile seizures have an increased risk of developing epilepsy. Between 2% to 7% of all children with febrile seizures develop epilepsy if followed up to the age of 25 years. Risk depends on type of febrile seizure : i) Simple febrile seizures →2% of all children with simple febrile seizures. ii) Complex...
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The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the cerebral cortex?
Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices  extend  over  much  of  the  insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the parietal lobe.
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Superior mesenteric aery supplies:
Colon
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Most impoant investigation for pericardial effusion -
2D Echocardiography is the investigation of choice for Pericardial Effusion ,Cardiac Tamponade ,Valvular Hea ds , Cardiomyopathy
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Which of the following tests is not used in the diagnosis of insulinoma
Answer is B (Xylose test) : Xylose test is used in the diagnosis of malabsorption due to intestinal mucosal disease. This test is not used for the diagnosis of Insulinomas Fasting blood glucose, C- peptide levels and Insulin Glucose Ratio are all used in the diagnosis of Insulinomas. Diagnosis of Insulinomas 6,uU/m1 wh...
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Chances of veical transmission of Hepatitis B may be high as
Answer is D (90%) The rate of perinatal transmission of hepatitis B (HBV) essentially depends on the presence or absence of HBe Ag and viral replication. The rate of perinatal transmission of HBV may be as high as 90% in neonates born to mothers who are positive for HBe AG. 'The likelihood of perinatal transmission of ...
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