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Most common cause of Vertebra plana
Vertebra plana: Uniform collapse of a vertebral body into a thin, flat disc. M/c cause - Eosinophilic granuloma.
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The 3 major divisions of Planning Commission are all Except:-
PLANNING COMMISSION OF INDIA:- Set up by Government of India in 1950. Consists of: Chairman Deputy chairman 5 members. 3 major divisions: General secretariat Technical divisions Programme advisors.
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A young female presents with the history of spontaneous abortions and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH 6 ILI/mL. What is the most probably cause of amenorrhea?
Ans. D. Uterine synechiaeFSH within normal limit rules out other options. Recurrent spontaneous abortions supports the answer.Asherman Syndrome* Intrauterine synechiae is also known as Asherman syndrome.* This condition occurs due to vigorous uterine curettage in early pregnancy which may lead to scarring that interfer...
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Baholin's gland is located in
The Baholin's glands are two pea-sized compound racemose glands located slightly posterior and to the left and right of the opening of the vagina. They secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina and are homologous to bulbourethral glands in males. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 393
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A 37-year-old man suffers a traumatic injury to the axilla that damages the thoracodorsal nerve. Which of the following movements of the arm or scapula could be affected in this patient?
Adduction o Latissimus dorsi is supplied by the thoraco-dorsal nerve. o Latissimus dorsi help us in scratching the opposite scapulai.e., it leads to adduction, extension & medial rotation at the shoulder joint
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Frequency of tuning fork used to test vibration sense is
(C) 512 hZ # TUNING FORK TESTS: These tests are performed with tuning forks of different frequencies such as 128, 256, 512,1024, 2048 and 4096 Hz, but for routine clinical practice, tuning fork of 512 Hz is ideal.> Forks of lower frequencies produce sense of bone vibration while those of higher frequency have a shorter...
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All of the following characteristic pattern seen in Brown Sequard syndrome; except:
Brown-Sequard syndrome: Hemisection of the spinal cord characterized by: damage to ascending sensory (dorsal column pathway, ventrolateral spinothalamic tract) descending motor (coicospinal tract) pathways The lesion to fasciculus gracilus or fasciculus cuneatus leads to ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch, vibrat...
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1 becquerel is equal (Disinegration/sec) to:
D i.e. 1 Becquerel (Bq) or disintegration per second is the SI unit of radioactivity wherea Curie (Ci) is non-SI unit of radioactivity. The rate of radioactive decay of a sample is called radioactivity. SI unit of activity is the Bequerel (Bq), defined as one nuclear disintegration per secondQ. The Curie (Ci) is define...
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Nerve damaged in radical mastoidectomy is
Facial nerve is involved in radical mastoidectomy Facial paralysis is the complication Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 460
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Kallmans syndrome is associated with all of the following except
When congenital GnRH deficiency is associated with anosmia or hyposmia (an absent or grossly impaired sense of smell), the disorder is known as Kallmann&;s syndrome. Two genetic mutations associated with Kallman&;s Syndrome : KAL gene - X - linked inheritance (Xp22.3) encoding anosmin - 1. Gene encoding FGFR1 (Fibrobla...
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True about Apoptosis are all except?
Ans. (a) Inflammation is presentRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /52-55Since in apoptosis the dead cell is rapidly cleared, before its contents have leaked out, therefore cell death by this pathway does not elicit an inflammatory reaction in the host.
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Which of the following management procedures of acute upper gastrointestinal bleed should possibly be avoided ?
Ans. is (a) i.e. Intravenous Vasopressin Though vasopressin can be used in acute variceal bleeding, it should possibly be avoided because of its side-effects. Management of acute G.I. bleeding - After the initial general management of the patient, the fuher management depends upon the cause of the bleeding. From the op...
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Which of the following is a die hardener
Die hardeners arc materials used to reinforce the surface of a die so as to make it more resistant of abrasion and scratching. Die hardeners used with gypsum dies: • Cyanoacrylate • Silver plating • Addition of die hardeners to gypsum
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The neo-adjuvant chemotherapy indicated in oesophageal carcinoma
Treatment of CA esophagus High-grade dysplasia (Tis) or T1a Endoscopic mucosal resection Localised advanced cancer T1: Vagal sparing or transhiatal or minimal invasive esophagectomy with limited LN dissection T2 and T3: Neoadjuvant Chemoradiation + surgery Cervical SCC or Non-ideal candidate for resection : Definitive ...
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Commonest position of the appendix is:
Ans. B RetrocoecalRef: BDC, 6thed. vol. II pg. 269-70* Most common position of vermiform appendix is retrocaecal, (12 O'clock- 65%) followed by pelvic (4 O'clock position).Types of appendix and their relative positionAppendixPositionPrevalence /commentRetrocaecal12 O' clock65%; most commonPelvic4 O' clock30%; 2nd most ...
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Following strain used is ?
This is a form of supravital staining in which cells are stained while living. It takes two days from reticulocytes to become RBC
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Which of the following ganglia does not contain postganglionic parasympathetic neurons?
The celiac ganglion is a sympathetic preveebral (collateral) ganglion that contains postganglionic neurons. In parasympathetic system(cranial pa) there are four small peripheral ganglia - ciliary, pterygopalatine, submandibular and otic
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Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of:
Vitamin D3 analogues - Naturally occurring, active metabolite of vit.D3 - 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) 3 synthetic analogues: -calcipotriol -1,24-Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (Tacalcitol) and -1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (Maxacalcitol), effective when applied topically in Psoriasis
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Bullet that leaves a visible mark in its flight so that person can see the path is: AI 10
Ans. Tracer bullet
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Angular vein infection commonly causes thrombosis of:
Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 226.
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The most accepted method for treatment of a myopic with refractive error of 2D is:
Ans. Spectacles
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All are true for plemorphic adenoma except?
Answer is 'd' i.e. None Pleomorphic adenomas arise most commonly in the parotid gland. These form majority (-80-90%) of tumors of the parotid gland. Pleomorphic adenomas are less common in the submandibular glands & sublingual glands; relatively rare in the minor glands. Pleomorphic adenomas are benign tumors derived f...
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What is the dose of Testosterone in Hvpogonadal male?
(C) 75 - 100 mg IM/week # RECOMMENDED REGIMENS FOR ANDROGEN REPLACEMENT:> Testosterone esters are administered typically at doses of 75-100 mg intramuscularly every week or 150-200 mg every 2 weeks.> One or two 5-mg nongenital testosterone patches can be applied daily over the skin of the back, thigh, or upper arm away...
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A 25 year old patient presents in coma with GCS of 5 and extensor posturing after a bike accident. Which of the following will the best management of the patient?
Ans. (c) Burr Hole surgeryThe image shows presence of extra-dural haemorrhage due to presence of biconvex lenticular opacity. Due to risk of brain herniation leading to death best management will be burr hole surgery.
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Bone affection in scurvy is due to which of the following
The most clearly established function of vitamin C is the activation of prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases from inactive precursors, allowing for hydroxylation of procollagen. Inadequately hydroxylated procollagen cannot acquire a stable helical configuration or be adequately cross-linked, so it is poorly secreted from the ...
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Proper lip support for complete denture is provided primarily by:
Proclination of maxillary anterior teeth and the surrounding denture base simulating the gingiva provided for the bulk for lip support in complete denture.
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Wahin-Finkeldey giant cells are seen in ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Measles Wahin-Finkeldey cells are multinucleated giant cells. These cells are pathognomic of measles and are found in lymphoid organs, lung and sputum.
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Which is not a complication of PUVA therapy:
D. i.e. Exfoliation
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In humans, coex of hair is usually:
Ans. 4-10 times broader than the medulla
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Babu a 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur; likely diagnosis is -
Well circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of a long bone (femur) in a 19 years old suggests the diagnosis of osteoid osteoma.
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Most common cause of bleeding in children
Most common cause of nose bleeding in children - Trauma to the little's area. Fingernail trauma is common. Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 197.
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A 35 year old lady complains dysphagia, Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly. Investigations show antinuclear antibody. The likely diagnosis is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Systemic sclerosiso Dysphagia, Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly in 35 years old lady suggest the diagnosis of systemic sclerosis (see above explanations).I think option 'b' needs some explanation here.Mixed connective tissue diseaseo Patients having the co-existence of features suggestive of SLE, p...
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Serum amylase level is raised in all except:
Answer is C (Appendicitis) Appendicitis is not associated with raised amylase levels. Pancreatitis, Ruptured ectopic and salivary gland lesions including blocked salivary duct are all associated with raised amylase levels. Pancreatic Disease Pancreatitis Pancreatic trauma Acute Pancreatic carcinoma Chronic: ductal obst...
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A 30-year-old man who was recently staed on haloperidol 30mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased VVBC count, increased creatinine phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of...
B i.e. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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Best radiographic view for fracture of C1, C2 veebrae is -
Best radiographic view for fracture of C1, C2 veebrae is - odontoid view
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A child presents with antimongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, sho stature, and undescended testis. The likely diagnosis is _____
The child presenting with the antimongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, sho stature, and undescended testis is suggestive of Noonan syndrome. Noonan syndrome: Autosomal-dominant disorder (12q) Male or female with Turner phenotype; normal karyotype Clinical features: Down-slanting palpebral fissure (antimongoloid slant) ...
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Which of the following is consistent with a decision to perform a cerclage?
The treatment of the apparently incompetent cervix is surgical and consists of reinforcing the weak cervix by some kind of purse-string suture.It is best performed after the first trimester, but before cervical dilatation of 4 cm, if possible.Bleeding, infection and uterine contractions are contraindications to surgery
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Aqueous humor has lower concentration of:
Protein content of aqueous humor is much less than that of plasma. The ocular tissue surrounding the aqueous humor (especially the cornea and lens) take up glucose from aqueous humor; glycolysis by these tissues results in higher pyruvate and lactate (and lower glucose) in aqueous humor. L-ascorbic acid content of aque...
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Most common enzyme deficiency leading to childhood hypeension is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 11-Beta hydroxylase o Salt retention and hypeension is seen in 17-a hydroxylase deficiency and I 1-p hydroxylase deficiency. 1 I -I hydroxylase deficiency is more common. 17-a hydroxylase deficiency is an uncommon form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
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A patient with abdominal injury presents to the emergency department with signs of signs of peritonitis and shock. Airway and breathing were secured and IV fluids were started with 2 large bore cannulas. The next line of management should be
Treatment for abdominal injury includes Emergency laparotomy. Indications include  Frank haemoperitoneum Significant diagnostic peritoneal lavage Haemodynamically unstable patient U/S or CT scan shows significant intra-abdominal injuries
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Aeriolar dilators used in the treatment of CHF
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor. Prazosin is alpha 1 blocker. Hydralazine is an aerial dilator and potassium channel opener (REF.Essentials of medical pharmacology KD TRIPATHI 8 Edition)
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Which of the following is not lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
.
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Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all except ?
Ans. is `b' i.e., Mild visual loss Ischaemic diabetic maculopathy It occurs due to microvascular blockage. Clinically it is characterised by marked visual loss with microaneurysms, haemorrhages, mild or no macular oedema and a few hard exudates. Fluorescein angiography shows areas of non-perfusion which in early cases ...
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Calories required by one year old child is: September 2008
Ans. None (1100 calories/day) In general, if you want to know how many calories (per day) a child needs, a good rule of thumb for children up to 5 years of age is to begin with a base of 1,000 calories and add 100 calories for each year of your child's age. 1 year-old would need approximately 1000 + 100 calories for 1 ...
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A 36 years old multigravida at 34 weeks, with previous 2 normal vaginal delivery now presented with unstable lie. The most likely diagnosis it s case is:
Ans. b. Placenta pre
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Paial recurrent larynegeal nerve palsy produces vocal cord in which position:
Ans. is d i.e. Paramedian
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The energy for muscle contraction is supplied by the enzymatic hydrolysis of ATP by ATPase present in:
The energy for muscle contraction is supplied by the enzymatic hydrolysis of ATP by ATPase present in heavy meromyosin. Two strands of heavy meromyosin are found in each myosin head - one of which is folded over as a protein mass. Light meromyosin is also found in myosin but is not involved in splitting ATP. Troponin a...
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Drugs is useful in the long term treatment of alcohol dependence: COMEDK 13
Ans. Acamprosate
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All of the following occur in mitochondria except :
Reactions that take place in -        Mitochondrion TCA cycle/ Citric acid cycle Beta oxidation of fatty acids Ketogenesis Respiratory chain Part of Gluconeogenesis & Urea cycle -        Cytosol Glycolysis/EMP​ Pentose phosphate pathway​ Fatty acid synthesis​ Part of Gluconeogenesis & Urea cycle​ Glycogenolysis
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Steroids act nuclear receptors which interact with DNA through
B i.e. Zinc finger motif
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Which among the following is used in deflouridation of water?
Ans: a (Alum and Lime) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 511,582The addition of lime and alum in sequence followed by flocculation, sedimentation and filtration for defluridation of water is Nalgonda technique.The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in India accepted as 0.5 to 0.8 mg/ltr.Endemic fluorosis.It has been...
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Which of these drugs can be a cause of rhabdomyolysis?
Ans. D. All of theseMany drugs can cause rhabdomyolysis. They can cause rhabdomyolysis, both in therapeutic doses and in toxic doses. Some important drugs among these include antidepressants, antipsychotics, statins, corticosteroids, salicylates, many chemotherapeutic agents, and some anaesthetics.
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Which is cyclopropagative?
(A) propagative: The agent merely multiplies in the vector but no change in the form e.g plague bacilli in rat fleas (B) cyclopropagative : The agent changes in number and form e.g malaria parasite in mosquito (C) cyclodevelopmental: The disease agent undergoes only developmental but no multiplication e.g microfilaria ...
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Opioid antagonist that can be given orally?
Ans. a (Naltrexone) (Ref KDT 6th/464, 467)Naltrexone differs from naloxone in being orally active and having a long duration of action (1-2 days) which makes it suitable for 'opioid blockade' therapy of postaddicts.Opioids & Opioid AntagonistsAgonist-antagonists (k-analgesics)Partial/weak m agonist + K antagonistPure a...
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Golden yellow jelly fungus is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trenella mesenterica o The term jelly fungus is sometimes applied to any fungus with a jelly like fruiting body, but it is especially appropriate for the members of a group of texa traditionally assigned to the order Tremellaies.o Largest genus is Tremella. which consists of about 80 species.o Tremell...
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Which of the following is not transmitted through sexual route?
HEPATITIS E The infection caused by the hepatitis E virus (HEV) which was discovered in 1980, is essentially a water-borne disease. Formerly termed enterically transmitted hepatitis non-A, non-B (HNANB), HEV is a 29-nm to 32-nm RNA virus with 4 genotypes (type 1, 2, 3 and 4). Transmission The hepatitis E virus is trans...
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Oil red Or staining is used for
ref Bancroft histology 7/e p83 Fresh cryostat sections must be used for oil red o stain
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Whiplash injury of spine is due to
Whiplash injury This injury classically occurs in an occupant of a vehicle due to sudden acceleration which causes sudden extension followed by flexion. There may be fracture dislocation of cervical veebrae. Both accrleaccele and deceleration injuries are included in the category of whiplash injury. Hyperextension inju...
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Retropharyngeal space lies between The - (Jipmer 13)
Ans-D
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Which of the following is not a granulomatous diseases
ref Robbins 9/e p98 Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is an inherited primary immunodeficiency disease(PIDD) which increases the body's susceptibility to infections caused by ceain bacteria and fungi.Granulomas are masses of immune cells that form at sites of infection or inflammation
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Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormality leads to -
Diseases associated with mitochondrial inheritance are rare and many of them affect the Neuromuscular System. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is a prototype of this disorder. It is a neurodegenerative disease that Manifests itself as progressive bilateral loss of central vision. Visual impairment is first noted betwe...
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A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed No midline shift. Basal cistern were compressed with multiple small Haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis?
The patient in the clinical scenario having suffered from a traumatic injury was brought unconscious an this CT scan revealed multiple small hemorrhages thus leading to the diagnosis of diffuse axonal injury. It is typical presentation of a patient with diffuse axonal injury. There is a scattered dispersion of the axon...
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Vitamin A dose in children of 1 -6years of age is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2 Lakh IU o For treatment of vitamin A deficiency, oral vitamin A is given at a dose of 50000 IU, 100000 IU and 200000 IU in children <6 months, 6-12 months and > 1 year, respectively. The same dose is repeated next day and 4 weeks later.
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Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lipid The major function of lacrimal apparatus is to secrete and drain the tear. Tear film consists of 3 layers :- Mucous or mucin layer (innermost):- Secreted by conjunctival goblet cells, crypts of Henle, glands of Manz. Aqueous layer (intermediate) :- This forms the bulk of the tear. It is secreted...
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Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by
Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis It is an acute inflammation of conjunctiva characterised by multiple conjunctival haemorrhages, conjunctival hyperaemia and mild follicular hyperplasia. The disease is caused by Picornavirus (enterovirus type 70) which are RNA viruses of small (pico) size. Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition;...
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Which of the following drug is not the first line treatment for anovulatory abnormal uterine bleeding in a 13-year-old girl?
Ans. b. Mefenamic acid
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Taking of ones clothes and running in public is called
Ans. (B). Exhibitionism(Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology; Dr. KS Narayana Reddy, 33rd edition; Page no: 432)
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All of the following are tuning fork tests to differentiate hearing loss, EXCEPT:
Tuning fork tests: Rinne's test Weber test Absolute bone conduction (ABC) test Schwabach's test Bing test Gelle's test Common tuning fork tests and their interpretation: Test Normal Conductive deafness SN deafness Rinne AC>BC (Rinne positive) BC>AC (Rinne negative) AC>BC Weber Not laterized Laterized to poorer ear Late...
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EMA-CO regime of chemotherapy is used in the treatment of?
Ans. A. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasiaPatients with high-risk tumors (high beta-hCG levels, disease presenting >=4 months after antecedent pregnancy, brain or liver metastasis, or failure of single-agent methotrexate) are initially treated with combination chemotherapy. EMA-CO (a cyclic non-cross-resistant combina...
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Confounding factors can be eliminatined by all except-
Randomization is a statistical procedure by which the paicipants are allocated into groups usually called study and control groups to receive or not to receive an experimental, preventive or therapeutic procedure, manoeuvre, intervention. It is an attempt to eliminate bias and allow for comparability. Ref: 25th edition...
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The maintenance of posture in a normal adult | human being depends upon
the connection between the afferent and efferent neurons is usually in the cns and activity in the reflex arc is modified by the multiple inputs converging on the efferent neurons or at any synaptic station within the reflex loop. Therefore integrity of reflex arc is necessary for maintenance of posture. Ref: Ganong&;s...
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All of the following are indications for Anti D prophylaxis, EXCEPT:
Anti D prophylaxis is not given after intrauterine transfusion. Intrauterine transfusion is done to prevent the fetus from dying. If the hydropic fetus is too immature for early delivery, intrauterine transfusion is done. Transfusion is done through intraperitoneal and intravascular routes. This is performed using O-ne...
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Hypeension is associated with all of the following except: March 2010
Ans. B: Excess exercise Modifiable risk factors: - Obesity - Excess salt intake Saturated fat in the diet - Environmental stress - Reduced physical activity Renovascular hypeension: It has two main causes: fibromuscular dysplasia and atheromatous stenosis. Hypeension secondary to other renal disorders: - Chronic renal ...
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Whitfield&;s ointment consists of -
WHITFIELD'S ointment:-3% salicylic acid + 6% benzoic acid. It is used as antifungals and keratolytic iadvl textbook of dermatology page 252
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Lattice retinal degeneration seen in
Ans is 'a' i.e. . Myopia. Lattice degeneration of retina is seen in Myopia or more specifically, pathological myopia.Myopia is clinically of 3 types:-Developmental myopic -a congenital stationary* condition in which a child is bom with an abnormally long eye.Simple myopia :Commonest type of myopiaPathological myopia:is...
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Formication and delusion of persecution, both are together seen in:
C. i.e. Cocaine psychosis - Cocaine blocks reuptake of norepinephrine, dopamine & serotonin; impairs nerve conduction (LA action) and Vt hypeensionQ. Cocaine causes no physical dependence but moderate/strong psychological dependence. It is unique in not producing significant toleranceQ. lnfact paranoid psychosis observ...
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A 32-year-old woman presents to you for evaluation of headache. The headaches began at age 18, were initially unilateral and worse around the time of her menses. Initially the use of triptans two or three times a month would provide complete relief. Over the past several years, however, the headaches have become more f...
Patients who use medications for headache more than twice weekly are at risk of medication overuse headache. Any analgesic, including triptans themselves, can contribute, but opiates and barbiturates are the main culprits. In this setting, the migraine may "transform" into a chronic daily headache. Medication overuse h...
153,476
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A person after 6 hours of consuming rice pudding in restaurant develops vomiting. True statement regarding food poisoning is
Bacillus cereus is an impoant cause of food poisoning. Two patterns: diarrheal and emetic. Diarrheal: associated with cooked meat and vegetables. Diarrhea and abdominal pain 8-16 hours after the ingestion of contaminated food. Vomiting rarely. Bacilli are not found in the fecal specimen of these patients. Emetic: assoc...
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The optic foramen is located between
The optic foramen/canal is the opening of the optic canal. It is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of sphenoid. Contents: Optic nerve and ophthalmic aery Ref: BD Chaurasia; 6th edition
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Agoraphobia is
(A) Fear of open spaces PHOBIC DISORDERSFear of Situation or ObjectsPhobias* Dread of Open spaceAgoraphobia* Dread of VehiclesAmaxophobia* Dread of FloodsAntlophobia* Dread of ConfinementClaustrophobia* Dread of Being locked inClithrophobia* Dread of DogsCynophobia* Dread of Sexual intercourse or STDCypridcphobia* Drea...
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A 52-year-old woman is started on a low sodium diet. She feels well and is experiencing no symptoms. Her physical examination is normal except for a sustained cardiac apical impulse.For the patient placed on a dietary restriction, select the most likely diagnosis.
Some patients with hypertension are salt sensitive, and will lower their blood pressure with salt restriction. Low sodium diets are also recommended in patients with congestive heart failure (CHF), ascites, or chronic renal failure.
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General fertility rate is a better measure of fertility than the crude birth rate because the denominator includes -
Birth rate  → Simplest indicator of fertility No. of live births per 1000 estimated mid year population  Birth rate = (No. of live birth during the year / estimated mid yr. Population) x 1000 General fertility rate  → (No. of live births in an area during the year / mid year female population (15 to 45 yrs) in the same...
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Which of the following does not present with hemoptysis: September 2010
Ans. C: Empyema The origin of blood can be known by observing its color. Bright red, foamy blood comes from the respiratory tract while dark red, coffee-colored blood comes from the gastrointestinal tract. Sometimes hemoptysis may be rust colored. Causes of hemoptysis includes: Lung cancer, including both non-small cel...
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EMLA constituent is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lidocaine + Prilocaine Eutectic mixture of local Anaestheticso This is unique topical preparation which can anaesthetise intact skin.o It is a mixture of 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5 prilocaine.o It acts slowly and the cream must held in contact with skin for at least l hour.o EMLA is used : to make venepun...
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True about mounting stones is
The use of an articulator makes it necessary to mount the casts using a gypsum-producing product. These materials are referred to as "mounting" stones or plasters. They are fast setting and have low setting expansion. The mounting plaster has a sufficiently low strength to permit easy trimming and facilitate separating...
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It is true that sarcoma - a) Are malignant tumours of mesenchyme origin b) Usualy spread by vascular invasion c) Metastasise frequently to regional lymph node d) Are only loosely invasive
Pathways of metastasis Distant metastasis of cancers may occur through one of three pathways. 1.  Direct seeding of body cavities or surface It occurs when a malignant neoplasm penetrates into a natural open field. Most common cavity involved is peritoneal cavity, but other cavities may also be involved, e.g., pleu...
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The rate-limiting step for norepinephrine synthesis
In the synthesis of Norepinephrine, Tyrosine is hydroxylated to 3,4dihydroxyphenylalanine by tyrosine hydroxylase. This enzyme catalyses the rate limiting reaction and require tetrahydrobiopterin as coenzyme.Ref: Biochemistry, U. Satyanarayana, Fouh edition, page no: 349
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All of the following indicate Fetal distress except:
Fetal skull blood pH>7.32
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A 56-year-old man has been admitted to the ICU in respiratory distress. An endotracheal tube is placed for mechanical ventilation at a tidal volume of 900 mL, a rate of 12 breaths/min, and FiO2 50%. PEEP is 10 cm of water. Medications include subcutaneous heparin and aspirin. He now develops tachycardia and a blood pre...
The sudden onset of tachycardia and hypotension indicates an acute process. Since the patient is being mechanically ventilated with positive pressure, he is at increased risk of a bullous rupture from barotrauma, leading to a pneumothorax. Cardiac arrhythmia could lead to tachycardia and hypotension. Ventricular tachyc...
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Zoonosis is/are -
<p> Anthrax is an eg for zoonoses. Zoonoses means an infection or infectious disease transmissible under natural conditions from veebrate animals to man. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:94. <\p>
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In extended supraomohyoid neck dissection, lymph Node dissection is done up to:
Selective Neck Dissection - Supraomohyoid neck dissection: Removal of level I-III LNs - Extended supraomohyoid neck dissection: Removal of level I-IV LNs - Posterolateral Neck Dissection: Removal of level II-V LNs + suboccipital LNs + retro auricular LNs - Lateral neck dissection: removal of level II-V LNs + Internal j...
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Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes
The types of sarcoma with the highest incidence of lymph node metastasis are angiosarcoma, embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, and epithelioid sarcoma. Other sarcomas which also spread to lymph nodes are synol sarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma, lymphangiosarcoma, carcinosarcoma of uterus. Reference : page 311 SRB's manual of surgery 5t...
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Which patter of inheritance of disease is associated with consanguinity?
CONSANGUINITY - condition in which closely related individuals are going to have the marriage. This can lead to expression of even those genes which are recessive in nature. Therefore, it is a risk factor for expression of AR disorder.
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Which cervical veebra that does not have a body or spinous process?
First cervical veebra is ring-shaped. It has neither a body nor a spine.Features of typical cervical, thoracic and lumbar veebra are given belowFeaturesCervical veebraThoracic veebraLumbar veebraBodySmall and broad from side to sideMedium size and hea-shapedLarge and kidney-shapedVeebral foramenLarge than the body and ...
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Which of the following is used to treat pain
There are various modalities of treatment which are tried for chronic pain:- i) Pharmacotherapy:- The various drugs (mentioned above) are used for chronic pain syndrome. The various routes can be used:- oral, intravenous, epidural, or Transcutaneous. ii) Neuro-surgical:- Anterolateral cordotomy, dorsal root entry zone ...
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All of the following viruses involve eye except
All the options are correct but since the least common is echovirus will be marked as the answer
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Specificity is related to:
Ans. is 'b' ie true negatives Sensitivity -is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly those who have the disease that is 'true positives \Specificity -is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease. That is 'true negatives.9
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Commonest of female cause pseudohermaphrodism ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CAH Female pseudohermaphroditism. Gentotype is XX Gonads are ovaries External genitalia are virilized (male differentiation). As there is no mullarian inhibiting factor, mullarian duct develops into uterus tubes and ovary. But due to presence of androgen external genitalia are virilized. Causes are: C...
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An 8-month-old infant had stridor with respiratory difficulty which worsened on crying. On examination, laryngoscopy showed a red mass in the subglottic area. All the following are used in the treatment EXCEPT
History and examination suggest diagnosis is juvenile papilloma - They are viral in origin and multiple, often involving infants and young children. * They are mostly seen on the true and false cords and the epiglottis, glistening white, irregular growth, pedunculated * Or sessile, friable and bleeding easily
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Household insecticide used for malaria
Malathion Malathion has the least toxicity of all organophosphorous compounds. The technical product is a yellow or clear- brown liquid with an unpleasant smell. Commercially, water- dispersible powders are available. Malathion is used in doses of 100-200 mg. per sq. ft., every 3 months. Because of its low toxicity, ma...
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