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Change in the affective level after communication and health education means change in:
Ans. b (Attitude). (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 628)Communication strategies enhance learning. The ultimate goal of communication is to bring about a change in desired direction of person who receives communication.# This may be cognitive level in terms of increasing knowledge.# It may be affective in terms of change in beh...
153,800
medmcqa_train
Which of the following is not true about plasma protein binding?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., There is no effect of nephrotic syndrome on plasma protein binding Plasma protein binding* Many natural substances circulate around the body partly free in plasma water and partly bound to plasma proteins, e.g. cortisol, thyroxine.* Similarly drugs circulate in protein bound and free states, and the s...
153,801
medmcqa_train
Increased Gamma efferent discharge is seen in all except :
C i.e. Rapid & shallow breathing Gamma efferent discharge is influenced byAnxietyQ causes increased discharge so hyperactive tendon reflexes- Stimulation of skin especially by noxious agentsQ, increase y discharge to ipsilateral flexor muscle spindles while decrease to extensors. Opposite pattern (i.e., flexor, extenso...
153,802
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Capsule endoscopy is used for –
Capsule endoscopy allows the noninvasive visualization of the mucosa throughout the small intestine. It is particularly useful in the evaluation of obscure gastrointestinal bleeding.
153,803
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All are functions of oxytocin except
Maintenance of lactation (galactopoiesis) is by prolactin. Oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells, smooth muscle-like cells that line the ducts of the breast. This squeezes the milk out of the alveoli of the lactating breast into the large ducts (sinuses) and thence out of the nipple (milk ejection or e...
153,804
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75% Lymph from breast goes to -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Axillary L.N. Lymph from Breast drains into the following lymph nodes|||Axillary nodesInternal mammary or ParasternalOthers like# Receives approx 75% of the drainage & are arranged in the following groups ;# Lateral# Anterior# Posterior a Central# Inerpectoral# Apical # Supracalvicular# Cephalic (delt...
153,805
medmcqa_train
An agent that activates natural killer cells and is useful in renal cell carcinoma is
Ref-Katzung 10/e p816 Recombinant IL-2 is used for the treatment of maligant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma
153,806
medmcqa_train
A 45 year old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:
Patient in the question is showing features of chronic allergic contact dermatitis, as indicated by the clinical manifestations in exposed areas of the body and its exacerbation during summer season. Patch testing is done to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens...
153,807
medmcqa_train
Hotspot in a hea is seen in which scan?
Tc 99m pyrophosphate scan is also known as myocardial infarct scan and it depicts the segments of myocardium involved with the infarction. Get deposited in the calcified changes associated with the infarction.
153,808
medmcqa_train
Overdose of vitamin A mainly affects _________
Hypervitaminosis A Common in arctic explorers who eat polar bear liver Organelle damaged in hypervitaminosis is Lysosomes Acute toxicity: Pseudotumor cerebri (headache, dizziness, vomiting, stupor, and blurred vision, symptoms that may be confused with a brain tumor) and exfoliative dermatitis. In the liver, hepatomega...
153,809
medmcqa_train
Which of the following condition is associated with posterior staphyloma ?
Staphyloma refers to localised bulging of weak and thin outer tunic of eyeball (cornea and sclera) lined by uveal tissue which shines through the thinned outer fibrous coat. Posterior staphylomas develop in eyes with myopia more than -8 D. Buphthalmos is associated with ciliary as well as equatorial staphylomas.
153,810
medmcqa_train
Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if mother gets infected in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6-12 weeks of pregnancy Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) refers to infants bom with defects secondary to intra uterine infection or who manifest symptoms or signs of intrauterine infection sometimes after birth.Rubella infection inhibits cell division and this is probably the reason for congenital ma...
153,811
medmcqa_train
Perception of objects with out stimulus is called:
Ans: A (Hallucination) Ref: Ahuja, 6th ed,p. 59Perception of objects without stimulus is hallucination.DelusionAre false unshakable beliefs which are not in keeping with the patients sociocultural and educational background and not amenable to reasoning.It is a disorder of thought.Delusions in the following conditions:...
153,812
medmcqa_train
Sulfonylureas act by:
Ans. (D) Increasing insulin secretion from pancreas(Ref: KDT 8/e p294)Sulfonylureas stimulate the release of insulin by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans by blocking K+ channels. Glucagon secretion is also reduced by sulfonylureas, but it is a minor action.
153,813
medmcqa_train
All of the following nondepolarising neuromuscular blocker causes histamine release except-
All benzylisoquinoline nondepolarising neuromuscular blocker causes histamine release. Aminosteroid group does not release histamine. NDNB divided in three group according to duration of action - Long- acting, intermediate - acting and sho- acting. Aminosteroid Long acting Pancuronium pipecuronium Benzylisoquinoline D-...
153,814
medmcqa_train
X-ray shows soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, treatment of choice is –
Soap bubble appearance at the lower end of radius suggests the diagnosis of giant cell tumor. Two commonly used procedures for GCT of the distal end of the radius are :- are ended curratage (curratage + cryotherapy + bone graft / cementing) Wide local excision with the replacement of the excised fragment by bone graf...
153,815
medmcqa_train
All are true about thymus swelling except –
Thymic shadow does not indent tracheal shadow. A mediastinal shadow indenting tracheal shadow should always be evaluated for a significant pathology. Thymic swelling may cause widening of anterior mediastinum. Thymic swelling causes a sail-shaped shadow. Thymic swelling may shrink with use of steroids.
153,816
medmcqa_train
Which of the following causes vasodilation in the pulmonary circulation?
Substances producing pulmonary vasodilation include nitric oxide, prostacyclins, a2 and b2 adrenergic stimulation, histamine etc. Hypercapnia, hypoxy endothelin I, a1 adrenergic, angiotensin II, thromboxane produce pulmonary vasoconstriction.
153,817
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All the following agents may be used in the treatment of Aoic dissection , except
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1641 For acute dissection, unless contraindicated, b-adrenergic blockers should be administered par- enterally, using intravenous propranolol, metoprolol, or the sho- acting esmolol to achieve a hea rate of approximately 60 beats/ min. This should be accompanied by sodium nitroprusside infusion...
153,818
medmcqa_train
Defecation reflex is intiated by?
Defecation reflex initiated by distension of rectum with feces. Defecation reflex: Initiated by distension of rectum with feces. Leads to propulsive wave extending from descending colon through sigmoid colon to rectum Urge to defecate is first felt when rectal pressure increases to about 18 mm/Hg. On reaching 55 mm/Hg ...
153,819
medmcqa_train
All of the following statements about. Wilson's disease are true, EXCEPT-
Answer is C (Urinary copper excretion is <100R/day) Urine copper is an impoant diagnostic too. Symptomatic patients invariably have urine copper levels > 100 p (>1.6 umol) per 24 hours. Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder It is caused by a mutation of a gene on chromosome BQ which promotes Cu excretion ...
153,820
medmcqa_train
All of the following genes are associated with establishment of left sidedness, EXCEPT:
Left-right-sidedness, also established early in development, is orchestrated by a cascade of genes. When the primitive streak appears, fibroblast growth factor 8 (FGF8) is secreted by cells in the node and primitive streak and induces expression of Nodal but only on the left side of the embryo. Later, as the neural pla...
153,821
medmcqa_train
Massive PPH may warrant all interventions except:
Thermal endometrial ablation is not used in the management of massive PPH. Mechanical methods for failed medical management: Bimanual compression Uterine packing under anaesthesia Bakri balloon: Maximun filling volume is 500 ml Shivkars Pack: Condom inflated with saline and tied to a nasogastric tube. Surgical methods ...
153,822
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Risk of damage to the fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if a mother gets infected in
The first trimester of pregnancy is the most disastrous time - results in abnormalities in the infant in 85% of cases.16% in the second trimester.Bih defects uncommon after 20 weeks of gestation.Park 23e pg: 145
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Which one is not converted to an active metabolite?
Lisinopril: It is the lysine derivative of enalaprilat; does not require hydrolysis to become active ACE inhibitor.   KEY CONCEPT:- All ACE inhibitors are prodrugs except captopril and lisinopril. Other drugs like enalapril are converted to its active metabolite (enalaprilat) and thus are slow acting. Reference: Essent...
153,824
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Compared to round PID, use of rectangular PID reduces the patient's skin surface exposed by:
There are several means to limit the size of the x-ray beam. First, a rectangular position-indicating device (PID) may be attached to the radiographic tube housing. Use of a rectangular PID having an exit opening of 3.5 cm × 4.4 cm (1.38 inches × 1.34 inches) reduces the area of the patient’s skin surface exposed by 60...
153,825
medmcqa_train
Baroreceptor stimulation produces:
A i.e. Decreased HR & BP Baroreceptors are the stretch receptors in the walls of hea & blood vessels eg carotid sinus & aoic arch receptors, receptors in walls of atria at enterance of SVC, IVC & pulmonary veins and receptors in pulmonary circulation (cardio- pulmonary receptors). These are stimulated by distension of ...
153,826
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Schizophrenia is a common presentation is which genetic disease?
DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion, velocardiofacial syndrome):30% have schizophrenia when reaches adulthood.
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Laboratory diagnosis of thalassemia major are all Except
Diagnosis of microcytic anaemiaTestsIron deficiencyInflammationThalassemiaSideroblastic anaemiaSmearMicro/hypoNormal micro/hypoMicro/hypo with targetingVariableSI<30<50Normal to highNormal to highTIBC>360<300NormalNormalPercent<1010-2030-8030-80SaturationFerritin (mcg/L)<1530-20050-30050-300Hemoglobin patternNormalNorm...
153,828
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All of the following are true regarding Wegener's granulomatosis except: September 2008
Ans. A: Affects large size blood vesselsWegener's granulomatosis is a form of vasculitis that affects the lungs, kidneys and other organs.Due to its end-organ damage, it is life-threatening and requires long-term immunosuppression.Wegener's granulomatosis is pa of a larger group of vasculitic syndromes, all of which fe...
153,829
medmcqa_train
Fundoscopy of a patient shows chalky white optic disc with well defined margins. Retinal vessels and surrounding Retina appears normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis-
Chalky white optic disc with well defined margins along with normal retinal vessels and surrounding retina is typical of Primary Optic Atrophy.
153,830
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Which fracture in children requires open reduction -
Some displaced epiphyseal injuries (types III and IV) are indications for open reduction.
153,831
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Earliest reflex lost in acoustic neuroma -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Corneal o Earliest nerve involved by acoustic neuroma - Vth nerve/trigeminal nerve. o The earliest manifestation of V* nerve involvement is decreased corneal sensitivity leading to loss of corneal reflex, Clinical features of acoustic neuroma o The clinical features depend on the extent of the tumor a...
153,832
medmcqa_train
Latent squint is also known as -
Lateral squint is also known as "Heterophoria" It is a condition in which tendency of the eyes to dete is kept latent by fusion. Therefore, when the influence of fusion is removed the visual axis of one eye detes away. Ref : A.K.Khurana; 6th edition;Page no: 344
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Which of the following channelopathies is associated with calcium channel disorder of muscles?
Ans. a (Hypokalemic periodic paralysis). (Ref. Harrison medicine 15th ed., -2295, 16th ed., 2339, 2363, 2536)1.Spinocerebellar ataxia 1Trinucleotide repeat (CAC) expansion in gene.2.Episodic ataxia type 1K channel gene mutations.3.Hypokalemic periodic paralysisL- type Ca++ channelopathy.4.Hyperkalemic periodic paralysi...
153,834
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All are features of Hemolytic Anemia, except:
Increased haptoglobulin
153,835
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Salivary secretion is by
Salivary secretion is by Na+, Cl– reabsorption  and K+, HCO3– secretion.
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A 25 year old young woman has recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died after having a neck mass. The physical examination reveals a thyroid nodule but no clinical sign of thyrotoxicosis. Before performing thyroid surgery, the surgeon should order :
Answer is D (Serial 24 hours test for catecholamines, metanephrines and vanillylamandelic acid excretion) : Theochromocytoma, must be excluded by measurement of urinary catecholamines levels in all cases before embarking upon thyroid surgery to avoid the potential hazards. of this condition' - Bailey Essays employed fo...
153,837
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Pappu, 7 yrs old young boy, had a fracture of lateral condyle of the femur. He developed malunion as the fracture was not reduced anatomically. Malunion will produce -
Ans-A
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"TIPS" is contraindicated in
Main contraindication for TIPSS is poal vein occlusion,which can be due to poal vein thrombosis.Post- shunt encephalopathy is the confusional state caused by the poal blood bypassing the detoxication of the liver.TIPSS is indicated in poal hypeension associated with cirrhosis,control of variceal bleeding,etc. Reference...
153,839
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Virchow's triad includes all ,except:
. Venous thrombosis
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A 10-year-old boy, Pappu, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy, except:
MacCallum patch/plaque is a feature of chronic rheumatic hea disease (RHD). During mitral regurgitation, where the regurgitant jet strikes back the atrial wall, results in endocardial thickening and it is called MacCallum patch or MacCallum plaques. They are described as "map-like areas of thickened, roughened, and wri...
153,841
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Na dependent glucose transpo is /are inhibited by:
C i.e. Phlorhizine
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All of the following are associated with increased Aging, except:
Over expression of superoxide dismutase/catalase leads to extension of life span. Ref: Richard J. Aspinall, (2003), Chapter "Aging of The Skin", In the book, "Aging of Organs and Systems", USA, Page 54; Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th Edition, Pages 42-44; Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 54;...
153,843
medmcqa_train
For Rx of ventricular fibrillation in an adult, DC shock of what joules should be started with?
Ans. A (200 J). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/ Ch. 233; fibg 233-11). Ref- Sustained polymorphic VT, ventricular flutter, and VF all lead to immediate hemodynamic collapse. Emergency asynchronous defibrillation is required with at least 200-J monophasic/100-J biphasic shock VENTRICULAR FLUTTER AND VENTRICULAR FIBRILLA...
153,844
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The amount of blood lossduring each menstrual period is about :
35 cc
153,845
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Non-motile Clostridia is
Clostridia are motile with peritrichous flagella. Exceptions are Clostridium perfringes and Clostridium tetani type IV which are non-motile. Motility is slow and has been described as 'stately'. C.perfringens and C.butyricum are capsulated, while others are not. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and pa...
153,846
medmcqa_train
In DIC, which is not seen?
In the blood picture of Disseminated intravascular coagulation: Platelet count is low, Prothrombin time, thrombin time, activated paial thromboplastin time are all prolonged. Plasma fibrinogen levels are reduced, Fibrin degradation products are raised Reference textbook of Pathology 7th edition author Harsha Mohan page...
153,847
medmcqa_train
The pathogenesis of acute proliferative glomerulo-nephritis-
immune complex disease in which tissue injury is primarily caused by complement activation by the classical pathway. Typical features of immune complex disease, such as hypocomplementemia and granular deposits of IgG and complement on the GBM, are seen. The relevant antigens probably are streptococcal proteins. Specifi...
153,848
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The histology of pterygium includes:
Ans. Elastotic degeneration
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Which of the following is given in induction of anesthesia?
ANS. A# Intravenous inducing agents in anesthesia1. Thiopentone sodium2. Methohexitone sodium3. Propafol4. Etomidate5. Benzodiazepines6. Ketamine7. Fentanyl
153,850
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Ciliary staphyloma is seen in
Answer: a) Absolute glaucoma (PARSON 22nd ED, P-223)STAPHYLOMA* Localized bulging of weak & thin outer tunic of eyeball (cornea or sclera), lined by uveal tissue* Anterior staphyloma> An ectasia of pseudocornea> Most common cause - sloughing corneal ulcer which perforatesIntercalary staphylomaCiliary staphylomaEquatori...
153,851
medmcqa_train
Lysozyme is present in the following secretions of the body except -
Lysozymes is present in tissue fluids and in nearly all secretions except cerebrospinal fluid, sweat and urine. It act by splitting ceain polysaccharide components of the cell walls of susceptible bacteria . Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:80 <\p>
153,852
medmcqa_train
A 54-year-old man has a total cholesterol of 272 and LDL level of 210. His therapy is initiated with dietary modification and an exercise regimen, but he is unresponsive and so is prescribed nicotinic acid (Niacin). Which of the following symptoms will this patient likely experience from this drug?
Niacin, or vitamin B3, is an agent that results in the following physiologic changes: LDL reductions tend to occur in 5-7 days with the maximal effect seen in 3-5 weeks; triglycerides and VLDL are reduced by 20% to 40% in 1-4 days; and HDL levels can increase by 20%. This agent is indicated as adjunctive therapy in pat...
153,853
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“Ivory towers of disease” is referred to?
Large hospitals cater to make number of patients and hence called ivory towers of disease.
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Referred ear pain may travel through all except?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Abducens nerve Referred otalgia As ear receives nerve supply from Vth (auriculotemporal branch), IXth (tympanic branch) and Xth (auricular branch) cranial nerves; and from C2 (lesser occipital) and C2 and C3 (greater auricular), pain may be referred from these remote areas: 1. Via Vth cranial nerve De...
153,855
medmcqa_train
Pipkin fracture is defined as:
B i.e Posterior dislocation is common Posterior Dislocation Of Hip It is most common type of hip dislocation in adults and childrenQ. Usually this occurs in a road accident when someone seated in car is thrown forwards, striking the knee against the dashboard (dashboard injuryQ). It is the position (direction) of hip a...
153,856
medmcqa_train
Amyloid present in cerebral lesions of Alzheimer's disease -
Ans. c (Ab) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed., Table 324-1)Amyloid Fibril Proteins and their PrecursorsAmyloid ProteinPrecursorSystemic (S) or Localized (L)Syndrome or Involved TissuesALImmunoglobulin light chainS, LPrimaryMyeloma-associatedAHImmunoglobulin heavy chainS, LPrimaryMyeloma-associatedATTRTransthyretinSFam...
153,857
medmcqa_train
Rain, a 10 yr old boy is having difficulty in learning at school. He has sho lapses of awareness with eyelid fluttering that occur every 5-10 minutes. EEG studies reveal brief 3 Hz spike and wave discharges appearing synchronously in all the leads. Which of the following drugs would be effective but has the disadvantag...
(Ref: KDT 6/e p411, 412) Diagnosis of the patient is petit mal epilepsy (absence seizures). Drugs effective against absence seizures are: - Ethosuximide - Valproate - Clonazepam - Lamotrigine Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine that can cause sedation and tolerance.
153,858
medmcqa_train
Which of these is a Nephritic syndrome?
The nephritic syndrome is characterized by hematuria, oliguria with azotemia, proteinuria, and hypeension. The most common causes are immunologically mediated glomerular injury; lesions are characterized by proliferative changes and leukocyte infiltration. Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis typically occurs after ...
153,859
medmcqa_train
Dilution segment in nephrom is:
The thick LOH is viually impermeable to H20, but large amounts of Na, Cl & other ions are actively transpoed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium. Thus, fluid in thick ascending loop becomes very dilute and k/a diluting segment of the nephron. Proximal tubules: = 65% of the filtered electrolytes is reabsorbe...
153,860
medmcqa_train
A patient receiving allopurinol requires dose reduction of:
Allopurinol is an inhibitor of uric acid synthesis. It acts by inhibiting the enzyme 'xanthine oxidase. This drug is commonly prescribed to a patient on anticancer therapy because destruction of cells results in increased formation of uric acid. 6-Mercaptopurine is also metabolized by xanthine oxidase. If allopurinol i...
153,861
medmcqa_train
Patient came from Nagaland and shows positive test with OXK antigen. Diagnosis is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Scrub typhus Weil felix reaction . This reaction is an agglutination test in which sera are tested for agglutinins to 0 antigens of ceain nonmotile proteus strains OX - 19, OX - 2 and OX - K. . The basis of the test is the sharing of an alkali - stable carbohydrate antigen by some rickettsiae and by c...
153,862
medmcqa_train
Most common site for opening of TAPVC is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Supracardiac TAPVCo Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is characterized by abnormal drainage of pulmonary veins into the right heart either by direct connection into the right atrium or into its tributarieso According to the site or level of connection of the pulmonary veins to the sy...
153,863
medmcqa_train
Mrs. S (G2 L1) presented to the hospital in labor pains. On examination she had 3 uterine contractions of 20 seconds in 10 minutes, cervical dilation 6 cm and HR 145 bpm. What is the stage of labor?
Ans. is a, i.e. Stage IAs discussed in chapter 7 of the book, first stage of labor is from the time when a female starts perceiving true labor pains and uptil 10 cm of dilatation.
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All are indications for surgical intervention in pyogenic liver abscess, EXCEPT:
Indications for surgical drainage in pyogenic liver abscess are: No clinical response after 4-7 days of drainage a catheter Multiple, large, or loculated abscess Thick walled abscess with viscous pus Concurrent intra-abdominal surgical pathology. Right lobe abscess as such is not an indication for surgical drainage to ...
153,865
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A primiparous D-negative (Rh-negative) mother has just delivered a D-positive child. Administration of which of the following substances would be indicated
- Administration of anti-D antiserum to D-negative mother within 72hrs of delivery of D-positive child prevents maternal alloimmunization by removing fetal red cells from the maternal circulation.
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Gene for Wilson's disease is ?
Ans is 'a' i.e. ATPB7 o Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism caused by mutation of ATP7 B gene on the long arm of chromosome 13. ATP7 B gene encodes 'p-type' ATP responsible for copper excretion and incorporation into ceruloplasmin in the liver. The defect in ATP7 B gene results in c...
153,867
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Increased risk factor for carcinoma breast is
Risk factors of breast carcinoma Mutation of tumour suppressor genes BRCA1/BRCA2 is thought to be involved with high-risk of breast carcinoma Diet low with phytoestrogens and high alcohol intake have high-risk of breast cancer. Vitamin C reduces the risk. It is more common in nulliparous woman. Attaining early menarche...
153,868
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Digoxin is not indicated in:
Ans. (C) High output failure(Ref: KDT 8th/e p560, 561)Digitalis is an inotropic agent that is indicated when heart is not able to pump the blood adequately. High output failure is seen in conditions like anemia and thyrotoxicosis in which heart is already contracting vigorously. Cardiac glycosides, thus are not indicat...
153,869
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Treatment of metastatic disease in retinobastoma is
A i.e. Chemotherapy Treatment Plan of Retinoblastoma The factors influence the management include size, location & laterality of tumor, vision of affected & unaffected eye, age & health of child and any associated ocular problem such as retinal detachment, vitreous haemorrhage, neovascularization of iris & secondary gl...
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Feature which differentiates true from aificial bruise is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Round shape with irregular margins
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Not a feature of heroin {smack} withdrawal
Heroin or di-acetyl-morphine is about two times more potent than morphine in injectable form. Apa from the parenteral mode of administration, heroin can also be smoked or 'chased' ( chasing the dragon), often in an impure form (called ' smack' or ' brown sugar' in India). Withdrawal SyndromeThe onset of withdrawal symp...
153,872
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Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma -
Acetazolamide and Methazolamide are not recommended for long term use because of their side effects. However,acetazolamide 250mg tds may be added to control IOP for sho term. Ref :Ophthalmology A K Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no :237
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Which of the following is not a biovar of diphtheria
Mcleod classification of Corynebacterium:FeaturesC.gravisC.intermediusC.mitisColony on tellurite blood agar Daisy head colovy Frog's egg colony Poached egg colony Hemolysis Variable Non hemolytic Hemolytic Glycogen & starch fermentation Positive Negative Negative Complication Paralytic & Hemorrhagic Hemorrhagic Obstruc...
153,874
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Cardiac dominance is based on
Cardiac dominance is based on the aery giving the posterior interventricular branch B D CHAURASIA&;S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME1 SIXTH EDITION,Page no-265
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Most common type of Benign Orbital tumour in Adults is
(C) Haemangioma# ORBITAL TUMORS in both age groups are mostly benign.> Most common benign orbital tumors in children are Dermoids and vascular lesions such as capillary hemangiomas, lymph-angiomas and cavernous hemangiomas.> Most common benign tumors in Adults are also blood vessel tumors such as Hemangiomas, lymphangi...
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Most common site of perforation of tympanic membrane in ASOM is:
AN SWER: (B) Anterior inferior quadrantREF: Dhingra 4th edition page 62'In acute suppurative otitis media usually, a small perforation is seen in antero-inferior quadrant of pars tensa'
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Pleural pressure at the end of inspiration is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. More negative o During quiet breathing, the intrapleural pressure fluctuates between -3 and -6 mm Hg, depending upon the phase of respiration, more negative at the end of inspiration and less negative during expiration.Intrapleural pressure (Pleural pressure)o It is the pressure between two pleural su...
153,878
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Investigation of choice for gall stone
B i.e. USG
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Fastest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker-
Rocuronium has onset of action at 1mg/kg 90 seconds Rocuroniumis the muscle relaxant of choice for day-care surgery. intermediate-acting muscle relaxant with a rapid onset (90 s). Rapacuronium has onset of action 75 secs but it is not in clinical use. Rest all nondepolarising neuromuscular blocker has onset of action -...
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Estrogen replacement therapy is contraindicated in women with all except
Estrogen replacement therapy is not contraindicated in women with vasomotor symptoms.
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Which of the following has a function of a peptidyl transferase?
Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activity. These generally involve transesterification reactions, and most are concerned with RNA metabolism (splicing and endoribonuclease). Impoant: Recently, a rRNA component has been implicated in hydrolyzing an aminoacyl ester and thus to play a central role in peptide bon...
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The mesentery of the small intestine, along its attachment to the posterior abdominal wall, crosses all of the following structures except -
Attached border of mesentery (the root of mesentery) crosses - Third (horizontal) part of the duodenum Abdominal aorta IVC Right ureter Right psoas major
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Diffuse peritonitis in acute appendicitis is caused due to
Diffuse peritonitis can develop rapidly because of the underdeveloped greater omentum, which is unable to give much assistance in localising the infection. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209
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Immune hydrops is associated with:
Hydrops fetalis is a condition when there is accumulation of fluid in at least two fetal compaments: ascites, pericardial effusion, pleural effusion or anasarca. Immune hydrops (erythroblastosis fetalis) is where hydrops occurs secondary to mother's immunity causing fetal RBC hemolysis and is almost always due to Rh in...
153,885
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False about Boerhaave syndrome:
Ans. (c) Pain is a late manifestRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition, Page 1073Boerhaave syndrome is characterized by Madder's Triad:* Vomiting* Chest pain* Subcutaneous emphysema
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All of the following are true about caudate lobe except:-
Caudate lobe Caudate lobe, lies between left poal vein & IVC and extends to hepatic venous confluence. Caudate lobe is unique It receives blood supply from both right & left poal pedicles Bile drain into both right & left hepatic duct Venous drainage is directly into IVC
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Acute graft rejection occurs within
Answer- C. 3 monthsAcute rejection - It occurs 5 days to 3 months after transplantation.Both cell-mediated (cellular) rejection and humoral (antibody mediated) rejection are involved.
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A patient was treated with haloperidol, later he develops symptoms of Parkinsonism. What is the best treatment:
- Extrapyramidal disturbances are the major dose-limiting side effects with high potency antipsychotics like fluphenazine, haloperidol, pimozide, etc. - The extrapyramidal effects may be categorized into: Parkinsonism Acute muscular dystonias Akathisia Malignant neuroleptic syndrome Tardive dyskinesia - Parkinsonism us...
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Increased prolactin is associated with aEUR'
Increased estradial Prolactin is a polypeptide produced by the lactotrophs of the pituitary. It is responsible .for the initiation and maintenance of lactation. As with several pituitary hormones, prolactin is secreted in a circadian, fashion with the highest levels being attained during sleep and a nadir occurring bet...
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A 70-year-old woman had an ECG at her annual checkup. Using her lead II recording below calculate her hea rate
The hea rate can be calculated by 60 divided by the R-R interval, which is 0.86 second. This results in a hea rate of 70 beats/min. (1500/No of small squares between R-R interval - but R-R interval should be regular)
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Drug of choice for genital was is
<p> WAS:- Caused by human papilloma virus. Anogenital was caused by HPV 6,11,16,18,31,33. Out Of these 6 is mostly involved. These virus invade squamous epithelium and trigger cell proliferation. Viruses mainly being transmitted by fomites ,scratching, and auto inoculation. Pink to brown way papules in perianal/genital...
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Pink disease is seen due to
Pink disease (infantile acrodynia) was especially prevalent in the first half of the 20th century. Primarily attributed to exposure to mercury (Hg) commonly found in teething powders.
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Cyclodevelopmental life cycle is seen in
.cyclodevelopmental form of life cycle is the one in which the disease agent undergoes only development but no multiplication.examples include mainly the life of microfilaria in mosquito. ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,edition 22,pg no 94
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An elderly woman presented with abdominal pain and vomiting for three days. A computed tomogram of the abdomen was obtained. What is the diagnosis?
Answer D. Obturator herniaAn obturator hernia was diagnosed.
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Telenzepine acts on which receptors?
Pirenzepine and telenzepine are selective m1 blockers used in peptic ulcer by inhibiting acid secretion are synthetic atropine substitutes Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 113
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Amenorrhoea due to high LH and FSH is due to
Ovarian dysfunction:Group I- Hypothalamic -pituitary failure, e.g anorexia nervosa, Kallman&;s syndrome, Sheehan&;s syndromeGroup II- Ovarian failure, e.g. Turner syndrome pure gonadal dysgenesis, Swyer syndrome, autoimmune disorders infection, radiotherapy or chemotherapy.Group III- Congenital or acquired genital trac...
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Most common fungus causing otomycosis is
Otomycosis is a fungal infection of the ear canal most commonly caused by Candida albicans, Aspergillus niger and Aspergillus fumigatus. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, of no. 55)
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Oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with?
ANSWER: (C) EBVREF: Jawetzs microbiology 24th edition chapter 33 Herpesviruses & Table 48-8Oral Hairy LeukoplakiaThis lesion is a wart-like growth that develops on the tongue in some HIV-infected persons and transplant patients. It is an epithelial focus of EBV replication.
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