query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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Testicular Feminization syndrome is characterised by all except | Karyotype in testicular feminization syndrome is 46 XY. Barr body is therfore absent. | 159,900 | medmcqa_train |
Facial nerve exits the skull through | Facial nerve enters the temporal bone through - Internal acoustic meatus Facial nerve exits the skull through - Stylomastoid foramen. Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 99 | 159,901 | medmcqa_train |
A child presenting with clinical features of an endocrine abnormality showed epiphyseal dysgenesis in imaging studies. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomonic feature of: | Epiphyseal dysgenesis is radiological finding of hypothyroidism which is characterized by centers of ossification, especially of the hip, may show multiple small centers or a single stippled, porous, or fragmented center. Other radiological findings of hypothyroidism: Delayed bone age Cardiomegaly Thyrotrophic hyperpla... | 159,902 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statement regarding stones in the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008 | Ans. B: Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent | 159,903 | medmcqa_train |
A 90-year-old woman with mild diabetes and Alzheimer's disease die in her sleep. At autopsy, hepatocytes are noted to contain golden cytoplasmic granules that do not stain with Prussian blue. Which of the following best accounts for pigment accumulation in the liver of this patient? | The answer is A: Advanced age. Substances that cannot be metabolized accumulate in cells. Examples include:- (1) endogenous substrates that are not processed because a key enzyme is missing (lysosomal storage diseases) (2) insoluble endogenous pigments (lipofuscin and melanin) (3) exogenous paiculates (silica and carbo... | 159,904 | medmcqa_train |
The following statements are related to clear cell carcinoma of the vagina except : | clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina: Found in adolescent girls who have a history of intrauterine exposure to diethylstilbestrol Incidence following DES exposure is 1:1000 may develop vaginal adenosis lesion usually involves upper third of anterior vaginal wall and cervix may be involved Treatment: radical hysterectomy... | 159,905 | medmcqa_train |
A 55 years old smoking presents with history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis? | Ans. (a) Urine microscopy and cytologyRef: Smith 17th Edition, Pages 308-315Diagnosis of Urinary bladder carcinoma:* Cystoscopy and transurethral resection is the IOC for obvious lesions.* Urinary cytology is the IOC for carcinoma in situ.* Cytological examination of exfoliated cells from tumor is useful in detecting c... | 159,906 | medmcqa_train |
Right shift of oxygen dissociation curve is caused by? | Ans. is `b' i.e., Hypoxia | 159,907 | medmcqa_train |
The most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis | *Congenital toxoplasmosis is caused by toxoplasma gondi .The transmissibility increases but the risk of feral disease decreases with advancing pregnancy * The classical triad of toxoplasmosis includes intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstrating IgM in serum of ... | 159,908 | medmcqa_train |
The diagnostic procedure not done in case of ph eochromoc ytoma. | FNAC "Percutaneous fine-needle aspiration of chromallin tumors is contraindicated; indeed, pheochronwcytoma should be considered before adrenal lesions are aspirated." -Harrison "Catastrophic hypeensive crisis and fatal cardiac arrhythmias can occur spontaneously or may be triggered by intravenous contrast dye or gluca... | 159,909 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following necrosis occurs characteristically in brain infarcts? | CNS parenchymal infarcts organize an influx of macrophages into the area of necrosis. The macrophages ingest the lipid-rich, necrotic parenchyma, ultimately conveing the area to a fluid-filled cavity (liquefactive necrosis). This process is usually complete by about 6 months after the development of the infarct. | 159,910 | medmcqa_train |
In deltoid paralysis, which nerve is involved : | C. i.e. Axillary nerve | 159,911 | medmcqa_train |
A 41 year old woman presented with a history of aches and pains all over the body and generalized weakness for four years. She cannot sleep because of the illness and has lost her appetite as well. She has a lack of interest in work and doesn't like to meet friends and relatives. She denies feelings of sadness. Her mos... | This is a case of somatized (masked) depression which is a form of major depression in which the depressed patients may present their distress as somatic symptoms, e.g. chronic pain, anorexia (loss of appetite), insomnia (cannot sleep), paresthesia, atypical facial pain, and generalized weakness. Depressive mood is not... | 159,912 | medmcqa_train |
'Tentative cuts' are seen with | Ans. b (Suicide) (Ref. FMT by N. Reddy 5th/pg.93)TENTATIVE (preliminary cuts) CUTS# Hesitation cuts derive their name from the hesitation with which these incisions are made by a person intending to commit suicide by a cutting instrument.# He or she usually makes preliminary cuts before gathering sufficient courage to ... | 159,913 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is FALSE about SOMATIZATION Syndrome - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Involves 2 sexual disturbance Symptomso For diagnostic criteria at least 1 sexual symptom should be there (not two),o All other diagnostic criteria (other three options) are true.Somatization disordero The essential features of somatization disorder are multiple recurrent somatic symptoms of long dura... | 159,914 | medmcqa_train |
Coagulation defect associated with increased coagulation are seen in | Ref Harrison 16/e p1491 ,9/e p123 Protein C and protein S are two vitamin K-dependent proteins that act in a complex to proteolytically inacti- vate cofactors Va and VIIIa. Protein C activation by thrombomodulin was described earlier; protein S is a cofactor for protein C activity Resistance to activated protein C due ... | 159,915 | medmcqa_train |
Patient with leprosy, smear sample taken show 10 - 100 bacilli in one field. Bacterial index is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4+ Bacteriological Index For Leprosy It is a rough index expressing probable number of acid fast bacilli for standardized microscopic field in skin smear. It is indicative of the load of bacteria at the site from which smear is taken. It does not differentiate between live and dead bacilli. It is not ... | 159,916 | medmcqa_train |
Enteroviruses are associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: | Acute hemorrhagic fever is not caused by the enteroviruses. It usually causes non specific febrile illness, hand foot mouth disease, Herpangina, coryza, conjunctivitis, pericarditis, myocarditis, gastrointestinal symptoms and neurological symptoms. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), "Nelson Textbook of Ped... | 159,917 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest type of Pemphigus is | Pemphigus vulgaris is the most common form of pemphigus and occurs when antibodies attack Desmoglein 3. Usually begins with painful blisters in your mouth and then on the skin or genital mucous membranes. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1334 | 159,918 | medmcqa_train |
Under-running may involve: | Under-running/ tail gating Tail-gating occasionally occurs with cars driving into the back of large trucks. In such case, the windscreen and front of the passenger compament are smashed with severe injuries to the head and in some cases decapitation of the occupants of the front seat. Also seen where the motorcyclist d... | 159,919 | medmcqa_train |
A young tourist presents with a skin lesion after being to Rajastan. He presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting. What is the likely dermatological condition? | A typical lesion of Acute Cutaneous Leishmaniasis is papule at the site of the sand fly bite which enlarges and breaks down in the centre. The ulcer usually has a rolled border. When the lesion heals in a year's time it leaves a distinctive depressed hyper pigmented scar. The typical sites are cheeks and arms (exposed ... | 159,920 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following association is true regarding facial nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures? | Longitudinal fractures of Temporal bone are more common than transverse fracture but, facial nerve injury is most commonly associated with Transverse fracture of the temporal bone. | 159,921 | medmcqa_train |
A 1-year-old female infant has failure to thrive, poor neurologic development, and poor motor function. Physical examination shows a "cherry red" spot on the macula of the retina. The infant's muscle tone is poor. Both parents and a brother and sister are healthy, with no apparent abnormalities. One brother with a simi... | The findings listed suggest a severe inherited neurologic disease, and the pattern of inheritance (e.g., normal parents, an affected sibling) is consistent with an autosomal recessive disorder. This inheritance pattern and the cherry red spot in the retina are characteristic of Tay-Sachs disease, caused by mutations in... | 159,922 | medmcqa_train |
In prolactinoma most common symptom other than galactorrea is? | Pituitary tumors 1.Eosinophil (Acidophil) adenomas: Tumour is usually small. Rarely it causes compressive features. It secretes excess growth hormone causing acromegaly in adults and gigantism in children. 2. Chromophobe adenomas are common in females and in the age group--20-50 years. Initially, it is intrasellar and ... | 159,923 | medmcqa_train |
Lens develops from. | Ans. (b) Surface ectodermSurface EctodermNeural EctodermMesodermNeural Crest* Conjunctival Epithelium* Corneal Epithelium* Lacrimal gland* Tarsal gland* Lens* Smooth muscle of Iris* Iris Epithelium* Ciliary Epithelium* Retina & its pigment epithelium* Optic nerve fibre* Part of vitrous* EOM* Sclera* Iris* Vascular endo... | 159,924 | medmcqa_train |
Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial meniscus injury is: March 2010, March 2013 (c, d) | Ans. A: McMurray's Test McMurray's test is performed for meniscus injury For medial meniscus: Patient lying flat (non-weight bearing), the knee is completely flexed. The foot is rotated externally and the leg abducted. The joint is now slowly extended keeping the leg externally rotated and abducted. As the torn cailage... | 159,925 | medmcqa_train |
A young boy came with dyspnea and was found to have a mediastinal mass. Which of the following is known to produce mediastinal lymphadenopathy? | mediastinal lymphadenopathy ,sternal tenderness and mediastinal mass are seen with ALL. | 159,926 | medmcqa_train |
Only male are affected in | Hunter's syndrome belongs to Type II mucopolysaccharidoses in which mucopolysaccharides accumulate in the lysosomes causing disorganization of the cell structure & function.This syndrome is characterised by mild mental retardation;marked skeletal changes like thickening of the skull,marked deformity of sella tursica,br... | 159,927 | medmcqa_train |
Adoptive immunity is by? | Aadoptive immunity: a special type of immunisation is the injection of immunologically competent lymphocytes. - instead of whole lymphocytes, an extract of immunologically competent lymphocytes, known as the transfer factor can be used. Reference: Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:84 <\p> | 159,928 | medmcqa_train |
A 41 y/o male presents with complaints of inability to achieve proper erections during sexual intercourse. He repos that there were no abnormalities till last month, when on one occasion he tried having sex with wife while he was drunk. He was not able to achieve a proper erection at that time and since than, on four o... | History of sudden onset, normal morning erections and normal erection during masturbation is suggestive of Psychogenic Erectile dysfunction. The cause is usually performance anxiety. To differentiate between psychogenic and organic erectile dysfunction best test is ask for nocturnal / early morning erections as patient... | 159,929 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can cause hypersecretion of prolactin, except? | The function of dopamine is to supress the prolactin secretion. Prolactin agonists reduce secretion of prolactin and antagonists increase the secretion of prolactin. Cabergoline is a long acting dopamine agonist. The drug suppresses prolactin secretion. Used to treat prolactinoma. All others can cause increased secreti... | 159,930 | medmcqa_train |
A 10 years boy presented with sensory neural deafness not benefited with hearing aid, Next treatment is | A. i.e. (Cochlear implant) (125- Maqbool 11th) (121- Dhingra 4th)COCHLEAR IMPLANT - is indicated in patients with bilateral severe sensorineural deafness who do not respond to amplified sound stimuli* Cochlear implants are more useful in post lingually deaf patients i.e. who lost their hearing after acquisition of lang... | 159,931 | medmcqa_train |
A 15-year-old boy complains of right-sided weakness and gait impairment. A CT scan shows a large, non-enhancing cyst in the posterior cranial fossa, with an enhancing tumor nodule in the left cerebellum. What is the most likely diagnosis? | Cystic astrocytoma's are neoplasms of the CNS. They usually consist of a large, non-enhancing cyst on the wall of which is an enhancing tumor nodule. They are most commonly found within the substance of the cerebellar hemispheres of children and young adults. A Rathke's cleft cyst is a remnant of the embryologic Rathke... | 159,932 | medmcqa_train |
Ketamine produces ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Emergence delirium Ketamine The primary site of action is in the coex and subcoical areas; not in the reticular activating system (site of action of barbiturates). It acts on NMDA receptors. Sho duration of action (10-15 minutes) is due to redistribution from brain and blood to other tissues of the bo... | 159,933 | medmcqa_train |
Splenectomy is done to tide over the acute crises of uncontrollable: | Indications of splenectomy in ITP: Failure of medical therapy Prolonged use of steroids with undesirable effects Most cases of first relapse Splenectomy provides a permanent response without subsequent need for steroids in 75-85% of patients. Laparoscopic splenectomy has become the gold standard for ITP patients. Respo... | 159,934 | medmcqa_train |
Osteoahritis not seen in ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankle joints OA affects ceain joints, yet spares others. Commonly affected joints include the cervical and lumbosacral spine, hip, knee, and first metatarsal phalangeal joint (MTP). In the hands, the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints and the base of the thumb are often affected. Usually spare... | 159,935 | medmcqa_train |
Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lactose Lactose (g) Cow's milk 4.4 Human milk 7.4 Proteins (g) 3.2 1.1 Fat (g) 4.1 3.4 Calcium (mg) 120 28 Iron (mg) 0.2 1.0 Water (g) 87 Energy (Kcal) 67 65 | 159,936 | medmcqa_train |
Characteric finding in restrictive lung disease is: | Ans. c (Normal FEV, /Vc). (Ref. Harrison, Principles of Medicine, 18th/1448)OBSTRUCTIVE PATTERNRESTRICTIVE PATTERN (Al 2005)EXTRAPARENCHYMAL PATTERN (INSPIRATORY DYSFUNCTION)Decreased expiratory flow rates (hallmark)Normal forced expiratory flow ratesExpiratory flow rates not affectedDecreased FEV1/VC (in fully establi... | 159,937 | medmcqa_train |
Down beat nystagmus is seen in? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Arnold chiari malformation Down-beat nystagmus are seen in cerebellar lesion and Arnold-chiary malformation | 159,938 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not true for ZollingerEllison syndrome: September 2008 | Ans. B: Reduced BAO : MAO ratio Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is a rare condition characterized by peptic ulcers that are refractory to conventional medical therapy. Gastrin-producing tumors or gastrinomas cause excessive gastric acid secretion, leading to ulcers of the upper GI tract, as well as diarrhea and severe... | 159,939 | medmcqa_train |
Edman's reagent is - | Ans. is 6c' i.e., Phenyl-isocyanateo Determination of amino acid sequence (sequence analysis) is performed by Edman degradation method on automatic mechines, called cyclic sequentors. Edman's reagent is phenyl-isothiocyanate, and forms a covalent bond to N- terminal of amino-acid. This can be identified.o Sanger's reag... | 159,940 | medmcqa_train |
Farmer presents with the features of high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea and 'Ivpotension. Which stain will help in the diagnosis | Ans. b. Wayson's stain Farmer presents with the features of high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea and hypotension. This clinical picture is suggestive of Bubonic plague. Bubonic plague Bubonic plague symptoms can occur within two to six days of being infected by the bacteria Yersinia pesti... | 159,941 | medmcqa_train |
Area of Cornea indented in Goldman Applanation tonometer for measuring IOP | Area of Cornea indented in Goldman Applanation tonometer for measuring IOP is 3.06mm. | 159,942 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest extradural spinal tumour is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Metastasis | 159,943 | medmcqa_train |
A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast. Next investigation is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., FNAC In any patient with a breast lump or other symptoms suggestive of carcinoma, diagnosis should be made by a combination of : 'Triple Assessment' : a. Clinical assessment b. Radiological imaging c. Tissue sampling for either cytological or histological examination. FNAC is more than often the first... | 159,944 | medmcqa_train |
Primary Regulator for central chemoreceptor - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., H+ Central chemoreceptors o These receptors are located in a chemosensitive area on the ventral surface of the medulla near the exit of the ninth and tenth cranial nerves. The primary stimulus for the central chemoreceptors is an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration. Stimulation of central chemo... | 159,945 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest cause of primary Amenorrhoea is: | Most common cause of Primary Amenorrhea = Gonadal dysgenesis/ovarian dysgenesis
2nd most common cause of Primary Amenorrhea = Mullerian agenesis (Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome)
“Mullerian agenesis is a relatively common cause of primary amenorrhea, more frequent than congenital androgen insensitivity and se... | 159,946 | medmcqa_train |
All the following types of hypersensitivity reactions can be demonstrated by skin test except ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II Has been explained | 159,947 | medmcqa_train |
All of these hormones use cAMP as second messenger except: | Ans. (D) Vasopressin(Ref: Katzung 11/e p301, Gationg 22/e p41-43)Vasopressin acts via V1 and V2 receptors. V1 receptors use IP3 -DAG-Ca2+ pathway whereas V2 use cAMP as second messenger. All other drugs mentioned in the question act by cAMP pathway only. Thus, all of these use cAMP as second messenger, but if we need t... | 159,948 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly multigravida female presents in labor. She has multiple fibroids in lower uterine segment. Management is: | Ans. is d, i.e. Classical cesarean section followed by hysterectomySince this female is multigravida with multiple fibroids in lower uterine segments - vaginal delivery is not possible as multiple fibroids are present in lower uterine segment. We will have to do cesarean - but LSCS is also not feasible due to fibroids ... | 159,949 | medmcqa_train |
Microfalaria in Culex depicts what kind of Biological transmission? | Microfalaria in culex is an example of cyclo-developmental transmission. In Culex mosquito, it undergoes only development. stages will change There is no multiplication taking place in it. TYPES OF BIOLOGICAL TRANSMISSION- Propogative transmission Cyclo-developmental Cyclo-propogative | 159,950 | medmcqa_train |
All extra-ocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve except | The superior oblique is supplied by the trochlear nerve The lateral rectus is supplied by abducent nerve The superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique are supplied by occulomotor nerve Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 208 | 159,951 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following chemical mediator of inflammation is an example of a C-X-C or alpha chemokine | Ref Robbins 9/e p87 IL-8, also known as neutrophil chemotactic factor, has two primary functions. It induces chemotaxis in target cells, primarily neutrophils but also other granulocytes, causing them to migrate toward the site of infection. IL-8 also stimulates phagocytosis once they have arrived. IL-8 is also known t... | 159,952 | medmcqa_train |
Epidural anaesthesia is preferred over spinal anaesthesia because: September 2006 | Ans. A: Prolonged duration of effect Epidural anaesthesia, a form of regional anaesthesia involving injection of drugs through a catheter placed into the epidural space. The injection can cause both a loss of sensation (anaesthesia) and a loss of pain (analgesia), by blocking the transmission of signals through nerves ... | 159,953 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs cause relaxation of LES? 1. Nitrates 2. Histamine blockers 3. Morphine 4. Atropine 5. Calcium channel blockers | Factor causing relaxation of LES Factor increasing LES pressure Pharmacological agents:nitrates, anticholinergics, barbiturates, calcium channel blockers, caffeine, theophylline, diazepam, dopamine, prostaglandin E1 and E2 and meperidine Pepperdine Chocolate Coffee Alcohol Smoking Fat Antacids Cholinergics Domperidone ... | 159,954 | medmcqa_train |
Plasma membrane is freely permeable to - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alcoholo As the major middle portion of membrane (core of the membrane) is formed by hydrophobic region of phospholipids, this portion is impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as ions, glucose and urea.o Conversely, fat-soluble substances, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and alcohol,... | 159,955 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is not useful in the management of Postpaum Hemorrhage(PPH)? | Mifepristone is a progestin analogue and it blocks the effects of progesterone. It is used as a medical termination of pregnancy in the first trimester and as a post-coital contraceptive. While misoprostol, oxytocin and ergotamine are oxytocics and as uterine stimulants are used in the management of postpaum hemorrhage... | 159,956 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a alkylating agent? | 5-FU is an metabolite | 159,957 | medmcqa_train |
100% Oxygen is not effective in: March 2005 | Ans. C: Tetralogy of fallot | 159,958 | medmcqa_train |
The lymph nodes first involved in cancer of the skin of the scrotum are - | • Squamous cell carcinoma of scrotumQ, most commonly resulted from exposure to environmental carcinogens including chimney soot, tars, paraffin and petroleum products.
• Superficial inguinal lymph nodes are the first lymph nodes involved.
Risk Factors
• Most cases results from poor hygiene and chronic inflammation.
Di... | 159,959 | medmcqa_train |
The primary therapy to prevent oesophageal varices is : | The treatment of patients with varices that have never bled is usually referred to as prophylactic therapy (eg, prophylactic sclerotherapy or prophylactic propranolol). By convention, procedures performed on patients who have bled previously are referred to as therapeutic (eg, therapeutic shunts). Prophylactic therapy ... | 159,960 | medmcqa_train |
The followng does not occur with asbestosis - | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.492 Overexposure to asbestos is associated with 3 types of lesions: asbestosis, pleural disease and ceain tumours. A. ASBESTOSIS. The gross pulmonary fibrosis caused by asbestos exposure and histologic demonstration of asbestos bodies on asbestos fibres is ter... | 159,961 | medmcqa_train |
True about phobia are all, except: NIMHANS 08; NEET 13 | Ans. Generalized anxiety | 159,962 | medmcqa_train |
An adolescent is brought to the emergency depament following an episode of myoclonic jerks at morning after waking up. His consciousness was not impaired. His EEG shows generalized 3-4 Hz spike and slow wave complexes. Most probable diagnosis is? | Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a subtype of idiopathic generalized epilepsy with onset usually between 8 and 20 years of age. Myoclonic jerks, especially in the morning, are of variable intensity ranging from simple twitching ("flying saucer syndrome") to falls; consciousness is not impaired in it. It is precipitated b... | 159,963 | medmcqa_train |
Thiopentone is not used in? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., As antidepressant | 159,964 | medmcqa_train |
True about tracheal bifurcation - | Trachea
The trachea is 10-15 cm long tube formed by C-Shaped hyaline cartilaginous rings and fibromuscular membrane.
It extends from the lower border of cricoid cartilage (at C6 level) to lower border of T4 or upper border of T5 vertebra (T4-T5 disc space) where it bifurcates.
Its external diameter is about 2 cm in ma... | 159,965 | medmcqa_train |
How does hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle? | Build up of cummonemia which occurs in urea cycle disorder or advanced liver disease, inhibits TCA cycle by depleting alpha ketoglutarate. | 159,966 | medmcqa_train |
The most common cause of painful pericarditis is | The cause of pericarditis is believed to be most often due to a viral infection. Other causes include bacterial infections such as tuberculosis, uremic pericarditis, following a hea attack, cancer, autoimmune disorders, and chest trauma Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition | 159,967 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of ectopic salivary gland is? | Ans is 'c' i.e. Angle of mandible * An accessory salivary gland is ectopic salivary gland tissue with a salivary gland duct system. The most common location of accessory salivary gland tissue is an extra major salivary gland in front of the parotid gland.* Salivary gland heterotopia is where salivary gland acini cells ... | 159,968 | medmcqa_train |
An eight-year-old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cm and weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative for known entero-pathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The Mantoux test was ... | The boy in question is obviously malnourished (Expected weight is 20-25 kg and expected height is 125-130 cm) A normal sigmoidoscopy rules out ulcerative colitis as it extends in a continuous fashion proximally from the rectum. A negative Mantoux test goes against active tuberculosis and a negative stool culture also r... | 159,969 | medmcqa_train |
All are autosomal recessive EXCEPT: September 2004 | Ans. C i.e. Marfan's syndrome Marfan syndrome is a disorder of connective tissue, manifested principally by changes in the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system. It is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance. | 159,970 | medmcqa_train |
A 17-year-old girl with amenorrhea, atrophied breast, hypoplastic uterus : | Turner's syndrome Phenotype is female Karyotype is 45,XO Sho stature,webbed neck underdeveloped uterus and vagina ovaries lack graffian follicles breasts are not developed,axillary and pubic hair is scanty or absent SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,pg no:111,115th edition | 159,971 | medmcqa_train |
All are fibrinolytic, except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Epsilon amino caproic acid | 159,972 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statement is false about drugs used in rheumatoid ahritis? | Drug ending with inib - JAK inhibitor and given orally.- Tofacitinib- Beracitinib Drug ending with Mab: - Monoclonal antibody and IL-6 inhibitor.- Tocilizumab- SarilumabSix : IL-6A-AhritisR-RheumatoidI - InterleukinL - InterleukinUMAB: Monoclonal Antibody.All above mentioned drugs are used for Rheumatoid ahritis. Tocil... | 159,973 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cell types are specific to a latent genital infection with HSV-2 | Latent infection by HSV-2 has been shown to occur primarily in the sacral ganglia, whereas HSV-1 latency has been demonstrated in trigeminal, superior cervical, and vagal nerve ganglia. Varicella- zoster virus remains latent in neural sensory ganglia. Ref:- Baveja textbook of Microbiology | 159,974 | medmcqa_train |
If a body is left undisturbed, for how long does post moem staining persists : | D i.e. Persists till merges with discolouration of putrefaction | 159,975 | medmcqa_train |
Phage typing is useful as an epidemiological tool in all, except ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Shigella dysenteriae | 159,976 | medmcqa_train |
Multifactorial inheritance is most likely to play a role in | Cleft lip and cleft palate, also known as orofacial cleft, is a group of conditions that includes cleft lip (CL), cleft palate (CP), and both together (CLP).] A cleft lip contains an opening in the upper lip that may extend into the nose. The opening may be on one side, both sides, or in the middle. A cleft palate is w... | 159,977 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the followign drugs require dose adjustment in renal failure? | Ans. (C) Streptomycin(Ref: Katzung 10/e p835 KDT 8/e p746)Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside and require dose adjustment in renal failure whereas doxycycline, rifampicin and cefoperazone are secreted in bile and do not require dose adjustment in renal failure. | 159,978 | medmcqa_train |
The learning theory of digit sucking was proposed by | The learning theory: Davidson (1967)
This theory advocates that non-nutritive sucking stems from an adaptive response.
The infant associates sucking with such pleasurable feelings as hunger. These events are recalled by sucking the suitable objects available, mainly thumb or finger. | 159,979 | medmcqa_train |
Which aery dilatation causes compression of 3rd pa of duodenum | Superior mesenteric aery: - Aery of mid gut Origin - L1 veebrae level . Regional anatomy of SMA: - It is crossed anteriorly by the splenic vein & the neck of pancreas. Posterior to it is the renal vein, the uncinate process & the inferior pa of duodenum (3rd pa). - This D3 pa can be compressed b/w two aeries: - Anterio... | 159,980 | medmcqa_train |
The surgery for hyperophic pyloric stenosis of infancy is | After laparotomy hyperophied muscle is cut along the whole length adequately until mucosa bulges out, then pyloromyotomy is done. in Heller&;s operation muscle of the cardiac are cut to allow passage of food ,and is done in achalasia cardia Truncal vagotomyis done by denervating the main branch which is supply in pylor... | 159,981 | medmcqa_train |
Testamentary capacity is the ability to: | Testamentary capacity (testament = will) is the mental ability to make a valid will. Will denotes any testamentary document. The requirement for a valid will are as follows. A written and properly signed and witnessed document must exist. The testator must be a major and of sound disposing mind at the time of making th... | 159,982 | medmcqa_train |
Uveitis with raised intraocular tension is best managed by – | Keep in mind that:-
Treatment of uveitis in hypertensive uveitis (uveitic glaucoma) is topical steroid along with mydriatic-cycloplegics.
Treatment for reducing IOP in hypertensive uveitis (uveitic glaucoma) is antiglaucoma drugs (Timolol is the drug of choice). | 159,983 | medmcqa_train |
Pin point pupil is seen in A/E : | D i.e. Barbiturate All are causes of constricted pupils but in? Barbiturate poisoning the pupils are usually slightly constricted & react to light by alternate contraction & dilation and dilate during terminal asphyxiaQ | 159,984 | medmcqa_train |
All are morbidity indicators execpt - | Ans. is `b' i.e., Doctor : population ratio Health change cannot be measured in specified unit. o So, different indicators have been defined which reflect health change in a community. o These indicators are called health indicators e.g. moality indicators, morbidity indicators, Disability rates. | 159,985 | medmcqa_train |
False positive fistula test is associated with | False positive fistula test seen in: Congenital syphilis - Stapes footplate is hypermobile Meniere's disease - fibrous bands connecting uricular macula to Stapes footplate. Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 43. | 159,986 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a feature of ligature strangulation: Kerala 08 | Ans. Incomplete ligature mark | 159,987 | medmcqa_train |
A 32-year-old female is brought by his family with history of gradual onset of suspiciousness, muttering and smiling without clear reason, decreased socialization, and violent outbursts. Mental status examination revealed a blunt affect, thought insertion, impaired judgement and insight. The most likely diagnosis would... | Ans. C. SchizophreniaSchizophrenia is a disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms, aggressive behavior in clear consciousness. Altered sensorium is seen in organic conditions like delirium. | 159,988 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following condition is Ground glass appearance of maxillary sinus seen? | Extra oral film taken in a case of maxillary fibrous dysplasia shows ground glass appearence. Intraoral film taken in this condition shows orange peel appearence. Fibrous dysplasia is an idiopathic skeletal disorder in which medullary bone is replaced by poorly organized structurally unsound fibro osseous tissue. Most ... | 159,989 | medmcqa_train |
Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of: March 2009 | Ans. B: Gram positive bacteria The Bacteria (eubacteria), with the exception of the Chlamydias have a semirigid cell wall containing peptidoglycan. Gram negative bacteria's peptidoglycan layer is much thinner than in Gram-positive bacteria In general, the walls of gram positive bacteria have a simpler chemical nature t... | 159,990 | medmcqa_train |
Coincidental malignancy in the upper respiratory tract with inveed papillomas seen in | Coincidental malignancy in the upper respiratory tract with inveed papilloma is seen in 4%Malignant transformation of the tumor itself is seen in 8% | 159,991 | medmcqa_train |
Hepatic encephalopathy is aggravated by all except? | Hypokalemia is seen with overzealous use of diuretics and this will lead to dehydration and increased hepatic encephalopathy. Anemia associated with Gl bleeding worsens hepatic encephalopathy Constipation in hypothyroidism will worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing bacterial load. Drugs like barbiturates and anti... | 159,992 | medmcqa_train |
A female aged 30, presents with an episodic throbbing headache for past 4 yrs. It usually involves one half of the face and is associated with nausea and vomiting. There is no aura. Most likely diagnosis is | Migraine 2nd most common cause of a headache.Affects 15% of women and 6% of men over a one year period.Usually an episodic headache and associated with ceain features such as sensitivity to light, sound, or movement. Nausea and vomiting often accompany a headache.May be associated with other symptoms of neurologic dysf... | 159,993 | medmcqa_train |
What is the type of voice in antrochoanal polyp- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyponasal voice Clinical features of antrochoanal polypo Unilateral Nasal blockage (more on expiration than on inspirationo Obstruction may become bilateral when polyp grows into nasopharynx and starts obstructing opposite choana.o Hyponasal voiceo Mucoid nasal dischargeo Conductive deafness due to eu... | 159,994 | medmcqa_train |
Deep white matter lesion with bilateral deep bright thalamic appearance is suggestive of | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Krabbe's disease Deep white matter lesion along with the involvement of thalamus suggests Krabbe's disease.Krabbe's disease is a leukodystrophy.LeukodystrophyIt is a term commonly used to refer to demyelination disorders.They are mainly due to genetic defects in the formation and maintenance of myelin.... | 159,995 | medmcqa_train |
What changes in GFR is expected in a 30-year-old lady with pre-eclampsia? | Pre-eclampsia is a state of hypeension in pregnancy associated with proteinuria but with or without pathological edema. It is defined as a multi-system disorder of unknown etiology characterised by development of hypeension to the extent of 140/90 mm Hg or more with protienuria after the 20th week of pregnancy in a pre... | 159,996 | medmcqa_train |
Adies aegpti index at airport - | (C) (< 1) (258 - Park 22nd)AEDES AEGYPTI INDEX: This is a house index and is defined as "the percentage of houses and their premises in a limited well-defined area, showing actual breading of Aedes - aegypti larvae"* This index should not be more than 1 percent in towns and seaports in endemic areas to ensure freedom f... | 159,997 | medmcqa_train |
Following are the mature mineralized matrix marker of the periodontal ligament except: | Markers for Periodontal Ligament Stem Cells
1. Bone Marrow Markers
STRO-1
2. Perivascular Cell Markers
CD146
αSMA
Pericyte associated antigen 3G5
CD106
3. Mature Mineralized Matrix Markers
Alkaline phosphatase
Osteonectin
Osteopontin
Osteocalcin
Bone sialoproteins
4. Connective Tissue Protein Markers
Type I and ... | 159,998 | medmcqa_train |
Strongest attachment of Zonule is at - | The lens is suspended in the eye by zonules which are inseed on the anterior and equatorial lens capsule and attached to the ciliary body. REF IMG | 159,999 | medmcqa_train |
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