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A most common cause of Neonatal Hypothyroidism is
Iodine deficiency is the commonest cause of congenital hypothyroidism in certain parts of India, while thyroid dysgenesis is the most common aetiology in non-endemic areas (75% of all cases).
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The drug of choice in treatment of typhoid fever in pregnancy is:
Ceftriaxone Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnancy Ref. Harrison 17/e p 958,959
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Cipargamin is a drug under trial for
Cipargamin (KAE 609) is a synthetic antimalarial belonging to the spiroindolone class. In trials, it cleared the parasite rapidly in Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax in uncomplicated Malaria patients. The safety profile of drug not known yet. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 262
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The age and sex structure of a population may be best described by
The age and sex composition of a country can be best described by population pyramid. Age group from 0-80+ is represented in a scale and the male and female population are represented on either side of the population pyramid. Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 482,483
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In relation to other metacarpals, the first metacarpal is
The 1st metacarpal bone (lying on a more anterior plane ) is rotated medially through 90deg relative to other metacarpals. As a result of this rotation , the movements of the thumb take place at right angles to those of other digits. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no : 29
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A patient of Parkinsonism, Mr. Ghai noticed that the therapeutic effect of levodopa decreased when he was given another drug by his physician but no interaction was seen when he switched over to Ievodopa-carbidopa combination. The possible drug prescribed by his physician can be:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p418, 419) Pyridoxine is a component of vitamin B complex. Pyridoxine is a cofactor for the enzyme, dopa decarboxylase and therefore, administration of vitamin B complex can stimulate the activity of this enzyme. Dopa decarboxylase conves levo-dopa to dopamine. Increased formation of dopamine in the perip...
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All of the following statements about Renal physiology are true, Except
Distal tubule receives fluid from the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which always contains hypotonic fluid. GFR is affected by glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure which in turn is affected by arterial pressure, afferent and efferent arteriolar resistance. Capillaries arising from afferent arteriole fo...
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A funguicidal drug that can be used orally for the treatment of onychomycosis is
Ref-KDT 6/e 765 Fungicidal drugs are amphotericin B and terbinafine.out of these, amphotericin B cannot be given orally.thus,the and is terbinafine.
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Consanguinity is seen with which pattern of inheritance?
Ref: Robbins E-Book, P 246* Marriage amongst cousins/close relatives is called as consanguinity.* The high consanguinity rates, could induce the expression of autosomal recessive diseases, including very rare or new syndromes.
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A 60-year-old man with a chronic cough, bloody sputum, and marked weight loss is diagnosed as having tuberculosis. A "serpentine-like" colonial morphology is noted on Lowenstein-Jensen agar. This latter finding is caused by which of the following factors
Virulence of the organism is correlated with cord factor (trehalose dimycolate).
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Suicidal enzyme is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cycloxygenase
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True regarding Japanese encephalitis are all the following EXCEPT?
Japanese encephalitis- Most common age group of children affected: 5-15 years Vector is Culex tritaeniorhynchus Permanent neurologic or psychiatric sequelae are seen Vaccine against Japanese encephalitis is available in India.
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Which of the following is false regarding alpha helix?
Alpha helix is stabilized primarily by intra chain hydrogen bonds. Alpha helix is the most common and stable secondary structure. A complete turn of the helix contains an average of 3.6 aminoacyl residues. Large numbers of charged amino acids(glutamte,aspaate,histidine,lysine,and arginine) disrupt the helix by forming ...
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Which of the following inserts into the talus?
Ans. D. None of the above.The talus is made up of a head, neck, body and posterior process. It articulates with the tibia and fibula in the ankle, and the navicular and calcaneum in the foot. It has many ligamentous attachments but no muscle attachments. There is a groove posteriorly in which the flexor hallucis longus...
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Commonest manifestation of retinoblastoma is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Leukocoria Leukocoria or amauratic cat's eye reflex this is the most common manifestation. The leukocoria or the white glow in the pupil is caused by reflection of light from the white intraocular tumor.
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Most common hea lesion in down syndrome
Ans. is 'a' i.e., ASD with ostium primum About 40% children with down syndrome have congenital hea disease. Endocardial cushion defect (ASD with ostium primum) account for 40-60% of cases.
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Standard detion is measured in ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dispersion
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When two objects come in contact with each other, transfer of material takes place in accordance with:
Ans; B (Locard Exchange Principle) Locard's Exchange PrincipleQWhen any two objects come into contact, there is always a transfer of material from each object to the other. Traces from the scene may be carried away on the person or tools of crim in a l & at the same time, traces from all or any of these may be left at ...
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Hyaline membrane is seen in: September 2011
Ans. B: Respiratory distress syndrome A homogenous eosinophilic membrane (hyaline membrane) plastering the alveolar ducts and terminal bronchioles is found in idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome HMD/ Hyaline membrane disease: Most babies with HMD shows clinical findings of respiratory distress in the delivery room...
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All of the following cranial nerves contain somatic efferent fibres except:
Facial nerve contains special branchial efferents, not somatic efferents
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A test for hepatitis C is performed for 200 patients with biopsy­proven disease and 200 patients known to be free of the disease. The test shows positive results on 180 of the patients with the disease, and negative results on 150 of the patients without the disease. Among those tested, this test therefore
It is given in the question, a + c (cases) = 200; b + d (healthy) = 200 And also, test shows positive results on 180 of the patients with the disease (200), so a (TP) = 180 and c (FN) = 20; and negative results on 150 of the patients without the disease, so d (TN) = 150 and b (FP) = 50
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A child came to the casualty with tetany. what will you do:
Ans: c (Inj .calcium gluconate) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed, p. 258; OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 88Hypocalcemia may manifest with jitteriness, tetany, caipopedal spasms, laryngospasm and seizures.Signs of latent tetany(1) Trousseau's sign- caipopedal spasm of forearm and hand(2) Chovsteks sign- twitching of the orbicularis oculi and ...
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Deep white matter lesion with bilateral deep bright thalamic appearance is suggestive of ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Krabbe's disease C.T. scan of leucodystrophies ? o C.T. scan of the leucodystrophies shows low density areas in the white matter which are bilateral but not necessary symmetric and becomes more extensive as the disease process progresses. Krabbe's disease On C.T, scan it shows increased density in the...
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A 23-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing football. During physical examination there is pain and swelling of the knee, in addition to locking of the knee. Radiographic examination reveals a bucket-handle meniscal tear. Which of the following ligaments is most likel...
(d) Source: GAS 559, 576-577, 583, 646-647; GA 303-305 Both the medial and lateral menisci are subject to rotational injuries and may be torn. The medial meniscus is much more liable to injury because it is attached to the fused deep layer of the medial collateral ligament and joint capsule. The lateral meniscus is sep...
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Chronic discharging sinus with bone particle is seen in
Clinical features of chronic osteomyelitis The commonest presenng symptom is a chronic discharging sinus, a history of bone piece discharge from the chronic sinus is considered diagnosc of chronic osteomyelis. Pain is minimal or absent. Generalized symptoms of acute osteomyelis are not present except in acute excacer...
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Brain tumors are best seen in which modality?
MRI is the Imaging Modality of choice for Neurological Imaging and Soft tissue evaluation Preferred investigation for Brain Tumors is a Contrast Enhanced MRI
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Which of the following is known as 'the medical discovery of 20th century'?
Oral Rehydration Therapy (O), a cheap and effective way to tackle moality from diarrohea Hence, it is 'The medical discovery of the century' composition of Reduced Osmolarity ORS - Na+ 75 mmol /L K+ 20 mmol /L Cl- 65 mmol/L Citrate 10 mmol/L Glucose 75 mmol/L Total 245 mmol/L
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Immediate management of a patient with Multiple fracture and fluid loss includes the infusion -
• Resuscitation following blood loss from multiple fractures begins with administration of 2-3 liters of isotonic crystalloid immediately to restore BP and peripheral circulation. • Lactated ringer (RL) solution is generally preferred over 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) as it is balanced salt solution and designed to mimic ...
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In a patient of congenital prolonged QT syndrome and intermittent torsedes points, which of the following drug should be prescribed
Magnesium is a agent of choice for the immediate treatment of torsedes points associated with both congenital and acquired long QT syndrome . Use of intravenous isoproterenol is limited only to acquired long qt syndrome Long term treatment with oral beta blockers is required only for congenital disease Refer Goodman an...
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The largest ovarian tumour is seen with-
Mucinous tumor tend to produce larger cystic masses, and some have been recorded with weights of more than 25 kg.
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Mechanism of action of Latanoprost in glaucoma is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Increase the uveoscleral flow of aqueous Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma Mechanism Methods of Administration Cholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecarium Ciliary muscle contraction, opening of the trabecular meshwork, increased outflow Topical drops of gel; plasti...
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Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant
Glutathione peroxidase: It detoxifies H2O2 to H2O, while reduced glutathione (G SH) is conveed to oxidized glutathione (GS SG). The reduced glutathione can be regenerated by the enzyme glutathione reductase utilizing NADPH The hexose monophosphate shunt is the major source of NADPH. ref Satyanarayana 4th ed page 659
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Exception of Meyer oveon rule are A/E
D i.e. Hydrophobic site Non anesthetics/ nonimmobilizers, cut off effect convulsant gases, isomers, hydrophilic site and critical volume expanism hypothesis provide exceptions to the meyer - oveon ruleQ.
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Hand-knee gait is seen in patients of: March 2013 (b, e)
Ans. C i.e. Polio Hand knee gait Extend of the paralysis in the lower limbs determines the walking ability of the patient with poliomyelitis. When one leg has a normal or nearly normal muscles power, and some residual power in the antigravity muscles (gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and triceps surae) of the other limb, t...
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Spiegelberg criteria is used for the diagnosis of:
Ans. B. Ovarian pregnancyThe most common site of ectopic pregnancy is fallopian tube. Ectopic at other sites is secondary to ruptured ectopic from fallopian tube unless proved otherwise. The criteria defining primary ectopic at these uncommon sites are as followsRubin's----primary cervical, Spiegelberg----primary ovari...
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In each freshwater drowning the death occurs within 4-5 minutes of submersion due to ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following reasons is responsible for this?
D i.e. Hemodilution, overloading of hea and hemolysis resulting in release of potassium
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A person with type 1 diabetes ran out of her prescription insulin and has not been able to inject insulin for the past 3 days. The patient is hyperventilating to compensate for her metabolic acidosis. Which of the following reactions explains this partially compensating respiratory alkalosis?
The patient is "blowing off CO2 " to reduce acid. The equation described in answer C is the conversion of carbon dioxide into a soluble form, then into bicarbonate. During an acidosis, the high levels of protons push the reaction described in answer C to the left, to the formation of water and carbon dioxide. As the ca...
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α and β subunits are not seen in:
hCG (Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone) has alpha and beta subunits. Its alpha subunit is similar to that of LH (leutinizing hormone), FSH (Follicular stimulating hormone) and TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone) whereas beta subunits is specific. We have also studied that insulin hormone has alpha and beta subunits. R...
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Herbert's pit is seen in:
Ans: D (Chlamydial conjunctivitis) Ref Parsons Diseases of the Eye : 21st edition: pg no -- 172-175Explanation:TRACHOMA:Caused by Chalmydia trachomatis A, B, Ba, CSpread by 3Fs - Fingers, Fomites. FliesForms epithelial inclusion bodies - Halberstader Prowazek Inclusion BodiesConjunctiva - upper tarsal follicle which he...
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Quality control agent for Sterilization in Autoclave
Autoclaving Geobacillus stearothermophilus(GBS) Hydroclaving Bacillus subtilis Microwaving Bacillus atrophaeus Dry heat GBS or Bacillus atrophaeus
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Coloured urine is not seen in:
All the drugs mentioned above are associated with coloured urine. Though quinine may cause dark colored urine, its relatively rare compared to the other drugs given in the option. So quinine is the single best answer of choice by exclusion. Ref: Textbook of Medical Laboratory Technology By Sood, Page 36; Harrison's Pri...
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Schizopherenia is characterized by :
D i.e All- Schizophrenia is a formal thought disorderQ, characterized by third person hallucinationQ & inappropriate emotion (affect).- Delusion (primary autocanthous)Q is a Schneider's first rank symptom of schizophrenia.- Altered consciousness (sensorium) is a characteristic feature seen in deliriumQ (not in schizoph...
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Which one of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication for oral contraceptive pills?
Contraindications for use of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs):
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The following condition is not associated with an Anti- phopholipid syndrome -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thrombocytosis
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Referred otalgia can be due to?
ANSWER: (D) All of the aboveREF: Dhingra 4th ed p. 124Causes of referred otalgiaEar receives nerve supply from Vth (auriculotemporal), IXth (tympanic br.) and Xth (auricular br.) cranial nerves; and from C2 (lesser occipital) and C2 and C3 (greater auricular), pain may be referred from these remote areasVia Vth cranial...
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Water-shed area of inferior mesenteric aery and internal iliac aery lies at
Sudeck's point is an area prone to ischemia where anastomoses between distal branches of inferior mesenteric aery and internal iliac aery occurs which gives middle and inferior rectal aery which supplies pelvis and perineum. Griffiths' point is defined as the site of (a) communication of the ascending left colic aery w...
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True regarding water absorption in tubules:September 2007
Ans. B: Bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to sodium absorptionWater reabsorption keeps pace with the sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubules and hence the concentration of sodium and total osmolarity remains the same.
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Extensive involvement of deep white matter with bilateral hyperdense thalami on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is virtually diagnostic of -
Extensive involvement of deep white matter with bilateral hyperdense thalami on CT scan suggests the diagnosis of Krabbe's disease.
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Milestone of 18 month old child includes ___________
Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on f...
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False about pre - styloid space
Prapharyngeal space on basis of styloid is divided into i) Prestyloid compartment Has maxillary Artery has branches of mandibular nerve ii) Post styloid compartment Has ICA IJV 9,10,11,12 cranial nerve
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Enzyme responsible for conversion of androgen into estrogen -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aromatase o Estradiol is the major estrogen secreted by the ovary.o It is synthesized in the graffian follicle, corpus luteum and placenta from cholesterol.o Estradiol is rapidly oxidized in liver to estrone which is hydroxylated to form estriol.
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The first sign of pubey in female is
Thelarche is the first sign of pubey in a girl around the age of 10 yearsDefinition:- beginning of secondary (Postnatal) breast development at the onset of pubey in girlsTanner stage 2 breast development.Because of rising level of estradiol.Breast development in a male is termed as gynecomastia, not thelarche(Refer: Ne...
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Feature of microscopic polyangitis is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal involvementMicroscopic polvangitis (MPA)It is a necrotizing vasculitis.o It is considered as a variant of polyaeritis nodosa (PAN), but in contrast to classical PAN, microscopic polyangitis involves smaller vessels, i.e. aerioles, venules and capillaries.o It is also differentiated from classica...
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Most commonly performed hepatobiliary shunt in Budd-Chiari syndrome
Treatment Side-to-side poocaval shunt: SSPCS is the most effective therapy for BCS caused by thrombosis of the hepatic veins Ideal circumstances for shunt surgery include in BCS Absence of cirrhosis or significant fibrosis on biopsy Absence of a significant gradient between the Supra hepatic and Infra hepatic IVC Relat...
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Teriparatide is used in treatment of:
Ans. A. OsteoporosisTeriparatide is recombinant PTH. It is given in osteoporosis as it increases the new bone formation and increase the bone mineral density.
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Complication of neck femur fracture are all except-
*Impoant complications of fracture femoral neck are AVN of femoral head ( most common ), nonunion and secondary osteoahritis. *AVN is the most common complication of femoral neck fracture. M/c affects => Femoral Head M/c site => Anterolateral aspect (Being principal Wt. bearing poion) Incidence&;d/t t Steroid usage & T...
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In 4 split skin smears of a patient, 2 samples had 10 bacilli out of 100hpf and 2 samples with > 1000 bacilli. Average bacteriological index would be
RIDLEY'S LOGARITHMIC SCALE FOR BACTERIAL INDEX Bacterial/ Bacteriological Index (BI) : Density of bacilli in smears, including both living and dead bacilli. Ridley's logarithmic scale : Based on the number of bacilli seen in an average High power microscopic field, using an oil-immersion objective (1/12 in or 2 mm) Whe...
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Sub periosteal hemorrhage is seen in: (Repeat)
Ans: A (Vitamin C deficiency) Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th Edition, Page 198Explanation:Radiographic Changes in ScurvyThe typical radiographic changes occur at the distal ends of the long bones and are particularly common at the knees.The shafts of the long bones have a ground- glass appearance due to tra...
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Which of the following ECG changes in an Asymptomatic Athlete's Hea should be considered pathological'?
Answer is B (Second Degree (Mobitz 2) hea block) Second Degree (Mobitz 2) hea block should he considered a pathological finding in an Athletes Electrocardiogram. `Various degrees of atrioventricular blocks have been described in endurance athletes. First Degree Blocks and Second Degree (Mobitz Type- 1) are a common fin...
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The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with an increased incidence of
Ans. is b i.e. Chlamydial endocervicitis This is a tricky question as some believe Option "b should be the answer while others believe Option "c" should be concerned. As far as candidial (monilial) vaginitis is concerned, OCP's use increase their incidence. But for Chlamydial infections : "Persons who use barrier contr...
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A-H interval on ECG is for conduction -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., From AV node to bundle of Hiso Certain intervals are measured to provide information regarding AV block.PA interval: It is time taken from onset of P-wave to onset of deflection in atrial catheter. It is an index of intra-atrial conduction. Normal vlaue is less than 55 mS.AH interval : it represents c...
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OCD is associated with which personality?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anankastic Obsessive-Compulsive (anankastic) personality disorder : - People with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are markedly preoccupied with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. They lack flexibility or openness. Their preoccupations interfere with their efficiency despite their focus...
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Barr body is absent in female having ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 45 X0 genome Barr body (Sex - chromatin) o It is a densely staining inactivated condensed 'X' chromosome that is present in each somatic cells of female. o It is found in the nucleus. o It is used as a test of genetic femaleness it is possible to determine the genetic sex of an individual according as...
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All the following are true about Papilledema except-
There is gradual painless loss of vision Papilloedema is non- inflammatory edema of optic disc. Visual symptoms (only in 25% of patients) start as transient obscurations of vision. Earliest ophthalmoscopic sign is blurring of the margins of the optic disc, which starts at the upper and lower nasal margins and entends t...
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Recurrent miscarriage is :
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 or more consecutive losses < 20 weeks * Recurrent miscarriage, habitual abortion, or recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL) is three or more consecutive pregnancy losses at less than (or equal to) 20 weeks of gestation or with a fetal weight of <500 grams.* It affects approximately 1% to 2% of women
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A 55-year-old female presents with tinnitus, dizziness and history of progressive deafness. Differential diagnosis includes all except:
Acoustic neuroma and endolymphic hydrops (Meniere's syndrome) present with tinnitus, dizziness and progressive hearing loss. This also holds true for meningiomas which involve cerebellopontine (CP) angle. Nearly 10% of tumors of CP angle are meningiomas.Histiocytosis X. presently called Langerhans cell histiocytosis, i...
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Bad prognosis in AML is indicated by aEUR'
Monosomy Prognostic factors in AML Favourable prognostic factors Unourable prognostic factors Miscellaneous prognostic factors * Age < 40 yrs * del (7q) * In recent years, with availability * AML without antecedent MDS/ MPD * dui (5q) of markers on bone marrow * Blast cells with Auer rods * 11q23 - MLL +ve trephine sec...
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Make the diagnosis of a 26 day old Infant presenting with recurrent nonbilious vomiting with costipation and loss of wt:
Ans. is 'd' ie Pyloric stenosis.This is a typical picture of pyloric stenosisInfant presenting in 4 th weekNon-bilious vomitting.With constipation and wt. loss.Lets see other options.Esophageal atresiaInfant presents soon after birth with complaints of regurgitation of milk, saliva pours almost continuously from its mo...
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A 60 year old man is suspected of having bronchogenic ca: TB has been ruled out in this pt. What should be the next investigation
Answer is B (Bronchoscopy and biopsy) : Fibreoptic bronchoscopy with a brochial or transbronchial biopsy is the better option here as it also allows direct visualization of the tumor mass 'The screening of lung cancer by means of sputum cytology & chest radiographs is not very effective'-H1401/255 Once signs/symptoms o...
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The characteristics of polio vaccine are all except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 100% immunization In OPV, the viruses multiply in the gut and the vaccine progency is excreted in the feces and secondary spread occurs to house hold contacts and susceptible contacts in the community. Non-immunized person may therefore, be immunized. Thus widespread herd immunity results, even if onl...
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According to WHO leprosy is a public health problem if prevalence is more than:
At the end 2000, leprosy was a public health problem in 10 countries (prevalence rate > 1/10,000), mainly in Africa, Asia and Latin America. Thus to call it a public health problem prevalence per 10,000 should be more than 1 and per 100 should be > 0.01.
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Type of exercise done to increase the muscle strength:September 2005
Ans. C: IsotonicWhile isometric training increases strength at the specific joint angles of the exercises performed and additional joint angles to a lesser extent, dynamic exercises increase strength throughout the full range of motion.Generally speaking however, people who train isometrically don't train through a ful...
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Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Argatroban
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Most common cause of esophageal perforation at the site of cricopharynx -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iatrogenic o Oesophageal perforation is of two types :Iatrogenic (MC)Common site is cervical esophagus Just above the upper sphincter.Spontaneous rupturey As seen in Boerhaaves syndrome (Rupture of esophagus after vomitting).Common in the lower 1/3 of esophagus.
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Asmann psychrometer is useful for -
A psychrometer is an instrument to measure the humidity of the air. Assmann psychrometer is a poable instrument to give accurate readings of wet and dry bulb temperatures of air. In this instrument, the air is drawn at a speed of 5 meters per second by clockwork fan. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 2...
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The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which of the following vessels?
After branching from the mandibular nerve (CN V3), the auriculotemporal nerve travels posteriorly and encircles the middle meningeal artery, remaining posterior and medial to the condyle. It then continues up towards the TMJ,external ear, and temporal region, passing through the parotid gland and traveling with the sup...
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Unilateral middle ear serous effusion in an adult, most common cause ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nasopharyngeal carcinoma "In adults presenting with a unilateral middle ear effusion the possibility of a nasopharyngeal carcinoma should be considered-- Current otolaryngology 2"d/e p. 659 "A high incidence of NPC (Nasopharyngeal carcinoma) in South East Asia and Southern China correlates with the hi...
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30 yrs female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axilary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was done, fuhur traeatment plan will be
. Chemotherapy in Carcinoma Breast (Indications) * In advanced carcinoma breast as a palliative procedure. * In postoperative period after simple mastectomy in stage III carcinoma breast with fixed axillary nodes. * In inflammatory carcinoma of breast. * In stage IV carcinoma breast with secondaries in bone, lungs, liv...
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An 18-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with recurrent facial edema, especially around her lips. She also has recurrent bouts of intense abdominal pain and cramps, sometimes associated with vomiting. Laboratory examination reveals decreased C4, while levels of C3, decay-accelerating factor, and IgE are within ...
This  women is suffering from hereditary angioedema. C1 inhibitor blocks the activation of C1, the first protein of the classical complement pathway. Inherited deficiency of this inhibitor is the cause of hereditary angioedema. Deficiency of decay accelerating factor (DAF), which breaks down the C3 convertase complex, ...
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A 55ps old male presents with tachypnea and mental confusion. Blood glucose 350mg/dL pH 2.7 What is the most likely acid base disorder
The condition of patient is D K A ref : harrisons 21st ed
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Management in case of rupture of disc at L5, S1 is
C i.e. Immobilization for 2 weeks with spinal brace
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Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression of -
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed in the carpal tunnel below flexor retinaculum.
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A 29-year-old man with IDDM for the last 14 years develops sudden vision loss and has nonproliferation diabetic retinopathy, cause is
(A) Macular oedema # DIABETIC MACULOPATHY: Changes in macular region need special mention, due to their effect on vision.> These changes may be associated with Non-Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy(NPDR) or Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).> Diabetic macular edema occurs due to increase permeability of the ret...
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In sickle cell anaemia defect is in which chain -
Sickle cell disease is a common hereditary hemoglobinopathy caused by a point mutation in beta globin that promotes the polymerisation of deoxygenated Hb, leading to red cell distoion, hemolytic anaemia, micro vascular obstruction and ischemic tissue damage. In the 6th codon of Beta globin a point mutation which leads ...
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Propoional moality rate is
ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 58 note: propoional moality rate measures the burden of disease others are crude death rates.
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Antimitochondrial antibodies are found in 90% of patients with
The most characteristic immunologic abnormality associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies, which are found in 90% of affected individuals.This antibody is predominantly IgG. Antimitochondrial antibodies also can be detected in persons with other liver diseases but with a ...
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Morphologically diagnostic feature of cancer cells -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., T Mitotic activity Benign Vs malignant neoplasm Criteria o Differentiation o Growth limits o Growth rate o Invasivness o Metastasis o Mitotic figures o Cell size & shape o Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio o Stroma o Cell orientation (Polarity) o Nuclear chromatin o Blood supply Benign Well differentiated ...
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Which of the following disease is not considered by NPCB for renumeration of surgery done by NGO eye hospital?
No renumeration is done for Syringing and probing NPCB suppo to NGOs Renumeration Cataract Operation - Rs.750/- per cataract operation/per eye Other eye diseases (diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma management, laser techniques, corneal transplantation, vitreo-retinal surgery, treatment of childhood blindness etc.) - Rs.100...
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False regarding HMP shunt
Ans. is 'c' i.e., ATP is produced HMP shunt does not produce ATP. HMP shunt HMP shunt is a multicyclic process in which 3 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate give rise to 3 molecules of CO2 and 3 molecules of 5-carbon sugars (ribulose-5-phosphate). The latter are rearranged to generate 2 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate (...
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Osler's nodes are typically seen in which one of the following:
Osler's nodes and subungual hemorrhage in infective endocarditis are caused by septic embolisation, and septic embolisation is more common in patients with acute S. aureus endocarditis. In endocarditis caused by S. aureus, vegetations are >10 mm in diameter and infection involving the mitral valve are independently ass...
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Sex ratio is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Number of females per 1000 males Sex ratioo Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males. Sex ratio is considered asi) Favourable: When females are more than males (> 1000 females per 1000 males),ii) Unfavourable: When females are less than males (< 1000 females per 1000 males),iii) Id...
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Which of the following is not seen in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Classification of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) Classic (types I/II) - Skin and joint hypermobility, atrophic scars, easy bruisingHypermobility (type III) - Joint hypermobility, pain, dislocations Vascular (type IV) - Thin skin, aerial or uterine rupture, bruising, small joint hyperextensibilityKyphoscoliosis (type VI E...
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E cadherin gene deficiency is seen in:
Cadherin is derived from the “calcium-dependent adherence protein.” It participates in interactions between cells of the same type. The linkage of cadherins with the cytoskeleton occurs through the catenins.  The cell-to-cell interactions mediated by cadherin and catenins play a major role in regulating cell motility, ...
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Maximum growth spu in boys occurs at
Height velocity curves for male, show maximum growth velocity at 14-15 yrs Height velocity curves for female,show maximum growth velocity at 11-13 yrs Ref: Nelson's 20th edition, page 84-89
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Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary aery disease :
Answer is C (Nephrotic syndrome) Nephrotic syndrome is associated with hyperlipidemia with an increased level of LDL and cholesterol in most patients. This hyperlipidemia may accelerate atherosclerosis and increase the susceptibility to coronary aery disease Type V hyperlipoprotenemia is associated with normal / low le...
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The HLA class III region genes are important elements in
*HLA class III region contains genes for early complement components C2 and C4 of classical pathway. *Deficiency of these early components of the classical pathway viz C1, C2 and C4 is associated with autoimmune diseases like SLE and other collagen vascular diseases. • These genes are thus, important in regulating susc...
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Which of the following syndromes is best associated with congenital heart disease?
c. Holt-Oram syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 746, Ghai 8/e p 413)Discussing about the options one by one,Name of the syndromeClinical featuresa. Lesch-Nyhan syndromeHyperuricemia, intellectual disability, dystonia, choreoathetosis, spasticity, dysarthric speech and compulsive self-biting, usually beginning with eruption ...
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medmcqa_train
Coronary ligament is present between ?
A i.e., Meniscus & tibial condyle
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A schizophrenic patient staed on haloperidol 2 days back, comes with complaints of toicollis and Orofaciolingual movements. What is the diagnosis?
Facial grimacing , tics, muscle spasm , protruding tongue and similar involuntary movements can occur in first few days of staing anti psychotics . Parkinsonism maybe noticed in the first few weeks . Tardive dyskinesia develops after years of therapy. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed.
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Best to visualize corneal endothelium
Ans. b (Specular microscopy). (Ref. Parson Diseases of Eye/19th/pg. l 13)SPECULAR MICROSCOPY# It is vital to count and study morphology of corneal endothelial cells, especially in the cases of cataract with suspected endothelial dystrophy.# Normal cell count is 2000-2500 cells/mm2.# IOL implantation is contraindicated ...
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