query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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Persistent low C3 complement level is not found in | Ans. is 'a' i.e. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis In post streptococcal glomerulonephritis the serum complement level is decreased transiently (not persistently)They classically return to normal within 6-8 weeks.Persistently decreased complement level after this period should suggest another disease.Also knowMembra... | 19,300 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is/are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease except: | Answer- D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is most common extra renal complicationADPKD is characterized by the progressive bilateral formation of renal crisis.Inheritance- autosomal dominantCharacterized by multiple expanding cysts of both kidneys.In gross appearance, the kidneys are bilaterally enlarged.The pain may result ... | 19,301 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with diffuse petechiae and fatigue. Physical examination demonstrates lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly Laboratory findings include normocytic anemia (hemoglobin =6.1 g/dL) and thrombocytopenia (30,000/mL). Which of the following is the most lik... | In common with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and certain drug-induced thrombocytopenias, systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with increased platelet destruction due to immune-mediated damage and removal of circulating platelets (antibody-mediated platelet destruction). The other choices do not represent im... | 19,302 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements regarding streptokinase are true Except | Streptokinase is a 47-kDa protein produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci. It forms a stable complex with plasminogen, which is not inhibited by antiplasmin. A large loading dose is given intravenously to overcome antibodies that may be formed from prior streptococcal infections. Being a foreign protein it may rarely c... | 19,303 | medmcqa_train |
An infeile woman underwent hysterosalphingogram. It showed bilateral beaded tubes with enlargement at ampulla, The organism responsible is : | Tuberculosis | 19,304 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following follow transport maximum | i.e. (Glucose) : (331-Guyton 11th) (534-35-AK-Jain 4th)The overall transport maximum for the kidney, which is normally about 375 mg/min is reached when all nephrons have reached their maximal capacity to reabsorb glucoseTransport maximum for substances that are actively ReabsorbedSubstancesTransport MaximumGlucose375 m... | 19,305 | medmcqa_train |
In hemophilia, which of the following is raised:September 2007 | Ans. D: aPTTHemophilia A is a recessive X-linked genetic disorder involving a lack of functional clotting Factor VIII and represents 80% of haemophilia cases.Hemophilia B is a recessive X-linked genetic disorder involving a lack of functional clotting Factor IX. It comprises approximately 20% of haemophilia cases.Haemo... | 19,306 | medmcqa_train |
True about "Zero base budgeting" is? | Ans. (c) Proceeds from target to resourceRef: CIMA official Learning System Management According-Performance-p 209 | 19,307 | medmcqa_train |
Independent risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia are all except | Hypertension is not independent risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia causing AUB. | 19,308 | medmcqa_train |
Which muscle of larynx is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cricothyroid All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the reccurrent laryngeal nerve except cricothyroid which is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve | 19,309 | medmcqa_train |
Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Niacin | 19,310 | medmcqa_train |
Median nerve supplies which branch to the brachial artery- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sympathetic branch * 'Median nerve supplies vascular branches to the brachial artery in the arm. These fibres are sympathetic fibres'* Median nerve has no sensory or cutaneous branch in the arm. The only branches it gives off in the arm are sympathetic branches to the brachial artery. | 19,311 | medmcqa_train |
Not true obstructive sleep appoea | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Overnight oximetry is diagnostic to replace polysomnography Cardinal features in adults include: Obstructive apneas, hypopneas, or respiratory effo related arousals Daytime symptoms attributable to disrupted sleep, such as sleepiness, fatigue, or poor concentration Signs of disturbed sleep, such as sn... | 19,312 | medmcqa_train |
True about cardiac 02 demand is | Experimental studies have shown that oxygen consumption of the hea and the chemical energy expended during contraction are directly related to the external work Ref: Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology (12th Edn) page No:209 | 19,313 | medmcqa_train |
Aquaporins are not seen in: | Aquaporins are integral membrane proteins, expressed in different regions of the body. For example Aquaporin 1 and 2 are seen in the kidney, aquaporin 5 in lacrimal glands, aquaporin 9 in human leukocye, liver lung and spleen. Their main function is to transpo water across cell membranes in response to osmotic gradient... | 19,314 | medmcqa_train |
Tumor associated with tuberous sclerosis is/ are- | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. All the above Tuberous SclerosisAutosomal Dominant Neurocutaneous DisorderCutaneous FeaturesNeurological FeaturesOther Featureso Hypopigmented macules/Ash-leaf spots# Seen in >90% of cases.# Are small, ovoid, scattered and variable in number.# Larger lesions are known as 'Ash-leaf spots as these may h... | 19,315 | medmcqa_train |
Calabar swelling is produced by - | Loa loa/African eye worm The pathogenesis of loiasis depends on the migratory habit of the adult worm. Their wanderings through subcutaneous tissues set up temporary foci of inflammation, which appear as swellings, of up to 3 cm in size. These are the calabar swellings. They are called fugitive swellings, because they ... | 19,316 | medmcqa_train |
ROME III criteria is for? | Rome III criteria is for the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome(IBS). It is as follows: Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfo at least 3 days/month in last 3 months, associated with 2 or more of the following : * Improvement with defecation. * Onset associated with a change in frequency of stool. * Onset associated w... | 19,317 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is not a sign of early pregnancy? | Cullen's sign | 19,318 | medmcqa_train |
In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is? | Answer is C (Hepatic vein) Rudd chiari syndrome is characterized by post sinusoidal obstruction outside the liver at the level of hepatic veins. | 19,319 | medmcqa_train |
Osmolarity of ReSoMal in mmol/ litre: | Composition of ReSoMal is: Contents Mmol/ litre Sodium 75 Chloride 65 Glucose, anhydrous 75 Potassium 20 Citrate 10 Total osmolarity 245 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 202. Chapter: epidemiology of communicable diseases. | 19,320 | medmcqa_train |
True statement about H. pylori is | Helicobacter pylori are characterized by curved gram-negative bacilli, multiple polar flagella, microaerophilic, and urease activity.Clinical manifestations include Type B gastritis, gastric ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, gastric MALT lymphomas conjunctivitis, or gastroenteritis.It is transmitted fecal-oral route.The ... | 19,321 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice in scabies in pregnant woman is - | Topical Permethrin 5% lotion is DOC in scabies in pregnant woman. MOA of Permethrin: Acts on Na channels. Crotamiton 10% and Precipitated sulphur can also be used Gamma Benzene Hexachloride: C/I in pregnancy. Ivermectin: Systemic agent used only in most severe scabies. Benzyl benzoate: disadvantage is multiple applicat... | 19,322 | medmcqa_train |
The anti- acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies in myasthenia gravis reduce the number of available AChRs at neuromuscular junctions with which of the following mechanism ? | The anti-AChR antibodies reduce the number of available AChRs at NMJs by three distinct mechanisms: (1) accelerated turnover of AChRs by a mechanism involving cross-linking and rapid endocytosis of the receptors; (2) damage to the postsynaptic muscle membrane by the antibody in collaboration with complement; and (3) bl... | 19,323 | medmcqa_train |
Paranasal sinuses are affected by both benign and malignant neoplasms. Commonest benign tumour of paranasal sinuses are: | Osteomas are the most common tumors of the paranasal sinuses. They are most commonly seen in the frontal sinus followed in turn by those of ethmoid and maxillary. They may remain asymptomatic. Treatment is indicated when they become symptomatic. | 19,324 | medmcqa_train |
Not a grievous hurt -a) Emasculationb) Contusion over scalpc) Fracture of boned) Hurt which endanger lifee) Severe bodily pain for 15 days | Grievous injuries are:-
Emasculation (cutting of the penis, castration; or causing loss of power of erection due to spinal injury).
Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear.
Privation of any member (part, organ, limb) or joint.
Destruction or permanent impairing... | 19,325 | medmcqa_train |
The regional aerial resistance of the mesentery and kidney vessels is reduced by - | In hyperdynamic sepsis, the peripheral aeriolar tone and BP are low but the cardiac output is often high; therefore the vasoconstrictor noradrenaline (norepinephrine) is appropriate to restore BP, usually at the price of some reduction in cardiac output.In most cases, a vasoconstrictor such as noradrenaline (norepineph... | 19,326 | medmcqa_train |
Grevious injury includes all the following except : | D i.e. Disability to follow one's ordinary pursuits for a period of a week. | 19,327 | medmcqa_train |
True about nasal myiasis is? | In nasal myiasis, initially, the patient presents with epistaxis. On the fouh day, maggots crawl out of the nose and foul smell surrounds him. Can cause extensive destruction to the nose, sinuses, soft tissue of the face, palate and eyeball. Fistulae may form in the palate or around the nose. Death may occur from menin... | 19,328 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly female presents with the nasal blockade and nasal discharge with black debris. Blood sugar was raised and urine is positive for ketones. Best treatment for the patient would be:(AIIMS May 2013, Nov 2012) | Ans. a. Amphotericin B (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1350, 18/e p1661)This diabetic patient is most likely suffering from mucormycosis, in which there is involvement of peri-orbital region and visual impairment. I.V. Amphotericin BQ is the treatment most commonly used in all forms of Mucormycosis.Amphotericin B deoxycholate rem... | 19,329 | medmcqa_train |
A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastsizes to bones most often, is | In neuroblastoma,metastasis is present in 60-70% of children,usually to the skeleton(facial bones,skull),bone marrow,also to lymph nodes. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:617. | 19,330 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anaesthetic produces best uterine relaxation? | Halothane is the anaesthesia of choice for internal version and manual removal of placenta.
Halothane
Pharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes are abolished early and coughing is suppressed, while bronchi dilate. As such, halothane is the preferred anaesthetic for asthmatics. It inhibits intestinal and uterine contractions. ... | 19,331 | medmcqa_train |
Ventricular tachycardia is represented by all, Except | The criteria to diagnose a right bundle branch block on the electrocardiogram: The hea rhythm must originate above the ventricles (i.e., sinoatrial node, atria or atrioventricular node) to activate the conduction system at the correct point. The QRS duration must be more than 100 ms (incomplete block) or more than 120 ... | 19,332 | medmcqa_train |
In apoptosis, the nucleus is destroyed by | In H&E-stained tissue sections, the nuclei of apoptotic cells show various stages of chromatin condensation and aggregation and, ultimately, karyorrhexis (Fig. 1-21); at the molecular level this is reflected in fragmentation of DNA into nucleosome-sized pieces. Ref Robbins 9/e p 18 | 19,333 | medmcqa_train |
Bilateral metastatic ovarian tumor from gastrointestinal malignancies is known as: | Malignant tumors that metastasize to the ovary are almost invariably bilateral. The term Krukenberg tumor refers to a metastatic mucinous/signet ring cell adenocarcinoma of the ovaries that typically originates from primary tumors of the intestinal tract, characteristically the stomach. Ovarian metastases often represe... | 19,334 | medmcqa_train |
True about Egg:- | EGG: NPU of egg is 96. Egg is poor in carbohydrates and vitamin C. A 60 gm Egg contains 6 gm proteins, 6 gm fat, 30 mg calcium, 1.5 mg iron, 250 mg cholesterol and 70 Kcal energy. Contains all essential amino acids in correct propoions. | 19,335 | medmcqa_train |
Radioiodine 131 half life: | Ans. (a) 8 daysRef: Basics radiological physics 2nd ed. /180* Iridium-192, emits gamma rays. It has energy of 0.4MeV.* Tl/2 of iridium 192: 74 daysImportant Half Life of Radionuclides* Gold-198: 2.7 days* Iodine- 123: 13.3 hours* Iodine-131: 8 days* Phosphorus-32: 14.3 days* Yttrium 90: 64 hours* Cobalt-60: 5.26 years*... | 19,336 | medmcqa_train |
Use of GnRH analogue is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., PCOD GnRH agonists Long acting GnRH (LHRH) agonists causes reversible pharmacological orchiectomy (medical castration) and are used for precocious pubey, prostatic carcinoma, endometriosis, premenopausal breast cancer, uterine leiomyoma, polycystic ovarian disease and to assist induced ovulation. Supe... | 19,337 | medmcqa_train |
Sodium nitroprusside infusion may result in – | Sodium nitropruside has five cyanide groups with in its structure and Cyanide toxicity is a problem if it is used is in high doses. | 19,338 | medmcqa_train |
Man is the definitive host for - | Taenia solium passes its life cycle in two host Definitive host-man- which harbors infection Intermediate host-pig-which harbours larval stage (refer pgno:99 baveja 3 rd edition) | 19,339 | medmcqa_train |
Structure without any membrane is? | ANSWER: (C) NucleolusREF: Guyton's 11th ed ch:2Most organelles of the cell are covered by membranes composed primarily of lipids and proteins.These membranes include the cell membrane, nuclear membrane, membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum, and membranes ofthe mitochondria, lysosomes and Golgi apparatus.The nuclei of ... | 19,340 | medmcqa_train |
A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following, EXCEPT: | A child can make a tower of 2 cubes by 12-20 months and 5 cubes by 16-24 months. He can stand alone, pick up things using thumb and index finger, and can play peek a boo. Ref: Essential Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 46; R. A. in Pediatrics Spl. Vol. 19 Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrics by ... By Jaype... | 19,341 | medmcqa_train |
The central pa of cholesteatoma contains which of the following? | Cholesteatoma consist of two pas: 1. Matrix is made up of keratinizing squamous epithelium resting on a thin stroma of fibrous tissue. 2. The central pa consists of keratin debris produced by matrix. For this reason, it has also been named epidermis or keratoma. Ref: PL Dhingra 7th edition of Ear, Nose and Throat; Pg n... | 19,342 | medmcqa_train |
Most common tumor in hand - | "Enchondromas are most common type of hand tumor". -- Orthopaedics oncology.
Phalanges of hand are involved most commonly and the proximal phalanx is the most common site. | 19,343 | medmcqa_train |
25 year old female patient is referred from a PHC with history of expanding vulvar mass, during first hour post partum. She delivered normally and without perineal laceration. She complains of severe pain. On examination her BP is 90/40 mmHg, pulse = 130bpm and no fever. what is your approach in treatment of patient | Severe pain and expanding hematoma are indication of immediate surgical exploration. | 19,344 | medmcqa_train |
T-lymphocytes: September 2004 | Ans. B i.e. Are responsible for cell mediated immunity | 19,345 | medmcqa_train |
Fetal pulmonary maturity can be evaluated by phospholipid activity in amniotic fluid. In which of the following pregnancies does the fetus have the least chance of developing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? | - The presence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid reliably indicates lung maturation. This also is the 'Final indicator of pulmonary' maturity. - PG is present only in option 4 thus fetus have the least chance of developing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in option 4 | 19,346 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following defines ARDS all except ? | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 259 | 19,347 | medmcqa_train |
Benedict test is for- | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Reducing sugar in urine o Benedict's test-Reducing sugars in urineo Fehling's test-Reducing sugars in urine TestsUsed foro Rothera's test (nitroprusside test)o Gerhardt's test (ferric chloride test)Ketone bodies in urine :- acetone and acetoacetateKetone bodies in urine :-acetoacetate.o Benedict's tes... | 19,348 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about cystic hygroma except - | Sabiston writes "Roughly 50% to 65% of hygromas prsent at birth, with most becoming apparent by the second year of life." | 19,349 | medmcqa_train |
Reflex hallucination is a pathological variation of which of the follwoing? | Reflex hallucination is a morbid form of synaesthesia. In a reflex hallucination a stimulus in one sensory field produces a hallucination in another. | 19,350 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is used in resuscitation - | 200 joules are given every 2 minutes after each cycle of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). During resuscitation, adrenaline (epinephrine, 1 mg i.v.) should be given every 3-5 minutes and consideration given to the use of intravenous amiodarone, especially if ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia reinit... | 19,351 | medmcqa_train |
Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Poor vision Zinc deficiencyo Important clinical features of zinc deficiency are :-# Dwarfism (growth retardation)# Diarrhea# Dermatitis# Hepatosplenomegaly# Iron deficiency anemia# Acrodermatitis enteropathica# Decreased immunocompetance# Poor wound healing# Hyperpigmentation# Hypogonadism# Perioralra... | 19,352 | medmcqa_train |
Predisposing factor for venous thrombosis ? | Ans. is All o Antithrombin (AT III), Protein S & protein 'C' deficiency cause venous thrombosis. o Dysfibrinogemia causes venous and aerial thrombosis. Distinguishing features of Aerial and venous thrombi. Feature o Blood flow o Sites o Thrombogenesis o Development o Propagation o Macroscopy o Microscopy o Effects o Em... | 19,353 | medmcqa_train |
Medium chain fatty acids | Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry 8th Edition Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, Rana Shinde page no: 392-396 | 19,354 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following test is sensitive for ketones in urine? | Nitroprusside tube test is also known as modified Rothera's test. | 19,355 | medmcqa_train |
Cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma | t (x,18) is seen in synovial cell sarcoma and it produces fusion genes like SS18-SSXl-SSX2-SSX4 | 19,356 | medmcqa_train |
The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because: | Blood in the vessels do not clot because of two reasons: 1. Endothelial membrane is coated by highly charged polysaccharide called glycocalyx. Due to its high density glycocalyx contribute to the non thrombogenic propeies of surface of intact epithelium. 2. The luminal surface of the endothelium is smooth. Ref: Grays A... | 19,357 | medmcqa_train |
All of these are required for digestion of dietary fata) Bile pigmentsb) Gastric lipasec) Colipased) Bile saltse) Pancreatic lipase | Enzymes required for fat digestion
- Pancreatic lipase
- Colipase
- Bile salts activated lipase
- Cholesterol ester hydrolase
- Phospholipase A2
- Trypsin (Indirect)- Activates Procolipase to colipase
Lingual and gastric lipase doesn’t help much in fat digestion. | 19,358 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following components is not considered in the definition of 'Metabolic Syndrome'? | Ref: KV Krishna Das - Clinical Medicine 4th Edition pg no:29 The combination of abdominal obesity with metabolic risk factors such as hyperglycemia and dyslipidemia and hypeension is termed "metabolic syndrome" | 19,359 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not true regarding viopsy:- | Viopsy (combination of 'viual' and 'autopsy' ) Viual autopsy is a bloodless and minimally invasive procedure to examine a body for cause of death. Utilizes CT and MRI, 3-D optical measuring techniques and photogrammetry Functional abnormalities cannot be assessed To get a reliable, accurate geometric presentation of al... | 19,360 | medmcqa_train |
Following are used in the treatment of acute gout except | The mainstay of treatment during an acute attack is the administration of anti-inflammatory drugs such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine, or glucocoicoids. Urate-lowering drugs are generally not initiated during acute attacks but after the patient is stable and low-dose colchicine has been in... | 19,361 | medmcqa_train |
Out of the following the true statement regarding sterlization is : | Hot air oven : It is the most widely used method of sterilization by dry heat.
Holding period of 1600C for 1 hour is used to sterilize glasswares, forceps, scissors, scalpel, all glass syringes, swabs, liquid paraffin, dusting powder, fat and grease.
Bacterial vaccines are best sterilized by ‘Filters’.
Flash method inv... | 19,362 | medmcqa_train |
Conn's syndrome is associated with all, except - | hypeension due to sodium reabsorption, hypokalemia due to increased body depletion , muscle weakness due to due to potassium depletion( Harrison 17 pg 2260) | 19,363 | medmcqa_train |
Transfer of genetic material by direct physical contact is bacteria in called? | Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Surinder Kumar pg. 530* Lysogeny does not affect bacterial metabolism. The prophage behaves likes segment of host chromosome and replicates synchronously by binary fission.* Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact an... | 19,364 | medmcqa_train |
Contraindications of laryngeal mask airway are all except | LMA is used when difficult intubation is anticipated. | 19,365 | medmcqa_train |
Post traumatic avascular necrosis is seen all of the following fractures except? | Avascular necrosis is commonly seen in Fracture femoral neck, fracture neck of talus, fracture waist of scaphoid and lunate, fracture neck of talus. Ref: Maheshwari, 3rd Edition, Pages 40-41 | 19,366 | medmcqa_train |
Femtolasik provides all the advantage over conventional microkeratome based laser except | Femtolaser is photodisruptive laser and not photocoagulative LASER ADVANTAGES OF FEMTOLASIK a.Less incidence of flap related complications b.Less incidence of dry eyes c.Can be done in thinner corneas as flap thickness is lower d.Reduced risk of infections e.More stable results | 19,367 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin-dependent entry of glucose is seen in | GLUT -4 transpoer is present in striated muscles in the heaGLUT-4 is an insulin-regulated glucose transpoerInsulin promotes the translocation of intracellular Glut4 molecules to the cell surfaceRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 107 | 19,368 | medmcqa_train |
Ketone body production occurs in? | Ketogenesis Acetoacetate is the primary ketone body while beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetone are secondary ketone bodies. They are synthesised exclusivelyby the liver mitochondria.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 143 | 19,369 | medmcqa_train |
In a post operative case of early stage endometrial cancer, radiation is advised in | MANAGEMENT OF EARLY DISEASESURGERYMinimally invasive simple hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Peritoneal cytologySentinel lymph node mapping POST OPERATIVE RADIOTHERAPYSTAGEGRADE 1/2GRADE 3Stage IAObservationIVStage IBIVIM versus IV + CTStage II IV IM versus IV + CTStage IIIMIM versus IV + CTIV: Intrava... | 19,370 | medmcqa_train |
tRNA molecules vary in length from | tRNA molecules vary in length from 74 to 95 nucleotides, like many other RNAs, are also generated by nuclear processing of a precursor molecule.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 34; Nucleic Acid Structure & Function | 19,371 | medmcqa_train |
Paial closure of nose is done in which condition:- | Atrophic Rhinitis:Atrophic chronic inflammatory disease characterized by progressive atrophy of the nasal mucosa and the underlying bone of the turbinates associated with excessive crusting which leads to nasal obstruction. Sx- Young's operation: Closure of both the nostril following elevation of the nasal vestibular f... | 19,372 | medmcqa_train |
Morbilliform eruptions is seen in – a) Scarlet feverb) Rubellac) Toxic shock syndromed) Measlese) Mumps | Viral infections causing nzorbilhform eruptions are measles, rubella, erythema infectiosum, EBV, CMV, adenovirus, echovirus, early HIV, coxasackie virus.
Scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome cause scarlatiniform eruption. | 19,373 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is most common complication of celiac plexus block aEUR' | Hypotension The most common complication of celiac plexus is postural hypotension which is largely due to blockade of the lumbar sympathetic chain. Celiac plexus The celiac plexus is situated retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen. It is at the level of T12 and L1 veebrae, anterior to the crura of the diaphragm. It is ... | 19,374 | medmcqa_train |
Lord's and Jaboulay's operation is done for:March 2011 | Ans. D: HydroceleProcedures for acquired hydroceles:Lord's operation is suitable when the sac is reasonably thin walledEversion of the sac with placement of the testis in a pouch prepared by dissection in the fascial planes of the scrotum is an alternative (Jaboulay's procedure) | 19,375 | medmcqa_train |
Mummification is enhanced by - | Mummification requires absence of moisture and continuous action of dry and warm air. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 87. | 19,376 | medmcqa_train |
Cell wall of fungi does not contain | Cell wall of fungi contain-chitin,mannan,polysaccharides.
Cytoplasmic membrane contains sterols | 19,377 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statement is TRUE about testis? | Gubernaculum is either a pair of folds of peritoneum that attach to the caudal end of the gonads (testes in males and ovaries in females). Toward the end of fetal development, the testis begins its descent from the abdomen to the scrotum. The peritoneum covering the testis becomes the processus vaginalis, and the guber... | 19,378 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve (V3)? | MANDIBULAR NERVE DIVISION: TRUNK- 1.Meningeal 2.Nerve to medial pterygoid supplies; tensor veli palatini,tensor tympani,medial pterygoid ANTERIOR DIVISION- 1.Deep temporal 2.Lateral pterygoid 3.Masseteric 4.Buccal; skin of cheek POSTERIOR DIVISION- 1.Auriculotemporal:auricular,superficial temporal,aicular to TMJ,secret... | 19,379 | medmcqa_train |
Plunging goitre is | Refer Robbins page no 1092 Multinodular goiters are multilobulated, asymmetrically enlarged glands that can reach weights of more than 2000 gm. The pattern of enlargement is quite unpredictable and may involve one lobe far more than the other, producing lateral pressure on midline structures, such as the trachea and es... | 19,380 | medmcqa_train |
Cell wall synthesis is inhibited by all of the following, EXCEPT: | Tetracyclines act by inhibiting the protein synthesis and they do not inhibit the cell wall synthesis. Antibiotics that act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis are Penicillins Cephalosporins, Cycloserine, Vancomycin and Bacitracin. Ref: KDT, 6th Edition, Page 668; Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 6th E... | 19,381 | medmcqa_train |
Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except | . | 19,382 | medmcqa_train |
Absent swallow tail sign is seen in | SWALLOW TAIL SIGN: The Swallow tail sign describes the normal axial imaging appearance of nigrosome-1 within the substantia nigra on high resolution T2*/SWI weighted MRI. Absence of the sign (absent swallow tail sign) is repoed to have a diagnostic accuracy of greater than 90% for Parkinson disease. Figure showing norm... | 19,383 | medmcqa_train |
Which pathogens adhere to respiratory epithelium - | RSV was obtained from children with lower respiratory tract infection.Because ut caused cell fusion and the firmation of multinucleated syncitia in cell cultures it was named RSV . REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:510 | 19,384 | medmcqa_train |
Marker for B lymphocytes | Ref immunology by Roitt 6/e p 29; 30; 19 ;9/e p191 CD 19,20,22 are main markers of human B cells .othersB cell markers are CD72 and CD78 | 19,385 | medmcqa_train |
Lignocaine can be used in all except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Convulsion o Lidocaine can be used in surface anaesthesia, infiltration anaesthesia, conduction block, spinal anaesthesia, epidural anaesthesia, intravenous regional anaesthesia (intravasular infiltration anaesthesia) and in arrhythmias (ventricular tachyarrhythmias). | 19,386 | medmcqa_train |
A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flow cytometery showed CD 19 positive, CD 5 positive, CD 23 negative, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positively comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. The most likely diagnosis ... | Answer is A (Mantle cell lymphoma) The given clinical profile is suggestive of mantle cell lymphoma as explained below. (Mean Age = 63 yrs) Mantle cell lymphoma Presents in the middle aged and the elderly Clinical profile - Painless lymphadenopathy - Splenomegaly - Occasional GI involvement | 19,387 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is:- | - Stomach is most common site of GIST. - MC benign tumor of stomach - Leiomyoma - MC malignant tumor of stomach - Adenocarcinoma - MC malignant gastric tumor that bleeds - Leiomyosarcoma - MC mesenchymal tumor of abdomen - GIST | 19,388 | medmcqa_train |
30 yrs female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axilary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was done, fuher treatment plan will be | Adriamycin based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen depending on.... Stage I & II breast cancers (Early invasive breast cancers) are managed by 1) Primary therapy for local management & 2) Adjuvant therapy Primary therapy consists of : - Mastectomy with assessment of axillary lymph node status (or modified radical mast... | 19,389 | medmcqa_train |
A 22-year-old primigravida notes absent fetal movement for 2 days. The fetus is delivered stillborn at 19 weeks' gestation. The macerated fetus shows marked hydrops fetalis and a large posterior cystic hygroma of the neck. At autopsy, internal anomalies include aortic coarctation and a horseshoe kidney. Which of the fo... | The findings listed are characteristic of Turner syndrome (monosomy X), which accounts for many first- trimester fetal losses. The hygroma is quite suggestive of this disorder. Fetuses with this finding are rarely live-born. Trisomy 18 can be marked by multiple anomalies, but overlapping fingers and a short neck are mo... | 19,390 | medmcqa_train |
Main highlight of IMNCI is ? | Ans. is `d' i.e., 0-5 years of age | 19,391 | medmcqa_train |
Osseocailaginous junction on the dorsum of nose is? | The intersection of the two nasal bones with the frontal bone is known as NASION. The junction of the lower end of the internasal suture with the lower cailaginous pa of the nose is a mid line I known as RHINION. ( Ref Cummings 6th edition, Pg no. 493 ) | 19,392 | medmcqa_train |
A multiparous woman delivered by a village dai (midwife) presents on the 22nd postnatal day with bleeding per vaginam with clost. On examination, the uterus is 14-16 weeks, the internal os is open, and there is bleeding through the os. The likely cause of this bleeding is - | Ans-C | 19,393 | medmcqa_train |
A 32 year old female presented with anxiety, palpitations, and diarrhea. Lab studies show elevated T4, TSH levels are low & increased long acting thyroid stimulating antibody titres. A diagnosis of Graves disease is made. But then the patient came to emergency with sudden onset of acute chest pain. CT angiography which... | Patients with Graves disease produce higher levels of T4, as a result they are mildly iodine deficient, thus T4 production is somewhat limited. Iodinated contrast reverses iodine deficiency and may precipitate worsening of hypehyroidism. It may make iodine-125 therapy less successful because thyroid iodine uptake is de... | 19,394 | medmcqa_train |
Gas gangrene is caused by: | Ans: B (Clostridium perfringens) Ref: Ananthnarayan R, Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press; 2(X)9. Pg. 251Explanation:Gas gangreneCaused byCl. perfringensCl. septic uniCl. odematieunsCl. sporogenesCl histolyticum (Aerotolerant anaerobe)Virulence factorsExotoxins - hemolytic... | 19,395 | medmcqa_train |
Contrasts used in USG: | C i.e. Sonavist Ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) It consists of microbubbles filled with air or gases, which acts as echo - enhancer by increasing acoustic impedence at the interface b/w gas & blood. The ideal USCA, should have:no biological effect with repeat doses. low : attenuation, blood gas solubility & diffusivi... | 19,396 | medmcqa_train |
Incidence of cord prolapse is least in : | Ans. is a i.e. Frank breech Cord Prolapse Cord prolapse is the condition where the umbilical cord lies below the presenting pa after rupture of membranes. In cord presentation, the membranes are intact. In occult cord prolapse the cord is by the side of the presenting pa, but not felt by the examining fingers. Cord pro... | 19,397 | medmcqa_train |
A female who underwent laproscopic appendicectomy for acute appendicitis, on post op. day 2 bumped her nose on to a table. She developed difficulty in breathing and examination showed a swelling in the anterior pa of the nasal septum. Next line of management is: | Nasal septal hematoma is a rare but potentially serious complication of nasal trauma. The trauma allows blood to pass into both mucoperichondrial planes. Because the septal cailage has no blood supply of itself and receives all of its nutrients and oxygen from the perichondrium, untreated septal hematoma may lead to de... | 19,398 | medmcqa_train |
Which characteristic often distinguishes cardiogenic shock from hypovolemic shock? | C: Cardiogenic shock has a narrow pulse pressure while hypovolemic shock has a widened pulse pressure.
A: Options A, B, and D are all similar characteristics of the hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock. | 19,399 | medmcqa_train |
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