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Commonest cause of pulmonary embolism is: CMC (Vellore) 09
Ans. Thrombus
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Which of the following is observed during sleep induction?
The cholinergic neurons in pontine reticular formation on stimulation, induce sleep. When the activity of norepinephrine and serotonin containing neurons (locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei) is dominant, there is a reduced level of activity in acetylcholine-containing neurons in the pontine reticular formation leading to...
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Cherry red spot is seen in all of the following except
.
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BRCA 1 gene is located on chromosome
A BRCA mutation is a mutation in either of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which are tumour suppressor genes. ... Women with harmful mutations in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 have a risk of breast cancer that is about five times the normal risk, and a risk of ovarian cancer that is about ten to thiy times normal.
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A 32-year-old female is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnea, dysphagia, hoarseness, and severe anxiety. Her medical history reveals that she has lived on a liquid diet for some months and has lost more than 30 lb. Over the past several weeks, she has had bloody sputum during attacks of coughing. Fluorosco...
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes superiorly in the tracheoesophageal groove after looping around the aorta. The compression of this nerve and compression of the esophagus against the trachea would result in the presenting symptoms. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the right subclavian artery be...
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Most dietary deficiency of thiamine is the result of poor dietary intake. Thiamine requirement increases in excessive intake of:
Primary food sources for thiamine include yeast, organ meat, pork, legumes, beef, whole grains, and nuts. Milled rice and grains contain little thiamine, if any. Thiamine deficiency is therefore more common in cultures that rely heavily on a rice-based diet. Tea, coffee (regular and decaffeinated), raw fish, and shellf...
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Which of the following infectious disease is treated using multidrug therapy?
Among the options given in the question, multidrug therapy is indicated in the treatment of leprosy. Rifampicin, Dapsone and Clofazimine are drugs used in its treatment. Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi, 5e page 713.
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Preanesthetic medication is used for A/E :
B i.e. Decrease BP
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A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echo-cardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis-
*Onset of chest pain and breathlessness, together with echocardiographic evidence of right ventricular dilatation and tricispid regurgitation after a high risk procedure like total hip replacement suggests a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. REF:Campbell's 11th/e Chapter-7
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Treatment of Thyroid crisis are all EXCEPT
C i.e. (Iodine) (714 - CMDT- 09) (2237- H17th) (988 - 09)THYROTOXIC CRISIS OR THYROID STORM* Presents as life threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism* Fever, delirium, seizures, coma, vomiting, diarrhea and jaundice* Mortality rate due to cardiac failure, arrhythmia or hyperthermia* Precipitating factors, acute ill...
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True about Propagated epidemic is following Except
A propagated epidemic is most often infectious origin and results from person to person transmission of an infectious agent.The e[idemic usually shows a gradual rise and tails off over a much longer period of time.The speed of spread depends upon herd immunity, oppounities for contact and secondary atttack rate.Park 23...
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Intermediate filaments in muscle cells
Intermediate filaments are used as tumor markers Epithelial cells:keratin Muscle cells:desnin Nucleus:lamin Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:8,9,14
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Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase are typical findings in each of the following conditions EXCEPT-
ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE. Serum alkaline phosphatase is produced by many tissues, especially bone, liver, intestine and placenta and is excreted in the bile.
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Central macular fixation develops at
The critical period of developed of fixation reflex is 5-6 months of age.This is the reason why unilateral cataracts in children should be operated early.Remember - Binocular vision develops at 5-6 years.
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Action of topoisomerase III ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Single strand breakTopoisomerase I Removes negative supercoiling.Topoisomerase II Relaxes positive supercoils and forms negative supercoiling by condensation. of chromosome.Topoisomerase III Can introduce single strand breaks during recombination that are required for DNA to be exchanged by adjacent c...
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Hemiplegia is most commonly due to Occlusion Of?
The MCA is the most common site for the occurrence of ischemic stroke. Contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory loss of the face, upper and lower extremities is the most common presentation of MCA syndrome Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2234
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The use of porcelain laminates is indicated for:
All other options are relative contraindications of porcelain veneers.
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All of the following are features of acute nongranulomatous iridocyclitis except:
Ans. Minimal aqueous flare
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T/t used for lower ureteric stone is
Ans is 'a' ie Endoscopic removal Best modality of t/t for ureteric stone is - Ureteroscopic removal.There are other methods alsoEndoscopic Dormia basket - can only be used for small stones that are within 5-6 cm of the orifice.This has been replaced by ureteroscopic technique.Endoscopic Meatotomy - this is for removal ...
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A multipara patient was brought to the emergency with signs and symptoms of small bowel obstruction. After resuscitation, X-ray was performed and the findings are given below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
X-ray: kidney- Bean sign | Cecal volvulus Cecal volvulus: Misnomer Ileoceco-colic volvulus Small bowel obstruction S/S Predisposing factors: Multiparity Ligament dividing Sx - for mobile cecum Malrotation Distal obstructing lesion X-ray findings Kidney bean sign Comma shaped cecum Mx: Ileocolectomy + Ileotransverse ana...
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Drug of choice for treatment of chloroque resistant falciparum malaria-
Ans. is None o Aemisinin base combinations are DOC for chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria. o If you will have to choose one option, go ahead with option 'a' i.e. quinine, as quinine can be used along with doxycycline if aemisinin based preparations are not available. Remembers very simple funda o Forget about chl...
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Incision for superficial parotidectomy:-
Incision for superficial parotidectomy is S-shaped. Parotidectomy: The most commonly used incision is the 'lazy S' pre-auricular-mastoid-cervical. Name of incisions for parotidectomy: Lazy 'S', modified Blairs or Sistrunk incision
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All are reduced in Iron deficiency anaemia EXCEPT:
Ref: Robbins E- Book P 454Iron deficiency anaemia has all parameters reduced except Total iron binding capacity. Iron deficiency anemiaHematocrit| to |||MCV| to |||MCHC|Serum iron| to |||Serum TIBCNormal to | Serum ferritin| to ||Stainable iron in marrowAbsentReticulocytesNormal to |
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Lyme disease is caused by:
Ans. (b) Borrelia BurgdorferiRef.: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /377, 379, 381* Causal agent of lyme disease: Borrelia Burgdorferi (I.P. 3 to 30 days)# Vector: Ticks* Lyme disease occurs in 3 stages:# Stage 1: localized infection, appears an annular skin lesion (Erythema Migrans)# Stage 2: dissemi...
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Which is the most common cranial nerve involved in raised ICP?
A-Abducens= Longest subarachnoid course(so whenever ICP will raise abducens nerve will affect first) B-Trochlear=Longest intracranial route, thinnest, only nerve has dorsal origin C- Trigeminal=Thickest nerve D-Facial= Longest intraosseous route
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By estrogen administration in a menopausal woman, which of the following is increased?
Hormone therapy reduces the rate of bone resorption and results in an increase in bone mass density (BMD). Estrogen therapy acts the inhibition of bone resorption. Both BMD and fracture rate are improved with estrogen therapy. However, with cessation of estrogen therapy, there is a rapid and progressive loss of bone mi...
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Which one of the following is found on the crown of permanent mandibular first molars but is not found on the crowns of mandibular second molars?
DB developmental groove is not found on mandibular second molars.
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Which of the following is the diagnosis for a condition having mutation in COL4A5 chain?
COL4A5 chain represents the a5 chain of collagen type IV. It is associated with the development of Alpo Syndrome.
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A patient presented with hemoptysis and persistent cough. The chest X-ray of the patient was normal. The next best investigation is?
* For most patients, the first step in evaluation of hemoptysis should be a standard chest radiograph. * If lesion is not seen then a high resolution CT chest should be done for visualization of lesion . * If all of these studies are unrevealing, bronchoscopy should be done .
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Autosplenectomy occurs in:
b. Sickle cell anemia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2336, Ghai 8/e p 345)Patients of sickle cell anemia may undergo auto-splenectomyQ due to multiple infarcts in splenic artery, that causes spleen to be reduced to fibrous tissue (splenic atrophy spleen may become non-palpable).
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Third generation IUCD ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mirena
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Saturnism is a feature of?
Ans. (b) Lead poisoningRef. Parikh 6/e, p 9.18
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Which of the following is known as suicidal enzyme? (AIIMS November 2013, May 2013)
Ans. b. Cyclooxygenase (Ref: Harper 27/e p204 Harrison 18/e p146Cyclooxygenase is a suicidal enzyme.Suicidal enzyme is one. which undergoes self-destruction in order to terminate its own acitivity. e.g. Cyclooxygenase.Switching off of prostaglandin activity is partly achieved by a remarkable property of cyclooxygenaseQ...
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Compound microscope was invented by: September 2004
Ans. C i.e. Robe Hook
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Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes poor in enzymes is secreted in response to :
C i.e. Secretin
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Metabolism of drugs is mostly done by which enzyme-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome P450 o Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified :A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions# Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by:1. Oxidation2. Reduction3. Hydrolysis4. Cyclization5. Decyclization# The new metabolite may retain biological activity o...
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Hard chancre is seen in?
Ans. b (Syphilis). (Ref. Harrison, Internal Medicine, 15th ed., 845, 990, 1045, 1191 and 1220).Chancres are seen in chancroid, syphilis, tularemia, African trypanosomiasis and few other parasitic diseases. SyphilisChanchroid1PapulePustule2Usually singleUsually multiple, coalesce35-15 mm diameterDiameter variable4Sharp ...
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STEPS is for -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Non-communicable disease STEPS risk factorso The WHO STEPwise approach to surveillance of non-communicable diseases risk factors (STEPS) was developed by WHO as a part of a global surveillance strategy in response to the growing need for country-level trends in non-communicable diseases.o By using sam...
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Cause of myringosclerosis ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Grommet inseion Tvmpanosclerosis Tympanosclerosis is a condition in which there is calcification of tissue in the eardrum (tympanic membrane) and middle ear. Tympanosclerosis may be classified as : - Myringosclerosis : - Involving only the tympanic membrane. Intratympanic tympanosclerosis : - Involvin...
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Site of lesion affecting V, VI & VII cranial nerve
B. i.e. Pons- 3rd & 4thQ cranial nerve attach to mid brain; 5th Q c.n. to pons; 6t1, 71), & gth Q to junction between pons & medulla; 9th, 10th, 11th, & 12th Q attach to medullaAcoustic neuroma is most common cerebellopontine angle tumorQ. 5th nerve is the earliest nerve to be involved.Q f/b gth, 9th, 10th, 6th, 7th et...
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Which is inhibitor to cytochrome oxidase?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cyanide Inhibitors of Electron transport chain (Respiratory chain)o Complex I:- Barbiturates (amobarbital), piercidin A, rotenone, chlorpromazine, guanithidine.o Complex II:- Carboxim TTFA, malonate.o Complex III :- Dimercapro!, BAL. actinomycinA, Naphthyloquinone.o Complex IV(cytochrome c oxidase) Ca...
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Patient is treated with dentrolene. All the following are adverse effects except:
- Central muscle relaxant - Used in malignant hypehermia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome etc- Cause respiratory muscle weakness - breathlessness- Chronic dantrolene use - liver dysfunction, kidney dysfunction- Bradycardia Dantrolene contributes to prolonged non depolarizing neuromuscular blockade, In addition to volati...
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The following is of serious pathological significance in infants –
An infant should gain weight progressively, except for the first few days of life. Liver, spleen and kidney may be palpable in normal newborn. ___________________ Nelson Sometimes trachea may be deviated from midline without any significance.
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In a patient with starvation for 72 hrs which of the following would be seen:
D i.e. Increased GluconeogenesisEnergy is derived mainly from glycogenolysis (initial few hours) -gluconeogenesis (upto 72 hours) -*Degradation of fast (3 days - 2weeks) -*Break down of tissue protein (last 1 weeks)Q
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The leukotriene receptor antagonist used in bronchial asthma is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zafirleukast
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Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by:
Answer is B (HBs Ag + HBe Ag) HBe Ag: Its principal clinical usefulness is an indicator of relative infectivity - Harrison HBs Ag: Its presence in serum indicates infection /pervious vaccination with hepatitis B virus. HBs Ag Anti- HBsAg Anti Hbe HBe Ag Anti-Hbe Acute HBV infection High infectivit - IgM + - Chronic HBV...
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'Amount of liquor is maximum at :
36-38 weeks
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All of the following statements hold true for melanoma of vulva except :
Melanoma of vulva accounts for 3-5% of all vulval tumors It may arise de novo,but some arise from a pre-existing juctional naevus. occur frequently on clitoris or labia minora have poor prognosis Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no: 292,293
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Tzank smear is done for all except
Tzanck smear is a bedside test. It enables cytodiagnosis in vesicular and bullous lesions to demonstrate acantholytic or multinucleated cells. Acantholytic cells are keratinocytes which are large round cells with a dark central nucleus and peripheral condensed pink cytoplasm. These cells may be singular or in groups an...
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After taking a drug a patient developed some abdominal problem for which he consulted a physician, who adviced X-ray. X ray findings was radiopacity in bowel. Probably he might have taken A/E:
D i.e. Coicosteroid
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Which of the following produces VWF:
Ans. (A) Endothelial cells(Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 10th ed; Pg 489)Synthesis of VWF is large multimeric glycoprotein in blood plasma and produced constitutively as ultra-large VWF in endothelium (in the Weibel-Palade bodies), megakaryocytes and platelets (a-granules of platelet), and subendo...
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Epithelial lining of Baholins duct is :
Transitional Epithelium
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What is the term used for microbial killing by an antibiotic below its "Minimum inhibitory concentration"?
Post antibiotic effect refers to continued suppression of bacterial growth that persists after removal of an antimicrobial agent. When a drug has prolonged post antibiotic effect it may be effective against pathogens even during intervals between the doses when serum and tissue levels have dropped below MIC. Carbapenem...
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Female presents to gynaecological OPD with a complaint of cyclical pain, dyspareunia and infertility. The best investigation to establish the diagnosis would be-
Clinical features of infertility, dyspareunia, and cyclical pain (i.e. dysmenorrhea) are highly suggestive of endometriosis and the investigation of choice/ gold standard investigation for the diagnosis of endometriosis is laparoscopy. TVS is the mainstay for evaluating symptoms associated with endometriosis. It is acc...
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WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PA OF NEPHRON ?
Nephron - Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney and there are about 1-4 million nephrons in each kidney. The nephron consists of a renal corpuscle (or Malpighian corpuscle), and a long complicated renal tubule. Renal tubule is made up of three pas: The proximal convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, The di...
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Bird shot retinopathy is characterised by all except
Birdshot chorioretinopathy, also known as birdshot uveitis, birdshot retinopathy, or HLA-A29 uveitis, is an uncommon chronic posterior uveitis characterized by vitritis and multiple ovoid spots, which are orange to cream in color and hypopigmented Ref AK khurana 6/e p 280
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While analyzing a data, allocation into similar groups is done to ensure -
Both groups (study and control) should be comparable in respect of all the possible varibles, which may influence the outcome. So that, except for the factor under study will not influence the outcome → confoundation and bias can be minimized.
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Vestibular Schwannoma arises most frequently from:
Superior Vestibular nerve is the most common nerve of origin, followed by Inferior Vestibular Nerve.
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Sickle cell trait patient do not have manifestations as that of Sickle cell disease, because:
In Sickle cell trait, the patient is heterozygous and only one parent contributes the abnormal S gene. in each cell of these patients approximately 40% of the hemoglobin is HbS. The rate of sickling is influenced by the intracellular concentration of hemoglobin S and by the presence of other hemoglobins within the cell...
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A 1–month old baby present with frequent vomiting and failure to thrive. There are features of moderate dehydration. Blood sodium in 122 mEq/1 and potassium is 6.1 mEq/1. The most likely diagnosis is –
Blood parameters indicate Hyponatremia and Hyperkalemia in this patient. All conditions other than 21 hydroxylase deficiency present with Hypokalemia.
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Choose the false statement regarding proteoglycans:
Since the high fixed negative charge density of the proteoglycans allows them tohold enormous amounts of water. The amount of water depends on the amount of proteoglycans, which decreases with aging. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Edition, Page 118, 556, 557; Functions of the Proteoglycans By Ciba Foundati...
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In all of the following conditions exhumation is usually done, EXCEPT:
Exhumation is the digging out of an already buried body from the grave. Autopsies are performed on exhumed bodies: In criminal cases, such as homicide, suspected homicide disguised as suicide or other types of death, suspicious poisoning, death as a result of criminal aboion and criminal negligence. In civil cases, suc...
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Which of the following are not included in GCS-PA CT?
GCS-P GCS-PA CT - GCS-P Is calculated by subtracting the pupil reactivity score (PRS) from the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) total score: GCS-P = GCS - PRS - Pupil reactivity score represents the number of nonreactive pupils (0,1, or 2) - This number is subtracted from the GCS score (3-15), resulting in the GCS-P (1-15) Pup...
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The amount of fluoride in outer enamel is-
Amount of fluoride in the outer enamel is 2,200-3,200 ppm.
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The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector from which it originates should be:
An angle greater than 90 degrees fails to transmit occlusal forces, along the supporting vertical axis of the abutment tooth. This also permits slippage of the prosthesis away from the abutment, which can result in orthodontic-like forces being applied to an inclined plane on the abutment, with possible tooth movement....
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According to the Bismuth/Strasberg classification &; Cystic blow out&; is classified as
Strasberg classification  Class A: Bile leak from the cystic duct or an accessory duct showing continuity with the common bile duct  Class B: Section/injury of an accessory duct/sectorial ducts aberrant right hepatic duct with no continuity with the common bile duct with occlusion  Class C: Leak/open drainage from a...
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Most common site for Krukenberg tumour is :
Stomach
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Cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea :
All of the above
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Which of the following murmur increases on standing?
On standing: The venous return is going be reduced & there is decrease blood coming to the hea, therefore intensity of murmurs get reduced. E.g.: Valsalva, Amyl nitrate (Except HOCM: louder murmur; MVP: longer murmur) Note: All murmurs increase on doing sit ups, hand grip or exercise as there is increase of peripheral ...
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Disorientation occurs in
B i.e. Organic brain syndrome
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Which of the following is not a depressor of mandible
Depressors of mandible are :- Muscle of mastication : Lateral pterygoid (major depressor). Suprahyoid muscles : Digastric, mylohyoid, geniohyoid. Elevators of mandible are :- Muscles of mastication : Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid.
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Laryngoscopes are sterilized by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glutaraldehyde Laryngoscope should be cleaned before and after use with spirit. Disinfection can be done once a day by removing the bulb and immersing the blade in 2% cidex (glutaraldehyde) for 10 minutes. They should be sterilized once a week by immersing in cidex for 10 hours or by autoclaving.
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Non granulomatous uveitis- all are causes except
Answer- B. Sarcoidosis
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Blockade of Central Retinal Artery leads to temporary blindness is also known as:
(A) Amaurosis fugax > Amaurosis Fugax is transient ischemic attack of retina characterized by transient sudden loss of vision lasting for few minutes, due to occlusion by minute emboli. It may be a premonitory symptom of CRAO.> D/D of "cherry red" spot on fundus CRAO, blunt injury (Berhin's edema of macula), Tay-Sach's...
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P : O ratio for FAD is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1[?]5o The P : O ratio is a measure of the number of high energy phosphates (i.e., number of ATP molecules) synthesized per atom of oxygen consumed or per molecule of water is producedo The P : O ratio for oxidation of metabolites that yield NADH is 2[?]5 and the ratio for those that yield FADH2 is 1[...
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Laurence Moon Biedle syndrome -Associated with -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above [Ref: Harrison IS^/e p. 425\ Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is characterized by:o Obesityo Mental retardationo Retinitis pigmentosao Polydactylyo Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
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All of the following are histopathological findings of papillary carcinoma, except
Pathology Papillary projections Psammoma bodies (concentric calcifications) Pale empty (orphan annie) nuclei → FINELY DISPERSED CHROMATIN IMPARTS AN EMPTY APPEARANCE Intranuclear grooves and nuclear characteristics are diagnostic of papillary carcinoma Multifocality is common in papillary carcinoma TSH levels are hi...
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To distinguish between primary bacterial peritonitis from secondary peritonitis the following biochemical parameters in ascitic fluid has been used, EXCEPT:
Secondary bacterial peritonitis is the ascitic fluid infection caused by a surgically treatable intraabdominal source of infection. It can be divided into two groups 1. Those with free perforation of a viscus eg : duodenal ulcer perforation 2. Those with loculated abscess eg : perinephric abscess The characteristic asc...
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Leukocyte common antigen is:
Ans. (a) CD 45(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 590; 8th/pg 600; Wintrobe's 12th/pg 2522)CD 45Found in all hematopoietic cells except erythrocytes.CD45 plays an essential role in lymphocyte activation.Peripheral blood naive T cells are CD45RA, whereas memory (activated) T cells are CD45RO+
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Macrosomia is associated with :
Macrosomia is the term used to describe a large fetus. A bih weight at term 4000g or more is also considered as macrosomia in the Indian context. RISK FACTORS: Maternal diabetes is the most impoant risk factor. Maternal obesity Previous large baby Post-term pregnancy Multiparity In Maternal Diabetes, Fetal macrosomia w...
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True about screw feed technology
Screw-feed technology is the basis of a non-burn, dry thermal disinfection process in which waste is shredded and heated in a rotating auger.The waste is reduced by 80 percent in volume and by 25-35 percent in weight.This process is suitable for treating infectious waste and sharps. Should not be used to process pathol...
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True about pulmonary surfactant is
Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted into the alveolar space by epithelial type II cells. The main function of surfactant is to lower the surface tension at the air/liquid interface within the alveoli of the lung Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page n...
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Following are examples of dimorphic fungi, EXCEPT:
Dimorphic fungi refers to fungi that grow as yeasts or large spherical structures in tissue but as filamentous forms at room temperature in the environment. Examples of dimorphic fungi includes blastomycosis, paracoccidioidomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, histoplasmosis, and sporotrichosis. Yeasts are funguses which are s...
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What happens in hyperophy?
Hyperophy is an increase in the size of cells resulting in an increase in the size of the organ.Hyperplasia is characterized by an increase in cell number because of the proliferation of differentiated cells and replacement by tissue stem cells.Shrinkage in the size of the cell by the loss of cell substance is known as...
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In tuberculous synovitis of the hip joint the position of the hip is
.
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All the following are examples of health promotion except:
Ans: C (Chemoprophylaxis) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park, 22nd edition, page no 40-1Explanation:Health promotion is simply promoting health, i.e. actions done to improve the level of general health and well being, so that disease initiation process is prevented.These actions are not specific fo...
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Shock lung is characterized by which of the following
o Make it clear that shock lung is a synonym for acute respiratory distress syndrome, diffuse alveolar damage acute alveolar injury and acute lung injury. Shock lung = ARDS = Diffuse alveolar damage = Acute alveolar injury = acute lung injury Pahology i. Acute stage o The lungs are heavy firm, red and boggy and exhibit...
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All of the following are true for Yersinia pestis EXCEPT: March 2013
Ans. A i.e. Gram positive Yersinia pestis is sho, plump, Gram-negative with rounded end and convex sides.
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The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication the following ovarian tumours-
- pseudomyxoma peritoni is a term used to describe the presence of mucoid material in the abdomen and pelvis surrounded by fibrous tissue. - it can result secondary to a ruptured mucinous tumor of the ovary. Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no: 271 <\p>
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Main pa of surfactant is formed by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline Impoant glycerophospholipids are :? Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin):- These glycerophospholipids contain choline. These are most abundant phospholipids in cell membrane. Dipalmitoyl lecithin (dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine) is an impoant phosphatidylcholine found in lu...
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Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line antitubercublar drugs -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pyridoxin o Isoniazid reacts with pyridoxal to form a hydrazone, and thus inhibits gneration of pyridoxal phosphate.o Isoniazid also combines with pyridoxal phosphate to interfere with its coenzyme function. Due to formation of hydrazones, the renal excretion of pyridoxine compounds is increasedo Thus...
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All of the following effects the height of block in spinal anesthesia except
Explanation The gender of the patient is the factor that least affects the height of the neuraxial block, among the options given. Gender can affect the block height theoretically. The density of CSF is lower in women compared with men. Although this may affect relative baricity of local anesthetics, the clinical varia...
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Fishnet appearance in immunoflorescence is seen in: (Repeat)
Ans: A (Pemphigus vulgaris) Ref: Vesiculobullous disorders. In: Thuppa DM. editor Essentials in Dermatology, 2ndedn., New Delhi: Jay pee brothers medical publishers (P) Ltd 2009:114-26 Explanation:Pemphigus is an autoimmune blistering disorder characterized by autoantibody formation against the intercellular cementing ...
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Pre-renal azotemia is associated with one of the following characteristic feature :
Answer is A (Urinary Na+ < 10 mmol/litre): Prerenal azotemia is associated with a urinary sodium excretion of less than 10 mmol/L.
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Which of the following is true about Criggler Najar type 1?
Impaired bilirubin conjugation occurs in three genetic conditions: Crigler-Najjar syndrome types I and II and Gilbe's syndrome. Crigler-Najjar type I is an exceptionally rare condition found in neonates and characterized by severe jaundice (bilirubin >342 mmol/L ) and neurologic impairment due to kernicterus, frequentl...
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medmcqa_train
Complete restoration of tensile strength of the wound comparable to normal tissue takes as long as
o Tensile strength after wound healing never reaches to normal. The maximum strength achieved is 70-80% at the end of 3 month. Impoant Point maximum stregnth is achieved at the end of 3 months. (But this is never equal to the original strength)
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Which is the main contraindication for a liver biopsy?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coagulopathy Liver Biopsyo Liver Biopsy can be taken# Percutaneously# Via a blood vessel# Throught he abdomen during surgeryo Indications# Estimation of hepatic damage in chronic viral hepatitis# Hemochromatosis# Tuberculosis# Undiagnosed metastasiso Coagulation anomalies is the chief contraindication...
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All are produced by la receptors except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dysphoria
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Best assessment score in trauma patients:-
The S is currently the best most universal physiology trauma-scoring system used for triage purposes.
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What will be the effect on respiration if a transmission is made between the pons & medulla
B i.e. Irregular and gasping The main component of respiratory control pattern generator responsible for automatic respiration are located in the medulla. After transection of brain stem at inferior border of pons spontaneous respiration continues, albeit somewhat irregular and gasping.Q Whereas, transection at mid (up...
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