query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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In meiosis chromosome number is | .Ans b: (Ref: NCERT text book) | 6,100 | medmcqa_train |
Ocular manifestations of neurofibromatosis | Ocular - a,b,c
Cutaneous - cafe-au-lait spots to neurofibromota. | 6,101 | medmcqa_train |
Triple deformity of knee joint is seen in | TB KNEE has two stages. In late stage it shows TRIPLE DEFORMITY- Posterior Subluxation External Rotation Flexion Other condition showing triple deformity of knee-Rheumatoid Ahritis REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | 6,102 | medmcqa_train |
The rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age in which of the following age group (according to Crossner) | Crossner reported that in children from 5 to 15 years of age, the rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age, and boys have consistently higher rates than girls. Saliva substitutes, as well as fluoride and chlorhexidine rinses, are reported to enhance remineralization and promote resistance to deminerali... | 6,103 | medmcqa_train |
Following are radiological evidence of Achalasia cardia except not related -radiology | . | 6,104 | medmcqa_train |
Optic tract is related to : | B. i.e. Lateral geniculate body | 6,105 | medmcqa_train |
The T wave on an ECG tracing represents which of the events in the cardiac cycle? | The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization (i.e., conduction of the repolarization wave is slower than the wave of depolarization). The P wave represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria, and is usually 0.08 to 0.1 seconds ... | 6,106 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a specific risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Wood workers * Paranasal sinus cancer is uncommon and represents only 0.2 to 0.8% of all malignancies.* Cancer of paranasal sinus constitutes 3% of all carcinomas of the aerodigestive tract.* The majority of paranasal sinus malignancies (50-80%) originate within the maxillary sinus antrum. Malignancie... | 6,107 | medmcqa_train |
A pharmaceutical company develops a new antihypertensive drug. Samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12. One group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month; the other group is given a placebo according to the sa... | Here, a pharmaceutical company develops a new anti-hypertensive drug; samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12, and one group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month & the other group is given a placebo accordi... | 6,108 | medmcqa_train |
Chlamydia are isolated by : | Isolation of chlamydiae can done by :
Inoculationinto yolk sac/embryonated eggs of 6-8 day old chick embryo which may be pretreated by streptomycin or polymyxin
Inculation into experimental animals (mice)
Tissue/cell culture :
Preferred mode
Commonly used cell lines are McCoy and HeLa cells.
Cell cultures are pretreate... | 6,109 | medmcqa_train |
A 50 yr. old male presented with chronic breathlessness and intermittent jaundice. He denies smoking and alcohol abuse. Lung and liver specimens revealed the following findings respectively What is the most probable diagnosis? | The lung specimen reveals diffusive panacinar emphysema. The liver biopsy shows PAS positive diastase resistant deposits. Both the above clues point towards option C. - Option A hemochromatosis would show pearls stain on liver biopsy. - Cystic fibrosis would show bronchiectasis. | 6,110 | medmcqa_train |
Peripheral neuropathy can be as a side effect of all of the following anti-retroviral drugs, EXCEPT: | Peripheral neuropathy is a rare side effect of Lamivudine. Side effects of lamivudine are headache, fatigue, nausea, anorexia and abdominal pain. Predominant side effect of stavudine is peripheral neuropathy. Predominant side effect of Zalcitabine is peripheral neuropathy, other side effects asssociated with it are pan... | 6,111 | medmcqa_train |
Apical lung tumor causes | Apical lung cancer/ Pancoast tumor causes - 2deg neuron injury (Preganglionic sympathetic fibres) I/L horner syndrome (Cervical sympathetic chain and ganglion involved) Loss of sweating on same side of face 1deg sympathetic neuron injury occurs in Wallenberg syndrome 2deg sympathetic neuron (preganglionic fibers) injur... | 6,112 | medmcqa_train |
Recurrence is common in pleomorphic adenoma because of: | Pleomorphic Adenoma:
Local enucleation should be avoided because the entire tumor may not be removed or the capsule may be violated, resulting in seeding of the tumor bed. With adequate surgery the prognosis is excellent, with a cure rate of more than 95%. The risk of recurrence appears to be lower for tumors of the ... | 6,113 | medmcqa_train |
Drug used in alzheimer's disease are all EXCEPT: | Ans. (a) BiperidinRef.: Harrison 19th ed. / 2601-02Alzheimer's disease is most common cause of dementia.Drugs Used in the Treatment of Alzheimer's are:* Acetycholine esterase inhiitors:# Donepezil# Tacrine# Galantamine* Rivastigmine: Carbamate derivative of physostigmine* Memantine: NMDA glutaminergic antagonist* Biper... | 6,114 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an intermediate-acting local anaesthetic which is an amino amide causing methemoglobinemia? | Prilocaine causes methemoglobinemia, hence it is largely limited to dentistry. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Methemoglobinemia is more common in ... | 6,115 | medmcqa_train |
Multidrug therapy is given for | B i.e. Leprosy | 6,116 | medmcqa_train |
What is phacoanaphylactic Uveitis? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery o Due to cataract extraction or lens trauma, lens matter induces inflammation in the uveal tissue, called phacoanaphylactic/phacotoxic uveitis:# Phacoanaphylaxis/lens-induced uveitis occurs in the setting of a ruptured... | 6,117 | medmcqa_train |
Laryngeal papilloma- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Single; 'b' i.e., Multiple & 'c' i.e., Seen in children Laryngeal papilloma o Most common benign tumor of larynx Single or multiple irregular, wa like glottic masses. HPV-6 & 11 may be the causative factor. Treatment is with CO2 laser ablation. a-IFN and indole - 3 - carbinole may also be used. | 6,118 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug must always be available for emergency use in labour ward if a patient on opoid analgesia? | Opoids are used during labor for analgesia. It may cause newborn respiratory depression. Naloxane is a narcotic antagonist capable of reversing this respiratory depression | 6,119 | medmcqa_train |
Quincke's disease is | Angioedema is an area of swelling of the lower layer of skin and tissue just under the skin or mucous membranes.The swelling may occur in the face, tongue, larynx, abdomen, or arms and legs. Often it is associated with hives, which are swelling within the upper skin.Onset is typically over minutes to hours Ref Harrison... | 6,120 | medmcqa_train |
'Mission Indradhanush' includes all of the vaccines except: | c. Typhoid(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1246, 1292-1293, Ghai 8/e p 197-198)Mission IndradhanushIncludes vaccination against 7 life-threatening diseases (diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B) in the entire country | 6,121 | medmcqa_train |
Typhoid carriers harbor bacteria in | Salmonella typhi or Salmonella typhimurium can infect the gallbladder. Acute cholecystitis can occur. More frequently, chronic cholecystitis occurs, the patient becoming a typhoid carrier excreting the bacteria in the bile.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1202 | 6,122 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum tourniquet time for the upper limb is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1-1/2 hr. In experiment animals tourniquets have been retained for three hours without lasting ill effect but in practice an hour and a half is probably a wise limit. | 6,123 | medmcqa_train |
Preferred treatment in a 60years old patient with Maxillary carcinoma involving anterolateral pa of maxilla is | Treatment of maxillary carcinomas: Early cases with Stage I and II squamous cell carcinomas are treated with surgery or radiation with equal results. T3 and T4 lesions are treated by combined modalities of radiation and surgery. Radiation in such cases may be given preoperatively or postoperatively Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 2... | 6,124 | medmcqa_train |
Splicing Activity is a functions of | Sn-RNA is involved in RNA splicing.
Sno-RNA → r-RNA modification
mi-RNA & St-RNA → Regulation of gene expression
SP-RNA → RNA-interference (RNA i) | 6,125 | medmcqa_train |
In rheumatic hea disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to - | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161-162 Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve 2D Echo * The smallest size of vegetation that can be picked up by echo is 2 mm. * Transoesophageal echocardiography is... | 6,126 | medmcqa_train |
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Human herpes virus-8 Important virusesDisease causedo HHV-8Kaposi sarcomaoHHV-6Roseola infantum, multiple sclerosiso VZVChicken pox, herpes zostero EBVIMN, burkitis lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinomao Enterovirus-72Hepatitis Ao Coxsackie-AHerpangina, hand-foot-mouth diseaseo Co... | 6,127 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about acute acalculous cholecystitis except | Distended GB is seen in scintigraphy Cholescintigraphy demonstrates absent gallbladder filling in acalculous cholecystitis Acalculous cholecystitis Acute inflammation of gallbladder without stones Clinical features Similar to acute calculous cholecystitis Patients may present with only unexplained fever, leucocytosis a... | 6,128 | medmcqa_train |
. All of the following forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy except | Porphyria is a group of inherited disorders caused by defects in heme biosynthesis. Three forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy: acute intermittent porphyria (AIP), hereditary coproporphyria (HCP), and variegate porphyria (VP). The acute neurologic manifestations are similar in each, with the exc... | 6,129 | medmcqa_train |
True about subendocardial hemorrhages are all, except AIIMS 10; UPSC 11 | Ans. Involves the right ventricular wall | 6,130 | medmcqa_train |
Pulse deficit more than 10 is seen in- | Atrial fibrillation (AF or A-fib) is an abnormal hea rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atrial chambers of the hea.Often it stas as brief periods of abnormal beating which become longer and possibly constant over time.Often episodes have no symptoms. Occasionally there may be hea palpitations, f... | 6,131 | medmcqa_train |
Anti U1 RNP is a feature of: | MCTD | 6,132 | medmcqa_train |
Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfecting power Traditional testing of disinfectants Two traditional tests for determining the efficiency of disinfectants are :? 1) Rideal-Walker test : Phenol is taken as the standard with unit as phenol coefficient (pheno1=1) 2) Chick-Main test : The disinfectant acts in the presence of organic ... | 6,133 | medmcqa_train |
Feature (s) of DiGeorge syndrome is/are all except: | D. B cell defectDiGeorge Syndrome {Thymic Hypoplasia) Robbins 9th/24lDiGeorge syndrome is a T-cell deficiency that results from failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. The latter give rise to the thymus, the parathyroids, some of the C cells of the thyroid, and the ultimobranchial body. Thus,... | 6,134 | medmcqa_train |
The following are part of Hamstrings -a) Semitendinosusb) Semimembranosusc) Gracilisd) Short head of biceps femorise) Sartorius | Hamstrings
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- Long head of biceps femoris
- Ischial head of adductor magnus | 6,135 | medmcqa_train |
A person is having painless lymphadenopathy. On biopsy, binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area is seen. On IHC CD 15 and CD 30 were positive. What is the most probable diagnosis? | Ans. (a) Nodular sclerosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 606-611)Binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area refers to Lacunar cells.Lacunar cells are seen in the nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's diseaseLacunar cells have delicate, folded, or multilobate nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm that is often disrupt... | 6,136 | medmcqa_train |
Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dry tap (hypocellular) Myelofibrosiso The hallmark of primary myelofibrosis is rapid development of obliterative marrow fibrosis,o Myelofibrosis suppresses bone marrow hematopoiesis, leading to peripheral blood cytopenias.o This results in extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis in the spleen, liver an... | 6,137 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-years old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is – | Late complications of cataract surgery are cystoid macular oedema, retinal detachment, epithelial in growth, fibrous in growth, vitreous touch syndrome, after cataract.
Retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) presents with sudden painless loss of vision with floaters and photopsia. | 6,138 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following can cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease- | Ref: Parks 23rd edition Disease will be Prevalent so long it exist in the community. Longer the duration of the illness, longer will it persist in the community and hence higher will be its prevalence. | 6,139 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest thyroid tumor in MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia) - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary o Thyroid tumor is seen in MEN II, and is medullary carcinoma of thyroid. | 6,140 | medmcqa_train |
What is a placental cotyledon: | Functional unit of the placenta is called a fetal cotyledon or placentome,which is derived from a major primary stem villus. These stem villi pass down through the intervillous space to anchor onto the basal plate.About 60 stem villi persist in human placenta. Thus each cotyledon(totalling 15-29) contains 3-4 major ste... | 6,141 | medmcqa_train |
Thrombosis is initiated by | ref : robbins 10th ed | 6,142 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma | IOC - CECT.
IOC if renal vein or IVC involved - MRI. | 6,143 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following amino acid takes a role in detoxification of ammonia normally in the human body? | Ammonia is produced in the body during normal protein metabolism and by intestinal bacteria, primarily those in the colon. The liver plays a role in the detoxification of ammonia by conveing it to urea, which is excreted by the kidneys. Striated muscle also plays a role in detoxification of ammonia, which is combined w... | 6,144 | medmcqa_train |
Delusion of Nihilism and Early morning insomnia are characteristic features of - | Nihilistic delusion, insomonia and early morning awakening are seen in depression | 6,145 | medmcqa_train |
Reliability means - | Repeatability (reliability)
Repeatability means, the test must give consistent results when it is repeated more than once on the same individual under same conditions.
That means the results of test are precise (exact), So repeatability is some time called precision, reliability or reproducibility. | 6,146 | medmcqa_train |
A pregnant female has past history of embolism in puerperium. What medical management she should take in next pregnancy to avoid this | Ans. is b i.e. To take Warfarin after delivery Friends venous thromboembolism in pregnancy, is one of those topics which we donot study in detail during undergraduation. So, I am giving in brief, all the impoant points you need to remember : Venous thromboembolism in pregnnacy : Venous thromboembolism is the leading ca... | 6,147 | medmcqa_train |
A woman trying to get pregnant has a sister whose child has an autosomal recessive disease characterized by dysfunction of mucus-secreting cells. As a result, this child has abnormally thick mucus that tends to precipitate into dense plugs that obstruct the pancreatic ducts, bronchi, and bronchioles, as well as the bil... | The disease described is cystic fibrosis, which phenotypically presents with meconium ileus, deficiencies of pancreatic enzymes, pulmonary obstruction and infection leading to progressive pulmonary damage and ultimate respiratory failure. The most frequent mutation in this autosomal recessive disorder is a small deleti... | 6,148 | medmcqa_train |
Bacterial cell wall is composed of all except -? | Bacteria are usually single-celled, except when they exist in colonies. ... The major component of the bacterial cell wall is peptidoglycan or murein. This rigid structure of peptidoglycan, specific only to prokaryotes, gives the cell shape and surrounds the cytoplasmic membrane. Ref:Ananthanarayan & panikers Textbook ... | 6,149 | medmcqa_train |
A 27-yrs-old woman has been feeling low for the past 2 weeks. She has little energy and has trouble concentrating. She states that 6 weeks ago she had been feeling very good, with lots of energy and no need for sleep. She states this pattern has been occurring for at least the past 3 years, though the episodes have nev... | Cyclothymic disorder *Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with periods of hypomania. *This pattern must be present for at least 2 years (1 year for children and adolescents) before the diagnosis can be made. *During these 2 years, the symptom-free intervals should n... | 6,150 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is associated with hepatomegaly with liver pulsation? | Characteristic features of Tricuspid regurgitation are marked hepatomegaly and systolic pulsations of the liver. Hepatic pulsation in tricuspid regurgitation is caused by reversed systolic blood flow in the great veins. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 10; The Cleveland Clinic Cardiology Boar... | 6,151 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the follwing gas given off in a fire is most commonly known to cause metabolic poisoning? | Ans. B. CO. (Ref. Bailey & Love 26th ed. Pg. 386; Summary box 28.3)Metabolic poisoning in burns:# There are many poisonous gases that can be given off in a fire, the most common being carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion that is often produced by fires in enclosed spaces. This is the usual cause of a per... | 6,152 | medmcqa_train |
Roll back malaria programme focused mainly on ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Insecticide treated bed nets The main strategies of Roll Back Malaria initiative are : a) Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and community level. b) Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets. c) Ensure adequate access... | 6,153 | medmcqa_train |
Influenza vaccine cause ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Mild problems following inactivated flu vaccine: Soreness, redness, or swelling where the shot was given Hoarseness Sore, red or itchy eyes Cough Fever Aches Headache Itching Fatigue If these problems occur, they usually begin soon after the shot and last 1 or 2 days. Moderate problems fo... | 6,154 | medmcqa_train |
The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague - | - the reservoir of plaque is wild rodents, filed mice gerbils and skunks. - in India, the wild rodent Tatera indica is the main reservoir. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:293 <\p> | 6,155 | medmcqa_train |
A 35-year-old man developed headache, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat 8 weeks after returning from a trip abroad. He eventually refused to drink water and had episodes of profuse salivation, difficulty in breathing, and hallucinations. Two days after the patient died of cardiac arrest, it was learned that he had been... | Rabies is caused by a rhabdovirus, a minus-sense, single-stranded, non-segmented RNA virus with an enveloped, bullet-shaped virion). The virus infects a wide range of warm-blooded animals, including humans. The virus is widely disseminated within the infected animals, with high levels in saliva. If the animal is captur... | 6,156 | medmcqa_train |
A 22-year-old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestational age has a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine visit. . The patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Her repeat BP is 160/90 mm Hg, and urinalysis is negative for protein. Which of the following i... | Chronic hypeension is defined as BP >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation, or hypeension first diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and persistent after 12 weeks postpaum. The average prevalence of hypeension in women aged 18 to 39 years is approximately 5-7 percent. | 6,157 | medmcqa_train |
Height of children in 2-10 years of age is increased by- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 cm/year "After 4 years, the child gains about 5 cm in height every year, until the age of 10 years" -- O.P. Ghai. "An average child gains approximately 7-8 cm in height between the age of 2-6 years and 6-7 cm in height between 6-12 years". -- Nelson Amongst given option, 6 cm/year is the best answer... | 6,158 | medmcqa_train |
Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by: | Ans: B (Patch test) Ref: Eczema. In: Thappa DM. editor. Essentials in Dermatology, 2nd,edn.. New Delhi: jaypee brothers medical publishers (P) Ltd 2009:99-113. & Atopic dermatitis. Eczema and non infectious immunodeficiency disorders. In: James WD. Berger TG, Elston DM. editors. Andrew's diseases of the skin: Clinical ... | 6,159 | medmcqa_train |
Children with apathy, general weakness, loosening of the skin, marasmic features also has X3B Xerophthalmia features. Eye finding will be | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 470)X3A Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting less than a one-third corneal surfaceX3B corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting more than a one-third corneal surfaceXS corneal scar due to xerophthalmia XF Xerophthalmic fundus | 6,160 | medmcqa_train |
A perforated peptic ulcer is treated by all except | The most impoant component of the operation of perforated peptic ulcer is a thorough peritoneal toilet to remove all of the fluid and food debris. If the perforation is in the duodenum it can usually be closed by several well-placed sutures, closing the ulcer in a transverse direction as with a pyloroplastyIf the perfo... | 6,161 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used is - | calcium gluconate immediately antagonises the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, whereas the others are used to correct hyperkalemia. (reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19E page- 312) | 6,162 | medmcqa_train |
Trials stage for experimentation of adverse drug reaction in large scale population is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Long-term adverse effects on large number of patients -f Phase IV clinical trial. | 6,163 | medmcqa_train |
Blue vire technology is used in | VorTEX uses M wire NiTi | 6,164 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia? | drugs used for hyperkalemia- IV calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol, thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics New drug patiromer was recently approved for the treatment of hyperkalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:323 | 6,165 | medmcqa_train |
Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycated crytallins Diabetic cataract Senile cataract tends to develop at an earlier age and more rapidly than usual in diabetic subjects. The lenses of an adult diabetic are said to be in the same condition as a non-diabetic who is 15 years older. In diabetic adults, coin- pared to non-diabetics, cat... | 6,166 | medmcqa_train |
All the drugs have anti-androgenic effects except | Progesterone had mild androgenic effects except for 3rd gen progesterones which are devoid of androgenic effects Flutamide,nilutamide and bicalutamide are androgen antagonists. Finasteride and dutasteride 5 alpha reductase inhibiters Spironolatone is androgen receptor antagonist Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg 595 | 6,167 | medmcqa_train |
Whooping cough is caused by? | Ans. (b) B.pertisusRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-148 | 6,168 | medmcqa_train |
UPSIT is used for testing: | The University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT): A far superior test to other assessments is the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT). It is highly recommended for the evaluation of a patient with smell disorder. This test utilizes 40 forced-choice items that feature microencaps... | 6,169 | medmcqa_train |
A patient at 28 weeks pregnancy presents with low grade fever, malaise, vomiting since 1 week. On examination she is icteric, Her Hb is 10 gm%, bilirubin is 5 mg/dL, SGOT and SGPT at 630 and 600 with normal platelet count. Most probable cause of her jaundice is | Patient here has presented with prodrome of viral hepatitis. Investigations to diiferentiate various causes of jaundice in pregnancy are IHCP AFLP HELLP Viral hepatiis Bilirubin (mg/dL) 1-5, direct 2-10, direct <2 >5 SGOT/ SGPT <200 <1000 <500 500-3000 ALP Raised Normal Normal Normal/raised Platelets Normal low Low Nor... | 6,170 | medmcqa_train |
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is: | A i.e. Oral griseofulvin Tenia capitis is most commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans; and never caused by Epidermophyton as it does not involve hair. It presents with localized non-cicatrial (mostly) alopecia, itching, scaling with or without boggy swelling of scalp & easily pluckable hair. Tini... | 6,171 | medmcqa_train |
Causes of diffuse hyperpigmentation include all of the following except? | Busulfan administration Busulfan, cyclophosphamide, 5-fluorouracil, and inorganic arsenic induce pigment production and cause diffuse hyperpigmentation Nelson's syndrome Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to bilateral adrenalectomy Addison's disease Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to de... | 6,172 | medmcqa_train |
HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiform is: | Ans. C. HLA B8a. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a disease characterized by erythematous vesicular or bullous lesions and severe itching. The disease most commonly occurs between 20-40 years of age and men are more commonly affected. IgA is deposited in the reticular dermis of the uninvolved skin suggesting an immune etiol... | 6,173 | medmcqa_train |
Which virus can cause hemorrhage - | Adenovirus causes Acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children and generalized exanthem. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | 6,174 | medmcqa_train |
Residual volume of lung in an average adult male is: (Repeat) | AnsL C (1.2 L) Ref: Davidson, 21st ed, pg 651Explanation:Refer Medicine 2013 question explanation.TLC: Volume of air in the lungs following maximal inspiration ( N= 5-6L)FVC: Maximum amount of air exhaled following maxima] inspiration ( N= 4.8L)VT: Volume of air entering and leaving lungs during normal respiration ( N+... | 6,175 | medmcqa_train |
Most potent analgesic agent among following | Ans. a. Nitrous oxide above options, most potent analgesic agent is Nitrous oxide. "Nitrous oxide- 50:50 nitrous oxide and oxygen has revolutionized it as analgesic agent; it has been used as an analgesic agent in obstetric surgeries; dental procedures; in acute trauma; burn dressings and cardiac pain as well."- Wiley ... | 6,176 | medmcqa_train |
Stye is other name of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hordeolum externum o Acute infection of Zeis (Moll) glando Acute infection of tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)o Chronic infection of tarsal gland (Meibonium gland)-Stye (Hardoleum externum)- Hardoleum internum -Chalazion | 6,177 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, EXCEPT | (C) Negative symptoms PROGNOSTIC FEATURES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA GoodBadHistoryPrevious psychiatric HistoryNoPresentFamily HistoryNegativePositiveFamily History +ve ofMood disordersSchizophreniaPreuproid adjustmentGoodPoorWork HistorySteadyUnsteady / UnemployedMartial statusMarriedUnmarriedSocial SupportGood (High social cla... | 6,178 | medmcqa_train |
The carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by all, EXCEPT: | Many systemic conditions are strongly associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). These conditions may directly or indirectly affect microcirculation, pressure thresholds for nerve conduction, nerve cell body synthesis, and axon transpo or interstitial fluid pressures. Peurbations in the endocrine system, as observed... | 6,179 | medmcqa_train |
Tentative cut is a feature of? | D i.e. Suicidal attempt | 6,180 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test. The causative organism is : | Paul Bunell test is the standard diagnostic procedure of infectious mononucleosis which is caused by EBV.
Paul Bunell test detects heterophile antibody.
Paul Bunell test
In this test inactivated serum (56 0 C for 30 minutes) in doubling dilutions is mixed with equal volumes of a 1% suspension of sheep erythrocytes.
A... | 6,181 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of haemorrhoids is treated by the injection of sclerosing agent? | Injection sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice of internal hemorrhoids. It helps in reducing the size of the hemorrhoids and stop it from bleeding. A solution containing either quinine and urea or phenol is used as the sclerosing agent. Hemorrhoids are swollen veins around the anus and in the rectum that may protru... | 6,182 | medmcqa_train |
Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following | Ureteric injury has an incidence of 0.1-1.5% of all pelvic surgery The highest risk is for Weheim Radical hysterectomy since this surgery involves stripping of the ureteric fascia and that can compromise the ureteric blood supply and hence a devascularisation injury. | 6,183 | medmcqa_train |
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by: September 2012 | Ans. A i.e. Chlamydia | 6,184 | medmcqa_train |
X-ray proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is: | "Fibrous dysplasia of proximal femur has shepherd crook deformity". | 6,185 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the initial Imaging modality of choice for Insulinoma? | For PETs in the pancreas, EUS is highly sensitive, localizing 77-100% of insulinomas, which occur almost exclusively within the pancreas. Tests for location of pNET: Somatostatin Receptor Scintigraphy is the initial imaging modality but is less available. Helical CT scan has a sensitivity of 82-94%. Gadolinium based MR... | 6,186 | medmcqa_train |
Prostate is supplied by: | Ans: A (Sympathetic + Parasympathetic) Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 40th edition, pg.1245Explanation:The superior hypogastric plexus conveys the sympathetic nerves from the pre-ganglionic fibres are derived from LI and L2The parasympathetic fires are derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves which convey preganglionic fibres f... | 6,187 | medmcqa_train |
Consider the following statements about Jacuzzi syndrome and mark the true statement . | Jacuzzi syndrome :- It is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa This condition arises due to inflammation of hair follicles (haiub folliculitis). It is usually self limiting condition . It can be extremely painful or itchy condition . | 6,188 | medmcqa_train |
Resistance to ciprofloxacin is due to: | Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 1016* Ciprofloxacin is one of the fluoroquinolones along with norfloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, spartloxacin, etc.* MOA of quinolones: The quinolone antibiotics target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.* The quinolones inhibit gyrase-mediated DNA supercoiling at concentra... | 6,189 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse the irreversible step in glycolysis | Glycolysis Site of occurrence Cytosol Aerobic glycolysis Glucose - Pyruvate ; 8 ATP Anaerobic glycolysis Glucose - Lactate ; 2 ATPReaction occurring in aerobic conditions only Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate - 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate Inhibitors Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphateIodo acetate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Arsenite Enolase... | 6,190 | medmcqa_train |
All are affected in Graft-Versus host reaction : | Lung Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host. Graft versus host disease occurs most commonly in the settin... | 6,191 | medmcqa_train |
A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be: | B i.e. Atracurium You might be thinking that this Q has never been asked, but think a while and try to understand that around which concept the Q is based. In other words, they are trying to ask that which muscle relaxant will not require reversal? I think now you need no explanation - In pancuronium reversal is often ... | 6,192 | medmcqa_train |
Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in | Adenoidectomy contraindicated in 1. Bleeding disorder 2. Acute infection of upper respiratory tract 3. Cleft palate or submucous palate Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 431 | 6,193 | medmcqa_train |
Diagnosis in a ten year old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is | Nasopharyngeal fibroma/Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a major cause for recurrent epistaxis in adolescent males. It is testosterone dependent. Benign tumour but locally invasive Ref - PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat, 6th edition | 6,194 | medmcqa_train |
Watson-Jones approach is done for? | (d) Hip replacement- Watson-Jones operation is anterolateral approach to the hip joint.There are four commonly used approaches to the hip joint:- Anterior or Smith-Peterson- commonly used to access the hip in cases of suspected septic arthritis - Anterolateral or Watson-Jones- is used for hemi or total hip arthroplasty... | 6,195 | medmcqa_train |
A bullet fired form a gun is not released. It is ejected out with the subsequent shot. It is known as - | If during firing, the bullet remains in the barrel; during subsequent firing two bullets, one behind the other are projected out → called as Tandem bullet. | 6,196 | medmcqa_train |
To notify a slide as AFB negative minimum how many fields should be checked? ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., 100 | 6,197 | medmcqa_train |
N-myc gene amplification is seen in which of the following tumors? | N-myc amplification seen in neuroblastoma.
C-myc amplification - Burkitt's lymphoma
L-myc amplification - lung carcinoma | 6,198 | medmcqa_train |
Minimum angle of resolution when visual acuity is 6/6 | Answer-A. 1 min of arcVisual acuity is the first test performed after taking history.Measurement of the central visual acuity is essentially an assessment of function of the fovea centralis.An object must be presented so that each poion of it is separated by a difinite interval, known as minimum angle of resolution (MA... | 6,199 | medmcqa_train |
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