question
stringlengths
13
215
ground_truth
stringlengths
2
3.15k
context
stringlengths
0
157k
Which technique led to the elucidation of the role of HOXD10 in regulating lymphatic endothelial responses to VEGF-C?
DeepCAGE transcriptomics identify HOXD10 as a transcription factor regulating lymphatic endothelial responses to VEGF-C.
Author information: (1)Department of Chemistry and Applied Biosciences, Institute of Pharmaceutical Sciences, ETH Zurich, Zurich 8093, Switzerland. (2)Centre for Molecular Medicine and Therapeutics, Child and Family Research Institute, Department of Medical Genetics, University British Columbia, Vancouver, British C...
Is Obeticholic Acid used for treatment of Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
Yes, obeticholic acid is a farnesoid-X receptor agonist that is approved for the treatment of primary biliary cholangitis in combination with ursodeoxycholic acid in adults with an inadequate response to ursodeoxycholic acid, or as monotherapy in adults unable to tolerate ursodeoxycholic acid.
Obeticholic acid (Ocaliva(TM)) is a farnesoid-X receptor (FXR) agonist that is being developed by Intercept Pharmaceuticals for the treatment of various liver diseases, and has recently been granted accelerated approval in the USA for the treatment of primary biliary cholangitis in combination with ursodeoxycholic ...
What alternate indication has Vanoxerine been repositioned for?
Vanoxerine's effects were strongly frequency-dependent and we repositioned it for treatment of atrial fibrillation and flutter. Vanoxerine has been in clinical trials for Parkinsonism, depression and cocaine addiction but lacked efficacy.
INTRODUCTION: There remains an unmet need for safe and effective antiarrhythmic drugs, especially for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. Vanoxerine is a drug that is free of adverse cardiac events in normal volunteers, yet is a potent blocker of the hERG (hK(v)11.1) cardiac potassium channel. Consequently,we hyp...
What is the applicability of the No Promoter Left Behind method?
No Promoter Left Behind (NPLB) is an efficient, organism-independent method for characterizing promoter architectures directly from experimentally identified genome-wide TSSs, without relying on known promoter elements.
Promoters have diverse regulatory architectures and thus activate genes differently. For example, some have a TATA-box, many others do not. Even the ones with it can differ in its position relative to the transcription start site (TSS). No Promoter Left Behind (NPLB) is an efficient, organism-independent method for...
Which mutated genes are associated with isolated ectopia lentis?
Isolated ectopia lentis (EL) is caused by mutation in genes: 1) ADAMTSL4 and 2) Fibrillin-1 (FBN1).
Ectopia lentis is a genetically heterogeneous condition that is characterized by the subluxation of the lens resulting from the disruption of the zonular fibers. Patients with ectopia lentis commonly present with a marked loss in visual acuity in addition to a number of possibly accompanying ocular complications in...
Does the word ovine refers to goats?
Ovine refers to sheep.
Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma has been described in man and in several animal species, including cattle, dogs, opossums, goats and sheep. In sheep, a bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, known as ovine pulmonary carcinoma (OPC), is caused by jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus (JSRV), an exogenous type D retrovirus. In the mid-1...
Does GATA-1 regulate ribosomal protein genes?
Mutations in exon 2 interfere with the synthesis of the full-length isoform of GATA-1 and lead to the production of a shortened isoform, GATA-1s. These mutations have been found in patients with Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA), a congenital erythroid aplasia typically caused by mutations in genes encoding ribosomal prote...
The balanced growth of a cell requires the integration of major systems such as DNA replication, membrane biosynthesis, and ribosome formation. An example of such integration is evident from our recent finding that, in Saccharomyces cerevisiae, any failure in the secretory pathway leads to severe repression of tran...
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the fibrillin 1 gene (FBN1).
The Marfan syndrome is an autosomal domit connective tissue disorder with pleiotropic manifestations affecting skeletal, ocular and cardiovascular systems. Because the fibrillar collagens are major structural components of connective tissue, the hypothesis has long been set forth that the Marfan syndrome is a disor...
What is the indication of ARCALYST?
In February 2008, Regeneron received Orphan Drug approval from the Food and Drug Administration for rilonacept in the treatment of two cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) disorders, namely, familial cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome (FCAS) and Muckle-Wells syndrome (MWS), for children and adults 12 year...
Cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) are a group of inherited inflammatory disorders consisting of familial cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome (FCAS), Muckle-Wells syndrome (MWS), and neonatal-onset multisystem inflammatory disease (NOMID; also known as chronic infantile neurologic, cutaneous, articul...
What is ChIPpeakAnno?
ChIPpeakAnno is a Bioconductor package within the statistical programming environment R that facilitates batch annotation of enriched peaks identified from ChIP-seq, ChIP-chip, cap analysis of gene expression (CAGE) or any experiments resulting in a large number of enriched genomic regions.
BACKGROUND: Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) followed by high-throughput sequencing (ChIP-seq) or ChIP followed by genome tiling array analysis (ChIP-chip) have become standard technologies for genome-wide identification of DNA-binding protein target sites. A number of algorithms have been developed in parallel...
Signaling of which pathways is inhibited by Dupilumab?
Dupilumab, a fully human anti-interleukin-4 receptor α monoclonal antibody, inhibits interleukin-4 and interleukin-13 signalling. It is used for treatment of atopic or allergic diseases.
PURPOSE OF REVIEW: A small proportion of patients with asthma have severe disease characterized by persistent airflow obstruction, airway hyperresponsiveness and eosinophilic airway inflammation. This review focuses on the clinical efficacy of inhibiting T helper 2-cytokine-mediated inflammatory responses using mon...
Does the TOP2B/TOP2A expression ratio affect the response to AML chemotherapy?
High TOP2B/TOP2A expression ratio at diagnosis correlates with favourable outcome for standard chemotherapy in acute myeloid leukaemia Genes with distinct expression profiles such as TOP2B/TOP2A expression ratio at diagnosis can be employed for outcome prediction after the treatment with standard regimens in AML patien...
BACKGROUND: Cytosine arabinoside-based chemotherapy coupled with anthracycline is currently the first-line treatment for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), but diverse responses to the regimen constitute obstacles to successful treatment. Therefore, outcome prediction to chemotherapy at diagnosis is believed to be a cr...
List the three main structures of the cytoskeleton.
Fibrillar polymers-actin filaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments-are major constituents of the cytoskeleton.
The cytoskeleton is a complex of detergent-insoluble components of the cytoplasm playing critical roles in cell motility, shape generation, and mechanical properties of a cell. Fibrillar polymers-actin filaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments-are major constituents of the cytoskeleton, which constantly c...
What is the genus for the common European honey bee?
The genus and species of the European honey bee is Apis mellifera.
Nosema ceranae is an emerging microsporidian parasite of European honey bees, Apis mellifera, but its distribution is not well known. Six Nosema-positive samples (determined from light microscopy of spores) of adult worker bees from Canada (two each from Nova Scotia, New Brunswick, and Prince Edward Island) and two...
Where is the TAZ (G4.5) is located in humans?
TAZ gene (G4.5) is located on Xq28 in humans.
Barth syndrome is an X-linked cardiomyopathy with neutropenia and 3-methylglutaconic aciduria. Recently, mutations in the G4.5 gene, located in Xq28, have been described in four probands with Barth syndrome. We have now evaluated 14 Barth syndrome pedigrees for mutations in G4.5 and have identified unique mutations...
What do nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to?
Nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to parasympathetic neurons. The parasympathetic system in mice--including trunk ganglia and the cranial ciliary, pterygopalatine, lingual, submandibular, and otic ganglia--arise from glial cells in nerves, not neural crest cells. The parasympathetic fate is induce...
Author information: (1)Unit of Molecular Neurobiology, Department of Medical Biochemistry and Biophysics, Karolinska Institutet, Stockholm, Sweden. A.V. Zhirmunsky Institute of Marine Biology of the Far Eastern Branch of the Russian Academy of Sciences, Vladivostok, Russia. (2)Unit of Molecular Neurobiology, Departm...
How many topological associated domains are contained in the human Hox cluster?
transcriptional activation is associated with a dynamic bi-modal 3d organization, whereby the genes switch autonomously from an inactive to an active compartment.
Hox genes are essential regulators of embryonic development. Their step-wise transcriptional activation follows their genomic topology and the various states of activation are subsequently memorized into domains of progressively overlapping gene products. We have analyzed the 3D chromatin organization of Hox cluste...
Is Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome usually diagnosed in older adults?
lennox-gastaut syndrome (lgs) is a severe pediatric epilepsy syndrome characterized by mixed seizures, cognitive decline, and generalized slow (<3 hz) spike wave discharges on electroencephalography.
Clinical course and results of therapy were analysed in the group of 92 children, aged between 3 and 9 years, with diagnosed Lennox-Gastaut syndrome. The obtained results of an analysis have shown that Lennox-Gastaut syndrome origin is not clear--causative factor can not be established in 1/3 of patients whereas in...
Which treatment methods were compared in the EXCEL Trial?
EXCEL trial compared Everolimus Eluting Stent vs. Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery for Effectiveness of Left Main Revascularization.
OBJECTIVES: The aim of this study is to verify the study hypothesis of the EXCEL trial by comparing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) in an EXCEL-like population of patients. BACKGROUND: The upcoming EXCEL trial will test the hypothesis that left main patients with SYNT...
Describe ATR-16 syndrome.
ATR-16 syndrome is due to alterations on chromosome 16p13.3, and is usually accompanied by alpha-thalassemia, mild-moderate mental retardation, dysmorphic facial features, skeletal and genitourinary malformations.
We have previously described a series of patients in whom the deletion of 1-2 megabases (Mb) of DNA from the tip of the short arm of chromosome 16 (band 16p13.3) is associated with alpha-thalassemia/mental retardation syndrome (ATR-16). We now show that one of these patients has a de novo truncation of the terminal...
What is the results of inactivated ANGPLT3?
Complete ANGPTL3 deficiency caused by loss-of-function mutations of ANGPTL3 is associated with a recessive hypolipidemia
BACKGROUND: Angiopoietin-like protein 3 (ANGPTL3) affects lipid metabolism by inhibiting the activity of lipoprotein and endothelial lipases. Angptl3 knockout mice have marked hypolipidemia, and heterozygous carriers of ANGPLT3, loss-of-function mutations were found among individuals in the lowest quartile of plasm...
What percentage of rheumatoid arthritis patients are responsive to anti-TNF therapy?
Despite this, a substantial proportion of patients (approximately 30-40%) fail to respond to these potentially toxic and expensive therapies. Treatment strategies blocking tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) have proven very successful in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), showing beneficial effects in approximately...
The introduction of anti-TNF therapy has dramatically improved the outlook for patients suffering from a number of inflammatory conditions including rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease. Despite this, a substantial proportion of patients (approximately 30-40%) fail to respond to these potentially toxi...
Which disease is treated with semaglutide?
Semaglutide is glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist that is being used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The effect of semaglutide, a once-weekly human glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) analog in development for type 2 diabetes (T2D), on the bioavailability of a combined oral contraceptive was investigated. Postmenopausal women with T2D (n = 43) on diet/exercise ± metformin received ethinylestradiol (0.03 mg)/levonorges...
What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
The acronym SUDEP refers to Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy
Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) accounts for approximately 2% of deaths in population-based cohorts of epilepsy, and up to 25% of deaths in cohorts of more severe epilepsy. When it occurs, SUDEP usually follows a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. Unresponsiveness, apnoea, and cardiac arrest occur in SUD...
Which proteins does the yeast Cleavage and Polyadenylation Complex contain?
The proteins Nrd1, Rap1, Trf4, Rrp6, Ssu72, Cstf64, Pcf11 and PAP are the major components of the 3' cleavage and polyadenylation complex.
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase II transcribes precursors of mRNAs and of non-protein-coding RNAs such as snRNAs and snoRNAs. These RNAs have to be processed at their 3' ends to be functional. mRNAs are matured by cleavage and polyadenylation that require a well-characterized protein complex. Small RNAs are also subject ...
Which disease can be categorized using the Koos grading system?
Koos grading system is used for vestibular schwannoma.
PURPOSE: To evaluate and compare outcomes for patients with vestibular schwannoma (VS) treated in a single institution with linac-based stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) or by fractionated stereotactic radiotherapy (SRT). METHODS AND MATERIALS: One hundred and nineteen patients (SRS = 78, SRT = 41) were treated. For b...
What is the inheritance of the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the commonest red cell enzymopathy in humans and has a recessive X-linked inheritance.
Severe red cell glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency has been found in an 'aboriginal' Finnish family. 2 male and 9 female carriers of the variant G-6-PD were studied. The genetic pattern is consistent with x-linked recessive inheritance and the defect is associated with drug (primaquine) induced h...
Which deep learning-based algorithms are used for enhancer prediction?
EP-DNN and DEEP.
Transcription regulation in multicellular eukaryotes is orchestrated by a number of DNA functional elements located at gene regulatory regions. Some regulatory regions (e.g. enhancers) are located far away from the gene they affect. Identification of distal regulatory elements is a challenge for the bioinformatics ...
Is Beta-Thalassemia is associated with a mutation or deletion of the gene that codes for alpha globin?
Beta-thalassemia, one of the most common single-gene disorders, is the result of reduced or absent production of β-globin chains
The beta-thalassemia syndromes are a heterogeneous group of genetic disorders characterized by reduced or absent expression of the beta-globin gene. To date, over 300 beta-thalassemia alleles have been characterized in or around the beta-globin region. Thalassemia major is severe anemia necessitating chronic blood ...
Is diphosphatidylglycerol (cardiolipin) a phospholipid of the mitochondrial membranes?
Yes, diphosphatidylglycerol (cardiolipin) is a phospholipid of the mitochondrial membranes.
Mitochondrial membranes reconstituted from lipid-depleted mitochondria and aqueous phospholipid dispersions still have the phospholipid negative charges available for ionic interaction with the basic protein, lysozyme. The stoichiometry of the binding is of about 6 nmoles of lysozyme per 100 nmoles of phospholipid ...
Have studies shown that there is no link between DNA methylation patterns and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder?
Studies do show a correlation of PTSD-related accelerated aging in DNA methylation patterns.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is unique among psychiatric disorders since there is an explicit requirement for the presence of a well-defined precipitating environmental event. This suggests the participation of adaptable molecular processes such as epigenetic modifications, including acetylation and methyl...
Is POLD3 essential for mouse development?
Yes. The Pold3 gene encodes a subunit of the Polδ DNA polymerase complex. Pold3 orthologs are not essential in Saccharomyces cerevisiae or chicken DT40 cells, but the Schizosaccharomyces pombe ortholog is essential. POLD3 also has a specialized role in the repair of broken replication forks, suggesting that POLD3 activ...
What is the mechanism of action of Romosozumab?
Romosozumab is humanized monoclonal antibody to sclerostin. It inhibits sclerostin, thereby increasing bone formation and decreasing bone resorption. This dual effect of romosozumab leads to rapid and substantial increases in areal bone mineral density as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. It is developed fo...
Romosozumab (formerly AMG 785/CDP7851) is a monoclonal antibody that blocks sclerostin from inhibiting osteoblast maturation and function. This double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized, ascending multiple-dose study enrolled 32 postmenopausal women and 16 healthy men with low bone mass. Women received six doses...
Symptoms of which disorder are evaluated with the Davidson Trauma Scale?
Davidson Trauma Scale is used for evaluation of post-traumatic stress disorder.
BACKGROUND: In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) there is a need for self-rating scales that are sensitive to treatment effects and have been tested in a broad range of trauma survivors. Separate measures of frequency and severity may also provide an advantage. METHODS: Three hundred and fifty-three men and wome...
What is the function of the Mis18 protein?
Kinetochores assemble on a specialized chromosomal locus termed the centromere, which is characterized by the replacement of histone H3 in centromeric nucleosomes with the essential histone H3 variant CENP-A (centromere protein A). The Mis18 complex has been identified as a critical factor for the centromeric localizat...
Centromeres contain specialized chromatin that includes the centromere-specific histone H3 variant, spCENP-A/Cnp1. Here we report identification of five fission yeast centromere proteins, Mis14-18. Mis14 is recruited to kinetochores independently of CENP-A, and, conversely, CENP-A does not require Mis14 to associat...
Are hepadnaviral minichromosomes free of nucleosomes?
Nucleosomes along viral cccDNA in the minichromosomes are not random but sequence-specifically positioned.
We operationally define two forms of SV40 minichromosomes, a 75S-form, prepared at low salt concentration, referred to as native minichromosomes, and a 50S-form, obtained after treatment with 0.5 M potassium acetate, the salt-treated minichromosomes. Both preparations of minichromosomes serve well as templates for ...
Is Cri Du Chat associated with an expansion of a repeat with in the gene found on chromosome 5?
Cri-du-chat syndrome is a chromosomal disorder caused by a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
A case is reported in which features of pseudohypoparathyroidism were found in association with the cri du chat syndrome. This association may throw some light on the localization of the chromosomal abberration which underlies pseudohypoparathyroidism, since deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 has been clearl...
What are the roles of Smyd3 in zebrafish?
Smyd3 is required for the development of cardiac and skeletal muscle in zebrafish. Transcripts of smyd3 are expressed in zebrafish embryos at all developmental stages and knockdown of smyd3 in embryos resulted in pericardial edema and defects in the trunk structure. In addition, these phenotypes are associated with abn...
While increasing evidence indicates the important function of histone methylation during development, how this process influences cardiac development in vertebrates has not been explored. Here, we elucidate the functions of two histone H3 lysine 4 (H3K4) methylation enzymes, SMYD3 and SETD7, during zebrafish heart ...
Which enzyme is inhibited by ribociclib?
Ribociclib is inhibitor of cyclin D-cyclin-dependent kinase 4/6 (CDK 4/6). It is used for breast cancer treatment.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a potentially fatal syndrome characterized by a rapid decline in kidney function caused by ischemic or toxic injury to renal tubular cells. The widely used chemotherapy drug cisplatin accumulates preferentially in the renal tubular cells and is a frequent cause of drug-induced AKI. Duri...
Which histone mutations have been associated with pediatric gliomas?
About 80% of Diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG) cases and 70% of midline glioblastomas contain a mutation at one allele of the H3F3A gene (encoding histone H3 variant H3.3), replacing the lysine 27 with methionine (K27M). Moreover, approximately 30% of pediatric high grade gliomas (pedHGG) including GBM and DIPG h...
Recurrent mutations affecting the histone H3.3 residues Lys27 or indirectly Lys36 are frequent drivers of pediatric high-grade gliomas (over 30% of HGGs). To identify additional driver mutations in HGGs, we investigated a cohort of 60 pediatric HGGs using whole-exome sequencing (WES) and compared them to 543 exomes...
Is it feasible to obtain DNA read lengths that exceed 30 Kb?
The emergence and development of so called third generation sequencing platforms such as PacBio has permitted exceptionally long reads (over 20 kb) to be generated but not yet read length >30 Kb.
During the past decade, DNA sequencing output has been mostly dominated by the second generation sequencing platforms which are characterized by low cost, high throughput and shorter read lengths for example, Illumina. The emergence and development of so called third generation sequencing platforms such as PacBio h...
Is osteocrin expressed exclusively in the bone?
No, Osteocrin (Ostn) has been detected in the bones and the brain.
Osteocrin (Ostn), a bone-active molecule, has been shown in animals to be highly expressed in cells of the osteoblast lineage. We have characterized this protein in human cultured primary human osteoblasts, in developing human neonatal bone, and in iliac crest bone biopsies from adult women. In vivo, Ostn expression...
What is Achondroplasia?
Achondrogenesis type II also known as Achondroplasia is an autosomal-dominant disease leading to severe micromelic dwarfism
Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is a receptor tyrosine kinase that plays an important role in long bone development. The G380R mutation in FGFR3 transmembrane domain is known as the genetic cause for achondroplasia, the most common form of human dwarfism. Despite many studies, there is no consensus about...
What is the indication for Mirabegron?
Mirabegron, the first 尾3-adrenoceptor agonist in clinical practice, is approved for treatment of overactive bladder (OAB) syndrome symptoms.
Mirabegron (YM-178), currently in development by Astellas Pharma Inc, is an orally active β₃-adrenoceptor (AR) agonist for the potential symptomatic treatment of overactive bladder (OAB). Mirabegron demonstrates omolar EC50 values against the human β₃-AR in biochemical assays with potent selectivity over the β₁- an...
What is the cause of Tardive dyskinesia?
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a movement disorder characterized by abnormal involuntary facial movements induced by chronic therapy with classical antipsychotic medications.
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a movement disorder characterized by abnormal involuntary facial movements induced by chronic therapy with classical antipsychotic medications. Currently, there is no satisfactory pharmacotherapy for TD, which represents a major limitation to therapy with classical antipsychotics. In orde...
Are alterations in ultraconserved elements associated with colorectal adenocarcinoma?
yes
We investigated whether single nucleotide polymorphisms within ultraconserved elements (UCEs) are associated with susceptibility to overall colorectal cancer (CRC) and susceptibility to tumor site-specific CRC. The study included 787 CRC patients and 551 healthy controls. The study comprised of a training set (520 ...
What is PANTHER-PSEP?
PANTHER-PSEP is a new software tool for predicting non-synonymous genetic variants that may play a causal role in human disease. Several previous variant pathogenicity prediction methods have been proposed that quantify evolutionary conservation among homologous proteins from different organisms. PANTHER-PSEP employs a...
PANTHER-PSEP is a new software tool for predicting non-synonymous genetic variants that may play a causal role in human disease. Several previous variant pathogenicity prediction methods have been proposed that quantify evolutionary conservation among homologous proteins from different organisms. PANTHER-PSEP emplo...
What is MPE-seq?
MPE-seq (methidiumpropyl-EDTA sequencing) is a new method for the genome-wide characterization of chromatin that involves the digestion of nuclei with MPE-Fe(II) followed by massively parallel sequencing. Like micrococcal nuclease (MNase), MPE-Fe(II) preferentially cleaves the linker DNA between nucleosomes. However, t...
Describe the mechanism of action of Bezlotoxumab?
Bezlotoxumab (Zinplava™) is a human monoclonal antibody against Clostridium difficile toxin B (TcdB). It is used for prevention of recurrent C. difficile infections.
The symptoms of Clostridium difficile infections are caused by two exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB, which target host colonocytes by binding to unknown cell surface receptors, at least in part via their combined repetitive oligopeptide (CROP) domains. A combination of the anti-TcdA antibody actoxumab and the anti-TcdB ant...
Is apremilast effective for psoriasis?
Yes, apremilast is effective for treatment of psoriasis.
INTRODUCTION: Psoriasis is a common skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammatory lesions that are frequently vexing for patients and difficult for physicians to treat. Although multiple therapeutic options are available, all have limitations. Topical preparations have issues with patient adherence, as compar...
Is skin color affected by variations of the SLC24A5 gene?
Yes. The alleles of single-nucleotide polymorphisms rs1426654 and rs1834640 (SLC24A5) are associated with light skin pigmentation in Eurasian population.
The recent feasibility of genome-wide studies of adaptation in human populations has provided novel insights into biological pathways that have been affected by adaptive pressures. However, only a few African populations have been investigated using these genome-wide approaches. Here, we performed a genome-wide ana...
How are Arboviruses transmitted?
Arboviruses are transmitted by arthropods.
The medical importance, ecology and control of riceland mosquitoes using alternative strategies is reviewed. Over 135 pest and vector anopheline and culicine mosquito species found in association with riceland habitats and their medical importance are presented. Malaria and Japanese encephalitis are the two most se...
Which bacterium has the smallest genome in base pairs yet found?
Our results reveal that Nasuia-ALF has the smallest bacterial genome yet sequenced (112 kb), and that the Sulcia-ALF genome (190 kb) is smaller than that of Sulcia in other insect lineages. Both regions exhibit a significant reduction in length and gene number in B. aphidicola BCc, as it could be expected since it poss...
Many insects rely on bacterial symbionts with tiny genomes specialized for provisioning nutrients lacking in host diets. Xylem sap and phloem sap are both deficient as insect diets, but differ dramatically in nutrient content, potentially affecting symbiont genome evolution. For sap-feeding insects, sequenced symbi...
Which are the triad symptoms of pheochromocytoma?
The classic triad of symptoms are episodic headache, excessive sweating (diaphoresis) and palpitation.
A right adrenal tumor was found incidentally by renal echography in a 25-year-old man, who had been on hemodialysis for 4 years. Inquiry and clinical examination suggested pheochromocytoma, which was confirmed by plasma catecholamine measurements. Subsequent adrenalectomy was uneventful. Although hypertension, head...
List the types of the Cardiorenal syndrome (CRS) according to the five-part classification system.
Cardiorenal syndromes (CRS) have been recently classified into five distinct entities, each with different major pathophysiologic mechanisms. CRS type 1: acute worsening of heart function (AHF-ACS) leading to kidney injury and/or dysfunction. CRS type 2: chronic abnormalities in heart function (CHF-CHD) leading to ki...
The term cardiorenal syndrome (CRS) increasingly has been used without a consistent or well-accepted definition. To include the vast array of interrelated derangements, and to stress the bidirectional nature of heart-kidney interactions, we present a new classification of the CRS with 5 subtypes that reflect the pa...
What is a miR?
The discovery of microRNAs (miRNAs) has opened an entire new avenue for drug development. These short (15-22 nucleotides) noncoding RNAs, which function in RNA silencing and posttranscriptional regulation of gene expression, have been shown to critically affect numerous pathways in both development and disease progress...
Bladder cancer (BC) is generally divided into non-muscle-invasive BC (NMIBC) and muscle-invasive BC (MIBC). The standard treatment protocol for MIBC patients is radical cystectomy preceded by neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NAC). About one-half of the MIBC patients show a priori resistance to chemotherapy, and are therefo...
Do circRNAs remain untranslated?
The resulting circRNA can be translated to generate functional proteins.
While the human transcriptome contains a large number of circular RNAs (circRNAs), the functions of most circRNAs remain unclear. Sequence annotation suggests that most circRNAs are generated from splicing in reversed orders across exons. However, the mechanisms of this backsplicing are largely unknown. Here we con...
What is the biological function of the SRY circular RNA (circRNA)?
We suggest that the circles arise from normal splicing processes as a consequence of the unusual genomic structure surrounding the Sry locus in the mouse. While this result does not prove a direct interaction between the two genes, it defines the critical period during which Sry must act to initiate Sertoli cell differ...
Sry is expressed at higher levels in the adult testis, where no function has been determined, than in the genital ridge, its critical site of action. cDNA and 5' RACE clones isolated from testis or from Sry-transfected cell lines have an unusual structure, with 3' sequences located in a 5' position. RNAase protecti...
What is Uhl's anomaly?
uhl's anomaly is an extremely rare cardiac defect characterized by absence of the myocardium of the right ventricle.
Uhl's anomaly was first reported by Uhl in 1952 and is characterized by congenital partial or complete absence of right ventricular myocardium. It is a very rare anomaly with unknown aetiology. Associations with other congenital heart diseases, familial occurrency, sudden death and arrhythmia with Uhl's anomaly hav...
Is autophagy the process where bacteria ingest viral particles?
Autophagy, a cellular degradation process
Autophagy (macroautophagy) is a dynamic process for degradation of cytosolic components. Autophagy has intracellular anti-viral and anti-bacterial functions, and plays a role in the initiation of innate and adaptive immune system responses to viral and bacterial infections. Some viruses encode virulence factors for...
Can aspirin be used in cancer prevention?
Long-term aspirin use was associated with a modest but significantly reduced risk for overall cancer, especially gastrointestinal tract tumors. Regular aspirin use may prevent a substantial proportion of colorectal cancers and complement the benefits of screening.
BACKGROUND: Evidence for an association between aspirin or other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) use and basal cell carcinoma (BCC) has been inconsistent. OBJECTIVE: We conducted a systematic review and metaanalysis to assess the effect of oral NSAIDs on BCC. METHODS: PubMed, Web of Science, and Embase da...
Which are the components of the pre-replication complex (pre-RC) in eukaryotes?
The components of the pre-replication complex (pre-RC) in eukaryotes are: 1) Cdc6/Cdc18, 2) MCM, 3) ORC1-6, 4) Cdt1 and 5) Sap1/Gi.
The overall organization of cell division in Plasmodium is unique compared to that observed in model organisms because DNA replicates more than once per cell cycle at several points of its life cycle. The sequencing of the Plasmodium genome has also revealed the apparent absence of many key components (e.g. Cdt1, D...
What is the inheritance of hypophosphatemic rickets?
Hypophosphatemic rickets are transmitted with: 1) autosomal recessive 2) autosomal dominant 3) X-linked recessive and 4) X-linked dominant inheritance.
X-linked familial hypophosphatemic rickets (X.L.F.H.R.) is one of the D resistant rickets. The inheritance pattern is related to the X chromosome. Most constant feature is hypophosphatemia. Pathogenesis is still a subject of controversy. There are three main theories: a) An abnormal vitamin D metabolism. b) Seconda...
Which mushroom is poisonous, Amanita phalloides or Agaricus Bisporus
The well-known cultivated species Agaricus bisporus is safe to eat while Amanita Phalloides is poisonous.
Seventeen edible mushrooms commercially available in Korea were analysed for their umami taste compounds (5'-nucleotides: AMP, GMP, IMP, UMP, XMP; free amino acids: aspartic, glutamic acid) and subjected to human sensory evaluation and electronic tongue measurements. Amanita virgineoides featured the highest total ...
Which is the most common gene signature in Rheumatoid Arthritis patients?
A five gene type I IFN signature was assessed in these subjects to identify subpopulations showing both activation and concordance of the type I IFN pathway in the peripheral blood and disease-affected tissues of each disease and to correlate activation of this pathway in the WB with clinical measurements.R Baseline di...
Susceptibility to autoimmune disorders results from the interaction of multiple genetic factors that regulate the threshold of autoreactivity. Genome-wide microsatellite screens and large-scale single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) association studies have identified chromosomal loci that are associated with specifi...
Which NGS alignment software implement the Burrows-Wheeler Transform?
The most widely used software belong to the family of the Burrows-Wheeler Aligner (BWA) and its variants for local alignment BWASW, map reduce BWASW-PMR and multi-threaded implementation BWA-MT. Other approaches include Bowtie, SOAP2, BWBBLE, SOAP2 and FANSe2.
MOTIVATION: The enormous amount of short reads generated by the new DNA sequencing technologies call for the development of fast and accurate read alignment programs. A first generation of hash table-based methods has been developed, including MAQ, which is accurate, feature rich and fast enough to align short read...
Is intraoperative radiotherapy used for treatment of glioblastoma?
Yes, intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT) is being used for treatment of glioblastoma. IORT combined with extensive tumor removal has an acceptable toxicity in previously irradiated patients and can be effective for selected recurrent malignant brain tumors.
An intraoperative remote afterloading endocurietherapy technique with high-activity 60Co for the treatment of glioblastoma multiforme is described. The technique can be used for initial management of the unresectable tumor or for retreatment of patients with recurrent tumor who have been treated previously with sur...
Which server is used for generating modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA and protein sequences?
Pse-in-One is a web server for generating various modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA, and protein sequences. It can, through its 28 different modes, generate nearly all the possible feature vectors for DNA, RNA and protein sequences. Particularly, it can also generate those feature vectors with the properties defin...
With the avalanche of biological sequences generated in the post-genomic age, one of the most challenging problems in computational biology is how to effectively formulate the sequence of a biological sample (such as DNA, RNA or protein) with a discrete model or a vector that can effectively reflect its sequence pa...
What is the link between TB (Turbeculosis) infection and TNFa inhibition?
The occurrence of tuberculosis (TB) in patients treated with immunosuppressive drugs (ISD) is an old problem that has been highlighted by cases occurring in patients using anti-TNFalpha drugs.
TNFalpha plays a pivotal role not only in the inflammatory process but also in the normal response against pathogens and therefore, interfering with this cytokine may increase the risk of infection. TNFalpha antagonists are commonly used in daily clinical practice for the treatment of inflammatory rheumatic disease...
Which class of genes are mutated in Diamond Blackfan Anemia patients?
Diamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA) is characterized by a defect of erythroid progenitors and, clinically, by anemia and malformations. Diamond Blackfan anemia (DBA) is an inherited erythroblastopenia associated with mutations in at least 8 different ribosomal protein genes. Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is a rare congenital...
The gene encoding ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) has been shown to be mutated in 25% of the patients affected by Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA), a congenital erythroblastopenia. As the role of RPS19 in erythropoiesis is still to be defined, we performed studies on RPS19 expression during terminal erythroid differenti...
List the human acrocentric chromosomes that are involved in Robertsonian translocation.
Robertsonian translocations (ROBs) are the most common chromosomal rearrangements in humans. ROBs are whole-arm rearrangements between the acrocentric chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22.
The pattern of association of acrocentric chromosomes was examined in ten and five carriers of a 15/21 and a 13/14 Robertsonian translocation, respectively, and was compared with that of the same numbers of relatives with normal karyotypes. In the carriers of 15/21 translocation, the number of large associations (i...
Is tirilazad effective for treatment of aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?
No. Based on meta-analysis, there is no evidence that tirilazad, in addition to nimodipine, reduces mortality or improves poor outcome in patients with aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Tirilazad mesylate, a nonglucocorticoid 21-aminosteroid, has been shown in experimental models to reduce vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and to reduce infarct size from focal cerebral ischemia. To test whether treatment with tirilazad would reduce ischemic symptoms from vasospasm and improve overa...
Which protein is the main marker of Cajal bodies?
Coilin is widely known as the protein marker of the Cajal body, a subnuclear domain important to the biogenesis of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins and telomerase, complexes that are crucial to pre-messenger RNA splicing and telomere maintenance, respectively The Cajal body has now regained the interest of biologists, ...
Cajal bodies (coiled bodies, CBs) are nuclear organelles of unknown function and are characterized by a wide variety of components including various basal transcription and cell cycle proteins, the nucleolar proteins fibrillarin and Nopp140, numerous small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, the survival motor neuron prote...
Which mutated gene causes the Chédiak–Higashi Syndrome?
Mutation in the lysosomal trafficking regulator (LYST) gene causes the Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS).
Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) is a rare multiorgan disease entity with autosomal recessive inheritance characterized by oculocutaneous albinism, bleeding tendency, recurrent bacterial infections and various neurological symptoms. Intracellular vesicle formation is deficient, resulting in giant granules in many cel...
The pathogen Fusarium graminearum affects what type of plant species?
Fusarium graminearum is a broad host pathogen threatening cereal crops in temperate regions around the world.
The fungal pathogens Fusarium graminearum and F. culmorum cause ear blight disease on cereal crops worldwide. The disease lowers both grain quality and grain safety. Disease prevalence is increasing due to changes in cropping practices and the difficulties encountered by plant breeders when trying to introgress the...
List viral vectors used in gene therapy.
adeno-associated viruses lentiviruses herpes simplex viral vector
This study examined the efficacy of gene therapy of lung adenocarcinoma using specifically controlled type I herpes simplex virus recombit vector expressing Gibbon ape leukemia virus membrane fusion glycoprotein gene (GALV.fus). Recombit HSV-I plasmid carrying target transgene was constructed, and recombit viral ve...
Is dexamethasone recommended for treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage?
No. Dexamethasone and other glucocorticoids should be avoided for treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage because they do not improve patient outcome and are associated with increased risk of side effects.
To evaluate the efficacy of dexamethasone for treatment of primary supratentorial intracerebral hemorrhage, we studied 93 patients 40 to 80 years old, using a double-blind randomized block design. After the subjects were stratified according to their level of consciousness (Glasgow Coma Scale), those with objective...
What happens upon disruption of a TAD boundary?
rewiring occurred only if the variant disrupted a ctcf-associated boundary domain . of a tad boundary causes ectopic chromosomal contacts and long-range transcriptional misregulation. . of topological chromatin domains cause pathogenic rewiring of gene-enhancer interactions .
In eukaryotes transcriptional regulation often involves multiple long-range elements and is influenced by the genomic environment. A prime example of this concerns the mouse X-inactivation centre (Xic), which orchestrates the initiation of X-chromosome inactivation (XCI) by controlling the expression of the non-pro...
List the classical symptoms of the Moschcowitz syndrome (Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura).
The typical manifestations of Moschocowitz syndrome (Thrombotic-thrombocytopenic purpura) are: 1) thrombocytopenia, 2) haemolysis, 3) fever, 4) coma and 5) renal failure.
PIP: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a syndrome that occurs mainly in adults with multiorgan microvascular thrombosis consisting of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, neurologic symptoms, renal involvement, and fever. The female to male ratio is 3:2, and peak incidence occurs in the 3...
Is airplane stroke syndrome a common disease.
No. Only 37 cases of stroke during or soon after long-haul flights have been published. A single center study reported that 42 out of 5727 stroke admissions (0.73%) were flight-related strokes.
In the economy class syndrome (ECS) the patient presents a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) with or without pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) during or after a long trip as a result of prolonged immobilization. Economy class stroke syndrome is an infrequent ECS variant in which ischemic stroke is associated with a patent...
Which R / bioconductor package is used for enrichment analysis of genomic regions?
locus overlap analysis (lola) provides easy and automatable enrichment analysis for genomic region sets, thus facilitating the interpretation of functional genomics and epigenomics data.
Genomic datasets are often interpreted in the context of large-scale reference databases. One approach is to identify significantly overlapping gene sets, which works well for gene-centric data. However, many types of high-throughput data are based on genomic regions. Locus Overlap Analysis (LOLA) provides easy and...
Which is the major RNA editing enzyme in Drosophila melanogaster?
Adenosine deaminases that act on RNA [adenosine deaminase, RNA specific (ADAR)] catalyze the site-specific conversion of adenosine to inosine in primary mRNA transcripts. The ADAR RNA editing enzyme controls neuronal excitability in Drosophila melanogaster. TIRs were deduced to form dsRNAs as a putative target of ADAR....
Pre-mRNA editing involving the conversion of adenosine to inosine is mediated by adenosine deaminases that act on RNA (ADAR1 and ADAR2). ADARs contain multiple double-stranded RNA(dsRNA)-binding domains in addition to an adenosine deaminase domain. An adenosine deaminase acting on tRNAs, scTad1p (also known as scADA...
What is the CEGA catalog?
CEGA is a catalog of conserved elements from genomic alignments. Harnessing the power of multiple species comparisons to detect genomic elements under purifying selection, CEGA provides a comprehensive set of CNCs identified at different radiations along the vertebrate lineage. Evolutionary constraint is identified usi...
By identifying genomic sequence regions conserved among several species, comparative genomics offers opportunities to discover putatively functional elements without any prior knowledge of what these functions might be. Comparative analyses across mammals estimated 4-5% of the human genome to be functionally constr...
Which protein is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum during pregrancy?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum during pregrancy.
BACKGROUND: hCG is a term referring to 4 independent molecules, each produced by separate cells and each having completely separate functions. These are hCG produced by villous syncytiotrophoblast cells, hyperglycosylated hCG produced by cytotrophoblast cells, free beta-subunit made by multiple primary non-trophobl...
Is hydroxyurea usually used to treated infectious disease?
Hydroxyurea represents the only available disease-modifying therapy for Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA).
Clinical experience with hydroxyurea for patients with sickle cell disease (SCD) has been accumulating for the past 25 years. The bulk of the current evidence suggests that hydroxyurea is well-tolerated, safe, and efficacious for most patients with SCD. Hydroxyurea has proven clinical efficacy for reducing acute va...
What is magnetoreception?
Magnetoreception is an enigmatic, poorly understood sensory ability, described mainly on the basis of behavioural studies in animals of diverse taxa. The ability to perceive geomagnetic fields (GMFs) represents a fascinating biological phenomenon. Studies on transgenic flies have provided evidence that photosensitive C...
Author information: (1)Institute of Entomology, Biology Centre of Academy of Sciences of the Czech Republic, 370 05, Ceske Budejovice, Czech Republic; Department of Molecular Biology, Faculty of Science, University of South Bohemia, 370 05, Ceske Budejovice, Czech Republic; (2)Department of Animal Physiology and Imm...
Can acupuncture cause spinal epidural hematoma?
Yes, acupuncture can cause spinal epidural hematoma.
Unintentional acupuncture needling of the thoracic spinal canal produced a spinal epidural hematoma and subarachnoid hemorrhage. This case demonstrates that patients are sometimes reluctant to disclose folk medical treatments to Western physicians, and the proper diagnosis may depend upon the prowess of the neurora...
Is edema a symptom of nephrotic syndrome?
Yes, edema is the commonest presenting symptom and sign in nephrotic syndrome.
A case of interstitial shadows associated with oral cyclophosphamide therapy in a 32-month-old girl with steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome, who was admitted to the Nishi-Kobe Medical Center with systemic edema, is reported. Due to the lack of response to prednisolone, cyclophosphamide was also administered orally...
Angelman syndrome is associated with deletion of a part of Chromosome 15 but if the deletion occurs in the paternally inherited chromosome 15, what is the disease?
Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) results from a deletion of the paternal genes in the region of chromosome 15q11-q13.
Deletions of the proximal long arm of chromosome 15 (bands 15q11q13) are found in the majority of patients with two distinct genetic disorders, Angelman syndrome (AS) and Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS). The deleted regions in the two syndromes, defined cytogenetically and by using cloned DNA probes, are similar. Howev...
What is the phenotype of people carrying mutations in the gene PRDM12?
New therapeutic options have recently been derived from studies of individuals with congenital insensitivity to pain (CIP). Here we identified 10 different homozygous mutations in PRDM12 (encoding PRDI-BF1 and RIZ homology domain-containing protein 12) in subjects with CIP from 11 families.
PR homology domain-containing member 12 (PRDM12) belongs to a family of conserved transcription factors implicated in cell fate decisions. Here we show that PRDM12 is a key regulator of sensory neuronal specification in Xenopus. Modeling of human PRDM12 mutations that cause hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropat...
Is there an association between Histone H3.3 mutations and glioma?
Yes, histone H3.3 mutation in the codon for lysine 27 has been found as driver mutations in pediatric glioblastoma and has been suggested to play critical roles in the pathogenesis of thalamic gliomas and diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas.
Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is a lethal brain tumour in adults and children. However, DNA copy number and gene expression signatures indicate differences between adult and paediatric cases. To explore the genetic events underlying this distinction, we sequenced the exomes of 48 paediatric GBM samples. Somatic mut...
Which cellular function is associated with transcription factors forkhead 1 and 2 (Fkh1 and Fkh2)?
Forkhead transcription factors establish origin timing and long-range clustering in S. cerevisiae. Here we show that the yeast Forkhead transcription factors, Fkh1 and Fkh2, are global determinants of replication origin timing. Forkhead box O (FOXO) transcription factors have a conserved function in regulating metazoan...
The fork-head type transcription factors are a class of regulators that function in a broad spectrum of cellular and developmental processes in many species ranging from yeasts to human. Previous data on yeast fork-head genes suggested roles for these regulators in the control of cell division, sexual differentiati...
What is the role of the Ctf4-interacting-peptide or CIP-box?
Crystallographic analysis classifies CIP-boxes into two related groups that target different sites on Ctf4. Mutations in the CIP-box motifs of the Dna2 nuclease or the rDNA-associated protein Tof2 do not perturb DNA synthesis genome-wide, but instead lead to a dramatic shortening of chromosome 12 that contains the larg...
Replisome assembly at eukaryotic replication forks connects the DNA helicase to DNA polymerases and many other factors. The helicase binds the leading-strand polymerase directly, but is connected to the Pol α lagging-strand polymerase by the trimeric adaptor Ctf4. Here, we identify new Ctf4 partners in addition to ...
What type of genome, (RNA or DNA, double stranded single stranded) is found in the the virus that causes blue tongue disease?
The Bluetongue virus (BTV) genome contains ten double-stranded RNA segments.
Bluetongue virus (BTV) genome contains ten double-stranded RNA segments. The sequence of the plus strand of each of the BTV genomic double-stranded RNAs is the same as that of its mRNA, which encodes for a single viral protein, except the smallest S4 segment which can encode for two nonstructural proteins, primaril...
What is a "chemobrain"?
The term "chemobrain" is sometimes used to denote deficits in neuropsychological functioning that may occur as a result of cancer treatment.
PURPOSE: The term "chemobrain" is sometimes used to denote deficits in neuropsychological functioning that may occur as a result of cancer treatment. As breast cancer survivors now commonly reach late life, it is not known whether previous exposure to chemotherapy may affect long-term risk for cognitive impairment....
Borden classification is used for which disease?
Borden classification systems is used for the prediction of clinical behavior of cranial dural arteriovenous fistulas.
BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Venous drainage patterns are a major determit of clinical outcome in intracranial dural arteriovenous fistula (DAVF) patients. In this study, we sought to identify MR imaging finding differences between DAVF types classified on the basis of venous drainage patterns. METHODS: Twenty-seven pati...
Which effects create neighborhoods of transcriptional regulation in eukaryotes?
Enhancer Sharing Promotes Neighborhoods of Transcriptional Regulation Across Eukaryotes. Here, we present cross-organismic evidence suggesting that most EP pairs are compatible, largely determined by physical proximity rather than specific interactions. we find that the transcription of gene neighbors is correlated ove...
MOTIVATION: Identifying the target genes regulated by transcription factors (TFs) is the most basic step in understanding gene regulation. Recent advances in high-throughput sequencing technology, together with chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP), enable mapping TF binding sites genome wide, but it is not possible...
Is Pfh1 a component of the replisome?
No. Pfh1 Is an Accessory Replicative Helicase that Interacts with the Replisome to Facilitate Fork Progression and Preserve Genome Integrity. DNA replication through hard-to-replicate sites, including both highly transcribed RNA Pol II and Pol III genes, requires the S. pombe Pfh1 helicase.
Replication forks encounter impediments as they move through the genome, including natural barriers due to stable protein complexes and highly transcribed genes. Unlike lesions generated by exogenous damage, natural barriers are encountered in every S phase. Like humans, Schizosaccharomyces pombe encodes a single P...
What is the function of mTOR?
The mTOR protein regulates assembly of the translation initiation machinery and are master regulators of cellular survival, growth and metabolism.
The mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), a downstream effector of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/Akt (protein kinase B) signaling pathway that mediates cell survival and proliferation, is a prime strategic target for anticancer therapeutic development. By targeting mTOR, the immunosuppressant and antipro...
What is the indication for valbenazine?
Valbenazine granted breakthrough drug status for treating tardive dyskinesia.
Abnormal involuntary movements often improve in response to anti-dopaminergic drugs. In contrast to classic neuroleptics that block dopamine receptors, drugs that deplete presynaptic dopamine by blocking vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) seem to be safer and have little or no risk of tardive dyskinesia...