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Recently "Ideonella sakaiensis 201-F6" was in news. What does it refer to?
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A bacterium species capable of breaking down plastic.
|
The first commercially launched vaccine against Zika virus.
|
An indigenous technology developed for effective diagnosis of multi drug resistant tuberculosis.
|
A bacterium species capable of breaking down plastic.
|
Recently Japanese researchers have isolated a bacterium species, Ideonella sakaiensis 201-F6 is a bacterium species that could almost completely degrade a thin film of PET (Polyethelene terephthalate). PET (Polyethylene terephthalate) is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family and is used in fibers for clothing, containers for liquids and foods, etc. The bacterium uses two enzymes in sequence to break down the highly biodegradable-resistant polymer PET. First, the bacterium adheres to PET and produces an intermediate substance through hydrolysis. The second enzyme then works with water and acts on this intermediate substance to produce the two monomers - ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid - that are used for making PET through polymerization.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently "Ideonella sakaiensis 201-F6" was in news. What does it refer to?##Option_A: A bacterium species capable of breaking down plastic.###Option_B: The first commercially launched vaccine against Zika virus.##Option_C: An indigenous technology developed for effective diagnosis of multi drug resistant tuberculosis.##Option_D: A bacterium species capable of breaking down plastic.##Answer:a##Explaination:Recently Japanese researchers have isolated a bacterium species, Ideonella sakaiensis 201-F6 is a bacterium species that could almost completely degrade a thin film of PET (Polyethelene terephthalate). PET (Polyethylene terephthalate) is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family and is used in fibers for clothing, containers for liquids and foods, etc. The bacterium uses two enzymes in sequence to break down the highly biodegradable-resistant polymer PET. First, the bacterium adheres to PET and produces an intermediate substance through hydrolysis. The second enzyme then works with water and acts on this intermediate substance to produce the two monomers - ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid - that are used for making PET through polymerization.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to "Sedition", which of the following statements is/are correct? It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first passed by the British government to curb the activities of the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
|
The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code(IPC) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offense. It was one of the many draconian laws enacted to stifle any voices of dissent at that time. It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. The Indian Penal Code defines sedition (Section 124A) as an offence committed when "any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India". Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However, comments without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an offence under this section. Punishment for the offence of sedition: Sedition is a non-bailable offence. Punishment under the Section 124A ranges from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added. A person charged under this law is barred from a government job. They have to live without their passport and must produce themselves in the court at all times as and when required. The constitutionality of sedition was challenged in the Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Vs State of Bihar (1962). The Court upheld the law on the basis that this power was required by the state to protect itself. However, it had added a vital caveat that "a person could be prosecuted for sedition only if his acts caused incitement to violence or intention or tendency to create public disorder or cause disturbance of public peace". The court held that "a citizen has a right to say or write whatever he likes about the Government, or its measures, by way of criticism or comment, so long as he does not incite people to violence against the Government established by law or with the intention of creating public disorder". In September 2016, the Supreme Court had reiterated these necessary safeguards and held that they should be followed by all authorities. Some of the most famous sedition trials in 19th and 20th century involved nationalist leaders. The first among them was the trial of Jogendra Chandra Bose in 1891. He was the editor of the newspaper Bangobasi who wrote an article regarding Age of Consent bill for posing a threat to the religion and for its coercive relationship with Indian. The most well-known sedition cases were against Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bhagat Singh and the trial of Gandhiji in 1922. Gandhiji was charged along with Shankerlal Banker for writing articles in Young India. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary organization, also known as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and others. The sedition act was used against a few important leaders of HSRA, example, Bhagat Singh but not against the organization as such. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "Sedition", which of the following statements is/are correct? It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first passed by the British government to curb the activities of the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code(IPC) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offense. It was one of the many draconian laws enacted to stifle any voices of dissent at that time. It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. The Indian Penal Code defines sedition (Section 124A) as an offence committed when "any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India". Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However, comments without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an offence under this section. Punishment for the offence of sedition: Sedition is a non-bailable offence. Punishment under the Section 124A ranges from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added. A person charged under this law is barred from a government job. They have to live without their passport and must produce themselves in the court at all times as and when required. The constitutionality of sedition was challenged in the Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Vs State of Bihar (1962). The Court upheld the law on the basis that this power was required by the state to protect itself. However, it had added a vital caveat that "a person could be prosecuted for sedition only if his acts caused incitement to violence or intention or tendency to create public disorder or cause disturbance of public peace". The court held that "a citizen has a right to say or write whatever he likes about the Government, or its measures, by way of criticism or comment, so long as he does not incite people to violence against the Government established by law or with the intention of creating public disorder". In September 2016, the Supreme Court had reiterated these necessary safeguards and held that they should be followed by all authorities. Some of the most famous sedition trials in 19th and 20th century involved nationalist leaders. The first among them was the trial of Jogendra Chandra Bose in 1891. He was the editor of the newspaper Bangobasi who wrote an article regarding Age of Consent bill for posing a threat to the religion and for its coercive relationship with Indian. The most well-known sedition cases were against Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bhagat Singh and the trial of Gandhiji in 1922. Gandhiji was charged along with Shankerlal Banker for writing articles in Young India. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary organization, also known as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and others. The sedition act was used against a few important leaders of HSRA, example, Bhagat Singh but not against the organization as such. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to preventive detention as mentioned in Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: A person arrested under preventive detention is to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. No person can be detained for a period of more than three months under any circumstances. Supreme Court can issue the writ of Habeas Corpus against such detention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 22: No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The 24-hour clause is not true for preventive detention. Hence statement 1 is not correct. When any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive detention, the authority making the order shall, as soon as may be, communicate to such person the grounds on which the order has been made and shall afford him the earliest opportunity of making a representation against the order. Nothing in the above clause shall require the authority to disclose facts which such authority considers to be against the public interest to disclose. Parliament may by law prescribe: the circumstances under which, and the class or classes of cases in which, a person may be detained for a period longer than three months under any law providing for preventive detention without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board. the maximum period for which any person may in any class or classes of cases be detained under any law providing for preventive detention; and the procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board in an inquiry. The Supreme Court ('Deepak Bajaj v/s State of Maharashtra and another' and various other cases) has observed that the writ of habeas corpus is "great constitutional privilege of the citizen" or "the first security of civil liberty". It provides a prompt and effective remedy against illegal detention under the Act or any other enactment authorising preventive detention. Therefore, to examine the question whether the detention is illegal, the writ of habeas corpus is an effective and prompt remedy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to preventive detention as mentioned in Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: A person arrested under preventive detention is to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. No person can be detained for a period of more than three months under any circumstances. Supreme Court can issue the writ of Habeas Corpus against such detention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 22: No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The 24-hour clause is not true for preventive detention. Hence statement 1 is not correct. When any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive detention, the authority making the order shall, as soon as may be, communicate to such person the grounds on which the order has been made and shall afford him the earliest opportunity of making a representation against the order. Nothing in the above clause shall require the authority to disclose facts which such authority considers to be against the public interest to disclose. Parliament may by law prescribe: the circumstances under which, and the class or classes of cases in which, a person may be detained for a period longer than three months under any law providing for preventive detention without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board. the maximum period for which any person may in any class or classes of cases be detained under any law providing for preventive detention; and the procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board in an inquiry. The Supreme Court ('Deepak Bajaj v/s State of Maharashtra and another' and various other cases) has observed that the writ of habeas corpus is "great constitutional privilege of the citizen" or "the first security of civil liberty". It provides a prompt and effective remedy against illegal detention under the Act or any other enactment authorising preventive detention. Therefore, to examine the question whether the detention is illegal, the writ of habeas corpus is an effective and prompt remedy. Hence statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
In the context of ancient history of India, the terms Nirukta , Jyotisha and Kalpa are related to
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Vedangas
|
Upanishads
|
Tantras
|
Vedangas
|
The Vedangas are six auxiliary disciplines in Vedic culture that developed in ancient times, and has been connected with the study of the Vedas. The study of Vedangas was considered necessary either for reading, understanding or the proper sacrificial element of Vedas. The six Vedangas are: Shiksha : focussed on the letters of the Sanskrit alphabet, accent, quantity etc. Chhandas (chandas): focussed on the poetic meters Vyakarana (vyākaraṇa): focussed on the rules of grammar and linguistic analysis. Nirukta : has focussed on linguistic analysis and etymology to help establish the proper meaning of the words Kalpa : focussed on standardizing procedures for Vedic rituals, Jyotisha : Focussed on auspicious time for rituals, astrology Astronomy: focussed on time keeping. The first two are considered necessary for reading, the next two for understanding and last two for employing it as sacrifices of the Vedas. Vedas are considered Apaursheya, i.e, not made by the men. Vedas are considered not to be composed by sages but these hymns were revealed to them by supreme creator. Vedanags cannot be ranked in the same category as its authorship is ascribed to human beings.
|
a
|
Vedic Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of ancient history of India, the terms Nirukta , Jyotisha and Kalpa are related to ##Option_A:Vedangas###Option_B:Upanishads##Option_C:Tantras##Option_D:Vedangas##Answer:a##Explaination:The Vedangas are six auxiliary disciplines in Vedic culture that developed in ancient times, and has been connected with the study of the Vedas. The study of Vedangas was considered necessary either for reading, understanding or the proper sacrificial element of Vedas. The six Vedangas are: Shiksha : focussed on the letters of the Sanskrit alphabet, accent, quantity etc. Chhandas (chandas): focussed on the poetic meters Vyakarana (vyākaraṇa): focussed on the rules of grammar and linguistic analysis. Nirukta : has focussed on linguistic analysis and etymology to help establish the proper meaning of the words Kalpa : focussed on standardizing procedures for Vedic rituals, Jyotisha : Focussed on auspicious time for rituals, astrology Astronomy: focussed on time keeping. The first two are considered necessary for reading, the next two for understanding and last two for employing it as sacrifices of the Vedas. Vedas are considered Apaursheya, i.e, not made by the men. Vedas are considered not to be composed by sages but these hymns were revealed to them by supreme creator. Vedanags cannot be ranked in the same category as its authorship is ascribed to human beings. ##Topic:Vedic Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Which of the following can be referred to as "Near Money"? Demand Drafts Shares Real Estate Government Bonds Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Near money is an economic term describing non-cash assets that can be easily converted into cash but are not used as a medium of exchange in everyday transactions. For example, the time deposits, Bills of Exchanges, Government and Private Bonds , Saving certificates, shares etc. possess the power of money, yet they are not used to perform immediate economic activities. Currency notes and demand deposits such as cheques, demand drafts etc. are more liquid than near money and can be used as medium of exchange in everyday transactions. Thus they are not categorized as near money. Real estate can not be called near money. The holder of the real estate needs to convert it into money before performing economic activities. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be referred to as "Near Money"? Demand Drafts Shares Real Estate Government Bonds Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Near money is an economic term describing non-cash assets that can be easily converted into cash but are not used as a medium of exchange in everyday transactions. For example, the time deposits, Bills of Exchanges, Government and Private Bonds , Saving certificates, shares etc. possess the power of money, yet they are not used to perform immediate economic activities. Currency notes and demand deposits such as cheques, demand drafts etc. are more liquid than near money and can be used as medium of exchange in everyday transactions. Thus they are not categorized as near money. Real estate can not be called near money. The holder of the real estate needs to convert it into money before performing economic activities. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
"The entire territory forms a complex hill system with varying elevations ranging from 50m in the foot-hills and gradually ascending to about 7000m. The vegetation falls under four broad climatic categories with forests ranging from tropical forests to degraded forest bamboos. It is also home to over six hundred varieties of orchids." Which of the states given below is best described by the above statements?
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Mizoram
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Himachal Pradesh
|
Arunachal Pradesh
|
Mizoram
|
Arunachal Pradesh is situated between 26°28' and 29°30' North latitudes and 97°30' and 97°30' East Longitudes covering an area of 83743 sq. km. Bio-geographically it is situated fin the Eastern Himalayan province, the richest biogeographical province of the Himalayan zone. The entire territory forms a complex hill system with varying elevations ranging from 50m in the foot-hills and gradually ascending to about 7000m, traversed throughout by a number of rivers and rivulets. The State is located at the junction of the Paleoarctic, indo-Chinese, and Indo-Malayan bio-geographic regions. Biotic elements from all these regions occur in this state making it very rich in floral & faunal resources. The vegetation of Arunachal Pradesh falls under four broad climatic categories and can be classified in five broad forest types. These are tropical forests, sub tropical forests, pine forests, temperate forests and alpine forests. In the degraded forests bamboos and other grasses are of common occurrence. Arunachal's rich and colorful orchids find a place of pride. Out of about a thousand species of orchids in India, over 600 are to be found in Arunachal alone. Hence this state can rightly be called the "Orchid Paradise" of our country.
|
c
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"The entire territory forms a complex hill system with varying elevations ranging from 50m in the foot-hills and gradually ascending to about 7000m. The vegetation falls under four broad climatic categories with forests ranging from tropical forests to degraded forest bamboos. It is also home to over six hundred varieties of orchids." Which of the states given below is best described by the above statements?##Option_A: Mizoram###Option_B: Himachal Pradesh##Option_C: Arunachal Pradesh##Option_D: Mizoram##Answer:c##Explaination:Arunachal Pradesh is situated between 26°28' and 29°30' North latitudes and 97°30' and 97°30' East Longitudes covering an area of 83743 sq. km. Bio-geographically it is situated fin the Eastern Himalayan province, the richest biogeographical province of the Himalayan zone. The entire territory forms a complex hill system with varying elevations ranging from 50m in the foot-hills and gradually ascending to about 7000m, traversed throughout by a number of rivers and rivulets. The State is located at the junction of the Paleoarctic, indo-Chinese, and Indo-Malayan bio-geographic regions. Biotic elements from all these regions occur in this state making it very rich in floral & faunal resources. The vegetation of Arunachal Pradesh falls under four broad climatic categories and can be classified in five broad forest types. These are tropical forests, sub tropical forests, pine forests, temperate forests and alpine forests. In the degraded forests bamboos and other grasses are of common occurrence. Arunachal's rich and colorful orchids find a place of pride. Out of about a thousand species of orchids in India, over 600 are to be found in Arunachal alone. Hence this state can rightly be called the "Orchid Paradise" of our country.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
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With reference to Gandhian ideology of Satyagraha, consider the following statements: It was a political tactic as well as philosophy of life. It involved self-suffering to convert an enemy to one’s own view. It was equivalent to passive resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct. For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: "It involves self-chosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing." Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: " The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
a
|
The Beginning of the Gandhian Era
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General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Gandhian ideology of Satyagraha, consider the following statements: It was a political tactic as well as philosophy of life. It involved self-suffering to convert an enemy to one’s own view. It was equivalent to passive resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct. For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: "It involves self-chosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing." Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: " The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:The Beginning of the Gandhian Era##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
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With reference to Sankirtana, consider the following statements: It is ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed by Vaishnava community in Assam. The performers narrate the lives and deeds of the ten avatars of Vishnu. The dance has been included in the Representative List of the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Sankirtana is a ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur encompassing an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains. Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees. Sankirtana is not performed by priests and priestesses of the temple. Rather, Lai Haraoba, literally meaning - the merrymaking of the gods, is performed as a ceremonial offering of song and dance. The principal performers are the maibas and maibis (priests and priestesses) who re-enact the theme of the creation of the world.
|
c
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Indian Dance
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Geology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sankirtana, consider the following statements: It is ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed by Vaishnava community in Assam. The performers narrate the lives and deeds of the ten avatars of Vishnu. The dance has been included in the Representative List of the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Sankirtana is a ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur encompassing an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains. Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees. Sankirtana is not performed by priests and priestesses of the temple. Rather, Lai Haraoba, literally meaning - the merrymaking of the gods, is performed as a ceremonial offering of song and dance. The principal performers are the maibas and maibis (priests and priestesses) who re-enact the theme of the creation of the world.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
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Which of the following are eligible to participate in Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) auctions? Private Scheduled Commercial Banks Foreign Scheduled Commercial Banks Regional Rural Banks Primary Dealers NBFCs Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
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1, 2 and 3 only
|
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a monetary policy tool of Reserve Bank of India for modulating liquidity and transmitting interest rate signals to the market. It is used to aid banks in adjusting the day to day mismatches in liquidity. The two components of LAF are repo rate and reverse repo rate. Under Repo, the banks borrow money from RBI to meet short term needs by putting government securities as collateral. Under Reverse Repo, RBI borrows money from banks by lending securities. Other than Regional Rural Banks, all the Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible to participate in auctions. Primary Dealers (PDs) and NBFCs are also eligible to participate in auctions. Primary dealers are registered entities with the RBI who have the license to purchase and sell government securities. They are entities who buys government securities directly from the RBI (the RBI issues government securities on behalf of the government), aiming to resell them to other buyers. Hence (d) is the correct answer.
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d
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Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
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Anthropology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are eligible to participate in Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) auctions? Private Scheduled Commercial Banks Foreign Scheduled Commercial Banks Regional Rural Banks Primary Dealers NBFCs Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a monetary policy tool of Reserve Bank of India for modulating liquidity and transmitting interest rate signals to the market. It is used to aid banks in adjusting the day to day mismatches in liquidity. The two components of LAF are repo rate and reverse repo rate. Under Repo, the banks borrow money from RBI to meet short term needs by putting government securities as collateral. Under Reverse Repo, RBI borrows money from banks by lending securities. Other than Regional Rural Banks, all the Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible to participate in auctions. Primary Dealers (PDs) and NBFCs are also eligible to participate in auctions. Primary dealers are registered entities with the RBI who have the license to purchase and sell government securities. They are entities who buys government securities directly from the RBI (the RBI issues government securities on behalf of the government), aiming to resell them to other buyers. Hence (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
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With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana- Gramin, consider the following statements: The beneficiaries under the scheme will be identified using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC)-2011 data. The beneficiary under the scheme is entitled to 90 days of unskilled labour from MGNREGA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
|
The Union Cabinet, recently approved for the implementation of the rural housing scheme of Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin. Under the scheme, financial assistance is provided for construction of pucca house to all houseless and households living in dilapidated houses. Implementation strategy and targets: Identification of beneficiaries eligible for assistance and their prioritization to be done using information from Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) ensuring total transparency and objectivity. The cost of unit assistance to be shared between Central and State Governments in the ratio 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and hilly states. Funds will be transferred electronically directly to the account of the beneficiary. The beneficiary is entitled to 90 days of unskilled labour from MGNREGA. This will be ensured through a server linkage between PMAY and MGNREGA. Construction has been made an eligible item of work under MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme) programme and therefore 90 man days of unskilled manual wages can also be availed of by housing scheme beneficiaries. Locally appropriate house designs, incorporating features to address the natural calamities common to the region will be made available to beneficiaries. To meet the additional requirement of building materials, manufacture of bricks using cement stabilized earth or fly ash will be taken up under MGNREGA. A National Technical Support Agency will be set up to provide technical support to the Centre and States to facilitate construction of the houses targeted and to ensure their quality.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana- Gramin, consider the following statements: The beneficiaries under the scheme will be identified using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC)-2011 data. The beneficiary under the scheme is entitled to 90 days of unskilled labour from MGNREGA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Union Cabinet, recently approved for the implementation of the rural housing scheme of Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin. Under the scheme, financial assistance is provided for construction of pucca house to all houseless and households living in dilapidated houses. Implementation strategy and targets: Identification of beneficiaries eligible for assistance and their prioritization to be done using information from Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) ensuring total transparency and objectivity. The cost of unit assistance to be shared between Central and State Governments in the ratio 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and hilly states. Funds will be transferred electronically directly to the account of the beneficiary. The beneficiary is entitled to 90 days of unskilled labour from MGNREGA. This will be ensured through a server linkage between PMAY and MGNREGA. Construction has been made an eligible item of work under MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme) programme and therefore 90 man days of unskilled manual wages can also be availed of by housing scheme beneficiaries. Locally appropriate house designs, incorporating features to address the natural calamities common to the region will be made available to beneficiaries. To meet the additional requirement of building materials, manufacture of bricks using cement stabilized earth or fly ash will be taken up under MGNREGA. A National Technical Support Agency will be set up to provide technical support to the Centre and States to facilitate construction of the houses targeted and to ensure their quality.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
A Bill containing which of the following provisions can be considered a Money Bill? Custody and withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India. Custody of Contingency Fund of India. Audit of the accounts of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Definition of "Money Bills"( Article 110) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely: the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund; the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure; the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State ; or any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.
|
d
|
Types of bills and Legislative procedure
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A Bill containing which of the following provisions can be considered a Money Bill? Custody and withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India. Custody of Contingency Fund of India. Audit of the accounts of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Definition of "Money Bills"( Article 110) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely: the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund; the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure; the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State ; or any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.##Topic:Types of bills and Legislative procedure##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of over exploitation of groundwater? Reduction of water in streams and lakes Increased salinity of water Land subsidence Drying up of wells Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Reduction of water in streams and lakes and drying up of wells: Groundwater pumping can alter how water moves between an aquifer and a stream, lake, or wetland by either intercepting groundwater flow that discharges into the surface-water body under natural conditions, or by increasing the rate of water movement from the surface-water body into an aquifer. Increased Salinity: Inland salinity in ground water is prevalent mainly in the arid and semi arid regions of Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Inland salinity is also caused due to practice of surface water irrigation without consideration of ground water status. Land subsidence: Land subsidence generally occurs when groundwater is mined in an unplanned way. The impact is more evident in rocks made of fine-grained sediments. Decline of groundwater table causes a vertical compression of sediments bearing the water. Sometimes, lateral compression may also take place along with this vertical compression. Lowering of the pore water pressure in a layer results in an increase of the effective stress in the soil, resulting in consolidation of the soil which manifests as land subsidence. In India, fear of subsidence looms large over Jamshedpur, Godda, Jharia and Kanke because of over use of underground water.
|
d
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of over exploitation of groundwater? Reduction of water in streams and lakes Increased salinity of water Land subsidence Drying up of wells Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Reduction of water in streams and lakes and drying up of wells: Groundwater pumping can alter how water moves between an aquifer and a stream, lake, or wetland by either intercepting groundwater flow that discharges into the surface-water body under natural conditions, or by increasing the rate of water movement from the surface-water body into an aquifer. Increased Salinity: Inland salinity in ground water is prevalent mainly in the arid and semi arid regions of Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Inland salinity is also caused due to practice of surface water irrigation without consideration of ground water status. Land subsidence: Land subsidence generally occurs when groundwater is mined in an unplanned way. The impact is more evident in rocks made of fine-grained sediments. Decline of groundwater table causes a vertical compression of sediments bearing the water. Sometimes, lateral compression may also take place along with this vertical compression. Lowering of the pore water pressure in a layer results in an increase of the effective stress in the soil, resulting in consolidation of the soil which manifests as land subsidence. In India, fear of subsidence looms large over Jamshedpur, Godda, Jharia and Kanke because of over use of underground water.##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following conditions are necessary for the development of Karst topography? Thick massive soluble rock Jointed bedrock Relief Moderate to heavy rainfall Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
The conditions, which are necessary for the development of typical karst topography, include the following: Relatively thick massive soluble rock , i.e., limestone, dolomite, or chalk near the surface. Marked development of joints . If the rock is bedded, the beds should be thin. Considerable relief (preferably several hundred meters) so that water is capable of circulation to cause typical karst topography. Moderate to heavy rainfall to cause solution of rocks. Rainfall becomes carbonate by absorbing atmospheric CO2. Moreover, rainfall encourages growth of plants whose decomposition is an additional source of CO2 to the flowing water. In dry areas the development of karst landscape is inhibited. In India, Karst topography is observed in parts of Himalayas, Chhattisgarh basin and coastal areas. Yana is a village located in forests of the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, India which is known for the development of karst topography. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions are necessary for the development of Karst topography? Thick massive soluble rock Jointed bedrock Relief Moderate to heavy rainfall Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The conditions, which are necessary for the development of typical karst topography, include the following: Relatively thick massive soluble rock , i.e., limestone, dolomite, or chalk near the surface. Marked development of joints . If the rock is bedded, the beds should be thin. Considerable relief (preferably several hundred meters) so that water is capable of circulation to cause typical karst topography. Moderate to heavy rainfall to cause solution of rocks. Rainfall becomes carbonate by absorbing atmospheric CO2. Moreover, rainfall encourages growth of plants whose decomposition is an additional source of CO2 to the flowing water. In dry areas the development of karst landscape is inhibited. In India, Karst topography is observed in parts of Himalayas, Chhattisgarh basin and coastal areas. Yana is a village located in forests of the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, India which is known for the development of karst topography. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha: The Constitution fixes the term of a Rajya Sabha member as six years. All states and Union Territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. There is a provision for the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in RoPA (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Though all states are represented, out of the seven UTs, only two - Delhi and Puducherry have representation in Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs is there only in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
|
d
|
Working of the Rajya Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha: The Constitution fixes the term of a Rajya Sabha member as six years. All states and Union Territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. There is a provision for the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in RoPA (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Though all states are represented, out of the seven UTs, only two - Delhi and Puducherry have representation in Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs is there only in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:Working of the Rajya Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Ocean Current : Ocean : Type Cayenne Current : Pacific : Warm Irminger Current : Atlantic : Cold Agulhas current : Pacific : Cold Benguela Current : Atlantic : Cold Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Correct matches are as given Below Ocean Current : Ocean : Warm/Cold Cayenne Current : Atlantic : Warm Irminger Current : Atlantic : Cold Agulhas current : Indian : Warm Benguela Current : Atlantic : Cold
|
b
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Ocean Current : Ocean : Type Cayenne Current : Pacific : Warm Irminger Current : Atlantic : Cold Agulhas current : Pacific : Cold Benguela Current : Atlantic : Cold Select the correct answer using the code given below: ##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Correct matches are as given Below Ocean Current : Ocean : Warm/Cold Cayenne Current : Atlantic : Warm Irminger Current : Atlantic : Cold Agulhas current : Indian : Warm Benguela Current : Atlantic : Cold ##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding Atlantic Ocean Currents is/are correct? The Gulf Stream gets deflected off the coast of North America at Cape Hatteras due to Westerlies and coriolis force. More than two thirds of the water moved towards the Poles by the Gulf Stream is returned annually to the tropics by dense,cold polar water creeping at ocean depths. The Sargasso sea is an area in the Atlantic Ocean where warm and cold currents meet resulting into growth of sea weeds in abundance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 Only
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 Only
|
Statement 1 is correct because the Coriolis forces play an important role along with the Westerlies in deflecting the Gulf Stream. Statement 2 is correct as per research by Oceanographers, more than two thirds of the water moved towards the Poles by the Gulf Stream is returned annually to the tropics by dense, cold polar water creeping at ocean depths. Statement 3 is not correct as the Sargasso sea is an area in the Atlantic Ocean where there is no perceptible current, thus facilitating growth of Sea Weeds.
|
b
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Atlantic Ocean Currents is/are correct? The Gulf Stream gets deflected off the coast of North America at Cape Hatteras due to Westerlies and coriolis force. More than two thirds of the water moved towards the Poles by the Gulf Stream is returned annually to the tropics by dense,cold polar water creeping at ocean depths. The Sargasso sea is an area in the Atlantic Ocean where warm and cold currents meet resulting into growth of sea weeds in abundance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 Only ###Option_B:1 and 2##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 Only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct because the Coriolis forces play an important role along with the Westerlies in deflecting the Gulf Stream. Statement 2 is correct as per research by Oceanographers, more than two thirds of the water moved towards the Poles by the Gulf Stream is returned annually to the tropics by dense, cold polar water creeping at ocean depths. Statement 3 is not correct as the Sargasso sea is an area in the Atlantic Ocean where there is no perceptible current, thus facilitating growth of Sea Weeds.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding a political party: 1. The word 'political party' is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. 2. The symbols to political parties are alloted by the Election Commission of India. 3. Only Supreme Court of India settles disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution originally didnot have the word political party but through 52nd amendment to the Constitution in 1985 was added the Tenth Schedule ( Hence, statement 1 is not correct ) which laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection i.e. A member of parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote. That is, they may not vote on any issue in contravention to the party’s whip. Independent members would be disqualified if they joined a political party. Nominated members who were not members of a party could choose to join a party within six months; after that period, they were treated as a party member or independent member. The Election Commission of India grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them and act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. However, the decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of the India by appropriate petitions. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3rd is not correct.
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding a political party: 1. The word 'political party' is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. 2. The symbols to political parties are alloted by the Election Commission of India. 3. Only Supreme Court of India settles disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Constitution originally didnot have the word political party but through 52nd amendment to the Constitution in 1985 was added the Tenth Schedule ( Hence, statement 1 is not correct ) which laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection i.e. A member of parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote. That is, they may not vote on any issue in contravention to the party’s whip. Independent members would be disqualified if they joined a political party. Nominated members who were not members of a party could choose to join a party within six months; after that period, they were treated as a party member or independent member. The Election Commission of India grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them and act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. However, the decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of the India by appropriate petitions. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3rd is not correct.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
What do you mean by Money and banking? Is it good to invest in Stock Market? quick brown fox jumps right over the lazy dog
|
Answer shall be A and B and C and D
|
Answer shall be B
|
Answer Shall be C
|
Answer shall be A and B and C and D
|
'We should strive to fully transform the people's armed forces into a world-class military by the mid-21st century,' Xi told 2,300 delegates of the Chinese Communist Party , which he heads and which controls the army.
|
c
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What do you mean by Money and banking? Is it good to invest in Stock Market? quick brown fox jumps right over the lazy dog##Option_A:Answer shall be A and B and C and D###Option_B:Answer shall be B##Option_C:Answer Shall be C##Option_D:Answer shall be A and B and C and D##Answer:c##Explaination:'We should strive to fully transform the people's armed forces into a world-class military by the mid-21st century,' Xi told 2,300 delegates of the Chinese Communist Party , which he heads and which controls the army.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Textile industry is an example of:
Agro-based industry
Mineral based industry
Co-operative industry
Marine based industry
Answer-(a)
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
.
|
a
|
Industriestypes and their locational factors
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Textile industry is an example of:
Agro-based industry
Mineral based industry
Co-operative industry
Marine based industry
Answer-(a)##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Industriestypes and their locational factors##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the nature of revolt of 1857: 1. The sepoys from all over the India participated in the revolt. 2. The revolt worked as a precursor for the rebellion of civil population. 3. Feeling of nationalism was the driving force of the sepoys in this revolt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect – impact of this revolt was higher in North India but in south impact was negligible, even the Madras army remained totally loyal and Punjab and Bengal were marginally affected. Statement 2 is correct - The Revolt of the sepoys worked as a precursor for the rebellion of civil population. Particularly in the North Western Provinces and Oudh, The action of the sepoys released the rural population from fear of the state and the control exercised by the administration. Their accumulated grievances found immediate expression and they rose en masse to give vent to their opposition to British rule. Statement 3 is incorrect – modern nationalism was unknown at that time. Patriotism meant love of one’s small locality or at most one’s state.
|
b
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the nature of revolt of 1857: 1. The sepoys from all over the India participated in the revolt. 2. The revolt worked as a precursor for the rebellion of civil population. 3. Feeling of nationalism was the driving force of the sepoys in this revolt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect – impact of this revolt was higher in North India but in south impact was negligible, even the Madras army remained totally loyal and Punjab and Bengal were marginally affected. Statement 2 is correct - The Revolt of the sepoys worked as a precursor for the rebellion of civil population. Particularly in the North Western Provinces and Oudh, The action of the sepoys released the rural population from fear of the state and the control exercised by the administration. Their accumulated grievances found immediate expression and they rose en masse to give vent to their opposition to British rule. Statement 3 is incorrect – modern nationalism was unknown at that time. Patriotism meant love of one’s small locality or at most one’s state. ##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिये-
संस्थाएँ/संगठन संस्थापक/प्रमुख नेता
1. सत्यशोधक समाज : ज्योतिबा फूले
2. जस्टिस आंदोलन : नारायण गुरू
3. आत्मसम्मान आंदोलन : ई.वी. रामास्वामी नायकर(पेरियार)
4. श्री नारायण धर्म परिपालन : पी.त्यागराज चेट्टी
योगम(एस.एन.डी.पी. योगम)
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
|
केवल 1 तथा 2
|
केवल 1 तथा 3
|
केवल 2 तथा 3
|
केवल 1 तथा 2
|
nan
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिये-
संस्थाएँ/संगठन संस्थापक/प्रमुख नेता
1. सत्यशोधक समाज : ज्योतिबा फूले
2. जस्टिस आंदोलन : नारायण गुरू
3. आत्मसम्मान आंदोलन : ई.वी. रामास्वामी नायकर(पेरियार)
4. श्री नारायण धर्म परिपालन : पी.त्यागराज चेट्टी
योगम(एस.एन.डी.पी. योगम)
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित है/हैं? ##Option_A:केवल 1 तथा 2 ###Option_B:केवल 1 तथा 3 ##Option_C:केवल 2 तथा 3 ##Option_D:केवल 1 तथा 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the revolt of 1857: 1. The sepoys from all over India participated in the revolt. 2. The rebels had a coherent ideology and future vision of society. 3. A feeling of nationalism was the driving force of the sepoys in this revolt. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Revolt of 1857 was a major, but ultimately unsuccessful, the uprising in India in 1857–58 against the rule of the British East India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown The Indian rebellion was fed by resentments born of diverse perceptions, including invasive British-style social reforms, harsh land taxes, summary treatment of some rich landowners and princes, as well as skepticism about the improvements brought about by British rule Statement 1 is not correct: Impact of this revolt was higher in North India but in the south impact was negligible, even the Madras army remained totally loyal and Punjab and Bengal were marginally affected. Statement 2 is not correct: As rebels lacked the forward-looking program, coherent ideology, a political perspective or future vision of society. This all became weaknesses of the revolt. Statement 3 is not correct: Modern nationalism was unknown at that time. Patriotism meant love of one’s small locality or at most one’s state.
|
d
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the revolt of 1857: 1. The sepoys from all over India participated in the revolt. 2. The rebels had a coherent ideology and future vision of society. 3. A feeling of nationalism was the driving force of the sepoys in this revolt. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Revolt of 1857 was a major, but ultimately unsuccessful, the uprising in India in 1857–58 against the rule of the British East India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown The Indian rebellion was fed by resentments born of diverse perceptions, including invasive British-style social reforms, harsh land taxes, summary treatment of some rich landowners and princes, as well as skepticism about the improvements brought about by British rule Statement 1 is not correct: Impact of this revolt was higher in North India but in the south impact was negligible, even the Madras army remained totally loyal and Punjab and Bengal were marginally affected. Statement 2 is not correct: As rebels lacked the forward-looking program, coherent ideology, a political perspective or future vision of society. This all became weaknesses of the revolt. Statement 3 is not correct: Modern nationalism was unknown at that time. Patriotism meant love of one’s small locality or at most one’s state.##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in the context of Indian traditional medicine system:
1. Of the AYUSH systems, only Unani is of non-Indian origin.
2. Siddha system is mainly practiced in the Himalayan states of India.
3. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) initiative helps protect the traditional Indian medicine systems by storing ancient texts on the same.
4. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act (1940) which regulates the sale of regular and homeopathic drugs also regulates the sale of Ayurvedic and Unani drugs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The healthcare needs of more than 70% population and livelihood of millions of people in India are dependent on traditional medicine. Indian Systems of Medicine are among the well known global traditional systems of medicine. The system of medicines which are considered to be Indian in origin or the systems of medicine, which have come to India from outside and got assimilated into Indian culture are known as Indian Systems of Medicine. India has the unique distinction of having six recognized systems of medicine in this category. They are-Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Yoga, Naturopathy, Homoeopathy and SOWA-RIGPA Ayurveda literally means the science of life. The antique Vedic texts have scattered references of Ayurvedic Remedies and allied aspects of medicine and health. Atharva-Veda mainly deals with extensive Ayurvedic information. That is why Ayurveda is said to be the offshoot of Atharva Veda. The concepts and practices of Yoga originated in India about several thousand years ago. Yoga is one of the six systems of Vedic philosophy. Maharishi Patanjali, rightly called "The Father of Yoga" compiled and refined various aspects of Yoga systematically in his "Yoga Sutras" (aphorisms). He advocated the eight folds path of Yoga, popularly known as "Ashtanga Yoga" for all-round development of human beings. The Unani system originated in Greece . The foundation of the Unani system was laid by Hippocrates. Unani Medicines got enriched by imbibing what was best in the contemporary systems of traditional medicines in Egypt, Syria, Iraq, Persia, India, China, and other Middle East countries. In India, the Unani System of Medicine was introduced by Arabs and soon it took firm roots. The Delhi Sultans (rulers) provided patronage to the scholars of the Unani System and even enrolled some as state employees and court physicians. During the 13th and 17th century A.D. Unani Medicine had its hey-day in India. Siddha system of medicine is practiced in some parts of South India especially in the state of Tamil Nadu. It has a close affinity to Ayurveda yet it maintains a distinctive identity of its own. This system has come to be closely identified with Tamil civilization. The term ‘Siddha’ has come from ‘Siddhi’- which means achievement. Siddhars were the men who achieved supreme knowledge in the field of medicine, yoga, or tapa (meditation). Hence statement 2 is not correct. Homeopathy was developed in the late 18th century by Samuel Hahnemann, a respected doctor in Germany. The word ‘ Homeopathy’ is derived from two Greek words hómoios (similar) and páthos (suffering). This means in Homeopathy natural diseases are treated with substances that produce effects similar to the suffering. The key principle of this medical approach is similia similibus curentur . Homeopaths generally refer to this as Like be treated with likes. The system was propounded by a German physician Dr. Christian Friedrich Samuel Hahnemann. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. "Sowa-Rigpa" commonly known as the Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest, living, and well documented medical traditions of the world. It has been popularly practiced in Tibet, Mongolia, Bhutan, some parts of China, Nepal, Himalayan regions of India, and few parts of former the Soviet Union, etc. There are various schools of thought about the origin of this medical tradition. The majority of theory and practice of Sowa-Rigpa is similar to "Ayurveda". Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is a pioneering initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) to protect Indian traditional medicinal knowledge and prevent its misappropriation at International Patent Offices. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library has overcome the language and format barrier by systematically and scientifically converting and structuring the available contents of the ancient texts on Indian Systems of Medicines i.e. Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Sowa Rigpa as well as Yoga , into five international languages, namely, English, Japanese, French, German and Spanish, with the help of information technology tools and an innovative classification system - Traditional Knowledge Resource Classification (TKRC). TKDL is proving to be an effective deterrent against bio-piracy and has been recognized internationally as a unique effort. Hence statement 3 is correct. The regulatory and quality control mechanism for Ayurvedic, Siddha, Unani and Homeopathic drugs has been established in the country in accordance with the provisions of the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945. Exclusive provisions exist in the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940, and rules thereunder for the licensing, manufacturing, labeling, shelf-life, and testing of these drugs. Central Government is vested with the powers to make and amend the legal provisions and to give directions to the State Governments. State Governments are responsible to enforce the legal provisions for AYUSH drugs, for which Licensing Authorities/Drug Controllers are appointed in the states. Hence statement 4 is correct.
|
c
|
Environment Technology
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in the context of Indian traditional medicine system:
1. Of the AYUSH systems, only Unani is of non-Indian origin.
2. Siddha system is mainly practiced in the Himalayan states of India.
3. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) initiative helps protect the traditional Indian medicine systems by storing ancient texts on the same.
4. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act (1940) which regulates the sale of regular and homeopathic drugs also regulates the sale of Ayurvedic and Unani drugs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The healthcare needs of more than 70% population and livelihood of millions of people in India are dependent on traditional medicine. Indian Systems of Medicine are among the well known global traditional systems of medicine. The system of medicines which are considered to be Indian in origin or the systems of medicine, which have come to India from outside and got assimilated into Indian culture are known as Indian Systems of Medicine. India has the unique distinction of having six recognized systems of medicine in this category. They are-Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Yoga, Naturopathy, Homoeopathy and SOWA-RIGPA Ayurveda literally means the science of life. The antique Vedic texts have scattered references of Ayurvedic Remedies and allied aspects of medicine and health. Atharva-Veda mainly deals with extensive Ayurvedic information. That is why Ayurveda is said to be the offshoot of Atharva Veda. The concepts and practices of Yoga originated in India about several thousand years ago. Yoga is one of the six systems of Vedic philosophy. Maharishi Patanjali, rightly called "The Father of Yoga" compiled and refined various aspects of Yoga systematically in his "Yoga Sutras" (aphorisms). He advocated the eight folds path of Yoga, popularly known as "Ashtanga Yoga" for all-round development of human beings. The Unani system originated in Greece . The foundation of the Unani system was laid by Hippocrates. Unani Medicines got enriched by imbibing what was best in the contemporary systems of traditional medicines in Egypt, Syria, Iraq, Persia, India, China, and other Middle East countries. In India, the Unani System of Medicine was introduced by Arabs and soon it took firm roots. The Delhi Sultans (rulers) provided patronage to the scholars of the Unani System and even enrolled some as state employees and court physicians. During the 13th and 17th century A.D. Unani Medicine had its hey-day in India. Siddha system of medicine is practiced in some parts of South India especially in the state of Tamil Nadu. It has a close affinity to Ayurveda yet it maintains a distinctive identity of its own. This system has come to be closely identified with Tamil civilization. The term ‘Siddha’ has come from ‘Siddhi’- which means achievement. Siddhars were the men who achieved supreme knowledge in the field of medicine, yoga, or tapa (meditation). Hence statement 2 is not correct. Homeopathy was developed in the late 18th century by Samuel Hahnemann, a respected doctor in Germany. The word ‘ Homeopathy’ is derived from two Greek words hómoios (similar) and páthos (suffering). This means in Homeopathy natural diseases are treated with substances that produce effects similar to the suffering. The key principle of this medical approach is similia similibus curentur . Homeopaths generally refer to this as Like be treated with likes. The system was propounded by a German physician Dr. Christian Friedrich Samuel Hahnemann. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. "Sowa-Rigpa" commonly known as the Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest, living, and well documented medical traditions of the world. It has been popularly practiced in Tibet, Mongolia, Bhutan, some parts of China, Nepal, Himalayan regions of India, and few parts of former the Soviet Union, etc. There are various schools of thought about the origin of this medical tradition. The majority of theory and practice of Sowa-Rigpa is similar to "Ayurveda". Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is a pioneering initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) to protect Indian traditional medicinal knowledge and prevent its misappropriation at International Patent Offices. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library has overcome the language and format barrier by systematically and scientifically converting and structuring the available contents of the ancient texts on Indian Systems of Medicines i.e. Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Sowa Rigpa as well as Yoga , into five international languages, namely, English, Japanese, French, German and Spanish, with the help of information technology tools and an innovative classification system - Traditional Knowledge Resource Classification (TKRC). TKDL is proving to be an effective deterrent against bio-piracy and has been recognized internationally as a unique effort. Hence statement 3 is correct. The regulatory and quality control mechanism for Ayurvedic, Siddha, Unani and Homeopathic drugs has been established in the country in accordance with the provisions of the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945. Exclusive provisions exist in the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940, and rules thereunder for the licensing, manufacturing, labeling, shelf-life, and testing of these drugs. Central Government is vested with the powers to make and amend the legal provisions and to give directions to the State Governments. State Governments are responsible to enforce the legal provisions for AYUSH drugs, for which Licensing Authorities/Drug Controllers are appointed in the states. Hence statement 4 is correct.##Topic:Environment Technology##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
In the aftermath of heavy floods, a state government in India wants to implement a major infrastructure project through a state-owned entity. In which of the following ways can the state government augment its financial resources? 1. With prior approval from the central government, the entity can borrow directly from the World Bank. 2. With prior approval from the GST council, the state government can levy cess on GST. 3. With prior approval from the RBI, the state government can issue Treasury Bills Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Option 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet has approved the policy guidelines to allow financially sound State Government entities to borrow directly from bilateral ODA (Official Development Assistance) partners for implementation of vital infrastructure projects. The guidelines will facilitate the State Government entities to directly borrow from the external bilateral funding agencies subject to fulfilment of certain conditions and all repayments of loans and interests to the funding agencies will be directly remitted by the concerned borrower. The concerned State Government will furnish guarantee for the Loan. The Government of India will provide counter-guarantee for the loan. Option 2 is correct: Recently Kerala has become the first state to impose calamity cess on GST. States can levy such a cess if and only if it is approved by the GST Council. The formal request must first be presented to the Council. Option 3 is not correct: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs) . G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
|
a
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the aftermath of heavy floods, a state government in India wants to implement a major infrastructure project through a state-owned entity. In which of the following ways can the state government augment its financial resources? 1. With prior approval from the central government, the entity can borrow directly from the World Bank. 2. With prior approval from the GST council, the state government can levy cess on GST. 3. With prior approval from the RBI, the state government can issue Treasury Bills Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Option 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet has approved the policy guidelines to allow financially sound State Government entities to borrow directly from bilateral ODA (Official Development Assistance) partners for implementation of vital infrastructure projects. The guidelines will facilitate the State Government entities to directly borrow from the external bilateral funding agencies subject to fulfilment of certain conditions and all repayments of loans and interests to the funding agencies will be directly remitted by the concerned borrower. The concerned State Government will furnish guarantee for the Loan. The Government of India will provide counter-guarantee for the loan. Option 2 is correct: Recently Kerala has become the first state to impose calamity cess on GST. States can levy such a cess if and only if it is approved by the GST Council. The formal request must first be presented to the Council. Option 3 is not correct: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs) . G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) uses focused beams of electrons to render high resolution, three-dimensional images. SEM has applications in which of the following areas? 1. Agriculture 2. Testing new vaccine and medicines 3. Microchip production 4. Criminal and forensic investigations Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) uses focused beams of electrons to render high resolution, three-dimensional images. These images provide information on topography, morphology, and composition. SEMs use a beam of electrons rather than a beam of light. An electron source located at the top of the microscope emits a beam of highly concentrated electrons. Within the fields of industrial application and research, there is an increasing focus on quality control at microscopic scales. Achieving high-resolution imagery with a scanning electron microscope can provide insight into many fields, making SEMs indispensable tools across many fields. Scanning Electron Microscopes (SEMs) are used across a number of industrial, commercial, and research applications. From cutting edge fabrication processes to forensic applications, there’s a diverse range of practical applications for the modern SEM. Applications of Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM): SEMs are used in materials science for research, quality control, and failure analysis. In modern materials science, investigations into nanotubes and nanofibres, high-temperature superconductors, mesoporous architectures, and alloy strength, all rely heavily on the use of SEMs for research and investigation. The reliable performance of semiconductors requires accurate topographical information. The high-resolution three-dimensional images produced by SEMs offers a speedy, accurate measurement of the composition of the semiconductor. Microchip production is increasingly relying on SEMs to help gain insight into the effectiveness of new production and fabrication methods. With smaller and smaller scales and materials, as well as the potential of complex self-assembling polymers, the high resolution, the three-dimensional capacity of SEMs is invaluable to microchip design and production. As the Internet of Things (IoT) becomes more prevalent in the day to day lives of consumers and manufacturers, SEMs will continue to play an important role in the design of low cost, low power chipsets for non-traditional computers and networked devices. Hence option 3 is correct. Criminal and other forensic investigations utilize SEMs to uncover evidence and gain further forensic insight. Uses include analysis of gunshot residue, jewelry examination, bullet marking comparison, handwriting and print analysis examination of banknote authenticity, paint particle and fiber analysis filament bulb analysis in traffic incidents, etc. Since SEMs offer the ability to examine a wide range of materials at high and low magnification without sacrificing depth of focus, their use in forensic sciences makes it possible to draw conclusions, identify material origins and contribute to a body of evidence in criminal and legal matters. Hence option 4 is correct. In biological sciences, SEMs can be used on anything from insects and animal tissue to bacteria and viruses. Uses include: measuring the effect of climate change of species, identifying new bacteria and virulent strains, vaccination testing , uncovering new species, and work within the field of genetics. Hence option 2 is correct. Geological sampling using a scanning electron microscope can determine the weathering processes and morphology of the samples. Backscattered electron imaging can be used to identify compositional differences, while the composition of elements can be provided by microanalysis. Valid uses include soil quality measurement for farming and agriculture , identification of tools and early human artefacts etc. Hence option 1 is correct.
|
d
|
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) uses focused beams of electrons to render high resolution, three-dimensional images. SEM has applications in which of the following areas? 1. Agriculture 2. Testing new vaccine and medicines 3. Microchip production 4. Criminal and forensic investigations Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:3 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) uses focused beams of electrons to render high resolution, three-dimensional images. These images provide information on topography, morphology, and composition. SEMs use a beam of electrons rather than a beam of light. An electron source located at the top of the microscope emits a beam of highly concentrated electrons. Within the fields of industrial application and research, there is an increasing focus on quality control at microscopic scales. Achieving high-resolution imagery with a scanning electron microscope can provide insight into many fields, making SEMs indispensable tools across many fields. Scanning Electron Microscopes (SEMs) are used across a number of industrial, commercial, and research applications. From cutting edge fabrication processes to forensic applications, there’s a diverse range of practical applications for the modern SEM. Applications of Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM): SEMs are used in materials science for research, quality control, and failure analysis. In modern materials science, investigations into nanotubes and nanofibres, high-temperature superconductors, mesoporous architectures, and alloy strength, all rely heavily on the use of SEMs for research and investigation. The reliable performance of semiconductors requires accurate topographical information. The high-resolution three-dimensional images produced by SEMs offers a speedy, accurate measurement of the composition of the semiconductor. Microchip production is increasingly relying on SEMs to help gain insight into the effectiveness of new production and fabrication methods. With smaller and smaller scales and materials, as well as the potential of complex self-assembling polymers, the high resolution, the three-dimensional capacity of SEMs is invaluable to microchip design and production. As the Internet of Things (IoT) becomes more prevalent in the day to day lives of consumers and manufacturers, SEMs will continue to play an important role in the design of low cost, low power chipsets for non-traditional computers and networked devices. Hence option 3 is correct. Criminal and other forensic investigations utilize SEMs to uncover evidence and gain further forensic insight. Uses include analysis of gunshot residue, jewelry examination, bullet marking comparison, handwriting and print analysis examination of banknote authenticity, paint particle and fiber analysis filament bulb analysis in traffic incidents, etc. Since SEMs offer the ability to examine a wide range of materials at high and low magnification without sacrificing depth of focus, their use in forensic sciences makes it possible to draw conclusions, identify material origins and contribute to a body of evidence in criminal and legal matters. Hence option 4 is correct. In biological sciences, SEMs can be used on anything from insects and animal tissue to bacteria and viruses. Uses include: measuring the effect of climate change of species, identifying new bacteria and virulent strains, vaccination testing , uncovering new species, and work within the field of genetics. Hence option 2 is correct. Geological sampling using a scanning electron microscope can determine the weathering processes and morphology of the samples. Backscattered electron imaging can be used to identify compositional differences, while the composition of elements can be provided by microanalysis. Valid uses include soil quality measurement for farming and agriculture , identification of tools and early human artefacts etc. Hence option 1 is correct.##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
The sepoys during the revolt of 1857 proclaimed Bahadur shah as their leader, reason being:
1. To give a positive political meaning to the revolt.
2. Rebellion had no leaders of their own ranks.
3. Bahadur shah, being the Mughal emperior, was very powerful and active against British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - The capture of Delhi and the proclamation of Bahadur Shah as the Emperor of Hindustan and the leader of sepoys gave a positive political meaning to the revolt and provided a rallying point for the rebels by recalling the past glory of the imperial city.
Statement 2 is correct - In the absence of any leaders from their own ranks, the insurgents turned to the traditional leaders of Indian society, this was also one of the reason that they requested Bahadur Shah to become their leader.
Statement 3 is incorrect - Bahadur Shah II, the Moghul Emperor— a pensioner of the British East India Company, who possessed nothing but the name of the mighty Mughals, he was neither sure of the intentions of the sepoys nor of his own ability to play an effective role. He was neither powerful nor active against British.
|
b
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The sepoys during the revolt of 1857 proclaimed Bahadur shah as their leader, reason being:
1. To give a positive political meaning to the revolt.
2. Rebellion had no leaders of their own ranks.
3. Bahadur shah, being the Mughal emperior, was very powerful and active against British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct - The capture of Delhi and the proclamation of Bahadur Shah as the Emperor of Hindustan and the leader of sepoys gave a positive political meaning to the revolt and provided a rallying point for the rebels by recalling the past glory of the imperial city.
Statement 2 is correct - In the absence of any leaders from their own ranks, the insurgents turned to the traditional leaders of Indian society, this was also one of the reason that they requested Bahadur Shah to become their leader.
Statement 3 is incorrect - Bahadur Shah II, the Moghul Emperor— a pensioner of the British East India Company, who possessed nothing but the name of the mighty Mughals, he was neither sure of the intentions of the sepoys nor of his own ability to play an effective role. He was neither powerful nor active against British.
##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to deficit financing, monetized deficit is the part that is financed through:
|
Borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks
|
Borrowings from RBI.
|
External commercial borrowings
|
Borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks
|
.
|
b
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to deficit financing, monetized deficit is the part that is financed through:##Option_A:Borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks###Option_B:Borrowings from RBI.##Option_C:External commercial borrowings##Option_D:Borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
c
|
Mahajanapadas
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:##Option_A:###Option_B:##Option_C:##Option_D:##Answer:c##Explaination:##Topic:Mahajanapadas##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
||||||
Which of the following was/ were the major objective/s of movements of the Gandhian era? 1. Making movements mass based. 2. Eroding the ideological influence of British over Indians. 3. Weaken the loyalty of members of British Indian government apparatus. Select the correct code from below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct, Major objective of Gandhian era movements was to bring masses in to active politics and political action. Statement 2 is correct-British inculcated in the mind of peoples that they are invincible and are modernizing India. Other objective of national struggle was to erode this ideological influence. Statement 3 is correct-third objective was to undermine the hold of the colonial state on the members of its own state apparatus-police, civil service, and army
|
d
|
Swadeshi Movement, Home Rule Movement etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was/ were the major objective/s of movements of the Gandhian era? 1. Making movements mass based. 2. Eroding the ideological influence of British over Indians. 3. Weaken the loyalty of members of British Indian government apparatus. Select the correct code from below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct, Major objective of Gandhian era movements was to bring masses in to active politics and political action. Statement 2 is correct-British inculcated in the mind of peoples that they are invincible and are modernizing India. Other objective of national struggle was to erode this ideological influence. Statement 3 is correct-third objective was to undermine the hold of the colonial state on the members of its own state apparatus-police, civil service, and army
##Topic:Swadeshi Movement, Home Rule Movement etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Sam hosted his birthday party and invited 100 of his friends to the party. Every friend who attended the party, either hugged Sam or shook hands with Sam or did both. Out of all the friends who attended the party, 73 friends hugged Sam while 39 shook hands with Sam. If 27 friends hugged as well as shook hands with Sam, how many friends who were invited did not attend the party?
|
27
|
15
|
85
|
27
|
Method I Number of friends who hugged Sam = 73 Number of friends who shook hands with Sam = 39. Number of friends who both hugged and shook hands with Sam = 27 Total number of friends who attended the party = 73 + 39 – 27 = 85 So, the number of friends who were invited but did not attend the party = 100 – 85 = 15 Method II The Venn Diagram represeting the given scenario is as given below: Friends who only hugged = 73 – 27 = 46 Friends who only shook hands = 39 – 27 = 12 Total number of friends who did not attend the party = 100 – 46 – 27 – 12 = 100 - 85 = 15 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Aptitude Unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Sam hosted his birthday party and invited 100 of his friends to the party. Every friend who attended the party, either hugged Sam or shook hands with Sam or did both. Out of all the friends who attended the party, 73 friends hugged Sam while 39 shook hands with Sam. If 27 friends hugged as well as shook hands with Sam, how many friends who were invited did not attend the party?##Option_A: 27###Option_B: 15##Option_C: 85 ##Option_D: 27##Answer:b##Explaination:Method I Number of friends who hugged Sam = 73 Number of friends who shook hands with Sam = 39. Number of friends who both hugged and shook hands with Sam = 27 Total number of friends who attended the party = 73 + 39 – 27 = 85 So, the number of friends who were invited but did not attend the party = 100 – 85 = 15 Method II The Venn Diagram represeting the given scenario is as given below: Friends who only hugged = 73 – 27 = 46 Friends who only shook hands = 39 – 27 = 12 Total number of friends who did not attend the party = 100 – 46 – 27 – 12 = 100 - 85 = 15 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Aptitude Unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Test E
|
a
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Test E
##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/ are true with respect to Citizenship in India Overseas Citizenship of India is not a full citizenship of India and thus, does not amount to dual citizenship or dual nationality. OCI holders need not go for an Indian visa while traveling to India OCI and PIO card holder were merged recently into single scheme. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
1 and 2
|
For testing
|
a
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/ are true with respect to Citizenship in India Overseas Citizenship of India is not a full citizenship of India and thus, does not amount to dual citizenship or dual nationality. OCI holders need not go for an Indian visa while traveling to India OCI and PIO card holder were merged recently into single scheme. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:For testing##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
1. Steep-walled valleys having narrow depressions and are cut by streams and rivers are called
|
C-shaped
|
O-shaped
|
V-shaped valleys
|
C-shaped
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:1. Steep-walled valleys having narrow depressions and are cut by streams and rivers are called##Option_A:C-shaped ###Option_B:O-shaped##Option_C:V-shaped valleys##Option_D:C-shaped ##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Factors that contributes into formation of hills includes
|
solidifying magma
|
mountain erosions
|
deposition from glacier
|
solidifying magma
|
.
|
d
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Factors that contributes into formation of hills includes##Option_A:solidifying magma###Option_B:mountain erosions##Option_C:deposition from glacier##Option_D:solidifying magma##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the part of the forensic analysis? Mitochondrial DNA Analysis Polygraph Test Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The term forensic investigation refers to the use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of facts or evidence to be used in criminal justice or other proceedings. The following are the part of forensic analysis done to assist civil and criminal investigations. Mitochondrial DNA Analysis - Mitochondrial DNA typing is a method used by forensic scientists to match DNA from an unknown sample to a sample collected at a crime scene Polygraph Tes t - A polygraph, popularly referred to as a lie detector test, is a device or procedure that measures and records several physiological indicators such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin conductivity while a person is asked and answers a series of questions. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling - BEOS test is applicable in the forensic field for the detection of a person as suspect, accused, witness or complainant. The BEOS test was designed and developed as an alternative method to the use of a polygraph based lie-detection test BEOS is a neurocognitive indicator of the presence of remembrance taking place in the brain, when the same is cued by probes referring to previous experiences.
|
d
|
Gene Therapy, Tissue culture, Health
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the part of the forensic analysis? Mitochondrial DNA Analysis Polygraph Test Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The term forensic investigation refers to the use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of facts or evidence to be used in criminal justice or other proceedings. The following are the part of forensic analysis done to assist civil and criminal investigations. Mitochondrial DNA Analysis - Mitochondrial DNA typing is a method used by forensic scientists to match DNA from an unknown sample to a sample collected at a crime scene Polygraph Tes t - A polygraph, popularly referred to as a lie detector test, is a device or procedure that measures and records several physiological indicators such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin conductivity while a person is asked and answers a series of questions. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling - BEOS test is applicable in the forensic field for the detection of a person as suspect, accused, witness or complainant. The BEOS test was designed and developed as an alternative method to the use of a polygraph based lie-detection test BEOS is a neurocognitive indicator of the presence of remembrance taking place in the brain, when the same is cued by probes referring to previous experiences.##Topic:Gene Therapy, Tissue culture, Health##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
According to Economic Survey 2017-18, in which of the following matters has the role of women decreased substantially in the last decade?
|
Decision making with regard to use of contraceptives
|
Decision making about their own health
|
Receiving education
|
Decision making with regard to use of contraceptives
|
Table 1. Page 106.
|
a
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to Economic Survey 2017-18, in which of the following matters has the role of women decreased substantially in the last decade?##Option_A:Decision making with regard to use of contraceptives###Option_B:Decision making about their own health##Option_C:Receiving education ##Option_D:Decision making with regard to use of contraceptives##Answer:a##Explaination:Table 1. Page 106.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm? 1. Moisture. 2. Rising unstable air. 3. A lifting mechanism. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 2 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
.
|
d
|
Weather & Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm? 1. Moisture. 2. Rising unstable air. 3. A lifting mechanism. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A:1 and 2 Only###Option_B:2 and 3 Only##Option_C:1 Only##Option_D:1 and 2 Only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Weather & Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding monsoon type of climate:
1. It is found at the western margins of the continent in the topics.
2. The prevailing winds are the trade winds.
3. Rainfall is high but seasonal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding monsoon type of climate:
1. It is found at the western margins of the continent in the topics.
2. The prevailing winds are the trade winds.
3. Rainfall is high but seasonal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
International Energy Agency (IEA), which releases outlook on Global Demand and supply of crude oil, works under the framework of:
|
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
|
Organisation of Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
|
United Nations (UN)
|
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
|
The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous organisation that works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 29 member countries and beyond. Founded in response to the 1973/74 oil crisis, the initial role of the IEA was to help countries co-ordinate a collective response to major disruptions in oil supply through the release of emergency oil stocks to the markets. While this continues to be a key aspect of the Agency's work, the IEA has evolved and expanded to encompass the full mix of energy resources. The IEA is an autonomous body within the OECD framework. Unlike the World Bank or the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the IEA does not dispense grants or make loans.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:International Energy Agency (IEA), which releases outlook on Global Demand and supply of crude oil, works under the framework of:##Option_A:Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)###Option_B:Organisation of Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)##Option_C:United Nations (UN)##Option_D:Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)##Answer:b##Explaination:The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous organisation that works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 29 member countries and beyond. Founded in response to the 1973/74 oil crisis, the initial role of the IEA was to help countries co-ordinate a collective response to major disruptions in oil supply through the release of emergency oil stocks to the markets. While this continues to be a key aspect of the Agency's work, the IEA has evolved and expanded to encompass the full mix of energy resources. The IEA is an autonomous body within the OECD framework. Unlike the World Bank or the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the IEA does not dispense grants or make loans.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Smart city State/UT associated 1. Haldia : West Bengal 2. Pasighat : Gujarat 3. Namchi : Sikkim 4. Dahod : Maharashtra Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Haldia - West Bengal Pasighat - Arunachal Pradesh Namchi - Sikkim Dahod - Gujarat
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Smart city State/UT associated 1. Haldia : West Bengal 2. Pasighat : Gujarat 3. Namchi : Sikkim 4. Dahod : Maharashtra Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Haldia - West Bengal Pasighat - Arunachal Pradesh Namchi - Sikkim Dahod - Gujarat##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Koh-I-Noor diamond was taken away from India to Persia during the rule of which Mughal ruler?
|
Aurangzeb
|
Muhammad Shah
|
Farrukhsiyar
|
Aurangzeb
|
Nadir Shah was a Persian ruler who came to India in 1739. The Mughal empire had been weakened by ruinous wars of succession in the three decades following the death of Aurangzeb, the Hindu Marathas of the Maratha Empire had captured vast swathes of territory in Central and Northern India, whilst many of the Mughal nobles had asserted their independence and founded small states. At the Battle of Karnal on 24 February 1739, Nadir led his army to victory over the Mughals, Muhammad Shah surrendered and both entered Delhi together. Nadir shah took to Persia the Peacock Throne, Kohinoor diamond (mountain of light) and dariya-I- Noor (sea of light) diamond.
|
b
|
Mughal Period
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Koh-I-Noor diamond was taken away from India to Persia during the rule of which Mughal ruler?##Option_A: Aurangzeb###Option_B: Muhammad Shah##Option_C: Farrukhsiyar##Option_D: Aurangzeb##Answer:b##Explaination:Nadir Shah was a Persian ruler who came to India in 1739. The Mughal empire had been weakened by ruinous wars of succession in the three decades following the death of Aurangzeb, the Hindu Marathas of the Maratha Empire had captured vast swathes of territory in Central and Northern India, whilst many of the Mughal nobles had asserted their independence and founded small states. At the Battle of Karnal on 24 February 1739, Nadir led his army to victory over the Mughals, Muhammad Shah surrendered and both entered Delhi together. Nadir shah took to Persia the Peacock Throne, Kohinoor diamond (mountain of light) and dariya-I- Noor (sea of light) diamond.##Topic:Mughal Period##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
The term "equality before law" indicates which of the following? Absence of any privileges in favor of any person. Equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land. Equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The concept of "equality before law" is of British origin while the concept of "equal protection of laws" has been taken from the American Constitution. Equality before law indicates: the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person the equal subjection of all person to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and no person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law. The concept of "equal protection of laws" denotes: the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws, the similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated, and the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "equality before law" indicates which of the following? Absence of any privileges in favor of any person. Equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land. Equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The concept of "equality before law" is of British origin while the concept of "equal protection of laws" has been taken from the American Constitution. Equality before law indicates: the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person the equal subjection of all person to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and no person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law. The concept of "equal protection of laws" denotes: the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws, the similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated, and the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The Maritime India Summit 2016 that was launched recently was aimed at:
|
Showcasing India"s naval might.
|
Showcasing investment opportunities in the maritime sector.
|
Building maritime partnership with the Indian Ocean Rim Association nations.
|
Showcasing India"s naval might.
|
As the Maritime Sector in India is going through a phase of rapid transformation and modernization, the Ministry of Shipping has launched the first-ever Maritime India Summit 2016 to showcase the investment opportunities in the sector. The objective of the Summit was to attract potential investors to the vast opportunities that the various components of the Maritime Sector have on offer. It has showcased projects covering sectors like port development and modernization, Greenfield ports, port-led development under "Sagarmala", shipbuilding, ship repair and shipbreaking, inland water transportation, coastal shipping, lighthouse tourism and cruise shipping, hinterland connectivity, and logistics handling facilities to the potential investors from across the world.
|
b
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Maritime India Summit 2016 that was launched recently was aimed at:##Option_A:Showcasing India"s naval might.###Option_B:Showcasing investment opportunities in the maritime sector.##Option_C:Building maritime partnership with the Indian Ocean Rim Association nations.##Option_D:Showcasing India"s naval might.##Answer:b##Explaination:As the Maritime Sector in India is going through a phase of rapid transformation and modernization, the Ministry of Shipping has launched the first-ever Maritime India Summit 2016 to showcase the investment opportunities in the sector. The objective of the Summit was to attract potential investors to the vast opportunities that the various components of the Maritime Sector have on offer. It has showcased projects covering sectors like port development and modernization, Greenfield ports, port-led development under "Sagarmala", shipbuilding, ship repair and shipbreaking, inland water transportation, coastal shipping, lighthouse tourism and cruise shipping, hinterland connectivity, and logistics handling facilities to the potential investors from across the world.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Mac Donnell Commission was appointed to:
|
recommend measures for famine relief.
|
recommend reforms in secondary education.
|
recommend police reforms.
|
recommend measures for famine relief.
|
Lord Curzon appointed a commission under the presidency of Sir Anthony MacDonnell to suggest the relief measures to be adopted in the wake of famine of 1899-1900. The commission submitted its report in 1901. In the report, the commission summarized accepted principles of relief, suggesting variations where necessary. The commission emphasized the benefits of a policy of "moral strategy", early distribution of advances for purchase of seed and cattle and sinking of temporary wells. It also advocated the appointment of a famine commissioner in a province where relief operations were expected to be extensive. It also emphasized enlistment of non-official assistance on a larger scale and preference in particular circumstances of village works to the large public works which had hitherto been the backbone of relief schemes. The commission also stressed the desirability of better transport facilities, opening of agricultural banks, improvement of irrigation facilities and vigorous measures to foster improved methods of agriculture.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Mac Donnell Commission was appointed to:##Option_A: recommend measures for famine relief.###Option_B: recommend reforms in secondary education.##Option_C: recommend police reforms.##Option_D: recommend measures for famine relief.##Answer:a##Explaination:Lord Curzon appointed a commission under the presidency of Sir Anthony MacDonnell to suggest the relief measures to be adopted in the wake of famine of 1899-1900. The commission submitted its report in 1901. In the report, the commission summarized accepted principles of relief, suggesting variations where necessary. The commission emphasized the benefits of a policy of "moral strategy", early distribution of advances for purchase of seed and cattle and sinking of temporary wells. It also advocated the appointment of a famine commissioner in a province where relief operations were expected to be extensive. It also emphasized enlistment of non-official assistance on a larger scale and preference in particular circumstances of village works to the large public works which had hitherto been the backbone of relief schemes. The commission also stressed the desirability of better transport facilities, opening of agricultural banks, improvement of irrigation facilities and vigorous measures to foster improved methods of agriculture.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the pairs: Harappan Sites Evidences found 1.Kalibangan : Fire altars 2. Surkotada : Remains of horse 3. Lothal : Dockyard 4. Mohenjo-daro : Great Bath Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The worship of fire in Harappan Civilization is proved by the discovery of fire altars at Lothal and Kalibangan. The remains of the horses are reported from Surkotada, situtated in west Gujarat, and belong to around 2000B.C. Great Bath was found in Mohenjo-daro. Great Bath was situtated in the citadel mound. The floor of the bath was made of burnt bricks. It is suggested that the Great Bath served ritual bathing. A huge tank at Lothal has been identified as a dockyard, where boats and ships came in from the sea and through the river channel. Goods were probably loaded and unloaded here.
|
d
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the pairs: Harappan Sites Evidences found 1.Kalibangan : Fire altars 2. Surkotada : Remains of horse 3. Lothal : Dockyard 4. Mohenjo-daro : Great Bath Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The worship of fire in Harappan Civilization is proved by the discovery of fire altars at Lothal and Kalibangan. The remains of the horses are reported from Surkotada, situtated in west Gujarat, and belong to around 2000B.C. Great Bath was found in Mohenjo-daro. Great Bath was situtated in the citadel mound. The floor of the bath was made of burnt bricks. It is suggested that the Great Bath served ritual bathing. A huge tank at Lothal has been identified as a dockyard, where boats and ships came in from the sea and through the river channel. Goods were probably loaded and unloaded here. ##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is correct about European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD)?
|
It is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy.
|
India is third largest shareholder Asian member of EBRD.
|
It was set up to along with Bretton Woods institutions.
|
It is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy.
|
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) was established to help build a new, post-Cold War era in Central and Eastern Europe in 1991. Besides Europe, member countries of the EBRD are from all 5 continents (North America, Africa, Asia and Australia see below), with the biggest shareholder being the United States. The EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank (EIB), which is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy. India is not a member of EBRD. Uniquely for a development bank, the EBRD has a political mandate in that it assists only those countries ‘committed to and applying the principles of multi-party democracy and pluralism’. Safeguarding the environment and a commitment to sustainable energy are also central to the EBRD’s activity. EBRD along with the AIIB and the NDB-point to the emergence of new centres of power and influence in the global financial architecture.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is correct about European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD)?##Option_A: It is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy.###Option_B: India is third largest shareholder Asian member of EBRD.##Option_C: It was set up to along with Bretton Woods institutions.##Option_D: It is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy.##Answer:d##Explaination:The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) was established to help build a new, post-Cold War era in Central and Eastern Europe in 1991. Besides Europe, member countries of the EBRD are from all 5 continents (North America, Africa, Asia and Australia see below), with the biggest shareholder being the United States. The EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank (EIB), which is owned by EU member states and it supports EU policy. India is not a member of EBRD. Uniquely for a development bank, the EBRD has a political mandate in that it assists only those countries ‘committed to and applying the principles of multi-party democracy and pluralism’. Safeguarding the environment and a commitment to sustainable energy are also central to the EBRD’s activity. EBRD along with the AIIB and the NDB-point to the emergence of new centres of power and influence in the global financial architecture.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
Consider the following: Pension payable to in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Salary and pensions of the Judges of High Court. Administrative expenses of the office of Comptroller and Auditor General. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court. Which of the above "Expenditure" is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The budget consists of two types of expenditure- 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament i.e. it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Parliament. The charged expenditure includes: the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office; the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People; debt charges for which the Government of India is liable including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges, and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt; the salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court; the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Federal Court; the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court. The salary, allowances and pension payable to or in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG); Chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) . Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court (Art 146(3)) , the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Article 148(6)) and the Union Public Service Commission, including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in these offices (Art 322). Any sums required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal; Any other expenditure declared by this Constitution or by Parliament by law to be so charged.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Pension payable to in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Salary and pensions of the Judges of High Court. Administrative expenses of the office of Comptroller and Auditor General. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court. Which of the above "Expenditure" is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The budget consists of two types of expenditure- 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament i.e. it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Parliament. The charged expenditure includes: the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office; the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People; debt charges for which the Government of India is liable including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges, and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt; the salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court; the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Federal Court; the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court. The salary, allowances and pension payable to or in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG); Chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) . Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court (Art 146(3)) , the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Article 148(6)) and the Union Public Service Commission, including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in these offices (Art 322). Any sums required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal; Any other expenditure declared by this Constitution or by Parliament by law to be so charged.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
As per the Indian Constitution the word "Fraternity" is mentioned under
|
the Preamble
|
the Directive Principles of State Policy
|
the Preamble and Fundamental Duties.
|
the Preamble
|
In the Indian Constitution, the word 'Fraternity' is mentioned only in Preamble. The DPSP and Fundamental Duties only seeks to establish fraternity or brotherhood in the country. In the light of the Constitutional provisions and the explanation given by Dr. Ambedkar for the word 'Fraternity' means a sense of common brotherhood of all Indians. Preamble- "Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation".
|
a
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the Indian Constitution the word "Fraternity" is mentioned under##Option_A: the Preamble###Option_B: the Directive Principles of State Policy##Option_C: the Preamble and Fundamental Duties.##Option_D: the Preamble##Answer:a##Explaination:In the Indian Constitution, the word 'Fraternity' is mentioned only in Preamble. The DPSP and Fundamental Duties only seeks to establish fraternity or brotherhood in the country. In the light of the Constitutional provisions and the explanation given by Dr. Ambedkar for the word 'Fraternity' means a sense of common brotherhood of all Indians. Preamble- "Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation".##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Who among the following enjoy Parliamentary privileges? President Attorney General Union Ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 105 deals with Parliamentary privileges, which are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees, and their members. The constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the house or any of its committees. These include the Attorney General of India and Union ministers. The Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the parliament.
|
c
|
Power and Functions of the parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following enjoy Parliamentary privileges? President Attorney General Union Ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 105 deals with Parliamentary privileges, which are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees, and their members. The constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the house or any of its committees. These include the Attorney General of India and Union ministers. The Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the parliament.##Topic:Power and Functions of the parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is the objective of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan?
|
To improve the grid connectivity in renewable energy.
|
To achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles.
|
To achieve national fuel security by promoting blending of ethanol with fuels.
|
To improve the grid connectivity in renewable energy.
|
Government of India launched the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 in 2013. It aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. There is an ambitious target to achieve 6-7 million sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on year from 2020 onwards.
|
b
|
Others
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is the objective of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan?##Option_A: To improve the grid connectivity in renewable energy.###Option_B: To achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles.##Option_C: To achieve national fuel security by promoting blending of ethanol with fuels.##Option_D: To improve the grid connectivity in renewable energy.##Answer:b##Explaination:Government of India launched the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 in 2013. It aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. There is an ambitious target to achieve 6-7 million sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on year from 2020 onwards.##Topic:Others##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Kosovo, a disputed territory and partially recognised state, lies in which of the following continents?
|
Europe
|
Asia
|
Africa
|
Europe
|
Kosovo is a disputed territory and partially recognised state in Southeast Europe that declared independence from Serbia in February 2008 as the Republic of Kosovo. While Serbia recognises governance of the territory exclusively by Kosovo's elected government, it still continues to claim it as its own Autonomous Province of Kosovo and Metohija, and the declaration of independence is contrary to the 2006 Constitution of Serbia. It is landlocked in the central Balkan Peninsula. Its capital and largest city is Pristina. It is bordered by the Republic of Macedonia and Albania to the south, Montenegro to the west, and the uncontested territory of Serbia to the north and east. It is seeking membership of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). It had tried and failed in past. Kosovo is not recognised as a state by many United Nations members, including India.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Kosovo, a disputed territory and partially recognised state, lies in which of the following continents?##Option_A: Europe###Option_B: Asia##Option_C: Africa##Option_D: Europe##Answer:a##Explaination:Kosovo is a disputed territory and partially recognised state in Southeast Europe that declared independence from Serbia in February 2008 as the Republic of Kosovo. While Serbia recognises governance of the territory exclusively by Kosovo's elected government, it still continues to claim it as its own Autonomous Province of Kosovo and Metohija, and the declaration of independence is contrary to the 2006 Constitution of Serbia. It is landlocked in the central Balkan Peninsula. Its capital and largest city is Pristina. It is bordered by the Republic of Macedonia and Albania to the south, Montenegro to the west, and the uncontested territory of Serbia to the north and east. It is seeking membership of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). It had tried and failed in past. Kosovo is not recognised as a state by many United Nations members, including India.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
|
With reference to "heat wave condition", consider the following statements: A heat wave is a prolonged period of excessive heat, often combined with excessive humidity. In India, heat wave is declared only after the temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C in plains and 40°C in hilly areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Heat waves form when high pressure aloft (from 10,000–25,000 feet (3,000-7,600 metres)) strengthens and remains over a region for several days up to several weeks. This is common in summer (in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres) as the jet stream 'follows the sun'. On the equator side of the jet stream, in the middle layers of the atmosphere, is the high pressure area. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has defined heat wave under two categories. The first category includes places where the normal maximum temperature is more than 40°C. In such regions if the day temperature exceeds by 3 to 4°C above the normal, it is said to be affected by a heat wave. Similarly, when the day temperature is 5°C or more than the normal, severe heat wave condition persists. The second category considers the regions where the normal maximum temperature is 40°C or less. In these areas, if the day temperature is 5-6°C above the normal, then the place is said to be affected by a moderate heat wave. A severe heat wave condition exists when the day temperature exceeds the normal maximum temperature over the place, by 6°C. Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
|
a
|
Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "heat wave condition", consider the following statements: A heat wave is a prolonged period of excessive heat, often combined with excessive humidity. In India, heat wave is declared only after the temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C in plains and 40°C in hilly areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Heat waves form when high pressure aloft (from 10,000–25,000 feet (3,000-7,600 metres)) strengthens and remains over a region for several days up to several weeks. This is common in summer (in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres) as the jet stream 'follows the sun'. On the equator side of the jet stream, in the middle layers of the atmosphere, is the high pressure area. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has defined heat wave under two categories. The first category includes places where the normal maximum temperature is more than 40°C. In such regions if the day temperature exceeds by 3 to 4°C above the normal, it is said to be affected by a heat wave. Similarly, when the day temperature is 5°C or more than the normal, severe heat wave condition persists. The second category considers the regions where the normal maximum temperature is 40°C or less. In these areas, if the day temperature is 5-6°C above the normal, then the place is said to be affected by a moderate heat wave. A severe heat wave condition exists when the day temperature exceeds the normal maximum temperature over the place, by 6°C. Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.##Topic:Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The removal of the Chairman and members of UPSC is done on the grounds of misbehavior:
|
by the President on his discretion.
|
by the special majority in the Parliament
|
in the manner in which Supreme Court judges are removed.
|
by the President on his discretion.
|
The grounds as well as procedure for removal of a UPSC member are given in Article 317 of the Indian Constitution. A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed by the President of India on any of the following grounds. If the member or Chairman: is adjudged an insolvent (unable to pay one's debt) engages in paid employment during his tenure outside the duties of his office is infirm of body or mind participates in any office of profit, becomes concerned in any agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the government or benefits from emoluments or profit arising from an incorporated company A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed on ground of misbehavior (discussed above), which is proved in an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court after a reference is made by the President to the Supreme Court to conduct such an inquiry. The Chairman or UPSC member can also be placed under suspension by the President until report of Supreme Court into inquiry of alleged misbehavior is pending.
|
d
|
UPSC/SPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The removal of the Chairman and members of UPSC is done on the grounds of misbehavior:##Option_A: by the President on his discretion.###Option_B: by the special majority in the Parliament##Option_C: in the manner in which Supreme Court judges are removed.##Option_D: by the President on his discretion.##Answer:d##Explaination:The grounds as well as procedure for removal of a UPSC member are given in Article 317 of the Indian Constitution. A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed by the President of India on any of the following grounds. If the member or Chairman: is adjudged an insolvent (unable to pay one's debt) engages in paid employment during his tenure outside the duties of his office is infirm of body or mind participates in any office of profit, becomes concerned in any agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the government or benefits from emoluments or profit arising from an incorporated company A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed on ground of misbehavior (discussed above), which is proved in an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court after a reference is made by the President to the Supreme Court to conduct such an inquiry. The Chairman or UPSC member can also be placed under suspension by the President until report of Supreme Court into inquiry of alleged misbehavior is pending.##Topic:UPSC/SPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Recently MCR-1 has been in the news. It refers to
|
an indigenous drug against MDR-TB.
|
a drought resistant variety of cotton.
|
an antibiotic-resistant gene.
|
an indigenous drug against MDR-TB.
|
The MCR-1 gene makes E. coli and some other species of bacteria resistant to colistin, an antibiotic considered the drug of last resort for some diseases. MCR-1, the resistance-conferring gene easily transfers between bacteria, benign or otherwise, found in humans, animals or the environment. First identified in China last November, the gene has since been discovered in livestock, water, meat and vegetables for human consumption in several countries, and in humans infected with E.coli - one of the disease-causing bacteria it targets. For the first time, MCR-1 has now also been found living in the gut of healthy humans.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently MCR-1 has been in the news. It refers to##Option_A: an indigenous drug against MDR-TB.###Option_B: a drought resistant variety of cotton.##Option_C: an antibiotic-resistant gene.##Option_D: an indigenous drug against MDR-TB.##Answer:c##Explaination:The MCR-1 gene makes E. coli and some other species of bacteria resistant to colistin, an antibiotic considered the drug of last resort for some diseases. MCR-1, the resistance-conferring gene easily transfers between bacteria, benign or otherwise, found in humans, animals or the environment. First identified in China last November, the gene has since been discovered in livestock, water, meat and vegetables for human consumption in several countries, and in humans infected with E.coli - one of the disease-causing bacteria it targets. For the first time, MCR-1 has now also been found living in the gut of healthy humans.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The term "Water Spouts" is defined as:
|
Retreating Tsunamis waves
|
Geysers at plate boundaries
|
Tornadoes over the sea
|
Retreating Tsunamis waves
|
From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre, causing massive destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado. Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. The tornado over the sea is called water spouts.
|
c
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "Water Spouts" is defined as:##Option_A: Retreating Tsunamis waves###Option_B: Geysers at plate boundaries##Option_C: Tornadoes over the sea##Option_D: Retreating Tsunamis waves##Answer:c##Explaination:From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre, causing massive destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado. Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. The tornado over the sea is called water spouts.##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI), consider the following statements: It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It has regulatory and quasi-judicial powers. It regulates hoarding of essential commodities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a quasi-judicial body that investigates cases related to monopolies, and restrictive and unfair trade practices. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation and enforcement of the Act, and was duly constituted in March 2009. The following are the objectives of the Commission. To prevent practices having adverse effect on competition. To promote and sustain competition in markets. To protect the interests of consumers and To ensure freedom of trade The Ministry of Corporate Affairs is also responsible for administering the Competition Act, 2002 to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets, to protect the interests of consumers through the commission set up under the Act. It is an affiliated office under Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hoarding, per se, is governed under the Essential Commodities Act.
|
b
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI), consider the following statements: It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It has regulatory and quasi-judicial powers. It regulates hoarding of essential commodities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a quasi-judicial body that investigates cases related to monopolies, and restrictive and unfair trade practices. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation and enforcement of the Act, and was duly constituted in March 2009. The following are the objectives of the Commission. To prevent practices having adverse effect on competition. To promote and sustain competition in markets. To protect the interests of consumers and To ensure freedom of trade The Ministry of Corporate Affairs is also responsible for administering the Competition Act, 2002 to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets, to protect the interests of consumers through the commission set up under the Act. It is an affiliated office under Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hoarding, per se, is governed under the Essential Commodities Act.##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following events which were associated with a particular movement started by Gandhiji against British government: In Punjab, Akali Movement got linked with this movement. The tribals and poor peasants of Guntur district, staged forest satyagrahas. In Kheda, peasants organized nonviolent campaigns against the high land revenue demand of the British. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. Which of the movement given below was associated with the above mentioned events?
|
Non- cooperation movement
|
Civil disobedience movement
|
Quit India movement
|
Non- cooperation movement
|
The Noncooperation movement was the first nationwide mass movement.Large parts of the country were on the brink of a formidable revolt. Some of the examples are- In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar peasants organised nonviolent campaigns against the high land revenue demand of the British. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. In the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, tribals and poor peasants staged a number of "forest satyagrahas", sometimes sending their cattle into forests without paying grazing fee. In Assam, tea garden labourers left the British-owned plantations amidst declarations that they were following Gandhiji's wish. In Punjab, Akali Movement that was originally for reforms in the Gurudwaras got linked with the Non- Cooperation movement.
|
a
|
The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following events which were associated with a particular movement started by Gandhiji against British government: In Punjab, Akali Movement got linked with this movement. The tribals and poor peasants of Guntur district, staged forest satyagrahas. In Kheda, peasants organized nonviolent campaigns against the high land revenue demand of the British. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. Which of the movement given below was associated with the above mentioned events?##Option_A: Non- cooperation movement###Option_B: Civil disobedience movement##Option_C: Quit India movement##Option_D: Non- cooperation movement##Answer:a##Explaination:The Noncooperation movement was the first nationwide mass movement.Large parts of the country were on the brink of a formidable revolt. Some of the examples are- In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar peasants organised nonviolent campaigns against the high land revenue demand of the British. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. In the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, tribals and poor peasants staged a number of "forest satyagrahas", sometimes sending their cattle into forests without paying grazing fee. In Assam, tea garden labourers left the British-owned plantations amidst declarations that they were following Gandhiji's wish. In Punjab, Akali Movement that was originally for reforms in the Gurudwaras got linked with the Non- Cooperation movement.##Topic:The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Seismic gaps refer to:
|
parts of plate boundaries having no volcanic activity.
|
sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.
|
parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently.
|
parts of plate boundaries having no volcanic activity.
|
A seismic gap is a section of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past. It is known that there are a number of "seismic gaps" in the Himalaya with a potential to slip and produce greater than 7.5 magnitude earthquakes.
|
b
|
Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Seismic gaps refer to:##Option_A: parts of plate boundaries having no volcanic activity.###Option_B: sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.##Option_C: parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently.##Option_D: parts of plate boundaries having no volcanic activity.##Answer:b##Explaination:A seismic gap is a section of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past. It is known that there are a number of "seismic gaps" in the Himalaya with a potential to slip and produce greater than 7.5 magnitude earthquakes.##Topic:Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Doldrums: It is characterised by extremely violent air movements. It is a region of low pressure. Rainfall here is of frontal nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Due to intense heating, air gets warm and rises over the equatorial region and produces the equitorial low pressure belt which extends from the equator to about 10 o N and S. The equatorial low pressure belt is characterized by extremely low pressure with calm conditions. Surface winds are generally absent since winds approaching this belt begin to rise near its margin. Thus, only vertical currents are found. This belt is also called the doldrums because of the extremely calm air movements. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature. It is caused by convectional ascent of warm and humid air to great heights. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Doldrums: It is characterised by extremely violent air movements. It is a region of low pressure. Rainfall here is of frontal nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Due to intense heating, air gets warm and rises over the equatorial region and produces the equitorial low pressure belt which extends from the equator to about 10 o N and S. The equatorial low pressure belt is characterized by extremely low pressure with calm conditions. Surface winds are generally absent since winds approaching this belt begin to rise near its margin. Thus, only vertical currents are found. This belt is also called the doldrums because of the extremely calm air movements. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature. It is caused by convectional ascent of warm and humid air to great heights. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following cities: Udaipur Bhubneshwar Nagpur Jhansi In which of the above cities are you likely to observe an overhead sun, twice a year?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Cities located south of Tropic of Cancer will observe an overhead sun, twice a year. Udaipur and Jhansi are located north of Tropic of Cancer. Also, Jhansi can be eliminated because Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Uttar Pradesh. Nagpur and Bhubneshwar are located south of Tropic of Cancer. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Location: Latitude, Longitude
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following cities: Udaipur Bhubneshwar Nagpur Jhansi In which of the above cities are you likely to observe an overhead sun, twice a year?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Cities located south of Tropic of Cancer will observe an overhead sun, twice a year. Udaipur and Jhansi are located north of Tropic of Cancer. Also, Jhansi can be eliminated because Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Uttar Pradesh. Nagpur and Bhubneshwar are located south of Tropic of Cancer. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Location: Latitude, Longitude##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups State/UT 1. Asurs : Bihar 2. Seharias : Orissa 3. Dongria Kondh : Rajasthan 4. Onges : Andaman & Nicobar Islands Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
In India, tribal population makes up for 8.6% of the total population. Tribal people live in about 15% of the geographical area of the country. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs have some basic characteristics -they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc. Bihar (including Jharkhand): Asurs, Birhor, Birjia, Hill Kharia, Korwas, Mal Paharia, Parhaiyas, Sauria Paharia, Savar. Orissa: Birhor, Bondo, Didayi, Dongria-Khond, Juangs, Kharias, Kutia Kondh, Lanjia Sauras, Lodhas, Mankidias, Paudi Bhuyans, Soura, Chuktia Bhunjia. Rajasthan: Sahariyas Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Great Andamanese, Jarawas, Onges, Sentinelese, Shom Pens.
|
b
|
Population and Growth trends density, sex, ratio, literacy, tribes and racial groups in India
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups State/UT 1. Asurs : Bihar 2. Seharias : Orissa 3. Dongria Kondh : Rajasthan 4. Onges : Andaman & Nicobar Islands Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In India, tribal population makes up for 8.6% of the total population. Tribal people live in about 15% of the geographical area of the country. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs have some basic characteristics -they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc. Bihar (including Jharkhand): Asurs, Birhor, Birjia, Hill Kharia, Korwas, Mal Paharia, Parhaiyas, Sauria Paharia, Savar. Orissa: Birhor, Bondo, Didayi, Dongria-Khond, Juangs, Kharias, Kutia Kondh, Lanjia Sauras, Lodhas, Mankidias, Paudi Bhuyans, Soura, Chuktia Bhunjia. Rajasthan: Sahariyas Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Great Andamanese, Jarawas, Onges, Sentinelese, Shom Pens.##Topic:Population and Growth trends density, sex, ratio, literacy, tribes and racial groups in India##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following differences between Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) and Base Rate: Unlike base rate calculation, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) cost is considered in the calculation of MLCR. Unlike base rate calculation, Repo rate is mandatory in the calculation of MCLR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The concept of marginal is important to understand Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR). In economics sense, marginal means the additional or changed situation. While calculating the lending rate, banks have to consider the changed cost conditions or the marginal cost conditions. Statement 1 is incorrect. The CRR costs and operating cost (is the operating expenses incurred by the banks) are the common factors for both base rate and the MCLR. Statement 2 is correct. The MCLR should be revised monthly by considering some new factors including the repo rate and other borrowing rates. Specifically the repo rate and other borrowing rate that were not explicitly considered under the base rate system. Under MCLR: Costs that the bank is incurring to get funds (means deposit) is calculated on a marginal basis The marginal costs include Repo rate; whereas this was not included under the base rate. Many other interest rates usually incurred by banks when mobilizing funds also to be carefully considered by banks when calculating the costs. The MCLR should be revised monthly.
|
b
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following differences between Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) and Base Rate: Unlike base rate calculation, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) cost is considered in the calculation of MLCR. Unlike base rate calculation, Repo rate is mandatory in the calculation of MCLR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The concept of marginal is important to understand Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR). In economics sense, marginal means the additional or changed situation. While calculating the lending rate, banks have to consider the changed cost conditions or the marginal cost conditions. Statement 1 is incorrect. The CRR costs and operating cost (is the operating expenses incurred by the banks) are the common factors for both base rate and the MCLR. Statement 2 is correct. The MCLR should be revised monthly by considering some new factors including the repo rate and other borrowing rates. Specifically the repo rate and other borrowing rate that were not explicitly considered under the base rate system. Under MCLR: Costs that the bank is incurring to get funds (means deposit) is calculated on a marginal basis The marginal costs include Repo rate; whereas this was not included under the base rate. Many other interest rates usually incurred by banks when mobilizing funds also to be carefully considered by banks when calculating the costs. The MCLR should be revised monthly.##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to C.R. Das, consider the following statements: He was president of Swaraj Party. He participated in the individual satyagraha. He was given the title of Deshbandhu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
At the Gaya session of congress, 1922 C.R. resigned from congress. He, on 31 December, 1922 he formed the Swaraj Party with himself as President and Motilal Nehru as secretary. On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi had chosen Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (movement which meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. C.R. Das died in 1925. Chittaranjan Das was endearingly called 'Deshbandhu'.
|
b
|
Thc Swarajya Party
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to C.R. Das, consider the following statements: He was president of Swaraj Party. He participated in the individual satyagraha. He was given the title of Deshbandhu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:At the Gaya session of congress, 1922 C.R. resigned from congress. He, on 31 December, 1922 he formed the Swaraj Party with himself as President and Motilal Nehru as secretary. On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi had chosen Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (movement which meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. C.R. Das died in 1925. Chittaranjan Das was endearingly called 'Deshbandhu'.##Topic:Thc Swarajya Party##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT), consider the following statements: It is levied on both individuals and corporates who do not pay tax owing to exemptions. It is not applicable to foreign companies who do not have permanent establishment in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
MAT is a tax levied on profit-making entities that don't pay corporate income tax because of exemptions and incentives. Controversy associated with MAT: The controversy erupted after the income-tax department issued notices to more than 50 foreign portfolio investors to pay MAT. Foreign investors opposed these notices, arguing that MAT can only be levied on book profits, which they do not maintain in India. The finance ministry had set up a committee led by justice A.P. Shah to study and clarify the issue. The committee recommended that MAT cannot be levied on foreign portfolio investors as well as foreign companies who have no permanent establishment in India. The government will now amend the respective section of the income tax Act to ensure that MAT provisions are also not applicable to a foreign company that does not have a permanent establishment in the country and is a resident of a nation having a double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA) with India. The act will be amended with retrospective effect from 1 April 2001.
|
b
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Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT), consider the following statements: It is levied on both individuals and corporates who do not pay tax owing to exemptions. It is not applicable to foreign companies who do not have permanent establishment in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:MAT is a tax levied on profit-making entities that don't pay corporate income tax because of exemptions and incentives. Controversy associated with MAT: The controversy erupted after the income-tax department issued notices to more than 50 foreign portfolio investors to pay MAT. Foreign investors opposed these notices, arguing that MAT can only be levied on book profits, which they do not maintain in India. The finance ministry had set up a committee led by justice A.P. Shah to study and clarify the issue. The committee recommended that MAT cannot be levied on foreign portfolio investors as well as foreign companies who have no permanent establishment in India. The government will now amend the respective section of the income tax Act to ensure that MAT provisions are also not applicable to a foreign company that does not have a permanent establishment in the country and is a resident of a nation having a double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA) with India. The act will be amended with retrospective effect from 1 April 2001.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
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Aihole inscription is famous for eulogy of which of the following?
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Vikramaditya II
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Narasimhavaraman
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Pulakeshin II
|
Vikramaditya II
|
Aihole inscription has eulogy of famous Chalukya king Pulakeshin II written by his court poet Ravikirti. This inscription is an example of poetic excellence reached in Sanskrit and is a valuable source for the biography of Pulakeshin II.
|
c
|
Misc Art and Culture
|
Geology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Aihole inscription is famous for eulogy of which of the following?##Option_A: Vikramaditya II###Option_B: Narasimhavaraman##Option_C: Pulakeshin II##Option_D: Vikramaditya II##Answer:c##Explaination:Aihole inscription has eulogy of famous Chalukya king Pulakeshin II written by his court poet Ravikirti. This inscription is an example of poetic excellence reached in Sanskrit and is a valuable source for the biography of Pulakeshin II.##Topic:Misc Art and Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
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Which of the following foreign travellers visited India during Vijayanagara empire? Abdur Razzaq Fernao Nuniz Fa-Hien Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India. It was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty. The kingdom was dissolved in 1646. Following travellers visited India during this time: Fa-Hien (also Faxian, Fa-hsien) is the famous Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the rule of Chandra Gupta II.
|
a
|
Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following foreign travellers visited India during Vijayanagara empire? Abdur Razzaq Fernao Nuniz Fa-Hien Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India. It was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty. The kingdom was dissolved in 1646. Following travellers visited India during this time: Fa-Hien (also Faxian, Fa-hsien) is the famous Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the rule of Chandra Gupta II.##Topic:Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
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With reference to Right to Education Act, 2009, consider the following statements: The Government has the obligation to ensure compulsory attendance and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. The private schools have to provide for separate classes for the children under the reserved free seats. No child shall be denied admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them into any educational institution covered under this Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. It came into effect on 1 April 2010. The RTE Act provides for the: Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school. It clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means obligation of the appropriate government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission, attendance and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. ‘Free’ means that no child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The HRD Ministry has categorically clarified in its Model Rules that "the school ...... shall ensure that children admitted ....shall NOT BE SEGREGATED from the other children in the classrooms nor shall their classes be held at places and timings different from the classes held for the other children. NOT BE DISCRIMINATED from the rest of the children in any manner pertaining to entitlements and facilities such as text books, uniforms, library and ICT facilities, extra-curricular and sports." Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. There is no such provision under RTE Act, 2009 that no child shall be denied admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them into any educational institution covered under this Act. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
a
|
Education/Health/Human Resources
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Right to Education Act, 2009, consider the following statements: The Government has the obligation to ensure compulsory attendance and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. The private schools have to provide for separate classes for the children under the reserved free seats. No child shall be denied admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them into any educational institution covered under this Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. It came into effect on 1 April 2010. The RTE Act provides for the: Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school. It clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means obligation of the appropriate government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission, attendance and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. ‘Free’ means that no child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The HRD Ministry has categorically clarified in its Model Rules that "the school ...... shall ensure that children admitted ....shall NOT BE SEGREGATED from the other children in the classrooms nor shall their classes be held at places and timings different from the classes held for the other children. NOT BE DISCRIMINATED from the rest of the children in any manner pertaining to entitlements and facilities such as text books, uniforms, library and ICT facilities, extra-curricular and sports." Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. There is no such provision under RTE Act, 2009 that no child shall be denied admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them into any educational institution covered under this Act. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Education/Health/Human Resources##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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"A pronounced dry period that lasts for several weeks or months causes the trees to shed their leaves. This allows light to penetrate to the forest floor and produce an understory of lesser plants to create classic jungle conditions. A great variety of shrubs and other lesser plants is also found here." Which of the biomes given below is best described by the above statements?
|
Tropical Rainforest
|
Tropical Deciduous Forest
|
Semi Evergreen Forest
|
Tropical Rainforest
|
In tropical deciduous forest, as compared to tropical rainforest and semi evergreen, the canopy is less dense the trees are shorter and there are fewer layers. This is primarily due to less total precipitation or less periodic precipitation. As a result of a pronounced dry period that lasts for several weeks or months, many of the trees shed their leaves at the same time, allowing light to penetrate to the forest floor. This light produces an understory of lesser plants that often grows in such density as to produce classic jungle conditions. The diversity of trees is not as great in this biome as in the tropical rainforest, but there is a greater variety of shrubs and other lesser plants.
|
b
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"A pronounced dry period that lasts for several weeks or months causes the trees to shed their leaves. This allows light to penetrate to the forest floor and produce an understory of lesser plants to create classic jungle conditions. A great variety of shrubs and other lesser plants is also found here." Which of the biomes given below is best described by the above statements?##Option_A: Tropical Rainforest###Option_B: Tropical Deciduous Forest##Option_C: Semi Evergreen Forest##Option_D: Tropical Rainforest##Answer:b##Explaination:In tropical deciduous forest, as compared to tropical rainforest and semi evergreen, the canopy is less dense the trees are shorter and there are fewer layers. This is primarily due to less total precipitation or less periodic precipitation. As a result of a pronounced dry period that lasts for several weeks or months, many of the trees shed their leaves at the same time, allowing light to penetrate to the forest floor. This light produces an understory of lesser plants that often grows in such density as to produce classic jungle conditions. The diversity of trees is not as great in this biome as in the tropical rainforest, but there is a greater variety of shrubs and other lesser plants.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
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Which of the following life forms are you likely to observe in a desertic vegetation? Ephemeral herbs Succulent plants Shrubs and small trees Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The desert vegetation is dominated by three life forms: Ephemeral annual herbs, which grow only when sufficient moisture is available. Typical succulent xerophytes like cacti which store water. Shrubs and small trees like Prosopis, Salvadora and Tamarix, whose deep tap roots may reach the water table.
|
d
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following life forms are you likely to observe in a desertic vegetation? Ephemeral herbs Succulent plants Shrubs and small trees Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The desert vegetation is dominated by three life forms: Ephemeral annual herbs, which grow only when sufficient moisture is available. Typical succulent xerophytes like cacti which store water. Shrubs and small trees like Prosopis, Salvadora and Tamarix, whose deep tap roots may reach the water table.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
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With reference to recently approved Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, consider the following statements: It will enable the contractor to explore oil and gas, shale gas and gas hydrates under a single license. A company can select the exploration blocks without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. It will work on the principle of production sharing contract. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Union Cabinet has approved the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) on 10th March 2016. Features of HELP: Uniform License: It will enable the contractor to explore conventional as well as unconventional oil and gas resources including CBM, shale gas/oil, tight gas and gas hydrates under a single license, instead of the present system of issuing separate licenses for each kind of hydrocarbons. Open Acreages: It gives the option to a hydrocarbon company to select the exploration blocks throughout the year without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. Revenue Sharing Model: Present fiscal system of production sharing contract (PSC) is replaced by an easy to administer “revenue sharing model”. Thus statement 3 is not correct. Marketing and Pricing: This policy also provides for marketing freedom for crude oil and natural gas produced from these blocks. This is in tune with Government’s policy of “Minimum Government -Maximum Governance”. A graded system of royalty rates have been introduced, in which royalty rates decreases from shallow water to deep-water and ultra-deep water. At the same time, royalty rate for on land areas have been kept intact so that revenues to the state governments are not affected. On the lines of NELP, cess and import duty will not be applicable on blocks awarded under the new policy.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to recently approved Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, consider the following statements: It will enable the contractor to explore oil and gas, shale gas and gas hydrates under a single license. A company can select the exploration blocks without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. It will work on the principle of production sharing contract. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Union Cabinet has approved the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) on 10th March 2016. Features of HELP: Uniform License: It will enable the contractor to explore conventional as well as unconventional oil and gas resources including CBM, shale gas/oil, tight gas and gas hydrates under a single license, instead of the present system of issuing separate licenses for each kind of hydrocarbons. Open Acreages: It gives the option to a hydrocarbon company to select the exploration blocks throughout the year without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. Revenue Sharing Model: Present fiscal system of production sharing contract (PSC) is replaced by an easy to administer “revenue sharing model”. Thus statement 3 is not correct. Marketing and Pricing: This policy also provides for marketing freedom for crude oil and natural gas produced from these blocks. This is in tune with Government’s policy of “Minimum Government -Maximum Governance”. A graded system of royalty rates have been introduced, in which royalty rates decreases from shallow water to deep-water and ultra-deep water. At the same time, royalty rate for on land areas have been kept intact so that revenues to the state governments are not affected. On the lines of NELP, cess and import duty will not be applicable on blocks awarded under the new policy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
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With reference to Shola forests, consider the following statements: They are grassland patches interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen trees. They are found only in low altitude regions (<1500m) within the tropics. In India, they are limited to southern part of the Eastern Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Sholas are a mosaic of mountane evergreen forests and grasslands. They are found only in high altitude (>1500 metres asl) regions within the tropics, and are limited to the southern part of the western ghats. They are characterised by undulating grassland patches, interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen tree species, and are home to a host of endemic and endangered plants and animals. They are also vitally important in keeping water cycles alive. They retain most of the rain they get over the monsoons, and release it slowly through the year via a network of streams and rivers, that eventually serve the needs of a huge number of human settlements across south India.
|
a
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Shola forests, consider the following statements: They are grassland patches interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen trees. They are found only in low altitude regions (<1500m) within the tropics. In India, they are limited to southern part of the Eastern Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Sholas are a mosaic of mountane evergreen forests and grasslands. They are found only in high altitude (>1500 metres asl) regions within the tropics, and are limited to the southern part of the western ghats. They are characterised by undulating grassland patches, interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen tree species, and are home to a host of endemic and endangered plants and animals. They are also vitally important in keeping water cycles alive. They retain most of the rain they get over the monsoons, and release it slowly through the year via a network of streams and rivers, that eventually serve the needs of a huge number of human settlements across south India.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Anti-dumping duty, consider the following statements: It is levied on imported goods to offset export subsidies offered to producers in the exporting country. It is levied and administered by Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Anti-dumping duties are imposed if a country dumps goods in another country at a much cheaper price than it normally charges in its own home market. Countervailing duties are levied on imported goods to offset export subsidies offered to producers in the exporting country. Anti-dumping and countervailing measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Anti-Dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD), which functions under the commerce ministry. DGAD conducts anti-dumping and CVD investigations and makes recommendations to the government on imposition of anti-dumping measures. While the department of commerce recommends anti-dumping duties, it is the ministry of finance which levies such duty.
|
d
|
International Trade and Bodies: IMF: Purpose and Objectives, Organization and Functions, Working and Evaluation, IMF and Underdeveloped Countries, SDR's, Reforms etc., World Bank, Bilateral and Regional Cooperation
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Anti-dumping duty, consider the following statements: It is levied on imported goods to offset export subsidies offered to producers in the exporting country. It is levied and administered by Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Anti-dumping duties are imposed if a country dumps goods in another country at a much cheaper price than it normally charges in its own home market. Countervailing duties are levied on imported goods to offset export subsidies offered to producers in the exporting country. Anti-dumping and countervailing measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Anti-Dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD), which functions under the commerce ministry. DGAD conducts anti-dumping and CVD investigations and makes recommendations to the government on imposition of anti-dumping measures. While the department of commerce recommends anti-dumping duties, it is the ministry of finance which levies such duty.##Topic:International Trade and Bodies: IMF: Purpose and Objectives, Organization and Functions, Working and Evaluation, IMF and Underdeveloped Countries, SDR's, Reforms etc., World Bank, Bilateral and Regional Cooperation##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Indian and British Parliamentary systems, consider the following statements:
1. Both of them are based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament.
2. ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects: India has a republican system in place of the British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position. The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament. Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six months. Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State. ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no such institution in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Indian and British Parliamentary systems, consider the following statements:
1. Both of them are based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament.
2. ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects: India has a republican system in place of the British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position. The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament. Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six months. Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State. ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no such institution in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Peninsular rivers, consider the following statements: They exhibit superimposed drainage system. They have a fixed course and are characterized by absence of meanders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Peninsular Drainage system is older than the Himalayan one and this is evident from the broad, shallow and largely-graded valleys and the maturity of rivers. These are examples of superimposed and rejuvenated drainage. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial character of the plateau permits little scope for the formation of meanders and the rivers follow more or less straight courses. Himalayan rivers, on the other hand, are highly tortuous in the upper reaches and on entering the plains there is a sudden reduction in the speed of flow of water. Under these circumstances, they form meanders and are characterized by shifting of their beds.
|
c
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Peninsular rivers, consider the following statements: They exhibit superimposed drainage system. They have a fixed course and are characterized by absence of meanders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Peninsular Drainage system is older than the Himalayan one and this is evident from the broad, shallow and largely-graded valleys and the maturity of rivers. These are examples of superimposed and rejuvenated drainage. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial character of the plateau permits little scope for the formation of meanders and the rivers follow more or less straight courses. Himalayan rivers, on the other hand, are highly tortuous in the upper reaches and on entering the plains there is a sudden reduction in the speed of flow of water. Under these circumstances, they form meanders and are characterized by shifting of their beds.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best explains the concept of "Balanced Budget"?
|
A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending.
|
A budget in which taxes are equal to total subsidies.
|
A budget in which current account deficit is zero.
|
A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending.
|
Balanced budget: A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending. Balanced budget multiplier: The change in equilibrium output that results from a unit increase or decrease in both taxes and government spending.
|
a
|
Budgeting: Evolution of Budgeting, Institutions and Laws, The Union Budget: Components - Revenue Account, Capital Account, Measures of Government Deficit etc., Weaknesses in the Budgetary Process
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best explains the concept of "Balanced Budget"?##Option_A: A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending.###Option_B: A budget in which taxes are equal to total subsidies.##Option_C: A budget in which current account deficit is zero.##Option_D: A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending.##Answer:a##Explaination:Balanced budget: A budget in which taxes are equal to government spending. Balanced budget multiplier: The change in equilibrium output that results from a unit increase or decrease in both taxes and government spending.##Topic:Budgeting: Evolution of Budgeting, Institutions and Laws, The Union Budget: Components - Revenue Account, Capital Account, Measures of Government Deficit etc., Weaknesses in the Budgetary Process##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Medical Council of India (MCI), consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It is the implementing body of Jan Aushadi Scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Medical Council of India (MCI) is a statutory body with the responsibility of establishing and maintaining high standards of medical education and recognition of medical qualifications in India. It registers doctors to practice in India, in order to protect and promote the health and safety of the public by ensuring proper standards in the practice of medicine. Recently a Parliamentary Standing Committee (PSC) has submitted its report. It pointed out serious irregularities in Medical Council of India’s (MCI) functioning and has called for changes of "transformational nature". The council consists of doctors from both government and private hospitals. The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the agency under the Department of Pharmaceuticals entrusted with implementing the Jan Aushadhi programme which was launched in 2008.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Medical Council of India (MCI), consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It is the implementing body of Jan Aushadi Scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Medical Council of India (MCI) is a statutory body with the responsibility of establishing and maintaining high standards of medical education and recognition of medical qualifications in India. It registers doctors to practice in India, in order to protect and promote the health and safety of the public by ensuring proper standards in the practice of medicine. Recently a Parliamentary Standing Committee (PSC) has submitted its report. It pointed out serious irregularities in Medical Council of India’s (MCI) functioning and has called for changes of "transformational nature". The council consists of doctors from both government and private hospitals. The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the agency under the Department of Pharmaceuticals entrusted with implementing the Jan Aushadhi programme which was launched in 2008.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following sites: Ancient Nalanda Mahabodhi Temple Complex Churches of Goa Hill forts of Rajasthan Which of these sites are not a part of UNESCO world heritage sites?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Nalanda is India's 2015 entry for the Unesco World Heritage City tag in the cultural heritage segment thus is not yet a part of the list of heritage sites. Mahabodhi Temple Coomplex at Bodh Gaya (Bihar), Churches of Goa Hill forts of Rajasthan are UNESCO world heritage sites.
|
a
|
Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following sites: Ancient Nalanda Mahabodhi Temple Complex Churches of Goa Hill forts of Rajasthan Which of these sites are not a part of UNESCO world heritage sites?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Nalanda is India's 2015 entry for the Unesco World Heritage City tag in the cultural heritage segment thus is not yet a part of the list of heritage sites. Mahabodhi Temple Coomplex at Bodh Gaya (Bihar), Churches of Goa Hill forts of Rajasthan are UNESCO world heritage sites.##Topic:Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Ordinance making power of the President, consider the following statements: Ordinance cannot be promulgated when both the houses are in session. Ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws. Ordinance cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). This means that an ordinance can only be issued when either or one House is in session. An ordinance made when both the houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The ordinance making power of the President is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law making powers of the Parliament. This has two implications: i) an ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws ii) an ordinance is subject to same constitutional limitation as an act of Parliament, i.e., it cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. However, ordinance cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Hence, both 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Ordinance making power of the President, consider the following statements: Ordinance cannot be promulgated when both the houses are in session. Ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws. Ordinance cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). This means that an ordinance can only be issued when either or one House is in session. An ordinance made when both the houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The ordinance making power of the President is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law making powers of the Parliament. This has two implications: i) an ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws ii) an ordinance is subject to same constitutional limitation as an act of Parliament, i.e., it cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. However, ordinance cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Hence, both 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Shanghai Co-operation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements: It is both an economic and military organisation. It is an observer in the United Nation General Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization composed of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan founded in Shanghai in 2001. Originally formed as a confidence-building forum to demilitarize borders, the organization's goals and agenda have since broadened to include increased military and counterterrorism cooperation and intelligence sharing. The SCO has also intensified its focus on regional economic initiatives like the recently announced integration of the China-led Silk Road Economic Belt and the Russia-led Eurasian Economic Union. India and Pakistanare accepted as full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). Economic cooperation has become one of the organization’s more pressing goals in recent years. At the Ufa summit in Russia, member states adopted the SCO Development Strategy, which included bolstering finance, investment, and trade cooperation as a priority over the next ten years. The SCO has established relations with the United Nations, the European Union, Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), the Commonwealth of Independent States and the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation. It is an observer in the United Nation General Assembly and is headquartered in Beijing, China.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Shanghai Co-operation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements: It is both an economic and military organisation. It is an observer in the United Nation General Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization composed of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan founded in Shanghai in 2001. Originally formed as a confidence-building forum to demilitarize borders, the organization's goals and agenda have since broadened to include increased military and counterterrorism cooperation and intelligence sharing. The SCO has also intensified its focus on regional economic initiatives like the recently announced integration of the China-led Silk Road Economic Belt and the Russia-led Eurasian Economic Union. India and Pakistanare accepted as full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). Economic cooperation has become one of the organization’s more pressing goals in recent years. At the Ufa summit in Russia, member states adopted the SCO Development Strategy, which included bolstering finance, investment, and trade cooperation as a priority over the next ten years. The SCO has established relations with the United Nations, the European Union, Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), the Commonwealth of Independent States and the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation. It is an observer in the United Nation General Assembly and is headquartered in Beijing, China.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:c
|
Panama disease, recently in news, is related to:
|
The Panama papers dealing with offshore tax havens.
|
The fungal disease responsible for killing banana crops.
|
A viral disease causing microcephaly in newborns in Latin America.
|
The Panama papers dealing with offshore tax havens.
|
Panama Disease: It is cause by a soil borne fungus. The fungus enters the plant through the roots and goes on to colonise the plant through the vascular system, blocking the flow of water and nutrients. Medium: The fungus spreads through infected planting material, soil and water. The disease is threatening banana crops across Kerala. It causes discoloration and wilting of leaves, and eventually kills the plant. Over the years, it has spread from Panama to neighbouring countries. A new virulent strain of the disease known as Tropical Race 4 (TR4) is now threatening banana crops in Asia, Australia, Africa and the Middle East.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Panama disease, recently in news, is related to:##Option_A: The Panama papers dealing with offshore tax havens.###Option_B: The fungal disease responsible for killing banana crops.##Option_C: A viral disease causing microcephaly in newborns in Latin America.##Option_D: The Panama papers dealing with offshore tax havens.##Answer:b##Explaination:Panama Disease: It is cause by a soil borne fungus. The fungus enters the plant through the roots and goes on to colonise the plant through the vascular system, blocking the flow of water and nutrients. Medium: The fungus spreads through infected planting material, soil and water. The disease is threatening banana crops across Kerala. It causes discoloration and wilting of leaves, and eventually kills the plant. Over the years, it has spread from Panama to neighbouring countries. A new virulent strain of the disease known as Tropical Race 4 (TR4) is now threatening banana crops in Asia, Australia, Africa and the Middle East.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
"To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women" is a provision made in the Indian Constitution under
|
Part III
|
Part IV
|
Part IV-A
|
Part III
|
The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. The Eighty-Six Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem; to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures; to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of Endeavour and achievement." to provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.
|
c
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women" is a provision made in the Indian Constitution under ##Option_A: Part III ###Option_B: Part IV ##Option_C: Part IV-A ##Option_D: Part III ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. The Eighty-Six Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51(A) of the constitution of India. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem; to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures; to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of Endeavour and achievement." to provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Charter Act of 1833?
|
It centralised the administration of India.
|
It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants.
|
It urged the Government of India to take measures for amelioration of the condition of slaves.
|
It centralised the administration of India.
|
The Charter Acts of 1833 centralized the administration in India. The Governor General of Bengal, according to the act was declared as the Governor General of India. The jurisdiction of the Governor General in council was extended considerably. The Charter Act of 1833 vested the Governor General in Council with the powers of control and superintendence of the civil and the military affairs of the Company. Bombay, Madras and Bengal and other territories came under the direct control of the Governor General in Council. The Charter Acts of 1833 emphasized the legislative centralization. The Government of Madras and Bombay were deprived of their powers of legislation. The state governments were only left with the powers of proposing the project of laws to the governor General in council. It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants and stated that the Indians cannot be debarred from holding any place, office or any employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors. The Act of 1833 enjoined the Government of India to take measures for amelioration of the condition of slaves and ultimate abolition of slavery in India. The Charter Act of 1833 enlarged the Executive council by the addition of fourth member (Law Member) for legislative purposes. The Company was relieved of its monopoly of tea trade in India and trades with China. The Acts of 1833 authorized the governments of India to appoint a Law commission. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Charter Act of 1833?##Option_A: It centralised the administration of India.###Option_B: It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants.##Option_C: It urged the Government of India to take measures for amelioration of the condition of slaves.##Option_D: It centralised the administration of India.##Answer:d##Explaination:The Charter Acts of 1833 centralized the administration in India. The Governor General of Bengal, according to the act was declared as the Governor General of India. The jurisdiction of the Governor General in council was extended considerably. The Charter Act of 1833 vested the Governor General in Council with the powers of control and superintendence of the civil and the military affairs of the Company. Bombay, Madras and Bengal and other territories came under the direct control of the Governor General in Council. The Charter Acts of 1833 emphasized the legislative centralization. The Government of Madras and Bombay were deprived of their powers of legislation. The state governments were only left with the powers of proposing the project of laws to the governor General in council. It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants and stated that the Indians cannot be debarred from holding any place, office or any employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors. The Act of 1833 enjoined the Government of India to take measures for amelioration of the condition of slaves and ultimate abolition of slavery in India. The Charter Act of 1833 enlarged the Executive council by the addition of fourth member (Law Member) for legislative purposes. The Company was relieved of its monopoly of tea trade in India and trades with China. The Acts of 1833 authorized the governments of India to appoint a Law commission. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
The term "write-off", used in banking parlance, refers to:
|
the debt that the bank has not been able to collect until a point.
|
the debt that the bank will never collect and waives off the loan to its customers.
|
the loans that the government has waived off restricting the bank from collecting it.
|
the debt that the bank has not been able to collect until a point.
|
In a write-off, the bank includes a bad debt as an uncollectible loss on its tax return. This write-off is also called a "charge-off". The write-off reduces the bank's earnings and thereby reduces its taxable income. This accounting procedure may reduce the bank's overall tax liability, which is the goal of a write-off. The designation of the debt as uncollectible doesn't mean the bank will never collect on it -- just that it hasn't been able to collect on it until that point. When a nonperforming loan is written off, the lender receives a tax deduction from the loan value. Not only do banks get a deduction, but they are still allowed to pursue the debts and generate revenue from them. When a bank writes off a bad debt, that write-off does not constitute a waiver of the bank's right to collect on it. The bank can still pursue the customer for its payment. Many banks turn bad debt accounts over to a collection agency. Either the bank hires the agency to collect on its behalf, or the bank sells the debt to the agency outright. The agency then has the right to attempt to collect that debt from you.
|
a
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "write-off", used in banking parlance, refers to:##Option_A: the debt that the bank has not been able to collect until a point.###Option_B: the debt that the bank will never collect and waives off the loan to its customers.##Option_C: the loans that the government has waived off restricting the bank from collecting it.##Option_D: the debt that the bank has not been able to collect until a point.##Answer:a##Explaination:In a write-off, the bank includes a bad debt as an uncollectible loss on its tax return. This write-off is also called a "charge-off". The write-off reduces the bank's earnings and thereby reduces its taxable income. This accounting procedure may reduce the bank's overall tax liability, which is the goal of a write-off. The designation of the debt as uncollectible doesn't mean the bank will never collect on it -- just that it hasn't been able to collect on it until that point. When a nonperforming loan is written off, the lender receives a tax deduction from the loan value. Not only do banks get a deduction, but they are still allowed to pursue the debts and generate revenue from them. When a bank writes off a bad debt, that write-off does not constitute a waiver of the bank's right to collect on it. The bank can still pursue the customer for its payment. Many banks turn bad debt accounts over to a collection agency. Either the bank hires the agency to collect on its behalf, or the bank sells the debt to the agency outright. The agency then has the right to attempt to collect that debt from you.##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to Lokayat philosophy, consider the following statements: The theory was propounded by Charavaka. It rejected the idea of eternal soul, rebirth and karma (punya). Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The term lokayat literally means as "that which is found among the people". The earliest propounder of this materialistic theory was Charavaka, who discarded the authority of vedas and Brahamans. According to Lokayat philosopy body and consciousness is the product of combination of mater, soul is not eternal and there is no existence of supernatural agency (god). Only those things which could be felt by human senses were considered as true knowledge. They rejected the ideo of rebirth, transmigration of soul and of good and bad deeds.
|
c
|
Religious
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Lokayat philosophy, consider the following statements: The theory was propounded by Charavaka. It rejected the idea of eternal soul, rebirth and karma (punya). Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The term lokayat literally means as "that which is found among the people". The earliest propounder of this materialistic theory was Charavaka, who discarded the authority of vedas and Brahamans. According to Lokayat philosopy body and consciousness is the product of combination of mater, soul is not eternal and there is no existence of supernatural agency (god). Only those things which could be felt by human senses were considered as true knowledge. They rejected the ideo of rebirth, transmigration of soul and of good and bad deeds.##Topic:Religious##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With reference to the "Cabinet Mission Plan", consider the following statements: Muslim league rejected the long-term plan put forward by the Cabinet Mission. Cabinet mission plan accepted the demand for a separate Pakistan. Mountbatten plan for Partition of India was based on the proposal of Cabinet mission. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct.The Muslim league first approved the plan. But when Congress declared that it could change the scheme through its majority in the Constituent Assembly, they rejected the plan. Statement 2 is incorrect: The cabinet mission recommended an undivided India and turned down the Muslim league’s demand for a separate Pakistan. Statement 3 is incorrect: Mountbatten decided that the Cabinet Mission Plan had become untenable and formulated an alternative plan.This plan envisaged the transfer of power to two separatedominion states: India and Pakistan.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Cabinet Mission Plan", consider the following statements: Muslim league rejected the long-term plan put forward by the Cabinet Mission. Cabinet mission plan accepted the demand for a separate Pakistan. Mountbatten plan for Partition of India was based on the proposal of Cabinet mission. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct.The Muslim league first approved the plan. But when Congress declared that it could change the scheme through its majority in the Constituent Assembly, they rejected the plan. Statement 2 is incorrect: The cabinet mission recommended an undivided India and turned down the Muslim league’s demand for a separate Pakistan. Statement 3 is incorrect: Mountbatten decided that the Cabinet Mission Plan had become untenable and formulated an alternative plan.This plan envisaged the transfer of power to two separatedominion states: India and Pakistan.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to medieval India what do the terms "nastaliq" and "shikaste" refer to?
|
Taxes imposed on the merchants.
|
Calligraphic styles of Persian language.
|
Components of Persian architecture.
|
Taxes imposed on the merchants.
|
Nastaliq and Shikaste are Persian calligraphical styles. Calligraphy, the art of handwriting, was considered a skill of great importance. It was practised using different styles. Akbar’s favourite was the Nastaliq, a fluid style with long horizontal strokes. The nastaliq style is cursive and easy to read, the Shikaste (on the right) is denser and more difficult.
|
b
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to medieval India what do the terms "nastaliq" and "shikaste" refer to?##Option_A: Taxes imposed on the merchants.###Option_B: Calligraphic styles of Persian language.##Option_C: Components of Persian architecture.##Option_D: Taxes imposed on the merchants.##Answer:b##Explaination:Nastaliq and Shikaste are Persian calligraphical styles. Calligraphy, the art of handwriting, was considered a skill of great importance. It was practised using different styles. Akbar’s favourite was the Nastaliq, a fluid style with long horizontal strokes. The nastaliq style is cursive and easy to read, the Shikaste (on the right) is denser and more difficult.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Pricing of drugs in India is done by:
|
Medical Council of India
|
Drug Controller General of India
|
Central Drugs Standard Control Organization
|
Medical Council of India
|
Drug prices are monitored and controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) . All the powers of Government of pricing according to Essential Commodities Act have been delegated to it. Under Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013 the powers to review are vested with the Government. Hence, the Department of Pharmaceuticals is the reviewing authority whenever pharmaceutical companies file review petitions against any price fixation done by NPPA. Policy related matters are also dealt by the Department of Pharmaceuticals. It is pertinent to note that the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules made thereunder administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare do not contain any provisions for pricing of drugs. Instead, pricing of drugs is administered under the provisions of the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) and National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) under Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical devices, and serves parallel function to the European Medicines Agency of the European Union, the PMDA of Japan and the Food and Drug Administration of the United States. Within the CDSCO, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) regulates pharmaceutical and medical devices, under the gamut of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Pricing of drugs in India is done by:##Option_A: Medical Council of India###Option_B: Drug Controller General of India##Option_C: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization##Option_D: Medical Council of India##Answer:d##Explaination:Drug prices are monitored and controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) . All the powers of Government of pricing according to Essential Commodities Act have been delegated to it. Under Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013 the powers to review are vested with the Government. Hence, the Department of Pharmaceuticals is the reviewing authority whenever pharmaceutical companies file review petitions against any price fixation done by NPPA. Policy related matters are also dealt by the Department of Pharmaceuticals. It is pertinent to note that the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules made thereunder administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare do not contain any provisions for pricing of drugs. Instead, pricing of drugs is administered under the provisions of the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) and National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) under Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical devices, and serves parallel function to the European Medicines Agency of the European Union, the PMDA of Japan and the Food and Drug Administration of the United States. Within the CDSCO, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) regulates pharmaceutical and medical devices, under the gamut of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following differences between Employee Provident Fund (EPF) and National Pension Scheme (NPS): While EPF is governed by Ministry of Labour and Employment, NPS is under the control of Ministry of Finance. While EPF covers the salaried persons in India, NPS covers all citizens including the unorganized sector workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) is one of the most beneficial and popular investment schemes for the salaried persons in India. The Employees Provident Fund Organisation, a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment,Government of India administers social security schemes framed under theEmployees' Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 namely Provident Fund, Pension and Insurance to industrial employees. The PF account benefits are extended to all the establishments which employ 20 or more persons. The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1st January, 2004 with the objective of providing retirement income to all the citizens. NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement amongst the citizens. Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis. It is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), authorized by Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services.
|
c
|
Initiatives taken by Govt
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following differences between Employee Provident Fund (EPF) and National Pension Scheme (NPS): While EPF is governed by Ministry of Labour and Employment, NPS is under the control of Ministry of Finance. While EPF covers the salaried persons in India, NPS covers all citizens including the unorganized sector workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) is one of the most beneficial and popular investment schemes for the salaried persons in India. The Employees Provident Fund Organisation, a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment,Government of India administers social security schemes framed under theEmployees' Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 namely Provident Fund, Pension and Insurance to industrial employees. The PF account benefits are extended to all the establishments which employ 20 or more persons. The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1st January, 2004 with the objective of providing retirement income to all the citizens. NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement amongst the citizens. Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis. It is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), authorized by Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services.##Topic:Initiatives taken by Govt##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the "Quit India Movement", which of the following statements is/are not correct? It was a planned movement. It was led by Gandhiji. It was a non-violent movement. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Gandhi did not formulate any definite programme of action before he was arrested on 9th August, all the top leaders, of the Congress were arrested. Removal of established leaders left the younger and militant elements at their own initiative. Statement 3 is incorrect: Due to the arrest of major leaders and no specific planning, the movement took a violent turn in many parts of the country. The general public attacked symbols of authority, hoisting national flags forcibly on public buildings,bridges were blown up, railway tracks were removed and telegraph lines were cut.
|
d
|
The Quit India Movement, I942
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Quit India Movement", which of the following statements is/are not correct? It was a planned movement. It was led by Gandhiji. It was a non-violent movement. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Gandhi did not formulate any definite programme of action before he was arrested on 9th August, all the top leaders, of the Congress were arrested. Removal of established leaders left the younger and militant elements at their own initiative. Statement 3 is incorrect: Due to the arrest of major leaders and no specific planning, the movement took a violent turn in many parts of the country. The general public attacked symbols of authority, hoisting national flags forcibly on public buildings,bridges were blown up, railway tracks were removed and telegraph lines were cut.##Topic:The Quit India Movement, I942##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
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Which of the following Industrial Regions are classified as Major Industrial Regions? Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region Jaipur-Ajmer Region Ambala-Amritsar Region Hugli Region Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1, 2 and 4 only
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1 and 3 only
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1 and 4 only
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1, 2 and 4 only
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Hugli Region and Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region are classified as Major Industrial Regions.
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c
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Industriestypes and their locational factors
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Agriculture
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Industrial Regions are classified as Major Industrial Regions? Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region Jaipur-Ajmer Region Ambala-Amritsar Region Hugli Region Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Hugli Region and Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region are classified as Major Industrial Regions. ##Topic:Industriestypes and their locational factors##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
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What does the term "Helicopter money" refer to?
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Direct transfers into people"s accounts by central bank as part of expansionary monetary policy.
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Investments in an economy by foreign institutional investors.
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Transfer payments made by subsidiaries to their parent companies.
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Direct transfers into people"s accounts by central bank as part of expansionary monetary policy.
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Helicopter money is a reference to an idea made popular by the American economist Milton Friedman in 1969. The basic principle is that if a central bank wants to raise inflation and output in an economy that is running substantially below potential, one of the most effective tools would be simply to give everyone direct money transfers. In theory, people would see this as a permanent one-off expansion of the amount of money in circulation and would then start to spend more freely, increasing broader economic activity and pushing inflation back up to the central bank's target. The concept is being suggested for economies struggling with persistent deflation.
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a
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Misc Economic Issues
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Anthropology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What does the term "Helicopter money" refer to?##Option_A: Direct transfers into people"s accounts by central bank as part of expansionary monetary policy.###Option_B: Investments in an economy by foreign institutional investors.##Option_C: Transfer payments made by subsidiaries to their parent companies.##Option_D: Direct transfers into people"s accounts by central bank as part of expansionary monetary policy.##Answer:a##Explaination:Helicopter money is a reference to an idea made popular by the American economist Milton Friedman in 1969. The basic principle is that if a central bank wants to raise inflation and output in an economy that is running substantially below potential, one of the most effective tools would be simply to give everyone direct money transfers. In theory, people would see this as a permanent one-off expansion of the amount of money in circulation and would then start to spend more freely, increasing broader economic activity and pushing inflation back up to the central bank's target. The concept is being suggested for economies struggling with persistent deflation.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
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With reference to cultural history of India, the term "Sangharamas" refers to?
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Village headmen
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Religious sect
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Administrative functionary
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Village headmen
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"Rock cut monasteries in ancient India were called as Sangharamas. Sangharama is a Sanskrit word meaning ""temple"" or ""monastery", the place, including its garden or grove, where dwells the Sangha, the Buddhist monastic community. A famous Sangharama was that of Kukkutarama in Pataliputra. The Kukkutura sangharama was later destroyed and its monks killed by Pushyamitra Shunga, according to the second century Ashokavadana. They represent a form of architecture prevalent in Buddhism and Jainism"
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d
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Architecture
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Geology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to cultural history of India, the term "Sangharamas" refers to?##Option_A: Village headmen###Option_B: Religious sect##Option_C: Administrative functionary##Option_D: Village headmen##Answer:d##Explaination:"Rock cut monasteries in ancient India were called as Sangharamas. Sangharama is a Sanskrit word meaning ""temple"" or ""monastery", the place, including its garden or grove, where dwells the Sangha, the Buddhist monastic community. A famous Sangharama was that of Kukkutarama in Pataliputra. The Kukkutura sangharama was later destroyed and its monks killed by Pushyamitra Shunga, according to the second century Ashokavadana. They represent a form of architecture prevalent in Buddhism and Jainism"##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
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With reference to Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992, consider the following statements: The Act provides for three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state. The Act has provided for mandatory reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at all levels. The Act has barred the interference by courts in the matters of panchayat elections. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
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1 only
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2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 only
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The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, has added part IX to the Constitution of India entitled as 'Panchayats'. The part consists of provisions from Article 243 to 243-0. A new schedule called as Eleventh Schedule lists 29 functional items that panchayats have to deal with under Article 243-G. The basic provisions of the Act are divided into compulsory provisions and voluntary arrangements. COMPULSORY PROVISIONS: Creation of a State Elections Commission to conduct elections to PRIs, Each state to set up a State Finance Commission for five years. Tenure of PRIs fixed at five years and, if dissolved earlier, fresh elections to be held within six months, Creation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure at the zila, block and village levels, The minimum age for contesting elections to PRIs to be 18 years, Reservation for women in panchayats (chairman and members) up to one-third seats, Reservation of seats for SC/ST in panchayats (chairman and members) in proportion to their population, Indirect elections to the post of chairman at the intermediate and apex tiers, All posts at all levels (with two exceptions) to be filled by direct elections, and Organisation of gram sabhas. As local self-government is an item in the State List, the state governments have been given a reasonable discretion to take decisions in the following areas. VOLUNTARY PROVISIONS (vary from state to state) Voting rights to MPs and MLAs in these bodies, Reservation for backward classes, Financial powers, Autonomy of the panchayats, and Devolution of powers to perform functions of the Eleventh Schedule and planning. Article 243 O bars the courts to interfere in the Panchayat Matters. The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in a court. No election to any Panchayat is to be questioned except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the state legislature.
|
b
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Panchayati Raj
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992, consider the following statements: The Act provides for three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state. The Act has provided for mandatory reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at all levels. The Act has barred the interference by courts in the matters of panchayat elections. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, has added part IX to the Constitution of India entitled as 'Panchayats'. The part consists of provisions from Article 243 to 243-0. A new schedule called as Eleventh Schedule lists 29 functional items that panchayats have to deal with under Article 243-G. The basic provisions of the Act are divided into compulsory provisions and voluntary arrangements. COMPULSORY PROVISIONS: Creation of a State Elections Commission to conduct elections to PRIs, Each state to set up a State Finance Commission for five years. Tenure of PRIs fixed at five years and, if dissolved earlier, fresh elections to be held within six months, Creation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure at the zila, block and village levels, The minimum age for contesting elections to PRIs to be 18 years, Reservation for women in panchayats (chairman and members) up to one-third seats, Reservation of seats for SC/ST in panchayats (chairman and members) in proportion to their population, Indirect elections to the post of chairman at the intermediate and apex tiers, All posts at all levels (with two exceptions) to be filled by direct elections, and Organisation of gram sabhas. As local self-government is an item in the State List, the state governments have been given a reasonable discretion to take decisions in the following areas. VOLUNTARY PROVISIONS (vary from state to state) Voting rights to MPs and MLAs in these bodies, Reservation for backward classes, Financial powers, Autonomy of the panchayats, and Devolution of powers to perform functions of the Eleventh Schedule and planning. Article 243 O bars the courts to interfere in the Panchayat Matters. The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in a court. No election to any Panchayat is to be questioned except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the state legislature.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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With which of the following religion(s), the worship of "yaksha" and "yakshi" was associated? Brahamanism Buddhism Jainism Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 and 3 only
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2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 and 3 only
|
The worship of 'yaksha' and 'yakshi' was prevalent in ancient india's society before the advent of Buddhism and Jainism. They were so popular that eventually they were assimilated into Buddhism, Jainism as well as in Brahamanism. Yaksha and yakshi were dieties connected with forest, fertility and water. They appeared as demonic and frightening creatures in various Brahamanical, Jainism and Buddhist text.
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d
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Religion and Philosophy
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Geology
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With which of the following religion(s), the worship of "yaksha" and "yakshi" was associated? Brahamanism Buddhism Jainism Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The worship of 'yaksha' and 'yakshi' was prevalent in ancient india's society before the advent of Buddhism and Jainism. They were so popular that eventually they were assimilated into Buddhism, Jainism as well as in Brahamanism. Yaksha and yakshi were dieties connected with forest, fertility and water. They appeared as demonic and frightening creatures in various Brahamanical, Jainism and Buddhist text.##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
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With reference to Finance Commission, consider the following statements: The Chairman and its members are appointed by the President. The President determines the qualifications and the manner in which members are to be selected. Its report is laid down by the President in the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Finance Commission is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution by the President every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states. It consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the Commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who lays it before both houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on its recommendations. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
|
b
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Finance Commission, consider the following statements: The Chairman and its members are appointed by the President. The President determines the qualifications and the manner in which members are to be selected. Its report is laid down by the President in the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:Finance Commission is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution by the President every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states. It consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the Commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who lays it before both houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on its recommendations. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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Consider the following pairs: Colors of Biotechnology Area of Biotech Activities 1. Yellow : Medicine and Human Health 2. Brown : Arid Zone and Desert Biotechnology 3. Gold : Bioinformatics 4. Dark : Bioterrorism and Biowarfare Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Color Type Area of Biotech Activities Red : Health, Medical, Diagnostics Yellow : Food Biotechnology, Nutrition Science Blue : Aquaculture, Coastal and Marine Biotech Green : Agricultural, Environmental Biotechnology – Biofuels Brown : Arid Zone and Desert Biotechnology Dark : Bioterrorism, Biowarfare, Biocrimes, Anticrop warfare Purple : Patents, Publications, Inventions, IPRs White Gene-based Bioindustries Gold Bioinformatics, Nanobiotechnology Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
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Main Branches of Biotechnology
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Colors of Biotechnology Area of Biotech Activities 1. Yellow : Medicine and Human Health 2. Brown : Arid Zone and Desert Biotechnology 3. Gold : Bioinformatics 4. Dark : Bioterrorism and Biowarfare Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Color Type Area of Biotech Activities Red : Health, Medical, Diagnostics Yellow : Food Biotechnology, Nutrition Science Blue : Aquaculture, Coastal and Marine Biotech Green : Agricultural, Environmental Biotechnology – Biofuels Brown : Arid Zone and Desert Biotechnology Dark : Bioterrorism, Biowarfare, Biocrimes, Anticrop warfare Purple : Patents, Publications, Inventions, IPRs White Gene-based Bioindustries Gold Bioinformatics, Nanobiotechnology Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Main Branches of Biotechnology##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
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