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The aim of British colonism in India in 19th century was to:
|
transform India into modern industrial colony
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transform India into a supplier of raw material to British Empire.
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make British Empire as a market for the investment of Indian Capital
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transform India into modern industrial colony
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British know the fact that colonialism no longer functioned through the crude tools of plunder, tribute & mercantilisin but operated through more disguised complex mechanism of free trade & foreign capital investment in India. THUS the essence of 19th century colonialism about India was to Transform India into a supplier of raw material to British Empire. Therefore the options a,c,&d are incorrect &option"b"is the correct one.
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b
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Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The aim of British colonism in India in 19th century was to:##Option_A: transform India into modern industrial colony###Option_B: transform India into a supplier of raw material to British Empire.##Option_C: make British Empire as a market for the investment of Indian Capital##Option_D: transform India into modern industrial colony##Answer:b##Explaination:British know the fact that colonialism no longer functioned through the crude tools of plunder, tribute & mercantilisin but operated through more disguised complex mechanism of free trade & foreign capital investment in India. THUS the essence of 19th century colonialism about India was to Transform India into a supplier of raw material to British Empire. Therefore the options a,c,&d are incorrect &option"b"is the correct one.##Topic:Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
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Consider the following statements with regard to Amrit Bazar Patrika: It was started by Sisir Ghosh. Started as a Bengali paper and it became an english newspaper after the promulgation of Vernacular press act, 1878. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
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Statement (1) is correct: it was started in Bengali by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh in 1868 Statement (2) is correct: Initially it was started in Bengali language and later it become an English language newspaper in 1878 after promulgation of Vernacular press act,1878 by Lord Lyton.
|
c
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The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Amrit Bazar Patrika: It was started by Sisir Ghosh. Started as a Bengali paper and it became an english newspaper after the promulgation of Vernacular press act, 1878. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement (1) is correct: it was started in Bengali by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh in 1868 Statement (2) is correct: Initially it was started in Bengali language and later it become an English language newspaper in 1878 after promulgation of Vernacular press act,1878 by Lord Lyton.##Topic:The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
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Which of the following was/were the reasons for A.O.Hume being the chief organiser of INC? Leaders of INC did not want to arouse official hostility at such an early stage. The tradition of open opposition to the rulers was not yet firmly followed during that period Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
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Statement 1 is correct because Hume was a retired civil servant and a man of high ideals so that his presence in INC would have helped in escaping any kind of hostility at such an early stage. Statement 2 is correct. There were very few people that time who were familiar with western political and liberal ideologies and the tradition of open opposition to the rulers was not yet firmly entrenched
|
c
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Foundation of the Indian National Congress
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General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was/were the reasons for A.O.Hume being the chief organiser of INC? Leaders of INC did not want to arouse official hostility at such an early stage. The tradition of open opposition to the rulers was not yet firmly followed during that period Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct because Hume was a retired civil servant and a man of high ideals so that his presence in INC would have helped in escaping any kind of hostility at such an early stage. Statement 2 is correct. There were very few people that time who were familiar with western political and liberal ideologies and the tradition of open opposition to the rulers was not yet firmly entrenched##Topic:Foundation of the Indian National Congress##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
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Consider the following pairs: Tribal uprising Region 1. Santhal : Odisha 2. Kols : Chhattisgarh 3. Rampa : Madhya Pradesh 4. Munda : Jharkhand Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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1 and 3 only
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2 and 4 only
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4 only
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1 and 3 only
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Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Santhal uprising was organized around Rajmahal Hills. It is located in present day Jharkhand. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Kols of Chhotanagpur rebelled from 1820 to 1837. Chhotanagpur is also in Jharkhand. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Rampa were from coastal Andhra Pradesh. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Munda tribes were residence of Jharkhand. Birsa Munda was their leader.
|
c
|
Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Tribal uprising Region 1. Santhal : Odisha 2. Kols : Chhattisgarh 3. Rampa : Madhya Pradesh 4. Munda : Jharkhand Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Santhal uprising was organized around Rajmahal Hills. It is located in present day Jharkhand. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Kols of Chhotanagpur rebelled from 1820 to 1837. Chhotanagpur is also in Jharkhand. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Rampa were from coastal Andhra Pradesh. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Munda tribes were residence of Jharkhand. Birsa Munda was their leader.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to the terms dikus, which of the following is correct?
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They were the money lenders in tribal areas.
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It denotes British administrative head of a tribal region.
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They were elected Village headman from tribal community.
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They were the money lenders in tribal areas.
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All the outsiders were collectively termed as dikus. Technically speaking money lenders and British were also outsiders. Thus, they were called dikus. But neither of the two were exclusively called dikus. So, the most appropriate option is (d)
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d
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Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the terms dikus, which of the following is correct?##Option_A: They were the money lenders in tribal areas.###Option_B: It denotes British administrative head of a tribal region.##Option_C: They were elected Village headman from tribal community.##Option_D: They were the money lenders in tribal areas.##Answer:d##Explaination:All the outsiders were collectively termed as dikus. Technically speaking money lenders and British were also outsiders. Thus, they were called dikus. But neither of the two were exclusively called dikus. So, the most appropriate option is (d)##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
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With reference to Santhal Uprising, which of the following statements is/are correct? Sido and Kanhu were the principal rebel leaders. The Santhals lived in the area between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal. The struggle was against the zamindars and money lenders not Britishers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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1 only
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 only
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Statement 1 is correct. In Santhal Uprising Sido and Kanhu were the principal rebel leaders. Statement 2 is correct. The Santhals lived in the area between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal. Statement 3 is incorrect. The struggle was against the exploitation carried out by zamindars,Money lenders which they term Dikus(Out siders) and Britishers.
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b
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Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Santhal Uprising, which of the following statements is/are correct? Sido and Kanhu were the principal rebel leaders. The Santhals lived in the area between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal. The struggle was against the zamindars and money lenders not Britishers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. In Santhal Uprising Sido and Kanhu were the principal rebel leaders. Statement 2 is correct. The Santhals lived in the area between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal. Statement 3 is incorrect. The struggle was against the exploitation carried out by zamindars,Money lenders which they term Dikus(Out siders) and Britishers.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to Tribal uprisings during the British rule, consider the following statements: The rebels saw themselves not as a discreet class but as having a tribal identity. Tribals indiscriminately attacked the outsiders including fellow Indians. They used violence and armed resistance as method of protest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 and 2 only
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3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Ethnic ties were a basic feature of the tribal rebellions. The rebels saw themselves not as a discreet class but as having a tribal identity. Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all outsiders were attacked as enemies. Often there was no violence against the non-tribal poor, who worked in tribal villages in supportive economic roles, or who had social relations with the tribals such as telis, gwalas, lohars, carpenters, potters, weavers, washermen, barbers, drummers, and bonded labourers and domestic servants of the outsiders. Statement 3 is correct. Protest often took the form of spontaneous attacks on outsiders, looting their property and expelling them from their villages. Clashes with authorities were violent and tribals resorted to armed resistance as well.
|
c
|
Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tribal uprisings during the British rule, consider the following statements: The rebels saw themselves not as a discreet class but as having a tribal identity. Tribals indiscriminately attacked the outsiders including fellow Indians. They used violence and armed resistance as method of protest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Ethnic ties were a basic feature of the tribal rebellions. The rebels saw themselves not as a discreet class but as having a tribal identity. Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all outsiders were attacked as enemies. Often there was no violence against the non-tribal poor, who worked in tribal villages in supportive economic roles, or who had social relations with the tribals such as telis, gwalas, lohars, carpenters, potters, weavers, washermen, barbers, drummers, and bonded labourers and domestic servants of the outsiders. Statement 3 is correct. Protest often took the form of spontaneous attacks on outsiders, looting their property and expelling them from their villages. Clashes with authorities were violent and tribals resorted to armed resistance as well.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
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With reference to Tribal policy of British, consider the following statements: British encouraged shifting cultivation, which is practiced even today in some tribal areas. They placed restrictions on access to forest products and forest lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. British refused to let cultivation shift to new areas. Thus, they discouraged shifting cultivation. Statement 2 is correct. The colonial usurped the forest lands and placed restrictions on access to forest products, forest lands and village common lands.
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b
|
Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tribal policy of British, consider the following statements: British encouraged shifting cultivation, which is practiced even today in some tribal areas. They placed restrictions on access to forest products and forest lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. British refused to let cultivation shift to new areas. Thus, they discouraged shifting cultivation. Statement 2 is correct. The colonial usurped the forest lands and placed restrictions on access to forest products, forest lands and village common lands.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following factors was/were responsible for tribal uprising during the British rule? The colonial administration ended their relative isolation. British recognized the tribal chiefs as zamindars and introduced a new system of taxation. Influx of Christian missionaries into the tribal areas. British introduced moneylenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen among the tribals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
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1 and 4 only
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2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The colonial administration ended their relative isolation and brought them fully within the ambit of colonialism. Statement 2 is correct. British recognized the tribal chiefs as zamindars and introduced a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products. Statement 3 is correct. British encouraged the influx of Christian missionaries into the tribal areas. It unsettled their traditional culture. Statement 4 is correct. British introduced a large number of moneylenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen among the tribals. These middlemen were the chief instruments for bringing the tribal people within the vortex of the colonial economy and exploitation. The middlemen were outsiders who increasingly took possession of tribal lands and ensnared the tribals in a web of debt.
|
d
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Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors was/were responsible for tribal uprising during the British rule? The colonial administration ended their relative isolation. British recognized the tribal chiefs as zamindars and introduced a new system of taxation. Influx of Christian missionaries into the tribal areas. British introduced moneylenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen among the tribals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The colonial administration ended their relative isolation and brought them fully within the ambit of colonialism. Statement 2 is correct. British recognized the tribal chiefs as zamindars and introduced a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products. Statement 3 is correct. British encouraged the influx of Christian missionaries into the tribal areas. It unsettled their traditional culture. Statement 4 is correct. British introduced a large number of moneylenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen among the tribals. These middlemen were the chief instruments for bringing the tribal people within the vortex of the colonial economy and exploitation. The middlemen were outsiders who increasingly took possession of tribal lands and ensnared the tribals in a web of debt.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following was/were the reasons for the ruins of Indian Handicraft industry under British rule? Imposition of Free Trade in India. Disappearance of princes, chieftains, and zamindars as their patrons. Levy of discriminatory tariffs against British goods in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct reason. Because of Imposition of Free Trade in India, Indian goods were not able to compete with the British goods prepared in industries. Statement 2 is correct reason. Princes, chieftains, and zamindars were traditional patrons and buyers of handicrafts. Their disappearance or loss of power meant loss of market for Indian handicraft industry. Statement 3 is incorrect reason. There were no discriminatory tariffs against British goods in India. In fact, Indian goods were discriminated against in Britain.
|
b
|
The Great Revolt of 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was/were the reasons for the ruins of Indian Handicraft industry under British rule? Imposition of Free Trade in India. Disappearance of princes, chieftains, and zamindars as their patrons. Levy of discriminatory tariffs against British goods in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct reason. Because of Imposition of Free Trade in India, Indian goods were not able to compete with the British goods prepared in industries. Statement 2 is correct reason. Princes, chieftains, and zamindars were traditional patrons and buyers of handicrafts. Their disappearance or loss of power meant loss of market for Indian handicraft industry. Statement 3 is incorrect reason. There were no discriminatory tariffs against British goods in India. In fact, Indian goods were discriminated against in Britain.##Topic:The Great Revolt of 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
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Consider the following statements with reference to British administration in first half of 19th Century: As British envisaged Rule of Law, corruption was minimal among lower officials. In the absence of any major revolt, Police was committed to safeguarding people"s interest. The new courts and legal system encouraged rich to oppress the poor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
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1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The ordinary people were also hard hit by the prevalence of corruption at the lower levels of the police, judiciary and general administration. The petty officials enriched themselves freely at the cost of the poor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The police looted, oppressed and tortured the common people at will. William Edwards, a British official, wrote in 1859 that the police were 'a scourge to the people' and that 'their oppression and exactions form one of the chief grounds of dissatisfaction with our government.' Statement 3 is correct. The new courts and legal system was very expensive. Only rich could afford it. So, the court cases became new means of oppression of poor.
|
b
|
Works of British Governor Generals
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to British administration in first half of 19th Century: As British envisaged Rule of Law, corruption was minimal among lower officials. In the absence of any major revolt, Police was committed to safeguarding people"s interest. The new courts and legal system encouraged rich to oppress the poor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. The ordinary people were also hard hit by the prevalence of corruption at the lower levels of the police, judiciary and general administration. The petty officials enriched themselves freely at the cost of the poor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The police looted, oppressed and tortured the common people at will. William Edwards, a British official, wrote in 1859 that the police were 'a scourge to the people' and that 'their oppression and exactions form one of the chief grounds of dissatisfaction with our government.' Statement 3 is correct. The new courts and legal system was very expensive. Only rich could afford it. So, the court cases became new means of oppression of poor.##Topic:Works of British Governor Generals##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to civil rebellions during the British rule, consider the following statements: The changes introduced by British Rule in economy and administration led to the disruption of the agrarian society. Majority of enhanced revenues were spent on the development of agriculture or the welfare of the cultivator. Which of the statements given above is/are correct cause of Rebellions?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The major cause of all these civil rebellions taken as a whole was the rapid changes the British introduced in the economy, administration and land revenue system. These changes led to the disruption of the agrarian society, causing prolonged and widespread suffering among its constituents. Statement 2 is incorrect. Not even a part of the enhanced revenue was spent on the development of agriculture or the welfare of the cultivator. This was a major reason of discontent among farmers
|
a
|
The Great Revolt of 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to civil rebellions during the British rule, consider the following statements: The changes introduced by British Rule in economy and administration led to the disruption of the agrarian society. Majority of enhanced revenues were spent on the development of agriculture or the welfare of the cultivator. Which of the statements given above is/are correct cause of Rebellions?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The major cause of all these civil rebellions taken as a whole was the rapid changes the British introduced in the economy, administration and land revenue system. These changes led to the disruption of the agrarian society, causing prolonged and widespread suffering among its constituents. Statement 2 is incorrect. Not even a part of the enhanced revenue was spent on the development of agriculture or the welfare of the cultivator. This was a major reason of discontent among farmers##Topic:The Great Revolt of 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Whom among the following often led civil rebellions in the first 100 years of British Rule? Deposed rajas and nawabs Officials of the conquered Indian states Uprooted and impoverished zamindars Poligars appointed by Nayaks of South Indian Kingdoms Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
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3 and 4 only
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1 only
|
The series of civil rebellions, which run like a thread through the first 100 years of British rule, were often led by deposed rajas and nawabs or their descendants, uprooted and impoverished zamindars, landlords and poligars (landed military magnates in South India), and ex-retainers and officials of the conquered Indian states.
|
d
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Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Whom among the following often led civil rebellions in the first 100 years of British Rule? Deposed rajas and nawabs Officials of the conquered Indian states Uprooted and impoverished zamindars Poligars appointed by Nayaks of South Indian Kingdoms Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The series of civil rebellions, which run like a thread through the first 100 years of British rule, were often led by deposed rajas and nawabs or their descendants, uprooted and impoverished zamindars, landlords and poligars (landed military magnates in South India), and ex-retainers and officials of the conquered Indian states.##Topic:Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
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With reference to earth, consider the following statements:
The latitudinal circles of the earth are parallel to each other.
The longitudes lines are perpendicular to the latitudes.
The sun rays are always perpendicular to the equator of the earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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1and 2
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1and 2
|
.
|
a
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to earth, consider the following statements:
The latitudinal circles of the earth are parallel to each other.
The longitudes lines are perpendicular to the latitudes.
The sun rays are always perpendicular to the equator of the earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1and 2
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1and 2
##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
The President is the head of the government.
The President is part of both the Union Executive and Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 & 2
|
Only 1
|
The President is the head of the state; PM is the head of the Govt at the union level;
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
The President is the head of the government.
The President is part of both the Union Executive and Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 & 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:The President is the head of the state; PM is the head of the Govt at the union level;##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements: The President is the head of the government. The President is part of both the Union Executive and Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both are correct
|
Only 1
|
The President is the head of the state; PM is the head of the Govt at the union level;
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements: The President is the head of the government. The President is part of both the Union Executive and Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both are correct##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:The President is the head of the state; PM is the head of the Govt at the union level;##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
हरित जीडीपी (Green GDP) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए -
हरित जीडीपी = जीडीपी - पर्यावरणीय ह्रास(जैव-विविधता ह्रास; जलवायु परिवर्तन);
यद्यपि आधिकारिक रूप से हरित जीडीपी का आंकलन प्रस्तुत नहीं किया जाता है परंतु विभिन्न नीतियों/योजनाओं/कार्यक्रमों में पर्यावरण पर प्रभाव का आंकलन{पर्यावरणीय प्रभाव आंकलन(EIA)} अब अनिवार्य घटक है|
भारत में वर्ष 2018 से पायलट आधार पर हरित संपदा के आकलन एवं संवर्धन के प्रयास किए जा रहे हैं|
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
|
केवल 1 तथा 2
|
केवल 1 तथा 3
|
केवल 2 तथा 3
|
केवल 1 तथा 2
|
nan
|
d
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:हरित जीडीपी (Green GDP) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए -
हरित जीडीपी = जीडीपी - पर्यावरणीय ह्रास(जैव-विविधता ह्रास; जलवायु परिवर्तन);
यद्यपि आधिकारिक रूप से हरित जीडीपी का आंकलन प्रस्तुत नहीं किया जाता है परंतु विभिन्न नीतियों/योजनाओं/कार्यक्रमों में पर्यावरण पर प्रभाव का आंकलन{पर्यावरणीय प्रभाव आंकलन(EIA)} अब अनिवार्य घटक है|
भारत में वर्ष 2018 से पायलट आधार पर हरित संपदा के आकलन एवं संवर्धन के प्रयास किए जा रहे हैं|
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? ##Option_A:केवल 1 तथा 2 ###Option_B:केवल 1 तथा 3 ##Option_C:केवल 2 तथा 3 ##Option_D:केवल 1 तथा 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
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Which of the following statements are correct regarding Stratosphere 1. The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. 2. An important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. 3. The mesosphere lies below the stratosphere, 4. The Stratosphere absorbs ultra-violet radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1,2 and3
|
1,2 and 4
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct regarding Stratosphere 1. The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. 2. An important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. 3. The mesosphere lies below the stratosphere, 4. The Stratosphere absorbs ultra-violet radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1,2 and3 ##Option_C:1,2 and 4 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
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Which of the following factors affects incoming Solar Radiation of a place
1. Latitude of the place
2. The angle of incidence of the Sun"s rays
3. Transparency aspect
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affects incoming Solar Radiation of a place
1. Latitude of the place
2. The angle of incidence of the Sun"s rays
3. Transparency aspect
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
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What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI? 1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances. 2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
,
|
c
|
Banking Reforms
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI? 1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances. 2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:Banking Reforms##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
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Consider the following statements:
1. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President. 2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
,
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President. 2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’. Which of the statements given above are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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Who among the following has/have been President of the Indian National Congress thrice? Dadabhai Naoroji Jawaharlal Nehru Subhas Chandra Bose Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
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1 and 2 only
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3 only
|
1 only
|
Dadabhai Naoroji was President for Indian National Congress thrice - Calcutta Session of 1886, Lahore Session of 1893 and Calcutta Session of 1906. Jawaharlal Nehru was President for Indian National Congress thrice - Lahore Session of 1929, Lucknow Session of 1936 and Faizpur Session of 1936-37. Subhash Chandra Bose was President for Indian National Congress twice - Haripura session of 1938 and Tripuri Session of 1939. Some of the other personalities who were president of INC twice are W.C. Bonnerji, William Wedderburn (only foreigner), Surendra Nath Banerjee, Rash Bihari Bose, Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, Madan Mohan Malviya.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following has/have been President of the Indian National Congress thrice? Dadabhai Naoroji Jawaharlal Nehru Subhas Chandra Bose Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Dadabhai Naoroji was President for Indian National Congress thrice - Calcutta Session of 1886, Lahore Session of 1893 and Calcutta Session of 1906. Jawaharlal Nehru was President for Indian National Congress thrice - Lahore Session of 1929, Lucknow Session of 1936 and Faizpur Session of 1936-37. Subhash Chandra Bose was President for Indian National Congress twice - Haripura session of 1938 and Tripuri Session of 1939. Some of the other personalities who were president of INC twice are W.C. Bonnerji, William Wedderburn (only foreigner), Surendra Nath Banerjee, Rash Bihari Bose, Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, Madan Mohan Malviya.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
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Consider the following pairs: Folk Art Forms Region 1. Kariyala Himachal Pradesh 2. Padayeni Kerala 3. Cheraw Assam Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kariyila, also referred to as Kariyala, is one of the most interesting and popular folk drama forms of the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. This open air folk theatre form is most popular in the Shimla, Solan and Sirmour districts of Himachal Pradesh. The word Kariyala is derived from the word 'karal' which means ferocious. The usage of masks brings an element of ferocity in the play. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Padayani, also called Padeni is a traditional folk dance and a ritual art from the central portion of the Indian state of Kerala. A ceremonial dance involving masks, it is an ancient ritual performed in Bhagavati temples. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Cheraw dance is performed in the north eastern state of Mizoram. This dance includes four people. It is the most notable dance of Mizoram and a center for attraction during festive season in Mizoram. Similar dance forms could be found in East and even in Philippines (known as Tinikling.)
|
d
|
Misc Art and Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Folk Art Forms Region 1. Kariyala Himachal Pradesh 2. Padayeni Kerala 3. Cheraw Assam Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kariyila, also referred to as Kariyala, is one of the most interesting and popular folk drama forms of the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. This open air folk theatre form is most popular in the Shimla, Solan and Sirmour districts of Himachal Pradesh. The word Kariyala is derived from the word 'karal' which means ferocious. The usage of masks brings an element of ferocity in the play. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Padayani, also called Padeni is a traditional folk dance and a ritual art from the central portion of the Indian state of Kerala. A ceremonial dance involving masks, it is an ancient ritual performed in Bhagavati temples. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Cheraw dance is performed in the north eastern state of Mizoram. This dance includes four people. It is the most notable dance of Mizoram and a center for attraction during festive season in Mizoram. Similar dance forms could be found in East and even in Philippines (known as Tinikling.)##Topic:Misc Art and Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
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With reference to Sufism, the term Z iyarat refers to
|
musical congregations of Sufis
|
centres of learning of Sufis
|
belief in the performance of miracles
|
musical congregations of Sufis
|
The Sufi movement in India commenced in the 11th century A.D. Al Hujwiri, who established himself in north India was buried in Lahore and regarded as the oldest Sufi in the sub Continent. Among the important Sufi Orders in the history of Medieval India were those of the Chishtitiya, Suhrawardiya, Qadiriya and Naqshbandiya. During the medieval period the Sufis played an important role in interpreting and elaborating on Islamic theological concepts like Wahdat ul Wujud (unity of being) and also encouraged the development of practices like Ziyarat. The ziyarat or pilgrimage to the tombs of the sufi saints soon emerged as an important form of ritual pilgrimage. Pilgrimage, called ziyarat, to tombs of sufi saints is prevalent all over the Muslim world. This practice is an occasion for seeking the sufi’s spiritual grace(barakat).
|
d
|
Movements, Bhakti Movement, Sufi Movement
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sufism, the term Z iyarat refers to##Option_A: musical congregations of Sufis###Option_B:centres of learning of Sufis##Option_C:belief in the performance of miracles##Option_D: musical congregations of Sufis##Answer:d##Explaination:The Sufi movement in India commenced in the 11th century A.D. Al Hujwiri, who established himself in north India was buried in Lahore and regarded as the oldest Sufi in the sub Continent. Among the important Sufi Orders in the history of Medieval India were those of the Chishtitiya, Suhrawardiya, Qadiriya and Naqshbandiya. During the medieval period the Sufis played an important role in interpreting and elaborating on Islamic theological concepts like Wahdat ul Wujud (unity of being) and also encouraged the development of practices like Ziyarat. The ziyarat or pilgrimage to the tombs of the sufi saints soon emerged as an important form of ritual pilgrimage. Pilgrimage, called ziyarat, to tombs of sufi saints is prevalent all over the Muslim world. This practice is an occasion for seeking the sufi’s spiritual grace(barakat). ##Topic:Movements, Bhakti Movement, Sufi Movement##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements 1. Podzolization can be observed in coniferous forests 2. Gleying can be observed in the Terai region of India Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
,
|
c
|
Classification of Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements 1. Podzolization can be observed in coniferous forests 2. Gleying can be observed in the Terai region of India Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Article 15 of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements: 1) Private individuals are not covered under article 15(2). 2) State shall not discriminate against a citizen on grounds of religion, race, place of birth or residence only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
,
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Article 15 of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements: 1) Private individuals are not covered under article 15(2). 2) State shall not discriminate against a citizen on grounds of religion, race, place of birth or residence only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:,##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Labour reforms in India, consider the following statements: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal will allot Labour Identification Number to employees for a universally accessible Provident Fund account. Each unit will be allotted a unique Universal Account Number to allow them to file online compliance of labour laws. The new Random Inspection Scheme aims to utilize technology to eliminate human discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Ministry of Labour and Employment has recently launched a slew of labour reforms. Some of them are enumerated below: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal: That would allot Labour Identification Number (LIN) to nearly 6 lakhs units and allow them to file online compliance for 16 out of 44 labour laws. An all-new Random Inspection Scheme: Utilizing technology to eliminate human discretion in selection of units for Inspection, and uploading of Inspection Reports within 72 hours of inspection mandatory. Universal Account Number: Enables 4.17 crore employees to have their Provident Fund account portable, hassle-free and universally accessible. Apprentice Protsahan Yojana: Will support manufacturing units mainly and other establishments by reimbursing 50% of the stipend paid to apprentices during first two years of their training. Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana: Introducing a Smart Card for the workers in the unorganized sector seeded with details of two more social security schemes.
|
c
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Labour reforms in India, consider the following statements: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal will allot Labour Identification Number to employees for a universally accessible Provident Fund account. Each unit will be allotted a unique Universal Account Number to allow them to file online compliance of labour laws. The new Random Inspection Scheme aims to utilize technology to eliminate human discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Ministry of Labour and Employment has recently launched a slew of labour reforms. Some of them are enumerated below: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal: That would allot Labour Identification Number (LIN) to nearly 6 lakhs units and allow them to file online compliance for 16 out of 44 labour laws. An all-new Random Inspection Scheme: Utilizing technology to eliminate human discretion in selection of units for Inspection, and uploading of Inspection Reports within 72 hours of inspection mandatory. Universal Account Number: Enables 4.17 crore employees to have their Provident Fund account portable, hassle-free and universally accessible. Apprentice Protsahan Yojana: Will support manufacturing units mainly and other establishments by reimbursing 50% of the stipend paid to apprentices during first two years of their training. Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana: Introducing a Smart Card for the workers in the unorganized sector seeded with details of two more social security schemes.##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) Credit Suisse India Market Fund, consider the following statements:
1. It is China’s first India-dedicated publicly offered investment fund.
2. It will invest in infrastructure debt funds regulated by SEBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC), a top state-run Chinese bank has launched China’s first India-dedicated publicly offered investment fund, named the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) Credit Suisse India Market Fund. Statement 2 is not correct: It will invest in exchange-traded funds listed on more than 20 exchanges in Europe and the U.S. that are based on the Indian market.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) Credit Suisse India Market Fund, consider the following statements:
1. It is China’s first India-dedicated publicly offered investment fund.
2. It will invest in infrastructure debt funds regulated by SEBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC), a top state-run Chinese bank has launched China’s first India-dedicated publicly offered investment fund, named the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) Credit Suisse India Market Fund. Statement 2 is not correct: It will invest in exchange-traded funds listed on more than 20 exchanges in Europe and the U.S. that are based on the Indian market.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Guiyang and Dalian corridors recently seen in news, refer to:
|
disputed territories between Japan and North Korea.
|
land to sea routes offered by China to Nepal for trade.
|
Special Economic Zones established in India for Japanese investments.
|
disputed territories between Japan and North Korea.
|
IT corridors have been established between India and China to give Indian businesses a gateway into the neighbouring country’s thriving software market. India has been demanding China to provide market access to Indian IT and pharmaceutical firms for several years to reduce bilateral trade deficit. The two corridors, which were started by NASSCOM in collaboration with China’s provincial governments, are expected to provide the much-needed big opening for Indian IT firms. Guiyang Corridor is the second such initiative between India and China. The Dalian Corridor collaborative technology platform launched in December last year focused on internet-of-things (IoT). The Giuyang partnership will be centred around big data. Hence correct answer is option (d).
|
d
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Guiyang and Dalian corridors recently seen in news, refer to:##Option_A:disputed territories between Japan and North Korea. ###Option_B:land to sea routes offered by China to Nepal for trade.##Option_C:Special Economic Zones established in India for Japanese investments.##Option_D:disputed territories between Japan and North Korea. ##Answer:d##Explaination: IT corridors have been established between India and China to give Indian businesses a gateway into the neighbouring country’s thriving software market. India has been demanding China to provide market access to Indian IT and pharmaceutical firms for several years to reduce bilateral trade deficit. The two corridors, which were started by NASSCOM in collaboration with China’s provincial governments, are expected to provide the much-needed big opening for Indian IT firms. Guiyang Corridor is the second such initiative between India and China. The Dalian Corridor collaborative technology platform launched in December last year focused on internet-of-things (IoT). The Giuyang partnership will be centred around big data. Hence correct answer is option (d).##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
What explains the eastward flow of the counter equatorial current?
|
The earth’s rotation on its axis.
|
Convergence of the two equatorial currents.
|
Difference in salinity of water.
|
The earth’s rotation on its axis.
|
.
|
b
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What explains the eastward flow of the counter equatorial current?##Option_A:The earth’s rotation on its axis.###Option_B:Convergence of the two equatorial currents.##Option_C:Difference in salinity of water.##Option_D:The earth’s rotation on its axis.##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Vedic literature Related to 1. Brahamanas collection of Vedic mantra 2. Samhitas social and religious meaning of rituals 3. Aranyakas spiritual interpretation of rituals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Vedas is divided into four parts (or the sections): the Samhitas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads. The Samhitas form the first part of each of the Vedas. A Samhita is a collection of mantras. With the passage of time, the newer generations found the mantras of the Samhitas difficult to understand. The result was the Brahmanas. They contain ritualistic formulae and explain the social and religious meaning of rituals. The Aranyakas form the third part of the Vedas. With the advent of the Aranyakas, the emphasis on the sacrificial rites seems to be diluting. There is shift towards philosophic and spiritual interpretation of the rituals. The Upanishads are the concluding portions of the Vedas. The Upanishads are at the end of the Vedas. Most of the Upanishads are in forms of dialogues between a master and a disciple. In Upanishads, a seeker raises a topic and the enlightened guru satisfies the query aptly and convincingly.
|
b
|
Vedic Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Vedic literature Related to 1. Brahamanas collection of Vedic mantra 2. Samhitas social and religious meaning of rituals 3. Aranyakas spiritual interpretation of rituals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:Vedas is divided into four parts (or the sections): the Samhitas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads. The Samhitas form the first part of each of the Vedas. A Samhita is a collection of mantras. With the passage of time, the newer generations found the mantras of the Samhitas difficult to understand. The result was the Brahmanas. They contain ritualistic formulae and explain the social and religious meaning of rituals. The Aranyakas form the third part of the Vedas. With the advent of the Aranyakas, the emphasis on the sacrificial rites seems to be diluting. There is shift towards philosophic and spiritual interpretation of the rituals. The Upanishads are the concluding portions of the Vedas. The Upanishads are at the end of the Vedas. Most of the Upanishads are in forms of dialogues between a master and a disciple. In Upanishads, a seeker raises a topic and the enlightened guru satisfies the query aptly and convincingly.##Topic:Vedic Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which among the following pairs are correctly matched? Event Symbol 1. Mahabhinishkramana Wheel 2. Nirvana Bodhi tree 3. Dhammachakraparivartan Horse 4. Parinirvana Stupa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Mahabhinishkramana or The Great Renunciation is symbolized by horse as the younge prince left the palace on Horse to find the reason for human suffering and the final cure for it. Nirvana or enlightenment is symbolized by bodhi tree where Buddha seated himself, vowing not to move until he had gained enlightenment and finally solved the mystery of human suffering. Dhammachakraparivartan or First sermon is symbolized by wheel. It shows 'Turning of the Wheel of the Law' where the Buddha explained the essence of his teachings in the form of the Four Noble Truths in the deer park of Sarnath. Parinirvana or the death of the Buddha is symbolized by stupas . After cremation of Buddha, his ashes were divided into eight parts and distributed amongst the eight local rulers. Burial mounds known as stupas were raised over each set of ashes.
|
b
|
Religious Reforms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following pairs are correctly matched? Event Symbol 1. Mahabhinishkramana Wheel 2. Nirvana Bodhi tree 3. Dhammachakraparivartan Horse 4. Parinirvana Stupa Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Mahabhinishkramana or The Great Renunciation is symbolized by horse as the younge prince left the palace on Horse to find the reason for human suffering and the final cure for it. Nirvana or enlightenment is symbolized by bodhi tree where Buddha seated himself, vowing not to move until he had gained enlightenment and finally solved the mystery of human suffering. Dhammachakraparivartan or First sermon is symbolized by wheel. It shows 'Turning of the Wheel of the Law' where the Buddha explained the essence of his teachings in the form of the Four Noble Truths in the deer park of Sarnath. Parinirvana or the death of the Buddha is symbolized by stupas . After cremation of Buddha, his ashes were divided into eight parts and distributed amongst the eight local rulers. Burial mounds known as stupas were raised over each set of ashes.##Topic:Religious Reforms##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
हड़प्पा समाज ____ था?
|
मातृवंशीय
|
पितृवंशीय
|
मातृसत्तात्मक
|
मातृवंशीय
|
nan
|
c
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:हड़प्पा समाज ____ था?##Option_A:मातृवंशीय###Option_B:पितृवंशीय##Option_C:मातृसत्तात्मक##Option_D:मातृवंशीय##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With respect to executive (President) in the Presidential form of government, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. He is both the head of the state and head of the government. 2. He is not accountable to the legislature. 3. He is usually elected directly by the people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
In a Presidential system, the President is the Head of state as well as head of government. In this system the office of president is very powerful, both in theory and practice. He is not accountable to the legislature and he is usually elected directly by the people. Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to executive (President) in the Presidential form of government, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. He is both the head of the state and head of the government. 2. He is not accountable to the legislature. 3. He is usually elected directly by the people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:3 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In a Presidential system, the President is the Head of state as well as head of government. In this system the office of president is very powerful, both in theory and practice. He is not accountable to the legislature and he is usually elected directly by the people. Hence, all the statements are correct.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Gupta king who was good veena player ?
|
Chandra Gupta
|
Vikramaditya
|
Samudra Gupta
|
Chandra Gupta
|
,
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Gupta king who was good veena player ?##Option_A:Chandra Gupta ###Option_B:Vikramaditya ##Option_C:Samudra Gupta ##Option_D:Chandra Gupta ##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With reference to Janani Surkasha Yojana (JSY), consider the following statements: It is a programme under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It aims to reduce both maternal and neonatal mortality. It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Janani Suraksha Yaojana is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. The scheme is under implementation in all states and UTs with a special focus on Low Performing States (LPS). It is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care. The Yojana has identified ASHA, the accredited social health activist as an effective link between the Government and the poor pregnant women in low performing states.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Janani Surkasha Yojana (JSY), consider the following statements: It is a programme under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It aims to reduce both maternal and neonatal mortality. It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Janani Suraksha Yaojana is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. The scheme is under implementation in all states and UTs with a special focus on Low Performing States (LPS). It is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care. The Yojana has identified ASHA, the accredited social health activist as an effective link between the Government and the poor pregnant women in low performing states.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements are true regarding Payment banks:
Recently RBI permitted Telecom companies to act as payment bank.
Payment bank is a bank in every respect though it can’t lend.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both (d) None
Answer:
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements are true regarding Payment banks:
Recently RBI permitted Telecom companies to act as payment bank.
Payment bank is a bank in every respect though it can’t lend.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both (d) None
Answer: ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
While luxurious growth of trees can be found both in equatorial evergreen forests and conifer forests of Siberian type of climate, but only conifer forests can be commercially exploited. Which of the following reasons justify this statement? Conifer forests have limited number of species. Conifers occur in homogenous groups compared to equatorial evergreen forests. Snow covered ground make logging and haulage easy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement-1 and statement-2 helps in saving time and cost as they can be easily cut down without much effort. Statement-3: the snow covered ground make logging and haulage easy job as logs can be dragged to the nearest rivers easily.
|
d
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:While luxurious growth of trees can be found both in equatorial evergreen forests and conifer forests of Siberian type of climate, but only conifer forests can be commercially exploited. Which of the following reasons justify this statement? Conifer forests have limited number of species. Conifers occur in homogenous groups compared to equatorial evergreen forests. Snow covered ground make logging and haulage easy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement-1 and statement-2 helps in saving time and cost as they can be easily cut down without much effort. Statement-3: the snow covered ground make logging and haulage easy job as logs can be dragged to the nearest rivers easily.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Identify the climatic type based on the information given below. The winter is so cold that one of the regions of this climate is referred to as ‘cold pole of the earth’. Precipitation in this region is well distributed throughout the year with summer maximum from convectional rainfall. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
China type
|
Laurentian type
|
Cool temperate Eastern type
|
China type
|
In Laurentian type climate the winter is bitterly cold and is of long duration and has cool brief summer. There is no month without some form of moisture and in summer form of precipitation will be of rainfall and snow in the winter.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Identify the climatic type based on the information given below. The winter is so cold that one of the regions of this climate is referred to as ‘cold pole of the earth’. Precipitation in this region is well distributed throughout the year with summer maximum from convectional rainfall. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: China type###Option_B: Laurentian type##Option_C: Cool temperate Eastern type##Option_D: China type##Answer:b##Explaination:In Laurentian type climate the winter is bitterly cold and is of long duration and has cool brief summer. There is no month without some form of moisture and in summer form of precipitation will be of rainfall and snow in the winter.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding vegetation in Warm temperate eastern margin climate: Prolonged dry season prohibit evergreen vegetation. The vegetation is scant compared to the western continental margins Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: They do not have prolonged dry seasons thus have sufficient space for ever green forests along with the deciduous trees. These areas are characterised with year out distribution of rainfall. Statement 2 is incorrect: Western margins at this latitude are characterised by deserts due to the direction of flow of planetary winds away from the the western margins.
|
c
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding vegetation in Warm temperate eastern margin climate: Prolonged dry season prohibit evergreen vegetation. The vegetation is scant compared to the western continental margins Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: They do not have prolonged dry seasons thus have sufficient space for ever green forests along with the deciduous trees. These areas are characterised with year out distribution of rainfall. Statement 2 is incorrect: Western margins at this latitude are characterised by deserts due to the direction of flow of planetary winds away from the the western margins.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are the possible reason/s behind the growing pastoral farming in Steppe region? Development of refrigerated ships helped in export of meat and dairy products. The original alfa-alfa grass was replaced by more nutritious Tuft-grass. Establishment of large number of meat packing factories in coastal port cities.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct, with the advent of refrigerated ships in the 19th century ,it became easier for the export of meat, butter, cheese etc thus giving push to the pastoral farming. Statement 2 is Incorrect, the original Tuft grass was replaced by alfa-alfa grass which is considered to be more nutritious hence suitable for animal rearing and pastoral farming. Statement 3 is Correct, increasing emphasis being placed on the ranching of animals for meat production in coastal port cities helped in export. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are the possible reason/s behind the growing pastoral farming in Steppe region? Development of refrigerated ships helped in export of meat and dairy products. The original alfa-alfa grass was replaced by more nutritious Tuft-grass. Establishment of large number of meat packing factories in coastal port cities.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct, with the advent of refrigerated ships in the 19th century ,it became easier for the export of meat, butter, cheese etc thus giving push to the pastoral farming. Statement 2 is Incorrect, the original Tuft grass was replaced by alfa-alfa grass which is considered to be more nutritious hence suitable for animal rearing and pastoral farming. Statement 3 is Correct, increasing emphasis being placed on the ranching of animals for meat production in coastal port cities helped in export. Hence (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements in reference to the natural vegetation in steppe climate. Steppe region is conspicuous by the absence of trees. The grasses of this region are much taller than the grasses in savanna climate. Moving from steppe region towards the pole, vegetation becomes taller gradually. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct, as there is less precipitation in this region moisture required for tree growth is rarely available , hence it gives way to more grasses. apart from scanty rainfall, long droughts and severe winters causes scarcity of trees. Statement 2 is incorrect, the greatest difference between savanna and steppe climate is steppe regions are practically tree less and the grasses are much shorter than the savanna type climate. baring few regions like north america prairies the grasslands accommodate short grasses. Statement 3 is correct, polewards an increase in precipitation gives rise to wooded steppes, where some confers are found but very few in number. towards equator the steppe grass becomes shorter and sparser till it merges into the desert with thorny scrub.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in reference to the natural vegetation in steppe climate. Steppe region is conspicuous by the absence of trees. The grasses of this region are much taller than the grasses in savanna climate. Moving from steppe region towards the pole, vegetation becomes taller gradually. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct, as there is less precipitation in this region moisture required for tree growth is rarely available , hence it gives way to more grasses. apart from scanty rainfall, long droughts and severe winters causes scarcity of trees. Statement 2 is incorrect, the greatest difference between savanna and steppe climate is steppe regions are practically tree less and the grasses are much shorter than the savanna type climate. baring few regions like north america prairies the grasslands accommodate short grasses. Statement 3 is correct, polewards an increase in precipitation gives rise to wooded steppes, where some confers are found but very few in number. towards equator the steppe grass becomes shorter and sparser till it merges into the desert with thorny scrub.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the Steppe climate. Steppe region in northern hemisphere experiences a very high annual range of temperature. Steppe region in southern hemisphere receives most of its rain because of offshore cold currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct, steppe regions in southern hemisphere experiences less severe climate due to the factor of continentality. The annual range of temperature in northern hemisphere is higher. Statement 2 is Incorrect, precipitation is little higher in the steppe region of the southern climate due to on shore warm currents. Hence (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the Steppe climate. Steppe region in northern hemisphere experiences a very high annual range of temperature. Steppe region in southern hemisphere receives most of its rain because of offshore cold currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct, steppe regions in southern hemisphere experiences less severe climate due to the factor of continentality. The annual range of temperature in northern hemisphere is higher. Statement 2 is Incorrect, precipitation is little higher in the steppe region of the southern climate due to on shore warm currents. Hence (a) is the correct answer.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding equatorial climate? Both diurnal and annual range of temperature is small. Due to small diurnal range of temperature, land and sea breezes are not regular features. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Daily rainfall helps to moderate the temperature and reduce diurnal range. Annual range is small as there is no distinct summer or winter, climate is more or less uniform. Statement 2 is incorrect as diurnal range doesn't affect land breeze and sea breeze. Secondly, land breeze and sea breeze are developed in these regions too.
|
a
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding equatorial climate? Both diurnal and annual range of temperature is small. Due to small diurnal range of temperature, land and sea breezes are not regular features. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Daily rainfall helps to moderate the temperature and reduce diurnal range. Annual range is small as there is no distinct summer or winter, climate is more or less uniform. Statement 2 is incorrect as diurnal range doesn't affect land breeze and sea breeze. Secondly, land breeze and sea breeze are developed in these regions too.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding equatorial climate is/are incorrect? Great uniformity of temperature throughout the year is the most unique feature of this climate. Days are really hot and become unbearable at the equator. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct because the solar radiation is overhead on the equator Statement 2 is not correct because convectional rainfall helps to moderate the daily temperature which doesn't allow heat to increase to uncomfortable levels even at the equator itself. Statement 3 is correct because precipitation takes place due to convection on a daily basis.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding equatorial climate is/are incorrect? Great uniformity of temperature throughout the year is the most unique feature of this climate. Days are really hot and become unbearable at the equator. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct because the solar radiation is overhead on the equator Statement 2 is not correct because convectional rainfall helps to moderate the daily temperature which doesn't allow heat to increase to uncomfortable levels even at the equator itself. Statement 3 is correct because precipitation takes place due to convection on a daily basis.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding Ocean Relief is/are correct? The Continental Shelf is of great importance because they are big source of petroleum and other natural resources. The Continental Shelf receives abundant sunlight due to shallow depth, thus facilitating plankton growth and in turn fishing. The Continental Shelf help in checking height of tides due to their gentler slopes and shallow depths. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
1, 2 only
|
2, 3 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as occurrence of petroleum depends on geology and not on depth of rocks. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is not correct as the gentler slopes and lesser heights help in increasing the height of tides in these areas.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Ocean Relief is/are correct? The Continental Shelf is of great importance because they are big source of petroleum and other natural resources. The Continental Shelf receives abundant sunlight due to shallow depth, thus facilitating plankton growth and in turn fishing. The Continental Shelf help in checking height of tides due to their gentler slopes and shallow depths. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 only##Option_C: 2, 3 only ##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as occurrence of petroleum depends on geology and not on depth of rocks. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is not correct as the gentler slopes and lesser heights help in increasing the height of tides in these areas. ##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: The temperature of the oceans decreases rapidly till about 2000 fathoms and then becomes uniform at near freezing point till the ocean floors. The equatorial parts of the oceans have highest surface temperatures due to higher insolation. The Norwegian Coasts have warmer temperatures at 700 N latitude due to North Atlantic Drifts. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1, 2 only
|
1, 2, 3 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the temperature variation is not uniform with depth. First, it decreases rapidly for 200 fathoms, then slowly till a depth of 500 fathoms. After this the decrease very small till about 2000 fathoms beyond which it is almost uniform till the floor. Statement 2 is not correct because the Tropical enclosed seas actually have the highest temperatures due to higher evaporation, subsiding winds. Statement 3 is correct, Murmansk port in the region remains operational throughout the year.
|
c
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The temperature of the oceans decreases rapidly till about 2000 fathoms and then becomes uniform at near freezing point till the ocean floors. The equatorial parts of the oceans have highest surface temperatures due to higher insolation. The Norwegian Coasts have warmer temperatures at 700 N latitude due to North Atlantic Drifts. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as the temperature variation is not uniform with depth. First, it decreases rapidly for 200 fathoms, then slowly till a depth of 500 fathoms. After this the decrease very small till about 2000 fathoms beyond which it is almost uniform till the floor. Statement 2 is not correct because the Tropical enclosed seas actually have the highest temperatures due to higher evaporation, subsiding winds. Statement 3 is correct, Murmansk port in the region remains operational throughout the year.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the statements regarding oceanic deposits is/are correct? The muds are terrigenous deposits found mainly in the continental shelf and slopes, and are classified into blue, green, yellow and red according to their chemical composition. The oozes are pelagic deposits made up of shelly and skeletal remains derived from the oceans, rich in siliceous and calcareous minerals. The clays are mostly found in the shallow parts of the ocean basins in the form of red clays particularly in the Pacific Ocean. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1, 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct because the muds are terrigenous deposits found mainly in the continental shelf and not in slopes, and are classified into blue, green and red (not yellow) according to their chemical composition. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is not correct as the clays are found in the deeper parts of the Ocean floors.They are formed from volcanic dust blown out from volcanoes during volcanic eruptions.
|
b
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements regarding oceanic deposits is/are correct? The muds are terrigenous deposits found mainly in the continental shelf and slopes, and are classified into blue, green, yellow and red according to their chemical composition. The oozes are pelagic deposits made up of shelly and skeletal remains derived from the oceans, rich in siliceous and calcareous minerals. The clays are mostly found in the shallow parts of the ocean basins in the form of red clays particularly in the Pacific Ocean. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 1, 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct because the muds are terrigenous deposits found mainly in the continental shelf and not in slopes, and are classified into blue, green and red (not yellow) according to their chemical composition. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is not correct as the clays are found in the deeper parts of the Ocean floors.They are formed from volcanic dust blown out from volcanoes during volcanic eruptions.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The oceanic deposits of the oceans are:
|
Formed mainly by slow sedimentation in which the eroded particles are filtered slowly through ocean water and deposited on floor.
|
The layers of sediments formed by deposition of eroded materials by the rivers in the oceans.
|
Mostly found in the continental shelf of the oceans.
|
Formed mainly by slow sedimentation in which the eroded particles are filtered slowly through ocean water and deposited on floor.
|
The oceanic deposits of the oceans are: Statement 1 is correct because it is the correct explanation of formation of Ocean deposits. Statement 2 is not correct option as there are many other sources of layers of sediments formed in the oceans. Statement 3 is not correct as they are found across the floor of the oceans. Statement 4 is not correct.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The oceanic deposits of the oceans are:##Option_A: Formed mainly by slow sedimentation in which the eroded particles are filtered slowly through ocean water and deposited on floor.###Option_B: The layers of sediments formed by deposition of eroded materials by the rivers in the oceans.##Option_C: Mostly found in the continental shelf of the oceans.##Option_D: Formed mainly by slow sedimentation in which the eroded particles are filtered slowly through ocean water and deposited on floor.##Answer:a##Explaination:The oceanic deposits of the oceans are: Statement 1 is correct because it is the correct explanation of formation of Ocean deposits. Statement 2 is not correct option as there are many other sources of layers of sediments formed in the oceans. Statement 3 is not correct as they are found across the floor of the oceans. Statement 4 is not correct.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With regard to the continental shelf, which of the following statement(s) is/ are not true? It abounds in planktons which is fish food and is the richest fishing ground on the earth. It is associated with the active volcanoes and the strong earthquakes of the earth. Tides which are useful for navigation and commerce are high in continental shelf. Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is true. Planktons are found in abundant quantity in the continental shelf. Majority of the fishing activities take place in this zone of the ocean. Statement 2 is false. Ocean Deeps are associated with the active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. These are very significant in the study of plate movements. Statement 3 is true. The tidal activity is prominent in this zone of ocean. They are high in the continental shelf.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the continental shelf, which of the following statement(s) is/ are not true? It abounds in planktons which is fish food and is the richest fishing ground on the earth. It is associated with the active volcanoes and the strong earthquakes of the earth. Tides which are useful for navigation and commerce are high in continental shelf. Choose the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is true. Planktons are found in abundant quantity in the continental shelf. Majority of the fishing activities take place in this zone of the ocean. Statement 2 is false. Ocean Deeps are associated with the active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. These are very significant in the study of plate movements. Statement 3 is true. The tidal activity is prominent in this zone of ocean. They are high in the continental shelf.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: Ocean Features Characteristic 1. Continental Slope : Presence of fine grained sediments. 2. Continental Shelf : Submarine vegetation grows. 3. Deep Sea Plain : Rich in non-ferrous metals. 4. Ocean Deeps : Canyons and trenches. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 only
|
Pair 1 is not correctly matched. Fine grained sediments like clay and silt are present in Deep Sea Plains. Continental Slopes are present at the outer edge of the continental shelf and lead to Deep Sea Plains. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Continental Shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean as it is the extended margin of the continent itself. Due to the presence of shallow water, sunlight can penetrate through it and so submarine vegetation grows here. Pair 3 is not correctly matched. Deep Sea Plains lie next to continental slope and are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world. Continental Shelf is rich in non ferrous metals. Pair 4 is also not correctly matched. Canyons and Trenches are found in Continental Slope. Ocean deeps are the deepest part of the oceans and are relatively steep sided, narrow basins.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Ocean Features Characteristic 1. Continental Slope : Presence of fine grained sediments. 2. Continental Shelf : Submarine vegetation grows. 3. Deep Sea Plain : Rich in non-ferrous metals. 4. Ocean Deeps : Canyons and trenches. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Pair 1 is not correctly matched. Fine grained sediments like clay and silt are present in Deep Sea Plains. Continental Slopes are present at the outer edge of the continental shelf and lead to Deep Sea Plains. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Continental Shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean as it is the extended margin of the continent itself. Due to the presence of shallow water, sunlight can penetrate through it and so submarine vegetation grows here. Pair 3 is not correctly matched. Deep Sea Plains lie next to continental slope and are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world. Continental Shelf is rich in non ferrous metals. Pair 4 is also not correctly matched. Canyons and Trenches are found in Continental Slope. Ocean deeps are the deepest part of the oceans and are relatively steep sided, narrow basins.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
In Bhopal, accidental acute inhalation exposure to "Methyl Isocyanate" resulted in thousands of deaths and lakh of people suffering from adverse health effects. In this context, consider the following statements about Methyl Isocyanate: It is a colourless, liquid at room temperature (27°C). It is used in the production of synthetic rubber and adhesives. In gaseous form it is heavier than air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Methyl isocyanate (MIC) is an organic compound with the molecular formula CH 3 NCO. At temperatures below 39 °C (102 °F), methyl isocyanate is a very flammable liquid that readily evaporates when exposed to air. Gaseous methyl isocyanate is approximately 1.4 times heavier than air. Methyl isocyanate liquid is colorless with a pungent odor. Most people can smell methyl isocyanate vapors at levels as low as 2 to 5 ppm. Methyl isocyanate is handled and transported as a very flammable and explosive liquid. As a highly toxic and irritating material, it is extremely hazardous to human health. It has also been used in the production of rubbers and adhesives. Thus all statements are correct. Hence D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Others
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Bhopal, accidental acute inhalation exposure to "Methyl Isocyanate" resulted in thousands of deaths and lakh of people suffering from adverse health effects. In this context, consider the following statements about Methyl Isocyanate: It is a colourless, liquid at room temperature (27°C). It is used in the production of synthetic rubber and adhesives. In gaseous form it is heavier than air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Methyl isocyanate (MIC) is an organic compound with the molecular formula CH 3 NCO. At temperatures below 39 °C (102 °F), methyl isocyanate is a very flammable liquid that readily evaporates when exposed to air. Gaseous methyl isocyanate is approximately 1.4 times heavier than air. Methyl isocyanate liquid is colorless with a pungent odor. Most people can smell methyl isocyanate vapors at levels as low as 2 to 5 ppm. Methyl isocyanate is handled and transported as a very flammable and explosive liquid. As a highly toxic and irritating material, it is extremely hazardous to human health. It has also been used in the production of rubbers and adhesives. Thus all statements are correct. Hence D is the correct answer.##Topic:Others##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
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A foreign traveller, who visited India in Medieval period, adopted a distinctive structure in his book to describe India. He started each chapter with a question, following up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Who was the traveller?
|
Marco Polo
|
Abdur Razzaq
|
Ibn Battuta
|
Marco Polo
|
Al-Biruni was a traveller from Uzbekistan who visited in 11th century in Punjab and Northern part of India. In his book Kitab-Ul-Hind, he adopted a distinctive structure in his book to describe India. He started each chapter with a question, following up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Hence D is the correct answer. He translated the works of Euclid, a Greek mathematician into Sanskrit. He noted that the four social categories of society was not unique to India, however, criticized the notion of pollution in social strata. Marco polo was an Italian traveller who visited India in 13th century. Abdur Razzaq was a diplomat from Herat, who visited the city of Vijayanagar in 15th century. Ibn Battuta was a Moroccon traveller who visited India when Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the Sultan of Delhi.
|
d
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A foreign traveller, who visited India in Medieval period, adopted a distinctive structure in his book to describe India. He started each chapter with a question, following up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Who was the traveller?##Option_A: Marco Polo###Option_B: Abdur Razzaq##Option_C: Ibn Battuta##Option_D: Marco Polo##Answer:d##Explaination:Al-Biruni was a traveller from Uzbekistan who visited in 11th century in Punjab and Northern part of India. In his book Kitab-Ul-Hind, he adopted a distinctive structure in his book to describe India. He started each chapter with a question, following up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Hence D is the correct answer. He translated the works of Euclid, a Greek mathematician into Sanskrit. He noted that the four social categories of society was not unique to India, however, criticized the notion of pollution in social strata. Marco polo was an Italian traveller who visited India in 13th century. Abdur Razzaq was a diplomat from Herat, who visited the city of Vijayanagar in 15th century. Ibn Battuta was a Moroccon traveller who visited India when Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the Sultan of Delhi.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
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With reference to the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill 2016, consider the following statements: It pertains to both Pakistan and China. The law of succession does not apply to enemy property. The property confiscated will form part of the consolidated fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
In the wake of the India-Pakistan war of 1965 and 1971, there was migration of people from India to Pakistan and under the Defence of India Rules framed under the Defence of India Act. The government of India took over the properties and companies of such persons who had taken Pakistani nationality. These enemy properties were vested by the Union government in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India. The Bill does not pertain to Pakistan alone, but also to those Chinese who left India after the 1962 China-India War. Even their property comes under the ambit of this Bill. The amendments include that once an enemy property is vested in the Custodian, it shall continue to be vested in him as enemy property irrespective of whether the enemy, enemy subject or enemy firm has ceased to be an enemy due to reasons such as death. The new Bill ensures that the law of succession does not apply to enemy property; that there cannot be transfer of any property vested in the Custodian by an enemy or enemy subject or enemy firm and that the Custodian shall preserve the enemy property till it is disposed of in accordance with the Act.
|
a
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no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill 2016, consider the following statements: It pertains to both Pakistan and China. The law of succession does not apply to enemy property. The property confiscated will form part of the consolidated fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In the wake of the India-Pakistan war of 1965 and 1971, there was migration of people from India to Pakistan and under the Defence of India Rules framed under the Defence of India Act. The government of India took over the properties and companies of such persons who had taken Pakistani nationality. These enemy properties were vested by the Union government in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India. The Bill does not pertain to Pakistan alone, but also to those Chinese who left India after the 1962 China-India War. Even their property comes under the ambit of this Bill. The amendments include that once an enemy property is vested in the Custodian, it shall continue to be vested in him as enemy property irrespective of whether the enemy, enemy subject or enemy firm has ceased to be an enemy due to reasons such as death. The new Bill ensures that the law of succession does not apply to enemy property; that there cannot be transfer of any property vested in the Custodian by an enemy or enemy subject or enemy firm and that the Custodian shall preserve the enemy property till it is disposed of in accordance with the Act.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
South China Sea has been often seen in news recently. Which of the following countries borders the sea? Philippines Papua New Guinea Taiwan Singapore Brunei Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
The South China Sea is a marginal sea that is part of the Pacific Ocean, encompassing an area from the Singapore and Malacca Straits to the Strait of Taiwan. It is located: south of mainland China, including the island of Taiwan, in the east; east of Vietnam and Cambodia; west of the Philippines; east of the Malay peninsula and Sumatra, up to the Strait of Malacca in the west and north of the Bangka–Belitung Islands and Borneo States and territories with borders on the sea (clockwise from north) include: the People's Republic of China (including Macau and Hong Kong), the Republic of China (Taiwan), the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam. Thus B is the correct answer. Territorial disputes in the South China Sea involve both island and maritime claims among several sovereign states within the region, namely Brunei, the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, Malaysia, the Philippines, and Vietnam.
|
b
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:South China Sea has been often seen in news recently. Which of the following countries borders the sea? Philippines Papua New Guinea Taiwan Singapore Brunei Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 5 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The South China Sea is a marginal sea that is part of the Pacific Ocean, encompassing an area from the Singapore and Malacca Straits to the Strait of Taiwan. It is located: south of mainland China, including the island of Taiwan, in the east; east of Vietnam and Cambodia; west of the Philippines; east of the Malay peninsula and Sumatra, up to the Strait of Malacca in the west and north of the Bangka–Belitung Islands and Borneo States and territories with borders on the sea (clockwise from north) include: the People's Republic of China (including Macau and Hong Kong), the Republic of China (Taiwan), the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam. Thus B is the correct answer. Territorial disputes in the South China Sea involve both island and maritime claims among several sovereign states within the region, namely Brunei, the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, Malaysia, the Philippines, and Vietnam.##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The System of National Accounts (SNA), a set of recommendations on how to compile measures of economic activity, has been developed by
|
United Nations
|
World Bank
|
International Monetary Fund
|
United Nations
|
The United Nations System of National Accounts (abbreviated as SNA) is an international standard system of national accounts, the first international standard being published in 1953. Handbooks have been released for the 1968 revision, the 1993 revision, and the 2008 revision. In addition, the SNA provides an overview of economic processes, recording how production is distributed among consumers, businesses, government and foreign nations. The SNA is intended for use by all countries, having been designed to accommodate the needs of countries at different stages of economic development.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The System of National Accounts (SNA), a set of recommendations on how to compile measures of economic activity, has been developed by##Option_A: United Nations###Option_B: World Bank##Option_C: International Monetary Fund##Option_D: United Nations##Answer:a##Explaination:The United Nations System of National Accounts (abbreviated as SNA) is an international standard system of national accounts, the first international standard being published in 1953. Handbooks have been released for the 1968 revision, the 1993 revision, and the 2008 revision. In addition, the SNA provides an overview of economic processes, recording how production is distributed among consumers, businesses, government and foreign nations. The SNA is intended for use by all countries, having been designed to accommodate the needs of countries at different stages of economic development.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
|
Which of the following correctly explains 'Quasar'?
|
a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation.
|
bright distant objects that derive energy from black hole at the cores of galaxies.
|
objects which are too large to be called planets and too small to be stars.
|
a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation.
|
Quasars are extremely distant objects in our known universe. They are the farthest objects away from our galaxy that can be seen. Quasars are extremely bright masses of energy and light. Quasars are believed to produce their energy from massive black holes in the center of the galaxies in which the quasars are located. A pulsar (short for pulsating radio star) is a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation. Brown dwarfs are objects which are too large to be called planets and too small to be stars. They have masses that range between twice the mass of Jupiter and the lower mass limit for nuclear reactions (0.08 times the mass of our sun). Dark nebulae are interstellar clouds that contain a very high concentration of dust. This allows them to scatter and absorb all incident optical light, making them completely opaque at visible wavelengths.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following correctly explains 'Quasar'?##Option_A:a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation.###Option_B:bright distant objects that derive energy from black hole at the cores of galaxies.##Option_C:objects which are too large to be called planets and too small to be stars.##Option_D:a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation.##Answer:b##Explaination:Quasars are extremely distant objects in our known universe. They are the farthest objects away from our galaxy that can be seen. Quasars are extremely bright masses of energy and light. Quasars are believed to produce their energy from massive black holes in the center of the galaxies in which the quasars are located. A pulsar (short for pulsating radio star) is a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation. Brown dwarfs are objects which are too large to be called planets and too small to be stars. They have masses that range between twice the mass of Jupiter and the lower mass limit for nuclear reactions (0.08 times the mass of our sun). Dark nebulae are interstellar clouds that contain a very high concentration of dust. This allows them to scatter and absorb all incident optical light, making them completely opaque at visible wavelengths.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding "Constitution Day" is/are correct? It is celebrated on the day on which the Constitution was enforced. Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry to implement this day. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The 'Constitution Day' of India is being observed on 26th November to spread awareness of Indian Constitution and its architecture Dr. B R Ambedkar. Significance of the Day: On the day in 1949, constitution of India was adopted which came into force on January 26, 1950 marking the beginning of a new era in the history of free India. Constitution Day is the first edition of this day and part of year-long nationwide celebrations of 125th birth Anniversary of Dr. B R Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly. Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MSJE) is the nodal Ministry for celebration of Constitution Day. It has organised number of activities on the occasion of the first Constitution Day in order to spread awareness the supreme law of the country and living document which makes the government system work effectively.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding "Constitution Day" is/are correct? It is celebrated on the day on which the Constitution was enforced. Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry to implement this day. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The 'Constitution Day' of India is being observed on 26th November to spread awareness of Indian Constitution and its architecture Dr. B R Ambedkar. Significance of the Day: On the day in 1949, constitution of India was adopted which came into force on January 26, 1950 marking the beginning of a new era in the history of free India. Constitution Day is the first edition of this day and part of year-long nationwide celebrations of 125th birth Anniversary of Dr. B R Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly. Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MSJE) is the nodal Ministry for celebration of Constitution Day. It has organised number of activities on the occasion of the first Constitution Day in order to spread awareness the supreme law of the country and living document which makes the government system work effectively.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the "Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Supreme Court spelt out all the features of the basic structure in the Kesavananda Bharati case. Supremacy of the Parliament is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Constitutional amendments cannot affect the basic structure of the Constitution except during emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary. At least, 20 features have been described as "basic" or "essential" by the Courts in numerous cases, and have been incorporated in the basic structure. Some of the features of the Constitution termed as "basic" are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of Separation of Powers The objectives specified in the Preamble to the Constitution Judicial Review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism Secularism The Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the Nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The "essence" of other Fundamental Rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice - to build a Welfare State: Part IV in toto The balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles The Parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the Judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the State by Arbitration Tribunals constituted under an Act.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Supreme Court spelt out all the features of the basic structure in the Kesavananda Bharati case. Supremacy of the Parliament is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Constitutional amendments cannot affect the basic structure of the Constitution except during emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary. At least, 20 features have been described as "basic" or "essential" by the Courts in numerous cases, and have been incorporated in the basic structure. Some of the features of the Constitution termed as "basic" are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of Separation of Powers The objectives specified in the Preamble to the Constitution Judicial Review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism Secularism The Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the Nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The "essence" of other Fundamental Rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice - to build a Welfare State: Part IV in toto The balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles The Parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the Judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the State by Arbitration Tribunals constituted under an Act.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the fourth stage of matter "Plasma", consider the following statements: It is made of both positively and negatively charged particles. It does not have definite shape or volume like gas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Plasma is one of the four fundamental states of matter, the others being solid, liquid, and gas. A plasma has properties unlike those of the other states. It is made of both positively and negatively charged particles. To put it very simply, a plasma is an ionized gas, a gas into which sufficient energy is provided to free electrons from atoms or molecules and to allow both species, ions and electrons, to coexist. The presence of a significant number of charge carriers makes plasma electrically conductive so that it responds strongly to electromagnetic fields. Like gas, plasma does not have a definite shape or a definite volume unless enclosed in a container. Unlike gas, under the influence of a magnetic field, it may form structures such as filaments, beams and double layers. Hence C is the correct answer. Plasma is the most abundant form of ordinary matter in the Universe (of the forms proven to exist; the more abundant dark matter is hypothetical and may or may not be explained by ordinary matter), most of which is in the rarefied intergalactic regions, particularly the intracluster medium, and in stars, including the Sun. A common form of plasmas is seen in neon signs.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the fourth stage of matter "Plasma", consider the following statements: It is made of both positively and negatively charged particles. It does not have definite shape or volume like gas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Plasma is one of the four fundamental states of matter, the others being solid, liquid, and gas. A plasma has properties unlike those of the other states. It is made of both positively and negatively charged particles. To put it very simply, a plasma is an ionized gas, a gas into which sufficient energy is provided to free electrons from atoms or molecules and to allow both species, ions and electrons, to coexist. The presence of a significant number of charge carriers makes plasma electrically conductive so that it responds strongly to electromagnetic fields. Like gas, plasma does not have a definite shape or a definite volume unless enclosed in a container. Unlike gas, under the influence of a magnetic field, it may form structures such as filaments, beams and double layers. Hence C is the correct answer. Plasma is the most abundant form of ordinary matter in the Universe (of the forms proven to exist; the more abundant dark matter is hypothetical and may or may not be explained by ordinary matter), most of which is in the rarefied intergalactic regions, particularly the intracluster medium, and in stars, including the Sun. A common form of plasmas is seen in neon signs.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Ancient port Towns State 1. Lothal : Rajasthan 2. Muziris : Kerala 3. Arikamedu : Tamil Nadu Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
The Harappan city of Lothal was situated besides a tributary of Sabarmati, in Gujarat. At Lothal a huge tank was found which may have been a dockyard. Muziris was an ancient seaport and urban center in the Malabar Coast (modern day Indian state of Kerala). Muziris has found mention in the bardic Sangam literature and a number of classical European historical sources. Arikamedu is situated in Puducherry. The site was identified as the port of Podouke mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea.
|
c
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Ancient port Towns State 1. Lothal : Rajasthan 2. Muziris : Kerala 3. Arikamedu : Tamil Nadu Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Harappan city of Lothal was situated besides a tributary of Sabarmati, in Gujarat. At Lothal a huge tank was found which may have been a dockyard. Muziris was an ancient seaport and urban center in the Malabar Coast (modern day Indian state of Kerala). Muziris has found mention in the bardic Sangam literature and a number of classical European historical sources. Arikamedu is situated in Puducherry. The site was identified as the port of Podouke mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With reference to reasonable restrictions in the context Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed under Indian constitution, consider the following statements: Reasonable Restrictions were made justiciable through First Amendment Act, 1951. The Parliament has been authorised to make laws regarding reasonable restrictions. Reasonable restrictions cover both public interest and private interest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
First Amendment Act, 1951 added three more grounds of restriction on Freedom of Speech and Expression - public order, friendly relations with foreign states, incitement to an offence. Also it made restrictions 'reasonable' and thus justiciable in nature. The Parliament has been authorised by law to make laws regarding 'reasonable restrictions' under Freedom of Speech and Expression. Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. These restrictions were: Security of the state Friendly relations with foreign states Public Order Decency or morality Contempt of Court Incitement to offence Sovereignty and integrity of India. Defamation Defamation can be of two types- criminal defamation (public and private interest) and civil defamation (private interest).
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to reasonable restrictions in the context Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed under Indian constitution, consider the following statements: Reasonable Restrictions were made justiciable through First Amendment Act, 1951. The Parliament has been authorised to make laws regarding reasonable restrictions. Reasonable restrictions cover both public interest and private interest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:First Amendment Act, 1951 added three more grounds of restriction on Freedom of Speech and Expression - public order, friendly relations with foreign states, incitement to an offence. Also it made restrictions 'reasonable' and thus justiciable in nature. The Parliament has been authorised by law to make laws regarding 'reasonable restrictions' under Freedom of Speech and Expression. Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. These restrictions were: Security of the state Friendly relations with foreign states Public Order Decency or morality Contempt of Court Incitement to offence Sovereignty and integrity of India. Defamation Defamation can be of two types- criminal defamation (public and private interest) and civil defamation (private interest).##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following correctly describes the term 'Money Multiplier'?
|
It is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve.
|
A factor to calculate the rate of foreign exchange by the Central Bank.
|
It is the total monetary assets held by the central bank with reference to a base year.
|
It is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve.
|
The Money Multiplier a phenomenon referring to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. It explains the increase in the amount of cash in circulation generated by the banks' ability to lend money out of their depositors' funds For example, if a commercial bank receives a deposit of Rs 100 and this leads to a final money supply of Rs 1000, then the value of money multiplier is 10. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. A simple example of money multiplier: Suppose banks keep a reserve ratio of 10%. Thus if someone deposits 100 rupees, the bank will keep 10 rupees as reserves and lend out rest 90. However, because 90 has been lent out – other banks will see future deposits of 90. Therefore, the process of lending out deposits can start again. This process of deposit and Bank continues. Thus out of the initial deposit of 100, various banks are able to cumulatively generate and lend out an amount greater than 100. Hence it is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve. In other terms:The money multiplier is the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money in an economy. Its value is always greater than 1. It is the inverse of the reserve ratio. Total Stock of Money : All the money held with the public, RBI as well as government. High Powered Money : Consists of currency held by the public and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks’ deposits with RBI.
|
a
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following correctly describes the term 'Money Multiplier'?##Option_A:It is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve.###Option_B:A factor to calculate the rate of foreign exchange by the Central Bank. ##Option_C:It is the total monetary assets held by the central bank with reference to a base year. ##Option_D:It is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve.##Answer:a##Explaination:The Money Multiplier a phenomenon referring to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. It explains the increase in the amount of cash in circulation generated by the banks' ability to lend money out of their depositors' funds For example, if a commercial bank receives a deposit of Rs 100 and this leads to a final money supply of Rs 1000, then the value of money multiplier is 10. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. A simple example of money multiplier: Suppose banks keep a reserve ratio of 10%. Thus if someone deposits 100 rupees, the bank will keep 10 rupees as reserves and lend out rest 90. However, because 90 has been lent out – other banks will see future deposits of 90. Therefore, the process of lending out deposits can start again. This process of deposit and Bank continues. Thus out of the initial deposit of 100, various banks are able to cumulatively generate and lend out an amount greater than 100. Hence it is the amount of money that banks generate with each deposited reserve. In other terms:The money multiplier is the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money in an economy. Its value is always greater than 1. It is the inverse of the reserve ratio. Total Stock of Money : All the money held with the public, RBI as well as government. High Powered Money : Consists of currency held by the public and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks’ deposits with RBI.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to stock variables and flow variables, which of the following are classified as stock variable(s)? Income Profits Capital Goods Change in Inventory Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Flows are defined over a period of time. Thus income, outputs or profits are concepts that make sense only when a time period is specified. These are called flows because they occur in a period of time. On the other hand, capital goods or conusmer durables once produced do not wear out or get consumed in a delineated time period.These are called stocks. They are defined at a particular point of time. Also, change in inventory is calculated over a period of time, thus it a flow variable. Therefore, c is the correct answer
|
c
|
Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to stock variables and flow variables, which of the following are classified as stock variable(s)? Income Profits Capital Goods Change in Inventory Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Flows are defined over a period of time. Thus income, outputs or profits are concepts that make sense only when a time period is specified. These are called flows because they occur in a period of time. On the other hand, capital goods or conusmer durables once produced do not wear out or get consumed in a delineated time period.These are called stocks. They are defined at a particular point of time. Also, change in inventory is calculated over a period of time, thus it a flow variable. Therefore, c is the correct answer##Topic:Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the developments in the phase of Revolutionary Terrorism from 1920 to 1930, consider the following statements? The objective of throwing bomb by revolutionaries in the assembly was to create awareness among the masses with their ideology. Bhagat Singh was tried in Kakori conspiracy case and sentenced to death. Hindustan Republican Association was a revolutionary organisation active in Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Bhagat Singh was tried in Lahore conspiracy case and sentenced to death. In the later phase of revolutionary movement revolutionaries started moving away from individual heroic action towards mass politics. Also, HSRA decided to work under collective leadership and declared socialism as its official goal. So The objective of bomb throwing (by Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwer Dutt) in central legislative assembly was to get arrested and use the court as a forum for propaganda so that people would become familiar with their aims and ideologies. HRA was founded by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal at Kanpur. It was active mainly in Punjab, UP, Bihar but not in Bengal.
|
a
|
The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the developments in the phase of Revolutionary Terrorism from 1920 to 1930, consider the following statements? The objective of throwing bomb by revolutionaries in the assembly was to create awareness among the masses with their ideology. Bhagat Singh was tried in Kakori conspiracy case and sentenced to death. Hindustan Republican Association was a revolutionary organisation active in Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Bhagat Singh was tried in Lahore conspiracy case and sentenced to death. In the later phase of revolutionary movement revolutionaries started moving away from individual heroic action towards mass politics. Also, HSRA decided to work under collective leadership and declared socialism as its official goal. So The objective of bomb throwing (by Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwer Dutt) in central legislative assembly was to get arrested and use the court as a forum for propaganda so that people would become familiar with their aims and ideologies. HRA was founded by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal at Kanpur. It was active mainly in Punjab, UP, Bihar but not in Bengal.##Topic:The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
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With reference to Acid Rains, which of the following statements is not correct?
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They cause leaching of aluminium and magnesium in the soil
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They reduce the susceptibility of trees to pest attacks
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They cause delay in the decomposition of organic material in the soil
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They cause leaching of aluminium and magnesium in the soil
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The soil needs to maintain an optimum pH level for the continuity of biological activity. Leaching: Poisonous metals such as aluminium, cadmium and mercury, are leached from soils through reacting with acids. This happens because these metals are bound to the soil under normal conditions, but the added dissolving action of hydrogen ions causes rocks and small-bound soil particles to break down. Leaching of important chemicals such as calcium and magnesium reduces the soil fertility. When acid rains seep into the soil, it means higher soil pH, which damages or reverses soil biological and chemical activities. The number of micro-organisms present in the soil also decreases as the soil becomes more acidic. This further depletes the amount of nutrients available to plant life because the micro-organisms play an important role in releasing nutrients from decaying organic material. In regions where the soil is not rich in limestone or if the bedrock is not composed of limestone or marble, then no neutralising effect takes place, and the acid rainwater accumulates in the bodies of water in the area. Therefore over time more and more acid precipitation accumulates in lakes and ponds. When acid rain falls, it can affect forests as well as lakes and rivers. To grow, trees need healthy soil to develop in. Acid rain is absorbed into the soil making it virtually impossible for these trees to survive. As a result of this, trees are more susceptible to viruses, fungi and insect pests. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
b
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Others
|
Agriculture
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Acid Rains, which of the following statements is not correct?##Option_A: They cause leaching of aluminium and magnesium in the soil###Option_B: They reduce the susceptibility of trees to pest attacks##Option_C: They cause delay in the decomposition of organic material in the soil##Option_D: They cause leaching of aluminium and magnesium in the soil##Answer:b##Explaination:The soil needs to maintain an optimum pH level for the continuity of biological activity. Leaching: Poisonous metals such as aluminium, cadmium and mercury, are leached from soils through reacting with acids. This happens because these metals are bound to the soil under normal conditions, but the added dissolving action of hydrogen ions causes rocks and small-bound soil particles to break down. Leaching of important chemicals such as calcium and magnesium reduces the soil fertility. When acid rains seep into the soil, it means higher soil pH, which damages or reverses soil biological and chemical activities. The number of micro-organisms present in the soil also decreases as the soil becomes more acidic. This further depletes the amount of nutrients available to plant life because the micro-organisms play an important role in releasing nutrients from decaying organic material. In regions where the soil is not rich in limestone or if the bedrock is not composed of limestone or marble, then no neutralising effect takes place, and the acid rainwater accumulates in the bodies of water in the area. Therefore over time more and more acid precipitation accumulates in lakes and ponds. When acid rain falls, it can affect forests as well as lakes and rivers. To grow, trees need healthy soil to develop in. Acid rain is absorbed into the soil making it virtually impossible for these trees to survive. As a result of this, trees are more susceptible to viruses, fungi and insect pests. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
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The term "CubeSats", sometimes seen in the news, is the name of
|
a scientific establishment set up by NASA in Antarctic region.
|
a satellite of NASA with the goal to detect dark matter.
|
a space probe of NASA orbiting Mars, which found evidence of water on the planet.
|
a scientific establishment set up by NASA in Antarctic region.
|
A CubeSat is a type of miniaturized satellite for space research that is made up of multiples of 10×10×11.35 cm cubic units. CubeSats have a mass of no more than 1.33 kilograms per unit, and often use of commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components for their electronics and structure. CubeSats are most commonly put in orbit by deployers on the International Space Station, or launched as secondary payloads on a launch vehicle.
|
d
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no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "CubeSats", sometimes seen in the news, is the name of##Option_A: a scientific establishment set up by NASA in Antarctic region.###Option_B: a satellite of NASA with the goal to detect dark matter.##Option_C: a space probe of NASA orbiting Mars, which found evidence of water on the planet.##Option_D: a scientific establishment set up by NASA in Antarctic region.##Answer:d##Explaination:A CubeSat is a type of miniaturized satellite for space research that is made up of multiples of 10×10×11.35 cm cubic units. CubeSats have a mass of no more than 1.33 kilograms per unit, and often use of commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components for their electronics and structure. CubeSats are most commonly put in orbit by deployers on the International Space Station, or launched as secondary payloads on a launch vehicle.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
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Consider the following statements: In a closed economy, savings and investment remain equal. In an open economy, savings are always more than investments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A closed economy refers to an economy that does not interact with other economies. Saving and investment are equal in a closed economy. Let's now consider how saving (S) and investment (I) are related to the international flows of goods and capital as measured by net exports and net capital outflow. Each unit of output sold in a closed economy is consumed, invested, or bought by the government. To see what this identity can tell us about financial markets, subtract C and G from both sides of this equation. We obtain, Y - C - G = I. (Y = GDP and C = Consumption). The left side of this equation (Y - C - G) is the total income in the economy that remains after paying for consumption and government purchases: This amount is called national saving, or just saving, and is denoted by S. Substituting S for Y - C - G, we can write the last equation as S = I. National saving is the income of the nation that is left after paying for current consumption and government purchases. National saving (S) equals Y - C - G. If we rearrange the equation to reflect this fact, we obtain, Y - C - G = I + NX S = I + NX. Because net exports (NX) also equal net capital outflow (NCO), we can write this equation as S = I + NCO Saving = Domestic Investment + Net capital outflow This equation shows that a nation's saving must equal its domestic investment plus its net capital outflow. In a closed economy, net capital outflow is zero (NCO = 0), so saving equals investment (S = I). By contrast, an open economy has two uses for its saving: domestic investment and net capital outflow. When a nation’s saving exceeds its domestic investment, its net capital outflow is positive, indicating that the nation is using some of its saving to buy assets abroad. When a nation’s domestic investment exceeds its saving, its net capital outflow is negative, indicating that foreigners are financing some of this investment by purchasing domestic assets. Therefore, savings are not always more than investments.
|
a
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Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In a closed economy, savings and investment remain equal. In an open economy, savings are always more than investments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:A closed economy refers to an economy that does not interact with other economies. Saving and investment are equal in a closed economy. Let's now consider how saving (S) and investment (I) are related to the international flows of goods and capital as measured by net exports and net capital outflow. Each unit of output sold in a closed economy is consumed, invested, or bought by the government. To see what this identity can tell us about financial markets, subtract C and G from both sides of this equation. We obtain, Y - C - G = I. (Y = GDP and C = Consumption). The left side of this equation (Y - C - G) is the total income in the economy that remains after paying for consumption and government purchases: This amount is called national saving, or just saving, and is denoted by S. Substituting S for Y - C - G, we can write the last equation as S = I. National saving is the income of the nation that is left after paying for current consumption and government purchases. National saving (S) equals Y - C - G. If we rearrange the equation to reflect this fact, we obtain, Y - C - G = I + NX S = I + NX. Because net exports (NX) also equal net capital outflow (NCO), we can write this equation as S = I + NCO Saving = Domestic Investment + Net capital outflow This equation shows that a nation's saving must equal its domestic investment plus its net capital outflow. In a closed economy, net capital outflow is zero (NCO = 0), so saving equals investment (S = I). By contrast, an open economy has two uses for its saving: domestic investment and net capital outflow. When a nation’s saving exceeds its domestic investment, its net capital outflow is positive, indicating that the nation is using some of its saving to buy assets abroad. When a nation’s domestic investment exceeds its saving, its net capital outflow is negative, indicating that foreigners are financing some of this investment by purchasing domestic assets. Therefore, savings are not always more than investments.##Topic:Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
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Consider the following statements regarding Balance of Trade (BOT) and Balance of Payment (BOP): While BOT records only goods and services transactions, BOP covers goods, services and transfers payments also. While BOT can be in deficit or surplus or balanced, BOP is always balanced. While BOT records only a part of current account transactions, BOP covers both current and capital account transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The balance of payments, also known as balance of international payments, encompasses all transactions between a country’s residents and its non-residents involving goods, services and income; financial claims on and liabilities to the rest of the world; and transfers such as gifts. The balance of payments classifies these transactions in two accounts - the current account and the capital account. The current account includes transactions in goods, services, investment income and current transfers, while the capital account mainly includes transactions in financial instruments. Errors and omissions constitute the third element in the BOP which is the 'balancing item' reflecting our inability to record all international transactions accurately. Due to this, BOP is always balanced. The balance of exports and imports of goods (and not services) is referred to as the balance of trade. It can be in deficit or surplus or balanced. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Balance of Trade (BOT) and Balance of Payment (BOP): While BOT records only goods and services transactions, BOP covers goods, services and transfers payments also. While BOT can be in deficit or surplus or balanced, BOP is always balanced. While BOT records only a part of current account transactions, BOP covers both current and capital account transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The balance of payments, also known as balance of international payments, encompasses all transactions between a country’s residents and its non-residents involving goods, services and income; financial claims on and liabilities to the rest of the world; and transfers such as gifts. The balance of payments classifies these transactions in two accounts - the current account and the capital account. The current account includes transactions in goods, services, investment income and current transfers, while the capital account mainly includes transactions in financial instruments. Errors and omissions constitute the third element in the BOP which is the 'balancing item' reflecting our inability to record all international transactions accurately. Due to this, BOP is always balanced. The balance of exports and imports of goods (and not services) is referred to as the balance of trade. It can be in deficit or surplus or balanced. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Both electromagnetic and gravitational waves travel with the speed of light. Both electromagnetic and gravitational waves can create ripples in space-time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and
|
1 only
|
Gravitational waves are ripples in the curvature of spacetime which propagate as waves, travelling outward from the source. Predicted in 1916 by Albert Einstein on the basis of his theory of general relativity. Gravitational waves transport energy as gravitational radiation, a form of radiant energy similar to electromagnetic radiation. The speed of gravitational waves in the general theory of relativity is equal to the speed of light in vacuum, c. Electromagnetic waves are synchronized oscillations of electric and magnetic fields that propagate at the speed of light through a vacuum. Visible light is one type of electromagnetic radiation; other familiar forms are invisible electromagnetic radiations, such as radio waves, infrared light and X rays. Only gravitational waves can create ripples in space-time, electromagnetic waves create vibrations of electric and magnetic field in spce only. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is wrong. Hence, A is the correct answer.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Both electromagnetic and gravitational waves travel with the speed of light. Both electromagnetic and gravitational waves can create ripples in space-time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Gravitational waves are ripples in the curvature of spacetime which propagate as waves, travelling outward from the source. Predicted in 1916 by Albert Einstein on the basis of his theory of general relativity. Gravitational waves transport energy as gravitational radiation, a form of radiant energy similar to electromagnetic radiation. The speed of gravitational waves in the general theory of relativity is equal to the speed of light in vacuum, c. Electromagnetic waves are synchronized oscillations of electric and magnetic fields that propagate at the speed of light through a vacuum. Visible light is one type of electromagnetic radiation; other familiar forms are invisible electromagnetic radiations, such as radio waves, infrared light and X rays. Only gravitational waves can create ripples in space-time, electromagnetic waves create vibrations of electric and magnetic field in spce only. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is wrong. Hence, A is the correct answer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
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With reference to "One Belt One Road" (OBOR) initiative, consider the following statements: It aims to connect Asia, Europe and Africa. Both maritime route and road route are an integral part of the initiative. China-Pakistan economic corridor is a part of OBOR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Belt and Road Initiative refers to the Silk Road Economic Belt and 21st Century Maritime Silk Road, a significant development strategy launched by the Chinese government. The Belt and Road Initiative aims to connect Asia, Europe and Africa along five routes. The Silk Road Economic Belt focusses on: (1) linking China to Europe through Central Asia and Russia; (2) connecting China with the Middle East through Central Asia; and (3) bringing together China and Southeast Asia, South Asia and the Indian Ocean. The 21st Century Maritime Silk Road, meanwhile, focusses on using Chinese coastal ports to: (4) link China with Europe through the South China Sea and Indian Ocean; and (5) connect China with the South Pacific Ocean through the South China Sea. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It consists of two main components, the land-based "Silk Road Economic Belt" (SREB) and oceangoing "Maritime Silk Road" (MSR). Hence, statement 2 is correct. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), is also part of OBOR. Infrastructure projects under the CPEC will eventually link the Pakistani city of Gwadar in southwestern to China"s northwestern autonomous region of Xinjiang via a vast network of highways and railways. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "One Belt One Road" (OBOR) initiative, consider the following statements: It aims to connect Asia, Europe and Africa. Both maritime route and road route are an integral part of the initiative. China-Pakistan economic corridor is a part of OBOR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Belt and Road Initiative refers to the Silk Road Economic Belt and 21st Century Maritime Silk Road, a significant development strategy launched by the Chinese government. The Belt and Road Initiative aims to connect Asia, Europe and Africa along five routes. The Silk Road Economic Belt focusses on: (1) linking China to Europe through Central Asia and Russia; (2) connecting China with the Middle East through Central Asia; and (3) bringing together China and Southeast Asia, South Asia and the Indian Ocean. The 21st Century Maritime Silk Road, meanwhile, focusses on using Chinese coastal ports to: (4) link China with Europe through the South China Sea and Indian Ocean; and (5) connect China with the South Pacific Ocean through the South China Sea. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It consists of two main components, the land-based "Silk Road Economic Belt" (SREB) and oceangoing "Maritime Silk Road" (MSR). Hence, statement 2 is correct. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), is also part of OBOR. Infrastructure projects under the CPEC will eventually link the Pakistani city of Gwadar in southwestern to China"s northwestern autonomous region of Xinjiang via a vast network of highways and railways. Hence, statement 3 is correct. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
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With reference to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2015, consider the following statements: It will apply to both companies and individuals. It proposes Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board to oversee insolvency resolution. It will help resolve the issue of bad loans of Public Sector Banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2015 seeks to create a unified framework for resolving insolvency and bankruptcy in India. Insolvency is a situation where individuals or organisations are unable to meet their financial obligations. The Code will apply to companies, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, individuals and any other body specified by the central government. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Code seeks to establish the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India, to oversee insolvency resolution in the country. The Board will have 10 members, including representatives from the central government and Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Code proposes two separate tribunals to adjudicate grievances related to insolvency, bankruptcy and liquidation of different entities under the law: (i) the National Company Law Tribunal will have jurisdiction over companies and limited liability partnerships, and (ii) the Debt Recovery Tribunal will have jurisdiction over individuals and partnership firms. Appeals against orders of these tribunals may be challenged before their respective Appellate Tribunals, and further before the Supreme Court. Once enacted, the Bankruptcy Bill will not only improve the ease of doing business in India, it will also ensure a better and faster debt recovery mechanism in the country The Code, if passed into law, can ensure quicker resolution of the bad loan problems dogging PSU banks. Bankruptcy laws accept that business ventures can fail and allow entrepreneurs to get a fresh start. The new code will matter to private sector employees too. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2015, consider the following statements: It will apply to both companies and individuals. It proposes Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board to oversee insolvency resolution. It will help resolve the issue of bad loans of Public Sector Banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2015 seeks to create a unified framework for resolving insolvency and bankruptcy in India. Insolvency is a situation where individuals or organisations are unable to meet their financial obligations. The Code will apply to companies, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, individuals and any other body specified by the central government. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Code seeks to establish the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India, to oversee insolvency resolution in the country. The Board will have 10 members, including representatives from the central government and Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Code proposes two separate tribunals to adjudicate grievances related to insolvency, bankruptcy and liquidation of different entities under the law: (i) the National Company Law Tribunal will have jurisdiction over companies and limited liability partnerships, and (ii) the Debt Recovery Tribunal will have jurisdiction over individuals and partnership firms. Appeals against orders of these tribunals may be challenged before their respective Appellate Tribunals, and further before the Supreme Court. Once enacted, the Bankruptcy Bill will not only improve the ease of doing business in India, it will also ensure a better and faster debt recovery mechanism in the country The Code, if passed into law, can ensure quicker resolution of the bad loan problems dogging PSU banks. Bankruptcy laws accept that business ventures can fail and allow entrepreneurs to get a fresh start. The new code will matter to private sector employees too. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following indicators are used to measure the "Standard of Living" dimension in the Multidimensional Poverty Index ? Cooking Fuel Sanitation (Toilet) Water Electricity Floor Assets ownership Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
|
2, 3 and 6
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Indicators along with conditions of deprivations: Standard of living: Electricity: not having access to electricity. Drinking water: not having access to clean drinking water or if the source of clean drinking water is located more than 30 minutes away by walking. Sanitation: not having access to improved sanitation or if improved, it is shared. Cooking fuel: using ‘dirty’ cooking fuel (dung, wood or charcoal). Floor: Having a home with a dirt, sand or dung floor. Assets: not having at least one asset related to access to information (radio, TV, telephone) and not having at least one asset related to mobility (bike, motorbike, car, truck, animal cart, motorboat) or at least one asset related to livelihood (refrigerator, arable land, livestock)
|
d
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following indicators are used to measure the "Standard of Living" dimension in the Multidimensional Poverty Index ? Cooking Fuel Sanitation (Toilet) Water Electricity Floor Assets ownership Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B: 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6##Option_C: 2, 3 and 6##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:d##Explaination:Indicators along with conditions of deprivations: Standard of living: Electricity: not having access to electricity. Drinking water: not having access to clean drinking water or if the source of clean drinking water is located more than 30 minutes away by walking. Sanitation: not having access to improved sanitation or if improved, it is shared. Cooking fuel: using ‘dirty’ cooking fuel (dung, wood or charcoal). Floor: Having a home with a dirt, sand or dung floor. Assets: not having at least one asset related to access to information (radio, TV, telephone) and not having at least one asset related to mobility (bike, motorbike, car, truck, animal cart, motorboat) or at least one asset related to livelihood (refrigerator, arable land, livestock)##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following decisions was/were taken at Indian National Congress session at Lahore in 1929? Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress. Congress Working Committee was authorized to launch the programme of civil disobedience. The decision to boycott Indian Statutory Commission was taken. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore session: The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted. Complete independence aws declared as the aim of the congress. Congress working committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were asked to resign their seats; January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence Day. The Indian Statutory Commission( Simon Commission) was appointed in 1927.
|
a
|
The Lahore Session, 1929
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following decisions was/were taken at Indian National Congress session at Lahore in 1929? Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress. Congress Working Committee was authorized to launch the programme of civil disobedience. The decision to boycott Indian Statutory Commission was taken. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore session: The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted. Complete independence aws declared as the aim of the congress. Congress working committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were asked to resign their seats; January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence Day. The Indian Statutory Commission( Simon Commission) was appointed in 1927.##Topic:The Lahore Session, 1929##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following BRICS countries is/are not the member of Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? Brazil Russia India China South Africa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
3 and 5 only
|
3 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multinational body concerned with reducing nuclear proliferation by controlling the export and re-transfer of materials that may be applicable to nuclear weapon development and by improving safeguards and protection on existing materials. In the given countries only India is not a member. There were talks of inclusion of India in NSG in the last meeting; however, India was not included. Hence C is the correct answer. Other members: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belarus, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic Of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine And United Kingdom.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following BRICS countries is/are not the member of Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? Brazil Russia India China South Africa Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multinational body concerned with reducing nuclear proliferation by controlling the export and re-transfer of materials that may be applicable to nuclear weapon development and by improving safeguards and protection on existing materials. In the given countries only India is not a member. There were talks of inclusion of India in NSG in the last meeting; however, India was not included. Hence C is the correct answer. Other members: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belarus, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic Of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine And United Kingdom.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With reference to Arya Samaj Movement, consider the following statements: It rejected monism. It condemned idol worship. It rejected the doctrine of "karma" (action) theory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The Arya Samaj Movement was an outcome of reaction to Western influences. Dayanand Saraswati, its founder, rejected Western ideas and sought to revive the ancient religion of the Aryans. He disregarded the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas and described them as the work of lesser men and responsible for the evil practices of idol worship and other superstitious beliefs in Hindu religion. Arya Samaj condemned idol worship and preached unity of Godhead. Monism is a theory or doctrine that denies the existence of a distinction or duality in a particular sphere, such as that between matter and mind, or God and the world. In rejecting monism, he held that God, soul and matter (prakriti) were distinct and eternal entities. Dayanand accepted the doctrine of karma, but rejected the theory of niyati (destiny). He explained that the world is a battlefield where every individual has to work out his salvation by right deeds.
|
b
|
Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Arya Samaj Movement, consider the following statements: It rejected monism. It condemned idol worship. It rejected the doctrine of "karma" (action) theory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Arya Samaj Movement was an outcome of reaction to Western influences. Dayanand Saraswati, its founder, rejected Western ideas and sought to revive the ancient religion of the Aryans. He disregarded the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas and described them as the work of lesser men and responsible for the evil practices of idol worship and other superstitious beliefs in Hindu religion. Arya Samaj condemned idol worship and preached unity of Godhead. Monism is a theory or doctrine that denies the existence of a distinction or duality in a particular sphere, such as that between matter and mind, or God and the world. In rejecting monism, he held that God, soul and matter (prakriti) were distinct and eternal entities. Dayanand accepted the doctrine of karma, but rejected the theory of niyati (destiny). He explained that the world is a battlefield where every individual has to work out his salvation by right deeds.##Topic:Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding "solifluction": It is a slow mass movement of water-saturated soil. It is particularly widespread in permafrost regions. Absence of deep-rooted vegetation aids solifluction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Solifluction invloves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated with water. It is particularly widespread in permafrost regions. Permafrost refers to the layer of groundwater that fills in the pore spaces of soil and rock that is permanently frozen. Because permafrost is impermeable to water, in summers, soil overlying it may become saturated and slide downslope under the pull of gravity. Soil that has been opened and weakened by frost action is most susceptible. In addition, absence of deep-rooted vegetation to bind the soil aids solifluction. Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Second order (Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & other landforms)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "solifluction": It is a slow mass movement of water-saturated soil. It is particularly widespread in permafrost regions. Absence of deep-rooted vegetation aids solifluction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Solifluction invloves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated with water. It is particularly widespread in permafrost regions. Permafrost refers to the layer of groundwater that fills in the pore spaces of soil and rock that is permanently frozen. Because permafrost is impermeable to water, in summers, soil overlying it may become saturated and slide downslope under the pull of gravity. Soil that has been opened and weakened by frost action is most susceptible. In addition, absence of deep-rooted vegetation to bind the soil aids solifluction. Hence, all the statements are correct.##Topic:Second order (Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & other landforms)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act: It enables banks to reduce their Non-Performing Assets It is effective against both secured and unsecured loans. NBFCs are also covered under the act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 aims to provide banks an effective tool for bad loans (NPA) recovery. In case of a loan default, banks can seize the securities (except agricultural land) without intervention of the court. Hence, statement 1 is correct. SARFAESI is applicable only for secured loans where bank can enforce the underlying security e.g. hypothecation, pledge and mortgages. However, if the asset in question is an unsecured asset, the bank would have to move the court to file civil case against the defaulters. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. NBFCs are not covered under the SARFAESI Act. In 2015 Budget speech, it was announced to give SARFAESI powers to NBFCs, but the in a recent decision in Kotak Mahindra Ltd. vs. Trupti Sanjay Mehta of Bombay 1, a division bench of the Bombay High Court has held that loans granted by a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) cannot be recovered by instituting proceedings under the SARFAESI Act, even if the loan is assigned by the NBFC to a bank or securitisation company. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
Initiatives taken by Govt
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act: It enables banks to reduce their Non-Performing Assets It is effective against both secured and unsecured loans. NBFCs are also covered under the act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 aims to provide banks an effective tool for bad loans (NPA) recovery. In case of a loan default, banks can seize the securities (except agricultural land) without intervention of the court. Hence, statement 1 is correct. SARFAESI is applicable only for secured loans where bank can enforce the underlying security e.g. hypothecation, pledge and mortgages. However, if the asset in question is an unsecured asset, the bank would have to move the court to file civil case against the defaulters. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. NBFCs are not covered under the SARFAESI Act. In 2015 Budget speech, it was announced to give SARFAESI powers to NBFCs, but the in a recent decision in Kotak Mahindra Ltd. vs. Trupti Sanjay Mehta of Bombay 1, a division bench of the Bombay High Court has held that loans granted by a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) cannot be recovered by instituting proceedings under the SARFAESI Act, even if the loan is assigned by the NBFC to a bank or securitisation company. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:Initiatives taken by Govt##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
The word "Political Justice" is mentioned in the Indian Constitution under
|
the Preamble only
|
the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
|
the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
|
the Preamble only
|
Article 38 (DPSP) in the Constitution Of India 1949 says: The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life Preamble of our constitution reads as follows: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, have solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION. Even though the objective of fundamental rights is to ensure political justice, the word 'political justice' does not find mention in this part.
|
b
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The word "Political Justice" is mentioned in the Indian Constitution under##Option_A: the Preamble only###Option_B: the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy##Option_C: the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy##Option_D: the Preamble only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 38 (DPSP) in the Constitution Of India 1949 says: The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life Preamble of our constitution reads as follows: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, have solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION. Even though the objective of fundamental rights is to ensure political justice, the word 'political justice' does not find mention in this part.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following can be referred to as "Transfer Payment"? Pensions Interest Free Loans Charitable Donations Prizes to Lottery Winners Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Transfer Payments are payments that are made without any good or service being received in return. Much public spending goes on transfers, such as pensions and welfare benefits. Private-sector transfers include charitable donations and prizes to lottery winners. In case of an interest free loan, loan still has to be paid and hence is not a transfer payment. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be referred to as "Transfer Payment"? Pensions Interest Free Loans Charitable Donations Prizes to Lottery Winners Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Transfer Payments are payments that are made without any good or service being received in return. Much public spending goes on transfers, such as pensions and welfare benefits. Private-sector transfers include charitable donations and prizes to lottery winners. In case of an interest free loan, loan still has to be paid and hence is not a transfer payment. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
One of the challenges confronting the Indian Economy is the Twin Balance Sheet (TBS) problem. What does it refer to?
|
The impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks and Private Sector Banks.
|
The impaired financial positions of the Private Sector Banks and NBFCs.
|
The impaired financial positions of the Private Sector Banks and some large corporate houses.
|
The impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks and Private Sector Banks.
|
One of the most critical short-term challenges confronting the Indian economy is the twin balance sheet (TBS) problem-the impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and some large corporate houses- also characterized as the 'Balance Sheet Syndrome with Indian characteristics'. The TBS problem is the major impediment to private investment, and thereby to a full-fledged economic recovery. The problems in the banking system have been growing for some time. Stressed assets (nonperforming loans plus restructured assets) have been rising ever since 2010, impinging on capital positions, even as the strictures of Basel III loom ever closer on the horizon. Banks have responded by limiting the flow of credit to the real economy so as to conserve capital, while investors have responded by pushing down bank valuations, especially over the past year. The shares of many banks now trade well below their book value. This balance sheet vulnerability is in some ways a mirror and derivative of similar frailties in the corporate sector, especially the large business houses that borrowed heavily during the boom years to invest in infrastructure and commodity-related businesses, such as steel. Corporate profits are low while debts are rising, forcing firms to cut investment to preserve cashflow.
|
d
|
Others
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:One of the challenges confronting the Indian Economy is the Twin Balance Sheet (TBS) problem. What does it refer to?##Option_A: The impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks and Private Sector Banks.###Option_B: The impaired financial positions of the Private Sector Banks and NBFCs.##Option_C: The impaired financial positions of the Private Sector Banks and some large corporate houses.##Option_D: The impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks and Private Sector Banks.##Answer:d##Explaination:One of the most critical short-term challenges confronting the Indian economy is the twin balance sheet (TBS) problem-the impaired financial positions of the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and some large corporate houses- also characterized as the 'Balance Sheet Syndrome with Indian characteristics'. The TBS problem is the major impediment to private investment, and thereby to a full-fledged economic recovery. The problems in the banking system have been growing for some time. Stressed assets (nonperforming loans plus restructured assets) have been rising ever since 2010, impinging on capital positions, even as the strictures of Basel III loom ever closer on the horizon. Banks have responded by limiting the flow of credit to the real economy so as to conserve capital, while investors have responded by pushing down bank valuations, especially over the past year. The shares of many banks now trade well below their book value. This balance sheet vulnerability is in some ways a mirror and derivative of similar frailties in the corporate sector, especially the large business houses that borrowed heavily during the boom years to invest in infrastructure and commodity-related businesses, such as steel. Corporate profits are low while debts are rising, forcing firms to cut investment to preserve cashflow.##Topic:Others##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
"Phamsana" buildings are related to which of the following architectural styles?
|
Nagara style
|
Vesara style
|
Dravida style
|
Nagara style
|
Phamsana is a major type of architectural form in the nagara style of temple architecture. The other two are latina and valabhi. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the centre of the building, unlike the latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phmasana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline.
|
a
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Phamsana" buildings are related to which of the following architectural styles?##Option_A:Nagara style###Option_B:Vesara style##Option_C:Dravida style##Option_D:Nagara style##Answer:a##Explaination:Phamsana is a major type of architectural form in the nagara style of temple architecture. The other two are latina and valabhi. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the centre of the building, unlike the latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phmasana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is an example of "Pigovian Tax"?
|
Tax on Diesel
|
Education Cess
|
Value Added Tax (VAT)
|
Tax on Diesel
|
Pigovian tax is a special tax that is often levied on companies that pollute the environment or create excess social costs, called negative externalities, through business practices. In a true market economy, a Pigovian tax is the most efficient and effective way to correct negative externalities. Tax on diesel, tax on tobacco products and alcohol are examples of Pigouvian Tax.
|
a
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is an example of "Pigovian Tax"?##Option_A:Tax on Diesel###Option_B:Education Cess##Option_C:Value Added Tax (VAT)##Option_D:Tax on Diesel##Answer:a##Explaination:Pigovian tax is a special tax that is often levied on companies that pollute the environment or create excess social costs, called negative externalities, through business practices. In a true market economy, a Pigovian tax is the most efficient and effective way to correct negative externalities. Tax on diesel, tax on tobacco products and alcohol are examples of Pigouvian Tax.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to SC/ST Act 2015, consider the following statements: Preventing an SC/ST from entering any place of worship is considered an offence. Special Courts will be established at the district level to try offences under the Act. The Act also focuses on the rehabilitation of the victims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Act prohibits the commission of offences against members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SCs and STs) and establishes special courts for the trial of such offences and the rehabilitation of victims. Hence, statement 3 is correct. New offences added under the Bill include: (a) garlanding with footwear, (b) compelling to dispose or carry human or animal carcasses, or do manual scavenging, (c) abusing SCs or STs by caste name in public, (d) attempting to promote feelings of ill-will against SCs or STs or disrespecting any deceased person held in high esteem, and (e) imposing or threatening a social or economic boycott. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Preventing SCs or STs from undertaking the following activities will be considered an offence: (a) using common property resources, (c) entering any place of worship that is open to the public and (d) entering an education or health institution. Establishments of Courts: The Act seeks to establish Exclusive Special Court and Special Court at the district level to try offences mentioned under this Act. Exclusive Public Prosecutor and Public Prosecutor will be appointed for every Exclusive Special Court and Special Court. Appeals of these courts shall lie with the high court, and must be disposed of within three months. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to SC/ST Act 2015, consider the following statements: Preventing an SC/ST from entering any place of worship is considered an offence. Special Courts will be established at the district level to try offences under the Act. The Act also focuses on the rehabilitation of the victims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Act prohibits the commission of offences against members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SCs and STs) and establishes special courts for the trial of such offences and the rehabilitation of victims. Hence, statement 3 is correct. New offences added under the Bill include: (a) garlanding with footwear, (b) compelling to dispose or carry human or animal carcasses, or do manual scavenging, (c) abusing SCs or STs by caste name in public, (d) attempting to promote feelings of ill-will against SCs or STs or disrespecting any deceased person held in high esteem, and (e) imposing or threatening a social or economic boycott. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Preventing SCs or STs from undertaking the following activities will be considered an offence: (a) using common property resources, (c) entering any place of worship that is open to the public and (d) entering an education or health institution. Establishments of Courts: The Act seeks to establish Exclusive Special Court and Special Court at the district level to try offences mentioned under this Act. Exclusive Public Prosecutor and Public Prosecutor will be appointed for every Exclusive Special Court and Special Court. Appeals of these courts shall lie with the high court, and must be disposed of within three months. Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Botany##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are not correct regarding Amending Act of 1781?
|
It exempted the actions of officials of the East India Company done in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
|
It provided that both Supreme Court and the Government take into consideration the religious and social customs of Indians while framing rules and enforcing decrees.
|
It provided that the rules and regulations made by the Governor-General-in-Council were to be registered with the Supreme Court.
|
It exempted the actions of officials of the East India Company done in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
|
The Amending Act of 1781 sought to remove the shortcomings of the Regulating Act, 1773: Following provisions were made under the act: The Act exempted the actions of the public servants of the Company done by them in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme court. The question of jurisdiction of Supreme court was settled. This court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta and was to administer the personal law of the defendent. The Act also provided that the Supreme Court must take into consideration and respect the religious and social customs and usages of the Indian while enforcing its decrees and processes. The government was also to keep these in view while making rules and regulations. The Act further provided that the appeals could be taken from the Provincial Courts to the Governor-Generor-in-Council that was to be the final Court of Appeal except in those civil cases which involved a sum of 5,000 pounds or more. It laid down that the rules and regulations made by the Governor-General in Council were not to be registered with the Supreme Court. Formerly, the Supreme Court under the Regulating Act registered and published such rules and regulations.
|
c
|
Regulating Acts and Charter Acts
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are not correct regarding Amending Act of 1781?##Option_A: It exempted the actions of officials of the East India Company done in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.###Option_B: It provided that both Supreme Court and the Government take into consideration the religious and social customs of Indians while framing rules and enforcing decrees.##Option_C: It provided that the rules and regulations made by the Governor-General-in-Council were to be registered with the Supreme Court.##Option_D: It exempted the actions of officials of the East India Company done in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Amending Act of 1781 sought to remove the shortcomings of the Regulating Act, 1773: Following provisions were made under the act: The Act exempted the actions of the public servants of the Company done by them in their official capacity from the jurisdiction of the Supreme court. The question of jurisdiction of Supreme court was settled. This court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta and was to administer the personal law of the defendent. The Act also provided that the Supreme Court must take into consideration and respect the religious and social customs and usages of the Indian while enforcing its decrees and processes. The government was also to keep these in view while making rules and regulations. The Act further provided that the appeals could be taken from the Provincial Courts to the Governor-Generor-in-Council that was to be the final Court of Appeal except in those civil cases which involved a sum of 5,000 pounds or more. It laid down that the rules and regulations made by the Governor-General in Council were not to be registered with the Supreme Court. Formerly, the Supreme Court under the Regulating Act registered and published such rules and regulations.##Topic:Regulating Acts and Charter Acts##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to Privilege Motion, consider the following statements: It can be moved by member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of parliamentary privilege. The prior consent of the Speaker is a must to raise the matter in the House as a question of privilege. The final decision on breach of privilege charges over a minister is taken by the Committee of Privileges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can "effectively discharge their functions". When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity. A member may, with the consent of the Speaker, raise a question involving a breach of privilege or contempt either of a member or of the House or of a Committee thereof. On receipt of the notice the matter is considered by the Speaker who may either give or withhold his consent to the raising of the question of privilege in the House. The Speaker, however, before deciding whether the matter proposed to be raised as a question of privilege requires the intervention of the House and whether he should give his consent to the raising of the matter in the House, may give an opportunity to the person incriminated to explain his case to the Speaker. The Committee of Privileges consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. Its function is to examine every question involving breach of privilege of the House or of the members of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or by the Speaker. It determines with reference to the facts of each case whether a breach of privilege is involved and makes suitable recommendations in its report. The matter on the question of breach of privilege may either be considered and decided by the House itself, or it may be referred by the House, on a motion made by any member, to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report. The usual practice is, however, to refer the matter of complaint to the Committee of Privileges, and the House defers its judgement until the report of the Committee has been presented to the House. However, in cases where the House finds that the matter is too trivial or that the offender has already tendered an adequate apology, the House itself disposes of the matter by deciding not to proceed further in the matter.
|
a
|
Power and Functions of the parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Privilege Motion, consider the following statements: It can be moved by member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of parliamentary privilege. The prior consent of the Speaker is a must to raise the matter in the House as a question of privilege. The final decision on breach of privilege charges over a minister is taken by the Committee of Privileges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can "effectively discharge their functions". When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity. A member may, with the consent of the Speaker, raise a question involving a breach of privilege or contempt either of a member or of the House or of a Committee thereof. On receipt of the notice the matter is considered by the Speaker who may either give or withhold his consent to the raising of the question of privilege in the House. The Speaker, however, before deciding whether the matter proposed to be raised as a question of privilege requires the intervention of the House and whether he should give his consent to the raising of the matter in the House, may give an opportunity to the person incriminated to explain his case to the Speaker. The Committee of Privileges consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. Its function is to examine every question involving breach of privilege of the House or of the members of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or by the Speaker. It determines with reference to the facts of each case whether a breach of privilege is involved and makes suitable recommendations in its report. The matter on the question of breach of privilege may either be considered and decided by the House itself, or it may be referred by the House, on a motion made by any member, to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report. The usual practice is, however, to refer the matter of complaint to the Committee of Privileges, and the House defers its judgement until the report of the Committee has been presented to the House. However, in cases where the House finds that the matter is too trivial or that the offender has already tendered an adequate apology, the House itself disposes of the matter by deciding not to proceed further in the matter.##Topic:Power and Functions of the parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding National emergency and President"s rule: National emergency affects fundamental rights of the citizens while it is not so in President’s rule. There is no maximum period prescribed for operation of national emergency while it is prescribed for operation of President"s rule. Lok Sabha can pass resolution for revocation of both the national emergency and the President"s rule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
National emergency affects fundamental rights of the citizens while it is not so in President’s rule. Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other. Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21). National Emergency can be continued indefinitely with the approval of Parliament for every six month. The President's Rule can operate for maximum period of three years. Thereafter, it must come to an end and the normal constitutional machinery must be restored in the state. Statement 3 is not correct because Lok Sabha can pass resolution for revocation of the national emergency only while the President’s rule can revoked by the President only on his own.
|
a
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National emergency and President"s rule: National emergency affects fundamental rights of the citizens while it is not so in President’s rule. There is no maximum period prescribed for operation of national emergency while it is prescribed for operation of President"s rule. Lok Sabha can pass resolution for revocation of both the national emergency and the President"s rule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:National emergency affects fundamental rights of the citizens while it is not so in President’s rule. Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other. Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21). National Emergency can be continued indefinitely with the approval of Parliament for every six month. The President's Rule can operate for maximum period of three years. Thereafter, it must come to an end and the normal constitutional machinery must be restored in the state. Statement 3 is not correct because Lok Sabha can pass resolution for revocation of the national emergency only while the President’s rule can revoked by the President only on his own.##Topic:Emergency Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Coal in India, consider the following statements: 98% of the total coal reserves in India belong to the Gondwana period. Indian coal is mainly lignite with the carbon content varying between 40 to 50 per cent. Non- coking coal comprises major share of Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Coal found in India belongs to two geological periods: the Gondwana and the Tertiary. Of the 113 coalfields found in the country, 80 belong to the Lower Gondwana period. These account for over 98% of the total reserves and 99% of the production of coal in India. The Gondwana coal has carbon content between 55 and 60 per cent, high volatile matter and ash contents. It is mainly bituminous and anthracite. While total coal reserves are estimated at 111.83 billion tonnes, total lignite reserves are estimated at 38.93 billion tonnes only. The coal is both coking and non-coking. However, non-coking coal comprises lion's share of Indian coal. The estimated reserve of coking coal is about 29.70 billion tonnes while non-coking coal reserves being 166.32 billion tonnes.
|
b
|
Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Coal in India, consider the following statements: 98% of the total coal reserves in India belong to the Gondwana period. Indian coal is mainly lignite with the carbon content varying between 40 to 50 per cent. Non- coking coal comprises major share of Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Coal found in India belongs to two geological periods: the Gondwana and the Tertiary. Of the 113 coalfields found in the country, 80 belong to the Lower Gondwana period. These account for over 98% of the total reserves and 99% of the production of coal in India. The Gondwana coal has carbon content between 55 and 60 per cent, high volatile matter and ash contents. It is mainly bituminous and anthracite. While total coal reserves are estimated at 111.83 billion tonnes, total lignite reserves are estimated at 38.93 billion tonnes only. The coal is both coking and non-coking. However, non-coking coal comprises lion's share of Indian coal. The estimated reserve of coking coal is about 29.70 billion tonnes while non-coking coal reserves being 166.32 billion tonnes. ##Topic:Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The "Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment" Report is released by which of the following organizations?
|
World Bank
|
United Nations Environment Programme
|
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
|
World Bank
|
'Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment' Report published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). The Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment Report, 2016 has pointed out that India and China have led the developing countries in investments made in renewable energy in 2015. India was also among the top 10 investing countries in renewable energy with its commitments rising 22% to USD 10.2 billion. For the first time commitments of emerging economies in solar, wind and other renewables’ capacity have surpassed those by wealthy nations.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The "Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment" Report is released by which of the following organizations?##Option_A: World Bank###Option_B: United Nations Environment Programme##Option_C: Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change##Option_D: World Bank##Answer:b##Explaination:'Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment' Report published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). The Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment Report, 2016 has pointed out that India and China have led the developing countries in investments made in renewable energy in 2015. India was also among the top 10 investing countries in renewable energy with its commitments rising 22% to USD 10.2 billion. For the first time commitments of emerging economies in solar, wind and other renewables’ capacity have surpassed those by wealthy nations.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are the possible impacts of devaluation of a currency in a country? It may help in combating inflation. It may lead to increase in aggregate demand for domestically produced goods. It may lead to improvement in current account balance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Devaluating a currency is decided by the government issuing the currency, and unlike depreciation, is not the result of non-governmental activities. Increased Aggregate Demand (AD) - Exports become cheaper and more competitive to foreign buyers. Higher exports relative to imports can increase aggregate demand as increased consumer spending on domestic goods and services. Inflation is more likely to occur because imports are more expensive causing cost push inflation, AD is increasing causing demand pull inflation and with exports becoming cheaper manufacturers may have less incentive to cut costs and become more efficient. Therefore over time, costs may increase. Improvement in the current account balance. With exports more competitive and imports more expensive, we may see higher exports and lower imports, which will reduce the current account deficit. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the possible impacts of devaluation of a currency in a country? It may help in combating inflation. It may lead to increase in aggregate demand for domestically produced goods. It may lead to improvement in current account balance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Devaluating a currency is decided by the government issuing the currency, and unlike depreciation, is not the result of non-governmental activities. Increased Aggregate Demand (AD) - Exports become cheaper and more competitive to foreign buyers. Higher exports relative to imports can increase aggregate demand as increased consumer spending on domestic goods and services. Inflation is more likely to occur because imports are more expensive causing cost push inflation, AD is increasing causing demand pull inflation and with exports becoming cheaper manufacturers may have less incentive to cut costs and become more efficient. Therefore over time, costs may increase. Improvement in the current account balance. With exports more competitive and imports more expensive, we may see higher exports and lower imports, which will reduce the current account deficit. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Lead Bank Scheme: Under the scheme, individual banks adopt particular districts for intensive development. It is applicable only to Public Sector Banks. It covers all the districts in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Lead Bank Scheme, introduced towards the end of 1969, envisages assignment of lead roles to individual banks (both in public sector and private sector) for the districts allotted to them for intensive development. All the districts in the country have been allotted to various banks. The lead bank acts as a leader for coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in the allotted districts to increase the flow of credit to agriculture, small-scale industries and other economic activities included in the priority sector in the rural and semi-urban areas, with the district being the basic unit in terms of geographical area. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Lead Bank Scheme: Under the scheme, individual banks adopt particular districts for intensive development. It is applicable only to Public Sector Banks. It covers all the districts in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Lead Bank Scheme, introduced towards the end of 1969, envisages assignment of lead roles to individual banks (both in public sector and private sector) for the districts allotted to them for intensive development. All the districts in the country have been allotted to various banks. The lead bank acts as a leader for coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in the allotted districts to increase the flow of credit to agriculture, small-scale industries and other economic activities included in the priority sector in the rural and semi-urban areas, with the district being the basic unit in terms of geographical area. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following crops: Mustard Cucumber Sunflower Cotton Watermelon Which of the above are Zaid crops?
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
2 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
In India there are three major cropping seasons: Rabi, Kharif and Zaid. The kharif cropping season is from July -October during the south-west monsoon and the Rabi cropping season is from October-March (winter). The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc. The Zaid season is in the short duration between Rabi and Kharif crop season, mainly from March to June. They require warm dry weather for major growth period and longer day length for flowering. The main produce are seasonal fruits and vegetables. Water melon, cucumber , muskmelon and sunflower are some examples.
|
b
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following crops: Mustard Cucumber Sunflower Cotton Watermelon Which of the above are Zaid crops?##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 2 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In India there are three major cropping seasons: Rabi, Kharif and Zaid. The kharif cropping season is from July -October during the south-west monsoon and the Rabi cropping season is from October-March (winter). The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc. The Zaid season is in the short duration between Rabi and Kharif crop season, mainly from March to June. They require warm dry weather for major growth period and longer day length for flowering. The main produce are seasonal fruits and vegetables. Water melon, cucumber , muskmelon and sunflower are some examples.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Traditionally the dance troop performing Kuchipudi consisted entirely of men, where the male artists would dress up and act out the female role in a drama. 2. Traditionally, Bharatnatyam was performed by solo female dancers called Devadasis. Which of the above statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Traditionally the dance troop performing Kuchipudi consisted entirely of men, where the male artists would dress up and act out the female role in a drama. 2. Traditionally, Bharatnatyam was performed by solo female dancers called Devadasis. Which of the above statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Autonomous District Councils, consider the following statements: It is mentioned in the fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution. There are both elected as well as nominated members in the council. The State Government makes rules for the constitution of the District Councils. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Autonomous District Councils is mentioned in the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. It is constituted for each autonomous district consisting of not more than thirty members, of whom not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor and the rest shall be elected on the basis of adult suffrage. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Governor shall make rules for the first constitution of District Councils and Regional Councils in consultation with the existing tribal Councils or other representative tribal organisations within the autonomous districts or regions concerned. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Autonomous District Councils, consider the following statements: It is mentioned in the fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution. There are both elected as well as nominated members in the council. The State Government makes rules for the constitution of the District Councils. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Autonomous District Councils is mentioned in the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. It is constituted for each autonomous district consisting of not more than thirty members, of whom not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor and the rest shall be elected on the basis of adult suffrage. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Governor shall make rules for the first constitution of District Councils and Regional Councils in consultation with the existing tribal Councils or other representative tribal organisations within the autonomous districts or regions concerned. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
An event, occurred in Bengal in 1750s, is known as "Black Hole Tragedy". It refers to:
|
Large scale movement of artisans towards agriculture due to ill policies of British.
|
The death of Indian prisoners of war captured by British after Battle of Plassey.
|
Incidences of multiple famines in Bengal within span of few years.
|
Large scale movement of artisans towards agriculture due to ill policies of British.
|
Black Hole Tragedy: Fort William was besieged on 15 June 1756 by Nawab Siraj- ud-daula. Following the normal practices of war, English at Calcutta which included some women and children were lodged in a prison room of the fort. The number of prisoners is given out as 146 and the dimensions of the prison as 18 feet long by 14 feet 10 inches wide. Out of 146 white prisoners were shut up on 20th June only 23 survived the next morning when the prison room was opened, the rest having trampled one other down for places near the window. The East India authorities used the episode as a propaganda device to malign the Nawab and won support of the British public opinion for the war of aggression.
|
d
|
Other Dimensions of freedom struggle
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:An event, occurred in Bengal in 1750s, is known as "Black Hole Tragedy". It refers to:##Option_A: Large scale movement of artisans towards agriculture due to ill policies of British.###Option_B: The death of Indian prisoners of war captured by British after Battle of Plassey.##Option_C: Incidences of multiple famines in Bengal within span of few years.##Option_D: Large scale movement of artisans towards agriculture due to ill policies of British.##Answer:d##Explaination:Black Hole Tragedy: Fort William was besieged on 15 June 1756 by Nawab Siraj- ud-daula. Following the normal practices of war, English at Calcutta which included some women and children were lodged in a prison room of the fort. The number of prisoners is given out as 146 and the dimensions of the prison as 18 feet long by 14 feet 10 inches wide. Out of 146 white prisoners were shut up on 20th June only 23 survived the next morning when the prison room was opened, the rest having trampled one other down for places near the window. The East India authorities used the episode as a propaganda device to malign the Nawab and won support of the British public opinion for the war of aggression.##Topic:Other Dimensions of freedom struggle##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: George Yule was the first European to preside a Congress session. William Wedderburn was the only European to preside the congress sessions twice. Henry Cotton was the last European to preside a session of congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
George Yule was the first European to preside Congress session at Allahabad in 1888. Hence, statement 1 is correct. William Wedderburn presided congress session twice at Bombay in 1889 and at Allahabad in 1910. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Henry Cotton presided congress session at Bombay in 1904. However, Annie Besant was the last European to preside a congress at Calcutta in 1917. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Alfred Webb presided the Madras session of congress in 1894.
|
a
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: George Yule was the first European to preside a Congress session. William Wedderburn was the only European to preside the congress sessions twice. Henry Cotton was the last European to preside a session of congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:George Yule was the first European to preside Congress session at Allahabad in 1888. Hence, statement 1 is correct. William Wedderburn presided congress session twice at Bombay in 1889 and at Allahabad in 1910. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Henry Cotton presided congress session at Bombay in 1904. However, Annie Besant was the last European to preside a congress at Calcutta in 1917. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Alfred Webb presided the Madras session of congress in 1894.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which of the statements given below is/are correct? No European countries are members of this group. Its mission is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries. It is headquartered at Vienna, Austria. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The mission of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its Member Countries and ensure the stabilization of oil markets in order to secure an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to producers and a fair return on capital for those investing in the petroleum industry. The Organization has a total of 13 Member Countries. They are: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Indonesia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Venezuela. Thus no European countries are member of OPEC. The headquarter of the Organisation is located at Austria, Vienna. All statements are correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which of the statements given below is/are correct? No European countries are members of this group. Its mission is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries. It is headquartered at Vienna, Austria. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The mission of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its Member Countries and ensure the stabilization of oil markets in order to secure an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to producers and a fair return on capital for those investing in the petroleum industry. The Organization has a total of 13 Member Countries. They are: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Indonesia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Venezuela. Thus no European countries are member of OPEC. The headquarter of the Organisation is located at Austria, Vienna. All statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
With reference to Maratha administration, consider the following statements: The Maratha law was influenced from Manu"s code of law. Mamlatdar performed revenue and judicial functions at the village level. The Peshwas employed a large number of Europeans in their army. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Maratha law was based on the old Sanskrit treatises on law like Mitakshara and Manu's Code and old customs. The influence of the ancient Hindu law-givers is more perceptible than in the judicial system of the Marathas. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The chief village officer was the Patel who performed judicial, revenue and other administrative functions. He served as a link between the village and the Peshwa's office. The Mamlatdar in the district set up was Judicial officer. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Peshwas employed large number of foreigners in their army. Challenged by European powers, superior in discipline and military skill, the Marathas tried to meet the enemy with the weapons of the enemy. To train their troops the Marathas employed English, French, Portuguese, German, Swiss, Italian, Armenian professionals in their army. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
|
b
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Maratha administration, consider the following statements: The Maratha law was influenced from Manu"s code of law. Mamlatdar performed revenue and judicial functions at the village level. The Peshwas employed a large number of Europeans in their army. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Maratha law was based on the old Sanskrit treatises on law like Mitakshara and Manu's Code and old customs. The influence of the ancient Hindu law-givers is more perceptible than in the judicial system of the Marathas. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The chief village officer was the Patel who performed judicial, revenue and other administrative functions. He served as a link between the village and the Peshwa's office. The Mamlatdar in the district set up was Judicial officer. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Peshwas employed large number of foreigners in their army. Challenged by European powers, superior in discipline and military skill, the Marathas tried to meet the enemy with the weapons of the enemy. To train their troops the Marathas employed English, French, Portuguese, German, Swiss, Italian, Armenian professionals in their army. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to Hotspots, consider the following statements: Hotspots are volcanic regions found along plate boundaries. Formation of Hawaiian island is a result of hotspot activity. Atlantic Ocean is devoid of any hotspot activity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Hot spot volcanism is unique because it does not occur at the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates, where all other volcanism occurs. Instead it occurs at abnormally hot centers known as mantle plumes. Hence, 1 statement is not correct. Hot spot seamounts that reach the surface of the water can create entire chains of islands, such as the U.S. state of Hawaii. It’s a series of island created by hot plume as it came above hotspot. Hence, 2 statement is correct. Major hot spots include the Iceland hot spot, under the island of Iceland in the North Atlantic; the Réunion hot spot, under the island of Réunion in the Indian Ocean; and the Afar hot spot, located under northeastern Ethiopia. Hence, 3 statement is not correct. Hot spots don't always create volcanoes that spew rivers of lava. Sometimes, the magma heats up groundwater under the Earth’s surface, which causes water and steam to erupt like a volcano. These eruptions are called geysers. A famous geyser is Old Faithful in Yellowstone National Park. When it erupts, the water is 95.6 degrees Celsius (204 degrees Fahrenheit) and can reach more than 55 meters (180 feet) high.
|
b
|
Internal forces & their impact Volcanoes,
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Hotspots, consider the following statements: Hotspots are volcanic regions found along plate boundaries. Formation of Hawaiian island is a result of hotspot activity. Atlantic Ocean is devoid of any hotspot activity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Hot spot volcanism is unique because it does not occur at the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates, where all other volcanism occurs. Instead it occurs at abnormally hot centers known as mantle plumes. Hence, 1 statement is not correct. Hot spot seamounts that reach the surface of the water can create entire chains of islands, such as the U.S. state of Hawaii. It’s a series of island created by hot plume as it came above hotspot. Hence, 2 statement is correct. Major hot spots include the Iceland hot spot, under the island of Iceland in the North Atlantic; the Réunion hot spot, under the island of Réunion in the Indian Ocean; and the Afar hot spot, located under northeastern Ethiopia. Hence, 3 statement is not correct. Hot spots don't always create volcanoes that spew rivers of lava. Sometimes, the magma heats up groundwater under the Earth’s surface, which causes water and steam to erupt like a volcano. These eruptions are called geysers. A famous geyser is Old Faithful in Yellowstone National Park. When it erupts, the water is 95.6 degrees Celsius (204 degrees Fahrenheit) and can reach more than 55 meters (180 feet) high.##Topic:Internal forces & their impact Volcanoes,##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following cesses have been newly introduced in Budget 2016 ? Krishi Kalyan Cess Infrastructure Cess Swachchh Bharat Cess Oil Industries Development Cess Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Krishi Kalyan Cess and Infrastructure Cess are the two new cesses introduced in the Budget 2016. Krishi Kalyan Cess - it will be imposed at 0.5% on all taxable services. Its proceeds would be exclusively used for financing initiatives relating to improvement of agriculture and welfare of farmers. Infrastructure Cess - to tackle the pollution and traffic situation in the country, the Union Finance Minister proposed infrastructure cess of 1% on small petrol, LPG, CNG cars, 2.5% on diesel cars of certain capacity and 4% on other higher engine capacity vehicles and SUVs. It was introduced in the budget 2016. Swachh Bharat Cess - A Swachh Brarat Cess at the rate of 0.5% is levied on all services which are presently liable to service tax. This will translate into a tax of 50 paisa on every one hundred rupees worth of taxable services. The proceeds from this cess will be exclusively used for Swachh Bharat initiatives. The Government has imposed this cess with effect from 15th November 2015. Oil Industries Development Cess - it is levied on oil producing companies since 1974. It will now be levied at the rate of 20 per cent, instead of specific rate of Rs 4,500 per metric tonne.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following cesses have been newly introduced in Budget 2016 ? Krishi Kalyan Cess Infrastructure Cess Swachchh Bharat Cess Oil Industries Development Cess Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Krishi Kalyan Cess and Infrastructure Cess are the two new cesses introduced in the Budget 2016. Krishi Kalyan Cess - it will be imposed at 0.5% on all taxable services. Its proceeds would be exclusively used for financing initiatives relating to improvement of agriculture and welfare of farmers. Infrastructure Cess - to tackle the pollution and traffic situation in the country, the Union Finance Minister proposed infrastructure cess of 1% on small petrol, LPG, CNG cars, 2.5% on diesel cars of certain capacity and 4% on other higher engine capacity vehicles and SUVs. It was introduced in the budget 2016. Swachh Bharat Cess - A Swachh Brarat Cess at the rate of 0.5% is levied on all services which are presently liable to service tax. This will translate into a tax of 50 paisa on every one hundred rupees worth of taxable services. The proceeds from this cess will be exclusively used for Swachh Bharat initiatives. The Government has imposed this cess with effect from 15th November 2015. Oil Industries Development Cess - it is levied on oil producing companies since 1974. It will now be levied at the rate of 20 per cent, instead of specific rate of Rs 4,500 per metric tonne.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
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