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54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | There are several answers here.
1. They quite probably already do so (eg if a claimed affiliation to a prestigious institution looks too good to be true, or unlikely given other information, or a reviewer says "hey, wait..."), but on an informal and ad-hoc basis, rather than doing it for the 99% of unremarkable cases.
2. They usually don't need to. Most submitters will provide an institutional email address, which is itself a fairly good indication that you are affiliated with that institution. (In the old days, you might have used letterhead - same sort of thing)
3. Beyond this, defining "credentials" would be complex. Would you need them to point to an institutional webpage with their name on? Submit a payslip? Produce a certificate of employment? (And what would you define as "counting" for affiliation?)
4. Finally (and most importantly) most of the publishing system is based on *trust*. The publisher trusts you to have actually carried out the experiments, and to have reported them honestly and comprehensively. They trust you not to have plagarised, or committed ethical breaches, or misrepresented other researchers. They may ask you to sign something to certify you've done all these things correctly, but they won't ask for evidence that someone else has verified you did them. If they're willing to take your word on the actual content of your science, why be particularly distrustful of your affiliation? | For the most part, your name and affiliation are not relevant to the content of a paper, which is what a journal is interested in. In the vast majority of cases an author would not have any incentive to lie about such things, so a journal would probably be willing to either take you at your word or only perform some basic checks, unless there were circumstances which aroused suspicion. The only incentive I can think of for an author to disguise their name or affiliation is if they wished to hide a conflict of interest or bad reputation, which I have seen happen. I expect it's pretty rare though. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | The crucial point is: Why would the author lie? Let's try some hypothetical answers:
1. **To bluff the editors and reviewers so that they think you're at a top place.** But reviewers will likely be from your field of study and realize that you lie. They would probably know it if you moved to a high-ranking institution.
2. **To make the paper look good in your CV.** This is a non-sense, you sell your affiliation in different ways than by listing them in your papers.
I can't think of any other reason. Given that the authors have no incentive to list a false affiliation, there is no reason to verify it.
Also, remember that some affiliations are very hard to verify, for instance if you stay somewhere for 6 months and want to list it as an affiliation, you possibly do not appear in any official lists. | Because academia used to be about science, scholarship, and the advancement of learning and predominantly practiced by folk who would not dream of fibbing about such matters.
Because editors have busy lives and they are not the police and journals are not official organs of the state.
Because universities would only care if something controversial or harmful etc was unauthorisedly stated under their aegis - but they do not mind getting the credit for solid work.
Because if some third party does object (hey! someone has read my paper, or at least the author list!), the affiliation is easily checked with the uni (a quick call, a visit to a web site) and the matter resolved.
Because there are various entirely valid reasons for a person to be affiliated with the uni for the purposes of the paper, even when they are not (no longer, not yet) at that uni right now. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | There are some examples of papers published under false names or pseudonyms. For example, [Student's t-distribution](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Student%27s_t-distribution#History_and_etymology). A possible scenario is a scientist working in a private institution which doesn't allow him to legally disclose his research. Just like books can be published under pen names, scientific articles can be written using pseudonyms (see [If I publish under a pseudonym, can I still take credit for my work?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/q/8603/6315)). If that's allowed, it makes no sense to check credentials, including affiliation. | Because academia used to be about science, scholarship, and the advancement of learning and predominantly practiced by folk who would not dream of fibbing about such matters.
Because editors have busy lives and they are not the police and journals are not official organs of the state.
Because universities would only care if something controversial or harmful etc was unauthorisedly stated under their aegis - but they do not mind getting the credit for solid work.
Because if some third party does object (hey! someone has read my paper, or at least the author list!), the affiliation is easily checked with the uni (a quick call, a visit to a web site) and the matter resolved.
Because there are various entirely valid reasons for a person to be affiliated with the uni for the purposes of the paper, even when they are not (no longer, not yet) at that uni right now. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | There are several answers here.
1. They quite probably already do so (eg if a claimed affiliation to a prestigious institution looks too good to be true, or unlikely given other information, or a reviewer says "hey, wait..."), but on an informal and ad-hoc basis, rather than doing it for the 99% of unremarkable cases.
2. They usually don't need to. Most submitters will provide an institutional email address, which is itself a fairly good indication that you are affiliated with that institution. (In the old days, you might have used letterhead - same sort of thing)
3. Beyond this, defining "credentials" would be complex. Would you need them to point to an institutional webpage with their name on? Submit a payslip? Produce a certificate of employment? (And what would you define as "counting" for affiliation?)
4. Finally (and most importantly) most of the publishing system is based on *trust*. The publisher trusts you to have actually carried out the experiments, and to have reported them honestly and comprehensively. They trust you not to have plagarised, or committed ethical breaches, or misrepresented other researchers. They may ask you to sign something to certify you've done all these things correctly, but they won't ask for evidence that someone else has verified you did them. If they're willing to take your word on the actual content of your science, why be particularly distrustful of your affiliation? | There are some examples of papers published under false names or pseudonyms. For example, [Student's t-distribution](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Student%27s_t-distribution#History_and_etymology). A possible scenario is a scientist working in a private institution which doesn't allow him to legally disclose his research. Just like books can be published under pen names, scientific articles can be written using pseudonyms (see [If I publish under a pseudonym, can I still take credit for my work?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/q/8603/6315)). If that's allowed, it makes no sense to check credentials, including affiliation. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | There are some examples of papers published under false names or pseudonyms. For example, [Student's t-distribution](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Student%27s_t-distribution#History_and_etymology). A possible scenario is a scientist working in a private institution which doesn't allow him to legally disclose his research. Just like books can be published under pen names, scientific articles can be written using pseudonyms (see [If I publish under a pseudonym, can I still take credit for my work?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/q/8603/6315)). If that's allowed, it makes no sense to check credentials, including affiliation. | For the most part, your name and affiliation are not relevant to the content of a paper, which is what a journal is interested in. In the vast majority of cases an author would not have any incentive to lie about such things, so a journal would probably be willing to either take you at your word or only perform some basic checks, unless there were circumstances which aroused suspicion. The only incentive I can think of for an author to disguise their name or affiliation is if they wished to hide a conflict of interest or bad reputation, which I have seen happen. I expect it's pretty rare though. |
662,543 | I realize this has been asked before and I have read as much as I could find on the topic but I still need help with this because there are so many different approaches and the ones I am trying aren't working.
So I have 2 routers, lets call them A and B. Both have a wireless feature and are active. A is in the basement and receives the internet. There is a TV on the ground floor that is connected to A through an ethernet wire. B is upstairs and gets the internet from A through an ethernet wire. Connected to B, is a desktop running Plex Media Server.
What I want to do is make sure devices connected to both routes can access the Plex Media Server.
So what I have read is that I should plug in the ethernet wire connecting B to a into a LAN port instead of the WAN port. After that I should turn off DHCP. I have tried this and B stops receiving internet. What am I doing wrong?
Another thing I have read is to use Router B in bridge mode but Router B is running openwrt and I have QoS on it so gaming/VoIP/browsing is unaffected by heavy downloading/uploading. I would prefer to keep this active. I realize it might be ineffective if a device in Router A is doing some hardcore downloading but all that stuff is done on Router B anyway so it doesn't matter. Router A can't get openwrt because it is a shitty one provided by Bell.
So, how do I proceed with this? | 2013/10/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/662543",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/265154/"
] | When you plug into a LAN port and turn off DHCP on B, you need to give it:
* an address on the A router (B's LAN address - probably by default they are both 192.168.1.1, given how common that is, and they can't be the same if they are on the same network.)
* Router A's address as the gateway address of its LAN settings (which probably defaults to itself.)
If not, it won't work.
If we assume a typical dreadful default setup (which may not match your actual default setup - feel free to post more details about what the settings actually are) you would have both routers set to 192.168.1.1 and both handing out 192.168.1.100-254 for DHCP (or 192.168.2-254 for the most dreadful default of DHCP.)
These settings can, and should, be changed.
Keeping the changes minimal:
* Leave A at 192.168.1.1
* Set A's DHCP to 192.168.1.100-150, unless you really expect more than 50 devices.
* Set B's LAN address to 192.168.1.10, and its gateway to 192.168.1.1
* turn off DHCP on B *or* let B hand out 151-200 (make sure it hands out 192.168.1.1 (or whatever A is set to) as the gateway, as well) | It seems that you are attempting to use two routers, when there really is only a need for one router and one switch. I understand that you enjoy the use of the QOS features on Router B. Router B sounds like it is a home router with a switch built in. I would place that in the basement connected to the ISP provided router. Where router B currently is, I would consider using a cheap switch like [http://www.amazon.com/TRENDnet-Unmanaged-GREENnet-Standard-1000Mbps/dp/B001QUA6RA/ref=sr\_1\_3?ie=UTF8&qid=1382236094&sr=8-3&keywords=switch](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B001QUA6RA)
This solution would provide one network where all devices are on the same subnet and would be able to easily see each other. I understand that this requires a 20 something dollar investment, but I think it would work much better for you. |
662,543 | I realize this has been asked before and I have read as much as I could find on the topic but I still need help with this because there are so many different approaches and the ones I am trying aren't working.
So I have 2 routers, lets call them A and B. Both have a wireless feature and are active. A is in the basement and receives the internet. There is a TV on the ground floor that is connected to A through an ethernet wire. B is upstairs and gets the internet from A through an ethernet wire. Connected to B, is a desktop running Plex Media Server.
What I want to do is make sure devices connected to both routes can access the Plex Media Server.
So what I have read is that I should plug in the ethernet wire connecting B to a into a LAN port instead of the WAN port. After that I should turn off DHCP. I have tried this and B stops receiving internet. What am I doing wrong?
Another thing I have read is to use Router B in bridge mode but Router B is running openwrt and I have QoS on it so gaming/VoIP/browsing is unaffected by heavy downloading/uploading. I would prefer to keep this active. I realize it might be ineffective if a device in Router A is doing some hardcore downloading but all that stuff is done on Router B anyway so it doesn't matter. Router A can't get openwrt because it is a shitty one provided by Bell.
So, how do I proceed with this? | 2013/10/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/662543",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/265154/"
] | When you plug into a LAN port and turn off DHCP on B, you need to give it:
* an address on the A router (B's LAN address - probably by default they are both 192.168.1.1, given how common that is, and they can't be the same if they are on the same network.)
* Router A's address as the gateway address of its LAN settings (which probably defaults to itself.)
If not, it won't work.
If we assume a typical dreadful default setup (which may not match your actual default setup - feel free to post more details about what the settings actually are) you would have both routers set to 192.168.1.1 and both handing out 192.168.1.100-254 for DHCP (or 192.168.2-254 for the most dreadful default of DHCP.)
These settings can, and should, be changed.
Keeping the changes minimal:
* Leave A at 192.168.1.1
* Set A's DHCP to 192.168.1.100-150, unless you really expect more than 50 devices.
* Set B's LAN address to 192.168.1.10, and its gateway to 192.168.1.1
* turn off DHCP on B *or* let B hand out 151-200 (make sure it hands out 192.168.1.1 (or whatever A is set to) as the gateway, as well) | You need to use Router B as your main and Router A has to be in dumb modem mode.
The way you do this is:
1) Router B <--> Router A Wan-to-Lan wired connection
2) insert PPPoE information in router "B". in which case, router B handles everything, PPPoE to the internet, and internal DHCP
optional: disable DHCP and Wifi On router A. no clients should directly connect to router/modem A. |
87,494 | I've been wondering about this for a while, but cannot find any articles on it. When your website contains a dead link to a resource that is either not there any more, or was never there to begin with, do you get penalized? As I see it, there are some different use cases, and I doubt they'll all be dealt with equally.
* Linking to other web pages
* Linking to resources (images, JS, CSS etc.)
* Dead links to use in JS (e.g. faulty Ajax calls)
* Dynamically added links to dead resources (e.g. when an Ajax call is made, and the content contains a link that is dead)
How do search engines deal with these issues? Are they neglected, and simply *not followed* or does the containing website get a penalty? | 2015/11/30 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/87494",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/21032/"
] | Google (tries to) think as a user. So imagine you're a user and click a link, expecting a result, but it turns out to be a dead link. Bummer.
Now translate that to a system useful for a bot: Some penalty if a dead link is found.
Now there are two options that can occur:
* Hard end; file not there, default server/apache message showing file not found with sloppy headers. This will give you the most penalty as it is also user unfriendly.
* Soft end; there is no file, but you configured your server in a way that you now display a page made by you, offering the user a better message with some options to continue (e.g.: /Home) | Having a 404 that the SE finds is not going to hurt you, it will eventually remove it from its index, but if you have a broken link pointing to a 404 then yes, it hurts seo.
If you have external links pointing to the missing links, you should 301 then to a relevant page. |
58,191,123 | For a project, I created a prerender docker image after modifying the codes from prerender.io. I use systemd to run the docker container. It works fine in local machine and on one of the QA server, but the same image only returns 504 on a new QA server.
I checked the service log on the new QA and it shows 'response not sent for '.
After comparing the log between the old and new QA, I noticed that both services were able to get the index.html and other UI files but the service on the new QA did not make further ajax calls to the back-end. Instead, after fetching the front-end files, it logs 'response not sent for ' and then 'page timed out ' and 'parse html timed out ' and finally 'got 504 in 65230ms for ' (after adjusted the page load timeout).
There is an Nginx proxy listening to 80 and 443. I checked the firewall settings and 80 and 443 are allowed.
I am seeking for advice on where I should check with the 'response not sent' and 504 message. | 2019/10/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/58191123",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5264254/"
] | This sounds like Chrome is just not working correctly in your Docker container. I assume it might not have the right permissions, the correct amount of RAM needed to load the page, or some other issue if it works locally and on the old QA server.
It looks like the Prerender server is working since it is requesting the page, timing out, and realizing the response was never sent back.
Could you try running the Prerender server on a different server that isn't using Docker to see if it works properly? | The container was assigned 128MB memory. After removing it, the service renders html as expected. |
3,481 | When animals evolve, they go into transitional states, when they were still in the process of evolving and haven't reached its complete change. There are bound to be organisms in the transitional state that die and get fossilized.
Are there any records of transition fossils being found? If not, does this disprove evolution? | 2011/05/21 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/3481",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/2382/"
] | Every fossil, and indeed every living creature, is transitional between an older form and a newer (or yet to come) form. We have a pretty good collection of fossils that show a transition from older forms to newer forms, such as the transition of large land mammals to whales. Scientists using the Theory of Evolution have even predicted a transitional form and where to find it. [This transitional fossil, tiktaalik, was found based on these predictions](http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn14952).
>
> More details have emerged about the anatomy of Tiktaalik, the "fishopod" that bridges the gap in evolutionary history between swimming fish and four-legged land-dwelling animals. The new findings bolster its position as a key transition or "missing link" fossil.
>
>
>
Keep in mind, POPULATIONS evolve, NOT individuals. That is a huge misunderstanding that creationists seem unwilling to learn. *There is no such thing as Cameron's crockoduck*. It never could exist, and the theory of evolution never said it would. Nor is there a fronkey, or any other such nonsense. I suggest you read these books ([Why Evolution is True](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0143116649) and [The Greatest Show on Earth](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1416594795)) to get an idea of what evolution actually states as opposed to the gross caricature you seem to have in your head.
[National Geographic published this article back in Feb, 2009](http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2009/02/photogalleries/darwin-birthday-evolution/index.html). It does a nice job listing some of the better documented transitions we have (although not the only 7, just some of the ones that would be impossible to ignore without willful mental gymnastics). They give you Tiktaalik (like I did), Archaeopteryx, Amphistium, Ambulocetus, Homo Ergaster, Hyracotherium/Eohippus, and Thrinaxodon. [And here is an even longer list of transitional fossils](http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/List_of_transitional_forms). [Or if you prefer, the wikipedia list](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_transitional_fossils).
[Michael Shermer](http://www.skeptic.com/) tackles this assertion straight on.
>
> 15. There are no transitional forms in the fossil record, anywhere, including and especially humans. The whole fossil record is an embarrassment to evolutionists. What about Neanderthals? These are all diseased skeletons-arthritis, rickets, etc., that create the bowed legs, brow ridge, and larger skeletal structure. Homo erectus, and Australopithecus, are just apes.
>
>
> Creationists like to quote Darwin's famous passage in the Origin of Species in which he asks: "*Why then is not every geological formation and every stratum full of such intermediate links? Geology assuredly does not reveal any such finely graduated organic chain; and this, perhaps, is the gravest objection which can be urged against my theory.*" One answer is that there are plenty of examples of transitional forms that have been discovered since Darwin's time. Just look in any paleontology text. A second answer was provided in 1972 by Eldredge and Gould when they demonstrated that gaps in the fossil record do not indicate missing data of slow and stately change; rather, it is evidence of rapid and episodic change. Using Mayr's "allopatric speciation," where small and unstable "founder" populations are isolated at the periphery of the larger populations's range, they show that the relatively rapid change in this smaller gene pool creates new species but leaves behind few, if any, fossils. The process of fossilization is rare and infrequent anyway. It is almost nonexistent during these times of rapid speciation. A lack of fossils is evidence for rapid change, not missing evidence for gradual evolution.
>
>
>
[Scientific American adds this](http://www.scientificamerican.com/article.cfm?id=15-answers-to-creationist) in an article debunking 15 unoriginal and poorly thought out false assertions by creationists:
>
> 13. Evolutionists cannot point to any transitional fossils--creatures that are half reptile and half bird, for instance.
>
>
> Actually, paleontologists know of many detailed examples of fossils intermediate in form between various taxonomic groups. One of the most famous fossils of all time is Archaeopteryx, which combines feathers and skeletal structures peculiar to birds with features of dinosaurs. A flock's worth of other feathered fossil species, some more avian and some less, has also been found. A sequence of fossils spans the evolution of modern horses from the tiny Eohippus. Whales had four-legged ancestors that walked on land, and creatures known as Ambulocetus and Rodhocetus helped to make that transition [see "The Mammals That Conquered the Seas," by Kate Wong; Scientific American, May]. Fossil seashells trace the evolution of various mollusks through millions of years. Perhaps 20 or more hominids (not all of them our ancestors) fill the gap between Lucy the australopithecine and modern humans.
>
>
> Creationists, though, dismiss these fossil studies. They argue that Archaeopteryx is not a missing link between reptiles and birds--it is just an extinct bird with reptilian features. They want evolutionists to produce a weird, chimeric monster that cannot be classified as belonging to any known group. Even if a creationist does accept a fossil as transitional between two species, he or she may then insist on seeing other fossils intermediate between it and the first two. These frustrating requests can proceed ad infinitum and place an unreasonable burden on the always incomplete fossil record.
>
>
> Nevertheless, evolutionists can cite further supportive evidence from molecular biology. All organisms share most of the same genes, but as evolution predicts, the structures of these genes and their products diverge among species, in keeping with their evolutionary relationships. Geneticists speak of the "molecular clock" that records the passage of time. These molecular data also show how various organisms are transitional within evolution.
>
>
>
[And because I also have this at my fingertips, here is Calilasseia's reply to this oft debunked canard](http://factsnotfantasy.com/creationists.php).
>
> (14) The "no transitional forms" canard.
>
>
> In order to deal with this one, I have the following to ask. Namely:
>
>
> (1) Have you ever studied comparative anatomy in detail, at a proper, accredited academic institution?
>
>
> (2) Do you understand rigorously what is meant by "species"?
>
>
> (3) Do you understand even the basics of inheritance and population genetics?
>
>
> (4) Do you understand the basics of the workings of meiosis?
>
>
> If you cannot answer "yes" to all four of the above, then you are in no position to erect this canard. And, canard it is, as anyone with a proper understanding of the dynamic nature of species will readily understand, a topic I have posted at length on in the past. Indeed, you only have to ask yourself the following question, "Am I identical to either of my parents?" in order to alight quickly upon why this canard IS a canard. Your own family photo album supplies you with the answer here. YOU are a "transitional form" between your parents and your offspring, should you have any offspring.
>
>
>
If you want a good visualization of evolution, maybe this picture will help you with some shorthand:
THAT is a logical process that seems to escape people who deny evolution. Again, [I suggest you read up more at one of the earlier links provided](http://factsnotfantasy.com/creationists.php).
**EDIT TO ADD**: And the ever popular goalpost moving, ThirdIdiot (or whatever name he's using) has asked for [transitional fossils in the line of human evolution](http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/homs/specimen.html#aethiopicus). If that link is not enough, there is the [Stephen Jay Gould list of links that may also provide a great deal of information](http://www.stephenjaygould.org/library.html). Of course, that assumes you are willing to let go of the wildly inaccurate caricature of evolution that you seem to be holding on to. | **Are there any records of transition fossils being found?**
Yes. Millions of them. Because every single fossil is a fossil of a 'transitional' form. Note that this term isn't even used in science in this sense. Because no 'transitional states' exist, every single animal is a transition between it's ancestors and it's offspring.
**If not, does this disprove evolution?**
If no fossil were found - and I am talking any fossil, because they are not divided into 'transitional' and 'final' ones - that wouldn't disprove evolution by any means. There are loads and loads of evidence in favor of theory of evolution besides the fossils, and there isn't even any alternate theory. As R. Dawkins said, fossils are just "nice bonus", they aren't really a necessary evidence for evolution. Genetics alone offers a plenty of evidence.
Sources:
* R. Dawkins. "The Selfish Gene"
* R. Dawkins. "The Blind Watchmaker" |
117,164 | Can Exchange 2007 auto-reply to an incoming message? I don't want to set it up in Outlook, I want the reply to be done on the server. | 2010/02/26 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/117164",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | Out of Office auto-replies are setup within Exchange, and reply to any incoming messages- not sure if that's what you are looking to do? | If you still have a public folder database mounted and online, there's a neat trick for utilizing a hidden public folder. It should be noted that while Outlook is used as part of the configuration process, Outlook is not what drives this, it's server side config like you are looking for.
1. Create the public folder and and remove visibility for default users (but make it visible for you so you can perform the below steps)
2. Mail enable the public folder, and give it the email address that you want senders to use
3. In Outlook, navigate to the public folder, right click and choose Properties.
4. On the General Tab, click folder Assistant
Here you can build the rules to auto-respond to the sender as well as forward on to a distro and then remove the item from the public folder. If you set up a response, it will launch an email template that is saved at the top of the information store for that public folder. |
10,310,562 | Document with attachments is opened in XPage. I want to edit attachment in associated program (say MS Word or Excel) and save changes back to Notes document.
I am aware of webdav configuration, but it have significant caveats: attachments are no longer stored within related document and security is controlled by ACL and not RN/AN.
How to edit document attachments in web client? Did any of you implemented such feature? | 2012/04/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10310562",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/206265/"
] | Given that it would have to be opened in another program such as word / excel I'm not sure if this is possible, for example if your looking to save edits then you would need to know when someone saves the doc in word /excel etc.
You can attach a file download control to a domino doc field, when you do this it will display all attachments, when in edit mode you can delete these attachments, I think the only way this would work would be to enable them to delete / re upload, which is a fairly common thing to do on most web applications I would think | The tool we use, with recent improvements for XPages, is Swing: <http://www.swingsoftware.com/>
We checked many others, without success. |
10,310,562 | Document with attachments is opened in XPage. I want to edit attachment in associated program (say MS Word or Excel) and save changes back to Notes document.
I am aware of webdav configuration, but it have significant caveats: attachments are no longer stored within related document and security is controlled by ACL and not RN/AN.
How to edit document attachments in web client? Did any of you implemented such feature? | 2012/04/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10310562",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/206265/"
] | WebDAV is the way to go. There's an implementation that can read/write DominonAttachments. Soon on OpenNTF | Given that it would have to be opened in another program such as word / excel I'm not sure if this is possible, for example if your looking to save edits then you would need to know when someone saves the doc in word /excel etc.
You can attach a file download control to a domino doc field, when you do this it will display all attachments, when in edit mode you can delete these attachments, I think the only way this would work would be to enable them to delete / re upload, which is a fairly common thing to do on most web applications I would think |
10,310,562 | Document with attachments is opened in XPage. I want to edit attachment in associated program (say MS Word or Excel) and save changes back to Notes document.
I am aware of webdav configuration, but it have significant caveats: attachments are no longer stored within related document and security is controlled by ACL and not RN/AN.
How to edit document attachments in web client? Did any of you implemented such feature? | 2012/04/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10310562",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/206265/"
] | WebDAV is the way to go. There's an implementation that can read/write DominonAttachments. Soon on OpenNTF | The tool we use, with recent improvements for XPages, is Swing: <http://www.swingsoftware.com/>
We checked many others, without success. |
144,527 | LOC = lines of code
KLOC = Thousand lines of code
Fault (or defect) density = number of reported bugs per line of code.
Software artifact = function, class, module
Reading research papers on fault density and fault prediction, it seems a bit hard to get an overview, because there are lots of studies, and lots of different technologies used, both statistics and machine learning.
The rational behind a correlation between fault density and LOC is that with higher LOC of a software artifact comes higher complexity, and it gets harder for the programmer to change the code; changeability decreases, which leads to more bugs. Note that this is not a question about a correlation between fault density and complexity, even if there might be such a connection too.
I guess what I'm looking for is a study or a book that has an overview over current research in this topic. :)
Here's one study claiming there is such a correlation: <https://www.gwern.net/docs/dual-n-back/1997-hatton.pdf>
Here's another one claiming there isn't: <http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.452.8933&rep=rep1&type=pdf>
Edit: Google Scholar has an option to search for only review articles, so I'll dig into this. Will post anything interesting.
Edit 2: One review article: <https://media.neliti.com/media/publications/90270-EN-a-systematic-literature-review-of-softwa.pdf>
>
> However, even though various defect prediction methods
> have been proposed, but none has been proven to be
> consistently accurate (Challagulla et al., 2005) (Lessmann et
> al., 2008). The accurate and reliable classification algorithm to
> build a better prediction model is an open issue in software defect prediction. There is a need for an accurate defect prediction framework which has to be more robust to noise and
> other problems associated with on datasets
>
>
>
And another: <https://romisatriawahono.net/lecture/rm/survey/software%20engineering/Software%20Fault%20Defect%20Prediction/Radjenovic%20-%20Software%20fault%20prediction%20metrics%20-%202013.pdf> | 2021/10/06 | [
"https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/144527",
"https://cs.stackexchange.com",
"https://cs.stackexchange.com/users/37498/"
] | Not an easy question to answer, because LOC can mean many different things:
* A large function
* A large class (or module in FP)
* A large library
* A large file
* A large code-base
In some of these cases (function and class), LOC can be a proxy for complexity [citation needed]. You can also normalize complexity based on size.
The [Software fault prediction metrics: A systematic literature review](https://romisatriawahono.net/lecture/rm/survey/software%20engineering/Software%20Fault%20Defect%20Prediction/Radjenovic%20-%20Software%20fault%20prediction%20metrics%20-%202013.pdf) paper contains a section on LOC in fault prediction research, which I will quote fully below. The conclusion is in the last sentence:
>
> the overall effectiveness of the LOC metric was estimated as moderate
>
>
>
The comparison to other metrics is the interesting part, however.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pMU1u.png)
(A description of the different metrics is available in appendix C.)
The first metrics are complexity measures that work on all languages. The middle part is metrics only applicable to object-oriented code. The last part is metrics that relate to process and change in the code.
It's interesting to note the effectiveness of metrics in the pre- and post-release scenarios. LOC is noted as being more predictive before the release.
Full section:
>
> 4.3.1. RQ2.1: Are size metrics useful for fault prediction?
>
>
> The simplest, the easiest to extract and the most frequently
> used metric, i.e. LOC, is still being discussed to this day. There
> are many studies investigating the relationship between lines of
> code and number of faults. The simplest studies have ranked the
> modules according to their size to find out whether a small number
> of large modules are responsible for a large proportion of faults.
> E.g. in Zhang [151] three versions of Eclipse were used to investigate pre-release and post-release ranking ability of LOC at the package level. This study showed that 20% of the largest modules
> were responsible for 51–63% of the defects.
>
>
> Ostrand et al. [130] used the negative binomial regression model on two large industrial systems. In the simple model, using only
> LOC, the percentage of faults, contained in the 20% of the files that
> were the largest in terms of the number of lines of code, was on
> average 73% and 74% for the two systems. In a richer model, where
> other metrics were used, the top-20% of files ordered by fault count
> contained, on average, 59% of the lines of code and 83% of the
> faults. The top-20% of files contained many large files, because
> the model predicted a large number of faults in large files. In analyzing which files were likely to contain the largest number of
> faults relative to their size, they used the model’s predicted number of faults and the size of each file to compute a predicted fault
> density. The top-20% of files contained, on average, only 25% of
> the lines of code and 62% of the faults. Sorting files by predicted
> fault density was not as effective as sorting files according to fault
> count at finding large numbers of faults, but it does result in considerably less code in the end.
>
>
> Fenton and Ohlsson [84] investigated, among many hypotheses,
> the Pareto principle [28] and the relationship between size metrics
> and the number of faults. They used a graphical technique called
> the Alberg diagram [127] and two versions of a telecommunication
> software. As independent variables LOC, McCabe’s cyclomatic complexity and SigFF metrics were used. In pre-release 20% of the modules were responsible for nearly 60% of the faults and contained
> just 30% of the code. A replicated study by Andersson and Runeson
> [59] found an even larger proportion of faults, in a smaller proportion of the modules. This result is also in agreement with
> [130,151]
>
>
> Fenton and Ohlsson also tested the hypothesis of whether size
> metrics (such as LOC) are good predictors of pre-release and
> post-release faults in a module and whether they are good predictors of a module’s pre-release and post-release fault density. They
> showed that size metrics (such as LOC) are moderate predictors of
> the number of pre-release faults in a module, although they do not
> predict the number of post-release failures in a module, nor can
> they predict a module’s fault density. Even though the hypothesis
> was rejected, the authors concluded that LOC is quite good at ranking the most fault-prone modules. Andersson and Runeson, on the
> other hand, got varying results. The first two projects did not indicate any particularly strong ranking ability for LOC. However, in
> the third project, 20% of the largest modules were responsible for
> 57% of all the faults
>
>
> Koru et al. [35,104] reported that defect proneness increases
> with size, but at a slower rate. This makes smaller modules proportionally more problematic compared with larger ones
>
>
> In [34,59], it is noted that relating size metrics to fault density
> may be misleading, as there will always be a negative correlation
> between size metrics and fault density, because of the functional
> relationship between the variables [47]. However, no studies using
> fault density as dependent variable were excluded from the review
> because we wanted to represent the entire research field. In this
> section, studies using fault density are compared with LOC size
> ranking ability to assess the LOC predictive capabilities
>
>
> To some extent, size correlates with the number of faults
> [130,151,154,112,83,78], but there is no strong evidence that size
> metrics, like LOC, are a good indicator of faults [84,59]. A strong
> correlation was observed between the size metric LOC and fault
> proneness in pre-release and small studies, while in post-release
> and large studies, only a weak association was found (Table 5). This
> may indicate that studies with lower validity (smaller data sets)
> gave greater significance to the LOC metric than studies with high-
> er validity (larger data sets). Therefore, the reliability of the studies in terms of study quality assessment was taken into account and the overall effectiveness of the LOC metric was estimated as
> moderate.
>
>
>
So there you go. :) | There are several factors that affect both number of faults and lines of code, but sometimes in opposite directions.
You can increase the number of lines of code by writing code that is simple, clear, contains self-tests, is well-documented, handles border cases correctly etc, and this will be more code with fewer bugs.
You can increase the number of lines of code by not understanding the problem and writing overly complicated code that just works by coincidence in many cases, and any bug found creates changes that make the code even bigger and worse. So you will have more code with more bugs.
And keep in mind that we can never correlate between code size and errors - we can only correlate between code size and *detected* errors! Which are also related in a strange way. More errors will produce more detected errors. But more detected errors will lead to errors getting fixed and therefore the number of errors going down. |
31,166,080 | Is it possible to upload files to a web browser application (such as Dropbox) directly from a document management system (DMS) such as iManage (aka Worksite, Filesite, HP Autonomy)?
If not, what are the best ways of getting around this and enabling simple upload of files from the DMS to web applications? | 2015/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31166080",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5070210/"
] | If you are trying to share documents via a dropbox like solution, you might want t consider LinkSite. It is more manageable, which is quite a positive aspect since you will probably working in a legal environment.
More info can be found here: <http://www.irisecm.com/hp-linksite-the-secure-and-enterprise-alternative-to-dropbox/>
Best regards,
Daniel | By the way, LinkSite is rebranded and now called iManage Share.
If you are looking for a seamlessly integrated third party application you might want to consider Litéra Sync. |
145,362 | I am struggling to develop a general design that could better handle how to present 4k filters to users on a website, but not looking for e-commerce designs as the filters will also contain many filtering levels within.
The idea so far is to display all the filters in a left-side panel and the results would display to the right of it. But the left side pannel might end up being super long -- which is likely too overwhelming for users.
Any ideas? | 2023/01/16 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/145362",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/164186/"
] | There isn't an industry-wide agreed convention for what it is called, but I would call it a **Contextual search**.
On the [Carbon design system documentation](https://carbondesignsystem.com/components/search/usage/#formatting) by IBM, it's just called a Search.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1PqYb.png)
I wouldn't call it a filter search, as this screenshot below from [Ant design system](https://ant.design/components/table#components-table-demo-filter-search) explains what a filter search is *(at least to them)*, and this behavior isn't what you described.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/svgKw.png) | It's just a search.
When you use Google you are filtering a huge list of data relating to websites so that it only shows the results that are relevant to you.
The main difference between a 'modern' search and a filter is that a search tends to be a little more intelligent: you searched for "car" so it will return results for "automobile" too. whereas a filter will simply carve off anything that doesn't match the exact term.
Not all search routines are capable of this distinction so it's best to check with your engineers about the capabilities for 'fuzzy' searches before you commit to a UI choice involving a search. |
145,362 | I am struggling to develop a general design that could better handle how to present 4k filters to users on a website, but not looking for e-commerce designs as the filters will also contain many filtering levels within.
The idea so far is to display all the filters in a left-side panel and the results would display to the right of it. But the left side pannel might end up being super long -- which is likely too overwhelming for users.
Any ideas? | 2023/01/16 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/145362",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/164186/"
] | There isn't an industry-wide agreed convention for what it is called, but I would call it a **Contextual search**.
On the [Carbon design system documentation](https://carbondesignsystem.com/components/search/usage/#formatting) by IBM, it's just called a Search.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1PqYb.png)
I wouldn't call it a filter search, as this screenshot below from [Ant design system](https://ant.design/components/table#components-table-demo-filter-search) explains what a filter search is *(at least to them)*, and this behavior isn't what you described.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/svgKw.png) | search within results
or
add additional filters |
10,926,383 | Can anyone tell me how to open a mms:// live media stream using C/C++. I am trying to do this for days. but can not find any book regarding these information.
Please suggest any book or any helpful sites. or if you know how to do this please teach me.
Thank you
A test stream
mms://a1926.l1856941925.c18569.g.lm.akamaistream.net/D/1926/18569/v0001/reflector:41925
Stream is NASATV provided by akamai. | 2012/06/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10926383",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1431184/"
] | In VLC media player there is a pretty good example on solving this issue. Download the sources from <http://download.videolan.org/pub/videolan/vlc/2.0.1/> (it's the .xz file) and then just get the source from .\vlc-2.0.1\modules\access\mms\ (if you're on windows 7z opens xz files). The mmstu.c file is your source for information.
More info can be found at: <http://get.to/sdp> (address taken from mms.c)
Since this is Microsoft specific protocol, further reading can be found at <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc251059%28v=prot.10%29> | Check live555 project, that would do the job. |
216,674 | Is there a single word in English to describe someone who is too worried about their health and even thinks they are sick, thus, taking frequent clinical tests or taking too much predictive medication,etc. | 2014/12/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216674",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/63425/"
] | The word is **hypochondriac** and they suffer from *hypochondria.*
>
> *noun*
>
> A person who is abnormally anxious about their health.
>
>
> [[ODO]](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/hypochondriac)
>
>
>
ODO also gives the explanation of using *hypo-* ("under") rather than *hyper-* ("over") which one might expect if someone is overly anxious about something:
>
> late Middle English: via late Latin from Greek *hupokhondria,* denoting the soft body area below the ribs, from *hupo* 'under' + *khondros* 'sternal cartilage'. Melancholy was originally thought to arise from the liver, gall bladder, spleen, etc..
>
>
> | Hypochondriac would seem to fit the bill. |
216,674 | Is there a single word in English to describe someone who is too worried about their health and even thinks they are sick, thus, taking frequent clinical tests or taking too much predictive medication,etc. | 2014/12/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216674",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/63425/"
] | Hypochondriac would seem to fit the bill. | You call them a hypochondriac. A similar term is **[valetudinarian](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/valetudinarian)**:
>
> A person who is unduly anxious about their health.
>
>
>
It usually refers to people who really are frail but fuss about it so obsessively that they avoid actually getting sick. [The Free Dictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/valetudinarian) puts it better:
>
> A sickly or weak person, especially one who is constantly and morbidly
> concerned with his or her health.
>
>
>
If you wanted to give a hypochondriac the benefit of the doubt, or just humour them, this would be a less pejorative word. See [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/weirdwords/ww-val1.htm) for a good description with examples. In Jane Austen's novel [Emma](http://www.pemberley.com/etext/Emma/chapter3.htm), the heroine's father Mr Woodhouse is a classic valetudinarian.
The word is from Latin *valetudinarius* = in ill health. |
216,674 | Is there a single word in English to describe someone who is too worried about their health and even thinks they are sick, thus, taking frequent clinical tests or taking too much predictive medication,etc. | 2014/12/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216674",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/63425/"
] | The word is **hypochondriac** and they suffer from *hypochondria.*
>
> *noun*
>
> A person who is abnormally anxious about their health.
>
>
> [[ODO]](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/hypochondriac)
>
>
>
ODO also gives the explanation of using *hypo-* ("under") rather than *hyper-* ("over") which one might expect if someone is overly anxious about something:
>
> late Middle English: via late Latin from Greek *hupokhondria,* denoting the soft body area below the ribs, from *hupo* 'under' + *khondros* 'sternal cartilage'. Melancholy was originally thought to arise from the liver, gall bladder, spleen, etc..
>
>
> | You call them a hypochondriac. A similar term is **[valetudinarian](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/valetudinarian)**:
>
> A person who is unduly anxious about their health.
>
>
>
It usually refers to people who really are frail but fuss about it so obsessively that they avoid actually getting sick. [The Free Dictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/valetudinarian) puts it better:
>
> A sickly or weak person, especially one who is constantly and morbidly
> concerned with his or her health.
>
>
>
If you wanted to give a hypochondriac the benefit of the doubt, or just humour them, this would be a less pejorative word. See [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/weirdwords/ww-val1.htm) for a good description with examples. In Jane Austen's novel [Emma](http://www.pemberley.com/etext/Emma/chapter3.htm), the heroine's father Mr Woodhouse is a classic valetudinarian.
The word is from Latin *valetudinarius* = in ill health. |
120,147 | I am reading some lecture notes and in one paragraph there is the following motivation: "The best way to study spaces with a structure is usually to look at the maps between them preserving structure (linear maps, continuous maps differentiable maps). An important special case is usually the functions to the ground field."
Why is it a good idea to study a space with structure by looking at maps that preserve this structure? It seems to me as if one achieves not much by going from one "copy" of a structured space to another copy. | 2012/03/14 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/120147",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/26453/"
] | It is hard to answer this question because it is hard to say what mathematicians mean when they talk about *structure*. Various attempts to define structures and their ultimate failure are chronicled in the book [Modern Algebra and the Rise of Mathematical Structures](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/3764370025) by Leo Corry.
Instead of trying to give an intrinsic definition of structure, we can look at what we understand by and what we do with structures in mathematics. Intuitively, structure is something deep that goes beyond mere surface properties of an object. Different mathematical objects are structurally the same, the differences are superficial.
An indirect way of delinating structure is to define what it means to change the superficial properties of an object without actually changing the structure. As a simple example, take the process of adding up "objects". You can add up three apples and two apples by getting a bowl containing three apples and a bowl containing two apples. You "add" them by pouring the content of one bowl into the other bowl. Now apples are very concrete objects, but there is structure behind the process. There are numbers. You see that by replacing each apple in each bowl by an orange. Apparently, you can "add" oranges the same way you can add apples. When you replace each apple by an orange, you keep their number the same. And this abstraction process is essetially what we do when we use numbers in the real world. The concept of (counting) numbers is basically that there is some deep structure that keeps the same when we replace objects. Changing apples to oranges to stones to sheep to... are all transformations that do not change the underlying struture.
An important step in geometry was the insight that one can define geometric structures by taking a class of transformations of a geometric object and declaring that structure is what is not changed by the transformations, it is what is invariant. This is essentially the gist of the Erlangen program in geometry, [developed](http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/erlangen/) by Felix Klein and a huge step in the history of structural mathematics. This shows the use of replacing some object by an equivalent one. What we learn is that the process of replacing the objects doesn't change the structure and if we know all these admissible ways of replacing objects, we know the structure.
So far, we have considered only reversible changes or transformations. But there are good reasons to allow for one-way transformations. The reason that they are useful is essentially the reason maps are useful. If we consider a country to be a map of itself, at least as useful as an [actual 1:1-map of the country](http://www.idb.arch.ethz.ch/files/borges_on_exactitude_in_science_1.pdf), we can replace the country by a simpler map that is sufficient for, say, a taxi driver. We can use the same map to draw an even simpler map that is merely good for getting from the railwaystation to the grand hotel. None of these processes are reversible, we cannot use the simple map to draw the bigger map without getting the needed additional information- or structure- from somewhere. So we can see these one-way transformations as ways to preserve parts of structure.
**Further Reading:**
[When is one thing equal to some other thing?](http://www.math.harvard.edu/~mazur/preprints/when_is_one.pdf) by Barry Mazur gives a detailed motivation of the abstraction process underlying category theory and adds a lot of depth.
[A Hundred Years of Numbers. An Historical Introduction to Measurement Theory 1887-1990](http://www.lps.uci.edu/~johnsonk/CLASSES/FoundationsOfMeasurement/Diez.AnHistoricalIntroductionToMeasurementTheoryPartOne.pdf) by José Diez (part 2 [here](http://www.lps.uci.edu/~johnsonk/CLASSES/FoundationsOfMeasurement/Diez.AnHistoricalIntroductionToMeasurementTheoryPartTwo.pdf)) shows how the structural ideas matter when we want to formalize what it means to measure something in science. | There is no short and simple answer, as has already been mentioned in the comments. It is a general change of perspective that has happened during the 20th century. I think if you had asked a mathematician around 1900 what math is all about, he/she would have said: "There are equations that we have to solve" (linear or polynomial equations, differential and integral equations etc.).
Then around 1950 you would have met more and more people saying "there are spaces with a certain structure and maps betweeen them". And today more and more people would add "...which together are called categories".
It's essentially a shift towards a higher abstraction, towards studying Banach spaces instead of bunches of concrete spaces that happen to have an isomorphic Banach space structure, or studying an abstract group instead of a bunch of isomorphic representations etc.
I'm certain all of this will become clearer after a few years of study. |
114,416 | I would like to install debian on my laptop. It had 3GB of RAM and an Intel Core2 Duo T5450 @ 1.67GHz CPU.
I would like to download the "netinst" version of the Debian installer from the link below but I'm unsure as to which version to download.
<http://www.debian.org/devel/debian-installer/>
I think the choice is between [i386][ia64]...
Can anyone help?
Thanks | 2010/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/114416",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | AMD64 unless you have requirements that limit you to 32bit. | First of all ia64 is completely different architecture and you can choose only between i386 and amd64.
Furthermore if you choose 64bit version over 32 you should remember that some software is distributed only in 32bit binary format. However running it is usually possible it could be problematic, for example you'll have to keep bot 32 and 64 bit libraries. For me Xilinx ISE WebPack was an app which made me switch back to 32 bit distributions. |
114,416 | I would like to install debian on my laptop. It had 3GB of RAM and an Intel Core2 Duo T5450 @ 1.67GHz CPU.
I would like to download the "netinst" version of the Debian installer from the link below but I'm unsure as to which version to download.
<http://www.debian.org/devel/debian-installer/>
I think the choice is between [i386][ia64]...
Can anyone help?
Thanks | 2010/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/114416",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | 64 Bit Definitely (AMD64)...
since your processor supports it: <http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=30787&processor=T5450&spec-codes=SLA4F>
but be aware, not all applications work on the 64 bit distro... so make sure the application you need to use it for supports 64 bit or at least the 32 bit workaround...
Search for "Running 32-bit Applications on 64-bit Debian GNU/Linux" on debian-administration.org for more info or reference.
(couldn't post more than a link since my rep. is still low... ) | First of all ia64 is completely different architecture and you can choose only between i386 and amd64.
Furthermore if you choose 64bit version over 32 you should remember that some software is distributed only in 32bit binary format. However running it is usually possible it could be problematic, for example you'll have to keep bot 32 and 64 bit libraries. For me Xilinx ISE WebPack was an app which made me switch back to 32 bit distributions. |
10,468,772 | Is there any way to implement a multi-threading execution in Javascript.
I am implementing a pagination in my application, with a target of the minimum waiting time for the user. Neither I want all the data to be brought to the client-side in one go, nor do I want to make a server as well as a DB hit on every "next/previous" button clicked.
So I want the browser to create a request and update my data list, while the front end user has not reached the last page.
If there is anyone who has implemented this, then please suggest me. | 2012/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10468772",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/961125/"
] | You can use setInterval of and setTimeOut function to gain multi-threaded effect but it is not true multi-threading you can read nice discussion [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4037738/does-this-behavior-of-setinterval-imply-multithreading-behavior-in-javascript) | You can use timers (setTimeout) to simulate asynchronocity in JS. Timed events run when
* The timer is reached
* and when JS is not doing anything
So using setTimeout to create "gaps" in execution allow other "code in waiting" to be executed. It's still single threaded, but it's *like* "cutting the line"
[Here's a sample](http://jsfiddle.net/LHhy2/) |
10,468,772 | Is there any way to implement a multi-threading execution in Javascript.
I am implementing a pagination in my application, with a target of the minimum waiting time for the user. Neither I want all the data to be brought to the client-side in one go, nor do I want to make a server as well as a DB hit on every "next/previous" button clicked.
So I want the browser to create a request and update my data list, while the front end user has not reached the last page.
If there is anyone who has implemented this, then please suggest me. | 2012/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10468772",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/961125/"
] | You can use setInterval of and setTimeOut function to gain multi-threaded effect but it is not true multi-threading you can read nice discussion [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4037738/does-this-behavior-of-setinterval-imply-multithreading-behavior-in-javascript) | You might consider looking at the infinite scrolling technique. There are a number of plugins out there that facilitate this, including [Paul Irish's Infinite Scroll](https://github.com/paulirish/infinite-scroll).
This is the same technique used by sites like Twitter so that the page updates as the user scrolls down, creating a seamless UI experience for the user and eliminating delays. |
10,468,772 | Is there any way to implement a multi-threading execution in Javascript.
I am implementing a pagination in my application, with a target of the minimum waiting time for the user. Neither I want all the data to be brought to the client-side in one go, nor do I want to make a server as well as a DB hit on every "next/previous" button clicked.
So I want the browser to create a request and update my data list, while the front end user has not reached the last page.
If there is anyone who has implemented this, then please suggest me. | 2012/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10468772",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/961125/"
] | You can use setInterval of and setTimeOut function to gain multi-threaded effect but it is not true multi-threading you can read nice discussion [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4037738/does-this-behavior-of-setinterval-imply-multithreading-behavior-in-javascript) | It is very easy to do it by using the Concurrent.Thread JavaScript library, which is free and open source towards this end. No SetInterval or SetTimeout required.
You can download it from here: <http://sourceforge.net/apps/mediawiki/jsthread/index.php?title=Main_Page>
Tutorial explaining the use of the library can be found here: <http://www.infoq.com/articles/js_multithread> |
255,559 | I've got an old analog (0-5ma) ammeter and want to convert it to measure 0-±5 volts, as an output for my Arduino.
I'm a programmer and my knowledge of electronics is limited. I know what components do but obviously not how to use them properly.
I tried to place some 2k (1 and 2) resistors in series with the ammeter but it doesn't work as expected. This was sortof working but is wasn't a linear movement even with a capacitor attached to + and - (+ and - come from the Arduino PWM/analog output)
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f8JBQS.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
I know its a ammeter so it needs current and if theres nothing asking for current there will not be any so i put a very high resistor between + and - but that didn't really change anything.
So how can i change my am meter to measure 0-5v?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kap7W.jpg)
This is it opened, the resistance is about 2.9k (if I measured it correctly)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/88xE2.jpg)
Could it be microAmps?
Hope some one can help, Thanks in advance. | 2016/09/01 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/255559",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/122458/"
] | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/54aFg.png)
*Figure 1. Extract from the FT330 sensor.*
That sensor is capable of sinking 25 mA so there should be no problem with noise.
Your problem is likely with the installation or choice of power supply or connection to the counter. You haven't supplied details of these (despite the request). | The VFD switching frequency specification is a maximum, not necessarily a fixed number. It can be directly proportional to output frequency. It can rise with output frequency over a range, then fall then rise again like a car engine rpm rises and falls whenever the transmission shirts to a higher gear. It can also vary in a more complicated way depending on design. Whatever the case, electrical noise from the VFD is likely the source of the problem.
First look at the routing of all wiring connected to the sensor. If any of the wiring is near any of the VFD wiring, particularly the input and output power wiring, reroute the wiring. If the sensor or it's power supply are in the same enclosure as the VFD or motor, they may need to be enclosed in a separate compartment. You may also need to look at the grounding of the VFD, motor, sensor and whatever receives the signal from the sensor.
It would help to have some kind of diagram showing what all equipment is involved in the system, how it is powered and how it is grounded. |
4,061 | I think they are inherently the same thing and don't deserve multiple tags.
Breakdown of the tags:
* [distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distro "show questions tagged 'distro'") x 15
* [distribution](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distribution "show questions tagged 'distribution'") x 40
* [distributions](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distributions "show questions tagged 'distributions'") x 3
* [linux-distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/linux-distro "show questions tagged 'linux-distro'") x 14 | 2012/09/14 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/4061",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/25798/"
] | >
> Based on @jacob and @njallam
>
>
>
Let's just destroy them!
========================
This site is about Ubuntu, so none of these tags are needed. This is like having [programming-language](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/programming-language "show questions tagged 'programming-language'") in Stack Overflow. | I think we should merge them. The people saying we should destroy them, what if the people are asking about Kubuntu, or similar distro's to Ubuntu. (I, personally, count Kubuntu, Lubuntu and all the other "untu" distro's as seperate fom Ubuntu)
Maybe their asking about the differences between Fedora and Ubuntu. These tags would apply. So, why destroy them? |
4,061 | I think they are inherently the same thing and don't deserve multiple tags.
Breakdown of the tags:
* [distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distro "show questions tagged 'distro'") x 15
* [distribution](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distribution "show questions tagged 'distribution'") x 40
* [distributions](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distributions "show questions tagged 'distributions'") x 3
* [linux-distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/linux-distro "show questions tagged 'linux-distro'") x 14 | 2012/09/14 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/4061",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/25798/"
] | These tags have been destroyed.
[Please care for the widows and orphans](https://askubuntu.com/tags/untagged). | >
> Based on @jacob and @njallam
>
>
>
Let's just destroy them!
========================
This site is about Ubuntu, so none of these tags are needed. This is like having [programming-language](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/programming-language "show questions tagged 'programming-language'") in Stack Overflow. |
4,061 | I think they are inherently the same thing and don't deserve multiple tags.
Breakdown of the tags:
* [distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distro "show questions tagged 'distro'") x 15
* [distribution](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distribution "show questions tagged 'distribution'") x 40
* [distributions](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/distributions "show questions tagged 'distributions'") x 3
* [linux-distro](https://askubuntu.com/questions/tagged/linux-distro "show questions tagged 'linux-distro'") x 14 | 2012/09/14 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/4061",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/25798/"
] | These tags have been destroyed.
[Please care for the widows and orphans](https://askubuntu.com/tags/untagged). | I think we should merge them. The people saying we should destroy them, what if the people are asking about Kubuntu, or similar distro's to Ubuntu. (I, personally, count Kubuntu, Lubuntu and all the other "untu" distro's as seperate fom Ubuntu)
Maybe their asking about the differences between Fedora and Ubuntu. These tags would apply. So, why destroy them? |
12,386 | Can (or should) the activities relating to collection of requirements for the Requirements Matrix be included in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? | 2014/09/26 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/12386",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/12169/"
] | Yes. The [WBS](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_breakdown_structure) should include **all** the work needed to successfully complete the project.
>
> The 100% rule states that the WBS includes 100% of the work defined by the project scope and captures all deliverables – internal, external, interim – in terms of the work to be completed, including project management. The 100% rule is one of the most important principles guiding the development, decomposition and evaluation of the WBS. The rule applies at all levels within the hierarchy: the sum of the work at the “child” level must equal 100% of the work represented by the “parent” and the WBS should not include any work that falls outside the actual scope of the project, that is, it cannot include more than 100% of the work… It is important to remember that the 100% rule also applies to the activity level. The work represented by the activities in each work package must add up to 100% of the work necessary to complete the work package. *Effective Work Breakdown Structures By Gregory T. Haugan, Published by Management Concepts, 2001, ISBN 1567261353, p.17* (filched from wikipedia).
>
>
>
All work necessary for completion of the project, should be in the WBS. For completeness, I'll mention what I call the "decomposition threshold" - set a threshold of N hours; any activity that takes less than N hours should not be explicitly listed in the WBS, it should be part of other activities in the WBS.)
Alternatively, The Requirements Matrix is (should be) a deliverable for the project; it should be in the WBS. | The activites related to collection of requirement is part of the project and hence should be included in the WBS and effort and time tracked agains the same. It is important that one includes every activity that is needed to complete the project. |
38,011 | >
> [Jeremiah 9:24](https://biblehub.com/jeremiah/9-24.htm) but let him who **boasts** **boast** in this, that he
> understands and **knows** me, that I am the LORD who practices steadfast
> love, justice, and righteousness in the earth. For in these things I
> delight, declares the LORD.”
>
>
>
What do the words **boasts** & **knows** mean ? And also what message is this scripture trying to convey to us? | 2019/01/02 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/38011",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/26800/"
] | First of all, remember that this is poetry, erotic poetry, and the writer's intent is to be slyly suggestive, so trying to nail down a precise single meaning is not going to be super productive.
Secondly, you should have backed up and asked what the prepositional *mem* (מ) "from" is doing before *menishikot* (נשיקות) in verse 2. What does "**from** the kisses" or "**more** than the kisses" mean!? The verse would be simpler without the *mem* as in Proverbs 27:6:
>
> נֶאֱמָנִים פִּצְעֵי אוֹהֵב וְנַעְתָּרוֹת **נְשִׁיקוֹת** שׂוֹנֵא
>
>
>
Looking at verses 2 and 3 we see the following paired alliterative balance:
1. verse 2: מִנְּשִׁיקוֹת, מִיָּיִן
2. verse 3: לְרֵיחַ, עַל כֵּן עֲלָמוֹת
That is, two *mem* expressions in verse 2 followed by three *lamed* expressions in verse 3.
The second *mem*, before *yayin* (יין) "wine" is clearly a comparative, meaning "more than" wine. Since wine is itself a superlative figure, this is a super-superlative expression. When you get to the the end of verse two, and look back at the beginning of the verse, you are left with the feeling that the first *mem*, which at first glance looks superfluous, might also be intended as a comparative and the suggestive reading is therefore
>
> Let him kiss me more than his kisses, for your love is [more] better than wine.
>
>
>
The *mem* and *lamed* prepositional prefixes are often opposites, denoting "from" and "to". There is a hint of this in these couplet verses 2 and 3. Verse 2 is "from" and "more than", and verse 3 is "to" or "for".
The cantillation indicates that לְרֵיחַ שְׁמָנֶיךָ טוֹבִים is an independent phrase. This implies that the literal translation is as rendered by Young's Literal Translation and the meaning in current American usage is
>
> Your [perfumed] oils are great **for** (ל) fragrance,
>
>
>
or
>
> [As] **for** [your] fragrance, your [perfumed] oils are great
>
>
>
Think of this as "Your aftershave thrills me".
The author of Song has changed the normal word order to put the *lamed* prepositional "for fragrance" at the beginning of the verse so that the placement of the *lamed* alliterations in the verse matches the placement of the *mem* alliterations in verse 2.
Verse 3 has an additional alliterative pattern based on the the letter pair *shin-mem* ; שְׁמָנֶיךָ, שֶׁמֶן, שְׁמֶךָ "your oils [perfumes]", "oil", "your name", reminiscent of a similar alliterative pattern, טוֹב שֵׁם מִשֶּׁמֶן טוֹב, in Ecclesiastes 7:1 (KJV)
>
> A good name is better than precious ointment;
>
>
>
Therefore, in verse 3, the next phrase, שֶׁמֶן תּוּרַק שְׁמֶךָ is also independent, the literal translation being
>
> Your name (reputation) is [as] oil poured out
>
>
>
and the intent in current American usage is
>
> You are the very image of opulence, and that's why the bachelorettes are crazy about you
>
>
>
Note that there are no "virgins" (בטולות) in these verses, only young women (עלמות). | The KJV establishes it as all one sentence, beginning with **לְרֵ֙יחַ֙**; from Keil and Delitzsch's Commentary,
>
> *To smell thy ointments are sweet
> shows that when this song is sung wine is presented and perfumes are
> sprinkled; but the love of the host is, for those who sing, more
> excellent than all. It is maintained that ריח signifies fragrance
> emitted, and not smell. Hence Hengst., Hahn, Hlem., and Zck. explain:
> in odour thy ointments are sweet. Now the words can certainly, after
> Joshua 22:10; Job 32:4; 1 Kings 10:23, mean "sweet in (of) smell;" but
> in such cases the word with Lamed of reference naturally stands after
> that to which it gives the nearer reference, not as here before it.
> Therefore Hengst.: ad odorem unguentorem tuorum quod attinet bonus
> est, but such giving prominence to the subject and attraction (cf. 1
> Samuel 2:4; Job 15:20) exclude one another; the accentuation correctly
> places לריה out of the gen. connection. Certainly this word, like the
> Arab. ryḥ, elsewhere signifies odor, and the Hiph. הריח (araḥ)
> odorari; but why should not ריח be also used in the sense of odoratus,
> since in the post-bibl. Heb. הריח חושׁ means the sense of smell, and
> also in Germ. "riechen" means to emit fragrance as well as to perceive
> fragrance? We explain after Genesis 2:9, where Lamed introduces the
> sense of sight, as here the sense of smell. Zckl. and others reply
> that in such a case the word would have been לריח; but the art. is
> wanting also at Genesis 2:9 (cf. Sol 3:6), and was not necessary,
> especially in poetry, which has the same relation to the art. as to
> asher, which, wherever practicable, is omitted.*
>
>
>
According to their commentary, the Lamed introduces the sense of smell, but it is to be noted "fragrance" and not mere smelling is the authorial intent. To view the fragrance separately is to merely value it's scent, not the overall effect of the fragrance, which is as "oil poured out" which stirs the hearts of the maidens.
It is important to note that although schools of thought have contradicted each passage with inserted scribal meanings, the overall sense is allegorical, and therefore to be compared, and not stated directly. When we read "**שְׁמֶ֑ךָ**"(šə-me-ḵā; your name is) the author is telling us the Name is like the fragrance of scented oils. And if we follow traditional Hebrew commentary, this is a "Love Song" between God and His Chosen people, to make it anything else is to defile the text. So one must parse the text with this view in mind, and not stumble over the idioms which make the comparisons. |
35,709,550 | I'm using SlowCheetah with the following configurations: Debug | TeamCity | Release.
That means that I have these files on Visual Studio:
1. Web.config
2. Web.Debug.config
3. Web.TeamCity.config
4. Web.Release.config
When I publish the application manually, everthing works fine, but I'm using **Octopus** to deploy, and when it deploys, instead of generating only "Web.config" file, **it is generating both "Web.config" and "Web.Release.config"**.
Both generated files by Octopus are the same as Visual's Studio version, so it seems that SlowCheetah didn't have any effect.
What am I missing? | 2016/02/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35709550",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375422/"
] | i had the same problem a few days ago. This is because the new support library have new changes for the RecyclerView and the most important for your case is the following:
>
> RecyclerView.LayoutManager no longer ignores some RecyclerView.LayoutParams settings, such as MATCH\_PARENT in the scroll direction.
>
>
> Note: These lifted restrictions may cause unexpected behavior in your layouts. Make sure you specify the correct layout parameters.
>
>
>
So you should review your .xml in order to use the correctly height and width that before was ignoring it.
You can see more of the changes in this new version of the library [here.](http://developer.android.com/intl/es/tools/support-library/index.html) | I've discovered the problem, it is the THEME of the application.
I have defined several themes in my app (styles.xml), I give the user to select some of them, and when the user select a color theme, i save the ID of the theme in a SharedPreferences and i assign the theme to the activity with setTheme(int) but something happened in the latest version of appcompat that the id i saved do not match and do not exist anymore. I'll have to save something else and not the id(int) of the theme
I realized that when i delete the "data" from the application and everything worked fine, because when i deleted the data the sharedpreferences is deleted too. |
17,303,804 | *[Edited] I am re-re-writing my question, hoping to be this time following the rules good questions and asking about a "narrowed enough" topic. I keep the information I initially provided, in case any reader is interested in details.*
---
***My question:***
I have been investigating free Java caching libraries and I found that all of them provide more or less the same features. But there are 2 tools that stand out over the rest, because they provide a distinctive feature:
* EHCache: Provides statistics for the cached elements. At any point you can get the metadata of each element, having access to details, such as the hit count - the number of times the entry was requested while it was in the cache.
* Infinispan: Provides a persistence-based mechanism to preserve cached data. This allows applications to not lose the cached elements on restart. Several persistence methods are supported, like database and filesystem.
I am wondering if there is another library that combines these 2 great features. Does anyone know about one?
Thank you.
---
***My original post:***
I am working on a component that *provides access to a reporting layer*. Reports are generated **on demand**, but when a given report has been run the result (a Java object) **can be cached** and served again later if the same report is requested, without going again to the reporting engine.
I need to limit to "**X**" (configurable) the number of cached items. When the cache size has reached "**X**" elements and a new (not cached) report is requested I need to remove the "**least-frequently-used**" entry (LFU).
My component is notified when the reporting data changes in the data warehouse. In that case I need to:
* Figure out which ones are the "**Y**" "**most-frequently-used**" reports (being **Y < X**).
* Invalidate the cache.
* Re-generate those reports through the reporting engine.
* Re-cache them.
These are all operations typically provided by most of the caching tools/libraries.
An additional requirement for me is that the cached reports **must survive JVM restarts**. This is, I cannot lose the information of which ones were the cached entries and I cannot re-generate them every time my application is restarted - because it would be too much load on the reporting engine.
**My problem:** I *cannot find* a **free** library that covers all my needs. In summary, these would be the required features:
* Free / commercial-friendly license.
* Persistent storage, saving state on JVM/server restart/crash.
* Java API, providing element statistics. I need to be able to "select the top X elements in cache" - using the eviction algorithm ranking as ordering.
* Easy to integrate with an application running on Tomcat.
The closest option I found is EHCache. It exposes the hit count for each element - but not the "real" ranking used by the eviction algorithm. Besides, persistent restartable mechanism is available only for a non-free version - BigMemory, from Terracotta.
Other alternative I have seen is Infinispan, but it does not expose entry-level statistics - only cache-level statistics - and requires JMX. | 2013/06/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17303804",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/602020/"
] | It sounds like what you are trying to do is create a document store that has functionality found in some caching frameworks, but itself isn't really a cache. I think you will have more luck finding the right solution by putting the idea of a cache to the side, and instead look at how you can build a persistent document store that has the functionality you require:
* Purging old documents
* Statistics about the documents being stored
As suggested by @djechlin, this is more of a design & architecture question that would be difficult to answer in this forum.
Best of luck. | Try Jboss' Cache: <http://docs.jboss.org/jbossclustering/cluster_guide/5.1/html/jbosscache.chapt.html>
it has eviction algorithm, persistent, it's free. |
73,150 | What is the difference between these two sentences below in terms of semantics or for that matter any other aspects?
>
> He is a hard-working man.
>
> He is a man who works very hard.
>
>
>
Is the distinction simply a matter of style? If not, what differences do they have in respect of giving information about the noun they modify?
To be more specific, I asked this question because I sometimes can't decide whether to use a relative clause or an adjective-like phrase to modify a noun. | 2015/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/73150",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/20493/"
] | Both convey the same information, though in my experience, the first sentence would be the way that idea would be more commonly phrased. | >
> He is a hard-working man.
>
>
>
This sentence describes the man himself. Hard-working is an adjective phrase. I would expect the man always works hard because it is a description of the man himself.
>
> He is a man who works very hard.
>
>
>
This sentence describes how he works. 'Very hard' is an adverb phrase. Because the phrase is an adverb it could be qualified like, "He is a man who works very hard one day a year." or "He is a man who works very hard at avoiding work."
While they are similar, they are not the same. |
39,150 | I have a web server running on my Mac and I'd like to be notified (via Growl for example) when someone accesses my server.
I searched for something like that in Automator but found nothing.
Do you know if this is possible ?
Thank you. | 2012/02/03 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/39150",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/18188/"
] | One of the most powerful methods of getting notifications from a web server is to build in support for [webhooks](http://wiki.webhooks.org/w/page/13385124/FrontPage). The [fine folks](https://stripe.com/about) behind this software stack have a [nice blog that helps describe how this might work](https://stripe.com/blog/webhooks) if you wanted to code this into the web site. | Growl can probably do this for you automatically:
 |
208,078 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Hotel like Wifi manager](https://superuser.com/questions/183105/hotel-like-wifi-manager)
>
>
>
I have a mac with snow leopard. Is there software that I can download and setup that if a person connects to my wifi they see a website kind of like how coffee shops or hotels do it? | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/208078",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/54800/"
] | What you want is called a "[captive portal](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Captive_portal)". There are a number of ways to do that. Probably the easiest way is to use the appropriate DD-WRT image on a supported wireless router. You might want to take a look at [this article for how to make something like that on an OS X box](http://www.macinstruct.com/node/188). | You might try looking through the options on your wireless router, there may be an option to set a default web page. |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | Dictionaries usually give these as synonyms, but there is a nuance: *legible* tends to refer only to the presentation, e.g. penmanship, while *readable* is broader. If what I'm looking at is a hard-to-read scrawl, that's illegible; if it's nicely typed but the grammar and punctuation are all wrong, such that it's hard for me to understand, that's unreadable. | Both **legible** and **readable** have sense of "clear enough to read".
>
> Her handwriting was clearly legible.
>
> The figures should be clearly readable
>
>
>
But, **readable** also may mean "easy, interesting and enjoyable to read". |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | Dictionaries usually give these as synonyms, but there is a nuance: *legible* tends to refer only to the presentation, e.g. penmanship, while *readable* is broader. If what I'm looking at is a hard-to-read scrawl, that's illegible; if it's nicely typed but the grammar and punctuation are all wrong, such that it's hard for me to understand, that's unreadable. | If you cannot understand what is written though it is clearly written/typed it is incomprehensible (as in you cannot understand it). Legible means that you can read it and illegible means that it is so badly written/scribbled that one cannot read the words at all. Those are two very different situations. |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | Dictionaries usually give these as synonyms, but there is a nuance: *legible* tends to refer only to the presentation, e.g. penmanship, while *readable* is broader. If what I'm looking at is a hard-to-read scrawl, that's illegible; if it's nicely typed but the grammar and punctuation are all wrong, such that it's hard for me to understand, that's unreadable. | **Legibility** is about how easy it is to distinguish **individual** elements such as letters.
**Readability** is about how easily **blocks** of elements—such as paragraphs—are understood.
— [Source 1](http://www.fonts.com/content/learning/fontology/level-4/fine-typography/legibility)
— [Source 2](http://michalisavraam.org/2009/05/readability-vs-legibility/) provides a picture of less-legible, more-readable text, and the opposite.
— [Source 3](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/)
In the case of diagrams the same idea holds. Illegible could be due to smudges or mis-printed type. Unreadable could be due to a flowchart where the organisation of the elements is confusing.
 |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | Both **legible** and **readable** have sense of "clear enough to read".
>
> Her handwriting was clearly legible.
>
> The figures should be clearly readable
>
>
>
But, **readable** also may mean "easy, interesting and enjoyable to read". | If you cannot understand what is written though it is clearly written/typed it is incomprehensible (as in you cannot understand it). Legible means that you can read it and illegible means that it is so badly written/scribbled that one cannot read the words at all. Those are two very different situations. |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | Both **legible** and **readable** have sense of "clear enough to read".
>
> Her handwriting was clearly legible.
>
> The figures should be clearly readable
>
>
>
But, **readable** also may mean "easy, interesting and enjoyable to read". | **Legibility** is about how easy it is to distinguish **individual** elements such as letters.
**Readability** is about how easily **blocks** of elements—such as paragraphs—are understood.
— [Source 1](http://www.fonts.com/content/learning/fontology/level-4/fine-typography/legibility)
— [Source 2](http://michalisavraam.org/2009/05/readability-vs-legibility/) provides a picture of less-legible, more-readable text, and the opposite.
— [Source 3](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/)
In the case of diagrams the same idea holds. Illegible could be due to smudges or mis-printed type. Unreadable could be due to a flowchart where the organisation of the elements is confusing.
 |
58,251 | Could you explain what is a difference between readable vs legible?
Which should I use when I want to say "This diagram is easily readable/legible" while meaning - "It is very easy to read and understand meaning of this diagram"? | 2012/02/16 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/58251",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/17123/"
] | **Legibility** is about how easy it is to distinguish **individual** elements such as letters.
**Readability** is about how easily **blocks** of elements—such as paragraphs—are understood.
— [Source 1](http://www.fonts.com/content/learning/fontology/level-4/fine-typography/legibility)
— [Source 2](http://michalisavraam.org/2009/05/readability-vs-legibility/) provides a picture of less-legible, more-readable text, and the opposite.
— [Source 3](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/)
In the case of diagrams the same idea holds. Illegible could be due to smudges or mis-printed type. Unreadable could be due to a flowchart where the organisation of the elements is confusing.
 | If you cannot understand what is written though it is clearly written/typed it is incomprehensible (as in you cannot understand it). Legible means that you can read it and illegible means that it is so badly written/scribbled that one cannot read the words at all. Those are two very different situations. |
62,611 | A recent article by the [Texas Tribune](https://www.texastribune.org/2011/02/08/texplainer-why-does-texas-have-its-own-power-grid/) explains why Texas has its own electrical grid:
>
> The Texas Interconnected System — which for a long time was actually operated by two discrete entities, one for northern Texas and one for southern Texas — had another priority: staying out of the reach of federal regulators. In 1935, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Federal Power Act, which charged the Federal Power Commission with overseeing interstate electricity sales. By not crossing state lines, Texas utilities avoided being subjected to federal rules. "Freedom from federal regulation was a cherished goal — more so because Texas had no regulation until the 1970s," writes Richard D. Cudahy in a 1995 article, "The Second Battle of the Alamo: The Midnight Connection."
>
>
>
But what exactly does it gain from staying independent? Is it purely a political statement or is there a rational reason behind having a completely separate grid? | 2021/02/18 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/62611",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7434/"
] | Tax Revenue
===========
By not trading on the national market, Texas avoids the cost of federal power regulations, as noted in several other answers. Now, the benefits of participating in the national market might seem like an obvious loss for Texas. They could have purchased power from many other states with excess capacity during this time.
However, Texas is enjoying what you might call the "Federal Privatization Tax", which is the situation that arises when a market operator is able to privatize profits while dumping costs on the public. The most obvious example is the 2008 Financial Crisis and the massive bailouts received by the banking sector.
It may not seem obvious that the same is happening in Texas, until you realize that Gov. Abbott declared a state of emergency, then requested Biden to declare a federal emergency for TX to free up FEMA and other assistance. And, because Americans are reluctant to leave their fellow Americans out in the cold, to suffer the consequences of their carefully considered decisions, [Biden agreed](https://www.npr.org/sections/live-updates-winter-storms-2021/2021/02/19/969465887/biden-to-authorize-broader-disaster-relief-for-texas) to the disaster declaration.
Federal Insurance
=================
It's funny that individual taxpayers are required to purchase liability insurance to enjoy the privilege of driving on public roads, but states are not required to purchase "regulatory insurance" to enjoy the privilege of federal disaster relief. When power plants in MN or ND or ME experience freezing temps, but survive just fine because federal regulations required larger safety margins, the ratepayers in those states pay more for electricity, but receive larger uptime performance. If there were a major disaster in one of those states that precipitated a federal disaster declaration and accompanying relief, taxpayers in other states should not resent the outcome too much, because the affected states have already paid in their "insurance premiums".
Texas, on the other hand, has chosen to forego the "federal insurance" of the national power regulatory framework, but *still receives the protection* of federal disaster relief. And so, Texas taxpayers are transferring my tax dollars to their state under the force of the Federal executive.
I would actually be ok with this, if FEMA dollars were conditioned upon states adhering to or adopting nationwide precautionary measures for whatever situation precipitates the emergency. "You want emergency relief for your short-sighted grid planning? No problem. But by accepting these dollars, you agree to fall under the oversight of the Federal Power Commission. Have a nice day." | It’s actually a purely economic reason. Regulations invariably increase cost, as regulation increases work above and beyond the cost of achieving a regulatory goal ie documentation of regulatory compliance.
Think of it this way, suppose they had to comply with the regulatory rules for every country in the world (ignoring jurisdiction). Suppose further that there were no conflicts, just that some were more strict than others. That would be a huge burden on a company just in the paperwork alone, but it would also be a problem in deciding which regulation to follow. If there’s a minimum distance between components, they would have to be aware of all of them, in order to be sure they complied.
Now, this of course isn’t that extreme, and for quite a while they didn’t have any regulatory rules to follow, but it still applies. No regulatory paperwork is going to be cheaper than one, and when the states added their own, one is cheaper than two.
NOTE: Just as you can exceed regulatory standards when they apply, you can exceed them even when they don’t. The desire to escape regulatory oversight is not limited to those that want to produce low quality crap. The main reason a company would want regulatory oversight is because they think it gives them an economic advantage. Not because they feel they need it in order to produce good work. |
62,611 | A recent article by the [Texas Tribune](https://www.texastribune.org/2011/02/08/texplainer-why-does-texas-have-its-own-power-grid/) explains why Texas has its own electrical grid:
>
> The Texas Interconnected System — which for a long time was actually operated by two discrete entities, one for northern Texas and one for southern Texas — had another priority: staying out of the reach of federal regulators. In 1935, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Federal Power Act, which charged the Federal Power Commission with overseeing interstate electricity sales. By not crossing state lines, Texas utilities avoided being subjected to federal rules. "Freedom from federal regulation was a cherished goal — more so because Texas had no regulation until the 1970s," writes Richard D. Cudahy in a 1995 article, "The Second Battle of the Alamo: The Midnight Connection."
>
>
>
But what exactly does it gain from staying independent? Is it purely a political statement or is there a rational reason behind having a completely separate grid? | 2021/02/18 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/62611",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7434/"
] | Citing [Economist.com](https://www.economist.com/united-states/2021/02/17/the-freeze-in-texas-exposes-americas-infrastructural-failings?utm_campaign=the-economist-today&utm_medium=newsletter&utm_source=salesforce-marketing-cloud&utm_term=2021-02-17&utm_content=article-link-1&etear=nl_today_1) coverage
>
> The state’s deregulated power market is also fiercely competitive. ERCOT oversees the grid, while power generators produce electricity for the wholesale market. Some 300 retail electricity providers buy that fuel and then compete for consumers.
>
>
> For years the benefits of Texas’s deregulated market structure were clear. **At 8.6 cents per kilowatt hour, the state’s average retail price for electricity is around one-fifth lower than the national average and about half the cost of California’s.**
>
>
>
On the flip side of things
>
> Because such cold weather is rare, energy companies do not invest in “winterising” their equipment, as this would raise their prices for consumers. Perhaps most important, the state does not have a “capacity market” to ensure that there was extra power available for surging demand. Such systems elsewhere act as a sort of insurance policy so the lights will not go out, but it also means customers pay higher bills.
>
>
>
**On the practical side, it would thus seem that, due to competition there are a lot of, small, providers who compete on price. Thus there are real advantages.**
Citing [ERCOT itself](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sHvkMJtXle8&t=130s)
>
> Cmmission Chairman Donna Nelson says
> the federal Power Act was a key moment
> Congress passed the law in 1935 to
> regulate the interstate activities of
> electric power the utilities in Texas
> were smart and they got together and
> they made an agreement that nobody was
> going to send power outside of Texas
>
>
>
>
> the Public Utility Commission and that
> independence has been jealously guarded
> I think both by policymakers and by the
> industry in our cot the next major
> change came in 1965 after the worst
> power outage in US history the blackout
> did not impact Texas
>
>
>
Add up what seems to be an end in itself, "avoiding those horrible Federal busybodies" and lower costs and you have the positive sides.
From [ARS](https://arstechnica.com/science/2021/02/even-power-disasters-are-bigger-in-texas-heres-why/)
>
> This deep-seated aversion to regulation recently prompted former US Energy secretary and Texas Governor Rick Perry to quip, "Texans would be without electricity for longer than three days to keep the federal government out of their business.”
>
>
>
Unlike the lofty claims made in another answer, keep in mind that California, on the other end of the regulation scale, ends up with higher prices, unreliable electricity and a near-monopoly provider whose rather relaxed maintenance procedures directly [triggered wildfires that killed 85 people at one sitting](https://www.businessinsider.com/pge-caused-california-wildfires-safety-measures-2019-10). In fact, if you think of a government monopoly as the ultimate form of regulation, it is rather infrequent that consumers benefit from low costs under those circumstances (leaving out oddities like governments bribing their voters via subsidies like Venezuelan gas prices).
On the negative side, while overregulation and government overreach **can** be a problem, reasonable regulations **do exist for a reason**. An airbag in a car is a total waste of money, until it blows up and saves a life. Forcing utilities to make their systems more redundant and cope with extreme ranges in their operating circumstances, *if done well*, can make them more resilient.
With so many providers competing on price in a highly deregulated environment, one can assume the Texas utilities did as little as possible to design in safety margins and in fact the [ongoing debrief](https://www.nbcnews.com/science/environment/one-texas-storm-exposed-energy-grid-unprepared-climate-change-rcna289) of where things broke down shows things broke down pretty much everywhere, from wind turbines to gas to nuclear.
>
> The picture of what went wrong in Texas is incomplete. But while some wind generators did go offline as turbines iced over, the state's largest grid, the Electric Reliability Council of Texas, said the shortage was driven by a failure not of renewable sources but of traditional "thermal" sources: coal, nuclear and especially natural gas. Energy experts said that gas lines supplying gas-fired plants may have frozen or that supplies to the plants may have been limited as gas was prioritized for homes that rely on gas for their heat.
>
>
>
Citing [ARS](https://arstechnica.com/science/2021/02/even-power-disasters-are-bigger-in-texas-heres-why/) again
>
> Power plants obviously operate much farther north than Texas, in areas where the conditions Texas is facing now are normal for weeks or months at a time. There are ways to cold-proof various systems; wind turbines, for example, can have heaters embedded in the blades to shed ice when needed, intake pipes can be heated by exhaust from power plants, etc. But all of these measures cost additional money, which may be difficult to justify if the conditions they're needed for are extremely rare.
>
>
> It turns out that these conditions are rare in Texas, but not extremely so; Texas faced something similar a decade earlier, in 2011, when its grid suffered similar failures.
>
>
>
Reuters, has another, largely uncomplimentary [writeup](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-weather-texas-power-insight/why-a-predictable-cold-snap-crippled-the-texas-power-grid-idUSKBN2AL00N) that gives a bit more detail about that absent capacity market and ERCOT's mishandling of this event.
Last, but not least, in the context of switching to wind and solar renewables, on which Texas is unexpectedly active, you **want** to interconnect as much as possible to avoid regional intermittency.
**Texas electricity is sowewhat cheaper than the national average. How much of that is due to avoiding Federal regulation is unclear, as Texas in any case enjoys advantages of scale, resources and geography. But it is also clear lacking interconnects and an overly light touch on actual resiliency engineering - as opposed to NIMBY-type regulations as in California - has developed not necessarily to Texas's advantage.** | Delivering electricity across state lines triggers additional regulation. If Texas wishes to avoid this additional regulation, it might wish to avoid crossing state lines. To repeat a comment made earlier under the question:
>
> If the grids were interconnected, every electricity producer in Texas would export electricity over state lines... which allows the federal level to regulate them because of the Interstate Commerce Clause. This means even DC interconnections are extremely limited between Texas and the rest of the US, and required extensive legal battles to avoid triggering the Commerce Clause.
>
>
>
---
First, it's important to correct Ted Wrigley's incorrect claims about the California energy crisis, which are relevant to the question.
I use the same example to highlight some of the downsides of such regulations, which might provide some of the motivation for maintaining an independent grid.
From [*Causes and Lessons of the California Electricity Crisis*](https://www.cbo.gov/sites/default/files/107th-congress-2001-2002/reports/californiaenergy.pdf):
>
> Much of the blame for California’s electricity crisis attaches to the state’s restructuring plan—**but not to its objective, electricity deregulation**. The state’s plan gained political support on the basis of what turned out to be faulty assumptions. It then played a role in turning market stresses—high demand for electricity and limited production capacity—in the summer of 2000 and beyond into a full-blown crisis, in which California’s major utilities could not buy enough power to supply their customers. **But deregulation itself did not fail; rather, it was never achieved.**
>
>
> **The restructuring plan did not remove sufficient barriers on both the supply and demand sides of the market to allow competition to work—in part because it was not designed to.** Neither the state legislature and Public Utility Commission (PUC), which framed the plan, nor the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which approved it, envisioned the immediate or full deregulation of the electricity market covered by the plan. **Instead, retail prices were to be frozen during an interim period.**
>
>
> In addition, the market outside the restructuring plan mostly remains regulated. The California PUC has no authority over municipal utilities in the state, utilities in neighboring states, federal power agencies, or interstate transmission companies. All of those entities are still subject to local and federal controls. **The continuing regulation of utilities** in other parts of California and in neighboring states contributed indirectly to California’s supply problems by **limiting how much power those utilities were able or willing to sell outside their traditional service areas.**
>
>
> The lessons for the supply side of the market are twofold. First, **restructuring is more likely to succeed when more of the power in a market is free to respond to price signals**. As California attempted to restructure, **regulatory constraints limited the flow of power** to the state's wholesale market from municipal utilities in California, from utilities in other states, and from federal power agencies. Second, **utilities should be free to manage the risks of adverse price movements in that competitive environment by entering into long-term contracts**.
>
>
>
From [*The Causes of California's Energy Crisis*](https://www.jstor.org/stable/40924210):
>
> Several decisions by the California Public Utility Commission (CPUC) and the State of California in design and implementation of restructuring California's electricity market were significant contributing factors to the creation of the energy crisis.
>
>
> CPUC required that California's Investor Owned Utilities (IOUs) purchase all of their electricity from the wholesale power pool market at a rate based on the highest bid price paid for the electricity by the PX, **even though some suppliers were willing to sell for less**.
>
>
> **CPUC refused to allow California IOUs to enter into long-term contracts to purchase electricity (or other risk-hedging tools) to reduce its exposure to price volatility in the PX**.
>
>
> These decisions resulted in the disparity between retail rates frozen at a level 10 percent below those in effect in June 1996 and the wholesale cost of electricity charged California IOUs (through the PX) mostly by out-of-state suppliers.
>
>
>
*Analysis of June 2000 price spikes in California's ISO's Energy and Ancillary Services Market*, September 2000:
>
> **Regulatory barriers significantly enhance the ability of generation owners in the California market to raise prices in the PX and ISO energy and ancillary services market.**
>
>
>
*Joint EOB/CPUC Report to Governor Davis*, August 2000:
>
> In the PX Market, all electricity trades for a single price, a price set by the highest winning bid, **even though other power plant owners are willing to sell the power at lower prices. This guarantees that customers do not receive the benefits of competition**. This result is **built into the California system as an integral part of the market design**.
>
>
>
In summary,
>
> Several factors led to California's energy crisis: (1) the PX's market structure flaws; (2) the ISO's market structure flaws; (3) CPUC's prohibition on long-term contracts and other risk reducing tools; (4) CPUC's forced divestiture of the IOUs' generation; and (5) FERC failed to timely respond to the crisis.
>
>
>
---
Ted also claims that regulatory costs are not passed to consumers, but this is incorrect. For example, see [*How Do Federal Regulations Affect Consumer Prices? An Analysis of the Regressive Effects of Regulation*](https://www.mercatus.org/publications/regulation/how-do-federal-regulations-affect-consumer-prices-analysis-regressive):
>
> Regulators and policymakers often claim that regulations are intended to protect the poorest and most vulnerable consumers. However, the effects of regulations are most harmful to the poor because regulations drive up the cost of doing business, resulting in higher prices. Unfortunately, the goods and services to which the poor devote much of their limited budgets, such as energy and food, are also the most heavily regulated.
>
>
>
From [*The Meaning of Regulatory Costs*](https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10657-010-9194-7):
>
> Regulatory costs are an essential aspect of the efficiency and quality of regulations. Moreover, they are a genuine loss of welfare which have a negative impact on national income. Surprisingly, regulatory costs are often neglected or misinterpreted in regulatory assessments, except—though only recently—for administrative compliance costs... We identify 16 direct and two indirect regulatory cost types...
>
>
> Citizens and businesses, on the other hand, incur rent-seeking, information, planning, three types of compliance, delay and enforcement costs. The indirect costs comprise the efficiency loss plus, in the event of poorly designed or market-based regulation, also transaction costs. The neglect of any of these costs may lead to the underestimation of costs in absolute or relative terms and thus to inefficient regulatory choices.
>
>
>
Again, these downsides might provide some of the motivation for maintaining an independent grid. |
62,611 | A recent article by the [Texas Tribune](https://www.texastribune.org/2011/02/08/texplainer-why-does-texas-have-its-own-power-grid/) explains why Texas has its own electrical grid:
>
> The Texas Interconnected System — which for a long time was actually operated by two discrete entities, one for northern Texas and one for southern Texas — had another priority: staying out of the reach of federal regulators. In 1935, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Federal Power Act, which charged the Federal Power Commission with overseeing interstate electricity sales. By not crossing state lines, Texas utilities avoided being subjected to federal rules. "Freedom from federal regulation was a cherished goal — more so because Texas had no regulation until the 1970s," writes Richard D. Cudahy in a 1995 article, "The Second Battle of the Alamo: The Midnight Connection."
>
>
>
But what exactly does it gain from staying independent? Is it purely a political statement or is there a rational reason behind having a completely separate grid? | 2021/02/18 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/62611",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7434/"
] | Citing [Economist.com](https://www.economist.com/united-states/2021/02/17/the-freeze-in-texas-exposes-americas-infrastructural-failings?utm_campaign=the-economist-today&utm_medium=newsletter&utm_source=salesforce-marketing-cloud&utm_term=2021-02-17&utm_content=article-link-1&etear=nl_today_1) coverage
>
> The state’s deregulated power market is also fiercely competitive. ERCOT oversees the grid, while power generators produce electricity for the wholesale market. Some 300 retail electricity providers buy that fuel and then compete for consumers.
>
>
> For years the benefits of Texas’s deregulated market structure were clear. **At 8.6 cents per kilowatt hour, the state’s average retail price for electricity is around one-fifth lower than the national average and about half the cost of California’s.**
>
>
>
On the flip side of things
>
> Because such cold weather is rare, energy companies do not invest in “winterising” their equipment, as this would raise their prices for consumers. Perhaps most important, the state does not have a “capacity market” to ensure that there was extra power available for surging demand. Such systems elsewhere act as a sort of insurance policy so the lights will not go out, but it also means customers pay higher bills.
>
>
>
**On the practical side, it would thus seem that, due to competition there are a lot of, small, providers who compete on price. Thus there are real advantages.**
Citing [ERCOT itself](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sHvkMJtXle8&t=130s)
>
> Cmmission Chairman Donna Nelson says
> the federal Power Act was a key moment
> Congress passed the law in 1935 to
> regulate the interstate activities of
> electric power the utilities in Texas
> were smart and they got together and
> they made an agreement that nobody was
> going to send power outside of Texas
>
>
>
>
> the Public Utility Commission and that
> independence has been jealously guarded
> I think both by policymakers and by the
> industry in our cot the next major
> change came in 1965 after the worst
> power outage in US history the blackout
> did not impact Texas
>
>
>
Add up what seems to be an end in itself, "avoiding those horrible Federal busybodies" and lower costs and you have the positive sides.
From [ARS](https://arstechnica.com/science/2021/02/even-power-disasters-are-bigger-in-texas-heres-why/)
>
> This deep-seated aversion to regulation recently prompted former US Energy secretary and Texas Governor Rick Perry to quip, "Texans would be without electricity for longer than three days to keep the federal government out of their business.”
>
>
>
Unlike the lofty claims made in another answer, keep in mind that California, on the other end of the regulation scale, ends up with higher prices, unreliable electricity and a near-monopoly provider whose rather relaxed maintenance procedures directly [triggered wildfires that killed 85 people at one sitting](https://www.businessinsider.com/pge-caused-california-wildfires-safety-measures-2019-10). In fact, if you think of a government monopoly as the ultimate form of regulation, it is rather infrequent that consumers benefit from low costs under those circumstances (leaving out oddities like governments bribing their voters via subsidies like Venezuelan gas prices).
On the negative side, while overregulation and government overreach **can** be a problem, reasonable regulations **do exist for a reason**. An airbag in a car is a total waste of money, until it blows up and saves a life. Forcing utilities to make their systems more redundant and cope with extreme ranges in their operating circumstances, *if done well*, can make them more resilient.
With so many providers competing on price in a highly deregulated environment, one can assume the Texas utilities did as little as possible to design in safety margins and in fact the [ongoing debrief](https://www.nbcnews.com/science/environment/one-texas-storm-exposed-energy-grid-unprepared-climate-change-rcna289) of where things broke down shows things broke down pretty much everywhere, from wind turbines to gas to nuclear.
>
> The picture of what went wrong in Texas is incomplete. But while some wind generators did go offline as turbines iced over, the state's largest grid, the Electric Reliability Council of Texas, said the shortage was driven by a failure not of renewable sources but of traditional "thermal" sources: coal, nuclear and especially natural gas. Energy experts said that gas lines supplying gas-fired plants may have frozen or that supplies to the plants may have been limited as gas was prioritized for homes that rely on gas for their heat.
>
>
>
Citing [ARS](https://arstechnica.com/science/2021/02/even-power-disasters-are-bigger-in-texas-heres-why/) again
>
> Power plants obviously operate much farther north than Texas, in areas where the conditions Texas is facing now are normal for weeks or months at a time. There are ways to cold-proof various systems; wind turbines, for example, can have heaters embedded in the blades to shed ice when needed, intake pipes can be heated by exhaust from power plants, etc. But all of these measures cost additional money, which may be difficult to justify if the conditions they're needed for are extremely rare.
>
>
> It turns out that these conditions are rare in Texas, but not extremely so; Texas faced something similar a decade earlier, in 2011, when its grid suffered similar failures.
>
>
>
Reuters, has another, largely uncomplimentary [writeup](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-weather-texas-power-insight/why-a-predictable-cold-snap-crippled-the-texas-power-grid-idUSKBN2AL00N) that gives a bit more detail about that absent capacity market and ERCOT's mishandling of this event.
Last, but not least, in the context of switching to wind and solar renewables, on which Texas is unexpectedly active, you **want** to interconnect as much as possible to avoid regional intermittency.
**Texas electricity is sowewhat cheaper than the national average. How much of that is due to avoiding Federal regulation is unclear, as Texas in any case enjoys advantages of scale, resources and geography. But it is also clear lacking interconnects and an overly light touch on actual resiliency engineering - as opposed to NIMBY-type regulations as in California - has developed not necessarily to Texas's advantage.** | It’s actually a purely economic reason. Regulations invariably increase cost, as regulation increases work above and beyond the cost of achieving a regulatory goal ie documentation of regulatory compliance.
Think of it this way, suppose they had to comply with the regulatory rules for every country in the world (ignoring jurisdiction). Suppose further that there were no conflicts, just that some were more strict than others. That would be a huge burden on a company just in the paperwork alone, but it would also be a problem in deciding which regulation to follow. If there’s a minimum distance between components, they would have to be aware of all of them, in order to be sure they complied.
Now, this of course isn’t that extreme, and for quite a while they didn’t have any regulatory rules to follow, but it still applies. No regulatory paperwork is going to be cheaper than one, and when the states added their own, one is cheaper than two.
NOTE: Just as you can exceed regulatory standards when they apply, you can exceed them even when they don’t. The desire to escape regulatory oversight is not limited to those that want to produce low quality crap. The main reason a company would want regulatory oversight is because they think it gives them an economic advantage. Not because they feel they need it in order to produce good work. |
62,611 | A recent article by the [Texas Tribune](https://www.texastribune.org/2011/02/08/texplainer-why-does-texas-have-its-own-power-grid/) explains why Texas has its own electrical grid:
>
> The Texas Interconnected System — which for a long time was actually operated by two discrete entities, one for northern Texas and one for southern Texas — had another priority: staying out of the reach of federal regulators. In 1935, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Federal Power Act, which charged the Federal Power Commission with overseeing interstate electricity sales. By not crossing state lines, Texas utilities avoided being subjected to federal rules. "Freedom from federal regulation was a cherished goal — more so because Texas had no regulation until the 1970s," writes Richard D. Cudahy in a 1995 article, "The Second Battle of the Alamo: The Midnight Connection."
>
>
>
But what exactly does it gain from staying independent? Is it purely a political statement or is there a rational reason behind having a completely separate grid? | 2021/02/18 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/62611",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7434/"
] | As a general rule, regulation transfers costs from consumers to producers, while deregulation transfers costs from producers to consumers. In this specific case, that works out like so:
* With regulation, energy producers would be required to take precautionary steps to ensure the security and viability of the power grid, and could be held accountable for failures to do so. In other words, the energy producers would have to pay up-front to upgrade their equipment, and if they didn't do so they could be subject to penalties and lawsuits for any harm that came from inaction. This would have a significant impact on their profit margins.
* Without regulation, energy producers are not obliged to pay up-front for upgrades, and have better legal protections against fines or lawsuits for not doing so. The costs incurred from a disaster of this sort will be absorbed by the state or federal governments through emergency management procedures, and will ultimately be paid by the taxpayer. Corporate profits are increased by cutting corners, with little or no financial risk to the corporations themselves.
This is essentially the same thing that happened during the California energy crisis back in the late 1990s, the Flint Michigan water crisis, and other less severe cases caused by reckless deregulation under GOP administrations | Tax Revenue
===========
By not trading on the national market, Texas avoids the cost of federal power regulations, as noted in several other answers. Now, the benefits of participating in the national market might seem like an obvious loss for Texas. They could have purchased power from many other states with excess capacity during this time.
However, Texas is enjoying what you might call the "Federal Privatization Tax", which is the situation that arises when a market operator is able to privatize profits while dumping costs on the public. The most obvious example is the 2008 Financial Crisis and the massive bailouts received by the banking sector.
It may not seem obvious that the same is happening in Texas, until you realize that Gov. Abbott declared a state of emergency, then requested Biden to declare a federal emergency for TX to free up FEMA and other assistance. And, because Americans are reluctant to leave their fellow Americans out in the cold, to suffer the consequences of their carefully considered decisions, [Biden agreed](https://www.npr.org/sections/live-updates-winter-storms-2021/2021/02/19/969465887/biden-to-authorize-broader-disaster-relief-for-texas) to the disaster declaration.
Federal Insurance
=================
It's funny that individual taxpayers are required to purchase liability insurance to enjoy the privilege of driving on public roads, but states are not required to purchase "regulatory insurance" to enjoy the privilege of federal disaster relief. When power plants in MN or ND or ME experience freezing temps, but survive just fine because federal regulations required larger safety margins, the ratepayers in those states pay more for electricity, but receive larger uptime performance. If there were a major disaster in one of those states that precipitated a federal disaster declaration and accompanying relief, taxpayers in other states should not resent the outcome too much, because the affected states have already paid in their "insurance premiums".
Texas, on the other hand, has chosen to forego the "federal insurance" of the national power regulatory framework, but *still receives the protection* of federal disaster relief. And so, Texas taxpayers are transferring my tax dollars to their state under the force of the Federal executive.
I would actually be ok with this, if FEMA dollars were conditioned upon states adhering to or adopting nationwide precautionary measures for whatever situation precipitates the emergency. "You want emergency relief for your short-sighted grid planning? No problem. But by accepting these dollars, you agree to fall under the oversight of the Federal Power Commission. Have a nice day." |
62,611 | A recent article by the [Texas Tribune](https://www.texastribune.org/2011/02/08/texplainer-why-does-texas-have-its-own-power-grid/) explains why Texas has its own electrical grid:
>
> The Texas Interconnected System — which for a long time was actually operated by two discrete entities, one for northern Texas and one for southern Texas — had another priority: staying out of the reach of federal regulators. In 1935, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Federal Power Act, which charged the Federal Power Commission with overseeing interstate electricity sales. By not crossing state lines, Texas utilities avoided being subjected to federal rules. "Freedom from federal regulation was a cherished goal — more so because Texas had no regulation until the 1970s," writes Richard D. Cudahy in a 1995 article, "The Second Battle of the Alamo: The Midnight Connection."
>
>
>
But what exactly does it gain from staying independent? Is it purely a political statement or is there a rational reason behind having a completely separate grid? | 2021/02/18 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/62611",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7434/"
] | As a general rule, regulation transfers costs from consumers to producers, while deregulation transfers costs from producers to consumers. In this specific case, that works out like so:
* With regulation, energy producers would be required to take precautionary steps to ensure the security and viability of the power grid, and could be held accountable for failures to do so. In other words, the energy producers would have to pay up-front to upgrade their equipment, and if they didn't do so they could be subject to penalties and lawsuits for any harm that came from inaction. This would have a significant impact on their profit margins.
* Without regulation, energy producers are not obliged to pay up-front for upgrades, and have better legal protections against fines or lawsuits for not doing so. The costs incurred from a disaster of this sort will be absorbed by the state or federal governments through emergency management procedures, and will ultimately be paid by the taxpayer. Corporate profits are increased by cutting corners, with little or no financial risk to the corporations themselves.
This is essentially the same thing that happened during the California energy crisis back in the late 1990s, the Flint Michigan water crisis, and other less severe cases caused by reckless deregulation under GOP administrations | It’s actually a purely economic reason. Regulations invariably increase cost, as regulation increases work above and beyond the cost of achieving a regulatory goal ie documentation of regulatory compliance.
Think of it this way, suppose they had to comply with the regulatory rules for every country in the world (ignoring jurisdiction). Suppose further that there were no conflicts, just that some were more strict than others. That would be a huge burden on a company just in the paperwork alone, but it would also be a problem in deciding which regulation to follow. If there’s a minimum distance between components, they would have to be aware of all of them, in order to be sure they complied.
Now, this of course isn’t that extreme, and for quite a while they didn’t have any regulatory rules to follow, but it still applies. No regulatory paperwork is going to be cheaper than one, and when the states added their own, one is cheaper than two.
NOTE: Just as you can exceed regulatory standards when they apply, you can exceed them even when they don’t. The desire to escape regulatory oversight is not limited to those that want to produce low quality crap. The main reason a company would want regulatory oversight is because they think it gives them an economic advantage. Not because they feel they need it in order to produce good work. |
239,289 | I have just recently started using SQL Server Management Studio. After some hitches, I have managed to create a Database. Inside the DB I have also created some Tables and populate them.
Now I am trying another software that needs to be connected to this DB. When running the software it asks me:
"Data Souce" and "Catalog"
Apparently the "Catalog" is the name of the DB I have created but I don't know what "Data Source" refers.
It must be a rather begineer question but what does "Data Source" refers to? | 2019/05/29 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/239289",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/181611/"
] | It is free and a part of Visual Studio Community Edition. | The EULA of VS 2019 community edition has a specific section that allows enterprise users to use it for the SSDT workload. See <https://visualstudio.microsoft.com/license-terms/mlt031819/>.
>
> Any number of your users may use the software only for Microsoft SQL Server development when using the SQL Server Data Tools or the extensions “Microsoft Analysis Services Projects”, “Microsoft Reporting Services Projects”, or “SQL Server Integration Services Projects” to develop Microsoft SQL Server database projects or Analysis Services, Reporting Services, Power BI Report Server, or Integration Services projects.
>
>
>
<https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/sql-docs/issues/1886> |
113,713 | Few days ago I appeared in a postdoc interview. The PI was very much impressed with my resume and the interview went very well. The PI asked me when do you want to join. The next day he asked recommendation letters from two of my references (I am sure that they will give me a very good recommendation). After 2 weeks I got the rejection letter. How to interpret this rejection (he told me that the position is filled by some other candidate). This will be useful for my future postdoc endeavors.
I politely asked him the reason. He did not reply.
Thanks in advance. Sorry if this question is inappropriate. | 2018/07/15 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/113713",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/94637/"
] | There isn’t anything to interpret. The only conclusion you can draw is that there was another candidate whom the professor thought would be a better fit for the position, for an unspecified reason.
Our minds have a psychological tendency to want to fill in a lack of information with speculation and beliefs. The added information you have in this case is literally zero, so you must resist the urge to “interpret”; it is futile and serves no useful purpose.
Good luck with the job search! | It is impossible to say without more information, which you should seek. It may be that the PI in question didn't have final say, or some funding evaporated, or ...
It isn't out of the question that it was just a mistake.
It may also just be that they found someone they liked better or thought would be a better fit in the interim.
If you feel comfortable with the PI, you could just ask (nicely) what happened and that any feedback would be appreciated. It may not be possible for him to give you much information, but you might learn something.
It would be good to know if there was a deal-breaker somewhere, but you may have no way to learn that.
But in general, if you got a good feeling about the interview, it probably doesn't say anything about your future. Carry on, do your best.
While it is true that some people will act very positively in person, just to avoid any potential conflict, don't let that realization get in the way of acting positively and naturally yourself in future interviews. You can't control the things you can't control. The PI may have acted toward other candidates precisely as he acted with you, but then had to make a choice. |
16,038 | We were both running after the ball hard (I was in a direct line with the ball, he was not). He barely overtook me, cut right in front of me and tripped on my running feet. I don't know if there is the concept of a player's "space" in soccer, but if there is, he definitely entered "my" space and tripped himself. Should this foul be against me? (it was called against me). | 2017/04/27 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/16038",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/13279/"
] | There are a number of factors to consider here.
The most important is whether the ball is in playing distance.
[Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct, Section 2 - Indirect Free Kick](http://theifab.com/laws/fouls-and-misconduct/chapters/indirect-free-kick) states:
>
> Impeding the progress of an opponent means moving into the opponent’s path to obstruct, block, slow down or force a change of direction when the ball is not within playing distance of either player.
>
>
>
If a player *barely* overtook you, and the ball is not in playing distance1 of either of you, the player has committed the indirect free kick offence of *impeding the progress of an opponent without contact being made*. However, since contact subsequently occurred before play could be stopped, the offence becomes the [direct free kick offence](http://theifab.com/laws/fouls-and-misconduct/chapters/direct-free-kick) of *impeding an opponent with contact*.
1 - As [defined by IFAB](http://static-3eb8.kxcdn.com/assets/documents/IFAB_laws_of_the_game_glossary.pdf) (PDF link), *playing distance* means:
>
> Distance to the ball which allows a player to touch the ball by extending the foot/leg or jumping or, for goalkeepers, jumping with arms extended. Distance depends on the physical size of the player
>
>
>
There is a concept of personal space, or a *right to position* in [12.2](http://theifab.com/laws/fouls-and-misconduct/chapters/indirect-free-kick), but it only extends to the space you are occupying, not the space around it.
>
> All players have a right to their position on the field of play; being in the way of an opponent is not the same as moving into the way of an opponent.
>
>
>
This means that even if the the ball is in playing distance, the opposing player is not free to carelessly, recklessly or with excessive force, push, charge or otherwise knock you out of that position. However they may:
>
> ... shield the ball by taking a position between an opponent and the ball if the ball is within playing distance and the opponent is not held off with the arms or body ...
>
>
>
So if the ball was in playing distance, the referee needs to make a judgement call. Some of the considerations that would be made as part of this decision are:
* Did the opponent make an effort to shield or play the ball?
+ If so, and you had ample time to stop, or were otherwise careless (e.g. moving towards the ball at high speed, with no regard as to who was around you), the opponent will most likely receive a free kick as you have committed the offence of *carelessly trips an opponent*.
+ If before the contact, you and the opponent were fairly charging each other, and then you've continued the contact after the player has won the contest and placed themselves between you and the ball, the referee may deem this to be *carelessly charging an opponent* and also award a free kick to the opposing team.
+ If you had no ability to stop and weren't being careless, the physical contact that occurred may just be a natural consequence of an opponent placing themselves between a moving player and the ball and play. If this was the case, play would continue. It's a common occurrence for two players to fairly attempt to enter the same space at the same time and for one to come off second best.
* If the player didn't really make an effort to shield or play the ball, and their movement had the sole effect of creating contact with you, the referee may decide to award a direct free kick to you as the opponent has *carelessly tripped an opponent* or *carelessly charged an opponent*. This usually occurs if an opponent just throws their legs and not their body between a player and the ball, without making contact with the ball, or throws their weight back into the oncoming player as part of the shielding process. | If by "player's space" you meant "a virtual circle around your body where an opponent cannot enter", I would say there is not such kind of rule in football. Two opponents have to struggle to possess the ball and that means sometimes they have to be very close to each other.
Even on corner or free kick situations, the defender will be very close to the attacker, even touching him with his chest, sometimes surrounding him with his body, marking him very closely. And there is nothing wrong about it.
On your situation, the referee interpreted that your opponent was in possession of the ball. At this moment your body can't be an obstacle of his (even if it wasn't intentional from you), hence the fault. |
118,264 | This is a similar puzzle to the one I asked about here: [90, 135, 180 degrees, but no 225, find the pattern](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/118258/90-135-180-degrees-but-no-225-find-the-pattern)
Say we have the following pattern.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IXrui.png)
I want to know, given the possible 4 choices, which figure should come next.
1st choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iQkIG.png)
2nd choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YrVOP.png)
3rd choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s6MZA.png)
4th choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jgigH.png)
My thought process in approaching this problem: Notice we have a line as a divider in the 1st square, a triangle as a divider in the 2nd square, and a quadrilateral as a divider in the 3rd square. So maybe we need a pentagon as the divider as the figure that should come next, hence we should go with the 4th choice. But I'm really not sure. | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/118264",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/81585/"
] | I choose
>
> The 4th choice.
>
>
>
We can see that
>
> One of the lines starts at a 6 o'clock position, and goes clockwise by 90 degrees every next term of the sequence, and the other line starts at a 12 o'clock position, and goes anticlockwise by 45 degrees every next term of the sequence. Also, the white square appeared for the first and third terms in the same spot, and the black square appeared for the second and third terms in the same spot, making something like a binary sequence. Possibly in the fourth term, there should be a new symbol introduced.
>
>
>
>
> In the fourth choice, a line goes through the red square, maybe making its value zero, and there is a white diamond, possibly symbolising 4, as the white square symbolised 1 and the black square symbolised 2.
>
>
>
>
> Another thing that supports the fourth choice is your argument, but the "line" you described may be a 180 degree angle with two lines. Since a triangle has three lines and a quadrilateral has four, you can go with the pentagonal structure of the fourth choice.
>
>
> | I would go with:
>
> Option 4
>
>
>
Because:
>
> We have two lines from the centre of the square The one that starts out pointing south goes 90 degrees clockwise in each pattern, while the one that starts pointing north goes anti-clockwise 45 degress in each pattern.
>
> The only option that has the expected line positions is option 4.
>
>
>
> I can't see any logical sequence to the black and white squares that continues in any of the four options, so am treating those as a red herring/misdirection. You could try to make up rules that would predict a red square and a diamond, but without either symbol appearing at all in the first three patterns, anything could be valid.
>
>
> |
118,264 | This is a similar puzzle to the one I asked about here: [90, 135, 180 degrees, but no 225, find the pattern](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/118258/90-135-180-degrees-but-no-225-find-the-pattern)
Say we have the following pattern.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IXrui.png)
I want to know, given the possible 4 choices, which figure should come next.
1st choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iQkIG.png)
2nd choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YrVOP.png)
3rd choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s6MZA.png)
4th choice:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jgigH.png)
My thought process in approaching this problem: Notice we have a line as a divider in the 1st square, a triangle as a divider in the 2nd square, and a quadrilateral as a divider in the 3rd square. So maybe we need a pentagon as the divider as the figure that should come next, hence we should go with the 4th choice. But I'm really not sure. | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/118264",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/81585/"
] | I choose
>
> The 4th choice.
>
>
>
We can see that
>
> One of the lines starts at a 6 o'clock position, and goes clockwise by 90 degrees every next term of the sequence, and the other line starts at a 12 o'clock position, and goes anticlockwise by 45 degrees every next term of the sequence. Also, the white square appeared for the first and third terms in the same spot, and the black square appeared for the second and third terms in the same spot, making something like a binary sequence. Possibly in the fourth term, there should be a new symbol introduced.
>
>
>
>
> In the fourth choice, a line goes through the red square, maybe making its value zero, and there is a white diamond, possibly symbolising 4, as the white square symbolised 1 and the black square symbolised 2.
>
>
>
>
> Another thing that supports the fourth choice is your argument, but the "line" you described may be a 180 degree angle with two lines. Since a triangle has three lines and a quadrilateral has four, you can go with the pentagonal structure of the fourth choice.
>
>
> | Looking at everything I could go with
>
> answer 2
>
>
>
>
> The pictures are black and white - so I expect the answer to be too - but the main reason is:
>
> The pictures contain 3,4,5 objects resp.:
>
> 2 squares and a 1 line
>
> 2 squares and 2 lines
>
> 3 squares and 2 lines
>
> answer 2 is the only one that contains 6 objects, and it is black and white: It contains
>
> 2 long lines, 2 short lines and 2 squares.
>
> (Probably, it is a bit unclear with the 2 crossing long lines)
>
>
> |
23,075 | Is white vinegar, aka the stuff just labelled as "vinegar" in the US and which I use for cleaning my kettle, the same as "White wine vinegar", which I have purchased on accident a time or two? If not, what is white vinegar made of? | 2012/04/16 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/23075",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/6317/"
] | No, it's not. White vinegar (also known as distilled vinegar) is made of acetic acid diluted in distilled water. Its flavor is simple—its just sour. Typical concentrations range from 5–7% acetic acid.
White wine vinegar is made by allowing white wine to turn to vinegar. It has a much more complex flavor profile. It is also frequently less sour (acidic) than distilled white vinegar. | White wine vinegar is a completely different thing, it's less tangy and is more diluted as it's made from the white wine. The Ethanol in the white wine is let to oxidise into ethanoic acid, which is a carbolyxic acid also known as vinegar. |
23,075 | Is white vinegar, aka the stuff just labelled as "vinegar" in the US and which I use for cleaning my kettle, the same as "White wine vinegar", which I have purchased on accident a time or two? If not, what is white vinegar made of? | 2012/04/16 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/23075",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/6317/"
] | No, it's not. White vinegar (also known as distilled vinegar) is made of acetic acid diluted in distilled water. Its flavor is simple—its just sour. Typical concentrations range from 5–7% acetic acid.
White wine vinegar is made by allowing white wine to turn to vinegar. It has a much more complex flavor profile. It is also frequently less sour (acidic) than distilled white vinegar. | They are different. You can drink white wine before it turns to vinegar but if you drink distilled water and acetic acid you’re nuts. |
23,075 | Is white vinegar, aka the stuff just labelled as "vinegar" in the US and which I use for cleaning my kettle, the same as "White wine vinegar", which I have purchased on accident a time or two? If not, what is white vinegar made of? | 2012/04/16 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/23075",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/6317/"
] | White wine vinegar is a completely different thing, it's less tangy and is more diluted as it's made from the white wine. The Ethanol in the white wine is let to oxidise into ethanoic acid, which is a carbolyxic acid also known as vinegar. | They are different. You can drink white wine before it turns to vinegar but if you drink distilled water and acetic acid you’re nuts. |
1,977 | Is the gallbladder really just a rudimental organ? If I undergo cholecystectomy, will my life expectancy be shorter than normal because of that? | 2015/08/27 | [
"https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/1977",
"https://health.stackexchange.com",
"https://health.stackexchange.com/users/1437/"
] | This is very good and pragmatic question. I will answer no.
First of all, there are no studies to date which would have investigated the life expectancy after cholecystectomy. Of course this statement can be hardly profoundly backed up, but if you search [PubMed with "cholecystectomy AND "life expectancy"](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/?term=cholecystectomy%20AND%20%22life%20expectancy%22), none of the studies will look at this issue.
There is a [NICE guideline](http://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/IPG508) and a recently published [review article in NEJM](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26200981), which does not take any stance about the long term disadvantages such as reduced life expectancy after cholecystectomy. Moreover, laparoscopic cholecystectomies have been performed since 1985 and [open cholecystectomies since 1882](http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1900692-overview). [700 000 cholecystectomies](http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1582261-overview) are performed annually only in the US.
Considering that cholecystectomies have been performed more than 130 years and the total number performed only in US is probably some where around +10 mil, I am fairly certain that if this operation would indeed have definitive adverse long term effects, they would have been even suggested if not partly shown by some investigator some where to date.
Finally, even tough some investigator would stated that cholecystectomy is associated to reduced life expectancy, according to [Hill´s principles](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bradford_Hill_criteria) we should also be able to have some sort of plausibility in order to have causality between these two. I can´t up some up with reasonable plausibility at this moment.... | It occurred to me after I wrote the initial response that life expectancy would be UNAFFECTED and would not show up in data per se, because of the life style implications.
For example, higher consumption of sugar leads to a litany of health issues, of which problems with gall bladder is just one among many. So, a person that fits this bill has their gall bladder removed, their person life expectancy is not changed. Absent a lifestyle change, if they were going to live to be 70, after gall bladder surgery, they will still live to be 70.
If you have a lower sugar consumption, and hence a healthier lifestyle (all things being equal), well, you were going to live longer anyway, and probably won't need your gall bladder removed. But if you did a data query on life expectancy and gall bladder removal it would be difficult to make a precise correlation that would not be directly associated with gall bladder removal, that couldn't be laid at the feet of just a general lifestyle issue.
Gary Taubes book, "Good calories, Bad calories" does a great job of exploring various fat/carb/protein hypotheses, and examines the science and history behind them. [https://www.amazon.com/Good-Calories-Bad-Gary-Taubes-ebook/dp/B000UZNSC2/ref=sr\_1\_1?s=digital-text&ie=UTF8&qid=1490886787&sr=1-1&keywords=good+calories+bad+calories+by+gary+taubes](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B000UZNSC2) |
68,454 | The wording of the [Bred for War](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/traits/race-traits/bred-for-war) trait is as follows:
>
> **Bred for War**
>
>
> You tower above most other humans and possess a physique of hard,
> corded muscle.
>
>
> Benefit You gain a +1 trait bonus on Intimidate checks and a +1 trait
> bonus on your CMB because of your great size. **You must be at least 6**
> **feet tall.** (Emphasis Mine)
>
>
>
Someone on the Pathfinder Society Facebook Group stated they have a Halfling who is 8 feet tall because they used the [Adopted](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/traits/social-traits/adopted) Social Trait to select it. I read the trait as *requiring* you to be six feet or taller to select the trait, not permitting an otherwise Small race to become taller than six feet via its selection. | 2015/09/12 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/68454",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23037/"
] | You could use the Bred for War racial trait as a member of an adopted species, but that wouldn't give you any sort of benefit if you're less than six feet tall. The Bonus to intimidate is a result of you being unquestionably large.
If you're a halfling adopted by half-orcs you will never be as intimidating as they are because you lack the physical stature the racial trait requires to attain its effect.
By the same token, a Human could use Adopted to get bred for War and be just fine provided they were at least six feet tall. In a way the "six feet tall" requirement is a prerequisite, even if it doesn't seem to be listed as such. | The wording is quite lear there. "You must be at least 6 feet tall." means exactly as it is stated. For this trait to work or have any effect you must be at least this "points finger at the 6 feet line" tall.
I would take it as an oversight that it is not put into a separate required part of the document (there are only very few such oversights for such a large number of traits,...).
So if the halfling is somehow over 6 feet tall (or just 6 feet) he can use it by all means (and adopted trait). Else no. |
106,811 | Since Adobe has decided to discontinue support for Flash in Linux, what does that mean for us Ubuntu fanboys and what alternatives are available to us? | 2012/02/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/106811",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/8357/"
] | >
> **What it Means for Users?**
>
>
> *For Flash Player releases after 11.2, the Flash Player browser plugin for Linux will only be available via the “Pepper” API as part of the Google Chrome browser distribution and will no longer be available as a direct download from Adobe.”*
>
>
> **What alternatives are available to us?**
>
>
> Quoting from [WebuUpd8](http://www.webupd8.org/2012/02/adobe-flash-for-linux-will-only-be.html):
>
>
> *use an alternative like Gnash or Lightspark (which will hopefully become more reliable) or hope that in 5 years, Flash won't matter and HTML5 will be used pretty much everywhere.*
>
>
>
[More.](http://www.omgubuntu.co.uk/2012/02/adobe-adandons-flash-on-linux/) | It doesn't mean anything. Flash 11.2 for Linux will be available for 5 years, and the later versions will also continue to be bundled with Google Chrome, so whoever wants it will have to do with that. As for alternatives, there is Gnash.
PS: Do all Ubuntu fanboys like flash? |
106,811 | Since Adobe has decided to discontinue support for Flash in Linux, what does that mean for us Ubuntu fanboys and what alternatives are available to us? | 2012/02/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/106811",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/8357/"
] | >
> **What it Means for Users?**
>
>
> *For Flash Player releases after 11.2, the Flash Player browser plugin for Linux will only be available via the “Pepper” API as part of the Google Chrome browser distribution and will no longer be available as a direct download from Adobe.”*
>
>
> **What alternatives are available to us?**
>
>
> Quoting from [WebuUpd8](http://www.webupd8.org/2012/02/adobe-flash-for-linux-will-only-be.html):
>
>
> *use an alternative like Gnash or Lightspark (which will hopefully become more reliable) or hope that in 5 years, Flash won't matter and HTML5 will be used pretty much everywhere.*
>
>
>
[More.](http://www.omgubuntu.co.uk/2012/02/adobe-adandons-flash-on-linux/) | If you want the latest Flash, just use Google Chrome. Otherwise you will use the old Flash which won't be updated (except for security updates) as stated by Adobe. |
106,811 | Since Adobe has decided to discontinue support for Flash in Linux, what does that mean for us Ubuntu fanboys and what alternatives are available to us? | 2012/02/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/106811",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/8357/"
] | IMHO, Flash is on its way out, although it would be an exaggeration to say it's on its deathbed. Flash is incredibly inefficient. A good way to lose an hour of battery life on your laptop is just leave open a few websites that make use of Flash (even seemingly innocuous uses). The iPhone/iPad incompatibility issues (and the subsequent [Thoughts on Flash](http://www.apple.com/hotnews/thoughts-on-flash/) commentary by Steve Jobs) have done a lot to bring this topic to the attention of the general public. Some of it is FUD, but there are good points there, and in any case, the average iPhone user is more than willing to believe The Steve.
Google is already moving away from using Flash on Youtube; HTML5 works on most videos (those without ads) on most platforms and browsers. Facebook is heavily encouraging its app developers to use HTML5, and according to my cursory Google search of "facebook flash"...it's been a while since someone wrote a tutorial website on developing flash apps for Facebook.
Simply put, Flash is not seen as desirable by a lot of people. It is hanging on simply by momentum but a lot of that is getting sapped by the moves of these big game-changing companies.
If Flash is still needed in the future for whatever, you can use Chrome. Opening up an alternate browser once in a while doesn't seem like a big deal for me; I remember having to use Internet Explorer as an alternative to Firefox for things like banking for a couple years until finally everyone caught on and now Firefox is the standard. At least you can get Chrome for Linux (unlike Internet Explorer). | >
> **What it Means for Users?**
>
>
> *For Flash Player releases after 11.2, the Flash Player browser plugin for Linux will only be available via the “Pepper” API as part of the Google Chrome browser distribution and will no longer be available as a direct download from Adobe.”*
>
>
> **What alternatives are available to us?**
>
>
> Quoting from [WebuUpd8](http://www.webupd8.org/2012/02/adobe-flash-for-linux-will-only-be.html):
>
>
> *use an alternative like Gnash or Lightspark (which will hopefully become more reliable) or hope that in 5 years, Flash won't matter and HTML5 will be used pretty much everywhere.*
>
>
>
[More.](http://www.omgubuntu.co.uk/2012/02/adobe-adandons-flash-on-linux/) |
106,811 | Since Adobe has decided to discontinue support for Flash in Linux, what does that mean for us Ubuntu fanboys and what alternatives are available to us? | 2012/02/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/106811",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/8357/"
] | IMHO, Flash is on its way out, although it would be an exaggeration to say it's on its deathbed. Flash is incredibly inefficient. A good way to lose an hour of battery life on your laptop is just leave open a few websites that make use of Flash (even seemingly innocuous uses). The iPhone/iPad incompatibility issues (and the subsequent [Thoughts on Flash](http://www.apple.com/hotnews/thoughts-on-flash/) commentary by Steve Jobs) have done a lot to bring this topic to the attention of the general public. Some of it is FUD, but there are good points there, and in any case, the average iPhone user is more than willing to believe The Steve.
Google is already moving away from using Flash on Youtube; HTML5 works on most videos (those without ads) on most platforms and browsers. Facebook is heavily encouraging its app developers to use HTML5, and according to my cursory Google search of "facebook flash"...it's been a while since someone wrote a tutorial website on developing flash apps for Facebook.
Simply put, Flash is not seen as desirable by a lot of people. It is hanging on simply by momentum but a lot of that is getting sapped by the moves of these big game-changing companies.
If Flash is still needed in the future for whatever, you can use Chrome. Opening up an alternate browser once in a while doesn't seem like a big deal for me; I remember having to use Internet Explorer as an alternative to Firefox for things like banking for a couple years until finally everyone caught on and now Firefox is the standard. At least you can get Chrome for Linux (unlike Internet Explorer). | It doesn't mean anything. Flash 11.2 for Linux will be available for 5 years, and the later versions will also continue to be bundled with Google Chrome, so whoever wants it will have to do with that. As for alternatives, there is Gnash.
PS: Do all Ubuntu fanboys like flash? |
106,811 | Since Adobe has decided to discontinue support for Flash in Linux, what does that mean for us Ubuntu fanboys and what alternatives are available to us? | 2012/02/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/106811",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/8357/"
] | IMHO, Flash is on its way out, although it would be an exaggeration to say it's on its deathbed. Flash is incredibly inefficient. A good way to lose an hour of battery life on your laptop is just leave open a few websites that make use of Flash (even seemingly innocuous uses). The iPhone/iPad incompatibility issues (and the subsequent [Thoughts on Flash](http://www.apple.com/hotnews/thoughts-on-flash/) commentary by Steve Jobs) have done a lot to bring this topic to the attention of the general public. Some of it is FUD, but there are good points there, and in any case, the average iPhone user is more than willing to believe The Steve.
Google is already moving away from using Flash on Youtube; HTML5 works on most videos (those without ads) on most platforms and browsers. Facebook is heavily encouraging its app developers to use HTML5, and according to my cursory Google search of "facebook flash"...it's been a while since someone wrote a tutorial website on developing flash apps for Facebook.
Simply put, Flash is not seen as desirable by a lot of people. It is hanging on simply by momentum but a lot of that is getting sapped by the moves of these big game-changing companies.
If Flash is still needed in the future for whatever, you can use Chrome. Opening up an alternate browser once in a while doesn't seem like a big deal for me; I remember having to use Internet Explorer as an alternative to Firefox for things like banking for a couple years until finally everyone caught on and now Firefox is the standard. At least you can get Chrome for Linux (unlike Internet Explorer). | If you want the latest Flash, just use Google Chrome. Otherwise you will use the old Flash which won't be updated (except for security updates) as stated by Adobe. |
118,186 | We are flying from Brussels to Amsterdam on one airline and then flying out to Iceland on a different airline. We will have checked bags. We can't check the bags through to the end city, so what is the process? What do we do when we land? Do we pick up our luggage somewhere go through immigration etc as if we were staying in Amsterdam, then come back in again to check the bags for the second airline? | 2018/07/10 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/118186",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/80227/"
] | Brussels (Belgium), Amsterdam (Netherlands) and Iceland are all within the [Schengen region](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area). As a result, you do NOT need to pass through immigration when traveling between them.
Presuming you are not able to check your luggage all the way through to Iceland (you may be able to, depending on the airlines involved), then in Amsterdam you will need to go to the baggage claim area, collect your bags, and then head to the check-in counters to check-in/drop bags for the second flight.
Once you're checked in and dropped your bags, you will need to pass through security again, then head to your gate.
At no point will you need to pass through immigration in any of the 3 airports. | If you are indeed correct that you can't check the bags through, then yes, you will have to pick up your luggage and go through customs. You will not go through immigration because Belgium and Iceland are both, like the Netherlands, part of the Schengen area.
Then you will go through customs and find the check in desk in the airport's main departures hall. There you will check your bags, whereafter you will get your boarding passes, go through security, and go to your gate. Again, no passport control.
Enjoy your trip. |
118,186 | We are flying from Brussels to Amsterdam on one airline and then flying out to Iceland on a different airline. We will have checked bags. We can't check the bags through to the end city, so what is the process? What do we do when we land? Do we pick up our luggage somewhere go through immigration etc as if we were staying in Amsterdam, then come back in again to check the bags for the second airline? | 2018/07/10 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/118186",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/80227/"
] | Brussels (Belgium), Amsterdam (Netherlands) and Iceland are all within the [Schengen region](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area). As a result, you do NOT need to pass through immigration when traveling between them.
Presuming you are not able to check your luggage all the way through to Iceland (you may be able to, depending on the airlines involved), then in Amsterdam you will need to go to the baggage claim area, collect your bags, and then head to the check-in counters to check-in/drop bags for the second flight.
Once you're checked in and dropped your bags, you will need to pass through security again, then head to your gate.
At no point will you need to pass through immigration in any of the 3 airports. | If your flights are on two separate tickets, the procedure is literally the procedure for taking a flight from Brussels to Amsterdam, followed by the procedure for taking a flight from Amsterdam to Iceland. In Amsterdam, you'll need to collect your bags, check them in for your second flight and then go through security again.
I hope you left plenty of time for your connection in Amsterdam. If you miss your connection, the airline to Iceland will just say, "It's your responsibility to get to the airport on time; it's not our fault you were late." |
68,116 | Take a random PHP site. It is essentially guaranteed that its web server is configured as follows: serve any file from the document root, except for certain files or paths that are blacklisted. Scripts are also made executable using a similar model: all .php files are executable by the web server except the blacklisted ones.
ASP.NET is configured the same in IIS: \*.aspx files are, by default, executable from any directory, and one is supposed to blacklist directories like a public "uploads" location to prevent vulnerabilities.
I don't know about other web servers, but in IIS it is entirely possible to flip this around, by removing all handler mappings and then whitelisting very specific files / paths. Given a well-structured codebase, one can have just two such mappings: a single mapping for a "/public/" to be served by the StaticFileHandler, and another mapping that maps "/index.php" - and *nothing* else - to the FastCgiModule. For ASP.NET, it's a bit more work, but *if this were a goal*, tools could be written to whitelist .aspx files during deployment, so that no other .aspx files could be executed, no matter where they are located.
Allowing everything and then trying to plug the holes is surely one of the "security 101" no-no's. Why is it so ubiquitous in web server set-ups then? | 2014/09/24 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/68116",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/8676/"
] | Because web-server content changes frequently and it would be annoying to have to constantly add new files to a whitelist.
>
> For ASP.NET, it's a bit more work, but if this were a goal, tools could be written to whitelist .aspx files during deployment, so that no other .aspx files could be executed, no matter where they are located.
>
>
>
But you don't typically deploy .aspx, .php files through a tool. You just drop them in the directory. It would require a huge change in how scripting languages work. They would cease to be scripting languages and become more like compiled languages.
>
> Allowing everything and then trying to plug the holes is surely one of the "security 101" no-no's. Why is it so ubiquitous in web server set-ups then?
>
>
>
Going the other way around would be based on the assumption that allowing user uploads is a normal use-case for everyone installing the webserver. Its not very likely that the majority of webserver instances allow user uploads, as most are undoubtedly corporate intranets or non-interactive sites that simply publish material to the user. | tl;dr: it is expensive
it works if you have
* a waf that allows whitelisting + learning-mode
* automated whitelist-generation
* automated deployment-cycles and a full-blown testing/QA - environment that tests ANY new function and feature
* good regression-testing
* ... |
109,251 | My question relates to the chord pattern formulas.
For this Example we are commonly given these two formula patterns as one of the steps to construct chords in a key. I have been self teaching/learning and can't seem to find any information on the web to explain how these patterns are derived?
For the Major scale = {Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj, Min, Dim} is used to build the chords in a key
For the Minor scale = {Min, Dim, Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj} is used to build the chords in a key
Anyone who can shed light on this part I would really appreciate.
Thanks | 2021/01/01 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/109251",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38108/"
] | For the purposes of this question, chords are most usefully defined as every other note from the root of the chord, with chords having their roots on each note of the corresponding scale.
### Triads (3-note chords)
Given a major or minor scale, the chords, given by the scale degrees comprising each chord are
| scale degrees | major scale example (C) | chord quality | minor scale example (A) | chord quality |
| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |
| 1 3 5 | C E G | major | A C E | minor |
| 2 4 6 | D F A | minor | B D F | diminished |
| 3 5 7 | E G B | minor | C E G | major |
| 4 6 1 | F A C | major | D F A | minor |
| 5 7 2 | G B D | major | E G1 B | minor1 |
| 6 1 3 | A C E | minor | F A C | major |
| 7 2 4 | B D F | diminished | G2 B D | major2 |
### Seventh chords (4-note chords)
| scale degrees | major scale example (C) | chord quality | minor scale example (A) | chord quality |
| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |
| 1 3 5 7 | C E G B | major | A C E G | minor |
| 2 4 6 1 | D F A C | minor | B D F A | half-diminished |
| 3 5 7 2 | E G B D | minor | C E G B | major |
| 4 6 1 3 | F A C E | major | D F A C | minor |
| 5 7 2 4 | G B D F | dominant | E G3 B D | minor3 |
| 6 1 3 5 | A C E G | minor | F A C E | major |
| 7 2 4 6 | B D F A | half-diminished | G4 B D F | major4 |
---
1 It is conventional in a minor key to raise the 7th scale degree by a half step to create a leading tone. Thus the chord rooted on the 5th scale degree becomes major.
2 It is conventional in a minor key to raise the 7th scale degree by a half step to create a leading tone. Thus the chord rooted on the 7th scale degree becomes diminished.
3 It is conventional in a minor key to raise the 7th scale degree by a half step to create a leading tone. Thus the chord rooted on the 5th scale degree becomes a dominant seventh chord.
4 It is conventional in a minor key to raise the 7th scale degree by a half step to create a leading tone. Thus the chord rooted on the 7th scale degree becomes a fully diminished seventh chord. | A lot of these answers are only partially correct and some have incorrect information in them. I'll try to clarify.
It's important to understand that chord quality and construction is independent of scales. Yes, both are defined by intervals, but their construction is mutually exclusive.
A scale is a sequence of intervals. In western music, there are Major scales and three types of Minor scales. Each type has a unique sequence of intervals that define it (as many of the posts here discuss). A scale can become a Key when the root note is assigned. For example, the Major scale becomes the key of "C Major" when you define "C" as the tonic of it. But all of this is irrelevant to chord construction.
Chords are also constructed of sets of intervals. Chords are simply 3 or more intervals intended to be played in unison (or rapid sequence as in strumming a guitar). A Major chord is defined as the Unison, a Major 3rd, and the Perfect 5th (technically a Minor 3rd above the first Major 3rd). Technically, these are not intervals of a scale, though a lot of people think of them that way. They are simply the number of semi-tones (or half-steps, if you like) between the notes.
Triads are very specific types of chords using exactly the Unison, a Major or Minor 3rd above it, and a Major or Minor 3rd above that. A Major chord is a type of Triad, but a Seventh chord is not because it has 4 intervals. Some chords have upwards of 7 or more intervals.
Finally, it doesn't matter which scale you are using, the chord constitution will always be the same. When playing a C Major chord on a piano, you will *always* play the same 3 physical keys (the C key, E key, and G key) regardless of which scale / Key you are playing in. The *only* thing that would change based on the key (i.e. scale) would be the note names of those 3 keys, but the physical pitches will always be the same.
If you are looking for which intervals chords are constructed from, this page lists a couple of dozen chord types and their intervals:
<https://www.internetchorddatabase.com/Reference.aspx> |
109,251 | My question relates to the chord pattern formulas.
For this Example we are commonly given these two formula patterns as one of the steps to construct chords in a key. I have been self teaching/learning and can't seem to find any information on the web to explain how these patterns are derived?
For the Major scale = {Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj, Min, Dim} is used to build the chords in a key
For the Minor scale = {Min, Dim, Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj} is used to build the chords in a key
Anyone who can shed light on this part I would really appreciate.
Thanks | 2021/01/01 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/109251",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38108/"
] | A lot of these answers are only partially correct and some have incorrect information in them. I'll try to clarify.
It's important to understand that chord quality and construction is independent of scales. Yes, both are defined by intervals, but their construction is mutually exclusive.
A scale is a sequence of intervals. In western music, there are Major scales and three types of Minor scales. Each type has a unique sequence of intervals that define it (as many of the posts here discuss). A scale can become a Key when the root note is assigned. For example, the Major scale becomes the key of "C Major" when you define "C" as the tonic of it. But all of this is irrelevant to chord construction.
Chords are also constructed of sets of intervals. Chords are simply 3 or more intervals intended to be played in unison (or rapid sequence as in strumming a guitar). A Major chord is defined as the Unison, a Major 3rd, and the Perfect 5th (technically a Minor 3rd above the first Major 3rd). Technically, these are not intervals of a scale, though a lot of people think of them that way. They are simply the number of semi-tones (or half-steps, if you like) between the notes.
Triads are very specific types of chords using exactly the Unison, a Major or Minor 3rd above it, and a Major or Minor 3rd above that. A Major chord is a type of Triad, but a Seventh chord is not because it has 4 intervals. Some chords have upwards of 7 or more intervals.
Finally, it doesn't matter which scale you are using, the chord constitution will always be the same. When playing a C Major chord on a piano, you will *always* play the same 3 physical keys (the C key, E key, and G key) regardless of which scale / Key you are playing in. The *only* thing that would change based on the key (i.e. scale) would be the note names of those 3 keys, but the physical pitches will always be the same.
If you are looking for which intervals chords are constructed from, this page lists a couple of dozen chord types and their intervals:
<https://www.internetchorddatabase.com/Reference.aspx> | I think it's important to understand the structure of the major scale and the answer given by Son of Fire makes this explicit. You are not really given a formula for the chords in a key in my opinion, you are given the definition of a key, and a formula for building a chord. From these two kernels the rest follow. And since major and natural minor are related it's no surprise that the set of chords is the same, just in a different sequence because natural minor scales and major scales are related, relative minor starts on the 6th degree of the corresponding major.
This follows for all the modes, as pointed out in other answers. If you ask what are the chords that naturally occur in Phrygian just start the major scale sequence on the 3rd degree and keep going.
It might be more interesting to look at melodic minor, or some other exotic, non-Western scale. The (jazz) melodic minor is W-H-W-W-W-H, e.g. A mm would be {A, B, C, D, E, F#, G#, A}. The triads that naturally occur here are: A-, B-, C+, D, E, F#dim, G#dim, A-.
Try applying the formula to other examples and you will become proficient at it and understand the relationship. |
109,251 | My question relates to the chord pattern formulas.
For this Example we are commonly given these two formula patterns as one of the steps to construct chords in a key. I have been self teaching/learning and can't seem to find any information on the web to explain how these patterns are derived?
For the Major scale = {Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj, Min, Dim} is used to build the chords in a key
For the Minor scale = {Min, Dim, Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj} is used to build the chords in a key
Anyone who can shed light on this part I would really appreciate.
Thanks | 2021/01/01 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/109251",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38108/"
] | The minor scale is just the major scale displaced by a 6th. It becomes clearer if we label the elements of the major scale below and then list the associated components of the minor scale.
Major scale = 1-Maj, 2-Min, 3-Min, 4-Maj, 5-Maj, 6-Min, 7-Dim
Minor scale = 6-Min, 7-Dim, 1-Maj, 2-Min, 3-Min, 4-Maj, 5-Maj | I think it's important to understand the structure of the major scale and the answer given by Son of Fire makes this explicit. You are not really given a formula for the chords in a key in my opinion, you are given the definition of a key, and a formula for building a chord. From these two kernels the rest follow. And since major and natural minor are related it's no surprise that the set of chords is the same, just in a different sequence because natural minor scales and major scales are related, relative minor starts on the 6th degree of the corresponding major.
This follows for all the modes, as pointed out in other answers. If you ask what are the chords that naturally occur in Phrygian just start the major scale sequence on the 3rd degree and keep going.
It might be more interesting to look at melodic minor, or some other exotic, non-Western scale. The (jazz) melodic minor is W-H-W-W-W-H, e.g. A mm would be {A, B, C, D, E, F#, G#, A}. The triads that naturally occur here are: A-, B-, C+, D, E, F#dim, G#dim, A-.
Try applying the formula to other examples and you will become proficient at it and understand the relationship. |
109,251 | My question relates to the chord pattern formulas.
For this Example we are commonly given these two formula patterns as one of the steps to construct chords in a key. I have been self teaching/learning and can't seem to find any information on the web to explain how these patterns are derived?
For the Major scale = {Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj, Min, Dim} is used to build the chords in a key
For the Minor scale = {Min, Dim, Maj, Min, Min, Maj, Maj} is used to build the chords in a key
Anyone who can shed light on this part I would really appreciate.
Thanks | 2021/01/01 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/109251",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38108/"
] | Trying to encapsulate an answer that's concise and short!
Triads are basically '*stacked thirds*'. That is, notes 1,3,5, and 2,4,6, and 3,5,7 etc.It is a fact that each root is from a diatonic note in that key. Thus 1,3,5 in key C is CEG; 2,4,6 is DFA, 3,5,7 is EGB etc.Some of those 'thirds' intervals are major (M), others minor (m). One has both intervals minor, (d) - diminished.
That gives a sequence of M m m M M m d, as others say.
Start the sequence on the last m - m d M m m M M - same order, different start point. So, really, one pattern! | Let's look at diatonic notes starting from C. **The white keys of the piano.** These are the notes of the C major scale, and a similar geometry of intervals exists in all keys, it just starts from a different note and the white/black key distribution isn't so simple when you start elsewhere. The piano keyboard has been deliberately designed so that it is easy to play diatonic things in the keys of C major and A minor.
**If there is a black key between two white keys**, for example C and D, the interval i.e. pitch distance between those keys is one **whole tone**, denoted as "w" in the picture below. **If there is no black key between two white keys**, for example E and F, the interval i.e. pitch distance between those keys is one **semitone**. One whole tone equals two semitones, so you can call them Whole and Half. (Don't ask why the distance between E and F, and B and C is only "half" when it's a full scale step, that's just the way it is.)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cb8I2.png)
Diatonic chords are constructed as **stacks of thirds**, i.e. by taking every other note of the scale. Scale degrees 1, 3, 5 are the first chord. Scale degrees 2, 4, 6 are the second chord etc. Such a jump, skipping over one scale note, is called a *third*. A jump encompassing three notes in the scale. C, D, E : three different note names, so a "third". The jump from C to G is ... C, D, E, F, G: five different note names, so it's a "fifth".
Here is the first such chord in the C major scale:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uHDgL.png)
As you can see, it starts from C, and the first interval in the chord, from C to E, is **two whole tones**. Which is **four semitones**. 2+2=4. The note E is called the "third" of the chord. Yes, it's the second note of the chord, but it's the chord's "third". Sorry about that. The jump C-D-E is a third, but C-D-E-F-G is a fifth.
When a chord's third is four semitones, it is a major chord. When a chord's third is three semitones, it is a minor chord. Major = larger. Minor = smaller. Four is larger than three.
Let's take the second chord of the scale:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KjH2T.png)
As you can hopefully figure out, the jump from D to F is **three semitones**. It's not actually rocket science, even though it seems to be so incredibly difficult to understand, based on the utter confusion people have over it. From D to E, there is a black key, so it is a whole tone, i.e. two semitones. From E to F, there is no black key, so it is one semitone. 2 + 1 = 3. Three semitones means a minor third, which means that the stack of two consecutive thirds starting from D is a minor chord.
Count the semitone jumps from D to F: ... 1, 2, **3!**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kICsm.png)
In the D minor chord, the jump from D to A, just like the jump from C to G, is a *fifth*. And it's seven semitones, a "perfect fifth". So, what makes a major and minor chord different from each other is the third.
Now there's just the one different case, B diminished.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1swR.png)
From B to D, the distance is three semitones. And from D to F, like we already saw, it is three semitones i.e. a minor third as well. A chord with two stacked minor thirds is called a **diminished** chord. The fifth in a diminished chord is only 6 semitones, as opposed to the 7 semitones of the major and major chords, and that's why it's called "diminished".
Ok. But **where does the other list come from?** If you start building the list of chords from the **A note** instead of the C note, you get the second list. The first one is a minor chord, A - C - E. Then a dim chord, B - D - F. Then a major chord, C - E - G. Etc. |
1,404,242 | I'm trying to split my application into different sub processes, each one doing a very specific thing. Main reason is stability and better memory utilization because i use a conservative garbage collector (boehm-weisser).
I don't want to do it one huge process that does it all.
Unfortunately the subprocesses must display some windows so they will need NSApplication instances.
But i want them to appear as one application in Expose and leave the menubar of the main process when they became active.
Is there any way to do this? | 2009/09/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1404242",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/155082/"
] | I believe there's no way to do this (without **a lot of** hacking).
The only possibility which comes to my mind would be to have a dedicated UI process (which is the main Application) and do a lot of IPC to with the child processes. In short: splitting MVC over processes. | There is no way to do this. On Mac OS X, an application that has the key focus is also the main application and, thus, owns the main menu bar, is drawn as in focus, etc... The entire system is built around this notion, including Expose, the Dock, the App Picker, Launch Services, etc...
I'm also curious as to why you aren't using the collector built into the system. The entire system has been engineered to work well with this collector. It is a conservative, exactly scanning (except the stack), almost entirely non-blocking collector. |
1,404,242 | I'm trying to split my application into different sub processes, each one doing a very specific thing. Main reason is stability and better memory utilization because i use a conservative garbage collector (boehm-weisser).
I don't want to do it one huge process that does it all.
Unfortunately the subprocesses must display some windows so they will need NSApplication instances.
But i want them to appear as one application in Expose and leave the menubar of the main process when they became active.
Is there any way to do this? | 2009/09/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1404242",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/155082/"
] | I believe there's no way to do this (without **a lot of** hacking).
The only possibility which comes to my mind would be to have a dedicated UI process (which is the main Application) and do a lot of IPC to with the child processes. In short: splitting MVC over processes. | Isn't this what Chrome and Stainless are doing?
Having one GUI application which talks to several worker processes is pretty easy to do. Things will get tricky if you want those helper processes to present UI.
I could imagine having helper applications with no menu bar or Dock icon. There just might be an option to have those tack overlay windows onto the main application's window. I have never tried anything remotely like this though. |
86,188 | I am starting to read up on SP development but none of the books I have checked have been able to answer this seemingly simple question.
I am pretty new to the dev side of things and feel like I missed something obvious. | 2014/01/02 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/86188",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10019/"
] | A feature is a development package that can be removed and deployed at will from the SharePoint side. Let's say we have a feature in Visual Studios that is a web part. If we deploy this web part as a feature (like most do) in Visual Studios, that web part will be immediately available because it will deploy the feature to sharepoint, and turn on that feature. It also gives the ability to site administrators and farm administrators to turn off (or toggle) the feature. That way the web part will no longer be available.
[SharePoint Feature](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb861828%28v=office.12%29.aspx) (2007 but still applicable) | Features make it easier to deploy managed solutions or site customizations to SharePoint. A feature can be just about anything, but more often than not it seems they are ASP.Net wrapped in a solution and deployed to SharePoint. (IMHO)
Check these out, see if they help:
MSDN overvew
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office/ms460318(v=office.14).aspx>
Channel 9 video
<http://channel9.msdn.com/Shows/Devs4Devs/Building-Features-in-SharePoint-2010>
Step by step guide in blog
<http://weblogs.asp.net/sreejukg/archive/2011/10/27/developing-sharepoint-2010-features-using-visual-studio-2010.aspx> |
86,188 | I am starting to read up on SP development but none of the books I have checked have been able to answer this seemingly simple question.
I am pretty new to the dev side of things and feel like I missed something obvious. | 2014/01/02 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/86188",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10019/"
] | A feature is a development package that can be removed and deployed at will from the SharePoint side. Let's say we have a feature in Visual Studios that is a web part. If we deploy this web part as a feature (like most do) in Visual Studios, that web part will be immediately available because it will deploy the feature to sharepoint, and turn on that feature. It also gives the ability to site administrators and farm administrators to turn off (or toggle) the feature. That way the web part will no longer be available.
[SharePoint Feature](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb861828%28v=office.12%29.aspx) (2007 but still applicable) | Feature is a unit of deployment that generally includes content such as .aspx application pages, list schemas, customizations expressed in CAML
I also highly recommend to read Ted Pattisons book: [http://www.amazon.com/dp/0735623201/?tag=stackoverfl08-20](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0735623201)
Check this Tech-net Article, [Creating SharePoint Features](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee231541.aspx)
also MSDN, [SharePoint Feature](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb861828%28v=office.12%29.aspx)
and [this link](http://www.dotnetspark.com/qa/3674-what-is-sharepoint-feature-features-are.aspx) |
86,188 | I am starting to read up on SP development but none of the books I have checked have been able to answer this seemingly simple question.
I am pretty new to the dev side of things and feel like I missed something obvious. | 2014/01/02 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/86188",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10019/"
] | Features make it easier to deploy managed solutions or site customizations to SharePoint. A feature can be just about anything, but more often than not it seems they are ASP.Net wrapped in a solution and deployed to SharePoint. (IMHO)
Check these out, see if they help:
MSDN overvew
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office/ms460318(v=office.14).aspx>
Channel 9 video
<http://channel9.msdn.com/Shows/Devs4Devs/Building-Features-in-SharePoint-2010>
Step by step guide in blog
<http://weblogs.asp.net/sreejukg/archive/2011/10/27/developing-sharepoint-2010-features-using-visual-studio-2010.aspx> | Feature is a unit of deployment that generally includes content such as .aspx application pages, list schemas, customizations expressed in CAML
I also highly recommend to read Ted Pattisons book: [http://www.amazon.com/dp/0735623201/?tag=stackoverfl08-20](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0735623201)
Check this Tech-net Article, [Creating SharePoint Features](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee231541.aspx)
also MSDN, [SharePoint Feature](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb861828%28v=office.12%29.aspx)
and [this link](http://www.dotnetspark.com/qa/3674-what-is-sharepoint-feature-features-are.aspx) |
167,878 | I read that 'stand for' means 'To represent; symbolize,' and now I'm wondering whether it can be used in reference to an acronym.
For example, is it proper English the following question ...
'Can you tell me what D.S.J. stands for?'
... in order to ask what 'D', 'S' and 'J' mean?
I'm asking because it is unclear to me what the difference between 'to mean' and 'to represent' (or 'to symbolize') is.
To me, a more natural way to ask the above question would be ...
'Can you tell me what D.S.J. means?'
'to mean' seems to me more proper than 'to stand for' which I would use almost only if an abstract concept, rather than an acronym, is involved. | 2014/05/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/167878",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24531/"
] | Yes, IBM stands for International business machines . | Yes. The sentence is valid and means as you described it. |
70,129 | Lose weight dramatically, becoming muscular (5)
Hint:
>
> Tom's first guess has correctly identified the anagrind and definition.
>
>
> | 2018/08/20 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/70129",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/39764/"
] | Third time lucky
>
> SWOLE
>
>
>
Wordplay is
>
> LOSE + W (abbrev. of weight) the anagrind is dramatically becoming definition muscular.
>
>
>
---
A second more robust try:
>
> STOUT - muscular
>
>
>
With word play
>
> st as abbreviation for stone(s) as in pounds (lb) and ounces (oz)
>
> st + out : means stone(s) out (of you) which is to lose weight dramatically.
>
>
>
---
First try:
Running with this:
>
> TONED - having firm and well-defined muscles.
>
>
>
If this wordplay is fit:
>
> de-ton: anagram (clued by dramatically), where [de](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/de) - means lose and ton is a weight.
>
>
>
Recover the endless well-being (6) | is it :
>
> a-diet or diets ? -> some crosswords don't show word breakups to keep it challenging not sure if you have done the same or not
>
>
> |
109,108 | One of my Real ID friends has a small number next to his name on my friends list.
What does this refer to? None of my other Real ID friends seem to have it.
 | 2013/03/15 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/109108",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/336/"
] | **That's their HotS profile level (player progression).**
The game adds up all 3 of their racial levels (the ones based on XP gain in multiplayer) to get their profile level, and displays that in the bottom left of their portrait. It doesn't show up if they haven't hit level 1 for any of the races, so possible values are 1-90.
Picture above is from leveling announcement back in the Beta, and still show 20 levels per race. Release version has 30 levels per race (EDIT: 35 levels per race as of Jan 21, 2014), as obvious from Rewards menu of any player profile - check out [this random guy](http://us.battle.net/sc2/en/profile/3685914/1/Willsaber/rewards/skins), Zealot skin reward.
 | The number is **player progression**,it is counted as (Protoss+Terran+Zerg race level).Each race can have maximum of 20 levels making the max player progression level of 60.
Official battlenet [source](http://us.battle.net/sc2/en/blog/7681240?page=7) |
506,216 | My laptop had Ubuntu pre-installed in it. I installed Windows 7 from USB by following the steps from [How can I install Windows after I've installed Ubuntu?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/6317/how-can-i-install-windows-after-ive-installed-ubuntu)
Windows booted fine before I ran boot-repair. However, after I installed and ran the boot-repair from the Ubuntu live CD, Windows has stopped booting. Just a blank screen appears and nothing happens. What to do?
Thanks in advance. | 2014/08/03 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/506216",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/248389/"
] | Not an answer, but because that's too much for putting it into a comment.
You can read more on all of these popular threads.
* [Installing Ubuntu on a Pre-Installed Windows 8 (64-bit) System (UEFI Supported)](https://askubuntu.com/questions/221835/installing-ubuntu-on-a-pre-installed-windows-8-64-bit-system-uefi-supported)
* [How can I install Windows after I've installed Ubuntu?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/6317/how-can-i-install-windows-after-ive-installed-ubuntu)
* [Installing Ubuntu 13.10 alongside Windows 8.1](https://askubuntu.com/questions/399441/installing-ubuntu-13-10-alongside-windows-8-1)
* [How can I install Ubuntu without removing Windows?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/1366/how-can-i-install-ubuntu-without-removing-windows)
* [Why don't I have the option ''Install Ubuntu alongside with them''](https://askubuntu.com/questions/69481/why-dont-i-have-the-option-install-ubuntu-alongside-with-them)
* [Ubuntu install and dual Boot with Windows 8 UEFI](https://askubuntu.com/questions/193103/ubuntu-install-and-dual-boot-with-windows-8-uefi)
* [Ubuntu 13.10 installer/live fails to boot from DVD/USB on UEFI](https://askubuntu.com/questions/385159/ubuntu-13-10-installer-live-fails-to-boot-from-dvd-usb-on-uefi)
* [Install Ubuntu next to Windows 8 (UEFI dual boot)](https://askubuntu.com/questions/236787/install-ubuntu-next-to-windows-8-uefi-dual-boot)
* [Windows 8 removes Grub as default boot manager](https://askubuntu.com/questions/235567/windows-8-removes-grub-as-default-boot-manager)
* [Windows 8 deletes GRUB when booting](https://askubuntu.com/questions/447201/windows-8-deletes-grub-when-booting) | Just a suggestion, and that should solve your issues as long as you don't mind wiping your disk or having the trouble of backing up / moving files around between systems.
Best choice would be to wipe your disk, install Windows first using the first partition and then Ubuntu alongside it. |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | I would limit the character limit, truncate the text and use a tooltip when the user hovers over the truncated text. This technique worked most of the time, users were able to tell quickly how to access to full text. Its intuitive and space efficient.
Edit: This would work on click for mobile devices
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SP67F.png) | Whenever I design anything with text in focus, I prefer to go to basics. How will I write it on paper?
So in this case, if I will reach the end of paper/line, I will wrap it to a new line and it will be easy for readers to see it and read it.
While editing, It might be underlined by a border in text field, so users can comprehend that there is more text here. |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | Your idea with a fade sounds good on paper, but if you found that it confuses people in certain situations, then I can think of several things:
* Remove the fade when the textbox is active, as you suggested, and TEST THIS IDEA on potential users.
* Consider not showing a fade at all. It's common text field behavior that text that is too long is cut off, and one can often tell from the content that it is cut off. Here's an example: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CNTGt.png)
* If you expect this particular text field to hold long content, consider using a multiline field.
* You may also play with using a single line text field and expanding it into a multi-line one on click. | Make the input an obvious input for the user. Users no how it works and behaves.
When they are not editing the text, break text to a new line so the full text is visible. Truncating is annoying and often not needed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DGWwL.png)
And when editing: (It's not a big issue that the input switches to a single line)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D60gh.png) |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | I would suggest to simply expand the full text at tap (or click). Moreover i would simplify the labeling if possible.
hope this helps!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cazcW.png) | Make the input an obvious input for the user. Users no how it works and behaves.
When they are not editing the text, break text to a new line so the full text is visible. Truncating is annoying and often not needed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DGWwL.png)
And when editing: (It's not a big issue that the input switches to a single line)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D60gh.png) |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | Your idea with a fade sounds good on paper, but if you found that it confuses people in certain situations, then I can think of several things:
* Remove the fade when the textbox is active, as you suggested, and TEST THIS IDEA on potential users.
* Consider not showing a fade at all. It's common text field behavior that text that is too long is cut off, and one can often tell from the content that it is cut off. Here's an example: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CNTGt.png)
* If you expect this particular text field to hold long content, consider using a multiline field.
* You may also play with using a single line text field and expanding it into a multi-line one on click. | Add an expand / read more button or link at the end of the line. This way the user knows he can interact with it and view the longer text.
Can also add truncation. (Thats the three dots you're talking about) |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | I would suggest to simply expand the full text at tap (or click). Moreover i would simplify the labeling if possible.
hope this helps!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cazcW.png) | Whenever I design anything with text in focus, I prefer to go to basics. How will I write it on paper?
So in this case, if I will reach the end of paper/line, I will wrap it to a new line and it will be easy for readers to see it and read it.
While editing, It might be underlined by a border in text field, so users can comprehend that there is more text here. |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | Your idea with a fade sounds good on paper, but if you found that it confuses people in certain situations, then I can think of several things:
* Remove the fade when the textbox is active, as you suggested, and TEST THIS IDEA on potential users.
* Consider not showing a fade at all. It's common text field behavior that text that is too long is cut off, and one can often tell from the content that it is cut off. Here's an example: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CNTGt.png)
* If you expect this particular text field to hold long content, consider using a multiline field.
* You may also play with using a single line text field and expanding it into a multi-line one on click. | Whenever I design anything with text in focus, I prefer to go to basics. How will I write it on paper?
So in this case, if I will reach the end of paper/line, I will wrap it to a new line and it will be easy for readers to see it and read it.
While editing, It might be underlined by a border in text field, so users can comprehend that there is more text here. |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | Add an expand / read more button or link at the end of the line. This way the user knows he can interact with it and view the longer text.
Can also add truncation. (Thats the three dots you're talking about) | Make the input an obvious input for the user. Users no how it works and behaves.
When they are not editing the text, break text to a new line so the full text is visible. Truncating is annoying and often not needed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DGWwL.png)
And when editing: (It's not a big issue that the input switches to a single line)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D60gh.png) |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | I would limit the character limit, truncate the text and use a tooltip when the user hovers over the truncated text. This technique worked most of the time, users were able to tell quickly how to access to full text. Its intuitive and space efficient.
Edit: This would work on click for mobile devices
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SP67F.png) | Make the input an obvious input for the user. Users no how it works and behaves.
When they are not editing the text, break text to a new line so the full text is visible. Truncating is annoying and often not needed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DGWwL.png)
And when editing: (It's not a big issue that the input switches to a single line)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D60gh.png) |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | Add an expand / read more button or link at the end of the line. This way the user knows he can interact with it and view the longer text.
Can also add truncation. (Thats the three dots you're talking about) | Whenever I design anything with text in focus, I prefer to go to basics. How will I write it on paper?
So in this case, if I will reach the end of paper/line, I will wrap it to a new line and it will be easy for readers to see it and read it.
While editing, It might be underlined by a border in text field, so users can comprehend that there is more text here. |
115,543 | We have a design for an app developed by an external agency and our business people seem to be happy with it. But it’s really terrible - the colours are too bright, the text is difficult to read and so on.
How can we persuade our business that it needs to be changed? We can’t just say “We don’t like it, it sucks.” We need to have valid points against this colour scheme.
I understand that colours are subjective. But are there any objective metrics that can show the difference between bad and good app colour scheme? | 2018/02/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/115543",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/111787/"
] | I would suggest to simply expand the full text at tap (or click). Moreover i would simplify the labeling if possible.
hope this helps!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cazcW.png) | Add an expand / read more button or link at the end of the line. This way the user knows he can interact with it and view the longer text.
Can also add truncation. (Thats the three dots you're talking about) |
137,714 | I’m playing a grappling Eldritch Knight, and wanted to know if advantage on Strength checks (from the [*enlarge/reduce*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/enlarge-reduce) spell) would make my grapple check - which is an Athletics check - have advantage. | 2018/12/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/137714",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50875/"
] | Advantage on Strength checks gives advantage on grapples
--------------------------------------------------------
The rule for [grappling](https://www.dndbeyond.com/compendium/rules/basic-rules/combat#Grappling) says:
>
> ...you try to seize the target by making a grapple check instead of an attack roll: a **Strength** (Athletics) check contested by the target’s Strength (Athletics) or Dexterity (Acrobatics) check...
>
>
>
Emphasis mine.
*[Enlarge](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/enlarge-reduce)* gives advantage to all Strength checks, which include Strength (Athletics) checks. | A Strength (Athletics) check is, in fact, a Strength check - the hint is in the word "Strength".
If you are initiating a [grapple](https://roll20.net/compendium/dnd5e/Combat#toc_42) then a Strength (Athletics) check is what you use and if you have advantage(disadvantage) on Strength checks you have advantage(disadvantage) on this check because, as pointed out above, its a Strength check.
If you are trying to avoid or escape from a grapple then you can choose to use Strength (Athletics) or Dexterity (Acrobatics). The first is a Strength check, the second isn't - its a Dexterity check. As a quick aside, Initiative is a Dexterity check so advantage(disadvantage) on Dexterity checks gives you the same on Initiative rolls.
If you are keen on building a grappler, you should check out the [Grappler's Guide](http://www.enworld.org/forum/showthread.php?468737-The-Grappler-s-Manual-(2-0)-Grappling-in-5th-Edition), one of the prime things it recommends aiming for is access to the *Enlarge* spell, partly to get the advantage you identified but also to allow you to grapple Huge sized creatures. |
137,714 | I’m playing a grappling Eldritch Knight, and wanted to know if advantage on Strength checks (from the [*enlarge/reduce*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/enlarge-reduce) spell) would make my grapple check - which is an Athletics check - have advantage. | 2018/12/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/137714",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50875/"
] | A Strength (Athletics) check is, in fact, a Strength check - the hint is in the word "Strength".
If you are initiating a [grapple](https://roll20.net/compendium/dnd5e/Combat#toc_42) then a Strength (Athletics) check is what you use and if you have advantage(disadvantage) on Strength checks you have advantage(disadvantage) on this check because, as pointed out above, its a Strength check.
If you are trying to avoid or escape from a grapple then you can choose to use Strength (Athletics) or Dexterity (Acrobatics). The first is a Strength check, the second isn't - its a Dexterity check. As a quick aside, Initiative is a Dexterity check so advantage(disadvantage) on Dexterity checks gives you the same on Initiative rolls.
If you are keen on building a grappler, you should check out the [Grappler's Guide](http://www.enworld.org/forum/showthread.php?468737-The-Grappler-s-Manual-(2-0)-Grappling-in-5th-Edition), one of the prime things it recommends aiming for is access to the *Enlarge* spell, partly to get the advantage you identified but also to allow you to grapple Huge sized creatures. | I believe so
------------
When you initiate a [grapple](https://www.dndbeyond.com/compendium/rules/basic-rules/combat#Grappling), you do so by:
>
> ... making a grapple check instead of an attack roll: a **Strength (Athletics) check** contested by the target’s Strength (Athletics)
>
>
>
Meaning that advantage on Strength checks does give you advantage when trying to grapple. |
137,714 | I’m playing a grappling Eldritch Knight, and wanted to know if advantage on Strength checks (from the [*enlarge/reduce*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/enlarge-reduce) spell) would make my grapple check - which is an Athletics check - have advantage. | 2018/12/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/137714",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50875/"
] | Advantage on Strength checks gives advantage on grapples
--------------------------------------------------------
The rule for [grappling](https://www.dndbeyond.com/compendium/rules/basic-rules/combat#Grappling) says:
>
> ...you try to seize the target by making a grapple check instead of an attack roll: a **Strength** (Athletics) check contested by the target’s Strength (Athletics) or Dexterity (Acrobatics) check...
>
>
>
Emphasis mine.
*[Enlarge](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/enlarge-reduce)* gives advantage to all Strength checks, which include Strength (Athletics) checks. | I believe so
------------
When you initiate a [grapple](https://www.dndbeyond.com/compendium/rules/basic-rules/combat#Grappling), you do so by:
>
> ... making a grapple check instead of an attack roll: a **Strength (Athletics) check** contested by the target’s Strength (Athletics)
>
>
>
Meaning that advantage on Strength checks does give you advantage when trying to grapple. |
1,132,695 | I have an SSIS package that needs to be deployed to SQL Server agent.
It has 2 external dependencies (2 assemblies, both installed in the GAC)
Now the package runs just fine under a File System Deployment
but when we deploy to SQL Server agent it fails with 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' within the task that requires 1 of the external dependencies
Just to let you know, this external dependency is an Interop assembly to the right fax com api
What is the main differences between File System deployment and SQL Server deployment. I think if I can understand this a bit more then I may be able to diagnose the issue. | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1132695",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1950/"
] | File system SSIS deployments (the only kind I've done) store SSIS packages as files on the OS. SQL Server deployments, if I have it right, first load the packages to be stored in a "deploymemt-only" file, which is later used to load them back into a different instance of SQL Server. (I don't know what database they're loaded into--in SQL 7.0 and 2000, DTS packages were stored in msdb, so I'd look there first. Maybe undocumented table sysdtspackages?)
Personally, it all looked so darn confusing and hard to maintain over time that I just stuck with files. Weaker security, and I'm not sure what other benefits I'm missing out on, but when updating I just copy over new files and I'm done. | SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) can be deployed in two ways: File System Deployment and SQL Server Deployment. Here we’ll see the difference between the these two methods.
File System Deployment:
•The packages are saved on a physical location on the hard disk drive or any shared folder on the network.
•We can easily manage the packages if we want to bring about any changes in it.
•Packages are available when on file system, as there is will be no issue of server being down.
•We can easily load the packages in to the designer.
SQL Server Deployment:
•SSIS packages will be stored in the MSDB database, in the sysssispackages table (we can find this table in the MSDB database under system tables – msdb.dbo.sysssispackages). We can save the packages in different folders if we want, these folders being virtual folders. Here the SSIS package will not be stored as a physical file rather it will be on the MSDB database.
•Packages can be easily accessed by multiple individuals when saved on SQL Server.
•It is more secure as compared to File System, as it gets the same benefits as Database security.
•We can have the packages backed up while taking backup of the databases.
•We can filter the packages using SQL Server queries using the sysssispackages table. |
10,412,063 | I want to have simple program in python that can process different requests (POST, GET, MULTIPART-FORMDATA). I don't want to use a complete framework.
I basically need to be able to get GET and POST params - probably (but not necessarily) in a way similar to PHP. To get some other SERVER variables like REQUEST\_URI, QUERY, etc.
I have installed nginx successfully, but I've failed to find a good example on how to do the rest. So a simple tutorial or any directions and ideas on how to setup nginx to run certain python process for certain virtual host would be most welcome! | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10412063",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/762886/"
] | Although you can make Python run a webserver by itself with [`wsgiref`](http://docs.python.org/library/wsgiref.html#examples), I would recommend using one of the many Python webservers and/or web frameworks around. For pure and simple Python webhosting we have several options available:
* [gunicorn](https://gunicorn.org/)
* [tornado](https://www.tornadoweb.org/en/stable/)
* [twisted](https://twisted.org/)
* [uwsgi](https://uwsgi-docs.readthedocs.io/en/latest/)
* [cherrypy](https://docs.cherrypy.dev/en/latest/)
If you're looking for more features you can look at some web frameworks:
* [werkzeug](https://werkzeug.palletsprojects.com/)
* [flask](https://flask.palletsprojects.com/)
* [masonite](https://docs.masoniteproject.com/)
* [cherrypy](https://docs.cherrypy.dev/en/latest/) (yes, cherrypy is both a webserver and a framework)
* [django](https://www.djangoproject.com/) (for completeness, I know that was not the purpose of the question) | All the same you must use wsgi server, as nginx does not support fully this protocol. |
10,412,063 | I want to have simple program in python that can process different requests (POST, GET, MULTIPART-FORMDATA). I don't want to use a complete framework.
I basically need to be able to get GET and POST params - probably (but not necessarily) in a way similar to PHP. To get some other SERVER variables like REQUEST\_URI, QUERY, etc.
I have installed nginx successfully, but I've failed to find a good example on how to do the rest. So a simple tutorial or any directions and ideas on how to setup nginx to run certain python process for certain virtual host would be most welcome! | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10412063",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/762886/"
] | Although you can make Python run a webserver by itself with [`wsgiref`](http://docs.python.org/library/wsgiref.html#examples), I would recommend using one of the many Python webservers and/or web frameworks around. For pure and simple Python webhosting we have several options available:
* [gunicorn](https://gunicorn.org/)
* [tornado](https://www.tornadoweb.org/en/stable/)
* [twisted](https://twisted.org/)
* [uwsgi](https://uwsgi-docs.readthedocs.io/en/latest/)
* [cherrypy](https://docs.cherrypy.dev/en/latest/)
If you're looking for more features you can look at some web frameworks:
* [werkzeug](https://werkzeug.palletsprojects.com/)
* [flask](https://flask.palletsprojects.com/)
* [masonite](https://docs.masoniteproject.com/)
* [cherrypy](https://docs.cherrypy.dev/en/latest/) (yes, cherrypy is both a webserver and a framework)
* [django](https://www.djangoproject.com/) (for completeness, I know that was not the purpose of the question) | You can use thttpd. It is a lightweight wsgi server for running cgi scripts. It works well with nginx. How to setup thttpd with Nginx is detailed here: <http://nginxlibrary.com/running-cgi-scripts-using-thttpd/> |
10,412,063 | I want to have simple program in python that can process different requests (POST, GET, MULTIPART-FORMDATA). I don't want to use a complete framework.
I basically need to be able to get GET and POST params - probably (but not necessarily) in a way similar to PHP. To get some other SERVER variables like REQUEST\_URI, QUERY, etc.
I have installed nginx successfully, but I've failed to find a good example on how to do the rest. So a simple tutorial or any directions and ideas on how to setup nginx to run certain python process for certain virtual host would be most welcome! | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10412063",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/762886/"
] | You can use thttpd. It is a lightweight wsgi server for running cgi scripts. It works well with nginx. How to setup thttpd with Nginx is detailed here: <http://nginxlibrary.com/running-cgi-scripts-using-thttpd/> | All the same you must use wsgi server, as nginx does not support fully this protocol. |
10,412,063 | I want to have simple program in python that can process different requests (POST, GET, MULTIPART-FORMDATA). I don't want to use a complete framework.
I basically need to be able to get GET and POST params - probably (but not necessarily) in a way similar to PHP. To get some other SERVER variables like REQUEST\_URI, QUERY, etc.
I have installed nginx successfully, but I've failed to find a good example on how to do the rest. So a simple tutorial or any directions and ideas on how to setup nginx to run certain python process for certain virtual host would be most welcome! | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10412063",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/762886/"
] | You should look into using Flask -- it's an extremely lightweight interface to a WSGI server (werkzeug) which also includes a templating library, should you ever want to use one. But you can totally ignore it if you'd like. | All the same you must use wsgi server, as nginx does not support fully this protocol. |
10,412,063 | I want to have simple program in python that can process different requests (POST, GET, MULTIPART-FORMDATA). I don't want to use a complete framework.
I basically need to be able to get GET and POST params - probably (but not necessarily) in a way similar to PHP. To get some other SERVER variables like REQUEST\_URI, QUERY, etc.
I have installed nginx successfully, but I've failed to find a good example on how to do the rest. So a simple tutorial or any directions and ideas on how to setup nginx to run certain python process for certain virtual host would be most welcome! | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10412063",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/762886/"
] | You should look into using Flask -- it's an extremely lightweight interface to a WSGI server (werkzeug) which also includes a templating library, should you ever want to use one. But you can totally ignore it if you'd like. | You can use thttpd. It is a lightweight wsgi server for running cgi scripts. It works well with nginx. How to setup thttpd with Nginx is detailed here: <http://nginxlibrary.com/running-cgi-scripts-using-thttpd/> |
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