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127,450 | I work as a developer in the UK but I am from another country. I have been working for the same company for nearly two years now.
The thing is that I am a bit tired of living here and I really want to go back to my country. I tempted to gather my manager and explain this to him and see if there is a possibility to work remotely from home (which I know it is absolutely possible not only because of the type of work but also cause there are already people doing it particularly old employees).
I know they are happy with me in terms of the work I do, interaction with other colleagues, etc. and on the other side, I cannot complain of anything. The atmosphere and the people I work with is perfect.
It seems a bit crazy to abandon a job that you are pleased with but there are other reasons behind this such as loneliness, a bit of anxiety, homesick, family... well, obvious reasons I suppose.
Just dropping this message here to see if I can get some useful tips or ideas on how to move forward this matter. | 2019/01/28 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/127450",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/78013/"
] | You can always ask. I've personally had success doing this in the past. If you're a valued employee, it will often be easier for them to be flexible on this sort of arrangement rather than hire someone new. To me, the key is to consider your employers' potential questions and come up with good answers. Some examples would be:
* How will you handle meetings?
* What will be your hours?
* Can you visit the office if needed? | When you ask, three pieces of advice
* Don't whine
* Don't whine
and most importantly
* Don't whine
Be very careful that you don't give any "reasons" that you "want or need" to move to another country.
Nobody cares if you are homesick or whatever else. Nobody cares about your reasons.
They just want to know that you will *get more work done than now*.
Just state simply and directly
>
> Hey boss - do you mind if I work remotely for the next six months? I'll be in Hungary.
>
>
>
Leave it at that. Make it a fait accompli.
Most importantly, don't whine. Talk from a position of strength.
Emphasize that you'll be able to work harder and that, ***of course you will keep identical hours to the office***.
The number one reason some teams DON'T go for remotes is that the remote workers keep oddball hours.
====================================================================================================
*Don't* give your boss a need to disallow it, due to that.
Again, *don't* talk about your reasons why you want this benefit. Nobody cares.
*Do* talk about the advantages to the company.
Good luck! |
29,210,027 | With the latest version of Google Chrome (Versión 41.0.2272.101 (64-bit)) running on MacOSX Yosemite, when I resize the address bar I loose the bar and I've to restart Google Chrome.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LMKfWONS_FI>
It's a really bad thing when you've to develop web applications for small devices.
Any ideas? Has anyone found a posible workaround? | 2015/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29210027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1051277/"
] | There is the official bug thread for this issue:
<https://code.google.com/p/chromium/issues/detail?id=8663>
Apparently, for some users the following solved the issue:
1. Open Chrome Settings
2. Select "Show Advanced Settings"
3. Scroll down to "System"
4. Un-check "Use hardware acceleration when available"
**[UPDATE]**
at the beginning it was working for me.. but not it seemed not working anymore. | btw i found a solution or at least the problem to this one:
In [my case](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/29082758/chrome-addressbar-invisible) i had too many plugins installed, and when i resized the browser to a minimum the plugins took away all of the space from the addressbar. therefore it got sort of invisible and while resizing the window to a larger screen chrome sort of *forgot* that it had made the address bar invisible.. so i removed some plugins from the toolbar and since then i haven't had a problem anymore! |
29,210,027 | With the latest version of Google Chrome (Versión 41.0.2272.101 (64-bit)) running on MacOSX Yosemite, when I resize the address bar I loose the bar and I've to restart Google Chrome.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LMKfWONS_FI>
It's a really bad thing when you've to develop web applications for small devices.
Any ideas? Has anyone found a posible workaround? | 2015/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29210027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1051277/"
] | There is the official bug thread for this issue:
<https://code.google.com/p/chromium/issues/detail?id=8663>
Apparently, for some users the following solved the issue:
1. Open Chrome Settings
2. Select "Show Advanced Settings"
3. Scroll down to "System"
4. Un-check "Use hardware acceleration when available"
**[UPDATE]**
at the beginning it was working for me.. but not it seemed not working anymore. | Google knows about this. I submitted the question on their community forums where there were tons of questions when the little double arrow that allowed you to resize the address bar on Chrome suddenly disappeared. They never answered, not even when I submitted a feedback. I found someone who gave a solution using the chrome://flags settings. It worked and I was able to resize again until recently on another of the never-ending updates they again cancelled the ability. They know about it and refuse to tell us. The next time someone finds how to fix this, I'm starting a file of fixes that Google purposely hides form users with the claim that they are for a better user experience. It's not. |
29,210,027 | With the latest version of Google Chrome (Versión 41.0.2272.101 (64-bit)) running on MacOSX Yosemite, when I resize the address bar I loose the bar and I've to restart Google Chrome.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LMKfWONS_FI>
It's a really bad thing when you've to develop web applications for small devices.
Any ideas? Has anyone found a posible workaround? | 2015/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29210027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1051277/"
] | btw i found a solution or at least the problem to this one:
In [my case](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/29082758/chrome-addressbar-invisible) i had too many plugins installed, and when i resized the browser to a minimum the plugins took away all of the space from the addressbar. therefore it got sort of invisible and while resizing the window to a larger screen chrome sort of *forgot* that it had made the address bar invisible.. so i removed some plugins from the toolbar and since then i haven't had a problem anymore! | Google knows about this. I submitted the question on their community forums where there were tons of questions when the little double arrow that allowed you to resize the address bar on Chrome suddenly disappeared. They never answered, not even when I submitted a feedback. I found someone who gave a solution using the chrome://flags settings. It worked and I was able to resize again until recently on another of the never-ending updates they again cancelled the ability. They know about it and refuse to tell us. The next time someone finds how to fix this, I'm starting a file of fixes that Google purposely hides form users with the claim that they are for a better user experience. It's not. |
43,769 | I want to set up a new website where I'm planing to post content from different mystics/spiritual authors(most of them dead). The content is from various sources but most of them from books that I bought from amazon. The important thing is that I'll be posting only particular parts of books (grabbing parts ranging 1-5 pages) per topic. *I wouldn't like to post a reference to the book*. Is this legal?
I'm wandering because most of these authors which I plan to post died before the age of the internet.
Thanks | 2013/02/16 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/43769",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/23424/"
] | Normally in this day and age the publishers of books are the ones with the copyright holders and not the author. It might of been different back then so its worth checking.
My person opinion is most publishers will not mind as long as your not CITING the entire book and in some way promoting their book but this doesn't make it legal.
**Staying on the right side of Copyright Law**
If you want to stay on the right side of the law then the correct way of proceeding is simply message the copyright holders and seek permission to use snippets on your site. I imagine you would have some postive effect with this as books are completely different than video and the greed in the movie industry is far greater than that in the Book industry. | Short answer: that's illegal.
Long answer: that's illegal, but how likely do you think it is the copyright holders (not necessarily the authors) will pursue you for copyright infringement?
The tricky bit is if/when you decide to stick ads on your site. Are you making money off their copyrighted intellectual property without any kind of licence in place to compensate them? Is your site a purely hobbyist site with no ads and consistently loss-making? That can sometimes sway a decision.
I would err on the side of caution. It's a civil offence in most places, but it's still a serious one which can carry significantly punitive statutory penalties.
NB: not every country has fair use or commentary laws (UK being a good example), so blogger emptor on all of those. I think the best thing you could do if you are going to include lots of copypasta from published books is at the very least liberally link through to their pages on Amazon etc, with lots of suggestions to buy them.
For me, the tipping point between acceptable and unacceptable when verbatim quoting another source is when you get to about 200 words, but that's purely subjective. |
43,769 | I want to set up a new website where I'm planing to post content from different mystics/spiritual authors(most of them dead). The content is from various sources but most of them from books that I bought from amazon. The important thing is that I'll be posting only particular parts of books (grabbing parts ranging 1-5 pages) per topic. *I wouldn't like to post a reference to the book*. Is this legal?
I'm wandering because most of these authors which I plan to post died before the age of the internet.
Thanks | 2013/02/16 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/43769",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/23424/"
] | I am not a lawyer, but posting 1-5 pages without any commentary on them seems a lot to me. There was this copyright troll [Right Haven](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Righthaven) that would sue even in the case of fair use. Luckily the company is no more.
Any advice on this question would largely depend a lot on where you're from and the local copyright laws there(though it would be a good idea to generally not violate any US copyright laws online).
But in general there are a few things you could do -
1. Check whether the work is in the Public Domain. This could be as easy as checking the copyright notice in the book. In my copy of Calculus Made Easy by Silvanus P Thompson, the copyright notice only covers the cover art design, not the contents of the book. You could also do an online search to check the copyright status of the work.
2. Research fair use laws in your region and try to stick to them.
3. Research the copyright holders of the work and check their litigation record online. This, you should do, if you're paranoid enough, even when you are dead sure you're in the right side of the fair use exemption.
4. And if the work isn't in the public domain, and what you want to do isn't covered by any fair use exemptions, try contacting the copyright holder asking for permission. | Short answer: that's illegal.
Long answer: that's illegal, but how likely do you think it is the copyright holders (not necessarily the authors) will pursue you for copyright infringement?
The tricky bit is if/when you decide to stick ads on your site. Are you making money off their copyrighted intellectual property without any kind of licence in place to compensate them? Is your site a purely hobbyist site with no ads and consistently loss-making? That can sometimes sway a decision.
I would err on the side of caution. It's a civil offence in most places, but it's still a serious one which can carry significantly punitive statutory penalties.
NB: not every country has fair use or commentary laws (UK being a good example), so blogger emptor on all of those. I think the best thing you could do if you are going to include lots of copypasta from published books is at the very least liberally link through to their pages on Amazon etc, with lots of suggestions to buy them.
For me, the tipping point between acceptable and unacceptable when verbatim quoting another source is when you get to about 200 words, but that's purely subjective. |
87,087 | When working with electronics, it is quite easy to regulate current with a resistor, potentiometer, switcher, etc.
But take a simple high power application such as an electric stove. What method is used to control the current through the burners. They couldn't possibly use a variable resistor because the heat generated would be on par with the burner.
It is clear however that the controls are disipating very little heat and they certainly aren't using any electronic devices. So how do they do it? | 2013/10/31 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/87087",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/30020/"
] | simple electric ovens use simple temperature control usually using something like a bimetallic strip (you can here them click in and out) where the dial is used to set the point of electrical contact that will then provide electrical power to the heating elements.
the result is more of a hysteric control with a very long duty cycle (where the duty is governed by the thermal characteristics of the oven - ie how long to cool) and the lower band to-do with specific characteristics of the thermistor/bimetalic strip.
More modern electronic controllers do a similar thing but use thermalcouples/RTD to measure the temp and then semiconductors to switch the power (SCR's) | For my practical testing, I use a high power resistor.
Something like these. However this is only for output loads.
But, when it comes to applications to minimize losses. You can use a High Power MOSFET or transistor for switching(with Heat sinks).
The control circuitry is usually away from the high current & voltage, but is used only for controlling the devices which are in a high current path(like FET's). This way, they are away and safe from High power. |
87,087 | When working with electronics, it is quite easy to regulate current with a resistor, potentiometer, switcher, etc.
But take a simple high power application such as an electric stove. What method is used to control the current through the burners. They couldn't possibly use a variable resistor because the heat generated would be on par with the burner.
It is clear however that the controls are disipating very little heat and they certainly aren't using any electronic devices. So how do they do it? | 2013/10/31 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/87087",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/30020/"
] | simple electric ovens use simple temperature control usually using something like a bimetallic strip (you can here them click in and out) where the dial is used to set the point of electrical contact that will then provide electrical power to the heating elements.
the result is more of a hysteric control with a very long duty cycle (where the duty is governed by the thermal characteristics of the oven - ie how long to cool) and the lower band to-do with specific characteristics of the thermistor/bimetalic strip.
More modern electronic controllers do a similar thing but use thermalcouples/RTD to measure the temp and then semiconductors to switch the power (SCR's) | Electric ovens and Stove top burners regulate the heat by turning the heating element on or off using a Relay. In my house if you listen closely you can hear the relay on the circuit board click on and off. Again the typical household electric stove heating elements are either on or off.
In larger applications a Thyrister or SCR is used and to pulse the heating element on and off. The SCR can only turn On and Off but can do this very quickly resulting in a short pulse averaging out to be a small current and a longer pulse being a larger current.
To really see what is happening in a SCR circuit you need an oscilloscope to see the pulses. Any current meter on a circuit such as this will probably give you a RMS current value over time. |
87,087 | When working with electronics, it is quite easy to regulate current with a resistor, potentiometer, switcher, etc.
But take a simple high power application such as an electric stove. What method is used to control the current through the burners. They couldn't possibly use a variable resistor because the heat generated would be on par with the burner.
It is clear however that the controls are disipating very little heat and they certainly aren't using any electronic devices. So how do they do it? | 2013/10/31 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/87087",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/30020/"
] | simple electric ovens use simple temperature control usually using something like a bimetallic strip (you can here them click in and out) where the dial is used to set the point of electrical contact that will then provide electrical power to the heating elements.
the result is more of a hysteric control with a very long duty cycle (where the duty is governed by the thermal characteristics of the oven - ie how long to cool) and the lower band to-do with specific characteristics of the thermistor/bimetalic strip.
More modern electronic controllers do a similar thing but use thermalcouples/RTD to measure the temp and then semiconductors to switch the power (SCR's) | [Pulse-width modulation (PWM)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulse-width_modulation) switching allows to reduce losses in the control circuitry. The switch element (transistor, thyristor, and such) is either
* Fully on. Large current is flowing. The voltage drop across across the switch is low. Power loss on the switching element Ploss=IswVsw is low, because Vsw is low.
* Fully off. No current is flowing. The voltage drop across across the switch is equal to the supply voltage. Ploss=IswVsw is zero, because Isw=0
* Importantly, the switch can be in transition from on to off. But, this transition is fast, and only small amount of energy is burnt by the switch element during transition.
PWM (or variants thereof) is a very common technique. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | We used jira for a while and I just loaded it into a fluid instance.
<http://fluidapp.com>
It is an app that lets you isolate a website into its own browser. | Not exactly lightweight, but it's free (and the underlying technology is open source): Atlassian Eclipse Connector
<https://confluence.atlassian.com/display/IDEPLUGIN/Installing+the+Eclipse+Connector>
If you're already using Eclipse, it would fit in nicely with your existing setup. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | We used jira for a while and I just loaded it into a fluid instance.
<http://fluidapp.com>
It is an app that lets you isolate a website into its own browser. | I would give Fluid app a vote instead.
I personally tried Bee, doesn't meet my requirements and it looks pretty incomplete. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | We used jira for a while and I just loaded it into a fluid instance.
<http://fluidapp.com>
It is an app that lets you isolate a website into its own browser. | Jira now has a Jira Cloud for Mac app.
<https://www.atlassian.com/software/jira/mac> |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | I'm also amazed that so little alternatives exist for this. My problem is tracking the time, not the issues boards, so i'm building a plain simple tool for that. The way it works is when you finish a task you open the app from the status bar and write some details of what you've done, and that's all. You will have this list synced on your iphone so you can read them next day in the scrum meeting. When you feel like you can transfer the tasks to jira timesheet but i'm working on automating this. Take it from here, might not be free forever <https://github.com/ralcr/Jira-Logger> | I use the jira in webstorm. You can try it. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | We used jira for a while and I just loaded it into a fluid instance.
<http://fluidapp.com>
It is an app that lets you isolate a website into its own browser. | I use the jira in webstorm. You can try it. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | I'm also amazed that so little alternatives exist for this. My problem is tracking the time, not the issues boards, so i'm building a plain simple tool for that. The way it works is when you finish a task you open the app from the status bar and write some details of what you've done, and that's all. You will have this list synced on your iphone so you can read them next day in the scrum meeting. When you feel like you can transfer the tasks to jira timesheet but i'm working on automating this. Take it from here, might not be free forever <https://github.com/ralcr/Jira-Logger> | Jira now has a Jira Cloud for Mac app.
<https://www.atlassian.com/software/jira/mac> |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | I would give Fluid app a vote instead.
I personally tried Bee, doesn't meet my requirements and it looks pretty incomplete. | I use the jira in webstorm. You can try it. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | I'm also amazed that so little alternatives exist for this. My problem is tracking the time, not the issues boards, so i'm building a plain simple tool for that. The way it works is when you finish a task you open the app from the status bar and write some details of what you've done, and that's all. You will have this list synced on your iphone so you can read them next day in the scrum meeting. When you feel like you can transfer the tasks to jira timesheet but i'm working on automating this. Take it from here, might not be free forever <https://github.com/ralcr/Jira-Logger> | I would give Fluid app a vote instead.
I personally tried Bee, doesn't meet my requirements and it looks pretty incomplete. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | I would give Fluid app a vote instead.
I personally tried Bee, doesn't meet my requirements and it looks pretty incomplete. | Not exactly lightweight, but it's free (and the underlying technology is open source): Atlassian Eclipse Connector
<https://confluence.atlassian.com/display/IDEPLUGIN/Installing+the+Eclipse+Connector>
If you're already using Eclipse, it would fit in nicely with your existing setup. |
155,683 | Does anyone know of any good desktop [applications](/questions/tagged/applications "show questions tagged 'applications'") for Atlassian JIRA, preferably free/open-source?
---
### Possible solutions I found:
>
> [Majic](http://erikhinterbichler.com/apps/majic/)
> -------------------------------------------------
>
>
> It is no longer maintained by the developer, I tried to run it anyway and it threw an NSURL error when I attempted to login with it so I'm assuming it doesn't work anymore..
>
>
>
---
>
> [Bee](http://www.neat.io/bee/jira-client.html)
> ----------------------------------------------
>
>
> Looks good, and may go with this but it's $29 per license and I'd prefer something free, [open-source](/questions/tagged/open-source "show questions tagged 'open-source'") would be ideal.
>
>
>
---
>
> [JiraPal](https://github.com/wronco/JIRA-Pal)
> ---------------------------------------------
>
>
> An open source app I found on Github that looked very promising but is apparently no longer maintained. I was able to successfully build it but was not able to successfully connect it to my Jira site. :(
>
>
>
---
>
> [Jirasic](https://github.com/ralcr/Jirassic)
> --------------------------------------------
>
>
> Discovered this from a posted answer below. Looks awesome but have not beenable to build it successfully at all. :(
>
>
>
---
### Notes:
A free &/or open-source solution would be preferable and it must work w/ OSX [yosemite](/questions/tagged/yosemite "show questions tagged 'yosemite'") as a native desktop app or notification bar/widget of some sort. Dependencies, including Java, would be fine, but I always prefer things to be lightweight and containable without having to run Java, a browser, or any host applications/dependency services. | 2014/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/155683",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/65956/"
] | Not exactly lightweight, but it's free (and the underlying technology is open source): Atlassian Eclipse Connector
<https://confluence.atlassian.com/display/IDEPLUGIN/Installing+the+Eclipse+Connector>
If you're already using Eclipse, it would fit in nicely with your existing setup. | I use the jira in webstorm. You can try it. |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | Mary is the Queen of Universe because Christ is the King of Universe.
To understand her Queenship, one must understand how who the Queen of the Davidic Kingdom in the Old Testament Jewish monarchy was. It was the Queen Mother. The Kings had many wives, none of whom could be called Queen. That honor was reserved for the mother of the King. We see this in the role Bathsheba played with respect to King Solomon and the occasions when the Queen Mother acted as regent on behalf of juvenile successors to the throne.
>
> When Bathsheba went to King Solomon to speak to him for Adonijah, the king stood up to meet her, bowed down to her and sat down on his throne. He had a **throne** brought for the king's mother, and she sat down at his right hand. - 1 Kings 2:19
>
>
>
Hence by Jewish tradition, the Jews expected the Mother of their King to be the titular Queen. The same holds true for the New Kingdom of God. If Jesus is King of this new Kingdom, then Mary should by tradition be his queen.
In Revelation 12, the Women *who brought forth a child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne* was seen **crowned** with of twelve stars. This women is traditionally identified as Mary. And this image of Crown is held to be one of the evidence for her queenship. | The Wikipedia page about [the church](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#History) explains:
>
> The use of the title "Mary, Queen of the Universe" is drawn from section 59 of [*Lumen Gentium*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lumen_Gentium), the Dogmatic Constitution on the Church issued in 1964 by the [Second Vatican Council](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Vatican_Council), which stated: "Finally, the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all guilt of original sin, on the completion of her earthly sojourn, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as **Queen of the universe**, that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and the conqueror of sin and death."[[1]](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#cite_note-lumengentium59-1) This usage could reflect Orlando's connection to nearby [Cape Canaveral](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cape_Canaveral), the liftoff point for America's manned space program, as spaceflight was likely the inspiration for the term. Cape Canaveral is part of the Diocese of Orlando.
>
>
> |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | The Wikipedia page about [the church](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#History) explains:
>
> The use of the title "Mary, Queen of the Universe" is drawn from section 59 of [*Lumen Gentium*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lumen_Gentium), the Dogmatic Constitution on the Church issued in 1964 by the [Second Vatican Council](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Vatican_Council), which stated: "Finally, the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all guilt of original sin, on the completion of her earthly sojourn, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as **Queen of the universe**, that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and the conqueror of sin and death."[[1]](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#cite_note-lumengentium59-1) This usage could reflect Orlando's connection to nearby [Cape Canaveral](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cape_Canaveral), the liftoff point for America's manned space program, as spaceflight was likely the inspiration for the term. Cape Canaveral is part of the Diocese of Orlando.
>
>
> | This is a traditional title of Mary in respect of her Assumption into Heaven. It does not imply that she is in any sense above, or even equal to, God. Here is one thing that the *Catechism of the Catholic Church* says about Mary in this regard:
>
> "Finally the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all stain of original sin, when the course of her earthly life was finished, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as Queen over all things, so that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and conqueror of sin and death." The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin is a singular participation in her Son’s Resurrection and an anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians:
>
>
>
> >
> > In giving birth you kept your virginity; in your Dormition you did not leave the world, O Mother of God, but were joined to the source of Life. You conceived the living God and, by your prayers, will deliver our souls from death.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> By her complete adherence to the Father’s will, to his Son’s redemptive work, and to every prompting of the Holy Spirit, the Virgin Mary is the Church’s model of faith and charity. Thus she is a "preeminent and... wholly unique member of the Church"; indeed, she is the "exemplary realization" (typus) of the Church.
>
>
>
(paragraphs 966–967) |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | The Wikipedia page about [the church](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#History) explains:
>
> The use of the title "Mary, Queen of the Universe" is drawn from section 59 of [*Lumen Gentium*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lumen_Gentium), the Dogmatic Constitution on the Church issued in 1964 by the [Second Vatican Council](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Vatican_Council), which stated: "Finally, the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all guilt of original sin, on the completion of her earthly sojourn, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as **Queen of the universe**, that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and the conqueror of sin and death."[[1]](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basilica_of_Mary,_Queen_of_the_Universe#cite_note-lumengentium59-1) This usage could reflect Orlando's connection to nearby [Cape Canaveral](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cape_Canaveral), the liftoff point for America's manned space program, as spaceflight was likely the inspiration for the term. Cape Canaveral is part of the Diocese of Orlando.
>
>
> | Not to over simplify but isn't the mother of the "King" always a Queen? God, master and creator of the universe, chose one woman in whom to sow his seed. From this spiritual union came the incarnation of the God-man Jesus who is the King of kings. |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | Mary is the Queen of Universe because Christ is the King of Universe.
To understand her Queenship, one must understand how who the Queen of the Davidic Kingdom in the Old Testament Jewish monarchy was. It was the Queen Mother. The Kings had many wives, none of whom could be called Queen. That honor was reserved for the mother of the King. We see this in the role Bathsheba played with respect to King Solomon and the occasions when the Queen Mother acted as regent on behalf of juvenile successors to the throne.
>
> When Bathsheba went to King Solomon to speak to him for Adonijah, the king stood up to meet her, bowed down to her and sat down on his throne. He had a **throne** brought for the king's mother, and she sat down at his right hand. - 1 Kings 2:19
>
>
>
Hence by Jewish tradition, the Jews expected the Mother of their King to be the titular Queen. The same holds true for the New Kingdom of God. If Jesus is King of this new Kingdom, then Mary should by tradition be his queen.
In Revelation 12, the Women *who brought forth a child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne* was seen **crowned** with of twelve stars. This women is traditionally identified as Mary. And this image of Crown is held to be one of the evidence for her queenship. | This is a traditional title of Mary in respect of her Assumption into Heaven. It does not imply that she is in any sense above, or even equal to, God. Here is one thing that the *Catechism of the Catholic Church* says about Mary in this regard:
>
> "Finally the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all stain of original sin, when the course of her earthly life was finished, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as Queen over all things, so that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and conqueror of sin and death." The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin is a singular participation in her Son’s Resurrection and an anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians:
>
>
>
> >
> > In giving birth you kept your virginity; in your Dormition you did not leave the world, O Mother of God, but were joined to the source of Life. You conceived the living God and, by your prayers, will deliver our souls from death.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> By her complete adherence to the Father’s will, to his Son’s redemptive work, and to every prompting of the Holy Spirit, the Virgin Mary is the Church’s model of faith and charity. Thus she is a "preeminent and... wholly unique member of the Church"; indeed, she is the "exemplary realization" (typus) of the Church.
>
>
>
(paragraphs 966–967) |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | Mary is the Queen of Universe because Christ is the King of Universe.
To understand her Queenship, one must understand how who the Queen of the Davidic Kingdom in the Old Testament Jewish monarchy was. It was the Queen Mother. The Kings had many wives, none of whom could be called Queen. That honor was reserved for the mother of the King. We see this in the role Bathsheba played with respect to King Solomon and the occasions when the Queen Mother acted as regent on behalf of juvenile successors to the throne.
>
> When Bathsheba went to King Solomon to speak to him for Adonijah, the king stood up to meet her, bowed down to her and sat down on his throne. He had a **throne** brought for the king's mother, and she sat down at his right hand. - 1 Kings 2:19
>
>
>
Hence by Jewish tradition, the Jews expected the Mother of their King to be the titular Queen. The same holds true for the New Kingdom of God. If Jesus is King of this new Kingdom, then Mary should by tradition be his queen.
In Revelation 12, the Women *who brought forth a child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne* was seen **crowned** with of twelve stars. This women is traditionally identified as Mary. And this image of Crown is held to be one of the evidence for her queenship. | Not to over simplify but isn't the mother of the "King" always a Queen? God, master and creator of the universe, chose one woman in whom to sow his seed. From this spiritual union came the incarnation of the God-man Jesus who is the King of kings. |
31,026 | There is a Catholic Church near where I lived called "**Mary Queen of the Universe**" [(Link)](http://maryqueenoftheuniverse.org/).
It seems from their website it's a shrine for Mary. The name of this does not make much sense to me if it is a Christian church.
How is she the Queen of the Universe? I have never seen this in the Bible (any translation). All I can think of is the marriage supper of the Lamb for all the believers in the end, not just Mary.
Where did they come up with this title? Is the title "Queen of the Universe" something found in established Catholic teaching? Also, if it is an established title, what does it mean? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/31026",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/13766/"
] | This is a traditional title of Mary in respect of her Assumption into Heaven. It does not imply that she is in any sense above, or even equal to, God. Here is one thing that the *Catechism of the Catholic Church* says about Mary in this regard:
>
> "Finally the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all stain of original sin, when the course of her earthly life was finished, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as Queen over all things, so that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and conqueror of sin and death." The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin is a singular participation in her Son’s Resurrection and an anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians:
>
>
>
> >
> > In giving birth you kept your virginity; in your Dormition you did not leave the world, O Mother of God, but were joined to the source of Life. You conceived the living God and, by your prayers, will deliver our souls from death.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> By her complete adherence to the Father’s will, to his Son’s redemptive work, and to every prompting of the Holy Spirit, the Virgin Mary is the Church’s model of faith and charity. Thus she is a "preeminent and... wholly unique member of the Church"; indeed, she is the "exemplary realization" (typus) of the Church.
>
>
>
(paragraphs 966–967) | Not to over simplify but isn't the mother of the "King" always a Queen? God, master and creator of the universe, chose one woman in whom to sow his seed. From this spiritual union came the incarnation of the God-man Jesus who is the King of kings. |
126,801 | The phrase "Twice yet, carle, I'll come to Spain!" occurs in the obscure fairy tale [Molly Whuppie](http://sarahbethdurst.blogspot.com/2006/11/obscure-fairy-tale-molly-whuppie.html?m=1) ([more original version?](http://www.kayfabe.com/?p=1724)) after a princess tricks a giant by stealing his sword. Contextually:
>
> "Woe worth you, Molly Whuppie! never you come again."
>
>
> "Twice yet, carle," quoth she, "I'll come to Spain."
>
>
>
This is the second time the giant has been tricked, which I believe may link to "twice." It's an idiom, though, so I can't be certain. What is Molly trying to communicate, and where does this idiom come from?
Edit: I think "twice yet" is a reference to the fact that she'll show up twice more - though I have no idea how she would know this. | 2013/09/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/126801",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Standard fairy tale promise. "I'll be baaack"
Many fairy tales have things come in three.
She knows that the king will ask something impossible for each of his sons and there are three of them. | *Carle* is a form of *churl*, a mildly insulting form of address, perhaps similar to 'My lad'. And *yet* meaning 'in the future' isn't all that uncommon: "The car's broken down and the railway's on strike, but don't worry, boss, I'll get to work yet!" |
126,801 | The phrase "Twice yet, carle, I'll come to Spain!" occurs in the obscure fairy tale [Molly Whuppie](http://sarahbethdurst.blogspot.com/2006/11/obscure-fairy-tale-molly-whuppie.html?m=1) ([more original version?](http://www.kayfabe.com/?p=1724)) after a princess tricks a giant by stealing his sword. Contextually:
>
> "Woe worth you, Molly Whuppie! never you come again."
>
>
> "Twice yet, carle," quoth she, "I'll come to Spain."
>
>
>
This is the second time the giant has been tricked, which I believe may link to "twice." It's an idiom, though, so I can't be certain. What is Molly trying to communicate, and where does this idiom come from?
Edit: I think "twice yet" is a reference to the fact that she'll show up twice more - though I have no idea how she would know this. | 2013/09/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/126801",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | It's quoting the epic poem The Song Of Roland about Charlemagne going into Spain to fight the Muslims | Standard fairy tale promise. "I'll be baaack"
Many fairy tales have things come in three.
She knows that the king will ask something impossible for each of his sons and there are three of them. |
126,801 | The phrase "Twice yet, carle, I'll come to Spain!" occurs in the obscure fairy tale [Molly Whuppie](http://sarahbethdurst.blogspot.com/2006/11/obscure-fairy-tale-molly-whuppie.html?m=1) ([more original version?](http://www.kayfabe.com/?p=1724)) after a princess tricks a giant by stealing his sword. Contextually:
>
> "Woe worth you, Molly Whuppie! never you come again."
>
>
> "Twice yet, carle," quoth she, "I'll come to Spain."
>
>
>
This is the second time the giant has been tricked, which I believe may link to "twice." It's an idiom, though, so I can't be certain. What is Molly trying to communicate, and where does this idiom come from?
Edit: I think "twice yet" is a reference to the fact that she'll show up twice more - though I have no idea how she would know this. | 2013/09/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/126801",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | It's quoting the epic poem The Song Of Roland about Charlemagne going into Spain to fight the Muslims | *Carle* is a form of *churl*, a mildly insulting form of address, perhaps similar to 'My lad'. And *yet* meaning 'in the future' isn't all that uncommon: "The car's broken down and the railway's on strike, but don't worry, boss, I'll get to work yet!" |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general, when you apply for a job (or rent an apartment, apply for a credit card, etc) folks want to do a background check on you to make sure you're not a felon, or a credit risk, or a thief, or someone who for whatever reason won't qualify for the role because your personal profile represents unnecessary risks to the business that outweigh whatever skills you bring to the table.
Your credit report, criminal history, and mode of living can all be tied to your current and previous addresses, and background screening companies use this information to verify you're not an employment risk.
According to career coach Terri Lee Ryan, author of [Should You List Your Home Address on Your Resume?](http://www.chicagonow.com/get-employed/2011/01/should-you-list-your-home-address-on-your-resume/), employers may use a pre-screening process where any resumes that don't include this information are tossed out. With so many applicants, screeners may use such techniques to narrow the pile to an array of candidates more manageable. | While there is e-mail and phone as ways to contact someone, how do I know how local someone is when they apply for a job? If I have 100+ candidates that all meet my initial requirements, wouldn't it make sense to interview the local people first? If someone has to move this can cost in both money and time in some cases. The key point here is that if I have a pile of resumes, how does the company distinguish who should get an interview?
There can also be that odd personal touch for some people, like an "I went to school near there," or "Oh that's a nice neighborhood," as there can be things inferred from the address,e.g. if someone lived in Beverly Hills or Compton for a couple of parts of California that one could contrast. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | While there is e-mail and phone as ways to contact someone, how do I know how local someone is when they apply for a job? If I have 100+ candidates that all meet my initial requirements, wouldn't it make sense to interview the local people first? If someone has to move this can cost in both money and time in some cases. The key point here is that if I have a pile of resumes, how does the company distinguish who should get an interview?
There can also be that odd personal touch for some people, like an "I went to school near there," or "Oh that's a nice neighborhood," as there can be things inferred from the address,e.g. if someone lived in Beverly Hills or Compton for a couple of parts of California that one could contrast. | Commuting to work can be a major factor in selecting a job. Either in larger cities because of traffic or in more rural areas based on distance.
Depending on your current address, this may not be a factor so there's no reason to mention it. If I thought someone would have a long commute, I would want to make sure they were aware of it and try to get any past history on willingness to have a long commute.
Many people will say they are willing to live with a long commute, but may be more likely to take a similar job if it is closer. In some major cities, commuting can be very expensive if you're paying for parking, train tickets or even gas.
Your address can be used to have more information about your prior work experience and probably to do a background check before hiring. Some names are common, so having a current address can make it easier to check the right John Smith. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | While there is e-mail and phone as ways to contact someone, how do I know how local someone is when they apply for a job? If I have 100+ candidates that all meet my initial requirements, wouldn't it make sense to interview the local people first? If someone has to move this can cost in both money and time in some cases. The key point here is that if I have a pile of resumes, how does the company distinguish who should get an interview?
There can also be that odd personal touch for some people, like an "I went to school near there," or "Oh that's a nice neighborhood," as there can be things inferred from the address,e.g. if someone lived in Beverly Hills or Compton for a couple of parts of California that one could contrast. | My opinion you can put the town name. I wouldn't want to publish my full address to everyone who read my CV. In case the company offers you the job then you should give them your full address. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | While there is e-mail and phone as ways to contact someone, how do I know how local someone is when they apply for a job? If I have 100+ candidates that all meet my initial requirements, wouldn't it make sense to interview the local people first? If someone has to move this can cost in both money and time in some cases. The key point here is that if I have a pile of resumes, how does the company distinguish who should get an interview?
There can also be that odd personal touch for some people, like an "I went to school near there," or "Oh that's a nice neighborhood," as there can be things inferred from the address,e.g. if someone lived in Beverly Hills or Compton for a couple of parts of California that one could contrast. | Obviously employers may vary. I have hired dozens of people over the years and I have never:
* run a background check. I'm not sure it's even legal in Canada. We're not supposed to take a criminal record into account. Credit rating never made sense to me as a legitimate proxy for hire-ability.
* decided on someone else's behalf whether they could stand a commute or not - I hired someone once who had a 1.5 hr commute to downtown Toronto, he came to work for me without moving and had a 1 hour more pleasant commute in the opposite direction, to our office.
* covered anyone's travel expenses, whether to come and be interviewed or to come and work for me. We're just too small to afford it.
That said, I still like to see the address in the cover letter if not in the resume, and my children both provide resumes that include this. I think it's more a matter of respecting the rituals than it serving any practical purpose. After all, I can probably narrow down roughly where you live by looking at where you work now. Even if you see no good reason for including it, omitting it gives people an excuse to toss your resume aside; don't do that. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general, when you apply for a job (or rent an apartment, apply for a credit card, etc) folks want to do a background check on you to make sure you're not a felon, or a credit risk, or a thief, or someone who for whatever reason won't qualify for the role because your personal profile represents unnecessary risks to the business that outweigh whatever skills you bring to the table.
Your credit report, criminal history, and mode of living can all be tied to your current and previous addresses, and background screening companies use this information to verify you're not an employment risk.
According to career coach Terri Lee Ryan, author of [Should You List Your Home Address on Your Resume?](http://www.chicagonow.com/get-employed/2011/01/should-you-list-your-home-address-on-your-resume/), employers may use a pre-screening process where any resumes that don't include this information are tossed out. With so many applicants, screeners may use such techniques to narrow the pile to an array of candidates more manageable. | Commuting to work can be a major factor in selecting a job. Either in larger cities because of traffic or in more rural areas based on distance.
Depending on your current address, this may not be a factor so there's no reason to mention it. If I thought someone would have a long commute, I would want to make sure they were aware of it and try to get any past history on willingness to have a long commute.
Many people will say they are willing to live with a long commute, but may be more likely to take a similar job if it is closer. In some major cities, commuting can be very expensive if you're paying for parking, train tickets or even gas.
Your address can be used to have more information about your prior work experience and probably to do a background check before hiring. Some names are common, so having a current address can make it easier to check the right John Smith. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general, when you apply for a job (or rent an apartment, apply for a credit card, etc) folks want to do a background check on you to make sure you're not a felon, or a credit risk, or a thief, or someone who for whatever reason won't qualify for the role because your personal profile represents unnecessary risks to the business that outweigh whatever skills you bring to the table.
Your credit report, criminal history, and mode of living can all be tied to your current and previous addresses, and background screening companies use this information to verify you're not an employment risk.
According to career coach Terri Lee Ryan, author of [Should You List Your Home Address on Your Resume?](http://www.chicagonow.com/get-employed/2011/01/should-you-list-your-home-address-on-your-resume/), employers may use a pre-screening process where any resumes that don't include this information are tossed out. With so many applicants, screeners may use such techniques to narrow the pile to an array of candidates more manageable. | My opinion you can put the town name. I wouldn't want to publish my full address to everyone who read my CV. In case the company offers you the job then you should give them your full address. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general, when you apply for a job (or rent an apartment, apply for a credit card, etc) folks want to do a background check on you to make sure you're not a felon, or a credit risk, or a thief, or someone who for whatever reason won't qualify for the role because your personal profile represents unnecessary risks to the business that outweigh whatever skills you bring to the table.
Your credit report, criminal history, and mode of living can all be tied to your current and previous addresses, and background screening companies use this information to verify you're not an employment risk.
According to career coach Terri Lee Ryan, author of [Should You List Your Home Address on Your Resume?](http://www.chicagonow.com/get-employed/2011/01/should-you-list-your-home-address-on-your-resume/), employers may use a pre-screening process where any resumes that don't include this information are tossed out. With so many applicants, screeners may use such techniques to narrow the pile to an array of candidates more manageable. | Obviously employers may vary. I have hired dozens of people over the years and I have never:
* run a background check. I'm not sure it's even legal in Canada. We're not supposed to take a criminal record into account. Credit rating never made sense to me as a legitimate proxy for hire-ability.
* decided on someone else's behalf whether they could stand a commute or not - I hired someone once who had a 1.5 hr commute to downtown Toronto, he came to work for me without moving and had a 1 hour more pleasant commute in the opposite direction, to our office.
* covered anyone's travel expenses, whether to come and be interviewed or to come and work for me. We're just too small to afford it.
That said, I still like to see the address in the cover letter if not in the resume, and my children both provide resumes that include this. I think it's more a matter of respecting the rituals than it serving any practical purpose. After all, I can probably narrow down roughly where you live by looking at where you work now. Even if you see no good reason for including it, omitting it gives people an excuse to toss your resume aside; don't do that. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Obviously employers may vary. I have hired dozens of people over the years and I have never:
* run a background check. I'm not sure it's even legal in Canada. We're not supposed to take a criminal record into account. Credit rating never made sense to me as a legitimate proxy for hire-ability.
* decided on someone else's behalf whether they could stand a commute or not - I hired someone once who had a 1.5 hr commute to downtown Toronto, he came to work for me without moving and had a 1 hour more pleasant commute in the opposite direction, to our office.
* covered anyone's travel expenses, whether to come and be interviewed or to come and work for me. We're just too small to afford it.
That said, I still like to see the address in the cover letter if not in the resume, and my children both provide resumes that include this. I think it's more a matter of respecting the rituals than it serving any practical purpose. After all, I can probably narrow down roughly where you live by looking at where you work now. Even if you see no good reason for including it, omitting it gives people an excuse to toss your resume aside; don't do that. | Commuting to work can be a major factor in selecting a job. Either in larger cities because of traffic or in more rural areas based on distance.
Depending on your current address, this may not be a factor so there's no reason to mention it. If I thought someone would have a long commute, I would want to make sure they were aware of it and try to get any past history on willingness to have a long commute.
Many people will say they are willing to live with a long commute, but may be more likely to take a similar job if it is closer. In some major cities, commuting can be very expensive if you're paying for parking, train tickets or even gas.
Your address can be used to have more information about your prior work experience and probably to do a background check before hiring. Some names are common, so having a current address can make it easier to check the right John Smith. |
14,470 | Mail era is gone. Now we contact either by email or phone, so why is it still necessary?
I have read it is to let the employer know where you live, but why is it necessary? If I'm applying for a job which is far from home is because I know I will have to relocate, isn't it obvious? | 2013/09/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14470",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Obviously employers may vary. I have hired dozens of people over the years and I have never:
* run a background check. I'm not sure it's even legal in Canada. We're not supposed to take a criminal record into account. Credit rating never made sense to me as a legitimate proxy for hire-ability.
* decided on someone else's behalf whether they could stand a commute or not - I hired someone once who had a 1.5 hr commute to downtown Toronto, he came to work for me without moving and had a 1 hour more pleasant commute in the opposite direction, to our office.
* covered anyone's travel expenses, whether to come and be interviewed or to come and work for me. We're just too small to afford it.
That said, I still like to see the address in the cover letter if not in the resume, and my children both provide resumes that include this. I think it's more a matter of respecting the rituals than it serving any practical purpose. After all, I can probably narrow down roughly where you live by looking at where you work now. Even if you see no good reason for including it, omitting it gives people an excuse to toss your resume aside; don't do that. | My opinion you can put the town name. I wouldn't want to publish my full address to everyone who read my CV. In case the company offers you the job then you should give them your full address. |
583,956 | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
Here the word *to* belongs to what part of speech? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/583956",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/445530/"
] | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
I'd say that infinitival "to" belongs to the word category (POS) 'subordinator', and its function is that of 'marker', a meaningless element that simply introduces the VP.
It functions in much the same way as the indisputable subordinators "that", as in *I know that she lent him the money"* and "whether", as in *I'm unsure whether it will rain.*
Note that infinitival "to" derives historically from the preposition "to" (notice the strong similarity between *I went **to** the doctor* and *I went **to** see the doctor*) but long ago lost its prepositional properties. | It belongs to no morphological category, that's why it is named ***a particle***.
>
> The usual definition of particle is that it is ***a word that does not clearly belong to any other word class*** - though the expression is also used for the type of adverb particle found in phrasal and phrasal prepositional verbs. English has two such particles, ***the infinitive particle TO*** and ***the negative particle NOT***. ([source](http://eltnotebook.blogspot.com/2016/03/an-elt-glossary-particle-infinitive.html#:%7E:text=The%20infinitive%20particle%20is%20to,Thursday%3B%20It%27s%20impossible%20to%20go.))
>
>
>
It is not a preposition, neither is it a part of the verb, as [Grammarphobia](https://www.grammarphobia.com/blog/2013/02/infinitive-2.html) shows:
>
> The infinitive is the uninflected or basic form of a verb, and “to” is not part of it. When “to” appears with an infinitive, it is generally referred to as an “***infinitive marker***” or “***infinitive particle***”; it is not part of the verb and is not always used.
>
>
>
The same site cites reputable sources in support of this:
>
> Fowler’s *Modern English Usage* (rev. 3rd ed.), describes two uses of the infinitive: (a) “the to-infinitive,” in which “to” is described as a “***particle***,” and (b) “the bare or simple or plain infinitive.”
>
>
> The *Cambridge Grammar of the English Language* explains that:
>
>
>
> >
> > The traditional practice for citation of verbs is to cite them with the infinitival marker ***to***, as in *‘to be,’ ‘to take,’* and so on. That is an unsatisfactory convention, because the ***to*** *is not part of the verb itself*.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> The word “***to***” here “is not a (morphological) prefix but a quite separate (syntactic) word,” Pullum and Huddleston say, adding:
>
>
>
> >
> > This is evident from the fact that it can stand alone in elliptical constructions (as in *I haven’t read it yet, but I hope **to** shortly*), need not be repeated in coordination (as seen in *I want to go out and get some exercise*), and can be separated from the verb by an adverb, as seen in the so-called ‘split infinitive construction,’ *I’m trying **to** gradually improve my game*.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The site cites similar explanations from other established dictionaries, I will not quote them all here. But I cannot omit the OED entry they quote, as it shows the morphological shift of this particle:
>
> Quote from the OED:
>
>
>
> >
> > The infinitive with *to* may be dependent on an adj., a n., or a vb., or it may stand independently. ***To an adj. it stands in adverbial relation***: *ready to fight = ready for fighting*; ***to a n. it stands in adjectival or sometimes adverbial relation***: *a day to remember = a memorable day*; ***to a vb. it may stand in an adverbial or substantival relation***: *to proceed to work = to proceed to working; to like to work = to like working*.”
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> When this ***preposition*** was first used in English as an *infinitive marker* (***tó*** in Old English), it did have ***a prepositional flavor***.
> *“I prepared to eat”* sounded to the medieval ear something like *“I prepared for eating”*; *“he fails to think”* sounded something like *“he fails in thinking”*; *“we strive to please”* sounded something like *“we strive toward pleasing.”* As the OED says,
>
>
>
> >
> > it expressed motion, direction, inclination, purpose, etc., toward the act or condition expressed by the infinitive; as in ‘*he came to help (i.e. to the help of) his friends*,’ … ‘*he prepared to depart (i.e. for departure)*.’
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> There once was a sense of motion, of moving toward accomplishing something (represented by the infinitive), if that makes any sense. But as the OED says:
>
>
>
> >
> > ***in process of time this obvious sense of the prep. became weakened and generalized, so that tó became at last the ordinary link expressing any prepositional relation in which an infinitive stands to a preceding verb, adjective, or substantive.*** [Here the italicized tó represents the Old English word.]
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
PS: The research I have just done for this answer makes me wonder: then why on earth is the ***to-infinitive*** also called [***full infinitive***](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitive)? But that's maybe worth asking in a different post. |
583,956 | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
Here the word *to* belongs to what part of speech? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/583956",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/445530/"
] | It belongs to no morphological category, that's why it is named ***a particle***.
>
> The usual definition of particle is that it is ***a word that does not clearly belong to any other word class*** - though the expression is also used for the type of adverb particle found in phrasal and phrasal prepositional verbs. English has two such particles, ***the infinitive particle TO*** and ***the negative particle NOT***. ([source](http://eltnotebook.blogspot.com/2016/03/an-elt-glossary-particle-infinitive.html#:%7E:text=The%20infinitive%20particle%20is%20to,Thursday%3B%20It%27s%20impossible%20to%20go.))
>
>
>
It is not a preposition, neither is it a part of the verb, as [Grammarphobia](https://www.grammarphobia.com/blog/2013/02/infinitive-2.html) shows:
>
> The infinitive is the uninflected or basic form of a verb, and “to” is not part of it. When “to” appears with an infinitive, it is generally referred to as an “***infinitive marker***” or “***infinitive particle***”; it is not part of the verb and is not always used.
>
>
>
The same site cites reputable sources in support of this:
>
> Fowler’s *Modern English Usage* (rev. 3rd ed.), describes two uses of the infinitive: (a) “the to-infinitive,” in which “to” is described as a “***particle***,” and (b) “the bare or simple or plain infinitive.”
>
>
> The *Cambridge Grammar of the English Language* explains that:
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>
> >
> > The traditional practice for citation of verbs is to cite them with the infinitival marker ***to***, as in *‘to be,’ ‘to take,’* and so on. That is an unsatisfactory convention, because the ***to*** *is not part of the verb itself*.
> >
> >
> >
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> The word “***to***” here “is not a (morphological) prefix but a quite separate (syntactic) word,” Pullum and Huddleston say, adding:
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> >
> > This is evident from the fact that it can stand alone in elliptical constructions (as in *I haven’t read it yet, but I hope **to** shortly*), need not be repeated in coordination (as seen in *I want to go out and get some exercise*), and can be separated from the verb by an adverb, as seen in the so-called ‘split infinitive construction,’ *I’m trying **to** gradually improve my game*.
> >
> >
> >
>
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>
The site cites similar explanations from other established dictionaries, I will not quote them all here. But I cannot omit the OED entry they quote, as it shows the morphological shift of this particle:
>
> Quote from the OED:
>
>
>
> >
> > The infinitive with *to* may be dependent on an adj., a n., or a vb., or it may stand independently. ***To an adj. it stands in adverbial relation***: *ready to fight = ready for fighting*; ***to a n. it stands in adjectival or sometimes adverbial relation***: *a day to remember = a memorable day*; ***to a vb. it may stand in an adverbial or substantival relation***: *to proceed to work = to proceed to working; to like to work = to like working*.”
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> When this ***preposition*** was first used in English as an *infinitive marker* (***tó*** in Old English), it did have ***a prepositional flavor***.
> *“I prepared to eat”* sounded to the medieval ear something like *“I prepared for eating”*; *“he fails to think”* sounded something like *“he fails in thinking”*; *“we strive to please”* sounded something like *“we strive toward pleasing.”* As the OED says,
>
>
>
> >
> > it expressed motion, direction, inclination, purpose, etc., toward the act or condition expressed by the infinitive; as in ‘*he came to help (i.e. to the help of) his friends*,’ … ‘*he prepared to depart (i.e. for departure)*.’
> >
> >
> >
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>
> There once was a sense of motion, of moving toward accomplishing something (represented by the infinitive), if that makes any sense. But as the OED says:
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>
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> >
> > ***in process of time this obvious sense of the prep. became weakened and generalized, so that tó became at last the ordinary link expressing any prepositional relation in which an infinitive stands to a preceding verb, adjective, or substantive.*** [Here the italicized tó represents the Old English word.]
> >
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> >
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>
PS: The research I have just done for this answer makes me wonder: then why on earth is the ***to-infinitive*** also called [***full infinitive***](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitive)? But that's maybe worth asking in a different post. | 'To' in 'to kick' is, according to Wikipedia, an infinitival particle. The infinitive 'to kick' without 'to' so just 'kick' is called the bare infinitive, whilst 'to kick' is called the full infinitive. |
583,956 | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
Here the word *to* belongs to what part of speech? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/583956",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/445530/"
] | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
I'd say that infinitival "to" belongs to the word category (POS) 'subordinator', and its function is that of 'marker', a meaningless element that simply introduces the VP.
It functions in much the same way as the indisputable subordinators "that", as in *I know that she lent him the money"* and "whether", as in *I'm unsure whether it will rain.*
Note that infinitival "to" derives historically from the preposition "to" (notice the strong similarity between *I went **to** the doctor* and *I went **to** see the doctor*) but long ago lost its prepositional properties. | 'To' in 'to kick' is, according to Wikipedia, an infinitival particle. The infinitive 'to kick' without 'to' so just 'kick' is called the bare infinitive, whilst 'to kick' is called the full infinitive. |
583,956 | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
Here the word *to* belongs to what part of speech? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/583956",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/445530/"
] | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
I'd say that infinitival "to" belongs to the word category (POS) 'subordinator', and its function is that of 'marker', a meaningless element that simply introduces the VP.
It functions in much the same way as the indisputable subordinators "that", as in *I know that she lent him the money"* and "whether", as in *I'm unsure whether it will rain.*
Note that infinitival "to" derives historically from the preposition "to" (notice the strong similarity between *I went **to** the doctor* and *I went **to** see the doctor*) but long ago lost its prepositional properties. | It depends on who you ask. Within the confines of traditional *parts of speech*, the present-day *to* in the infinitive may be a preposition or it may a particle.
Even in the 19th century, grammarians were wary of assigning the to-infinitive to a single part of speech. For example, if you look up *preposition* in George Pliny Brown's 1899 book *[Advanced Pages of Elements of English Grammar](https://www.google.com/books/edition/Advanced_Pages_of_Elements_of_English_Gr/jRFMAAAAMAAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&pg=PA59&printsec=frontcover)*, you would find nothing resembling the to-infinitive. Instead, "The Infinitive" would be listed under the hedging header "Words Sometimes Called Parts of Speech" with "The Participle," "The Article," and "The Gerund." Brown describes the infinitive as having some functions of both a verb (in how it can be modified) and a noun phrase (in how it can be the subject of a sentence). In other words, Brown is illustrating the traditional grammarian's difficulty to reconcile the structured *parts of speech* with forms that don't fit well in the existing theory. The *to*-infinitive, let alone *to* itself, is right at that fault line.
The Oxford English Dictionary reflects the difficulty of defining *to* before an infinitive under ["to, prep., conj., and adv.," definition B](https://www.oed.com/view/Entry/202695). The full explanation is too long to quote in full, but I want to highlight two elements of that explanation:
1. The *to* preceding the infinitive comes from Old English, where it would have been considered a preposition (*tó* [[see Bossworth Toller]](https://bosworthtoller.com/30587)). An example of the preposition-based usage with a verb of motion (*come to*) is under I.1.a.(a) from Bede: "Monige cwomon to bicgenne þa ðing" [Many came to buy the thing]). In that kind of usage, even today, the OED would consider *to* a preposition: "But after an intransitive verb, or the passive voice, *to* is still the preposition."
2. In other uses of the *to*-infinitive not evident in Old English, e.g., using the infinitive as a subject, *to* is considered to have "lost all its meaning, and become a mere 'sign' or prefix of the infinitive." Though the OED wants to call this *to* a prefix, a morphological attachment to the word, that description is quite close to the definition of a *particle*, a word that doesn't fit conveniently into other parts of speech or classes of words ([Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_particle#In_English)).
It's worth noting that the OED is not an authority on grammar, and its primary purpose isn't creating rigorous classifications of language use. Nonetheless, it represents what later systems will generally show: while the infinitive *to* once functioned as a preposition, in modern English that language is no longer sufficient to describe what *to* is doing in many infinitive uses. Hence it is often called a *particle*. |
583,956 | >
> *I want to go home.*
>
>
>
Here the word *to* belongs to what part of speech? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/583956",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/445530/"
] | It depends on who you ask. Within the confines of traditional *parts of speech*, the present-day *to* in the infinitive may be a preposition or it may a particle.
Even in the 19th century, grammarians were wary of assigning the to-infinitive to a single part of speech. For example, if you look up *preposition* in George Pliny Brown's 1899 book *[Advanced Pages of Elements of English Grammar](https://www.google.com/books/edition/Advanced_Pages_of_Elements_of_English_Gr/jRFMAAAAMAAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&pg=PA59&printsec=frontcover)*, you would find nothing resembling the to-infinitive. Instead, "The Infinitive" would be listed under the hedging header "Words Sometimes Called Parts of Speech" with "The Participle," "The Article," and "The Gerund." Brown describes the infinitive as having some functions of both a verb (in how it can be modified) and a noun phrase (in how it can be the subject of a sentence). In other words, Brown is illustrating the traditional grammarian's difficulty to reconcile the structured *parts of speech* with forms that don't fit well in the existing theory. The *to*-infinitive, let alone *to* itself, is right at that fault line.
The Oxford English Dictionary reflects the difficulty of defining *to* before an infinitive under ["to, prep., conj., and adv.," definition B](https://www.oed.com/view/Entry/202695). The full explanation is too long to quote in full, but I want to highlight two elements of that explanation:
1. The *to* preceding the infinitive comes from Old English, where it would have been considered a preposition (*tó* [[see Bossworth Toller]](https://bosworthtoller.com/30587)). An example of the preposition-based usage with a verb of motion (*come to*) is under I.1.a.(a) from Bede: "Monige cwomon to bicgenne þa ðing" [Many came to buy the thing]). In that kind of usage, even today, the OED would consider *to* a preposition: "But after an intransitive verb, or the passive voice, *to* is still the preposition."
2. In other uses of the *to*-infinitive not evident in Old English, e.g., using the infinitive as a subject, *to* is considered to have "lost all its meaning, and become a mere 'sign' or prefix of the infinitive." Though the OED wants to call this *to* a prefix, a morphological attachment to the word, that description is quite close to the definition of a *particle*, a word that doesn't fit conveniently into other parts of speech or classes of words ([Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_particle#In_English)).
It's worth noting that the OED is not an authority on grammar, and its primary purpose isn't creating rigorous classifications of language use. Nonetheless, it represents what later systems will generally show: while the infinitive *to* once functioned as a preposition, in modern English that language is no longer sufficient to describe what *to* is doing in many infinitive uses. Hence it is often called a *particle*. | 'To' in 'to kick' is, according to Wikipedia, an infinitival particle. The infinitive 'to kick' without 'to' so just 'kick' is called the bare infinitive, whilst 'to kick' is called the full infinitive. |
4,116,952 | I'd like to use Simd in Mono, but the following code is highlighted as error in MonDevop
using Mono.Simd
I already installed the "Mono 2.8 for Windows", what else I need to install to enable Mono.Simd?
In this link
<http://tirania.org/blog/archive/2008/Nov-03.html>
It talk about the tarbal, but after download it an uncompress it (mono-Mono.Simd.Math-942e804), there are many cs file and no dll file. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4116952",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/451795/"
] | Did you add the Mono.Simd.dll to the build? MonoDevelop correctly highlights the error because in the assemblies you're using there isn't any Mono.Simd namespace.
Mono.Simd.dll is included in recent Mono releases.
As for the other answer, Mono.Simd works on any operating system on x86 and amd64, not only on Linux. | Mono.Simd only works when you run your programs on Mono runtime, on a supported operating system. If I'm not mistaken, it's currenly restricted to 32 & 64 bit Linux. Even if you manage to compile it on Windows, you won't get any speed benefit from it. |
4,116,952 | I'd like to use Simd in Mono, but the following code is highlighted as error in MonDevop
using Mono.Simd
I already installed the "Mono 2.8 for Windows", what else I need to install to enable Mono.Simd?
In this link
<http://tirania.org/blog/archive/2008/Nov-03.html>
It talk about the tarbal, but after download it an uncompress it (mono-Mono.Simd.Math-942e804), there are many cs file and no dll file. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4116952",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/451795/"
] | Did you add the Mono.Simd.dll to the build? MonoDevelop correctly highlights the error because in the assemblies you're using there isn't any Mono.Simd namespace.
Mono.Simd.dll is included in recent Mono releases.
As for the other answer, Mono.Simd works on any operating system on x86 and amd64, not only on Linux. | MonoDevelop for Windows runs on the .Net runtime, while the Mono.Simd.dll that comes with Mono 2.8 is installed in Mono's GAC.
You will need to Add Reference in your project to the Mono.Simd.dll that came with Mono 2.8.
It should be roughly in:
C:\Program Files (x86)\Mono-2.8\lib\mono\2.0\Mono.Simd.dll. |
1,493 | i use SQL server 2008 in my web application back end. Apparently i iterate through all the records from the C# code whenever there is a multiple insertion scenario. i have never tried the multple insertion using XML. And i think after reading many blogs about XML manipulation using SQL server 2008 the process is pretty tideous ..
So my question is..
* Is Insertion via XML much efficient than the traditional insertion?
* Is the a generic way in which i can serialize a class in C# --> Manipulate XML in SQL -->Insert also Read data as XML--> Deserialize XML to usual object? | 2011/02/28 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/1493",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/1056/"
] | The whole "inserting multiple records with XML" has pretty much been superseded by [table parameters](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb675163.aspx) in SQL Server 2008.
And mentioned in [Erland Erland Sommarskog's Arrays and Lists in SQL Server 2008](http://www.sommarskog.se/arrays-in-sql-2008.html#TVP_in_TSQL): *the* definitive article on this subject.
.net has better XML handling than the SQLXML implementation too. | You might want to look into [Table-Valued Parameters](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb675163.aspx) instead. |
1,493 | i use SQL server 2008 in my web application back end. Apparently i iterate through all the records from the C# code whenever there is a multiple insertion scenario. i have never tried the multple insertion using XML. And i think after reading many blogs about XML manipulation using SQL server 2008 the process is pretty tideous ..
So my question is..
* Is Insertion via XML much efficient than the traditional insertion?
* Is the a generic way in which i can serialize a class in C# --> Manipulate XML in SQL -->Insert also Read data as XML--> Deserialize XML to usual object? | 2011/02/28 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/1493",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/1056/"
] | The whole "inserting multiple records with XML" has pretty much been superseded by [table parameters](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb675163.aspx) in SQL Server 2008.
And mentioned in [Erland Erland Sommarskog's Arrays and Lists in SQL Server 2008](http://www.sommarskog.se/arrays-in-sql-2008.html#TVP_in_TSQL): *the* definitive article on this subject.
.net has better XML handling than the SQLXML implementation too. | While TVPs would be a better solution, this can be done via XML as well. I talked about it a while back in an [article and my blog](http://itknowledgeexchange.techtarget.com/sql-server/back-to-basics-getting-data-from-an-xml-document/). |
746 | I have some design diagrams only on paper. Scanning them to bitmaps is easy, but I've had no luck getting useful vectors out of them. I've tried vectorizers in programs like gimp, and a few online services. Generally, I end up with enormous numbers of spurious vectors (from dust, dotted lines, text on the diagram, slightly variations in scanning contrast, etc).
What tools and/or techniques can I use to get a more useful vector result, that I can then modify in a normal CAD tool without spending absurd amounts of time cleaning it all up first? | 2016/03/14 | [
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com/questions/746",
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com",
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com/users/40/"
] | There is the capable but somewhat expensive [Scan2CAD](http://www.scan2cad.com/ "Scan2CAD").
Otherwise, if you're happy with outlines and not centre lines, scan b&w, aggressively clean up macules, mask off text, and then vectorize in potrace, autotrace, etc. Alternatively, load the bitmap at the correct resolution into a drawing package as a raster layer and draw the lines/objects you want over it. This avoids the horrors of dotted lines.
Both ways are quite a bit of work, sadly. | I would recommend using something like [Paint.NET](http://www.getpaint.net/index.html) to "fix" the images before attempting to convert them to CAD.
To my knowledge, most of the Image-to-CAD applications are going to use the grayscale intensity of each pixel to get the Z-axis value. So, you can help this process by pre-filtering the image into grayscale and playing with the contrast until you get enough distinction between the features you want to stand out in your CAD model or print. Here's a quick example using a sample image:
Poor Contrast
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JuyOg.png)
Better Contrast
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yEjjk.png)
Whichever program you use will generally have an easier time detecting the edges of the flower pedals in the second image the further towards the center it goes.
GIMP has [greyscale](https://www.gimp.org/tutorials/Color2BW/) and [contrast](https://www.gimp.org/tutorials/ContrastMask/) tools as well. |
3,153 | In [The Amazing Spider-Man](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0948470/), in the post credit scene **Dr. Curt Connors** is in a jail cell and he was talking with someone, but his face was never shown in the movie due to shadows. Here is the [youtube link](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m-NDoaMxgP8) of that scene. Also, this is a still image from the scene:
Does anyone have any idea *who the man is in the credit scene in The Amazing Spider-Man?* | 2012/07/06 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/3153",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/556/"
] | Having watched it again, and continuing with the Sinister Six theory I mentioned earlier, I now believe this might be the introduction of Electro.
If you'll recall, the figure appears and disappears during lightning strikes, which would be the perfect cover (and set up) for Electro.
Also, correct me if I'm wrong, but I think Electro features pretty prominently in the game of the movie, which might not mean much, but could be another clue. | I believe he's actually talking to himself. Like he did earlier when he found out that Spiderman was Peter Parker. He had a conversation in his head about what to do.
Now that he is in his cell, I feel the filmmaker just showed it how Connors saw it in his head.
Remember, he's in a jail cell. If I remember right, when they opened the door to the cell it was empty. How would Osborne be able to have a secret door into his cell? |
3,153 | In [The Amazing Spider-Man](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0948470/), in the post credit scene **Dr. Curt Connors** is in a jail cell and he was talking with someone, but his face was never shown in the movie due to shadows. Here is the [youtube link](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m-NDoaMxgP8) of that scene. Also, this is a still image from the scene:
Does anyone have any idea *who the man is in the credit scene in The Amazing Spider-Man?* | 2012/07/06 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/3153",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/556/"
] | I believe he's actually talking to himself. Like he did earlier when he found out that Spiderman was Peter Parker. He had a conversation in his head about what to do.
Now that he is in his cell, I feel the filmmaker just showed it how Connors saw it in his head.
Remember, he's in a jail cell. If I remember right, when they opened the door to the cell it was empty. How would Osborne be able to have a secret door into his cell? | I dont think it's Norman Osborne because it wouldn't make sense. Curt is in jail, how could Norman get in there. I think it's between Dr. Connors' conscience, or it could be Peter's dad, because they never showed what happened to him. Plus, remember Peter went on a computer and looked up info about his dad, and they said Peters mom and dad died in a plane crash |
3,153 | In [The Amazing Spider-Man](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0948470/), in the post credit scene **Dr. Curt Connors** is in a jail cell and he was talking with someone, but his face was never shown in the movie due to shadows. Here is the [youtube link](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m-NDoaMxgP8) of that scene. Also, this is a still image from the scene:
Does anyone have any idea *who the man is in the credit scene in The Amazing Spider-Man?* | 2012/07/06 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/3153",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/556/"
] | Well, according to [this page](http://amazingspiderman.wikia.com/wiki/Gustav_Fiers) on The Amazing Spider Man Wikia, *and* Entertainment Weekly, this is **Gustav Fiers, AKA The Gentleman**, a sinister figure with ties to Oscorp and the [Sinister Six](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sinister_Six#Novels). From EW (about a scene in the 2nd movie):
>
> The final moments also feature a scene with Harry, now in his own cell in Ravencroft, taking a call from **The Gentleman otherwise known as Mr. Fiers (whom we all remember from his appearance at the end of the first film.)** Harry is looking better — we can assume that the Goblin suit equalized his condition enough so that he could be functional — and he talks about putting together a team to beat Spider-Man. Important phrasing in this short scene: “I want to keep it small.” Without question, **this is our introduction to the Sinister Six, as we then see The Gentleman start to peruse the goods in the special lab section of Oscorp** (key among them: Doc Ock’s arms, Vulture’s wings, and the Rhino suit.)
>
>
>
[Here's the link](http://popwatch.ew.com/2014/05/02/amazing-spider-man-2-ending-dissecting-final-moments-spoilers/). [MTV](http://www.mtv.com/news/1819363/amazing-spider-man-2-easter-eggs/) (scroll to the bottom) and [The Toronto Sun](http://www.torontosun.com/2014/05/02/sinister-six-villains-revealed-in-the-amazing-spider-man-2) (4th paragraph from the end) also seem to treat it as fact. | I believe he's actually talking to himself. Like he did earlier when he found out that Spiderman was Peter Parker. He had a conversation in his head about what to do.
Now that he is in his cell, I feel the filmmaker just showed it how Connors saw it in his head.
Remember, he's in a jail cell. If I remember right, when they opened the door to the cell it was empty. How would Osborne be able to have a secret door into his cell? |
3,153 | In [The Amazing Spider-Man](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0948470/), in the post credit scene **Dr. Curt Connors** is in a jail cell and he was talking with someone, but his face was never shown in the movie due to shadows. Here is the [youtube link](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m-NDoaMxgP8) of that scene. Also, this is a still image from the scene:
Does anyone have any idea *who the man is in the credit scene in The Amazing Spider-Man?* | 2012/07/06 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/3153",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/556/"
] | Having watched it again, and continuing with the Sinister Six theory I mentioned earlier, I now believe this might be the introduction of Electro.
If you'll recall, the figure appears and disappears during lightning strikes, which would be the perfect cover (and set up) for Electro.
Also, correct me if I'm wrong, but I think Electro features pretty prominently in the game of the movie, which might not mean much, but could be another clue. | I dont think it's Norman Osborne because it wouldn't make sense. Curt is in jail, how could Norman get in there. I think it's between Dr. Connors' conscience, or it could be Peter's dad, because they never showed what happened to him. Plus, remember Peter went on a computer and looked up info about his dad, and they said Peters mom and dad died in a plane crash |
3,153 | In [The Amazing Spider-Man](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0948470/), in the post credit scene **Dr. Curt Connors** is in a jail cell and he was talking with someone, but his face was never shown in the movie due to shadows. Here is the [youtube link](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m-NDoaMxgP8) of that scene. Also, this is a still image from the scene:
Does anyone have any idea *who the man is in the credit scene in The Amazing Spider-Man?* | 2012/07/06 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/3153",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/556/"
] | Well, according to [this page](http://amazingspiderman.wikia.com/wiki/Gustav_Fiers) on The Amazing Spider Man Wikia, *and* Entertainment Weekly, this is **Gustav Fiers, AKA The Gentleman**, a sinister figure with ties to Oscorp and the [Sinister Six](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sinister_Six#Novels). From EW (about a scene in the 2nd movie):
>
> The final moments also feature a scene with Harry, now in his own cell in Ravencroft, taking a call from **The Gentleman otherwise known as Mr. Fiers (whom we all remember from his appearance at the end of the first film.)** Harry is looking better — we can assume that the Goblin suit equalized his condition enough so that he could be functional — and he talks about putting together a team to beat Spider-Man. Important phrasing in this short scene: “I want to keep it small.” Without question, **this is our introduction to the Sinister Six, as we then see The Gentleman start to peruse the goods in the special lab section of Oscorp** (key among them: Doc Ock’s arms, Vulture’s wings, and the Rhino suit.)
>
>
>
[Here's the link](http://popwatch.ew.com/2014/05/02/amazing-spider-man-2-ending-dissecting-final-moments-spoilers/). [MTV](http://www.mtv.com/news/1819363/amazing-spider-man-2-easter-eggs/) (scroll to the bottom) and [The Toronto Sun](http://www.torontosun.com/2014/05/02/sinister-six-villains-revealed-in-the-amazing-spider-man-2) (4th paragraph from the end) also seem to treat it as fact. | I dont think it's Norman Osborne because it wouldn't make sense. Curt is in jail, how could Norman get in there. I think it's between Dr. Connors' conscience, or it could be Peter's dad, because they never showed what happened to him. Plus, remember Peter went on a computer and looked up info about his dad, and they said Peters mom and dad died in a plane crash |
3,906,803 | What is the difference between CMSs and DMSs ? Both store date , give access to the data , where do they differ? Can apache Jack Rabbit be used in place of Alfresco ? | 2010/10/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3906803",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/304673/"
] | I would differentiate the two based on they mutability of the data under management:
* In a Document Management System, the Documents are immutable (and often opaque) blobs created by external applications
* A Content Management system contains mutable data (the content) and provides an interface to mutate said content.
Of course, DMSs have evolved to break this rule - for example, by adding document properties to a Word Document... however, people seem comfortable with calling this "metadata" and therefore it can break all the rules.
Given the immutable nature of the data, a DMS can make assumptions that a CMS can not - given these assumptions, I would be careful stating (as per Wolfwyrd's comment) that DMS is a subset of CMS. | Content management refers to a system that stores content of any type. It tends to involve a workflow (i.e. creators, editors, publishers). Content management oalso often deals with fragments of data applied to templates. For example, a template for a page may be created with editable body, sub title, title etc.
Document management refers to a system that stores electronic documents or files of any type. Document management can be considered a subset of content management - a more specialised form of content management as it approaches the management only of electronic files, not necessarily the potential to store fragments of content.
Jack Rabbit and Alfresco both supply content management services so they can also be used to support document management by the simple fact that one is a subset of the other. So in this case, it's more down to which provide the features you need. |
133,512 | In mobile, when entering text, anything under the textbox is hidden by the on screen keyboard. I was thinking of putting a "Submit" button under the textbox, but then I thought the user might not know to tap out of the textbox to dismiss the keyboard. Especially on iOS where there is no ENTER button.
So where would you suggest putting the "Submit" button? Should I assume the user *does* know how to dismiss the keyboard? | 2020/06/15 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/133512",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/77533/"
] | iOS has a Done link that lets the user hide the keyboard. It's also becoming common for webforms to have just one input field and button per screen, so that the CTA button stays accessible. You can also experiment with CTA buttons that are always in a fixed visible position on the screen.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1qtM2l.jpg) | **You can put the **SUBMIT BUTTON** wherever you find it aesthetically good.**
In my opinion: Take the example of **Screen 1** - when you will enter the app the user sees a page with 4 fields and a button at the bottom and when he clicks on phone no. or email placeholder then the keypad appears(**screen 2**). So the user already knows where was the button before the keypad appears.
Note:
1. I prefer the button to be near the text placeholders as if our placeholders are at top and button at the bottom so there is a lot of white space between the fields and button.
2. When the user enters the login screen and if the button is near the placeholder it easy for the user to fill the fields and then click the button beneath quickly instead of scrolling unnecessarily towards the end of the page.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BOmgl.png) |
100,295 | I made a search for "flag of switzerland" on google and i encountered with this passage.
* *It is one of only two square sovereign-state flags, the other **being** the flag of Vatican City.*
I am unable to understand why **being** is used after the comma. I think it sould be like:
* *It is one of only two square sovereign-state flags, the other **is** the flag of Vatican City.*
What is the difference between the two sentences? Is my version correct? Thanks. | 2016/08/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/100295",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/39808/"
] | ***Being*** in your first sentence is used correctly as the participle of the verb *to be* in a *present participle clause.* Another example of this usage might be:
>
> **Being** tall, I bent over to get through the door.
>
>
>
This use of **being** is seldom encountered in natural speech, but is more common in formal writing, as in the reference text cited in your example. One less formal way to express the thought might be to create two complete sentences:
>
> It is one of only two square sovereign-state flags. The other is the flag of Vatican City.
>
>
>
>
As JamesK says, a semi-colon might also be used:
>
> It is one of only two square sovereign-state flags; the other is the flag of Vatican City.
>
>
>
>
Your own second sentence, though, uses a comma in what we call a *[comma splice.](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comma_splice)* It creates a *[run-on sentence,](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Run-on_sentence)* in which two main clauses (clauses which can stand alone as complete sentences) are combined, and this is considered poor usage in most cases. | In the second sentence, both phrases are complete sentences. As complete sentences the use of a comma is questionable, it is a "comma splice". Using a semicolon is possible "... sovereign-state flags; the other ..."
The first sentence, which uses an participle phrase "being the flag..." which describes "the other"
So your version is correct, (but the punctuation may be disputed). The first version is also correct, and has almost the same meaning. |
49,681 | I have a little web app that basically shows a roadmap of projects. Think your typical timeline view like this:
Each project has a date. Right now if you want to change the date of a project you double click and you get a detail popup and you can go change the date and then close the popup and the timeline refreshes.
I now have situations where new projects that are added that are top priority so i basically need to change the date of all items after that (which is quite painful doing one by one). Going in one by one for each project is quite painful and i wanted to see if anyone has seen any good examples of user experience around making bulk fields changes.
In some cases i would want to say "push back this set of 10 projects back a month" and in other cases i would think it would be more date specific where i would just want a more frictionless way up updating dates on multiple items. I am thinking some slider or drag and drop, etc but can't find anything very good after googling for a while so wanted to reach out to this community to see if there were any suggestions or example that people that were very good. | 2014/01/03 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49681",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/809/"
] | I would do two things.
1. I assume that adding a new project requires some sort of form. Add to that form a section that lets the user push back later projects. Probably it should also let the user decide whether all later projects should be pushed back or just some of them - and then it's just a list with checkboxes and one field for specifying the offset. Alternatively it can be a dialog that comes up after they're done with adding the new project.
2. When you need to change the dates but it's not due to adding a new project. When you edit the date for an existing project you could also provide an entry point into the workflow I've described above, like a checkbox that says "update dates for consequent projects" and opens up the UI for selecting all / some and providing the offset. | I think there could be usability issues with your current design.
* Dates duplicating clutters the interface. The dates are both on the timeline and within text blocks.
* Too narrow text blocks lead to bad readability.
* Bad reading pattern could lead to error in data perception:
.
* Uncomfortable "jumping" reading pattern.
* The entire graphics is too heavy (line width, etc.) which shifts the focus from the data to graphics.
.
**Possible solution** is to present the timeline in a vertical way with separate date column. Then you could move the projects in a two ways, see the picture below:
1. Move the starting block of project with the "global" option, which affects the entire project.
2. New project, which is inserted, automatically pushes down current project.
**UPDATE**
Overlapped projects could be presented ase parallel stacks. The stacks could be expanded to display the data. Narrowed view allows to focus on a current project while keeping track of other projects. Also ordering from left to right by priority allows to support convenient reading pattern.
 |
436,994 | I know the word "belewe" from traditional astronomy as a precursor to the phrase "blue moon", also known as the "betrayer" thirteenth moon in one of every three years that would disrupt a lunar calendar lacking an intercalary unit.
**I'd like to know how properly to pronounce "belewe" ("beh-LOO"? "BEHL-yoo"?).**
**I'd also like to know where to break its syllables when typing ("be·lewe"? "bel·ewe"?).**
As possible clues:
* From the [*Online Etymology Dictionary*](https://www.etymonline.com/word/blue), Modern English "blue" was once spelled "blwe" (c 1300).
* From [*A Concise Dictionary of Middle-English*](https://www.gutenberg.org/files/10625/10625-h/dict1.html#word_blewe_adj) (by Mayhew & Skeat, Oxford), Modern English "blue" was also once spelled "blewe" (c 1150–1580).
* From [*Old English Translator*](https://www.oldenglishtranslator.co.uk/) (compiled by a hobbyist), the associated (false-friend/pun, not derivative/ancestral) Modern English verb "to betray" can translate to the Old English infinitive "belæwan" (c 5th–12th century), a first-person singular form of which is given there as "belæwe", whose spelling matches "belewe", save for the Æ in place of the second E. | 2018/03/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/436994",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/85429/"
] | According to the Oxford English Dictionary (OED), the word *blue,* a loanword from "Anglo-Norman *blew, bliu, blu, blwe, bluw*", had a number of spellings that were used during the Middle English period, among them <belewe>:
>
> eME bluȝ, ME bleu, ME bleuh, ME blu, ME bluwe, ME blw, ME blyu, ME blyw, ME–15 blwe, ME–16 blewe, ME–17 blew, ME– blue, 15 belewe, 15 bliew, 15 bliewe; Sc. pre-17 bleu, pre-17 blewe, pre-17 17– blue, pre-17 19– bew, pre-17 19– blew, 19– blyew, 19– blyue, 19– byoo; N.E.D. (1887) also records a form ME bluw.
>
>
>
The Wikipedia article about the term "[blue moon](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blue_moon#cite_note-11)" cites some lines of verse that it says contain the earliest known example of *blue moon* (although actually, the phrase does not appear in exactly that form in the document), from a pamphlet "Rede me and be nott wrothe, for I say no thynge but trothe" that was published in 1528:
>
> Yf they saye the mone is belewe /
> We must beleve that it is true
>
>
>
(These lines also appear in the OED entry on *moon* as the earliest and only quotation for the now-obsolete expression "†to say that the moon is blue", which the OED compares to the still-current "to believe that the moon is made of green cheese".)
### The vowel in the stressed syllable was a diphthong something like [iu]
The rhyme constitutes evidence that <belewe> here was pronounced the same from the stressed vowel to the end of the word as the word <true>. The OED entry for the word *true* has some more details about the pronunciation of that word in Middle English:
>
> The α. forms show the usual development of Old English *ēow* to the Middle English diphthong *ēu, ēw* (with long close *ē*). By the 15th cent. this diphthong had fallen together (perhaps as /ɪu/) with the reflex of Old French *u* (i.e. /y/), giving rise to the Middle English and later β. forms *tru, true,* etc.
>
>
>
The symbol [ɪu] represents a diphthong that is not found in most common English accents, but that consists of a vowel like the "ih" in the modern English word "kit" followed by an "oo"- or "w"-like offglide, like at the end of the /aʊ/ dipthong in the modern English word "cow". I have also seen this diphthong transcribed as **iu**, **ɪʊ**, and **iʊ** ("Diphthongs", *[English Language and Linguistics Online](http://www.ello.uos.de/field.php/EarlyModernEnglish/Diphthongs)*). The IPA symbols **ɪ** and **i** and **ʊ** and **u** refer to theoretically adjacent and in practice actually overlapping areas of the "vowel space", so the variation in transcription mentioned here doesn't actually correspond to much if any difference in the sounds that are being referred to.
The consonants /b/ and /l/ were pronounced about the same in Middle English as they are today.
### Silent <e>s
I am more uncertain about the pronunciation of the first and last <e>s. In Middle English texts, the letter <e> could represent a number of sounds: an unreduced short vowel /e/, one of the long vowels /eː/ or /ɛː/, the schwa /ə/, or no sound at all (a "silent e" as in many modern English words).
I expect that a lot of material has been written about the topic of when word-final schwa was lost in English, but unfortunately, I haven't read almost any of it, so the next bit of my answer is based on only a single source: "[A U-turn and its consequences for the history of final schwa in English](http://www.helsinki.fi/varieng/series/volumes/16/minkova/)", by Donka Minkova (2015). But it seems that the general relevant trend of word-final schwa loss is fairly uncontroversial. Minkova says:
>
> there is no scholarly disagreement on the full-blown progress of final schwa loss from the 12th century onwards. Not all contexts were equally conducive to reduction. Inflectional final vowels are more prone to reduction and apocope. There are significant dialectal differences: the loss of schwa in word-final position, both inflectional and stem-final, was more advanced in the northern dialect areas, where by the mid 14th-century its realization would have been an archaism. [13] The insertion of unetymological <-e> is a good test for the instability of base-final <-e>. *The Ormulum,* an autograph manuscript dated c. 1180, written in Lincolnshire, shows a number of nominatives in <-e> in nouns which had no final <-e> in OE: *ax**e*** < OE *æx* ‘axe’, *bliss**e*** < OE *bliss, wund**e*** < OE *wund* ‘wound’. [14] In the southern dialects apocope spread more slowly, with inflectional <-e>’s leading the way. Chaucer, whose reconstructed pronunciation shows other conservative features, resorts to final schwa for metrical purposes, but his usage is more constrained than the ubiquitous /-ə/# of early ME: for nouns it is consistent only in monosyllables in prepositional phrases. The dialectal details are much discussed in the literature (see Minkova 1991: Ch. 2; Fulk 2012: § 30). Of interest in the context of the overall history of the change is that by the beginning of the 15th c. the realization of schwa in word-final position in the base forms of nouns in all dialects had become obsolete. This allows us to posit an active constraint on the distribution of /-ə/ as defined in (3):
>
>
> (3) \*/-ə/#: Avoid the realization of schwa in word-final position
>
>
>
Based on this information, it seems that the final <e> in <belewe> was most likely silent and did not constitute a distinct syllable, since the passage it appears in seems to have been written in the 1500s, not only long after the 12th century but well past Chaucer's time also.
The first <e> is puzzling, since it is not consistent with the etymological origins of the word. It seems possible that it was an inserted unetymological silent <e> letter, somewhat like the examples given by Minkova, although it does not occur in word-final position like these examples. If the first <e> did somehow correspond to some actual vowel sound, I would guess that the schwa would be most likely.
### Summary of pronunciation and syllabification
It seems to me that the pronunciation of the word <belewe> in this passage was most likely monosyllabic /ˈbliu/, so I wouldn't recommend trying to break the word into syllables at all. But if you did, I think you'd definitely want to avoid dividing it as **bel·ewe**. It seems pretty clear that the /l/ fell in the same syllable as the following diphthong /iu/: even if there was some kind of vowel preceding it, that vowel would have almost certainly been unstressed, based on the word's etymology and the rhyme with *true.* E.g. things like /ˈbel.iu/ or /ˈbeː.liu/ seem completely impossible to me; and while I'm not confident enough to completely rule out /bəˈliu/,
(whose syllables would be divided as **be·lewe**), it seems less probable to me than /ˈbliu/ **belewe**.
That's my best shot. I'm sorry, I'm clearly a fair bit of my depth here: I only know enough about Middle English to give an answer based on general information about Middle English sound systems, not an answer that addresses which variant pronunciations were most likely based on factors like time, place, dialect, and choice of spelling variants.
For a detailed, educated answer that talks about things like what the unusual spelling of *blue* in this particular document, with <bel> instead of <bl>, is most likely to have corresponded to in terms of pronunciation, you may have to get in touch with professors or other kinds of experts who have seriously studied Middle English phonology and paleography.
### Side note
A suprising hypothesis about the etymology of "blue moon" that is mentioned in the linked Wikipedia article prompted me to post the following, separate question: [Is the "blue" in "blue moon" a reference to betrayal?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/437111/is-the-blue-in-blue-moon-a-reference-to-betrayal) | [**belǽwa**](https://play.google.com/books/reader?id=YIALAAAAMAAJ&printsec=frontcover&output=reader&hl=en&pg=GBS.PR71) - [**be-lǽwa**](http://bosworth.ff.cuni.cz/003568)
Here are a few [good](http://old-engli.sh/dictionary.php) - [links](https://www.scribd.com/doc/79069901/Dictionary-of-Old-English-PDF), although I get the impression that knowledge about the original pronunciation of OE words may have been lost. However this great book, which is free to read online, has a full chapter on Old English [**pronunciation**](https://archive.org/stream/isbn_9781405152723#page/10/mode/2up). |
5,343,894 | I'm looking for a way to clear only the GPS [Ephemeris](http://www.how-gps-works.com/glossary/ephemeris-data.shtml) data after getting a location.
I know in the API there is a Android.Location.reset() function. Is this the function I'm looking for?
EDIT: The concept is to simulate what happens to the GPS/location system when the phone is restarted without actually restarting the phone. | 2011/03/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5343894",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/327064/"
] | The GPS device is separate from the cpu as is its software. I know of no gps device which allows you to clear the ephemeris data. The bigger question is why would you want to do this? There seems to be no logical reason to me. | Programmatically you can't. Would it be good to let you clear that data when other apps may want to use gps? I believe it may be reset when the user reboots the phone though.
Now with a rooted phone I'm sure you could do it. |
9,206 | I play cricket every summer and have been ever since I was little. During a match I was bowling. The rule in the league I play for is
>
> If the ball is bowled (without hitting the ground) above waist height, it is a no ball.
>
>
>
Now surely, if a ball is bowled above waist height, it will not hit the wicket.
My question is, if the ball is bowled above waist height, but ends up hitting the wicket - is that out? | 2015/04/29 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/9206",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/9336/"
] | No. See [Law 24.16](http://www.lords.org/mcc/laws-of-cricket/laws/law-24-no-ball/):
>
> When No ball has been called, neither batsman shall be out under any of the Laws except 33 (Handled the ball), 34 (Hit the ball twice), 37 (Obstructing the field) or 38 (Run out).
>
>
>
At least under the standard Laws of Cricket (specifically, [Law 42.6 and 42.7](http://www.lords.org/mcc/laws-of-cricket/laws/law-42-fair-and-unfair-play/)), it's a No ball as soon as it passes the batsmen, so it doesn't matter that it hit the wicket - it's still a No ball and therefore the batsman cannot be out bowled. | Considering the two possibilities :
If the batsman is standing well inside the crease.Then there is no way possible for the ball to have passed the batsman above waist height and suddenly defy the laws of physics and trajectory, and decrease height mid air in such a short distance and hit the stumps.(Well, even if the ball does go on to hit the stumps by some sort of magic or an extra terrestrial intervention, it is out ).
2.If the batsman is standing outside the crease.
Now it is possible for the ball to go on to hit the stumps even if the ball had passed the batsman above waist height.
In this case the result is OUT even though the ball was above waist height when it passed the batsman, because it is considered to be the batsman's fault/choice that he was outside the crease (otherwise it wouldn't have been above his waist had he been inside the crease, or would not have hit the stumps at all as i explained above in the first scenario)
The umpire made a mistake?????? |
9,206 | I play cricket every summer and have been ever since I was little. During a match I was bowling. The rule in the league I play for is
>
> If the ball is bowled (without hitting the ground) above waist height, it is a no ball.
>
>
>
Now surely, if a ball is bowled above waist height, it will not hit the wicket.
My question is, if the ball is bowled above waist height, but ends up hitting the wicket - is that out? | 2015/04/29 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/9206",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/9336/"
] | No. See [Law 24.16](http://www.lords.org/mcc/laws-of-cricket/laws/law-24-no-ball/):
>
> When No ball has been called, neither batsman shall be out under any of the Laws except 33 (Handled the ball), 34 (Hit the ball twice), 37 (Obstructing the field) or 38 (Run out).
>
>
>
At least under the standard Laws of Cricket (specifically, [Law 42.6 and 42.7](http://www.lords.org/mcc/laws-of-cricket/laws/law-42-fair-and-unfair-play/)), it's a No ball as soon as it passes the batsmen, so it doesn't matter that it hit the wicket - it's still a No ball and therefore the batsman cannot be out bowled. | It is a wicket no matter how high the ball goes, if it hits the stumps |
3,630,663 | The title of the question pretty much tells it all.
When using the java SDK provided by Crystal Reports to export a report as an Excel spread-sheet. Although the cells grow even now, only the first line is visible in the export XLS.
In the Crystal Reports UI, this is achieved by setting the 'Grow' option from the Report Export options.
What parameter must be set so that the corresponding cell *visibly* grows to accomodate large/multi-line text? | 2010/09/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3630663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/122003/"
] | (Entity Framework *is* an O/R Mapper.)
If you're serious about getting your hands dirty with ORM (but relatively new to that area), I highly recommend something like TekPub's videos on these topics. You'll be able to see these tools in use starting from scratch. It is a graceful introduction to some simple, but real-world issues like the ones you mention. | I've had a great time using Entity Framework 4.0 (+ the CTP). I think you'd have a much easier time dealing with an ORM like that. EF4 provides *everything* you need to interoperate with MSSQL from C#/.NET. You won't have to write a single line of SQL, and it has full support for LINQ (through ObjectQuery). |
3,630,663 | The title of the question pretty much tells it all.
When using the java SDK provided by Crystal Reports to export a report as an Excel spread-sheet. Although the cells grow even now, only the first line is visible in the export XLS.
In the Crystal Reports UI, this is achieved by setting the 'Grow' option from the Report Export options.
What parameter must be set so that the corresponding cell *visibly* grows to accomodate large/multi-line text? | 2010/09/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3630663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/122003/"
] | I use NHibernate exclusively in my projects. I like the control and flexibility it gives me. There is a 'shortcut' called [Active Record](http://www.castleproject.org/activerecord/) that uses NHibernate under the covers but provides a really nice an simple interface to NHibernate.
NHibernate has a steep learning curve, but when you get past that - it is really smooth sailing. When (and if) you venture the way of NHibernate, check out [Ayende](http://ayende.com/blog) for cool tips. | I've had a great time using Entity Framework 4.0 (+ the CTP). I think you'd have a much easier time dealing with an ORM like that. EF4 provides *everything* you need to interoperate with MSSQL from C#/.NET. You won't have to write a single line of SQL, and it has full support for LINQ (through ObjectQuery). |
3,630,663 | The title of the question pretty much tells it all.
When using the java SDK provided by Crystal Reports to export a report as an Excel spread-sheet. Although the cells grow even now, only the first line is visible in the export XLS.
In the Crystal Reports UI, this is achieved by setting the 'Grow' option from the Report Export options.
What parameter must be set so that the corresponding cell *visibly* grows to accomodate large/multi-line text? | 2010/09/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3630663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/122003/"
] | LinqToSql is an ORM, so you are already using one. Taking LinqToSql out and replacing it with EntityFramework or NHibernate won't solve the problems you appear to be having right now.
Here are some things you should learn more about to help give you additional context:
* [AutoMapper](http://automapper.codeplex.com/)
* [Data Transfer Objects](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_Transfer_Object) (DTOs)
* [Plain Old CLR Object](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plain_Old_CLR_Object) (POCO) | I've had a great time using Entity Framework 4.0 (+ the CTP). I think you'd have a much easier time dealing with an ORM like that. EF4 provides *everything* you need to interoperate with MSSQL from C#/.NET. You won't have to write a single line of SQL, and it has full support for LINQ (through ObjectQuery). |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | Yes there is a better approach
==============================
Gas pockets feeding the fire...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rGdcw.jpg)
...or underground coal seam fires.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wjT6B.jpg)
The volcano essentially did a naturally occurring version of [fracking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydraulic_fracturing), creating channels to the surface for gas, while land slides exposed coal seams, in some instances laying the coal bare on the surface.
These fires ebb and flow with the seasons, especially effective if they are not the four seasons we have on the temperate parts of the Earth (Winter, Spring, Summer, Fall) but instead Wet and Dry seasons like in the tropics.
The biology would have to...
1. Grow fast
2. Spread Effectively
3. Survive Scorching
Vines and brush — where the roots go deep — would work, the plants survive having the surface parts scorched off because when the water comes, the roots shoot and grow new surface parts and send vines in all directions.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H56Gi.jpg)
*Blackberries are infamous for forming [brambles](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bramble) and spreading quickly*
---
So, to summarize:
* The fires are fed by subsurface sources, like gas and coal, not by "new" biomass
* The biology does not so much "adapt" to the fires as it is just very good at spreading and "ignoring" the fires by hiding underground. | **Fire loops around the globe**
Your planet has its landmass as a band around the equator.
(or, alternatively, there's [almost] no open water, poles are covered in snow, leaving only the equatorial zone available to the biomass)
Somehow, there are no large rivers.
(plants still need to get moisture, and there's evaporation, which means there ought to be rain- or snowfall, which usually means runoff, but fires tend not cross large bodies of water... figure this out).
The equatorial zone is dry-ish, and e.g. typically covered by grasses.
The fire started (magically in only one direction), spread the entire width of the equatorial zone, and continues to burn, e.g. westwards.
By the time the fire has reached it's origin, that part has already sprouted new mature (and dry) grass, with seeds either preserved deep in the soil, or spread by wind, or spread by birds or even migratory animals.
Thus the fire continues to burn in a circle around your planet.
The long-lived plants died out, what remains are grasses and maybe shrubs.
The plants have therefore evolved to live in this cycle, and so have the insects and the animals.
P.S. some math
Fire boundary speed: 10% of wind speed (<https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s13595-019-0829-8>)
Typical wind speed: 10km/h
(<https://sciencing.com/wind-speeds-tropical-rainforest-23367.html>)
Thus, for a planet the size of the earth, the fire circumnavigates in ~4½ years, leaving enough time for plants to germinate, go through several life cycles and accumulate large amount of stale, dry biomass. |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | Quite a few plants - mostly trees - have evolved to [require fire to germinate](https://www.britannica.com/list/5-amazing-adaptations-of-pyrophytic-plants)! This seems like the seed of what you might need - combined with a geography that's appropriate.
Annual fires are common in several areas; but what makes them not permanent is the weather cycles. This could possibly change, though, and become permanent in a way - if your geography allows the fire to "travel".
Imagine a Pangea type world, a single large continent taking up 30% of the surface area of the globe, say. If that Pangaea is ringed by forest, and if the weather patterns comply, it's possible that you could have a *travelling fire*, which, say, is on the east from March to June, the north from June to September (northern summer), the west from September to December, and the south from December to March (southern summer). (West/East could easily switch, of course.)
The fire could literally travel in that way, ringing the globe every year. Then, cultures would possibly come up that would worship the "renewing fire", have rituals based on it, etc.
I'm not sure what you'd need for the weather to work out this way (you'd need the rainy season to not coincide with the fire, but to coincide with the *end* of the fire, for example), so that part might be a bit handwavy - but it seems like a possibility, if you're not going into meteological science fiction, at least! | **Fire loops around the globe**
Your planet has its landmass as a band around the equator.
(or, alternatively, there's [almost] no open water, poles are covered in snow, leaving only the equatorial zone available to the biomass)
Somehow, there are no large rivers.
(plants still need to get moisture, and there's evaporation, which means there ought to be rain- or snowfall, which usually means runoff, but fires tend not cross large bodies of water... figure this out).
The equatorial zone is dry-ish, and e.g. typically covered by grasses.
The fire started (magically in only one direction), spread the entire width of the equatorial zone, and continues to burn, e.g. westwards.
By the time the fire has reached it's origin, that part has already sprouted new mature (and dry) grass, with seeds either preserved deep in the soil, or spread by wind, or spread by birds or even migratory animals.
Thus the fire continues to burn in a circle around your planet.
The long-lived plants died out, what remains are grasses and maybe shrubs.
The plants have therefore evolved to live in this cycle, and so have the insects and the animals.
P.S. some math
Fire boundary speed: 10% of wind speed (<https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s13595-019-0829-8>)
Typical wind speed: 10km/h
(<https://sciencing.com/wind-speeds-tropical-rainforest-23367.html>)
Thus, for a planet the size of the earth, the fire circumnavigates in ~4½ years, leaving enough time for plants to germinate, go through several life cycles and accumulate large amount of stale, dry biomass. |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | Yes there is a better approach
==============================
Gas pockets feeding the fire...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rGdcw.jpg)
...or underground coal seam fires.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wjT6B.jpg)
The volcano essentially did a naturally occurring version of [fracking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydraulic_fracturing), creating channels to the surface for gas, while land slides exposed coal seams, in some instances laying the coal bare on the surface.
These fires ebb and flow with the seasons, especially effective if they are not the four seasons we have on the temperate parts of the Earth (Winter, Spring, Summer, Fall) but instead Wet and Dry seasons like in the tropics.
The biology would have to...
1. Grow fast
2. Spread Effectively
3. Survive Scorching
Vines and brush — where the roots go deep — would work, the plants survive having the surface parts scorched off because when the water comes, the roots shoot and grow new surface parts and send vines in all directions.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H56Gi.jpg)
*Blackberries are infamous for forming [brambles](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bramble) and spreading quickly*
---
So, to summarize:
* The fires are fed by subsurface sources, like gas and coal, not by "new" biomass
* The biology does not so much "adapt" to the fires as it is just very good at spreading and "ignoring" the fires by hiding underground. | Quite a few plants - mostly trees - have evolved to [require fire to germinate](https://www.britannica.com/list/5-amazing-adaptations-of-pyrophytic-plants)! This seems like the seed of what you might need - combined with a geography that's appropriate.
Annual fires are common in several areas; but what makes them not permanent is the weather cycles. This could possibly change, though, and become permanent in a way - if your geography allows the fire to "travel".
Imagine a Pangea type world, a single large continent taking up 30% of the surface area of the globe, say. If that Pangaea is ringed by forest, and if the weather patterns comply, it's possible that you could have a *travelling fire*, which, say, is on the east from March to June, the north from June to September (northern summer), the west from September to December, and the south from December to March (southern summer). (West/East could easily switch, of course.)
The fire could literally travel in that way, ringing the globe every year. Then, cultures would possibly come up that would worship the "renewing fire", have rituals based on it, etc.
I'm not sure what you'd need for the weather to work out this way (you'd need the rainy season to not coincide with the fire, but to coincide with the *end* of the fire, for example), so that part might be a bit handwavy - but it seems like a possibility, if you're not going into meteological science fiction, at least! |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | You can't. It's simply a matter of energy input and output. The sun delivers about 700 W/m^2 to the Earth's surface. Plants convert a small fraction of that into biomass. (Photosynthesis is at best only about 5% efficient: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Photosynthetic_efficiency#Typical_efficiencies> )
A fire will convert many years worth of plant-produced biomass into CO2 & H2O in minutes to hours\*, releasing the stored energy in the process. Then no more fire until the plants have a chance to regrow.
Even the coal seam & natural gas fires mentioned in another answer demonstrate this. It took probably millions of years of plant growth to produce that coal or natural gas, which is now burning at a rate far greater than production.
\*Generally speaking. You can have situations, like tree roots, where there's limited access to oxygen, so the fire might smoulder for months. | **Fire loops around the globe**
Your planet has its landmass as a band around the equator.
(or, alternatively, there's [almost] no open water, poles are covered in snow, leaving only the equatorial zone available to the biomass)
Somehow, there are no large rivers.
(plants still need to get moisture, and there's evaporation, which means there ought to be rain- or snowfall, which usually means runoff, but fires tend not cross large bodies of water... figure this out).
The equatorial zone is dry-ish, and e.g. typically covered by grasses.
The fire started (magically in only one direction), spread the entire width of the equatorial zone, and continues to burn, e.g. westwards.
By the time the fire has reached it's origin, that part has already sprouted new mature (and dry) grass, with seeds either preserved deep in the soil, or spread by wind, or spread by birds or even migratory animals.
Thus the fire continues to burn in a circle around your planet.
The long-lived plants died out, what remains are grasses and maybe shrubs.
The plants have therefore evolved to live in this cycle, and so have the insects and the animals.
P.S. some math
Fire boundary speed: 10% of wind speed (<https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s13595-019-0829-8>)
Typical wind speed: 10km/h
(<https://sciencing.com/wind-speeds-tropical-rainforest-23367.html>)
Thus, for a planet the size of the earth, the fire circumnavigates in ~4½ years, leaving enough time for plants to germinate, go through several life cycles and accumulate large amount of stale, dry biomass. |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | Quite a few plants - mostly trees - have evolved to [require fire to germinate](https://www.britannica.com/list/5-amazing-adaptations-of-pyrophytic-plants)! This seems like the seed of what you might need - combined with a geography that's appropriate.
Annual fires are common in several areas; but what makes them not permanent is the weather cycles. This could possibly change, though, and become permanent in a way - if your geography allows the fire to "travel".
Imagine a Pangea type world, a single large continent taking up 30% of the surface area of the globe, say. If that Pangaea is ringed by forest, and if the weather patterns comply, it's possible that you could have a *travelling fire*, which, say, is on the east from March to June, the north from June to September (northern summer), the west from September to December, and the south from December to March (southern summer). (West/East could easily switch, of course.)
The fire could literally travel in that way, ringing the globe every year. Then, cultures would possibly come up that would worship the "renewing fire", have rituals based on it, etc.
I'm not sure what you'd need for the weather to work out this way (you'd need the rainy season to not coincide with the fire, but to coincide with the *end* of the fire, for example), so that part might be a bit handwavy - but it seems like a possibility, if you're not going into meteological science fiction, at least! | You can do one better than a permanently burning fire - a natural fission reactor. The best part? It isn't science fiction, it's history: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_nuclear_fission_reactor>
OK, maybe "permanent" is a bit of an overstatement, the one that existed on Earth only ran for hundreds of thousands of years. It required a high concentration of fissile Uranium and some groundwater. You could do all sorts of things with the water coming as part of a rainy season, or a river meandering to the wrong spot....
You also have a fuel in a fixed location and life won't exist right next to it, but there will be a fringe that is just at the boundary of survivability, and is changing little for thousands of years, which seems ripe for evolution. If you want to keep the evolutionary challenge as heat rather than radiation, then the specific locations will be cracks in the rocks where the steam escapes, some could be hot enough to produce flames whenever burnable material is available. |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | Quite a few plants - mostly trees - have evolved to [require fire to germinate](https://www.britannica.com/list/5-amazing-adaptations-of-pyrophytic-plants)! This seems like the seed of what you might need - combined with a geography that's appropriate.
Annual fires are common in several areas; but what makes them not permanent is the weather cycles. This could possibly change, though, and become permanent in a way - if your geography allows the fire to "travel".
Imagine a Pangea type world, a single large continent taking up 30% of the surface area of the globe, say. If that Pangaea is ringed by forest, and if the weather patterns comply, it's possible that you could have a *travelling fire*, which, say, is on the east from March to June, the north from June to September (northern summer), the west from September to December, and the south from December to March (southern summer). (West/East could easily switch, of course.)
The fire could literally travel in that way, ringing the globe every year. Then, cultures would possibly come up that would worship the "renewing fire", have rituals based on it, etc.
I'm not sure what you'd need for the weather to work out this way (you'd need the rainy season to not coincide with the fire, but to coincide with the *end* of the fire, for example), so that part might be a bit handwavy - but it seems like a possibility, if you're not going into meteological science fiction, at least! | You can't. It's simply a matter of energy input and output. The sun delivers about 700 W/m^2 to the Earth's surface. Plants convert a small fraction of that into biomass. (Photosynthesis is at best only about 5% efficient: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Photosynthetic_efficiency#Typical_efficiencies> )
A fire will convert many years worth of plant-produced biomass into CO2 & H2O in minutes to hours\*, releasing the stored energy in the process. Then no more fire until the plants have a chance to regrow.
Even the coal seam & natural gas fires mentioned in another answer demonstrate this. It took probably millions of years of plant growth to produce that coal or natural gas, which is now burning at a rate far greater than production.
\*Generally speaking. You can have situations, like tree roots, where there's limited access to oxygen, so the fire might smoulder for months. |
214,322 | In my world, I'd like to place a region of permanent forest fire, but I'm having trouble coming up with the minute details of the biome.
For example, my first idea was that it started when a lush, humid forest was exposed to a volcanic eruption, followed by a permanent but slow lava flow, lasting long enough that some plants have adapted and evolved into flora that relies on the constant fire and is itself so slow to burn it can outgrow whatever is lost to the fire.But how plausible is that, biologically speaking?
What is a better approach to creating a permanently burning forest? | 2021/09/27 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/214322",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90422/"
] | You can't have traditional trees they're too slow you need something that grows far faster, probably faster than [Bamboo](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bamboo) or even [Kudzu](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kudzu), something with a growth rate in the 10s of metres a day range, more importantly 10s of kilograms per day. I don't think osmosis allows for absorbing, moving and just chemically processing that much material but lets go with it. What is this plant going to be like:
* It will have a metabolic focus on producing thick porous [bark](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bark_(botany)) that starts with a high water content and dries and burns and crumbles off while being replaced continuously. It will be the bark rather than the stems of the plant that smolder continuously.
* The tissues of this plant are going to be high in silica and chromium as flame retardants.
* It's roots are going to be deep and extensive and exude acids to mobilise growth nutrients, these root adaptations exist individually in nature but not in any one plant that I know of.
All of these adaptions do exist in nature; Oak trees survive grass fires in meadows by having a thick spongy bark. Willows have high silica in their wood making it slower burning, which is not why it is there but is a useful side effect. Many grasses in fire prone environments have deep roots to survive burn over. Clover roots exude acid primarily to balance their pH in light of nitrogen fixation but it has the side effect of mobilising nutrients from dissolved soil particles as well.
Such a plant won't give you a big flashy crown fire but it could smolder continuously pouring smoke and ash into the environment and burning anyone who ventures that way.
I reiterate that ***I do not believe*** that this is within the reach of the biological systems we understand and share our world with but maybe if it smoldered slowly enough without burning out it could work. | **Fire loops around the globe**
Your planet has its landmass as a band around the equator.
(or, alternatively, there's [almost] no open water, poles are covered in snow, leaving only the equatorial zone available to the biomass)
Somehow, there are no large rivers.
(plants still need to get moisture, and there's evaporation, which means there ought to be rain- or snowfall, which usually means runoff, but fires tend not cross large bodies of water... figure this out).
The equatorial zone is dry-ish, and e.g. typically covered by grasses.
The fire started (magically in only one direction), spread the entire width of the equatorial zone, and continues to burn, e.g. westwards.
By the time the fire has reached it's origin, that part has already sprouted new mature (and dry) grass, with seeds either preserved deep in the soil, or spread by wind, or spread by birds or even migratory animals.
Thus the fire continues to burn in a circle around your planet.
The long-lived plants died out, what remains are grasses and maybe shrubs.
The plants have therefore evolved to live in this cycle, and so have the insects and the animals.
P.S. some math
Fire boundary speed: 10% of wind speed (<https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s13595-019-0829-8>)
Typical wind speed: 10km/h
(<https://sciencing.com/wind-speeds-tropical-rainforest-23367.html>)
Thus, for a planet the size of the earth, the fire circumnavigates in ~4½ years, leaving enough time for plants to germinate, go through several life cycles and accumulate large amount of stale, dry biomass. |
312,213 | I have a Macbook Pro with the four USB-C / thunderbolt ports, running High Sierra. I have a USB-C to DVI cable. I have tried an old 1680x1050 monitor connected it which works fine. However another 2560x1440 monitor does not; it just doesn't display anything when connected, the same as having no signal. That monitor works fine when connected to a PC at full resolution with a DVI to DVI cable.
I'm pretty sure this is because the resolution is too high for the cable. When I change it to mirror the displays in the System Preferences > Displays > Arrangement settings, I can control the resolution of the external monitor from the main laptop screen and set it to 1920x1080 and it works fine. However, as soon as I set it back to not be mirrored, the setting for the external monitor goes back to being displayed on that monitor at the max resolution where I can't see it.
Maybe I should have got a better cable, but being able to change the resolution for the time being seems like it should be really simple, but I don't seem to be able to do it.
Thanks | 2018/01/13 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/312213",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/272095/"
] | Try clicking on 'Gather Windows' button in the bottom right corner. It will bring the resolution choices onto the built-in screen. Then you can choose one that suits. If you hold down option while clicking the 'scaled' button, it will bring up all available resolutions.
I have a third party screen, but Mac picked it up as an Apple screen with unusual resolutions and all I could see were grey streaks. Once I gathered the windows and changed to a suitable resolution it worked fine. | In System/Preferences/Monitor, under the Monitor tab, there's a button for gathering all Monitor windows (there's one displayed for each connected monitor) on the current monitor; then you can choose the other monitor's resolution ("resized", eventually) using the current monitor. If the needed resolution is not available, try googling for SwitchResX, SetResX (both shareware) or scrutil (command line tool) or ChangeResolution (script). Hope this helps. |
110,019 | So I recently got a Galaxy S4 and switched from Apple to Android. I like to download music videos to watch offline but when I moved the videos onto my phone, I found out that the music videos are stored in the same location as where the camera roll saves videos. On Apple you there was a built in app that could store videos while videos recorded by the camera could be stored on the camera roll. Is there a way to do this on Android? I used my micro SD card to move the videos to my phone by creating a new folder on the SD card named VIDEOS. | 2015/05/22 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/110019",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/109637/"
] | I guess, you just need to sort the view in your default gallery app. Try sorting videos album vise and your problem will be over. | Try Redirect Pro,
It's a file organizer with some really cool features.
[Link to Google Play](https://play.google.com/store/apps/detailshttps://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.tobino.redirectsfree) |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The problem I have faced with your question is the only teaching of the Buddha of which I am totally convinced is genuine is the [flower sermon](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flower_Sermon).
There was nothing said. Obviously Shakyamuni Buddha gave sermons, but what was in those sermons will be debated by theologians.
To me what has been said that we can verify with our practice is the basis of human suffering and the way out of it. The principles we can verify with our practice.
If we did find something he reportedly said that was wrong or false, how would we know he really said it? This is the downfall of trying to do a meticulous study of an oral tradition over 2000 years old. It does not invalidate Buddhism's usefulness but does preclude in my opinion any proving of points of details about what the Buddha said. | I think Buddha himself has answered this question in Maha-sihanada Sutta,
>
> 23. Here, I see no ground on which any recluse or brahman or god or Mara
> or Brahma or anyone at all in the world could, in accordance with the
> Dhamma, accuse me thus: 'While you claim full enlightenment, you are
> not fully enlightened in regard to certain things.' [72] And seeing no
> ground for that, I abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 24. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'While you claim to have destroyed the taints, these
> taints are undestroyed by you.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide
> in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 25. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'Those things called obstructions by you are not able
> to obstruct one who engages in them.' And seeing no ground for that, I
> abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 26. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'When you teach the Dhamma to someone, it does not
> lead him when he practices it to the complete destruction of
> suffering.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide in safety,
> fearlessness and intrepidity
>
>
> [MN 12](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.012.ntbb.html#fn-9)
>
>
>
While this statement points to the omniscience of Buddha, it also shows his confidence that no thing in this world is able to challenge him and his teachings. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The problem I have faced with your question is the only teaching of the Buddha of which I am totally convinced is genuine is the [flower sermon](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flower_Sermon).
There was nothing said. Obviously Shakyamuni Buddha gave sermons, but what was in those sermons will be debated by theologians.
To me what has been said that we can verify with our practice is the basis of human suffering and the way out of it. The principles we can verify with our practice.
If we did find something he reportedly said that was wrong or false, how would we know he really said it? This is the downfall of trying to do a meticulous study of an oral tradition over 2000 years old. It does not invalidate Buddhism's usefulness but does preclude in my opinion any proving of points of details about what the Buddha said. | Yes, there are such things. For instance, the Buddha taught that the universe consists of four basic elements (mahābhūta): earth, water, fire and air. Now we know with reasonable certainity that they are not basic elements in any sense: fire is a chemical process, water is a chemical compound, air is a mix of gases and earth contains several chemical substances. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The Note at the bottom of [this Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/ud/ud.1.05.than.html) says,
>
> This translation follows the Thai and Burmese versions of this passage. The Sri Lankan version replaces Ven. Nanda in this list with Ven. Ānanda; the PTS version replaces him with Ven. Devadatta and Ven. Ānanda. These latter two readings would appear to be mistaken, as the Buddha in this sutta defines "brahman" as one whose fetters are ended — i.e., an arahant — whereas Ven. Ānanda became an arahant only after the Buddha's passing; Devadatta, after having caused a split in the Saṅgha toward the end of the Buddha's life, fell into hell.
>
>
>
So according to one version (i.e. the Pali), he praised Devadatta, and may therefore have been "proven wrong" by Devadatta's subsequent misbehaviours.
---
This is a famous dilemma, given that [Devadatta](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Devadatta) has a reputation as an evil-doer (who tried to kill the Buddha, and cause a schism within the order): "Perhaps the Buddha shouldn't have admitted Devadatta to the Sangha."
[The Questions of King Milinda](http://sacred-texts.com/bud/sbe35/sbe3512.htm) include the following question and answer,
>
> 'What then, Nâgasena! Was the Buddha aware that Devadatta after being
> admitted to the Order would raise up a schism, and having done so
> would suffer torment in purgatory for a Kalpa?'
>
>
> 'Yes, the Tathâgata, knew that.'
>
>
> 'But, Nâgasena, if that be so, then the statement that the Buddha was
> kind and pitiful, that he sought after the good of others, that he was
> the remover of that which works harm, the provider of that which works
> well to all beings--that statement must be wrong. If it be not so--if
> he knew not that Devadatta after he had been admitted to the Order
> would stir up a schism--then he cannot have been omniscient. This
> other double-pointed dilemma is put to you. Unravel this tough skein,
> break up the argument of the adversaries. In future times it will be
> hard to find Bhikkhus like to you in wisdom. Herein then show your
> skill!'
>
>
> 'The Blessed One, O king, was both full of mercy and had all
> knowledge. It was when the Blessed One in his mercy and wisdom
> considered the life history of Devadatta that he perceived how, having
> heaped up Karma on Karma, he would pass for an endless series of
> Kalpas from torment to torment, and from perdition to perdition. And
> the Blessed One knew also that the infinite Karma of that man would,
> because he had entered the Order, become finite, and the sorrow caused
> by the previous Karma would also therefore become limited. [109] But
> that if that foolish person were not to enter the Order then he would
> continue to heap up Karma which would endure for a Kalpa. And it was
> because he knew that that, in his mercy, he admitted him to the
> Order.'
>
>
> [etc.]
>
>
>
Devadatta is also mentioned as follows in the Mahayana [Lotus Sutra](http://www.sacred-texts.com/bud/lotus/lot11.htm),
>
> I announce to you, monks, I declare to you: This Devadatta, the monk, shall in an age to come, after immense, innumerable Æons, become a Tathâgata named Devarâga (i. e. King of the gods), an Arhat, &c., in the world Devasopâna (i. e. Stairs of the gods).
>
>
> | Yes, there are such things. For instance, the Buddha taught that the universe consists of four basic elements (mahābhūta): earth, water, fire and air. Now we know with reasonable certainity that they are not basic elements in any sense: fire is a chemical process, water is a chemical compound, air is a mix of gases and earth contains several chemical substances. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The Buddha's Dhamma is Universal Law of Nature, open for scientific examination, timeless, when practiced lets you to understand the ultimate realities and is something that can be realised at the experiential level.
There can be issues with the different interpretations after 2500+ years and some may be miss specified in transmission, and some sayings may be even later compositions incorrectly attributed to the Buddha.
But having said this there cannot be anything which the Buddha said which can be wrong since what he taught is (according to him) what he experienced directly which can also be experienced by any body by practicing the well laid out path.
Ultimately what you should believe is what you experience for your self within the framework of the body. This is what you should take as the teaching of the Buddha, as he has emphasised.
The 6 qualities of the Dhamma in detail:
>
> Svākkhāto (Sanskrit: Svākhyāta "well proclaimed" or "self-announced"). The Buddha's teaching is not a speculative philosophy but an exposition of the Universal Law of Nature based on a causal analysis of natural phenomena. It is taught, therefore, as a science[11] rather than a sectarian belief system. Full comprehension (enlightenment) of the teaching may take varying lengths of time but Buddhists traditionally say that the course of study is 'excellent in the beginning (sīla – Sanskrit śīla – moral principles), excellent in the middle (samādhi – concentration) and excellent in the end' (paññā - Sanskrit prajñā . . . Wisdom).
>
>
> Sandiṭṭhiko (Sanskrit: Sāṃdṛṣṭika "able to be examined"). The Dharma is open to scientific and other types of scrutiny and is not based on faith.[12] It can be tested by personal practice and one who follows it will see the result for oneself by means of one's own experience. Sandiṭṭhiko comes from the word sandiṭṭhika which means visible in this world and is derived from the word sandiṭṭhi-. Since Dhamma is visible, it can be "seen": known and be experienced within one's life.
>
>
> Akāliko (Sanskrit: Akālika "timeless, immediate"). The Dhamma is able to bestow timeless and immediate results here and now. There is no need to wait for the future or a next existence. The dhamma does not change over time and it is not relative to time.
> Ehipassiko (Sanskrit: Ehipaśyika "which you can come and see" — from the phrase ehi, paśya "come, see!"). The Dhamma invites all beings to put it to the test and come see for themselves.
>
>
> Opanayiko (Sanskrit: Avapraṇayika "leading one close to"). Followed as a part of one's life the dhamma leads one to liberation. In the "Vishuddhimagga" this is also referred to as "Upanayanam." Opanayiko means "to be brought inside oneself". This can be understood with an analogy as follows. If one says a ripe mango tastes delicious, and if several people listen and come to believe it, they would imagine the taste of the mango according to their previous experiences of other delicious mangoes. Yet, they will still not really know exactly how this mango tastes. Also, if there is a person who has never tasted a ripe mango before, that person has no way of knowing exactly for himself how it tastes. So, the only way to know the exact taste is to experience it. In the same way, dhamma is said to be Opanayiko which means that a person needs to experience it within to see exactly what it is.
>
>
> Paccattaṃ veditabbo viññūhi (Sanskrit: Pratyātmaṃ veditavyo vijñaiḥ "To be meant to perceive directly"). The Dhamma can be perfectly realized only by the noble disciples (Buddha) who have matured in supreme wisdom. No one can "enlighten" another person. Each intelligent person has to attain and experience for themselves. As an analogy, no one can simply make another know how to swim. Each person individually has to learn how to swim. In the same way, dhamma cannot be transferred or bestowed upon someone. Each one has to know for themselves.
>
>
>
*Sourced: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dharma_(Buddhism)>* | Yes, there are such things. For instance, the Buddha taught that the universe consists of four basic elements (mahābhūta): earth, water, fire and air. Now we know with reasonable certainity that they are not basic elements in any sense: fire is a chemical process, water is a chemical compound, air is a mix of gases and earth contains several chemical substances. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The Buddha's Dhamma is Universal Law of Nature, open for scientific examination, timeless, when practiced lets you to understand the ultimate realities and is something that can be realised at the experiential level.
There can be issues with the different interpretations after 2500+ years and some may be miss specified in transmission, and some sayings may be even later compositions incorrectly attributed to the Buddha.
But having said this there cannot be anything which the Buddha said which can be wrong since what he taught is (according to him) what he experienced directly which can also be experienced by any body by practicing the well laid out path.
Ultimately what you should believe is what you experience for your self within the framework of the body. This is what you should take as the teaching of the Buddha, as he has emphasised.
The 6 qualities of the Dhamma in detail:
>
> Svākkhāto (Sanskrit: Svākhyāta "well proclaimed" or "self-announced"). The Buddha's teaching is not a speculative philosophy but an exposition of the Universal Law of Nature based on a causal analysis of natural phenomena. It is taught, therefore, as a science[11] rather than a sectarian belief system. Full comprehension (enlightenment) of the teaching may take varying lengths of time but Buddhists traditionally say that the course of study is 'excellent in the beginning (sīla – Sanskrit śīla – moral principles), excellent in the middle (samādhi – concentration) and excellent in the end' (paññā - Sanskrit prajñā . . . Wisdom).
>
>
> Sandiṭṭhiko (Sanskrit: Sāṃdṛṣṭika "able to be examined"). The Dharma is open to scientific and other types of scrutiny and is not based on faith.[12] It can be tested by personal practice and one who follows it will see the result for oneself by means of one's own experience. Sandiṭṭhiko comes from the word sandiṭṭhika which means visible in this world and is derived from the word sandiṭṭhi-. Since Dhamma is visible, it can be "seen": known and be experienced within one's life.
>
>
> Akāliko (Sanskrit: Akālika "timeless, immediate"). The Dhamma is able to bestow timeless and immediate results here and now. There is no need to wait for the future or a next existence. The dhamma does not change over time and it is not relative to time.
> Ehipassiko (Sanskrit: Ehipaśyika "which you can come and see" — from the phrase ehi, paśya "come, see!"). The Dhamma invites all beings to put it to the test and come see for themselves.
>
>
> Opanayiko (Sanskrit: Avapraṇayika "leading one close to"). Followed as a part of one's life the dhamma leads one to liberation. In the "Vishuddhimagga" this is also referred to as "Upanayanam." Opanayiko means "to be brought inside oneself". This can be understood with an analogy as follows. If one says a ripe mango tastes delicious, and if several people listen and come to believe it, they would imagine the taste of the mango according to their previous experiences of other delicious mangoes. Yet, they will still not really know exactly how this mango tastes. Also, if there is a person who has never tasted a ripe mango before, that person has no way of knowing exactly for himself how it tastes. So, the only way to know the exact taste is to experience it. In the same way, dhamma is said to be Opanayiko which means that a person needs to experience it within to see exactly what it is.
>
>
> Paccattaṃ veditabbo viññūhi (Sanskrit: Pratyātmaṃ veditavyo vijñaiḥ "To be meant to perceive directly"). The Dhamma can be perfectly realized only by the noble disciples (Buddha) who have matured in supreme wisdom. No one can "enlighten" another person. Each intelligent person has to attain and experience for themselves. As an analogy, no one can simply make another know how to swim. Each person individually has to learn how to swim. In the same way, dhamma cannot be transferred or bestowed upon someone. Each one has to know for themselves.
>
>
>
*Sourced: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dharma_(Buddhism)>* | I think Buddha himself has answered this question in Maha-sihanada Sutta,
>
> 23. Here, I see no ground on which any recluse or brahman or god or Mara
> or Brahma or anyone at all in the world could, in accordance with the
> Dhamma, accuse me thus: 'While you claim full enlightenment, you are
> not fully enlightened in regard to certain things.' [72] And seeing no
> ground for that, I abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 24. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'While you claim to have destroyed the taints, these
> taints are undestroyed by you.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide
> in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 25. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'Those things called obstructions by you are not able
> to obstruct one who engages in them.' And seeing no ground for that, I
> abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 26. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'When you teach the Dhamma to someone, it does not
> lead him when he practices it to the complete destruction of
> suffering.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide in safety,
> fearlessness and intrepidity
>
>
> [MN 12](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.012.ntbb.html#fn-9)
>
>
>
While this statement points to the omniscience of Buddha, it also shows his confidence that no thing in this world is able to challenge him and his teachings. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The Note at the bottom of [this Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/ud/ud.1.05.than.html) says,
>
> This translation follows the Thai and Burmese versions of this passage. The Sri Lankan version replaces Ven. Nanda in this list with Ven. Ānanda; the PTS version replaces him with Ven. Devadatta and Ven. Ānanda. These latter two readings would appear to be mistaken, as the Buddha in this sutta defines "brahman" as one whose fetters are ended — i.e., an arahant — whereas Ven. Ānanda became an arahant only after the Buddha's passing; Devadatta, after having caused a split in the Saṅgha toward the end of the Buddha's life, fell into hell.
>
>
>
So according to one version (i.e. the Pali), he praised Devadatta, and may therefore have been "proven wrong" by Devadatta's subsequent misbehaviours.
---
This is a famous dilemma, given that [Devadatta](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Devadatta) has a reputation as an evil-doer (who tried to kill the Buddha, and cause a schism within the order): "Perhaps the Buddha shouldn't have admitted Devadatta to the Sangha."
[The Questions of King Milinda](http://sacred-texts.com/bud/sbe35/sbe3512.htm) include the following question and answer,
>
> 'What then, Nâgasena! Was the Buddha aware that Devadatta after being
> admitted to the Order would raise up a schism, and having done so
> would suffer torment in purgatory for a Kalpa?'
>
>
> 'Yes, the Tathâgata, knew that.'
>
>
> 'But, Nâgasena, if that be so, then the statement that the Buddha was
> kind and pitiful, that he sought after the good of others, that he was
> the remover of that which works harm, the provider of that which works
> well to all beings--that statement must be wrong. If it be not so--if
> he knew not that Devadatta after he had been admitted to the Order
> would stir up a schism--then he cannot have been omniscient. This
> other double-pointed dilemma is put to you. Unravel this tough skein,
> break up the argument of the adversaries. In future times it will be
> hard to find Bhikkhus like to you in wisdom. Herein then show your
> skill!'
>
>
> 'The Blessed One, O king, was both full of mercy and had all
> knowledge. It was when the Blessed One in his mercy and wisdom
> considered the life history of Devadatta that he perceived how, having
> heaped up Karma on Karma, he would pass for an endless series of
> Kalpas from torment to torment, and from perdition to perdition. And
> the Blessed One knew also that the infinite Karma of that man would,
> because he had entered the Order, become finite, and the sorrow caused
> by the previous Karma would also therefore become limited. [109] But
> that if that foolish person were not to enter the Order then he would
> continue to heap up Karma which would endure for a Kalpa. And it was
> because he knew that that, in his mercy, he admitted him to the
> Order.'
>
>
> [etc.]
>
>
>
Devadatta is also mentioned as follows in the Mahayana [Lotus Sutra](http://www.sacred-texts.com/bud/lotus/lot11.htm),
>
> I announce to you, monks, I declare to you: This Devadatta, the monk, shall in an age to come, after immense, innumerable Æons, become a Tathâgata named Devarâga (i. e. King of the gods), an Arhat, &c., in the world Devasopâna (i. e. Stairs of the gods).
>
>
> | I think Buddha himself has answered this question in Maha-sihanada Sutta,
>
> 23. Here, I see no ground on which any recluse or brahman or god or Mara
> or Brahma or anyone at all in the world could, in accordance with the
> Dhamma, accuse me thus: 'While you claim full enlightenment, you are
> not fully enlightened in regard to certain things.' [72] And seeing no
> ground for that, I abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 24. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'While you claim to have destroyed the taints, these
> taints are undestroyed by you.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide
> in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 25. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'Those things called obstructions by you are not able
> to obstruct one who engages in them.' And seeing no ground for that, I
> abide in safety, fearlessness and intrepidity.
> 26. "I see no ground on which any recluse... or anyone at all could accuse me thus: 'When you teach the Dhamma to someone, it does not
> lead him when he practices it to the complete destruction of
> suffering.' And seeing no ground for that, I abide in safety,
> fearlessness and intrepidity
>
>
> [MN 12](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.012.ntbb.html#fn-9)
>
>
>
While this statement points to the omniscience of Buddha, it also shows his confidence that no thing in this world is able to challenge him and his teachings. |
3,665 | Is there any teaching of the Buddha one can say has been proven wrong, any statement about the universe, the world, the future or the past maybe? | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/3665",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/533/"
] | The problem I have faced with your question is the only teaching of the Buddha of which I am totally convinced is genuine is the [flower sermon](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flower_Sermon).
There was nothing said. Obviously Shakyamuni Buddha gave sermons, but what was in those sermons will be debated by theologians.
To me what has been said that we can verify with our practice is the basis of human suffering and the way out of it. The principles we can verify with our practice.
If we did find something he reportedly said that was wrong or false, how would we know he really said it? This is the downfall of trying to do a meticulous study of an oral tradition over 2000 years old. It does not invalidate Buddhism's usefulness but does preclude in my opinion any proving of points of details about what the Buddha said. | I would probably say that Goatama's medicine was infallible, but certainly would say that he was not omniscient in the Western sense.
I have read a zen master say he wasn't, too (IIRC!).
But, perhaps he stayed silent (like Wittgenstein suggested) about what he didn't know, and he knew what he didn't knew.
IMVHO a better potentially more fruitful way of thinking about it would be to ask: did Goatama know everything there was to know about his Buddha field? And then, what was his Buddha field, did it include everything that happened or only the way sentient beings were suffering. |
42,732 | I am a non-academic who has collaborated (privately, no employer support) with some academic researchers and been invited to present our work at a conference. The conference admission price and travel costs are steep.
Is there any provision for my collaborator's university to pay for *my* travel costs as well? (I know they're paying for theirs.) I'll add that our work has brought some follow up grants to the university, so they financially benefit from it - but that funding doesn't include my involvement.
I'll also add that I don't want to sabotage any relationships here, and if it would be considered inappropriate or heavy handed or be resented, I'd rather just cough up the dough myself. But, if there's a means to do it nicely, it would make things easier.
---
**UPDATES**
1. It's a real conference, prestigious in the field; we submitted to present and were accepted (it seems from the responses that that is not called *invited*; point noted)
2. I don't want to burn any capital, as you say. I'm happy asking and them saying no, but if it will cause them grief, I'd rather not even ask. So perhaps my question could be rephrased as: **Is there any chance that asking gently will get the funding? And, if so, will it cause any grief?**
That is, I'll ask if and only if there's a chance they'll do it, and it won't cause any pain. | 2015/04/01 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/42732",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/8075/"
] | >
> Is there any provision for my collaborator's university to pay for my travel costs as well?
>
>
>
While not strictly impossible, this sounds rather unlikely to happen, at least through formal channels. Travel budget is restricted, and there are often even administrative restrictions that prevent faculty to give it to people who are neither employees nor students of the university.
That being said, if your collaborator is sufficiently commited to making you go, as well as sufficiently crafty to bend the rules in the right way, (s)he may cook up an arrangement with the administration of some sort. Note that this will likely be (at best) semi-officially, and will burn some real or political capital of the faculty, so (s)he won't just do it to be nice. There has to be some real benefit to them that you are at this conference. | >
> Is there any provision for my collaborator's university to pay for my travel costs as well?
>
>
>
Probably it depends on many things such as place, country, etc.
However, it it feasible: I am currently general chair of a conference and a few people from wealthy universities are paying for their coauthors from others (or with no) institutions. |
48,690 | Let's say I have a simple "vault" application where users can enter data and a passphrase, and it will be encrypted, requiring them to re-enter the passphrase to decrypt it.
This would be implemented as follows:
* generate salt for key generation
* generate key from (salt, passphrase) with argon2, scrypt, or whatever else libsodium is using
* generate nonce or iv
* encrypt and sign (plaintext, key, nonce or iv) with chacha / aes-gcm / whatever else libsodium is using
* store (ciphertext with signature, salt, iv or nonce) as I need all 3 to decrypt from the passphrase
My question: is there an advantage or disadvantage to re-using the salt everytime for the same user? Most crypto examples re-use keys, which is fine as long as the IV or nonce is different. However if I generate and store the salt everytime I'm effectively using a different key everytime. Is this good / bad / unimportant? | 2017/06/28 | [
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/48690",
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com",
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com/users/49256/"
] | The purpose of a salt started with password storage. Within the very common use-case of using a hash function to store usernames and passwords, unsalted password hashes reveal which users have the same password. This reveals a lot of information about the underlying passwords and would make password hash "cracking" much more efficient.
In your use-case you are not dealing with hashed passwords but password-derived keys, however, the use-case for salts is similar. Would it be an acceptable design for your vault to reveal that all ciphertexts are encrypted using the same derived key? If, for example, your vault allowed users to specify per-file passwords for key derivation a static salt may reveal that multiple files used the same password to derive their encryption key. | The security of your model is really dependent upon the security of your hash function. One of the primary reasons for using salt's is for defense against rainbow tables, but in this case you are secure from rainbow tables as your hash is not exposed.
You have however, made the attackers job significantly easier if you make all the passwords have the same salt. Lets say that the table has N entries,and as an attacker, I want to try to get as many user's vault data as possible. At this point I am running a dictionary attack. In your model, where every password has the same salt, I only have to hash any given password once, and then attempt to symmetrically decrypt each file. When each user has a unique salt, you have to perform N hashes. Password hashes are designed to be slow and memory intensive hashes. Thus this is a big deal, and is alot of extra workload on an attacker who is trying to break as many users as possible. Therefore using the same salt does have security concerns, as you lose that factor of N extra work which was placed upon the attacker. |
59,767 | I would like to know, how big is difference between ARM debian for Raspbery PI and x32/x64 debian for desktop.
I would like to buy in future some ARM mini pc like raspbery PI and use it as for example cheap IPv6 router, machine to connect remotely from the internet and to control whatever I will need. It will be something better than only router, it will be small server with low TDP.
Is there any problem with packaging system? Is there enough packages for ordinary use?
What about RAM consumption? | 2012/12/29 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/59767",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/29351/"
] | There isn't much difference. The packaging system is exactly the same, and all packages are built automatically on all architectures from the same source. (The source can contain different compilation settings, of course.) Packages are only accepted in Debian testing or Debian stable if they are available for all [supported architectures](http://www.debian.org/ports/#portlist-released) (which has included ARM since potato in 2000). There are a few exceptions, by explicit dispensation — mostly “exotic” compilers and closed-source non-free programs.
There are two ARM architectures in Debian: [armel](http://www.debian.org/ports/arm/) (following the current ARM binary interface, [EABI](http://infocenter.arm.com/help/index.jsp?topic=/com.arm.doc.ihi0036b/index.html)), and [armhf](http://wiki.debian.org/ArmHardFloatPort) (for processors with hardware floating point), which is expected to be officially released with the upcoming wheezy release. Binaries in armhf are faster for applications that use floating point, e.g. video encoding and decoding.
Debian's armhf does not work on a Raspberry Pi, because although the Pi has hardware floating point, it only supports an older version of the instruction set, but you can use the specialized distribution [Raspbian](http://www.raspbian.org/), which recompiles Debian packages optimized for the Pi's processor.
For the kind of network appliance you describe (router, firewall, file server, ...), the processor architecture doesn't matter. An ARM or MIPS device will do fine.
There isn't much of a difference in RAM consumption between ARM and x86. ARM code is a more compact, but for a network appliance most of the RAM usage will be for the data that you're serving, the network packets you're relaying, etc. | If you would have asked this question say two years ago then yes ARM support was not enough and was quiet buggy.
Today not only Debian [many other linux distros](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ARM_architecture#Linux) now also support ARM architecture. No. of packages is good and growing.
Also ARM is not directly compatible with x86(it is not X32) or amd64(it is not X64) so you cannot directly run an x86 based program on ARM based machines. You have to use some kind of emulation/sandboxing which will be quiet slow. |
1,403,193 | I have a router that does not have an IPv4 address as seen in the photo
[Network output from my computer.](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ps7yz.png)
Is there a way to connect to it and fix that? I tried connecting using the IPv6 name <http://[fe80::ee08:6bff:fedd:63d]> but id did not work.
It has openWRT on it if that helps.
Thank you. | 2019/02/07 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1403193",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/995408/"
] | It may help to simply remove the tip from the pen, tap the empty pen to the table a couple of times, brush dust off the tip and reinsert the tip. There was a tip remover included with my tablet, along with a selection of tips that could also be tried if a certain tip just won't work. This solved my problem. | I had this issue after dropping the pen for my veikk tablet. I opened it up with a pair of pliers and carefully removed the electronics. The stylus tip plugs into a little metallic cylinder that move back and forth in an inductive coil when you press on the tip, this is how it senses the force. I unscrewed the inductor from the electronics bit (had to desolder the inductor leads first). The metallic cylinder is very brittle and crystalline, and mine was broken in half. It was a clean break, so I glued it back together with a drop of super glue. I used 220 grit sandpaper to clean up the tiny bit of super glue overflow so that the metal bit could still slide easily back and forth in the inductor (and resoldered the inductor leads) You can screw and unscrew the inductive part in order to tune the sensitivity, so I screw that in and out and practiced drawing on my tablet until it seemed about what it was before. I reassembled the pen halfway (just putting the electronics into the front part of the pen) and found that it was a little off once assembled, so I opened it back up, tweaked how far in the inductor was screwed in (did this a few times) and once I was satisfied I put the back end onto the pen, and it's been working since. I guess be very careful with these pens, I didn't realized there was a little metallic crystalline piece in there. |
6,313,864 | OK, so [HMVC in Codeigniter](https://bitbucket.org/wiredesignz/codeigniter-modular-extensions-hmvc/wiki/Home) is the way to go for [scalable web applications (with Kohana 3)](http://techportal.inviqa.com/2010/02/22/scaling-web-applications-with-hmvc/) based off many stackoverflow discussions such as [HMVC patterns](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2263416/what-is-the-hmvc-pattern/5736164#5736164) and [MVC vs HMVC](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5454337/mvc-vs-hmvc-for-web-application-development).
But, how will using an HMVC approach affect performance when used in Codeigniter? From my understanding, HMVC will "simulate a controller". Assuming a one day "large" scale project, will Codeigniter's implementation by a future problem? | 2011/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6313864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/534003/"
] | There are two main different features that HMVC adds to CodeIgniter which often confuses people:
1. Modular MVC
2. Hierarchal MVC
Modular MVC is the feature that most people want to use and is essentially just a way to have a cleaner folder structure.
HMVC is the practise of calling controllers from other controllers without the need for a new HTTP request. This is very rarely useful in my opinion, other than for things like calling a custom 404 page or "widgets".
MMVC adds barely anything to performance, calling a controller via HMVC is obviously almost twice as slow.
Either way neither will be noticeable. If your site is starting to crawl under high traffic then this is one of the last things you'll need to worry about. | With HMVC you do not have to code your modules anymore as implemented in codeigniter. If a client needs a feature that you've already done in your previous project, you just copy it and drop inside your current project.
As implemented in codeigniter, you can do your coding as you use to do and only implement the features that you think require HMVC.
As for performance it depends on how you design your application in general. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | I find the [PERT](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Program_evaluation_and_review_technique) estimation useful for software development tasks. Summarising:
a = time if you fly through it, no delays, no problems
b = time you think it will realistically take given known delays and known problems
c = worst possible scenario, everything gets delayed, your other bosses give you extra work, and you find a flaw in your implementation at 80% through your plan
Estimated time = (a + 4b + c) / 6
Variability = (c - a) / 6
Say you think a task would take a day in ideal conditions, and normally you'd get there in the next 2 days because of meetings, but there are a few stages that could cause problems and then it would be 9 days. Then your estimate is (1 + 4x2 + 9) / 6 = 3 days, variability is 1.3 days, so you would say "I expect to get it done in 3 days, but it could easily take 4.5 days."
This way, they have an idea of when to expect it (for delivery to customers, you want to estimate the time to delivery in calendar days, including the effects of meetings, holidays and so on), and an idea of what a conservative estimate might look like. If there is a big variable, like 'it might break component X, so then I'd have to modify and rebuild that component, which would be an extra week', then flag that up in the response - 'I expect it to be done in 3 days, but it tests the limits of component X, so there could be an additional week there'.
This is one of the hardest bits of working in small businesses with multiple competing demands on your time. So grasp it with both hands and don't shy away from giving estimates. The sooner you get a handle on it, the better things will be. If quizzed in person, don't be afraid to say "I can't give you an estimate that would be any use off-hand, let me send you something by the end of the day".
Good luck. | I haven't seen this answer...
Talk to your immediate manager/boss and ask them what the priorities are - how many hours per week should you spend on each of these items as well as other items (research, education, team meetings, etc.) A few years ago I became overcommitted, and worked with my boss on how many hours per week to spend on each type of item. That worked great. If a task type was allocated 10 hours, and I knew something would take 40, then it would be about 4-5 weeks. I would also caveat any deliverable date with any prerequisites such as needing information from other people.
As an aside: Consider taking one short class (credit or no-credit, an EDx class maybe) in project management to be able to manage your projects and to "manage up" to the project manager. A little bit of research and understanding will give you many of the tools mentioned by the other answers. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | >
> I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency
> she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the
> project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable
> for not giving her time estimates.
>
>
> So... How should I handle this?
>
>
>
Give your best estimate. Avoiding one isn't helping you, and certainly isn't helping this project manager. Project managers need estimates in order to help track the overall project. And not giving one means they have to take their own (often less informed) guess and use that. Not giving one also makes you look bad.
Many find that breaking down the task into smaller chunks helps in creating an estimate. Often, smaller chunks are easier to visualize and estimate. And usually, you can ask for a little bit of time to do this analysis, rather than providing your estimate immediately.
Make sure you convey that your estimate likely can't be very accurate yet, and explain the reasons why. Then, promise to give a revised estimate once the project tasks become clearer. And give her a time frame for when you will provide your next estimate.
Track your estimates and actuals, so that you will get better over time.
And as your project progresses, re-estimate the remainder even if not required to do so. If you feel that your original estimate isn't likely to hold, then make sure to provide feedback to the project manager as soon as you know. Project managers (all managers) don't like surprises.
Then stop the dread, stress and uncomfortable feelings. These are emotions that you bring on yourself. Knowing that you are doing your best, and that it is being recognized by those about you should free you from these feelings. | Some good things others have covered: take some time to break down the task into smaller chunks that you're more familiar with; give the best estimate you can; update as soon as you know more. I'll add something I haven't seen yet: **give a confidence interval**.
Think of it from the other end. As a PM, I have to ask people for estimates all the time. My org is growing and we're not collectively used to formal project management - so people often refuse, which drives me nuts, because I have **nothing to work with** and no idea when something will be done, so I can't make status reports or tell if we're on schedule or need to reprioritize, etc. So, it's understandable that your third PM's eyes are bugging out when you don't answer, even if they're not handling it that well by making up numbers and putting more pressure on you instead of helping you through the process.
And I get it, you won't *really* know until it's done. But if you think about it, you probably know at least a little bit more than the PM - five minutes, five days, five months? Here's what I do when I'm the technician and I have to give an estimate: **give two instead**.
>
> "There's probably a 50-50 chance that it's easy and things will go smoothly, in which case it'll only take about 5 hours, which with my current workload means I should have it for you in a week. Even if it goes wrong in a few ways I can think of, I'm 90% sure it should take less than four weeks."
>
>
>
Do check in again once you know which of those is more likely, especially if something unforeseen has blown up and you think it might be longer than the second estimate.
Also, if the estimates the other two PMs have been giving you (presumably based on past experience with others in your role) have been reasonable, consider **asking those other project managers for help** with the third. They may have some insight to offer - either on the general skill of estimation, or on the specifics of what sorts of tasks your new role is typically responsible for and how long those usually take. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | Don't give a point estimate, give a range. Point estimates are usually seen as the default, but in most cases, range estimates would do a much better job. Your case is one where the range estimate is the better choice.
For a task you are very comfortable with, you can start giving narrow ranges. "I will finish the monthly report in two hours, plus/minus 15 minutes". When you are faced with a task which you don't know what will entail, the truth may well be "between two hours and two days". Simply stating that will sound insolent, so give it with an explanation. "I saw a monthly report produced in another project. I'll have to look into it. If the numbers are available somewhere, two hours should be sufficient to write up the report. If I have to find a way for calculating them, and chase down sources, it can easily stretch to two days or more".
Now, the manager can let her inner Kirk hang out and scream at you that two days is unacceptable. To which you can answer that 1) it is still possible that it is done in 2 hours, you just can't estimate the probability, 2) you cannot create true numbers out of thin air, 3) after you have gone through the process once, you can prepare better for next time (gathering numbers during the month, reusing an Excel macro to calculate them from raw data) so next month the report will take much shorter, and 4) ask her, if two days are not acceptable, what should you do if it turns out that the numbers will not be available on time? For example, provide only one section of the report (which one), or get permission to pull a second person from his usual tasks to also work on the numbers?
It is especially important to get the fourth one right. You have to display understanding for her concerns and be genuinely open to alternatives, while gently reminding her that "get it done in the time I alot" is not an option. If you come across as sarcastic or condescending, you will hurt your chances for reaching a constructive relationship with your manager.
She still won't be happy, but the best thing to do here is to take her concerns seriously (maybe you are missing an external deadline) and to engage her in your estimation process so she sees for yourself that you are not simply being difficult on purpose, or too dense. She may manage your time, but you have to manage her expectations. | If I know what I'm doing with every piece of technology involved and know the infrastructure, and a project manager asks me how long a given task will take, I sketch out a flow diagram, break that down into components, estimate each component, add it all together. That's my hours estimate. Then I take that number and multiply it by 2.5x. This allows for unexpected problems.
If there's any part of it that's unfamiliar... add 5x for unfamiliar infrastructure, 10x for unfamiliar programming language, 10x for unfamiliar RDBMS product. I usually nail it within 10% of this adjusted estimate. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | >
> I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency
> she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the
> project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable
> for not giving her time estimates.
>
>
> So... How should I handle this?
>
>
>
Give your best estimate. Avoiding one isn't helping you, and certainly isn't helping this project manager. Project managers need estimates in order to help track the overall project. And not giving one means they have to take their own (often less informed) guess and use that. Not giving one also makes you look bad.
Many find that breaking down the task into smaller chunks helps in creating an estimate. Often, smaller chunks are easier to visualize and estimate. And usually, you can ask for a little bit of time to do this analysis, rather than providing your estimate immediately.
Make sure you convey that your estimate likely can't be very accurate yet, and explain the reasons why. Then, promise to give a revised estimate once the project tasks become clearer. And give her a time frame for when you will provide your next estimate.
Track your estimates and actuals, so that you will get better over time.
And as your project progresses, re-estimate the remainder even if not required to do so. If you feel that your original estimate isn't likely to hold, then make sure to provide feedback to the project manager as soon as you know. Project managers (all managers) don't like surprises.
Then stop the dread, stress and uncomfortable feelings. These are emotions that you bring on yourself. Knowing that you are doing your best, and that it is being recognized by those about you should free you from these feelings. | Don't give a point estimate, give a range. Point estimates are usually seen as the default, but in most cases, range estimates would do a much better job. Your case is one where the range estimate is the better choice.
For a task you are very comfortable with, you can start giving narrow ranges. "I will finish the monthly report in two hours, plus/minus 15 minutes". When you are faced with a task which you don't know what will entail, the truth may well be "between two hours and two days". Simply stating that will sound insolent, so give it with an explanation. "I saw a monthly report produced in another project. I'll have to look into it. If the numbers are available somewhere, two hours should be sufficient to write up the report. If I have to find a way for calculating them, and chase down sources, it can easily stretch to two days or more".
Now, the manager can let her inner Kirk hang out and scream at you that two days is unacceptable. To which you can answer that 1) it is still possible that it is done in 2 hours, you just can't estimate the probability, 2) you cannot create true numbers out of thin air, 3) after you have gone through the process once, you can prepare better for next time (gathering numbers during the month, reusing an Excel macro to calculate them from raw data) so next month the report will take much shorter, and 4) ask her, if two days are not acceptable, what should you do if it turns out that the numbers will not be available on time? For example, provide only one section of the report (which one), or get permission to pull a second person from his usual tasks to also work on the numbers?
It is especially important to get the fourth one right. You have to display understanding for her concerns and be genuinely open to alternatives, while gently reminding her that "get it done in the time I alot" is not an option. If you come across as sarcastic or condescending, you will hurt your chances for reaching a constructive relationship with your manager.
She still won't be happy, but the best thing to do here is to take her concerns seriously (maybe you are missing an external deadline) and to engage her in your estimation process so she sees for yourself that you are not simply being difficult on purpose, or too dense. She may manage your time, but you have to manage her expectations. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | If I know what I'm doing with every piece of technology involved and know the infrastructure, and a project manager asks me how long a given task will take, I sketch out a flow diagram, break that down into components, estimate each component, add it all together. That's my hours estimate. Then I take that number and multiply it by 2.5x. This allows for unexpected problems.
If there's any part of it that's unfamiliar... add 5x for unfamiliar infrastructure, 10x for unfamiliar programming language, 10x for unfamiliar RDBMS product. I usually nail it within 10% of this adjusted estimate. | One more point that wasn't mentioned yet: Talk to coworkers who have done similar tasks (if they exist) and get a feel for what timing is usually necessary.
I was in this same boat when I started my job. I had to report to 3-6 project managers (depending on what projects I was working on) and they ALL wanted to know how long things would take.
I did my best to estimate, and yes - my estimates were quite off at first. Usually on the low end. (To the point where one of my project managers always multiplied my estimates out by X percentage before telling it to the client!) Eventually I started adding a generous buffer to every estimate that I said (even when the buffer seemed unneeded!) and my estimates slowly started getting better.
The biggest help, though, was talking with coworkers. If a project manager asked me how long something would take, and I *really* had no idea whatsoever, I'd ask for a drop of time to get back to him/her, and then I'd catch a coworker for a few minutes to get his/her sense of what's involved with task.
In cases where I couldn't do that, I would give my best estimate - and then *later* go talk to a coworker & get an idea of what *his* estimate would have been. Although it doesn't help in the moment, the goal is here to improve over time, not to get it right the first time.
Estimating is hard. Don't beat yourself up about it; just focus on trying not to repeat the same estimation mistakes twice. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | **Being "NEW" is not the problem here**.
Providing estimates, as a new or old employee, is a pain until you master the magic words to ease every PM's firing thoughts...
We recently started following scrum and obviously estimating our tasks. It's difficult to estimate tasks, especially when working on new technologies.
**Enough talking, give me the solution now?**
[Here](http://www.bradoncode.com/blog/2012/03/estimating-software-development.html) is a fantastic article which I believe fixes issues with estimates and will makes you less stressful, as it did for me.
Simply add risk to your estimates:
| Section | Line Item | Estimate | Risk |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| customer sign up functionality | design html & css | 12 | MEDIUM |
| | create new asp.net page | 4 | SMALL |
| | add javascript validation | 6 | SMALL |
| | post sign up details to 3rd party API | 16 | LARGE |
| **Total** | | 38 | **MEDIUM (76.25%)** |
| **Best** | | 29 | |
| **Worst** | | 50 | |
| **Avg** | | 40 | |
(example table taken from the above linked article)
**Based on my experience**
You can't ask a PM to slow down, but what you can do instead is give your best estimates with risk factor. This risk could be anything e.g. New technology, third party software, disorganized code of ex employee etc..
Not sure how desperate you are for this job, but don't spend a second working overtime for free. Ask yourself, would you pay you extra for no reason? | One more point that wasn't mentioned yet: Talk to coworkers who have done similar tasks (if they exist) and get a feel for what timing is usually necessary.
I was in this same boat when I started my job. I had to report to 3-6 project managers (depending on what projects I was working on) and they ALL wanted to know how long things would take.
I did my best to estimate, and yes - my estimates were quite off at first. Usually on the low end. (To the point where one of my project managers always multiplied my estimates out by X percentage before telling it to the client!) Eventually I started adding a generous buffer to every estimate that I said (even when the buffer seemed unneeded!) and my estimates slowly started getting better.
The biggest help, though, was talking with coworkers. If a project manager asked me how long something would take, and I *really* had no idea whatsoever, I'd ask for a drop of time to get back to him/her, and then I'd catch a coworker for a few minutes to get his/her sense of what's involved with task.
In cases where I couldn't do that, I would give my best estimate - and then *later* go talk to a coworker & get an idea of what *his* estimate would have been. Although it doesn't help in the moment, the goal is here to improve over time, not to get it right the first time.
Estimating is hard. Don't beat yourself up about it; just focus on trying not to repeat the same estimation mistakes twice. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | Don't give a point estimate, give a range. Point estimates are usually seen as the default, but in most cases, range estimates would do a much better job. Your case is one where the range estimate is the better choice.
For a task you are very comfortable with, you can start giving narrow ranges. "I will finish the monthly report in two hours, plus/minus 15 minutes". When you are faced with a task which you don't know what will entail, the truth may well be "between two hours and two days". Simply stating that will sound insolent, so give it with an explanation. "I saw a monthly report produced in another project. I'll have to look into it. If the numbers are available somewhere, two hours should be sufficient to write up the report. If I have to find a way for calculating them, and chase down sources, it can easily stretch to two days or more".
Now, the manager can let her inner Kirk hang out and scream at you that two days is unacceptable. To which you can answer that 1) it is still possible that it is done in 2 hours, you just can't estimate the probability, 2) you cannot create true numbers out of thin air, 3) after you have gone through the process once, you can prepare better for next time (gathering numbers during the month, reusing an Excel macro to calculate them from raw data) so next month the report will take much shorter, and 4) ask her, if two days are not acceptable, what should you do if it turns out that the numbers will not be available on time? For example, provide only one section of the report (which one), or get permission to pull a second person from his usual tasks to also work on the numbers?
It is especially important to get the fourth one right. You have to display understanding for her concerns and be genuinely open to alternatives, while gently reminding her that "get it done in the time I alot" is not an option. If you come across as sarcastic or condescending, you will hurt your chances for reaching a constructive relationship with your manager.
She still won't be happy, but the best thing to do here is to take her concerns seriously (maybe you are missing an external deadline) and to engage her in your estimation process so she sees for yourself that you are not simply being difficult on purpose, or too dense. She may manage your time, but you have to manage her expectations. | I haven't seen this answer...
Talk to your immediate manager/boss and ask them what the priorities are - how many hours per week should you spend on each of these items as well as other items (research, education, team meetings, etc.) A few years ago I became overcommitted, and worked with my boss on how many hours per week to spend on each type of item. That worked great. If a task type was allocated 10 hours, and I knew something would take 40, then it would be about 4-5 weeks. I would also caveat any deliverable date with any prerequisites such as needing information from other people.
As an aside: Consider taking one short class (credit or no-credit, an EDx class maybe) in project management to be able to manage your projects and to "manage up" to the project manager. A little bit of research and understanding will give you many of the tools mentioned by the other answers. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | Don't give a point estimate, give a range. Point estimates are usually seen as the default, but in most cases, range estimates would do a much better job. Your case is one where the range estimate is the better choice.
For a task you are very comfortable with, you can start giving narrow ranges. "I will finish the monthly report in two hours, plus/minus 15 minutes". When you are faced with a task which you don't know what will entail, the truth may well be "between two hours and two days". Simply stating that will sound insolent, so give it with an explanation. "I saw a monthly report produced in another project. I'll have to look into it. If the numbers are available somewhere, two hours should be sufficient to write up the report. If I have to find a way for calculating them, and chase down sources, it can easily stretch to two days or more".
Now, the manager can let her inner Kirk hang out and scream at you that two days is unacceptable. To which you can answer that 1) it is still possible that it is done in 2 hours, you just can't estimate the probability, 2) you cannot create true numbers out of thin air, 3) after you have gone through the process once, you can prepare better for next time (gathering numbers during the month, reusing an Excel macro to calculate them from raw data) so next month the report will take much shorter, and 4) ask her, if two days are not acceptable, what should you do if it turns out that the numbers will not be available on time? For example, provide only one section of the report (which one), or get permission to pull a second person from his usual tasks to also work on the numbers?
It is especially important to get the fourth one right. You have to display understanding for her concerns and be genuinely open to alternatives, while gently reminding her that "get it done in the time I alot" is not an option. If you come across as sarcastic or condescending, you will hurt your chances for reaching a constructive relationship with your manager.
She still won't be happy, but the best thing to do here is to take her concerns seriously (maybe you are missing an external deadline) and to engage her in your estimation process so she sees for yourself that you are not simply being difficult on purpose, or too dense. She may manage your time, but you have to manage her expectations. | Does she ask "how long will this take" and expect an answer right now? That would be utterly ridiculous and incompetent. I'll assume that she is not incompetent but wants a proper estimate.
There is a commonly used strategy for getting good estimates which is used by agile development / scrum. For a proper estimate, you need a precise statement what work needs to be done, and what the acceptance criteria is. Then you split the work into components that take at most two days each. Then you estimate how long each component takes. I mean *you* estimate. Your manager can't estimate. Your manager can state their wishes, which you should completely ignore, because wishing doesn't get the job done. And you don't make any estimates for anything taking more than two weeks, because that is just about impossible to get right.
Making these estimates will take you considerable time. Probably a day or so. It's not lost time, because doing the estimates, you find out what all the components are that need doing. So you are prepared when you actually start the work. It may be that you also need to write down the specifications what needs to be doing. Which also takes time, which is also not lost because without some decent specification what you want you might as well not start.
And when you make that estimate, you take everything into account. Mostly you take into account that you are not working 40 hours a week without interruption. And then you take into account the minor detail that you are working for three people, so instead of 30 hours a week she will get about 10 hours a week of your work.
One answer showed something like "customer sign up functionality". That's much too little for a proper estimate. There's so much you will be missing. Something like this, you need to write down all the components, ever item that needs doing. Overwise you will not estimating, you will be guessing.
And finally, stop doing 50 hours a week right now. As a salaried employee, maybe you need to work overtime if it is needed due to business reasons. A huge backlog that was there before you even started isn't a business reason. That problem isn't solved with overtime, and not with unpaid overtime, but by hiring another employee. And a manager who is incompetent at making estimates is also not a business reason. |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | Don't give a point estimate, give a range. Point estimates are usually seen as the default, but in most cases, range estimates would do a much better job. Your case is one where the range estimate is the better choice.
For a task you are very comfortable with, you can start giving narrow ranges. "I will finish the monthly report in two hours, plus/minus 15 minutes". When you are faced with a task which you don't know what will entail, the truth may well be "between two hours and two days". Simply stating that will sound insolent, so give it with an explanation. "I saw a monthly report produced in another project. I'll have to look into it. If the numbers are available somewhere, two hours should be sufficient to write up the report. If I have to find a way for calculating them, and chase down sources, it can easily stretch to two days or more".
Now, the manager can let her inner Kirk hang out and scream at you that two days is unacceptable. To which you can answer that 1) it is still possible that it is done in 2 hours, you just can't estimate the probability, 2) you cannot create true numbers out of thin air, 3) after you have gone through the process once, you can prepare better for next time (gathering numbers during the month, reusing an Excel macro to calculate them from raw data) so next month the report will take much shorter, and 4) ask her, if two days are not acceptable, what should you do if it turns out that the numbers will not be available on time? For example, provide only one section of the report (which one), or get permission to pull a second person from his usual tasks to also work on the numbers?
It is especially important to get the fourth one right. You have to display understanding for her concerns and be genuinely open to alternatives, while gently reminding her that "get it done in the time I alot" is not an option. If you come across as sarcastic or condescending, you will hurt your chances for reaching a constructive relationship with your manager.
She still won't be happy, but the best thing to do here is to take her concerns seriously (maybe you are missing an external deadline) and to engage her in your estimation process so she sees for yourself that you are not simply being difficult on purpose, or too dense. She may manage your time, but you have to manage her expectations. | Split the task you have been asked to do in subtasks. Estimate how long each task should take. If any task is either hard to evaluate or longer than, say 2 days, split it again.
Once you have a list of small tasks, re-evaluate to make it consistent. Add whatever margin needed to make you feel confident (e.g. x2 every estimate)
Group you subtasks in deliverable features of possible, then give a schedule to the PM.
This planning work is usually done in collaboration with the team, the team lead and with input from the PM, though (to split in features, and give priority to these). |
74,589 | I started a new job two weeks ago using technologies that are new to me. I was upfront from the start about what I did and did not know so there's no surprises.
I do a little of everything and so I work with three project managers at one time due to the nature of my role being involved in almost every client project we have. When assigning me a task and allocating an expected time, two of the three project managers are generous with their time estimates and have mentioned that they understand I'm new and learning a *lot* of unfamiliar technologies while also trying to stay on top of multiple projects (which relate to the things that I'm learning). They give me enough time that I've hit the minimum time expected (or finish in less time).
But the third manager's project(s) are the most out of my field. Despite this, and unlike the other managers who are aware of how new I am, she repeatedly asks me "How long will this take you?" and when I reply, "I honestly couldn't give you an estimate because there is a lot of dependencies to get this task done that I need to learn first", her eyes bug out and I can tell she's trying her best not to lose it. I think the reason being is that the role I filled was backlogged with weeks, if not months, worth of work from the get go and so she's trying to hit deadlines for clients. She'll then assign me an expected time that, at this point, I've gone 10 hours over. I'm salary so it's not like they have to payout overtime and I also spend this extra time finishing up the project at home (going well beyond my 40 hours which is fine).
I don't mind busting my ass; I mind the sense of dread and emergency she approaches every conversation with because she's worried about the project timelines. It stresses me out and makes me feel uncomfortable for not giving her time estimates.
I may normally question my progress or capabilities, but I've had nothing but great feedback from the other managers. The senior project leader told me at the end of this week that she's, "Extremely glad to have [me]". The CTO even went out of my way to give positive comments on my work. So... How should I handle this? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/74589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/48146/"
] | Estimating timeframes is an important skill, work on it. Factor in everything you know, give yourself a healthy and generous margin and give the estimate. As you progress this gets easier and easier. If there's multiple variables, factor them all in, each with a margin.
Otherwise you get stuck with what you got stuck with, a wildly inappropriate timeframe you're struggling to meet. | One more point that wasn't mentioned yet: Talk to coworkers who have done similar tasks (if they exist) and get a feel for what timing is usually necessary.
I was in this same boat when I started my job. I had to report to 3-6 project managers (depending on what projects I was working on) and they ALL wanted to know how long things would take.
I did my best to estimate, and yes - my estimates were quite off at first. Usually on the low end. (To the point where one of my project managers always multiplied my estimates out by X percentage before telling it to the client!) Eventually I started adding a generous buffer to every estimate that I said (even when the buffer seemed unneeded!) and my estimates slowly started getting better.
The biggest help, though, was talking with coworkers. If a project manager asked me how long something would take, and I *really* had no idea whatsoever, I'd ask for a drop of time to get back to him/her, and then I'd catch a coworker for a few minutes to get his/her sense of what's involved with task.
In cases where I couldn't do that, I would give my best estimate - and then *later* go talk to a coworker & get an idea of what *his* estimate would have been. Although it doesn't help in the moment, the goal is here to improve over time, not to get it right the first time.
Estimating is hard. Don't beat yourself up about it; just focus on trying not to repeat the same estimation mistakes twice. |
1,337,753 | I am working on a Windows Mobile application, and I am considering the use of directional buttons as an interface mechanism. Primarily, the enter (center) button.
My question is whether I can rely on these to be present. The application will be for Windows Mobile 6.1 Professional devices, but I am designing it specifically to be usable with one hand only (i.e. trying to avoid the stylus at all costs).
So is it a requirement for 6.1 Pro hardware to possess these buttons? Perhaps more to the point, is there an available specification where I can find out answers to these types of questions.
Your contributions are appreciated. | 2009/08/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1337753",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/55224/"
] | Those buttons are definitely not guaranteed to be there. For examples of WM6.1 devices that DO NOT have directional pads, see several recent HTC devices:
* [Touch Pro 2](http://www.htc.com/us/product/touchpro2/overview.html)
* [Touch HD](http://www.htc.com/www/product/touchhd/overview.html)
* [Touch Diamond 2](http://www.htc.com/www/product/touchdiamond2/overview.html) | As far as I recall, the directional buttons (including center/enter button) are hardware-specific, meaning you can't rely on them being there for any device. Programming to these buttons on an HP iPaq (in Windows Mobile 5) required tapping into the HP API.
This may have changed for Windows Mobile 6+. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | For the most part, your name and affiliation are not relevant to the content of a paper, which is what a journal is interested in. In the vast majority of cases an author would not have any incentive to lie about such things, so a journal would probably be willing to either take you at your word or only perform some basic checks, unless there were circumstances which aroused suspicion. The only incentive I can think of for an author to disguise their name or affiliation is if they wished to hide a conflict of interest or bad reputation, which I have seen happen. I expect it's pretty rare though. | Because academia used to be about science, scholarship, and the advancement of learning and predominantly practiced by folk who would not dream of fibbing about such matters.
Because editors have busy lives and they are not the police and journals are not official organs of the state.
Because universities would only care if something controversial or harmful etc was unauthorisedly stated under their aegis - but they do not mind getting the credit for solid work.
Because if some third party does object (hey! someone has read my paper, or at least the author list!), the affiliation is easily checked with the uni (a quick call, a visit to a web site) and the matter resolved.
Because there are various entirely valid reasons for a person to be affiliated with the uni for the purposes of the paper, even when they are not (no longer, not yet) at that uni right now. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | The crucial point is: Why would the author lie? Let's try some hypothetical answers:
1. **To bluff the editors and reviewers so that they think you're at a top place.** But reviewers will likely be from your field of study and realize that you lie. They would probably know it if you moved to a high-ranking institution.
2. **To make the paper look good in your CV.** This is a non-sense, you sell your affiliation in different ways than by listing them in your papers.
I can't think of any other reason. Given that the authors have no incentive to list a false affiliation, there is no reason to verify it.
Also, remember that some affiliations are very hard to verify, for instance if you stay somewhere for 6 months and want to list it as an affiliation, you possibly do not appear in any official lists. | There are some examples of papers published under false names or pseudonyms. For example, [Student's t-distribution](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Student%27s_t-distribution#History_and_etymology). A possible scenario is a scientist working in a private institution which doesn't allow him to legally disclose his research. Just like books can be published under pen names, scientific articles can be written using pseudonyms (see [If I publish under a pseudonym, can I still take credit for my work?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/q/8603/6315)). If that's allowed, it makes no sense to check credentials, including affiliation. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | A journal is interested in whether the submitted article is,
* Appropriate in subject matter for that journal
* Of a suitable standard for that journal (as advised by reviewers)
In an ideal world, neither of these things is indicated by affiliation - so why should they care? | Because academia used to be about science, scholarship, and the advancement of learning and predominantly practiced by folk who would not dream of fibbing about such matters.
Because editors have busy lives and they are not the police and journals are not official organs of the state.
Because universities would only care if something controversial or harmful etc was unauthorisedly stated under their aegis - but they do not mind getting the credit for solid work.
Because if some third party does object (hey! someone has read my paper, or at least the author list!), the affiliation is easily checked with the uni (a quick call, a visit to a web site) and the matter resolved.
Because there are various entirely valid reasons for a person to be affiliated with the uni for the purposes of the paper, even when they are not (no longer, not yet) at that uni right now. |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | The crucial point is: Why would the author lie? Let's try some hypothetical answers:
1. **To bluff the editors and reviewers so that they think you're at a top place.** But reviewers will likely be from your field of study and realize that you lie. They would probably know it if you moved to a high-ranking institution.
2. **To make the paper look good in your CV.** This is a non-sense, you sell your affiliation in different ways than by listing them in your papers.
I can't think of any other reason. Given that the authors have no incentive to list a false affiliation, there is no reason to verify it.
Also, remember that some affiliations are very hard to verify, for instance if you stay somewhere for 6 months and want to list it as an affiliation, you possibly do not appear in any official lists. | A journal is interested in whether the submitted article is,
* Appropriate in subject matter for that journal
* Of a suitable standard for that journal (as advised by reviewers)
In an ideal world, neither of these things is indicated by affiliation - so why should they care? |
54,722 | It seems like journal publishers do not require credentials for proof of your affiliation and identity. There are many places where such credentials are important, but even the most popular journal publishers do not ask for them. Why is that so? | 2015/09/21 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/54722",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/40592/"
] | There are several answers here.
1. They quite probably already do so (eg if a claimed affiliation to a prestigious institution looks too good to be true, or unlikely given other information, or a reviewer says "hey, wait..."), but on an informal and ad-hoc basis, rather than doing it for the 99% of unremarkable cases.
2. They usually don't need to. Most submitters will provide an institutional email address, which is itself a fairly good indication that you are affiliated with that institution. (In the old days, you might have used letterhead - same sort of thing)
3. Beyond this, defining "credentials" would be complex. Would you need them to point to an institutional webpage with their name on? Submit a payslip? Produce a certificate of employment? (And what would you define as "counting" for affiliation?)
4. Finally (and most importantly) most of the publishing system is based on *trust*. The publisher trusts you to have actually carried out the experiments, and to have reported them honestly and comprehensively. They trust you not to have plagarised, or committed ethical breaches, or misrepresented other researchers. They may ask you to sign something to certify you've done all these things correctly, but they won't ask for evidence that someone else has verified you did them. If they're willing to take your word on the actual content of your science, why be particularly distrustful of your affiliation? | A journal is interested in whether the submitted article is,
* Appropriate in subject matter for that journal
* Of a suitable standard for that journal (as advised by reviewers)
In an ideal world, neither of these things is indicated by affiliation - so why should they care? |
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