qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
8,343,414 | I've been spending some time lately getting acquainted with Smalltalk and Seaside. I'm coming from the Java EE world and as you can imagine it's been challenging getting my mind around some of the Smalltalk concepts. :)
At the moment I'm trying to grasp how data persistence is most typically implemented in the Smalltalk world. The assumption for me as a Java programmer is to use RDMS (ie. MySQL) and ORM (ie. Hibernate). I understand that is not the case for Smalltalk (using Hibernate at least). I'm not necessarily seeking the method that maps most closely to the way it is done in Java EE.
Is it most common to save data into the image, an object store or RDMS? Is it even typical for Smalltalk apps to use RDMS?
I understand there is no one-size-fits-all approach here and the right persistence strategy will depend on the needs of the application (how much data, concurrency, etc). What's a good approach that can start simple but also scale?
I've watched a [video](http://www.infoq.com/interviews/bryant-smalltalk-dabbledb) of Avi Bryant discussing the strategy he used for persistence and scaling DabbleDB. From what I understand, the customer's data was saved right into the image (one image per customer). That worked in his use case since customers didn't have to share data. Is this a common approach?
Hope I didn't make this TLDR. Many thanks to the insight you Smalltalk guys have provided in my previous questions. It's appreciated. | 2011/12/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8343414",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/690431/"
] | Justin,
don't worry, Smalltalk is not so different form other languages in this area, it just adds the Image based persistence option.
There are O/R mappers like Hibernate for Smalltalk, the GLORP and its Pharo port DBXtalk are surely the most popular ones these days. These should feel very comfortable for you if you know Hibernate.
Then there are OODB solutions like GemStone or Magma DB or VOSS and many others that let you leave all the O/R-mapping problems behind. Most of these are pretty limited to storing Smalltalk objects, GemStone being an exception in providing bridges to Ruby and other languages.
There also are tools to store Smalltalk objects in modern NoSQL databases like CouchDB, Cassandra, GOODS or others. The trick here is just the conversion of Smalltalk object values to JSON streams and a little HTTP-requesting.
Finally there is the option of saving your complete Smalltalk image. I'd say you can do that in a production environment, but it's not the standard or preferred way of dong it for many people. You do it a lot in development, because you can simply save an image and resume your work the next time exactly with all objects in place as you had them when you saved.
So the base line is: All the storage options you know are available in Smalltalk as well, plus one extra.
Joachim | I guess it basically depends on how big your DB is going to be and what kind of load will it be handling.
In my case, all apps I ever wrote use image persistance with disk serialization. Essentially, you just serialize your objects by using Fuel at request. In my case, I do so every time an important piece of data is dealt with, plus a regular process that serializes them every 24 hours. The image is also automatically saved every 24 hours.
The biggest application I wrote by using this approach is handling all the business processes of a small company of 10 workers plus around 50 freelancers who have been using it every day for a year and a half. The workload is pretty "big" taking in account the application deals with big files all the time, but the app has stayed stable and fast. Switching to a new server and updating the Pharo image was as easy as getting the project back from monticello and materializing the latest serialized "database".
In my opinion, ORM is an unnecessary pain, we're in the object world, and having to flatten our objects feels just wrong, especially when we have nice object-oriented solutions.
So, if your app handles fairly small amounts of data, I'd suggest either my simple approach or SandstoneDB. If your app deals with huge amounts of transactions and data, I'd go Gemstone.
Just my two cents. |
8,343,414 | I've been spending some time lately getting acquainted with Smalltalk and Seaside. I'm coming from the Java EE world and as you can imagine it's been challenging getting my mind around some of the Smalltalk concepts. :)
At the moment I'm trying to grasp how data persistence is most typically implemented in the Smalltalk world. The assumption for me as a Java programmer is to use RDMS (ie. MySQL) and ORM (ie. Hibernate). I understand that is not the case for Smalltalk (using Hibernate at least). I'm not necessarily seeking the method that maps most closely to the way it is done in Java EE.
Is it most common to save data into the image, an object store or RDMS? Is it even typical for Smalltalk apps to use RDMS?
I understand there is no one-size-fits-all approach here and the right persistence strategy will depend on the needs of the application (how much data, concurrency, etc). What's a good approach that can start simple but also scale?
I've watched a [video](http://www.infoq.com/interviews/bryant-smalltalk-dabbledb) of Avi Bryant discussing the strategy he used for persistence and scaling DabbleDB. From what I understand, the customer's data was saved right into the image (one image per customer). That worked in his use case since customers didn't have to share data. Is this a common approach?
Hope I didn't make this TLDR. Many thanks to the insight you Smalltalk guys have provided in my previous questions. It's appreciated. | 2011/12/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8343414",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/690431/"
] | Justin,
don't worry, Smalltalk is not so different form other languages in this area, it just adds the Image based persistence option.
There are O/R mappers like Hibernate for Smalltalk, the GLORP and its Pharo port DBXtalk are surely the most popular ones these days. These should feel very comfortable for you if you know Hibernate.
Then there are OODB solutions like GemStone or Magma DB or VOSS and many others that let you leave all the O/R-mapping problems behind. Most of these are pretty limited to storing Smalltalk objects, GemStone being an exception in providing bridges to Ruby and other languages.
There also are tools to store Smalltalk objects in modern NoSQL databases like CouchDB, Cassandra, GOODS or others. The trick here is just the conversion of Smalltalk object values to JSON streams and a little HTTP-requesting.
Finally there is the option of saving your complete Smalltalk image. I'd say you can do that in a production environment, but it's not the standard or preferred way of dong it for many people. You do it a lot in development, because you can simply save an image and resume your work the next time exactly with all objects in place as you had them when you saved.
So the base line is: All the storage options you know are available in Smalltalk as well, plus one extra.
Joachim | Ramon Leon describes the situation, basic strategies, and their tradeoffs beautifully [in his blog post](http://onsmalltalk.com/simple-image-based-persistence-in-squeak).
I would start with his Simple Image Based Persistence framework, which I [ported](http://www.squeaksource.com/SimplePersistence.html) and use in Pharo 1.3. Mariano Martinez Peck recently adapted it to use Fuel (same link). It's very simple, does the job, and gives me much more confidence to play in my image, knowing that even if I permanently damage it, all my data is safe. I just copy the data folders to the new image folder, load my packages, and all my objects are alive in the new image. |
3,964 | How can I remove just one item from my Amazon order? I accidentally ordered 2 copies of a book. I find where I can remove the item, but it completely deletes the item. I just want to remove one of the two. How can I do this? | 2010/07/17 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/3964",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Since it does not appear that the site actually supports this post-order modification (which is understandable, due to payment processing), your best bet is to call Amazon's Customer Support - 1-800-201-7575. | From the Amazon site
Cancel Items from Your Open Order
Cancel items now. Instructions are below--either print them or use your browser's Back button to get back to this page if you get stuck.
Click the link above and the "Your orders" button. Sign in with your e-mail address and password.
On the next page, find the order you want to change. Next to it, click the "Cancel items" button. If the order doesn't have this button next to it, it's entered the dispatch process and can't be changed--not even by our customer service team.
On the next screen tick the box next to the item you want to cancel, then click the "Cancel Selected Items" button. |
3,964 | How can I remove just one item from my Amazon order? I accidentally ordered 2 copies of a book. I find where I can remove the item, but it completely deletes the item. I just want to remove one of the two. How can I do this? | 2010/07/17 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/3964",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | If the order hasn't been processed yet you can
* remove both books from your order
* order the book again
* merge the two orders into one order.
I've done this on Amazon.de but I guess Amazon.com should be the same. | From the Amazon site
Cancel Items from Your Open Order
Cancel items now. Instructions are below--either print them or use your browser's Back button to get back to this page if you get stuck.
Click the link above and the "Your orders" button. Sign in with your e-mail address and password.
On the next page, find the order you want to change. Next to it, click the "Cancel items" button. If the order doesn't have this button next to it, it's entered the dispatch process and can't be changed--not even by our customer service team.
On the next screen tick the box next to the item you want to cancel, then click the "Cancel Selected Items" button. |
3,964 | How can I remove just one item from my Amazon order? I accidentally ordered 2 copies of a book. I find where I can remove the item, but it completely deletes the item. I just want to remove one of the two. How can I do this? | 2010/07/17 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/3964",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Since it does not appear that the site actually supports this post-order modification (which is understandable, due to payment processing), your best bet is to call Amazon's Customer Support - 1-800-201-7575. | If the order hasn't been processed yet you can
* remove both books from your order
* order the book again
* merge the two orders into one order.
I've done this on Amazon.de but I guess Amazon.com should be the same. |
43,722 | The description says: "Buy all items from the Survival Weapon Armory", which is simple enough.
My question is about the details: Do I have to buy every individual attachment for each individual weapon? Or perhaps say, if I buy the Red Dot Sight for the M4, will that be the only Red Dot Sight I have to buy to accomplish the achievement? | 2011/12/24 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/43722",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/"
] | You have to buy all attachments at least ***once*** as well as the weapons. Buying a Red Dot (or any attachment) for one gun does counts for all. One of those dedication type achievements.
If you're struggling, make sure you have each type of grenade launcher too.
Good luck!
[**Source & Little more Help**](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qeDuadJHK6g&feature=related) | You only have to buy the attachments once, if the attachment is the same across multiple guns. This means that you can buy the Red Dot sight once, for one weapon, and then you won't have to buy it again on another gun.
The exception to this is the grenade launchers, which are different on 3 ARs:
* AK47 (GP25 grenade launcher)
* M4A1 (M203 grenade launcher)
* SCAR (M320 grenade launcher)
You must buy *all three* of the grenade launchers for this.
You don't have to do this in a single survival match, it's cumulative. Keeping track of what you've bought can be tricky, however. You'll need to make it to level 50 before you'll unlock everything. Some suggestions I read include:
* Buy a whole class of weapons out at once, so that you know you've gotten them all.
* Get a whole bunch of money (it would take $124,000 by one user's count to afford everything at once - yikes!)
Note that you also must buy the weapons you generally pick up or start with. The Five-Seven is the starting pistol, so buying it might not be obvious, and you'll generally find the 1887 in the first round, and some SMGs and ARs are dropped by enemies in later rounds.
I have not yet gotten this one myself. I looked at some guides in order to obtain this information, but I believe it is reliable given the number of independent confirmations. Some of this is detailed in this thread on [Xbox360Achievemvents](http://www.xbox360achievements.org/game/call-of-duty-modern-warfare-3/achievement/61441-Arms-Dealer.html), and a pretty good guide is over here on [TrueAchievements](http://www.trueachievements.com/a157676/arms-dealer-achievement.htm). |
43,722 | The description says: "Buy all items from the Survival Weapon Armory", which is simple enough.
My question is about the details: Do I have to buy every individual attachment for each individual weapon? Or perhaps say, if I buy the Red Dot Sight for the M4, will that be the only Red Dot Sight I have to buy to accomplish the achievement? | 2011/12/24 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/43722",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/"
] | You have to buy all attachments at least ***once*** as well as the weapons. Buying a Red Dot (or any attachment) for one gun does counts for all. One of those dedication type achievements.
If you're struggling, make sure you have each type of grenade launcher too.
Good luck!
[**Source & Little more Help**](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qeDuadJHK6g&feature=related) | This achievement can be done in single or multiplayer and can be done over many different missions (i.e., *not* in one mission). Make sure you buy the original handgun you are given. Picking up a gun does *not* count. You only need to buy the attachment for one gun, *not* for every gun.
What you need to get:
**HANDGUNS:**
Five Seven,
USP 45,
MP412,
Desert Eagle,
.44 Magnum,
P99
**MACHINE PISTOLS:**
G18,
Skorpion,
MP9,
FM99
**ASSAULT RIFLES:**
M4A1,
M16A4,
SCAR-l,
ACR 6.8,
AK47,
FAD,
G36C,
CM901,
MK14,
Type95
**SUB MACHINE GUNS:**
MP5,
UMP5,
MP7,
PM-9,
PM90M1,
P90
**LMGs:**
M60E4,
PKP Pecheneg,
MK46,
L86LSW,
MG36
**SNIPERS:**
MSR,
Dragunov,
RSASS,
L118A,
AS50,
Barrett .50 Cal
**SHOTGUNS:**
Model 1887,
USAS,
SPAS12,
KSG12,
AA-12,
Striker
**ATTACHMENTS:**
Holographic Sight,
Red Dot Sight,
ACOG Scope,
M203 Grenade Launcher (e.g. M4A1),
M320 Grenade Launcher (e.g. ACR),
GP25 Grenade Launcher (e.g. AK47),
Grip,
Shotgun |
43,722 | The description says: "Buy all items from the Survival Weapon Armory", which is simple enough.
My question is about the details: Do I have to buy every individual attachment for each individual weapon? Or perhaps say, if I buy the Red Dot Sight for the M4, will that be the only Red Dot Sight I have to buy to accomplish the achievement? | 2011/12/24 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/43722",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/"
] | You only have to buy the attachments once, if the attachment is the same across multiple guns. This means that you can buy the Red Dot sight once, for one weapon, and then you won't have to buy it again on another gun.
The exception to this is the grenade launchers, which are different on 3 ARs:
* AK47 (GP25 grenade launcher)
* M4A1 (M203 grenade launcher)
* SCAR (M320 grenade launcher)
You must buy *all three* of the grenade launchers for this.
You don't have to do this in a single survival match, it's cumulative. Keeping track of what you've bought can be tricky, however. You'll need to make it to level 50 before you'll unlock everything. Some suggestions I read include:
* Buy a whole class of weapons out at once, so that you know you've gotten them all.
* Get a whole bunch of money (it would take $124,000 by one user's count to afford everything at once - yikes!)
Note that you also must buy the weapons you generally pick up or start with. The Five-Seven is the starting pistol, so buying it might not be obvious, and you'll generally find the 1887 in the first round, and some SMGs and ARs are dropped by enemies in later rounds.
I have not yet gotten this one myself. I looked at some guides in order to obtain this information, but I believe it is reliable given the number of independent confirmations. Some of this is detailed in this thread on [Xbox360Achievemvents](http://www.xbox360achievements.org/game/call-of-duty-modern-warfare-3/achievement/61441-Arms-Dealer.html), and a pretty good guide is over here on [TrueAchievements](http://www.trueachievements.com/a157676/arms-dealer-achievement.htm). | This achievement can be done in single or multiplayer and can be done over many different missions (i.e., *not* in one mission). Make sure you buy the original handgun you are given. Picking up a gun does *not* count. You only need to buy the attachment for one gun, *not* for every gun.
What you need to get:
**HANDGUNS:**
Five Seven,
USP 45,
MP412,
Desert Eagle,
.44 Magnum,
P99
**MACHINE PISTOLS:**
G18,
Skorpion,
MP9,
FM99
**ASSAULT RIFLES:**
M4A1,
M16A4,
SCAR-l,
ACR 6.8,
AK47,
FAD,
G36C,
CM901,
MK14,
Type95
**SUB MACHINE GUNS:**
MP5,
UMP5,
MP7,
PM-9,
PM90M1,
P90
**LMGs:**
M60E4,
PKP Pecheneg,
MK46,
L86LSW,
MG36
**SNIPERS:**
MSR,
Dragunov,
RSASS,
L118A,
AS50,
Barrett .50 Cal
**SHOTGUNS:**
Model 1887,
USAS,
SPAS12,
KSG12,
AA-12,
Striker
**ATTACHMENTS:**
Holographic Sight,
Red Dot Sight,
ACOG Scope,
M203 Grenade Launcher (e.g. M4A1),
M320 Grenade Launcher (e.g. ACR),
GP25 Grenade Launcher (e.g. AK47),
Grip,
Shotgun |
48 | I understand that one of them is actually the other. At first we are led to believe that Vincent is Ergo. But toward the end of the series, we discover something but I am not sure what it means: Ergo created Vincent to run away from himself. Also, in the beginning, when Vincent turns into Ergo, he loses control and doesn't remember any of it. Later on he starts to control Ergo, but at the same time he can talk with him.
So, basically, I don't understand which 'came first':
Is Vincent Law Ergo Proxy? Or is it the other way around? Or are they actually two different 'selves' that 'reside in the same body'? | 2012/12/11 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/48",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/49/"
] | From what I understand, Proxy 1 and Ergo Proxy are two separate entities. A miss conception, thanks to the English translation, is proxy 1 created Romdeau; this is not the case as Romdeau is described a flawed Dome in the same way as its creator, Ergo Proxy, is a clone on Proxy 1 and hence a flawed proxy (also shown by the fact he can survive UV rays).
This is further backed up by the relationship between Ergo and Monad. Monad we are told loved Ergo proxy due to their opposing natures of life and death, thus she comes to Vincent AKA Ergos aid at the end of the series rather than to help forefill Proxy 1's ambitions for Ergo to destroy humanities chance for a future on earth.
Vincent is therefore the human name of the being Ergo proxy while he has amnesia due to the removal of his own memories to prevent him from becoming the literal grim reaper on earth. Ergo Proxy was created a long time prior to the series by Proxy 1 as a means of revenge on humanity.
Of coarse I could be completely wrong but it doesn't really matter as the main focus of the anime isn't the plot but the moral and theological questions which arise from the setting and premise of the series. In short its a fantastic anime whether the ending is ambiguous or not :) | According to wikipedia under [Other Characters - Proxies](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Ergo_Proxy_characters#Proxies):
>
> Ergo Proxy is a "clone" of Proxy One, Romdo's creator and guardian, who was created to help bring about the destruction of the human race because of Proxy One's anger at humanity's treatment of and plans for the Proxies, specifically Monad Proxy. Ergo Proxy often wears a white mask with elements of both The Phantom of the Opera and a harlequin jester to differentiate from Proxy One. Vincent initially has no control over his transformations, changing into Ergo Proxy whenever another Proxy reveals itself, but is implied to be in control of his abilities by the end of the series.
>
>
>
Regarding Proxy One:
>
> The main antagonist of the series, he is Ergo Proxy's original and true self, and calls Vincent his shadow. He was first alluded to in episode 15 and is the one behind the events of the entire series, having created Vincent and then sent him back to Romdo from Mosk to start his revenge plan. Near the end of the series, Proxy One is revealed to be the one who fired the thermonuclear missile Rapture, destroyed Amnesia to hide Vincent's memories, and killed Donov Mayer.
>
>
>
To summarize, Vincent Law transforms into Ergo Proxy. Ergo Proxy is the proxy form of Vincent Law. He appoints Romdeau, his domed city, with a human regent and then gives himself amnesia, leaving himself in his human form (as Vincent). Ergo Proxy comes first, though he is a clone of Proxy One. |
48 | I understand that one of them is actually the other. At first we are led to believe that Vincent is Ergo. But toward the end of the series, we discover something but I am not sure what it means: Ergo created Vincent to run away from himself. Also, in the beginning, when Vincent turns into Ergo, he loses control and doesn't remember any of it. Later on he starts to control Ergo, but at the same time he can talk with him.
So, basically, I don't understand which 'came first':
Is Vincent Law Ergo Proxy? Or is it the other way around? Or are they actually two different 'selves' that 'reside in the same body'? | 2012/12/11 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/48",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/49/"
] | From what I understand, Proxy 1 and Ergo Proxy are two separate entities. A miss conception, thanks to the English translation, is proxy 1 created Romdeau; this is not the case as Romdeau is described a flawed Dome in the same way as its creator, Ergo Proxy, is a clone on Proxy 1 and hence a flawed proxy (also shown by the fact he can survive UV rays).
This is further backed up by the relationship between Ergo and Monad. Monad we are told loved Ergo proxy due to their opposing natures of life and death, thus she comes to Vincent AKA Ergos aid at the end of the series rather than to help forefill Proxy 1's ambitions for Ergo to destroy humanities chance for a future on earth.
Vincent is therefore the human name of the being Ergo proxy while he has amnesia due to the removal of his own memories to prevent him from becoming the literal grim reaper on earth. Ergo Proxy was created a long time prior to the series by Proxy 1 as a means of revenge on humanity.
Of coarse I could be completely wrong but it doesn't really matter as the main focus of the anime isn't the plot but the moral and theological questions which arise from the setting and premise of the series. In short its a fantastic anime whether the ending is ambiguous or not :) | Vincent Law is Ergo Proxy, who is Proxy 1. Proxy one divided himself into two. That which is divided must become one. So Proxy 1 splits into 2, and one half leaves the dome, the other half remains. The half that leaves gets rid of their memory... who are they now? They are no longer the true Proxy Project creation. They are now gaining self-awareness and forging a new identity.
It is perhaps because they rejected their imperfect origin that they decided to dump their memory, and become Vincent Law. Victory over Law. He has claimed victory over the rules. He is no longer just a proxy. The amnesia effect allows us to follow him on his journey against the strongest enemy he'll ever face... himself. A journey we all must take if we strike out against what we were planned to be and instead seek out our own destiny.
So Proxy 1 is Ergo Proxy... He is both one and the same, and he must embrace every aspect of himself if he is to truly choose his own future. It's not an easy thing to do, but he has Re-l, or reality. He also has pino, and "in vino, veritas", or "in wine there is truth".
So moving forward with reality and truth, the lab project known as Proxy One will eventually embrace that he is Ergo Proxy, and yet overcome his origins and finally reach happiness by redefining himself as Vincent Law, victorious over the laws his very cells were programmed to follow. He felt the pulse of the awakening, and instead of dying, he awoke. He is the agent of death... or was... not anymore... He is Vincent Law, and Vince is in full control as he sails off with truth and reality, and a new autorave who perhaps represents the discipline he has finally achieved. |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | It's certainly possible to make a computer without transistors, using diode logic for most functions. All computers prior to [1953](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manchester_computers#Transistor_Computer) avoided transistors, and some of these heavily used diode logic.
But eventually you need some form of amplification and inversion.
Inversion you can easily achieve using transformers (at least, if you are passing discrete pulses rather than continuous logic levels through the logic. This was common in the 1940s and 50s) - simply swap the secondary winding connections.
Amplification : assuming you have ruled out valves (vacuum tubes) as well as transistors, you are limited in your options. Relays are an obvious choice, for clock rates up to a few Hz. Above that, there are tricks you can play on transformers to amplify current changes by using smaller currents in other windings to bring their cores in and out of saturation. I've never heard of anyone exploiting this form of "magnetic amplifier" for computing, so it may not be possible.
On the other hand, the [Elliot 803](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elliot_803) was a transistor computer, but it implemented its logic functions using magnetic cores, with just one transistor per gate to provide gain. | Impossible. With nothing but diodes, and I suppose you allow resistors, the output levels of any chunk of logic will span a smaller range than the input levels. Forward voltage drops would add up until there'd be no signal. There has to be amplification in every gate, or at least in many places.
The biggest show stopper though, is that with just diodes there'd be no way to invert a signal. That means no XOR gates, or half-adders and full-adders, no way to test if two bits are the same or different. You'd have to design a diode circuit where if the input goes up, the output goes down, and by at least as much as the input went up.
Finally, there'd be no way to store a bit. There has to be some way to maintain state, such as a program counter, registers, call stacks or something equivalent. Flip-flops are easy to make with cross-connected NOR or NAND gates. But we don't have those in pure diode logic.
That said, it doesn't mean a little bit of diode logic isn't helpful. A couple diodes can make a cheap little OR gate in a TTL circuit, if done right, saving a chip that might be only 1/4 utilized. (In fact, I had a two diode OR gate in my science fair project, years ago.)
Now, since getting larger voltages and inversion of signals is important, I'm starting to wonder - if you allow inductors, you can invert voltages and create voltages outside the range of the inputs. Although still passive components, thus losing energy every step of the way, I wonder if there might be some fun to be had contemplating diode-inductor logic...? |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | Impossible. With nothing but diodes, and I suppose you allow resistors, the output levels of any chunk of logic will span a smaller range than the input levels. Forward voltage drops would add up until there'd be no signal. There has to be amplification in every gate, or at least in many places.
The biggest show stopper though, is that with just diodes there'd be no way to invert a signal. That means no XOR gates, or half-adders and full-adders, no way to test if two bits are the same or different. You'd have to design a diode circuit where if the input goes up, the output goes down, and by at least as much as the input went up.
Finally, there'd be no way to store a bit. There has to be some way to maintain state, such as a program counter, registers, call stacks or something equivalent. Flip-flops are easy to make with cross-connected NOR or NAND gates. But we don't have those in pure diode logic.
That said, it doesn't mean a little bit of diode logic isn't helpful. A couple diodes can make a cheap little OR gate in a TTL circuit, if done right, saving a chip that might be only 1/4 utilized. (In fact, I had a two diode OR gate in my science fair project, years ago.)
Now, since getting larger voltages and inversion of signals is important, I'm starting to wonder - if you allow inductors, you can invert voltages and create voltages outside the range of the inputs. Although still passive components, thus losing energy every step of the way, I wonder if there might be some fun to be had contemplating diode-inductor logic...? | This is a tough question. I know that "AND" gates can be made from diodes and that single pull-double throw relays can provide the inversion and amplification. So it looks like it is possible (theoretically)! However, it should be noted that diode logic cannot act as a direct replacement for normal transistor logic in most scenarios due the fact that it uses a path to ground instead of the input being pulled high (or low, as with a PNP transistor). Anyways, good luck! |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | Impossible. With nothing but diodes, and I suppose you allow resistors, the output levels of any chunk of logic will span a smaller range than the input levels. Forward voltage drops would add up until there'd be no signal. There has to be amplification in every gate, or at least in many places.
The biggest show stopper though, is that with just diodes there'd be no way to invert a signal. That means no XOR gates, or half-adders and full-adders, no way to test if two bits are the same or different. You'd have to design a diode circuit where if the input goes up, the output goes down, and by at least as much as the input went up.
Finally, there'd be no way to store a bit. There has to be some way to maintain state, such as a program counter, registers, call stacks or something equivalent. Flip-flops are easy to make with cross-connected NOR or NAND gates. But we don't have those in pure diode logic.
That said, it doesn't mean a little bit of diode logic isn't helpful. A couple diodes can make a cheap little OR gate in a TTL circuit, if done right, saving a chip that might be only 1/4 utilized. (In fact, I had a two diode OR gate in my science fair project, years ago.)
Now, since getting larger voltages and inversion of signals is important, I'm starting to wonder - if you allow inductors, you can invert voltages and create voltages outside the range of the inputs. Although still passive components, thus losing energy every step of the way, I wonder if there might be some fun to be had contemplating diode-inductor logic...? | I have been working on a diode resistor gate that I call Light Logic and with a single gate I can create all eight basic gates, Buffer, NOT, AND, NAND, OR, NOR, XOR and XNOR. My project is posted on Hackaday as, [SHEDDING A BIT OF LIGHT ON SOME LOGIC](https://hackaday.com/?s=light%20logic). Not fast but it proves that DRL can do it all if folks do not restrict themselves to signal diodes and resistors. Think out of the box. Very basically a Light Logic gate is a LED coupled to a photo resistor/LDR. This combination acts as a switch much as a NPN transistor. Input 1N914 diodes are wired ahead of the LED and power and output are wired to the LDR much as a DTL gate. Granted the LDR does have a pronounced reaction time but this is a new way to create gates and my goal is a 100 percent transistor and relay free processor. Point, keep stray light from being exposed to the LDR. |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | It's certainly possible to make a computer without transistors, using diode logic for most functions. All computers prior to [1953](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manchester_computers#Transistor_Computer) avoided transistors, and some of these heavily used diode logic.
But eventually you need some form of amplification and inversion.
Inversion you can easily achieve using transformers (at least, if you are passing discrete pulses rather than continuous logic levels through the logic. This was common in the 1940s and 50s) - simply swap the secondary winding connections.
Amplification : assuming you have ruled out valves (vacuum tubes) as well as transistors, you are limited in your options. Relays are an obvious choice, for clock rates up to a few Hz. Above that, there are tricks you can play on transformers to amplify current changes by using smaller currents in other windings to bring their cores in and out of saturation. I've never heard of anyone exploiting this form of "magnetic amplifier" for computing, so it may not be possible.
On the other hand, the [Elliot 803](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elliot_803) was a transistor computer, but it implemented its logic functions using magnetic cores, with just one transistor per gate to provide gain. | This is a tough question. I know that "AND" gates can be made from diodes and that single pull-double throw relays can provide the inversion and amplification. So it looks like it is possible (theoretically)! However, it should be noted that diode logic cannot act as a direct replacement for normal transistor logic in most scenarios due the fact that it uses a path to ground instead of the input being pulled high (or low, as with a PNP transistor). Anyways, good luck! |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | It's certainly possible to make a computer without transistors, using diode logic for most functions. All computers prior to [1953](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manchester_computers#Transistor_Computer) avoided transistors, and some of these heavily used diode logic.
But eventually you need some form of amplification and inversion.
Inversion you can easily achieve using transformers (at least, if you are passing discrete pulses rather than continuous logic levels through the logic. This was common in the 1940s and 50s) - simply swap the secondary winding connections.
Amplification : assuming you have ruled out valves (vacuum tubes) as well as transistors, you are limited in your options. Relays are an obvious choice, for clock rates up to a few Hz. Above that, there are tricks you can play on transformers to amplify current changes by using smaller currents in other windings to bring their cores in and out of saturation. I've never heard of anyone exploiting this form of "magnetic amplifier" for computing, so it may not be possible.
On the other hand, the [Elliot 803](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elliot_803) was a transistor computer, but it implemented its logic functions using magnetic cores, with just one transistor per gate to provide gain. | I have been working on a diode resistor gate that I call Light Logic and with a single gate I can create all eight basic gates, Buffer, NOT, AND, NAND, OR, NOR, XOR and XNOR. My project is posted on Hackaday as, [SHEDDING A BIT OF LIGHT ON SOME LOGIC](https://hackaday.com/?s=light%20logic). Not fast but it proves that DRL can do it all if folks do not restrict themselves to signal diodes and resistors. Think out of the box. Very basically a Light Logic gate is a LED coupled to a photo resistor/LDR. This combination acts as a switch much as a NPN transistor. Input 1N914 diodes are wired ahead of the LED and power and output are wired to the LDR much as a DTL gate. Granted the LDR does have a pronounced reaction time but this is a new way to create gates and my goal is a 100 percent transistor and relay free processor. Point, keep stray light from being exposed to the LDR. |
59,177 | Is it possible to build a computer (Turing complete) using only diode logic without transistors? I know DTL was a thing, but from what I could tell, they used transistors to amplify signals. | 2013/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/59177",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/2993/"
] | I have been working on a diode resistor gate that I call Light Logic and with a single gate I can create all eight basic gates, Buffer, NOT, AND, NAND, OR, NOR, XOR and XNOR. My project is posted on Hackaday as, [SHEDDING A BIT OF LIGHT ON SOME LOGIC](https://hackaday.com/?s=light%20logic). Not fast but it proves that DRL can do it all if folks do not restrict themselves to signal diodes and resistors. Think out of the box. Very basically a Light Logic gate is a LED coupled to a photo resistor/LDR. This combination acts as a switch much as a NPN transistor. Input 1N914 diodes are wired ahead of the LED and power and output are wired to the LDR much as a DTL gate. Granted the LDR does have a pronounced reaction time but this is a new way to create gates and my goal is a 100 percent transistor and relay free processor. Point, keep stray light from being exposed to the LDR. | This is a tough question. I know that "AND" gates can be made from diodes and that single pull-double throw relays can provide the inversion and amplification. So it looks like it is possible (theoretically)! However, it should be noted that diode logic cannot act as a direct replacement for normal transistor logic in most scenarios due the fact that it uses a path to ground instead of the input being pulled high (or low, as with a PNP transistor). Anyways, good luck! |
1,290 | When I play Modern Warfare 2 using anti-aliasing on my Macbook Pro and no monitor, the game lags too much to play.
But lo and behold: When I plug in a monitor to my Macbook Pro and turn on AA and put all textures to high, the game runs just fine.
Why is this? why does plugging in a monitor improve performance?
EDIT:
Without the monitor, I can run the game at medium resolution, but no VSync and no AA (but medium specular)
With the monitor, I can run the game at highest resolution, no VSync, 2x AA and medium specular unless there is lag. | 2010/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/1290",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/320/"
] | Your display resolution is a huge factor in the speed of games; turning the resolution down can result in drastically more smooth gameplay, but at a steep cost of picture quality.
If your external monitor is of a lower resolution than your Macbook Pro's built-in display, then the game is playing at a lower resolution and therefore will run faster.
I see no other reason an external monitor would cause games to run faster than the internal monitor. | I would ask, "How do you know AA is still enabled?"
When you plug in an external monitor, the GPU has to allocate more memory for frame buffer. Because anti-aliasing requires quite a bit of memory, the frame-buffer memory allocation might disable anti-aliasing.
If anti-aliasing is being silently disabled because of limited frame buffer memory then the game will render much more quickly.
I am not sure how you check this. Perhaps you can find an angled object in-game to observe and compare with and without the external monitor. |
1,290 | When I play Modern Warfare 2 using anti-aliasing on my Macbook Pro and no monitor, the game lags too much to play.
But lo and behold: When I plug in a monitor to my Macbook Pro and turn on AA and put all textures to high, the game runs just fine.
Why is this? why does plugging in a monitor improve performance?
EDIT:
Without the monitor, I can run the game at medium resolution, but no VSync and no AA (but medium specular)
With the monitor, I can run the game at highest resolution, no VSync, 2x AA and medium specular unless there is lag. | 2010/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/1290",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/320/"
] | Your display resolution is a huge factor in the speed of games; turning the resolution down can result in drastically more smooth gameplay, but at a steep cost of picture quality.
If your external monitor is of a lower resolution than your Macbook Pro's built-in display, then the game is playing at a lower resolution and therefore will run faster.
I see no other reason an external monitor would cause games to run faster than the internal monitor. | The driver uses dynamic performance levels depending on the card's load, which causes lag when switching from a lower level to a higher one or the other way around.
But when you use 2 monitors, it sticks to the max level, so that's why you see improved performance.
While I observed this on Linux, I'm fairly certain it applies to OS X too. |
1,290 | When I play Modern Warfare 2 using anti-aliasing on my Macbook Pro and no monitor, the game lags too much to play.
But lo and behold: When I plug in a monitor to my Macbook Pro and turn on AA and put all textures to high, the game runs just fine.
Why is this? why does plugging in a monitor improve performance?
EDIT:
Without the monitor, I can run the game at medium resolution, but no VSync and no AA (but medium specular)
With the monitor, I can run the game at highest resolution, no VSync, 2x AA and medium specular unless there is lag. | 2010/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/1290",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/320/"
] | Recent MacBook Pros have two GPUs and will keep one of them powered-down until needed (to save battery). It's likely that plugging in a second monitor is causing the idle GPU to be powered up so you're getting better rendering performance as a result.
Try installing [gfxCardStatus](http://codykrieger.com/gfxCardStatus/) so that you can monitor what's going on with your GPU(s). | I would ask, "How do you know AA is still enabled?"
When you plug in an external monitor, the GPU has to allocate more memory for frame buffer. Because anti-aliasing requires quite a bit of memory, the frame-buffer memory allocation might disable anti-aliasing.
If anti-aliasing is being silently disabled because of limited frame buffer memory then the game will render much more quickly.
I am not sure how you check this. Perhaps you can find an angled object in-game to observe and compare with and without the external monitor. |
1,290 | When I play Modern Warfare 2 using anti-aliasing on my Macbook Pro and no monitor, the game lags too much to play.
But lo and behold: When I plug in a monitor to my Macbook Pro and turn on AA and put all textures to high, the game runs just fine.
Why is this? why does plugging in a monitor improve performance?
EDIT:
Without the monitor, I can run the game at medium resolution, but no VSync and no AA (but medium specular)
With the monitor, I can run the game at highest resolution, no VSync, 2x AA and medium specular unless there is lag. | 2010/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/1290",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/320/"
] | Recent MacBook Pros have two GPUs and will keep one of them powered-down until needed (to save battery). It's likely that plugging in a second monitor is causing the idle GPU to be powered up so you're getting better rendering performance as a result.
Try installing [gfxCardStatus](http://codykrieger.com/gfxCardStatus/) so that you can monitor what's going on with your GPU(s). | The driver uses dynamic performance levels depending on the card's load, which causes lag when switching from a lower level to a higher one or the other way around.
But when you use 2 monitors, it sticks to the max level, so that's why you see improved performance.
While I observed this on Linux, I'm fairly certain it applies to OS X too. |
1,290 | When I play Modern Warfare 2 using anti-aliasing on my Macbook Pro and no monitor, the game lags too much to play.
But lo and behold: When I plug in a monitor to my Macbook Pro and turn on AA and put all textures to high, the game runs just fine.
Why is this? why does plugging in a monitor improve performance?
EDIT:
Without the monitor, I can run the game at medium resolution, but no VSync and no AA (but medium specular)
With the monitor, I can run the game at highest resolution, no VSync, 2x AA and medium specular unless there is lag. | 2010/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/1290",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/320/"
] | The driver uses dynamic performance levels depending on the card's load, which causes lag when switching from a lower level to a higher one or the other way around.
But when you use 2 monitors, it sticks to the max level, so that's why you see improved performance.
While I observed this on Linux, I'm fairly certain it applies to OS X too. | I would ask, "How do you know AA is still enabled?"
When you plug in an external monitor, the GPU has to allocate more memory for frame buffer. Because anti-aliasing requires quite a bit of memory, the frame-buffer memory allocation might disable anti-aliasing.
If anti-aliasing is being silently disabled because of limited frame buffer memory then the game will render much more quickly.
I am not sure how you check this. Perhaps you can find an angled object in-game to observe and compare with and without the external monitor. |
87,158 | So I have all of my sites hosted at Slicehost and right now have each application on a separate slice.
Would it make sense to get a separate slice setup for **just** memcache and have my separate apps all use memcache on that slice?
What would be the cons of doing this? Pros I can see are just managing one memcache installation and being able to optimize the slice specifically to serve up cached file quickly and not worry about anything else. | 2009/11/22 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/87158",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/24092/"
] | **Assuming the rest of your setup is good as it is, then no.**
As temoto writes Memcached was created to run on webnodes (web application servers), under the assumption that webnodes are heavily loaded on CPU, but have free RAM. Memcached's whole architecture is built for it to run on multiple servers; the more the merrier.
So if you should run Memcached, you should run it on all servers that have some free RAM. Arguably, you should also run all your web applications on all web-servers (on different ports) in order to have your full CPU capacity available for load spikes. (Use a load balancer in front to route traffic to the right applications based on the URL.)
However, this setup would be more complex to administrate in day to day sysadmin work. This is probably not the best way to scale your applications.
You don't write which platform you're using. Most modern web application servers have a in-process caching mechanism available. Take a **look at in-process caching before going to networked caching** like Memcached... | In theory, web application consumes lots of CPU (request parsing, template rendering) and small amount of memory. Memcached is opposite. Which makes them perfect neighbours.
But in practice, your applications typically use some database server, which has it's internal cache and in general works better with more memory.
It's hard to give advice for such a generic situation, since you didn't provide details.
* If you want simpler maintanance, go for separate everything for each website. If something goes wrong, only that single site goes down.
* If you want to use existing resources more intensively, dedicate one or two slices for DB and use all other slices for memcache.
* It wouldn't make sense to separate a slice for memcached only, because CPU of that machine would sleep forever: you use only memory, not using CPU cycles. Good for hoster, bad for you.
But before changing anything, do a deep analysis, find out where is your current bottleneck. |
6,746,434 | I have to add in app purchase in my application.
and for testing i just want to confirm that should i need to add my bank info ?
I just want to know that is my bank details is necessary if i am only testing and not sending it to appstope?
[here](https://itunesconnect.apple.com/WebObjects/iTunesConnect.woa/wo/116.0.9.9.14.9.3)
Thank You in Advance | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6746434",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/554865/"
] | Yes you have to add your bank info. Apple will review your bank details and approve your in-app purchase. This will take few days. | No!
You don't need to enter your bank details. In iTunes Connect, create a new user. This is your test user. You can create as many as you want.
Then, on your test device, go to Settings and log out of the App Store.
In your app, select to buy the in-app purchase. You will be prompted for some credentials. Enter your test user's credentials. This will allow you to buy the in-app purchase without using your own account.
Good luck. It is a bit fiddly getting it all working. I'll post the link to the tutorial that I used when I can. |
6,746,434 | I have to add in app purchase in my application.
and for testing i just want to confirm that should i need to add my bank info ?
I just want to know that is my bank details is necessary if i am only testing and not sending it to appstope?
[here](https://itunesconnect.apple.com/WebObjects/iTunesConnect.woa/wo/116.0.9.9.14.9.3)
Thank You in Advance | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6746434",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/554865/"
] | Yes you have to add your bank info. Apple will review your bank details and approve your in-app purchase. This will take few days. | This is the tutorial that I used. Goes through everything very clearly.
<http://troybrant.net/blog/2010/01/in-app-purchases-a-full-walkthrough/> |
35,162 | I have trouble with this sentence. "Reason" is singular and I want to use the present tense, not the past.
Which one is the correct one?
>
> * The reason **lays** in the facts
> * The reason **lies** in the facts
>
>
>
Thanks a lot
Context: this sentence is used as an argument encouraging the other persons to look at the facts as they will provide the reason. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/35162",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/4601/"
] | When we look at both sentences, we find that there is no object. So it is clear that we need to use an intransitive verb. As the verb "lay" is a transitive verb (needing an object), which means to put somebody or something down in a particular position, its use in the sentence meant is out of the question because it is neither an intransitive verb nor it has the sense needed for the right sentence.
On the other hand, the verb "lie" is an intransitive verb, which has no object. In addition to its main sense i.e. to put yourself in a flat or horizontal position so that you are not standing or sitting, it also means to exist or to be found that is the right sense needed in the sentence. So it's wrong to say that the reason lays in the facts. Instead, it's right to say that the reason lies in the facts. | You asked for the *present tense,* and it's easy!
The correct one is...
>
> The reason *lies* in the facts.
>
>
>
Quick tip is -**broadly,** the word *lay* requires a direct object and *lie* does not. That said, you can *lie down* on the floor but you *lay your laptop* on the table.
---
The things go haywire when it comes to the past tense. Because the past tense of *lie* is *lay!*.
Good read is here on [GrammarGirl](http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/lay-versus-lie?page=1). |
324,333 | Every now and then an edit will be suggested that introduces both good changes and bad ones, and I'm not sure which of "Improve Edit" or "Reject and Edit" actions is better suited to such a case.
I understand that "Improve Edit" is counted as an accepted edit for the user that suggested the changes, but removing information from an edit is closer to rejecting it than improving it, so "Accepting" such an edit feels misleading and might not give proper feedback to the suggester.
On the other hand, "Rejecting" the edit just to add some of the changes back into the post myself seems unfair to the user that suggested the edit, and it's clear the user cares about the post's quality, though they might have misunderstood some edit guidelines or some information in the post.
What's the better way to handle these situations?
[The suggested edit that prompted this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/265806). The first change is bad, the second is good.
Related: [could edits be partially approved?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/221786/could-edits-be-partially-approved) | 2019/02/22 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/324333",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/370674/"
] | You can always post a question on Meta, so that the user who proposed the edit can correct their mistake...
In general, do whatever is the least work for you. If it's easier to start from the current revision, choose Reject and Edit; otherwise, choose Improve and Edit and (unless it's a tag wiki edit like this) you can post a [comment reply](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/43019/295232) informing the user about their mistake. They will count as an editor of the post and are thus 'pingable', even though their username won't be autocompleted. | Edits should be **limited** to *adding good* and **avoid** introducing bad.
An edit that is (for example) 90+% excellent (capitalizes, fixes spelling, breaks up a wall of text) and then goes on to change ***just*** **one** word, completely changing the answer being offered (or the question being asked), is a **bad** edit.
A "bad edit" should receive no reward, the person making such an edit should *get the message*: "Don't be heavy handed, don't go too far". **Rejection is a clear message.**
You are not "improving the edit" by (for example) switching that one word back - you are ***entirely*** **saving** the OP's answer or question. People vote (and answer questions) based on *what* it says, not by reviewing the edit history - it needs to say what the poster means (good or bad, right or wrong).
Once poor grammar and formatting, (lack of clarity), is cleaned up **let voting take care of the rest**. Acceptance or rejection is the only form of *voting* allowed on edits, make your efforts count correctly.
By all means you should reject ***if*** that's fair, and go back to **reintroduce all good changes** - and not go too far, obviously don't add back the wrong portion. Then your edit should be accepted because it is correct.
The rejected editor can then make the effort to look at ***why*** their edit was rejected and ***what*** the reviewer deems the problem to be.
Accepting edits from the pedantic perfectionists whom know not only excellent prose but also decide what the answer or question *ought to* have been are free to mention that in their own answer, and not ruin someone else's work, prescribe their thoughts to another.
Asking a so called *bad question* or offering a bad answer is permissible, and voting takes care of that. Don't accept and improve bad edits that ought to have been rejected and repaired. If it's just 'too much effort' or 'too complicated' an option you have is to "skip", and leave it to the voters. |
634,498 | I am trying to remove a directory from my repository. I delete the folder and do an svn commit and i get the following error :
>
> Error: Commit failed (details follow):
>
>
> Error: Access denied
>
>
>
My user has rw permissions on [/], and i can commit new or modified files
any ideas on what the problem might be?
EDIT:
Seems i can perform single file deletes but i cannot remove a directory. Example
i can remove
\data\a.txt
but not
\data
EDIT2:
my authz
>
> [aliases]
> \* =
>
>
> [groups]
>
>
> # harry\_and\_sally = harry,sally
>
>
> # harry\_sally\_and\_joe = harry,sally,&joe
>
>
> [/]
>
>
> beta = rw
>
>
> peras= rw
>
>
>
my password
>
> [users]
>
>
> beta = Bunny1981
>
>
> peras = MyDearBunny
>
>
>
**EDIT:**
solution is on comments of the right answer | 2009/03/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/634498",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/75554/"
] | When you delete the folder from the file system SVN believes something's missing in your copy, so it shows an error.
Instead, you should not delete the folder manually but telling SVN to delete it - that way SVN will delete the folder contents and mark it for deletion upon next commit.
You can use "svn rm" command for that operation. | Tell SVN that you want to delete the folder with "svn rm", then commit. |
26,388 | I am trying to develop several shaders that need to take into account the position or orientation of *another* object in my scene. Seems like a generally useful thing to be able to do.
Here's an example of something that *almost* does what I want (for a simplified case). Here is a Cycles shader node tree that will shade an object green for points that are more than 1 unit from the origin and red if they are less than 1 unit from the origin.
And here I'm moving a cube with the material close to the origin to see the effect.
Here is the crux of what I am looking for... Rather than having the origin be the source of the red colored region, I would like an Empty to be the center of the red colored region. And I would like to move the Empty around rather than the other objects to control the effect. Thanks!
The .blend file for my example can be found at...
<http://readyposition.org/PositionBasedShader.blend>
I can use a geometry node to get things like normal and position from the shaded object. But I'm unsure of how to get properties from the other object.
I have just started down the road of using drivers. I figured I could create a custom property on the shaded object and add a driver that sets it to the other object's properties. Then I'm hoping I can use an Attribute node to get at the custom property.
However, I'm at a loss how to best do this via the UI. In particular...
* Can I add a custom property for a vector quantity (e.g. position)?
* Can I create custom property groups so I can add drivers to x, y, and z at once (as the built in property groups for things like position, rotation, and scale have)?
* Do I need to do x, y, and z separately and then convert them to vectors with a Combine XYZ node?
* Can I even refer to a custom property via an Attribute node?
* Do I need to resort to Python?
* Can this be done at all or do I need to find some other way with multiple passes?
If someone can provide an extremely simple example for Cycles it would help me a lot. How about a shader for a UV Sphere where the sphere is green where it is within 1 blender unit of an Empty and red where it is more than 1 blender unit from the Empty? Can even just be in x to make things simpler. | 2015/02/28 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/26388",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/9651/"
] | As you have said you can use drivers were you get X,Y and Z separately from using drivers then combine them and use the result :
here is one of the drivers :
and this is the what changed in the node setup :
and this is the result : *I'm moving the Empty object 'which is not visible'*
*Note : i didn't use driver directly on the 'combine XYZ' because it was clipping negative values* | Since blender 2.67 you can write a [custom pynode](http://wiki.blender.org/index.php/Dev:Ref/Release_Notes/2.67/Python_Nodes) or use [Animation Nodes](https://github.com/JacquesLucke/animation-nodes) as shown below:
*In this example the material color is generated by the rotation of another object*
*In this example the color changes to green if the position value x of the empty is greater than 1*
*Note:* Enable cycles first to access the color of the diffuse shader and use a expression node to get the desired and correct color values. |
26,388 | I am trying to develop several shaders that need to take into account the position or orientation of *another* object in my scene. Seems like a generally useful thing to be able to do.
Here's an example of something that *almost* does what I want (for a simplified case). Here is a Cycles shader node tree that will shade an object green for points that are more than 1 unit from the origin and red if they are less than 1 unit from the origin.
And here I'm moving a cube with the material close to the origin to see the effect.
Here is the crux of what I am looking for... Rather than having the origin be the source of the red colored region, I would like an Empty to be the center of the red colored region. And I would like to move the Empty around rather than the other objects to control the effect. Thanks!
The .blend file for my example can be found at...
<http://readyposition.org/PositionBasedShader.blend>
I can use a geometry node to get things like normal and position from the shaded object. But I'm unsure of how to get properties from the other object.
I have just started down the road of using drivers. I figured I could create a custom property on the shaded object and add a driver that sets it to the other object's properties. Then I'm hoping I can use an Attribute node to get at the custom property.
However, I'm at a loss how to best do this via the UI. In particular...
* Can I add a custom property for a vector quantity (e.g. position)?
* Can I create custom property groups so I can add drivers to x, y, and z at once (as the built in property groups for things like position, rotation, and scale have)?
* Do I need to do x, y, and z separately and then convert them to vectors with a Combine XYZ node?
* Can I even refer to a custom property via an Attribute node?
* Do I need to resort to Python?
* Can this be done at all or do I need to find some other way with multiple passes?
If someone can provide an extremely simple example for Cycles it would help me a lot. How about a shader for a UV Sphere where the sphere is green where it is within 1 blender unit of an Empty and red where it is more than 1 blender unit from the Empty? Can even just be in x to make things simpler. | 2015/02/28 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/26388",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/9651/"
] | Since blender 2.67 you can write a [custom pynode](http://wiki.blender.org/index.php/Dev:Ref/Release_Notes/2.67/Python_Nodes) or use [Animation Nodes](https://github.com/JacquesLucke/animation-nodes) as shown below:
*In this example the material color is generated by the rotation of another object*
*In this example the color changes to green if the position value x of the empty is greater than 1*
*Note:* Enable cycles first to access the color of the diffuse shader and use a expression node to get the desired and correct color values. | You can get the position of an *unscaled, unrotated* object through the use of object texture coordinates. It's unnecessary to use Python of any kind or any addons.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ICsPE.jpg)
It's worth thinking about what object coordinates are. For an unscaled, unrotated object, they are simply the world space coordinates of the sample, minus the world space coordinates of the object. By comparing the object coordinates of a translated object with an untranslated object, I can do just a little bit of math and figure out the world space location of the translated object. In this pic, I'm just comparing object location with sample position for visualization purposes.
What if you want position, but you need it from something you want to scale and rotate? Create an empty, parent it to your object, and set up world space limit rotation and limit scale constraints.
How can you measure the scale of an object? By comparing object coordinates of a scaled object with an unscaled object. Here, both objects need to have the same origin and rotation, but they can have different scales-- the scale of the object is just the scaled object coordinates divided by the unscaled object coordinates. Do you need to translate and rotate? Create a child with a limit world space rotation constraint (it will acquire identical translation just by virtue of being a child.)
I think you should be able to see where I'm going with the rotation. What is the Euler angle rotation of an object? Well-- the math on that one is harder than I feel like doing in nodes :) But you can create children to create basis vectors: one, one unit in local x from the object being measured; another, one unit in local y from the object being measured. By measuring the position of these empties, in the same manner as the first example, you can create a set of 3 basis vectors. And, if you want, you can compare them to your world's basis vectors (1,0,0; 0,1,0; 0,0,1) to create a set of Euler angles, if that's what you really want. (You rarely would, because Euler angles are awful for purposes of interpolation, and it's much easier to establish an axis-angle rotation.) |
26,388 | I am trying to develop several shaders that need to take into account the position or orientation of *another* object in my scene. Seems like a generally useful thing to be able to do.
Here's an example of something that *almost* does what I want (for a simplified case). Here is a Cycles shader node tree that will shade an object green for points that are more than 1 unit from the origin and red if they are less than 1 unit from the origin.
And here I'm moving a cube with the material close to the origin to see the effect.
Here is the crux of what I am looking for... Rather than having the origin be the source of the red colored region, I would like an Empty to be the center of the red colored region. And I would like to move the Empty around rather than the other objects to control the effect. Thanks!
The .blend file for my example can be found at...
<http://readyposition.org/PositionBasedShader.blend>
I can use a geometry node to get things like normal and position from the shaded object. But I'm unsure of how to get properties from the other object.
I have just started down the road of using drivers. I figured I could create a custom property on the shaded object and add a driver that sets it to the other object's properties. Then I'm hoping I can use an Attribute node to get at the custom property.
However, I'm at a loss how to best do this via the UI. In particular...
* Can I add a custom property for a vector quantity (e.g. position)?
* Can I create custom property groups so I can add drivers to x, y, and z at once (as the built in property groups for things like position, rotation, and scale have)?
* Do I need to do x, y, and z separately and then convert them to vectors with a Combine XYZ node?
* Can I even refer to a custom property via an Attribute node?
* Do I need to resort to Python?
* Can this be done at all or do I need to find some other way with multiple passes?
If someone can provide an extremely simple example for Cycles it would help me a lot. How about a shader for a UV Sphere where the sphere is green where it is within 1 blender unit of an Empty and red where it is more than 1 blender unit from the Empty? Can even just be in x to make things simpler. | 2015/02/28 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/26388",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/9651/"
] | As you have said you can use drivers were you get X,Y and Z separately from using drivers then combine them and use the result :
here is one of the drivers :
and this is the what changed in the node setup :
and this is the result : *I'm moving the Empty object 'which is not visible'*
*Note : i didn't use driver directly on the 'combine XYZ' because it was clipping negative values* | You can get the position of an *unscaled, unrotated* object through the use of object texture coordinates. It's unnecessary to use Python of any kind or any addons.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ICsPE.jpg)
It's worth thinking about what object coordinates are. For an unscaled, unrotated object, they are simply the world space coordinates of the sample, minus the world space coordinates of the object. By comparing the object coordinates of a translated object with an untranslated object, I can do just a little bit of math and figure out the world space location of the translated object. In this pic, I'm just comparing object location with sample position for visualization purposes.
What if you want position, but you need it from something you want to scale and rotate? Create an empty, parent it to your object, and set up world space limit rotation and limit scale constraints.
How can you measure the scale of an object? By comparing object coordinates of a scaled object with an unscaled object. Here, both objects need to have the same origin and rotation, but they can have different scales-- the scale of the object is just the scaled object coordinates divided by the unscaled object coordinates. Do you need to translate and rotate? Create a child with a limit world space rotation constraint (it will acquire identical translation just by virtue of being a child.)
I think you should be able to see where I'm going with the rotation. What is the Euler angle rotation of an object? Well-- the math on that one is harder than I feel like doing in nodes :) But you can create children to create basis vectors: one, one unit in local x from the object being measured; another, one unit in local y from the object being measured. By measuring the position of these empties, in the same manner as the first example, you can create a set of 3 basis vectors. And, if you want, you can compare them to your world's basis vectors (1,0,0; 0,1,0; 0,0,1) to create a set of Euler angles, if that's what you really want. (You rarely would, because Euler angles are awful for purposes of interpolation, and it's much easier to establish an axis-angle rotation.) |
18,357 | Hello. I am currently searching for some nice examples of proofs by induction in the finite case, that can be generalized to the infinite case using transfinite induction (and dont become trivial there).
Apparently, the only proof that comes in my mind is that every Vector-Space has a base (mostly this is proven by the Zorn-Lemma, but in the finite case this can be proven by induction, and the same proof can be used in the infinite case with transfinite induction).
Do you have any other examples? | 2010/03/16 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/18357",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/3118/"
] | Let me give a few examples and a few remarks.
* Every countable ordinal is realized as a [Cantor-Bendixon rank](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derived_set_%28mathematics%29) of a closed set . The Cantor-Bendixon derivative X' of set X of reals (or in any topological space) is obtained by casting out isolated points. The rank of X is the number of steps required until a set is reached having no isolated points. The integers in R have rank 1; a convergent sequence has rank 2; a convergent sequence of convergent sequences has rank 3, and so on. The finite ranks are easy to construct by induction. One can continue transfinitely to produce a set with any ordinal rank.
* Cantor's [back-and-forth](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Back-and-forth_method) proof that any two countable endless dense linear orders are isomorphic generalizes to the transfinite, for any two structures of size κ having a collection of partial isomorphisms with the <κ back-and-forth property. This idea is related to the model-theoretic notion of saturation, and is a fundamental method in model theory.
Your question asks for examples of finite induction that extend to the transfinite but do not trivialize when doing so. But perhaps a more common situation with transfinite induction is the dual situation, where an argument that is trivial for finite instances, but becomes nontrivial in the transfinite. For example:
* Every countable well ordering embeds into the rational order. This is trivial for finite orders, but can be proved for countable ordinals by transfinite induction. (But actually, one can prove generally that any countable linear order embeds into Q, building the embedding by finite recursion on the enumeration of the order.)
* Every well ordering is rigid, in the sense that it has no nontrivial order automorphisms. This is trivial for finite orders, but can be proved by transfinite induction by looking at the least element to be moved.
* More generally, every transitive set is rigid. This and many other arguments in set theory proceed by proving that there can be no ∈ minimal counterexample, and such arguments can be viewed as proofs by transfinite induction on the Levy rank of the set.
Finally, let me make a distinction between using mathematical induction to prove a statement, and using mathematical recursion to carry out a mathematical construction. The difference is that the result of recursion is a mathematical object, rather than a proof of a statement. Many finite recursions extend naturally into the transfinite.
* The construction of the collection HF of all hereditary finite sets proceeds by starting with the empty set, and iterating the power set operation. The transfinite continuation of this simply collects everything together with a union at limit stages, and continues taking the power set at limit stages. The result is the Levy hierarchy Vα of all sets (or of all well-founded sets).
* One can iteratively add one to finite numbers, to get the next larger cardinal number. Continuing transfinitely, one produces the transfinite cardinals Alephα. Similarly, the cardinals Bethα result from iterating the exponential operation Bethα+1 = 2Bethα.
* There are many others. | One way to prove the general Van Kampen Theorem is to prove it first for coverings by finitely many open sets, and then generalize to the arbitrarily large coverings using transfinite induction. Whether this is simpler than Hatcher's direct argument for arbitrary coverings (Theorem 1.20 in his Algebraic Topology book) is probably a matter of taste. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | John Chrysostom, a 4th century Byzantine Greek Church hierarch quotes this verse in his [62nd Homily on Matthew](https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf110.iii.LIX.html):
>
> *Whosoever shall put away his wife except it be for fornication, and marry another, committeth adultery.*
>
>
>
This would have been over a millennium prior to Erasmus. | I, also, have read Mr. McFall's writings on the subject, as well as several of the writings of the early Church fathers and other writings on the subject. Here is my understanding from what I've learned:
I believe the reading and connotation, in the original Greek, of this clause - as per Mr. McFall- was "such as"; rather than the word "except".
In the writings of the early Church Fathers, my understanding is that the majority did view marriage as permanent.
Further readings offered the explanation that the Jews would have clearly understood Jesus' meaning, due to their own law: That the only "exception" was if one of the parties slept with another party, (which was adultery), during the Betrothal period. Betrothal was far more than the "engagement" period of today. It could only be dissolved by divorce. Bottom line according to this: Jesus was telling them the only time divorce was justified was in the case just described. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | John Chrysostom, a 4th century Byzantine Greek Church hierarch quotes this verse in his [62nd Homily on Matthew](https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf110.iii.LIX.html):
>
> *Whosoever shall put away his wife except it be for fornication, and marry another, committeth adultery.*
>
>
>
This would have been over a millennium prior to Erasmus. | There is no manuscript in existence that supports the *Textus Receptus* reading of εἰ ("if") before μὴ ("not") in Mt. 19:9. All the manuscript evidence supports the omission of εἰ. Based on overwhelming evidence, the correct reading is μὴ ἐπὶ ("not over"). The text is firmly μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ ("not over fornication") and is the reading of the Majority Text (M-Text), the Greek New Testament (GNT) and all other texts that do not follow the *Textus Receptus* tradition (<https://timothysparks.com/2018/08/21/no-manuscript-support-for-if-mt-199>).
Dr. McFall, who allowed me to edit and publish to my website his Appendix B in which he explains his translation of Mt. 19:9, considers the following translation the most likely interpretation, "If we take the most literal translation another meaning comes to light. The translation reads: 'Now I say to you that who, for example, may have divorced his wife—not over fornication *which was punished by death*—and may have married another *woman*, he becomes adulterous *by marrying her*. And the *man* having married *a* divorced *wife*, he becomes adulterous *by marrying her*'” (<https://timothysparks.files.wordpress.com/2015/04/mcfall-mt-199-appendix-b.pdf>, page 1).
For his complete ebook on divorce and remarriage, please see his website, which is maintained by his daughter and son-in-law: <https://lmf12.files.wordpress.com/2014/08/divorce_aug_2014.pdf>. You may also see other references to his work, which may provide clarification, here: <https://timothysparks.com/marriage>. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | John Chrysostom, a 4th century Byzantine Greek Church hierarch quotes this verse in his [62nd Homily on Matthew](https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf110.iii.LIX.html):
>
> *Whosoever shall put away his wife except it be for fornication, and marry another, committeth adultery.*
>
>
>
This would have been over a millennium prior to Erasmus. | based on the kjv lexicon on Biblehub I have to agree with Dr. Mcfall and the other 4 discourses of the gospels seem to support it.
Matthew 19:9 ...
"οτι - hoti hot'-ee:" "causative, because" "-- as concerning that, as though, because (that), for (that), how (that), (in) that, though, why."
"ος - hos hos: nominative singular masculine" "who, which, what, that -- one, (an-, the) other, some, that, what, which, who(-m, -se), etc."
"αν - an an:" "denoting a supposition, wish, possibility or uncertainty"
"απολυση - apoluo ap-ol-oo'-o: third person singular" "to free fully, i.e. (literally) relieve, release, dismiss (reflexively, depart), or (figuratively) let die, pardon or (specially) divorce"
"την - ho ho: accusative singular feminine" " the, this, that, one, he, she, it, etc."
"γυναικα - gune goo-nay':" "a woman; specially, a wife -- wife, woman."
"αυτου - autos ow-tos': genitive singular masculine" "the reflexive pronoun self, used of the third person , and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons"
"μη - me may:" "any but (that), forbear, God forbid, lack, lest, neither, never, no (wise in), none, nor, (can-)not, nothing, that not, un(-taken), without."
"επι - epi ep-ee':" "meaning superimposition (of time, place, order, etc.), as a relation of distribution (with the genitive case), i.e. over, upon, etc.; of rest (with the dative case) at, on, etc.; of direction (with the accusative case) towards, upon, etc."
"πορνεια - porneia por-ni'-ah: dative singular feminine" "harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry -- fornication."
"και - kai kahee:" "and, also, even, so then, too, etc.; often used in connection (or composition) with other particles or small words"
"γαμηση - gameo gam-eh'-o: third person singular" "to wed (of either sex) -- marry (a wife)."
"αλλην - allos al'-los: accusative singular feminine" "else, i.e. different (in many applications) -- more, one (another), (an-, some an-)other(-s, -wise)."
"μοιχαται - moichao moy-khah'-o: third person singular" "to commit adultery -- commit adultery"
"και - kai kahee:" "and, also, even, so then, too, etc.; often used in connection (or composition) with other particles or small words"
"ο - ho ho: nominative singular masculine" "the, this, that, one, he, she, it, etc."
"απολελυμενην - apoluo ap-ol-oo'-o: singular feminine" "to free fully, i.e. (literally) relieve, release, dismiss (reflexively, depart), or (figuratively) let die, pardon or (specially) divorce"
"γαμησας - gameo gam-eh'-o: nominative singular masculine" "gameo gam-eh'-o: to wed (of either sex) -- marry (a wife)."
"μοιχαται - moichao moy-khah'-o: third person singular" "to commit adultery -- commit adultery."
"...because he wishes to divorce (let die figuratively) her, the wife; he shall not lay with another woman (recalling the other person of autos) to fornicate with her or marry another wife to commit adultery with her. For, [apoluo) he divorced her/(he) whom the divorced woman][(gameo) he is married/marries]; he commits adultery."
The other accounts in the gospel read likewise (matthew 5:32, luke 16:18, mark 10:11-12 john 8). Matthew 5 contains a lovely thought in the verse concerning that divorce teaches that God causes judgment and reckoning and john is ambiguous as to whether the woman the woman has a boyfriend who is married or has married a divorce man but warns her to separate from him because from that day, she is told, she "will miss the mark and lose her prize."
to read the lexicon on it you can go to bible hub and fill in the book chapter and verse in the url, wherer I have indicated. <https://biblehub.com/lexicon/book/chapter-verse.htm> |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | John Chrysostom, a 4th century Byzantine Greek Church hierarch quotes this verse in his [62nd Homily on Matthew](https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf110.iii.LIX.html):
>
> *Whosoever shall put away his wife except it be for fornication, and marry another, committeth adultery.*
>
>
>
This would have been over a millennium prior to Erasmus. | I have checked out the few manuscripts supposedly used by Erasmus. (except for one which was inaccessible) None of them had "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ". A few had "μὴ ἐπὶ". So why did he choose an expression found in none of his manuscripts? To match his "side by side" Latin translation. (Erasmus was primarily interested in the Latin translation and was keen to reconcile the Greek and Latin)
I'm entirely a novice when it comes to Greek but it seems clear that "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCEPTION whereas "μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCLUSION. A subtle but crucial distinction. The "Textus Receptus" alone has the former, Majority and Critical, the latter.
Why would Jesus exclude certain sexual misdemeanors (πορνεια) from his answer? Because he was dealing with matters of law and the law prescribed death for certain sexual acts. In which case divorce/remarriage became an entirely different issue, demanding separate treatment. (Refer to "the woman caught in adultery". Yes, the death penalty still applies....but!)
Why can't the church see this? I suggest:
1. Because we find it very hard to think in terms of certain sexual sins deserving the death penalty.
2. Because as illustrated by the shocked response of the disciples, man always wants an exception to enable divorce. God's way seems too hard.
3. Momentum. Erasmus got things moving, it was carried on by the Reformation and KJV, and modern translations have conveniently failed to correct the error. (apart from 2 or 3 minor translations, Jerusalem is clearest)
4. There is a danger in insisting that every passage in the Bible is "word perfect" and can "stand alone". We need the whole counsel of Scripture.
Full disclosure: As a divorced person, I searched hard for a "loophole". But could not find one. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | I have checked out the few manuscripts supposedly used by Erasmus. (except for one which was inaccessible) None of them had "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ". A few had "μὴ ἐπὶ". So why did he choose an expression found in none of his manuscripts? To match his "side by side" Latin translation. (Erasmus was primarily interested in the Latin translation and was keen to reconcile the Greek and Latin)
I'm entirely a novice when it comes to Greek but it seems clear that "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCEPTION whereas "μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCLUSION. A subtle but crucial distinction. The "Textus Receptus" alone has the former, Majority and Critical, the latter.
Why would Jesus exclude certain sexual misdemeanors (πορνεια) from his answer? Because he was dealing with matters of law and the law prescribed death for certain sexual acts. In which case divorce/remarriage became an entirely different issue, demanding separate treatment. (Refer to "the woman caught in adultery". Yes, the death penalty still applies....but!)
Why can't the church see this? I suggest:
1. Because we find it very hard to think in terms of certain sexual sins deserving the death penalty.
2. Because as illustrated by the shocked response of the disciples, man always wants an exception to enable divorce. God's way seems too hard.
3. Momentum. Erasmus got things moving, it was carried on by the Reformation and KJV, and modern translations have conveniently failed to correct the error. (apart from 2 or 3 minor translations, Jerusalem is clearest)
4. There is a danger in insisting that every passage in the Bible is "word perfect" and can "stand alone". We need the whole counsel of Scripture.
Full disclosure: As a divorced person, I searched hard for a "loophole". But could not find one. | I, also, have read Mr. McFall's writings on the subject, as well as several of the writings of the early Church fathers and other writings on the subject. Here is my understanding from what I've learned:
I believe the reading and connotation, in the original Greek, of this clause - as per Mr. McFall- was "such as"; rather than the word "except".
In the writings of the early Church Fathers, my understanding is that the majority did view marriage as permanent.
Further readings offered the explanation that the Jews would have clearly understood Jesus' meaning, due to their own law: That the only "exception" was if one of the parties slept with another party, (which was adultery), during the Betrothal period. Betrothal was far more than the "engagement" period of today. It could only be dissolved by divorce. Bottom line according to this: Jesus was telling them the only time divorce was justified was in the case just described. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | I have checked out the few manuscripts supposedly used by Erasmus. (except for one which was inaccessible) None of them had "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ". A few had "μὴ ἐπὶ". So why did he choose an expression found in none of his manuscripts? To match his "side by side" Latin translation. (Erasmus was primarily interested in the Latin translation and was keen to reconcile the Greek and Latin)
I'm entirely a novice when it comes to Greek but it seems clear that "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCEPTION whereas "μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCLUSION. A subtle but crucial distinction. The "Textus Receptus" alone has the former, Majority and Critical, the latter.
Why would Jesus exclude certain sexual misdemeanors (πορνεια) from his answer? Because he was dealing with matters of law and the law prescribed death for certain sexual acts. In which case divorce/remarriage became an entirely different issue, demanding separate treatment. (Refer to "the woman caught in adultery". Yes, the death penalty still applies....but!)
Why can't the church see this? I suggest:
1. Because we find it very hard to think in terms of certain sexual sins deserving the death penalty.
2. Because as illustrated by the shocked response of the disciples, man always wants an exception to enable divorce. God's way seems too hard.
3. Momentum. Erasmus got things moving, it was carried on by the Reformation and KJV, and modern translations have conveniently failed to correct the error. (apart from 2 or 3 minor translations, Jerusalem is clearest)
4. There is a danger in insisting that every passage in the Bible is "word perfect" and can "stand alone". We need the whole counsel of Scripture.
Full disclosure: As a divorced person, I searched hard for a "loophole". But could not find one. | There is no manuscript in existence that supports the *Textus Receptus* reading of εἰ ("if") before μὴ ("not") in Mt. 19:9. All the manuscript evidence supports the omission of εἰ. Based on overwhelming evidence, the correct reading is μὴ ἐπὶ ("not over"). The text is firmly μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ ("not over fornication") and is the reading of the Majority Text (M-Text), the Greek New Testament (GNT) and all other texts that do not follow the *Textus Receptus* tradition (<https://timothysparks.com/2018/08/21/no-manuscript-support-for-if-mt-199>).
Dr. McFall, who allowed me to edit and publish to my website his Appendix B in which he explains his translation of Mt. 19:9, considers the following translation the most likely interpretation, "If we take the most literal translation another meaning comes to light. The translation reads: 'Now I say to you that who, for example, may have divorced his wife—not over fornication *which was punished by death*—and may have married another *woman*, he becomes adulterous *by marrying her*. And the *man* having married *a* divorced *wife*, he becomes adulterous *by marrying her*'” (<https://timothysparks.files.wordpress.com/2015/04/mcfall-mt-199-appendix-b.pdf>, page 1).
For his complete ebook on divorce and remarriage, please see his website, which is maintained by his daughter and son-in-law: <https://lmf12.files.wordpress.com/2014/08/divorce_aug_2014.pdf>. You may also see other references to his work, which may provide clarification, here: <https://timothysparks.com/marriage>. |
26,459 | I am investigating the claim, made by Leslie McFall's [Erasmus and Divorce in Matthew 19:9](http://www.academia.edu/10729554/Erasmus_and_Divorce_in_Matthew_19_9), that in fact Erasmus(1466-1536), a Catholic priest, in his construction of a Greek New Testament, altered the text of Matthew 19:9 to allow the fornication exception. He asserts the text should read:
>
> "Now I say to you that whoever shall dismiss his wife—not even over fornication—and shall marry another, he commits adultery. And the one who marries one divorced commits adultery."
>
>
>
I have read various rebuttals which to my mind are compelling, such as several ante-nicene writers also have the Erasmus' "traditional" understanding (divorce is permitted following adultery). However, I am far from being a Greek scholar, theologian, historian or anyone with any particular knowledge other than what I've been able to glean on the web - mainly through blog posts.
So my question is: Does/has McFall's theory stood up to academic critique? | 2017/01/04 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/26459",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/18053/"
] | I have checked out the few manuscripts supposedly used by Erasmus. (except for one which was inaccessible) None of them had "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ". A few had "μὴ ἐπὶ". So why did he choose an expression found in none of his manuscripts? To match his "side by side" Latin translation. (Erasmus was primarily interested in the Latin translation and was keen to reconcile the Greek and Latin)
I'm entirely a novice when it comes to Greek but it seems clear that "εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCEPTION whereas "μὴ ἐπὶ" translates as an EXCLUSION. A subtle but crucial distinction. The "Textus Receptus" alone has the former, Majority and Critical, the latter.
Why would Jesus exclude certain sexual misdemeanors (πορνεια) from his answer? Because he was dealing with matters of law and the law prescribed death for certain sexual acts. In which case divorce/remarriage became an entirely different issue, demanding separate treatment. (Refer to "the woman caught in adultery". Yes, the death penalty still applies....but!)
Why can't the church see this? I suggest:
1. Because we find it very hard to think in terms of certain sexual sins deserving the death penalty.
2. Because as illustrated by the shocked response of the disciples, man always wants an exception to enable divorce. God's way seems too hard.
3. Momentum. Erasmus got things moving, it was carried on by the Reformation and KJV, and modern translations have conveniently failed to correct the error. (apart from 2 or 3 minor translations, Jerusalem is clearest)
4. There is a danger in insisting that every passage in the Bible is "word perfect" and can "stand alone". We need the whole counsel of Scripture.
Full disclosure: As a divorced person, I searched hard for a "loophole". But could not find one. | based on the kjv lexicon on Biblehub I have to agree with Dr. Mcfall and the other 4 discourses of the gospels seem to support it.
Matthew 19:9 ...
"οτι - hoti hot'-ee:" "causative, because" "-- as concerning that, as though, because (that), for (that), how (that), (in) that, though, why."
"ος - hos hos: nominative singular masculine" "who, which, what, that -- one, (an-, the) other, some, that, what, which, who(-m, -se), etc."
"αν - an an:" "denoting a supposition, wish, possibility or uncertainty"
"απολυση - apoluo ap-ol-oo'-o: third person singular" "to free fully, i.e. (literally) relieve, release, dismiss (reflexively, depart), or (figuratively) let die, pardon or (specially) divorce"
"την - ho ho: accusative singular feminine" " the, this, that, one, he, she, it, etc."
"γυναικα - gune goo-nay':" "a woman; specially, a wife -- wife, woman."
"αυτου - autos ow-tos': genitive singular masculine" "the reflexive pronoun self, used of the third person , and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons"
"μη - me may:" "any but (that), forbear, God forbid, lack, lest, neither, never, no (wise in), none, nor, (can-)not, nothing, that not, un(-taken), without."
"επι - epi ep-ee':" "meaning superimposition (of time, place, order, etc.), as a relation of distribution (with the genitive case), i.e. over, upon, etc.; of rest (with the dative case) at, on, etc.; of direction (with the accusative case) towards, upon, etc."
"πορνεια - porneia por-ni'-ah: dative singular feminine" "harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry -- fornication."
"και - kai kahee:" "and, also, even, so then, too, etc.; often used in connection (or composition) with other particles or small words"
"γαμηση - gameo gam-eh'-o: third person singular" "to wed (of either sex) -- marry (a wife)."
"αλλην - allos al'-los: accusative singular feminine" "else, i.e. different (in many applications) -- more, one (another), (an-, some an-)other(-s, -wise)."
"μοιχαται - moichao moy-khah'-o: third person singular" "to commit adultery -- commit adultery"
"και - kai kahee:" "and, also, even, so then, too, etc.; often used in connection (or composition) with other particles or small words"
"ο - ho ho: nominative singular masculine" "the, this, that, one, he, she, it, etc."
"απολελυμενην - apoluo ap-ol-oo'-o: singular feminine" "to free fully, i.e. (literally) relieve, release, dismiss (reflexively, depart), or (figuratively) let die, pardon or (specially) divorce"
"γαμησας - gameo gam-eh'-o: nominative singular masculine" "gameo gam-eh'-o: to wed (of either sex) -- marry (a wife)."
"μοιχαται - moichao moy-khah'-o: third person singular" "to commit adultery -- commit adultery."
"...because he wishes to divorce (let die figuratively) her, the wife; he shall not lay with another woman (recalling the other person of autos) to fornicate with her or marry another wife to commit adultery with her. For, [apoluo) he divorced her/(he) whom the divorced woman][(gameo) he is married/marries]; he commits adultery."
The other accounts in the gospel read likewise (matthew 5:32, luke 16:18, mark 10:11-12 john 8). Matthew 5 contains a lovely thought in the verse concerning that divorce teaches that God causes judgment and reckoning and john is ambiguous as to whether the woman the woman has a boyfriend who is married or has married a divorce man but warns her to separate from him because from that day, she is told, she "will miss the mark and lose her prize."
to read the lexicon on it you can go to bible hub and fill in the book chapter and verse in the url, wherer I have indicated. <https://biblehub.com/lexicon/book/chapter-verse.htm> |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | **SHORT ANSWER**:
You are correct to question the results; log analysis is not adequate to report actual traffic.
**LONGER ANSWER**:
WebTrends is a great tool for what it delivers. But as a previous administrator of a WebTrends installation, I found that web logs are notoriously bad at capturing metrics of interest.
For instance, if there exists any caching in your web delivery stack (or on the consumers side-- \*I'm shaking my fist at **YOU, AOL**!), then your web logs are instantly non-reflective of your site's actual activity. This is because log analysis assumes that all user consumption will translate to an HTTP request back to the web server-- and thus having been recorded in the IIS logs. In the case of a cache, this would not be the case.
In the future if you want more reliable results, you ultimately need to ensure that there exists a way to bust any caching strategy. The obvious answer is dynamic content. But if you do not want to rewrite all of your content in such a fashion, just ensure your web traffic analysis uses a dynamic call.
WebTrends actually offers a solution to this problem, called SDC server. This is exactly what Google Analytics offers as well-- it's a javascript call back to the analysis server.
...I could go for days on this. If you want more specific information, comment back. ;)
***EDIT***: With WebTrends, specifically, it is quite important to configure session tracking beyond their default IP/userAgent configuration. If your web server assigns a session cookie, you will find this will increase your reliability; especially for differentiating between users which may sit behind the same NAT. | There is a logging package for free from MSFT for viewing this information using SQL Reporting Services. Google it. |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | **SHORT ANSWER**:
You are correct to question the results; log analysis is not adequate to report actual traffic.
**LONGER ANSWER**:
WebTrends is a great tool for what it delivers. But as a previous administrator of a WebTrends installation, I found that web logs are notoriously bad at capturing metrics of interest.
For instance, if there exists any caching in your web delivery stack (or on the consumers side-- \*I'm shaking my fist at **YOU, AOL**!), then your web logs are instantly non-reflective of your site's actual activity. This is because log analysis assumes that all user consumption will translate to an HTTP request back to the web server-- and thus having been recorded in the IIS logs. In the case of a cache, this would not be the case.
In the future if you want more reliable results, you ultimately need to ensure that there exists a way to bust any caching strategy. The obvious answer is dynamic content. But if you do not want to rewrite all of your content in such a fashion, just ensure your web traffic analysis uses a dynamic call.
WebTrends actually offers a solution to this problem, called SDC server. This is exactly what Google Analytics offers as well-- it's a javascript call back to the analysis server.
...I could go for days on this. If you want more specific information, comment back. ;)
***EDIT***: With WebTrends, specifically, it is quite important to configure session tracking beyond their default IP/userAgent configuration. If your web server assigns a session cookie, you will find this will increase your reliability; especially for differentiating between users which may sit behind the same NAT. | I have been using Summary, which is paid for software, for years, and love it. The cost of updates is getting to me, and paying for an update to just get user agent string updates out of the deal is getting bothersome. Not that there are not other fixes, I just tend to not need them.
Anyone care to share if they have used Summary compared to analog? |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | I have had really good luck with SmarterStats, from [SmarterTools.](http://www.smartertools.com) | doing it with the logs is only a good idea if it's internal - I'd use google analytics for anyhing on teh internets |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | I have had really good luck with SmarterStats, from [SmarterTools.](http://www.smartertools.com) | There is a logging package for free from MSFT for viewing this information using SQL Reporting Services. Google it. |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | I have had really good luck with SmarterStats, from [SmarterTools.](http://www.smartertools.com) | I have been using Summary, which is paid for software, for years, and love it. The cost of updates is getting to me, and paying for an update to just get user agent string updates out of the deal is getting bothersome. Not that there are not other fixes, I just tend to not need them.
Anyone care to share if they have used Summary compared to analog? |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | To analyze weblogs, I don't think you can go wrong with Analog: <http://www.analog.cx/>
If you are analyzing your own logs, which are often huge files, you will want the fastest analyzer you can find. Analog is fast.
You'll want one that's been around awhile and is still supported. Analog just celebrated its 10'th birthday.
Analog claims to be the most popular logfile analyser in the world.
Multi-languages.
Did I say its free and open source?
As far as accuracy goes, no tool gives perfect results. Javascript fails often in catching hits. Trying to track individual people's paths through a website (i.e. for Analytics purposes) is fraught with problems. And even trying to differentiate hits versus visits and screening out the bots is all more of a black art than a science.
What is best is simply to have a tool that gives decent basic statistics that tell you what you need to know.
I've looked at other tools, such as Deep Log Analyzer: <http://www.deep-software.com/>, which attempts to do analytics from your weblogs. But speed was a problem. They claim their new version 3.5 - April 2008, which I didn't try, has improved performance. The big advantage of a program like this is the advanced reporting you can do, including custom SQL requests. You have to purchase their professional version ($200) to do most of the analytics and custom queries. If Analog is too simple for you, then try the free version of Deep Log Analyzer.
And you can also try Microsoft's own Log Parser, as was the recommended answer in: <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/157677/a-good-iis-log-viewer-for-large-log-files>.
But you will need some extra skills to use it. | What are you wanting to analyze from your logs? There are a bunch of tools out there - free or paid for - that will go through the logs and spit out a great variety of figures. Some have real meaning, others are best used with a grain of salt.
What none will show you is "How many people are actually reading my wonderful web pages". Those that attempt to show "distinct site visitors" or any detailed metrics are at best a rough approximation to an indication of a vague trend...
But for what it's worth, we use [Analog](http://www.analog.cx/). |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | To analyze weblogs, I don't think you can go wrong with Analog: <http://www.analog.cx/>
If you are analyzing your own logs, which are often huge files, you will want the fastest analyzer you can find. Analog is fast.
You'll want one that's been around awhile and is still supported. Analog just celebrated its 10'th birthday.
Analog claims to be the most popular logfile analyser in the world.
Multi-languages.
Did I say its free and open source?
As far as accuracy goes, no tool gives perfect results. Javascript fails often in catching hits. Trying to track individual people's paths through a website (i.e. for Analytics purposes) is fraught with problems. And even trying to differentiate hits versus visits and screening out the bots is all more of a black art than a science.
What is best is simply to have a tool that gives decent basic statistics that tell you what you need to know.
I've looked at other tools, such as Deep Log Analyzer: <http://www.deep-software.com/>, which attempts to do analytics from your weblogs. But speed was a problem. They claim their new version 3.5 - April 2008, which I didn't try, has improved performance. The big advantage of a program like this is the advanced reporting you can do, including custom SQL requests. You have to purchase their professional version ($200) to do most of the analytics and custom queries. If Analog is too simple for you, then try the free version of Deep Log Analyzer.
And you can also try Microsoft's own Log Parser, as was the recommended answer in: <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/157677/a-good-iis-log-viewer-for-large-log-files>.
But you will need some extra skills to use it. | I have had really good luck with SmarterStats, from [SmarterTools.](http://www.smartertools.com) |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | To analyze weblogs, I don't think you can go wrong with Analog: <http://www.analog.cx/>
If you are analyzing your own logs, which are often huge files, you will want the fastest analyzer you can find. Analog is fast.
You'll want one that's been around awhile and is still supported. Analog just celebrated its 10'th birthday.
Analog claims to be the most popular logfile analyser in the world.
Multi-languages.
Did I say its free and open source?
As far as accuracy goes, no tool gives perfect results. Javascript fails often in catching hits. Trying to track individual people's paths through a website (i.e. for Analytics purposes) is fraught with problems. And even trying to differentiate hits versus visits and screening out the bots is all more of a black art than a science.
What is best is simply to have a tool that gives decent basic statistics that tell you what you need to know.
I've looked at other tools, such as Deep Log Analyzer: <http://www.deep-software.com/>, which attempts to do analytics from your weblogs. But speed was a problem. They claim their new version 3.5 - April 2008, which I didn't try, has improved performance. The big advantage of a program like this is the advanced reporting you can do, including custom SQL requests. You have to purchase their professional version ($200) to do most of the analytics and custom queries. If Analog is too simple for you, then try the free version of Deep Log Analyzer.
And you can also try Microsoft's own Log Parser, as was the recommended answer in: <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/157677/a-good-iis-log-viewer-for-large-log-files>.
But you will need some extra skills to use it. | There is a logging package for free from MSFT for viewing this information using SQL Reporting Services. Google it. |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | To analyze weblogs, I don't think you can go wrong with Analog: <http://www.analog.cx/>
If you are analyzing your own logs, which are often huge files, you will want the fastest analyzer you can find. Analog is fast.
You'll want one that's been around awhile and is still supported. Analog just celebrated its 10'th birthday.
Analog claims to be the most popular logfile analyser in the world.
Multi-languages.
Did I say its free and open source?
As far as accuracy goes, no tool gives perfect results. Javascript fails often in catching hits. Trying to track individual people's paths through a website (i.e. for Analytics purposes) is fraught with problems. And even trying to differentiate hits versus visits and screening out the bots is all more of a black art than a science.
What is best is simply to have a tool that gives decent basic statistics that tell you what you need to know.
I've looked at other tools, such as Deep Log Analyzer: <http://www.deep-software.com/>, which attempts to do analytics from your weblogs. But speed was a problem. They claim their new version 3.5 - April 2008, which I didn't try, has improved performance. The big advantage of a program like this is the advanced reporting you can do, including custom SQL requests. You have to purchase their professional version ($200) to do most of the analytics and custom queries. If Analog is too simple for you, then try the free version of Deep Log Analyzer.
And you can also try Microsoft's own Log Parser, as was the recommended answer in: <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/157677/a-good-iis-log-viewer-for-large-log-files>.
But you will need some extra skills to use it. | doing it with the logs is only a good idea if it's internal - I'd use google analytics for anyhing on teh internets |
356,459 | Any suggestions for an accurate Web Log analysis tool to generate reports on the IIS logs? We used WebTrends, but I don't feel it was accurate. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/356459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/45012/"
] | I have had really good luck with SmarterStats, from [SmarterTools.](http://www.smartertools.com) | Look at XpoLog log analysis platform for web application servers and web servers log. it a log management and analysis platform that integrate to web servers logs and create reports, provide search and log viewer and also monitor for problems. [XpoLog](http://www.xpolog.com) |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
First, you should try your best to **address this person with the pronouns they prefer**. I know that this may be hard, especially for people that are not used to working with LGBTX people.
Now, regarding the bathroom, I think that this is something that has to be sorted out with management or HR, as you and your coworkers are not in a position to determine how company members should use the bathroom.
The ideal thing would be to have a **gender-neutral bathroom**, so this person can use it freely and comfortably. But, in case you don't have one, I feel that this situation *has* to be taken to HR or someone in position of deciding these things.
No need to *"be perceived as discriminatory"*, as this is a valid concern. This situation has to be phrased something like *"We need to define the use of our bathrooms for any gender identity"* so it is not perceived that way. | I think this should be dealt with lightly. This person is going through a difficult period in her life. I would ignore anything you think of as unreasonable, as any difficulty you have adjusting to her, she is having as well, and moreso because she is getting used to the changes in her body, the changes on how people view her and the changes in interpersonal relationships. Please take all of this into account and show some patience when dealing with her. |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
People get to self identify, you get to respect that and act professionally and that's it.
People are tied to their identity. It's literally how they define themselves and it's important to them. Imagine it were their religion or political views if that makes things easier for you.
>
> such as getting upset whenever we use the pronoun "he"
>
>
>
I recommend you apologise for referring to a person in a way they found offensive and to correct yourself, as well as make an effort to improve.
>
> also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only female coworker quite uncomfortable
>
>
>
If your female co-worker is not feeling comfortable or safe in her work environment that's something she should bring up to your HR department since that's something that a company should decide and not you.
---
As a kind reminder, you don't have to be friends with everyone at your job - if you don't like that person the best thing to do would be to act professionally and also minimize non-professional interaction. | There are a few "simple" things at play here.
Professional behavior, inter personal etiquette / relationships and legal framework depending on the country this takes place in.
There is nothing you personally should do, except to - out of personal courtesy - make an honest effort to use the female pronouns.
The female co-worker may have a chat with her about not being as comfortable to have chit chats in the restroom or to talk about the boys in general.
Depending on her personality, this in fact may be true.
In many countries the employer may be obligated to allow a transgender person to use the toilet of their choosing or decides to allow it to avoid appearing discriminatory.
So escalating it to HR would indeed not make sense and create a more unwelcoming work environment.
On a personal level there is someones behavior towards you and others, their interests and opinions and of course the chemistry as they say.
It is perfectly fine if you end up not socializing with each other.
Don't blow things out of proportion, these things tend to sort themselves out.
Oh, btw. many people make weird noises on the toilet.
As long as it doesn't sound like someone is in actual pain or seems unwell I see no reason to raise a concern.
In professional relationships race, gender, sexuality etc. are of no concern and have no place in becoming issues.
What do they bring to the table and how can that support the team or may damage the work are valid professional evaluations of individuals.
In private you may not agree with their personal choices or lifestyle but in free western societies you have no authority to question them.
It might not be your cup o' tea and doesn't have to be, said free society allows you to live your life the way you want it as well...so, yay to freedom and personal liberties I guess (8 |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | (For clarity, the question has been significantly edited from its original version, both before and after I wrote the reply below.)
>
> We've been assigned to work with a man who considers themselves to be
> a woman.
>
>
>
Polite terminology here is "a transgender woman".
>
> She's making some weird demands, such as getting upset whenever we use
> the pronoun "he" (which we obviously do out of habit, I mean, what are
> we supposed to do, change our instincts over night?)
>
>
>
Speaking from experience (plenty of trans friends, have screwed up their pronouns more than once): trans people are usually understanding of and patient with people who are making a *bona fide* effort to adapt to a change in pronouns. I've never had anybody jump down my throat for accidentally using the wrong pronouns.
The key words there are "make an effort" and "accidentally". If it looks like you're not trying, that's a whole different interaction, and getting people's pronouns wrong *will* give offense.
From the [original version](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/revisions/112404/1) of your post, it's *very* clear that you do not respect your transgender co-worker, you do not accept her as female, and that calling her "he" is not an accidental slip but a deliberate choice. Claiming it simply as a matter of "habit" is disingenuous; small wonder that she isn't buying it.
>
> and she also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only
> female coworker quite uncomfortable.
> She makes weird noises in the
> bathroom, she says, and insists on making weird, unnatural chitchat
> with her about "the boys" (i.e., us...).
>
>
> How to deal with this situation? **We do not want to be discriminatory
> against an LGBT person**,
>
>
>
For the sake of discussion, I will suppose that you are genuine in this last statement. So...
If you had a female co-worker who was *not* transgender, and another woman complained that she was making "weird noises in the bathroom" and "weird, unnatural chitchat", how would you handle that situation? There are several possible answers, but I doubt anybody would suggest "stop her from using from the ladies' room".
Small-talk is a very cultural thing - e.g. Germany and USA have very different norms about chit-chat, and what's normal to a talkative American might feel "weird and unnatural" to a German. (Or indeed to an autistic person like myself.) But it would be ludicrous to escalate those cultural differences to "ban Chad from the bathroom" levels of drama.
If it's helpful to your other female co-worker, she might think of her transgender colleague as somebody who has been raised and socialised in one culture, has moved to another culture with quite different norms, and is doing her best to fit in but is still learning the ropes. She is probably aware that women tend to talk more in bathrooms than men do, and not yet sure on the difference between "normal female level" and "too much".
(Trans women invariably get slammed either for "not behaving like a real woman", or for "behaving like an exaggerated female stereotype"; there's no middle ground.)
So, handle the situation in the same way you would if it was any other cultural difference. If you choose to handle it differently and more harshly because she's transgender, well, that's pretty much the *definition* of "discriminatory against a LGBT person".
>
> Obviously taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as their first
> impression may very well be that we just don't like LGBT people.
>
>
>
That is... certainly a possibility.
I do agree with other posters that HR should, if nothing else, establish clear policies on who gets to use which bathrooms. But you are probably not the appropriate person to be raising that issue with HR. At most, you could let them know that there is an issue - "hi, we have a transgender employee, it would be helpful if you could give some guidance around bathroom use". Anything beyond that is likely to be unhelpful for all concerned.
Beyond that, leave the women's bathroom to those who use it, and address all your co-workers by the name and pronouns they've requested, both in their presence and behind their backs. | There are a few "simple" things at play here.
Professional behavior, inter personal etiquette / relationships and legal framework depending on the country this takes place in.
There is nothing you personally should do, except to - out of personal courtesy - make an honest effort to use the female pronouns.
The female co-worker may have a chat with her about not being as comfortable to have chit chats in the restroom or to talk about the boys in general.
Depending on her personality, this in fact may be true.
In many countries the employer may be obligated to allow a transgender person to use the toilet of their choosing or decides to allow it to avoid appearing discriminatory.
So escalating it to HR would indeed not make sense and create a more unwelcoming work environment.
On a personal level there is someones behavior towards you and others, their interests and opinions and of course the chemistry as they say.
It is perfectly fine if you end up not socializing with each other.
Don't blow things out of proportion, these things tend to sort themselves out.
Oh, btw. many people make weird noises on the toilet.
As long as it doesn't sound like someone is in actual pain or seems unwell I see no reason to raise a concern.
In professional relationships race, gender, sexuality etc. are of no concern and have no place in becoming issues.
What do they bring to the table and how can that support the team or may damage the work are valid professional evaluations of individuals.
In private you may not agree with their personal choices or lifestyle but in free western societies you have no authority to question them.
It might not be your cup o' tea and doesn't have to be, said free society allows you to live your life the way you want it as well...so, yay to freedom and personal liberties I guess (8 |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | (For clarity, the question has been significantly edited from its original version, both before and after I wrote the reply below.)
>
> We've been assigned to work with a man who considers themselves to be
> a woman.
>
>
>
Polite terminology here is "a transgender woman".
>
> She's making some weird demands, such as getting upset whenever we use
> the pronoun "he" (which we obviously do out of habit, I mean, what are
> we supposed to do, change our instincts over night?)
>
>
>
Speaking from experience (plenty of trans friends, have screwed up their pronouns more than once): trans people are usually understanding of and patient with people who are making a *bona fide* effort to adapt to a change in pronouns. I've never had anybody jump down my throat for accidentally using the wrong pronouns.
The key words there are "make an effort" and "accidentally". If it looks like you're not trying, that's a whole different interaction, and getting people's pronouns wrong *will* give offense.
From the [original version](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/revisions/112404/1) of your post, it's *very* clear that you do not respect your transgender co-worker, you do not accept her as female, and that calling her "he" is not an accidental slip but a deliberate choice. Claiming it simply as a matter of "habit" is disingenuous; small wonder that she isn't buying it.
>
> and she also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only
> female coworker quite uncomfortable.
> She makes weird noises in the
> bathroom, she says, and insists on making weird, unnatural chitchat
> with her about "the boys" (i.e., us...).
>
>
> How to deal with this situation? **We do not want to be discriminatory
> against an LGBT person**,
>
>
>
For the sake of discussion, I will suppose that you are genuine in this last statement. So...
If you had a female co-worker who was *not* transgender, and another woman complained that she was making "weird noises in the bathroom" and "weird, unnatural chitchat", how would you handle that situation? There are several possible answers, but I doubt anybody would suggest "stop her from using from the ladies' room".
Small-talk is a very cultural thing - e.g. Germany and USA have very different norms about chit-chat, and what's normal to a talkative American might feel "weird and unnatural" to a German. (Or indeed to an autistic person like myself.) But it would be ludicrous to escalate those cultural differences to "ban Chad from the bathroom" levels of drama.
If it's helpful to your other female co-worker, she might think of her transgender colleague as somebody who has been raised and socialised in one culture, has moved to another culture with quite different norms, and is doing her best to fit in but is still learning the ropes. She is probably aware that women tend to talk more in bathrooms than men do, and not yet sure on the difference between "normal female level" and "too much".
(Trans women invariably get slammed either for "not behaving like a real woman", or for "behaving like an exaggerated female stereotype"; there's no middle ground.)
So, handle the situation in the same way you would if it was any other cultural difference. If you choose to handle it differently and more harshly because she's transgender, well, that's pretty much the *definition* of "discriminatory against a LGBT person".
>
> Obviously taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as their first
> impression may very well be that we just don't like LGBT people.
>
>
>
That is... certainly a possibility.
I do agree with other posters that HR should, if nothing else, establish clear policies on who gets to use which bathrooms. But you are probably not the appropriate person to be raising that issue with HR. At most, you could let them know that there is an issue - "hi, we have a transgender employee, it would be helpful if you could give some guidance around bathroom use". Anything beyond that is likely to be unhelpful for all concerned.
Beyond that, leave the women's bathroom to those who use it, and address all your co-workers by the name and pronouns they've requested, both in their presence and behind their backs. | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
People get to self identify, you get to respect that and act professionally and that's it.
People are tied to their identity. It's literally how they define themselves and it's important to them. Imagine it were their religion or political views if that makes things easier for you.
>
> such as getting upset whenever we use the pronoun "he"
>
>
>
I recommend you apologise for referring to a person in a way they found offensive and to correct yourself, as well as make an effort to improve.
>
> also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only female coworker quite uncomfortable
>
>
>
If your female co-worker is not feeling comfortable or safe in her work environment that's something she should bring up to your HR department since that's something that a company should decide and not you.
---
As a kind reminder, you don't have to be friends with everyone at your job - if you don't like that person the best thing to do would be to act professionally and also minimize non-professional interaction. |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | If a person changes their name from "Jake" to "Richard" then they expect to be called "Richard" from then on. If you insist on calling this person "Jake" because he's just "a Jake pretending to be a Richard" then that would be considered quite rude.
You may not understand the reasons for the name change or think they're silly, but it's their name. Not yours. You don't *need* to understand it.
Of course, few people will get angry if you accidentally call them "Jake" out of habit, especially not if you appear to be making an effort in calling them "Richard", but the language of your original posts (before it was edited) suggests you're not making much of an effort: you use "he" consistently, and you say this is "a man who pretends to be a woman".
I'll be clear, I don't fully understand transgender people either, but that doesn't mean I won't accept them as the person they are. Sometimes you just need to shrug it off.
Clearly there is already an adversarial situation. My suggestion would be for you and your team to take a deep breath, accept that this person is different from you in ways you don't understand (or even like), and simply use "her" consistently. It's the polite and professional thing to do.
It would also help if you would actually talk to this person – possible with someone from HR present – about how *she* feels about this. It can be easy to forget other people's emotions when you're involved in a conflict.
As for the other issues (bathroom, "unnatural chitchat"), talk to her. Talk to HR. Find a solution you can both live with. | There are a few "simple" things at play here.
Professional behavior, inter personal etiquette / relationships and legal framework depending on the country this takes place in.
There is nothing you personally should do, except to - out of personal courtesy - make an honest effort to use the female pronouns.
The female co-worker may have a chat with her about not being as comfortable to have chit chats in the restroom or to talk about the boys in general.
Depending on her personality, this in fact may be true.
In many countries the employer may be obligated to allow a transgender person to use the toilet of their choosing or decides to allow it to avoid appearing discriminatory.
So escalating it to HR would indeed not make sense and create a more unwelcoming work environment.
On a personal level there is someones behavior towards you and others, their interests and opinions and of course the chemistry as they say.
It is perfectly fine if you end up not socializing with each other.
Don't blow things out of proportion, these things tend to sort themselves out.
Oh, btw. many people make weird noises on the toilet.
As long as it doesn't sound like someone is in actual pain or seems unwell I see no reason to raise a concern.
In professional relationships race, gender, sexuality etc. are of no concern and have no place in becoming issues.
What do they bring to the table and how can that support the team or may damage the work are valid professional evaluations of individuals.
In private you may not agree with their personal choices or lifestyle but in free western societies you have no authority to question them.
It might not be your cup o' tea and doesn't have to be, said free society allows you to live your life the way you want it as well...so, yay to freedom and personal liberties I guess (8 |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | If a person changes their name from "Jake" to "Richard" then they expect to be called "Richard" from then on. If you insist on calling this person "Jake" because he's just "a Jake pretending to be a Richard" then that would be considered quite rude.
You may not understand the reasons for the name change or think they're silly, but it's their name. Not yours. You don't *need* to understand it.
Of course, few people will get angry if you accidentally call them "Jake" out of habit, especially not if you appear to be making an effort in calling them "Richard", but the language of your original posts (before it was edited) suggests you're not making much of an effort: you use "he" consistently, and you say this is "a man who pretends to be a woman".
I'll be clear, I don't fully understand transgender people either, but that doesn't mean I won't accept them as the person they are. Sometimes you just need to shrug it off.
Clearly there is already an adversarial situation. My suggestion would be for you and your team to take a deep breath, accept that this person is different from you in ways you don't understand (or even like), and simply use "her" consistently. It's the polite and professional thing to do.
It would also help if you would actually talk to this person – possible with someone from HR present – about how *she* feels about this. It can be easy to forget other people's emotions when you're involved in a conflict.
As for the other issues (bathroom, "unnatural chitchat"), talk to her. Talk to HR. Find a solution you can both live with. | (For clarity, the question has been significantly edited from its original version, both before and after I wrote the reply below.)
>
> We've been assigned to work with a man who considers themselves to be
> a woman.
>
>
>
Polite terminology here is "a transgender woman".
>
> She's making some weird demands, such as getting upset whenever we use
> the pronoun "he" (which we obviously do out of habit, I mean, what are
> we supposed to do, change our instincts over night?)
>
>
>
Speaking from experience (plenty of trans friends, have screwed up their pronouns more than once): trans people are usually understanding of and patient with people who are making a *bona fide* effort to adapt to a change in pronouns. I've never had anybody jump down my throat for accidentally using the wrong pronouns.
The key words there are "make an effort" and "accidentally". If it looks like you're not trying, that's a whole different interaction, and getting people's pronouns wrong *will* give offense.
From the [original version](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/revisions/112404/1) of your post, it's *very* clear that you do not respect your transgender co-worker, you do not accept her as female, and that calling her "he" is not an accidental slip but a deliberate choice. Claiming it simply as a matter of "habit" is disingenuous; small wonder that she isn't buying it.
>
> and she also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only
> female coworker quite uncomfortable.
> She makes weird noises in the
> bathroom, she says, and insists on making weird, unnatural chitchat
> with her about "the boys" (i.e., us...).
>
>
> How to deal with this situation? **We do not want to be discriminatory
> against an LGBT person**,
>
>
>
For the sake of discussion, I will suppose that you are genuine in this last statement. So...
If you had a female co-worker who was *not* transgender, and another woman complained that she was making "weird noises in the bathroom" and "weird, unnatural chitchat", how would you handle that situation? There are several possible answers, but I doubt anybody would suggest "stop her from using from the ladies' room".
Small-talk is a very cultural thing - e.g. Germany and USA have very different norms about chit-chat, and what's normal to a talkative American might feel "weird and unnatural" to a German. (Or indeed to an autistic person like myself.) But it would be ludicrous to escalate those cultural differences to "ban Chad from the bathroom" levels of drama.
If it's helpful to your other female co-worker, she might think of her transgender colleague as somebody who has been raised and socialised in one culture, has moved to another culture with quite different norms, and is doing her best to fit in but is still learning the ropes. She is probably aware that women tend to talk more in bathrooms than men do, and not yet sure on the difference between "normal female level" and "too much".
(Trans women invariably get slammed either for "not behaving like a real woman", or for "behaving like an exaggerated female stereotype"; there's no middle ground.)
So, handle the situation in the same way you would if it was any other cultural difference. If you choose to handle it differently and more harshly because she's transgender, well, that's pretty much the *definition* of "discriminatory against a LGBT person".
>
> Obviously taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as their first
> impression may very well be that we just don't like LGBT people.
>
>
>
That is... certainly a possibility.
I do agree with other posters that HR should, if nothing else, establish clear policies on who gets to use which bathrooms. But you are probably not the appropriate person to be raising that issue with HR. At most, you could let them know that there is an issue - "hi, we have a transgender employee, it would be helpful if you could give some guidance around bathroom use". Anything beyond that is likely to be unhelpful for all concerned.
Beyond that, leave the women's bathroom to those who use it, and address all your co-workers by the name and pronouns they've requested, both in their presence and behind their backs. |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | (For clarity, the question has been significantly edited from its original version, both before and after I wrote the reply below.)
>
> We've been assigned to work with a man who considers themselves to be
> a woman.
>
>
>
Polite terminology here is "a transgender woman".
>
> She's making some weird demands, such as getting upset whenever we use
> the pronoun "he" (which we obviously do out of habit, I mean, what are
> we supposed to do, change our instincts over night?)
>
>
>
Speaking from experience (plenty of trans friends, have screwed up their pronouns more than once): trans people are usually understanding of and patient with people who are making a *bona fide* effort to adapt to a change in pronouns. I've never had anybody jump down my throat for accidentally using the wrong pronouns.
The key words there are "make an effort" and "accidentally". If it looks like you're not trying, that's a whole different interaction, and getting people's pronouns wrong *will* give offense.
From the [original version](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/revisions/112404/1) of your post, it's *very* clear that you do not respect your transgender co-worker, you do not accept her as female, and that calling her "he" is not an accidental slip but a deliberate choice. Claiming it simply as a matter of "habit" is disingenuous; small wonder that she isn't buying it.
>
> and she also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only
> female coworker quite uncomfortable.
> She makes weird noises in the
> bathroom, she says, and insists on making weird, unnatural chitchat
> with her about "the boys" (i.e., us...).
>
>
> How to deal with this situation? **We do not want to be discriminatory
> against an LGBT person**,
>
>
>
For the sake of discussion, I will suppose that you are genuine in this last statement. So...
If you had a female co-worker who was *not* transgender, and another woman complained that she was making "weird noises in the bathroom" and "weird, unnatural chitchat", how would you handle that situation? There are several possible answers, but I doubt anybody would suggest "stop her from using from the ladies' room".
Small-talk is a very cultural thing - e.g. Germany and USA have very different norms about chit-chat, and what's normal to a talkative American might feel "weird and unnatural" to a German. (Or indeed to an autistic person like myself.) But it would be ludicrous to escalate those cultural differences to "ban Chad from the bathroom" levels of drama.
If it's helpful to your other female co-worker, she might think of her transgender colleague as somebody who has been raised and socialised in one culture, has moved to another culture with quite different norms, and is doing her best to fit in but is still learning the ropes. She is probably aware that women tend to talk more in bathrooms than men do, and not yet sure on the difference between "normal female level" and "too much".
(Trans women invariably get slammed either for "not behaving like a real woman", or for "behaving like an exaggerated female stereotype"; there's no middle ground.)
So, handle the situation in the same way you would if it was any other cultural difference. If you choose to handle it differently and more harshly because she's transgender, well, that's pretty much the *definition* of "discriminatory against a LGBT person".
>
> Obviously taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as their first
> impression may very well be that we just don't like LGBT people.
>
>
>
That is... certainly a possibility.
I do agree with other posters that HR should, if nothing else, establish clear policies on who gets to use which bathrooms. But you are probably not the appropriate person to be raising that issue with HR. At most, you could let them know that there is an issue - "hi, we have a transgender employee, it would be helpful if you could give some guidance around bathroom use". Anything beyond that is likely to be unhelpful for all concerned.
Beyond that, leave the women's bathroom to those who use it, and address all your co-workers by the name and pronouns they've requested, both in their presence and behind their backs. | I think this should be dealt with lightly. This person is going through a difficult period in her life. I would ignore anything you think of as unreasonable, as any difficulty you have adjusting to her, she is having as well, and moreso because she is getting used to the changes in her body, the changes on how people view her and the changes in interpersonal relationships. Please take all of this into account and show some patience when dealing with her. |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | If a person changes their name from "Jake" to "Richard" then they expect to be called "Richard" from then on. If you insist on calling this person "Jake" because he's just "a Jake pretending to be a Richard" then that would be considered quite rude.
You may not understand the reasons for the name change or think they're silly, but it's their name. Not yours. You don't *need* to understand it.
Of course, few people will get angry if you accidentally call them "Jake" out of habit, especially not if you appear to be making an effort in calling them "Richard", but the language of your original posts (before it was edited) suggests you're not making much of an effort: you use "he" consistently, and you say this is "a man who pretends to be a woman".
I'll be clear, I don't fully understand transgender people either, but that doesn't mean I won't accept them as the person they are. Sometimes you just need to shrug it off.
Clearly there is already an adversarial situation. My suggestion would be for you and your team to take a deep breath, accept that this person is different from you in ways you don't understand (or even like), and simply use "her" consistently. It's the polite and professional thing to do.
It would also help if you would actually talk to this person – possible with someone from HR present – about how *she* feels about this. It can be easy to forget other people's emotions when you're involved in a conflict.
As for the other issues (bathroom, "unnatural chitchat"), talk to her. Talk to HR. Find a solution you can both live with. | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
People get to self identify, you get to respect that and act professionally and that's it.
People are tied to their identity. It's literally how they define themselves and it's important to them. Imagine it were their religion or political views if that makes things easier for you.
>
> such as getting upset whenever we use the pronoun "he"
>
>
>
I recommend you apologise for referring to a person in a way they found offensive and to correct yourself, as well as make an effort to improve.
>
> also demands to use the ladies toilet, which makes our only female coworker quite uncomfortable
>
>
>
If your female co-worker is not feeling comfortable or safe in her work environment that's something she should bring up to your HR department since that's something that a company should decide and not you.
---
As a kind reminder, you don't have to be friends with everyone at your job - if you don't like that person the best thing to do would be to act professionally and also minimize non-professional interaction. |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
First, you should try your best to **address this person with the pronouns they prefer**. I know that this may be hard, especially for people that are not used to working with LGBTX people.
Now, regarding the bathroom, I think that this is something that has to be sorted out with management or HR, as you and your coworkers are not in a position to determine how company members should use the bathroom.
The ideal thing would be to have a **gender-neutral bathroom**, so this person can use it freely and comfortably. But, in case you don't have one, I feel that this situation *has* to be taken to HR or someone in position of deciding these things.
No need to *"be perceived as discriminatory"*, as this is a valid concern. This situation has to be phrased something like *"We need to define the use of our bathrooms for any gender identity"* so it is not perceived that way. | There are a few "simple" things at play here.
Professional behavior, inter personal etiquette / relationships and legal framework depending on the country this takes place in.
There is nothing you personally should do, except to - out of personal courtesy - make an honest effort to use the female pronouns.
The female co-worker may have a chat with her about not being as comfortable to have chit chats in the restroom or to talk about the boys in general.
Depending on her personality, this in fact may be true.
In many countries the employer may be obligated to allow a transgender person to use the toilet of their choosing or decides to allow it to avoid appearing discriminatory.
So escalating it to HR would indeed not make sense and create a more unwelcoming work environment.
On a personal level there is someones behavior towards you and others, their interests and opinions and of course the chemistry as they say.
It is perfectly fine if you end up not socializing with each other.
Don't blow things out of proportion, these things tend to sort themselves out.
Oh, btw. many people make weird noises on the toilet.
As long as it doesn't sound like someone is in actual pain or seems unwell I see no reason to raise a concern.
In professional relationships race, gender, sexuality etc. are of no concern and have no place in becoming issues.
What do they bring to the table and how can that support the team or may damage the work are valid professional evaluations of individuals.
In private you may not agree with their personal choices or lifestyle but in free western societies you have no authority to question them.
It might not be your cup o' tea and doesn't have to be, said free society allows you to live your life the way you want it as well...so, yay to freedom and personal liberties I guess (8 |
112,404 | I work with a group of developers in a company having about 1000 employees.
A transgender person who identifies herself as a woman has joined our team.
* She gets upset when we use masculine pronouns (such as "he") to address her, which we obviously do out of habit.
* She also insists on using the ladies toilet, which makes our female coworker uncomfortable.
Taking this to HR is extremely delicate, as they might think we just don't like LGBT people. While we don't want to discriminate against a transgender person, her needs cause issues for us.
How should we handle this situation? | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/112404",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/87132/"
] | If a person changes their name from "Jake" to "Richard" then they expect to be called "Richard" from then on. If you insist on calling this person "Jake" because he's just "a Jake pretending to be a Richard" then that would be considered quite rude.
You may not understand the reasons for the name change or think they're silly, but it's their name. Not yours. You don't *need* to understand it.
Of course, few people will get angry if you accidentally call them "Jake" out of habit, especially not if you appear to be making an effort in calling them "Richard", but the language of your original posts (before it was edited) suggests you're not making much of an effort: you use "he" consistently, and you say this is "a man who pretends to be a woman".
I'll be clear, I don't fully understand transgender people either, but that doesn't mean I won't accept them as the person they are. Sometimes you just need to shrug it off.
Clearly there is already an adversarial situation. My suggestion would be for you and your team to take a deep breath, accept that this person is different from you in ways you don't understand (or even like), and simply use "her" consistently. It's the polite and professional thing to do.
It would also help if you would actually talk to this person – possible with someone from HR present – about how *she* feels about this. It can be easy to forget other people's emotions when you're involved in a conflict.
As for the other issues (bathroom, "unnatural chitchat"), talk to her. Talk to HR. Find a solution you can both live with. | >
> How to deal with this situation?
>
>
>
First, you should try your best to **address this person with the pronouns they prefer**. I know that this may be hard, especially for people that are not used to working with LGBTX people.
Now, regarding the bathroom, I think that this is something that has to be sorted out with management or HR, as you and your coworkers are not in a position to determine how company members should use the bathroom.
The ideal thing would be to have a **gender-neutral bathroom**, so this person can use it freely and comfortably. But, in case you don't have one, I feel that this situation *has* to be taken to HR or someone in position of deciding these things.
No need to *"be perceived as discriminatory"*, as this is a valid concern. This situation has to be phrased something like *"We need to define the use of our bathrooms for any gender identity"* so it is not perceived that way. |
83,776 | My friend and I are visiting for 5 days in early Jan and are uncertain as to whether we should base ourselves in Reykjavik and do multiple single day tours. Or go on an actual multi day tour like this one.
<https://www.adventures.is/iceland/multiday-tours/multiday-adventures/golden-circle-south-coast-ice-cave/>
Can you someone give me an idea of the pros and cons of both options?
The main priorities are seeing the northern lights, glaciers and ice caving. | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/83776",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/43518/"
] | With enough time, you can chose and pick the best day, the best weather for each tour when doing single day tours.
I managed to have beautiful weather for each of the tours I did, spending the rainy days in the city on the days between.
Multiple day tours mostly pack in more for the time you are out, covering a bigger area of the country, but you are stuck with the weather on the day you are there.
Which one is better depends on the weather the time you are there, how much time you have to avoid bad weather and the actual tours involved.
If you have only 5 days for 5 day of tours, a 5 day tour might be your best bet. But if you are willing to pick and chose, and do only three days of tours, day tours might be better. | A multi-day tour will have access to further locations. There are still plenty of things to do within reach of Reykjavik but if you want to see Jokulsarlon, which I would say is definitely one of the beautiful spots in Iceland, a day is too short to reach it and back.
The advantage of day tours is that you have your own choice of lodging and you do not have to move your stuff between places. It's a different pace but also a you have a different reach. You also have more flexibility for meals.
Note that most of the day is dark in Iceland in January, so even with several full days of tours, there will not be much more time for site-seeing than with a single-day tour. Now, if this were June, you could be site-seeing in the middle of the night. Actually, the light was so beautiful that two nights I decided not to sleep at all in order to take more in! |
83,776 | My friend and I are visiting for 5 days in early Jan and are uncertain as to whether we should base ourselves in Reykjavik and do multiple single day tours. Or go on an actual multi day tour like this one.
<https://www.adventures.is/iceland/multiday-tours/multiday-adventures/golden-circle-south-coast-ice-cave/>
Can you someone give me an idea of the pros and cons of both options?
The main priorities are seeing the northern lights, glaciers and ice caving. | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/83776",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/43518/"
] | I spent 10 days in Iceland in march.
Pros of the Tour: Everything is settled! This is vacation for you, you do not need to organize all the stuff. You get your tours, maybe picked up at your hotel and do the tour. Don't waste your time on organizing stuff and thinking about how when an what to do. However, everything is already planned. You are not flexible at all
Pros of single day Tours: Your are more flexible. Feeling ill, weather is bad, you are totally in the mood of doing XYZ instead of the "scheduled" thing? No problem, those single day organized tours are more flexible. However, if you take tours flexibility is limited. You also need to book in advance, especially in January not every tour will be every day.
Finally I want to introduce you a third option: Do most of the stuff on your own. Rent a car and do it (things like Jökulsárlón Glacier, Golden Glacier etc. are easily done alone with a car). If you like exploring on your own, being your own boss organizing stuff on your own etc. this might be a good option. Just because travelling is (for some persons, e.g. me) also exploring and discovering of the "unknown" (unknown for yourself). If you are shuttled everywhere there is not much discovering any more. Book the things you cannot do alone (ice cave) and do the rest on your own. However, it is more time consuming, you need to organize your vacation etc.
Probably its all about your preferences: You want to relax or is organizing no problem? You want to see e.g. the northern lights really badly?
Highest chance for northern lights is actually on your own. Because you can go whenever you want with your car on the ring road and go to a dark spot where you can see them | A multi-day tour will have access to further locations. There are still plenty of things to do within reach of Reykjavik but if you want to see Jokulsarlon, which I would say is definitely one of the beautiful spots in Iceland, a day is too short to reach it and back.
The advantage of day tours is that you have your own choice of lodging and you do not have to move your stuff between places. It's a different pace but also a you have a different reach. You also have more flexibility for meals.
Note that most of the day is dark in Iceland in January, so even with several full days of tours, there will not be much more time for site-seeing than with a single-day tour. Now, if this were June, you could be site-seeing in the middle of the night. Actually, the light was so beautiful that two nights I decided not to sleep at all in order to take more in! |
12,611,428 | How do I generate test data using Visual Studio 2012?
I found these 2 articles on how to do it using VS 2010. But what about VS 2012?
* [SQL Server 2008 R2 Test Data Load Using VS2010](http://www.jnrit.com.au/2011/05/15/SQL-Server-2008-R2-Test-Data-Load-Using-VS2010.aspx)
* [Generating Test Data for Databases by Using Data Generators](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd193262%28v=vs.100%29.aspx)
My database is an SQL-Server 2008-R2 database.
Thanks in advance. | 2012/09/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12611428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1322890/"
] | While this feature was in Visual Studio 2010 (if you added VSTE DBPRO), it [did not make the cut for Visual Studio 2012 / SSDT](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/ssdt/thread/5ce89ff5-3ce4-4a88-b43b-7da1794697bf) (yet). This does not mean it will not make it into the product before the next release - it is the sort of thing that could come as a feature pack, [power tool](http://visualstudiogallery.msdn.microsoft.com/96a2f8cc-0c8b-47dd-93cd-1e8e9f34a917) or even in a service pack. [Same with database unit testing and data compare functionality](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/ssdt/thread/158edfb4-3712-4468-b37e-f454ad8a984d/).
As I suggested in a comment, in the meantime you could use a 3rd party tool like [RedGate's SQL Data Generator](http://www.red-gate.com/products/sql-development/sql-data-generator/). Also see [this question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1577063/sql-server-data-generation) for some other options. And hang in there. :-) | Database unit testing isn't supported in VS 2012 at all. |
12,611,428 | How do I generate test data using Visual Studio 2012?
I found these 2 articles on how to do it using VS 2010. But what about VS 2012?
* [SQL Server 2008 R2 Test Data Load Using VS2010](http://www.jnrit.com.au/2011/05/15/SQL-Server-2008-R2-Test-Data-Load-Using-VS2010.aspx)
* [Generating Test Data for Databases by Using Data Generators](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd193262%28v=vs.100%29.aspx)
My database is an SQL-Server 2008-R2 database.
Thanks in advance. | 2012/09/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12611428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1322890/"
] | While this feature was in Visual Studio 2010 (if you added VSTE DBPRO), it [did not make the cut for Visual Studio 2012 / SSDT](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/ssdt/thread/5ce89ff5-3ce4-4a88-b43b-7da1794697bf) (yet). This does not mean it will not make it into the product before the next release - it is the sort of thing that could come as a feature pack, [power tool](http://visualstudiogallery.msdn.microsoft.com/96a2f8cc-0c8b-47dd-93cd-1e8e9f34a917) or even in a service pack. [Same with database unit testing and data compare functionality](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/ssdt/thread/158edfb4-3712-4468-b37e-f454ad8a984d/).
As I suggested in a comment, in the meantime you could use a 3rd party tool like [RedGate's SQL Data Generator](http://www.red-gate.com/products/sql-development/sql-data-generator/). Also see [this question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1577063/sql-server-data-generation) for some other options. And hang in there. :-) | We would need to rely on 3rd party tools from now on as this feature will not be supported by Microsoft in the future.
<http://blogs.msdn.com/b/ssdt/archive/2013/06/24/announcing-sql-server-data-tools-june-2013.aspx>
search for "Data Generation is not included and is not planned to be released in the future"
Not a big deal if we use test driven development. In TDD we would have component test touching database (full scenario coverage). We could use the same modules to create test data. |
80,918 | I’ve searched for awhile and haven‘t found anything. What I'm looking for is letters and numbers (specifically *1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, A, E, N, T, R)* that can be “drawn” using a hammer and straight 1/2" chisel. Here is a rudimentary example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YKEnz.jpg)
The cross hatches where the lines intersect are not important.
I attempted to make myself but all I could manage was the *E.* Even other straight letters like the *N* and *A* were beyond my skills.
I figured it would be out there somewhere, but so far no luck. | 2016/11/29 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/80918",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/81211/"
] | This typeface, Homestead, sounds like it could work for you.
<http://www.losttype.com/font/?name=homestead>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LBV1l.png) | I did some searching, and here are a few close examples:
Bungee Hairline-
<https://fonts.google.com/specimen/Bungee+Hairline>
Unica One-
<https://fonts.google.com/specimen/Unica+One>
Sadly, none of these meet your exact needs, but they could serve as good inspiration. |
140,850 | Which header do you think is better?
1. Light grey:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/P3Md7.png)
2. White with shadow
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VJD1M.png) | 2021/08/30 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/140850",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/124620/"
] | Let me provide you with a contradictory opinion on what is happening with both backgrounds.
**1. GREY BACKGROUND:** This background is the same as the page background. So it does not ask for any attention and **all the attention is diverted to the page content.**
**2. WHITE BACKGROUND:** This standout from the grey page hence it also asks for attention. Thus the **user's attention is divided between the header and the page content.**
The final decision rests with you. If the header is not too important i.e functionally then I would suggest the Grey Background. If it is your need to get the user's attention towards the header then White Background.
**My preference is GREY BACKGROUND.** | There is no significant difference.
But the white background version is a little bit better because of:
1. Contrast Ratio between text-link (Hooman) and the background will be bigger, but those elements have been passed the minimal CR requirements (4.5:1).
[enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H4eXy.png)
===================================================================
2. Navigation with white BG is more consistent. The local navigation (Public profile, Settings, Payment) and related content have an artboard that is used to separate BG and content area. The same principle can be used for consistency in global navigation.
[enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DwV6E.png)
------------------------------------------------------------------- |
524,264 | I hope this is the right place to ask this question.
I have a simple azure website with a linked sql azure DB. I want to be able to back up both the ftp files and the SQL DB. What is the best option for this? I know I can log into the ftp and just copy the files somewhere as well as a db backup.
**QUESTION:** Is there is a built in Azure backup process that I can **restore to a previous point**.
For example, If I update my code and break my site but don't know what happened, can I restore both files and DB to yesterday or 2 hours ago? Does that make sense?
I have already read [this page](http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/services/backup/) and it was no help
[This MSDN forum](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/windowsazure/en-US/8c20d282-8711-4c48-9824-d691f5dcf747/taking-backups-from-azure-websites) seems to indicate that this "restore point" is not available.
So I am looking for confirmation or other options
Thanks in advance | 2013/07/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/524264",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/181055/"
] | You can run both mail server and web server in the same VPS, but considering that losing access to mail server these days is quite unacceptable, consider running a HA solution with two VPS so that you have access to email even if one of your servers fail. If you can't use a HA solution, at least run a backup MX server with decent spam filtering, so that you will not lose email when your primary MX is offline.
A common mistake when running webhosting is serving DNS from the same VPS/physical server as the web server, so when that server fails you cannot serve an "service offline" notice to visitors. If you run a secondary server as backup MX, run your secondary DNS server on it for added bonus. | >
> are there any reasons not to use the same VPS for both?
>
>
>
There are plenty. Security. Reliability. Scalability.
>
> Are there any security downsides to this arrangement I should be aware
> of?
>
>
>
Yes. Any vulnerability in one service could impact the security of the other service. For example, if your website allows uploads and you don't keep your CMS updated an attacker might gain access to your server, which includes emails.
>
> Could this have a negative impact on reliability? The reliability of
> the mail server is more important, but of course the web server is
> important too.
>
>
>
Yes. Spikes in one service could impact the other. For example if you run out of memory or storage on your server this would mean that your website and your email would be impacted. Also if the server goes down for any reason, both services are impacted.
>
> Are there any other issues I should be aware of, or reasons why I
> would need to do things differently from if I was running two
> different servers?
>
>
>
You should consider your backup and disaster recovery plan.
Should you do it (email and web on the same server)?
====================================================
It's completely up to you to decide if the cost benefits outweigh the security, reliability & scalability ones.
Outsourcing your email can save you plenty of time (in planning, servers, backups, downtime, keeping up to date on best practice, spam messages, upgrades) and can certainly be done for free or at a very cost effective rate.
IMPORTANT NOTE
==============
If you already have a Google Apps account **you can add multiple domains** to that and continue to enjoy FREE email.
For example if you had an account that previously allowed 50 free users, and you're only using 2 users currently ... you can add a domain and add a few (up to 48) new users for free. |
172,046 | I am running an LSI raid (Dell Perc 6/i) on my Ubuntu 10.04 server. I want to monitor the raid array but it seems that there is no software for it. The raid drivers are part of the kernel, but I dont see any tools for it. Software that is available, including LSI's own software, does not work.
Are there any FOSS tools to that I can use to monitor LSI raid arrays?
What is available and supported? | 2010/08/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/172046",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/49276/"
] | Give [OMSA](http://linux.dell.com/wiki/index.php/Repository/OMSA) a go. You'll be able to monitor your raid status as well as other server parameters such as memory errors, temperature, etc.
Aditionally if you're integrating this in any FLOSS monitoring tool (Nagios, Hobbit, ...) there are existing plugins as well. | Try MegaCLI.
<http://hwraid.le-vert.net/wiki/DebianPackages> |
92,947 | Is it necessary to soak rice every time before cooking.What happens if you don't soak rice? Does it effect the taste after cooking? If soaking is necessary then, How much time is required to soak rice? | 2018/10/16 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/92947",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/69796/"
] | *Rinsing* the rice is always suggested, it removes the leftover husk, powder from the rice being handled and/or processed, **insect fragments** (you'd be amazed!) and more.
*Soaking* the rice is part of the cooking process. Wild and brown rice benefit from this because they'll more evenly cook '*to the tooth* (al dente)' with less liquid and time; this is how you get a nice and fluffy pilaf. If you don't soak the rice before cooking, it will require more liquid and time, and be more likely to come out clumpy and overcooked.
Most good markets have *dozens* of kinds of rice and each one does best with a different kind of process and finesse. And we haven't even talked about Sushi rice or Arborio (literally: "absorbent") rice yet.
Soaking long-grain or basmati rice has benefits too, depending on how you season it. If you like to cook your rice with *achiote* powder and safflower strands, soaking in some warm water for an hour is really helpful.
Some South East Asian recipes call for the *liquid* where rice was soaked for a few hours as a thickener or ad-hoc liaison. *Tinola* (a brothy chicken dish) is one, *sinigang na baboy* (sour pork soup) another. A fan of either dish can tell when the broth is missing that starchy quality only rice can bring. Rice flour, or cornstarch, even in small amounts, would be too much.
So. `tl;dr;`:
* *Always* wash whole rice for hygienic purposes.
* Consider soaking the rice as part of the technique of cooking it, but make sure it's a conscious decision, e.g. "I think soaking it will yield [result]"
* Pre-packaged parboiled rice usually doesn't need to be washed *or* soaked, follow the packager's directions and your own instincts / experience. | I assume you’re not mixing the terms rinsing and soaking:
Rinsing is for geting rid of excess starch on the surface of the rice. This way it won’t be sticky or be less sticky.
Soaking rice does two things:
1. It will, hydrate the rice grains; thus they will cook slightly faster (dry rice also cooks pretty fast)
2. You extract the surface starches into the soaking water. if you discard the soaking water, it will have similar effects to rinsing the rice. |
92,947 | Is it necessary to soak rice every time before cooking.What happens if you don't soak rice? Does it effect the taste after cooking? If soaking is necessary then, How much time is required to soak rice? | 2018/10/16 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/92947",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/69796/"
] | Rice is going to cook okay even if you don't *soak* it. You do, however, want to wash it until the water runs clear so that you get rid of excess starch and so that it doesn't stick together.
However, if you're worried about arsenic - and apparently this is a thing - soaking the rice would reduce the [arsenic levels](https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/simple-cooking-method-flushes-arsenic-out-of-rice/) significantly. It is not something that's ever kept me up at night, but there are parts of the world where it is worth considering. | I assume you’re not mixing the terms rinsing and soaking:
Rinsing is for geting rid of excess starch on the surface of the rice. This way it won’t be sticky or be less sticky.
Soaking rice does two things:
1. It will, hydrate the rice grains; thus they will cook slightly faster (dry rice also cooks pretty fast)
2. You extract the surface starches into the soaking water. if you discard the soaking water, it will have similar effects to rinsing the rice. |
65,059 | All the hedge knights that I can think of introduced in the series so far - Ser Illifer the Penniless, Ser Duncan the Tall, Ser Pate of the Blue Fork, Ser Shadrich of the Shady Glen, etc. - don't have last names, at least that we know of. The one exception I recall is Ser Creighton Longbough, but there is no mention of a House Longbough on AWOIAF, so this may be a name Ser Creighton has invented, not a House name.
I can't find any information that specifically precludes hedge knights from having House names. But (minor spoilers AFFC)
>
> "Knights they are," said Petyr. "Their gallantry has yet to be demonstrated, but we may hope. Allow me to present Ser Byron, Ser Morgarth, and Ser Shadrich. Sers, the Lady Alayne, my natural and very clever daughter ... with whom I must needs confer, if you will be so good as to excuse us." The three knights bowed and withdrew, though the tall one with the blond hair kissed her hand before taking his leave. "Hedge knights?" said Alayne, when the door had closed.
>
>
>
Which seems to suggest that hedge knights as a rule don't have House names.
So my question is twofold:
* Is there a reason that none of the hedge knights we've met appear to have House names (Ser Creighton possibly notwithstanding)?
* Could someone from a noble House become a hedge knight and retain their House name? | 2014/08/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/65059",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/25915/"
] | Hedge knights are poor, unsworn to any lord or master, and go from one place to another looking for any sort of employment. It's not exactly the life for a noble. Most nobles who become knights have either trained their entire lives in castles, and can therefore find gainful employment, or can always go serve a family member. Even most bastard knights we see aren't hedge knights.
So Sansa probably made a fair assumption in assuming that when Littlefinger names the three knights, none of whom have last names, they're probably hedge knights. But she could have just as easily made that assumption if their clothes, given names, or behavior marked them as common.
There is one more example of a hedge knight with a last name: Ser Hyle Hunt, who journeys with Brienne in *A Feast for Crows*. So it's not a set rule by any means. | I don't think we know why most of the hedge knights we have seen don't have any last names, but a few do:
* [Hyle Hunt](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Hyle_Hunt)
* [Creighton Longbough](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Creighton_Longbough)
* [Clayton Suggs](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Clayton_Suggs)
Hyle is from a noble house (the [Hunt](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/House_Hunt)) from the Reach.
That kind of answers your second question. A person from a noble family *can* be a hedge knight.
The other two are simple/normal people that have become hedge knights. |
65,059 | All the hedge knights that I can think of introduced in the series so far - Ser Illifer the Penniless, Ser Duncan the Tall, Ser Pate of the Blue Fork, Ser Shadrich of the Shady Glen, etc. - don't have last names, at least that we know of. The one exception I recall is Ser Creighton Longbough, but there is no mention of a House Longbough on AWOIAF, so this may be a name Ser Creighton has invented, not a House name.
I can't find any information that specifically precludes hedge knights from having House names. But (minor spoilers AFFC)
>
> "Knights they are," said Petyr. "Their gallantry has yet to be demonstrated, but we may hope. Allow me to present Ser Byron, Ser Morgarth, and Ser Shadrich. Sers, the Lady Alayne, my natural and very clever daughter ... with whom I must needs confer, if you will be so good as to excuse us." The three knights bowed and withdrew, though the tall one with the blond hair kissed her hand before taking his leave. "Hedge knights?" said Alayne, when the door had closed.
>
>
>
Which seems to suggest that hedge knights as a rule don't have House names.
So my question is twofold:
* Is there a reason that none of the hedge knights we've met appear to have House names (Ser Creighton possibly notwithstanding)?
* Could someone from a noble House become a hedge knight and retain their House name? | 2014/08/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/65059",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/25915/"
] | The only people in Westeros who have last names are the nobles.
---------------------------------------------------------------
The rest of the populace go by a single name: Pate, Wat, Will ... etc. Sometimes with a qualifier to differentiate people who have the same name *and* live in the same place, like the villagers recruited in *Sworn Sword* (Wet Wat and Barleycorn Wat). It is only a nobleman, that belongs to a noble house, who can have a *proper* last name denoting his lineage. So Robb of house Stark is Robb Stark.
Now knights are in an interesting place. They have an honorific placed in front of their names, are a step above the commoners, but that honorific doesn't come with anything else. No lands, thus no noble house, thus no last name. So unless a knight is already of noble birth, he won't get a last name just by being knighted.
Hedge knights, by definition, are poor knights who are not sworn to any single lord on a permanent basis. The vast majority of them are of common stock, since nobly born knights tend to find employment easier with other nobles, which gives us a lot of knights living in the hedges with no last name. To give themselves proper *airs* most of those titleless knights adopt a qualifier of some sort to distinguish them. A home village (Ser Arlan of Pennytree), or a physical trait (Ser Duncan the Tall), and so on. | I don't think we know why most of the hedge knights we have seen don't have any last names, but a few do:
* [Hyle Hunt](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Hyle_Hunt)
* [Creighton Longbough](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Creighton_Longbough)
* [Clayton Suggs](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/Clayton_Suggs)
Hyle is from a noble house (the [Hunt](http://awoiaf.westeros.org/index.php/House_Hunt)) from the Reach.
That kind of answers your second question. A person from a noble family *can* be a hedge knight.
The other two are simple/normal people that have become hedge knights. |
65,059 | All the hedge knights that I can think of introduced in the series so far - Ser Illifer the Penniless, Ser Duncan the Tall, Ser Pate of the Blue Fork, Ser Shadrich of the Shady Glen, etc. - don't have last names, at least that we know of. The one exception I recall is Ser Creighton Longbough, but there is no mention of a House Longbough on AWOIAF, so this may be a name Ser Creighton has invented, not a House name.
I can't find any information that specifically precludes hedge knights from having House names. But (minor spoilers AFFC)
>
> "Knights they are," said Petyr. "Their gallantry has yet to be demonstrated, but we may hope. Allow me to present Ser Byron, Ser Morgarth, and Ser Shadrich. Sers, the Lady Alayne, my natural and very clever daughter ... with whom I must needs confer, if you will be so good as to excuse us." The three knights bowed and withdrew, though the tall one with the blond hair kissed her hand before taking his leave. "Hedge knights?" said Alayne, when the door had closed.
>
>
>
Which seems to suggest that hedge knights as a rule don't have House names.
So my question is twofold:
* Is there a reason that none of the hedge knights we've met appear to have House names (Ser Creighton possibly notwithstanding)?
* Could someone from a noble House become a hedge knight and retain their House name? | 2014/08/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/65059",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/25915/"
] | The only people in Westeros who have last names are the nobles.
---------------------------------------------------------------
The rest of the populace go by a single name: Pate, Wat, Will ... etc. Sometimes with a qualifier to differentiate people who have the same name *and* live in the same place, like the villagers recruited in *Sworn Sword* (Wet Wat and Barleycorn Wat). It is only a nobleman, that belongs to a noble house, who can have a *proper* last name denoting his lineage. So Robb of house Stark is Robb Stark.
Now knights are in an interesting place. They have an honorific placed in front of their names, are a step above the commoners, but that honorific doesn't come with anything else. No lands, thus no noble house, thus no last name. So unless a knight is already of noble birth, he won't get a last name just by being knighted.
Hedge knights, by definition, are poor knights who are not sworn to any single lord on a permanent basis. The vast majority of them are of common stock, since nobly born knights tend to find employment easier with other nobles, which gives us a lot of knights living in the hedges with no last name. To give themselves proper *airs* most of those titleless knights adopt a qualifier of some sort to distinguish them. A home village (Ser Arlan of Pennytree), or a physical trait (Ser Duncan the Tall), and so on. | Hedge knights are poor, unsworn to any lord or master, and go from one place to another looking for any sort of employment. It's not exactly the life for a noble. Most nobles who become knights have either trained their entire lives in castles, and can therefore find gainful employment, or can always go serve a family member. Even most bastard knights we see aren't hedge knights.
So Sansa probably made a fair assumption in assuming that when Littlefinger names the three knights, none of whom have last names, they're probably hedge knights. But she could have just as easily made that assumption if their clothes, given names, or behavior marked them as common.
There is one more example of a hedge knight with a last name: Ser Hyle Hunt, who journeys with Brienne in *A Feast for Crows*. So it's not a set rule by any means. |
65,059 | All the hedge knights that I can think of introduced in the series so far - Ser Illifer the Penniless, Ser Duncan the Tall, Ser Pate of the Blue Fork, Ser Shadrich of the Shady Glen, etc. - don't have last names, at least that we know of. The one exception I recall is Ser Creighton Longbough, but there is no mention of a House Longbough on AWOIAF, so this may be a name Ser Creighton has invented, not a House name.
I can't find any information that specifically precludes hedge knights from having House names. But (minor spoilers AFFC)
>
> "Knights they are," said Petyr. "Their gallantry has yet to be demonstrated, but we may hope. Allow me to present Ser Byron, Ser Morgarth, and Ser Shadrich. Sers, the Lady Alayne, my natural and very clever daughter ... with whom I must needs confer, if you will be so good as to excuse us." The three knights bowed and withdrew, though the tall one with the blond hair kissed her hand before taking his leave. "Hedge knights?" said Alayne, when the door had closed.
>
>
>
Which seems to suggest that hedge knights as a rule don't have House names.
So my question is twofold:
* Is there a reason that none of the hedge knights we've met appear to have House names (Ser Creighton possibly notwithstanding)?
* Could someone from a noble House become a hedge knight and retain their House name? | 2014/08/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/65059",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/25915/"
] | Hedge knights are poor, unsworn to any lord or master, and go from one place to another looking for any sort of employment. It's not exactly the life for a noble. Most nobles who become knights have either trained their entire lives in castles, and can therefore find gainful employment, or can always go serve a family member. Even most bastard knights we see aren't hedge knights.
So Sansa probably made a fair assumption in assuming that when Littlefinger names the three knights, none of whom have last names, they're probably hedge knights. But she could have just as easily made that assumption if their clothes, given names, or behavior marked them as common.
There is one more example of a hedge knight with a last name: Ser Hyle Hunt, who journeys with Brienne in *A Feast for Crows*. So it's not a set rule by any means. | We know why Ser Duncan the Tall doesn't have a last name because his background is described in the short story [The Hedge Knight](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tales_of_Dunk_and_Egg#The_Hedge_Knight) (I'm assuming it's the same person). Actually, having just searched for a link to the story I see there are two sequels that I haven't read - maybe there is more in them.
Anyhow, Ser Duncan was found as a small boy living wild and sort of adopted by another hedge knight (I don't think we ever learn his mentor's name). He made up his name when asked what it was on the grounds his mentor had called him Duncan and he was tall - nothing if not logical.
The implication is that anyone can be a hedge knight just by behaving as one. Given what a miserable life it is (the story states hedge knights have been known to become robbers during lean times) the role isn't likely to appeal to anyone with enough status to have a last name. |
65,059 | All the hedge knights that I can think of introduced in the series so far - Ser Illifer the Penniless, Ser Duncan the Tall, Ser Pate of the Blue Fork, Ser Shadrich of the Shady Glen, etc. - don't have last names, at least that we know of. The one exception I recall is Ser Creighton Longbough, but there is no mention of a House Longbough on AWOIAF, so this may be a name Ser Creighton has invented, not a House name.
I can't find any information that specifically precludes hedge knights from having House names. But (minor spoilers AFFC)
>
> "Knights they are," said Petyr. "Their gallantry has yet to be demonstrated, but we may hope. Allow me to present Ser Byron, Ser Morgarth, and Ser Shadrich. Sers, the Lady Alayne, my natural and very clever daughter ... with whom I must needs confer, if you will be so good as to excuse us." The three knights bowed and withdrew, though the tall one with the blond hair kissed her hand before taking his leave. "Hedge knights?" said Alayne, when the door had closed.
>
>
>
Which seems to suggest that hedge knights as a rule don't have House names.
So my question is twofold:
* Is there a reason that none of the hedge knights we've met appear to have House names (Ser Creighton possibly notwithstanding)?
* Could someone from a noble House become a hedge knight and retain their House name? | 2014/08/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/65059",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/25915/"
] | The only people in Westeros who have last names are the nobles.
---------------------------------------------------------------
The rest of the populace go by a single name: Pate, Wat, Will ... etc. Sometimes with a qualifier to differentiate people who have the same name *and* live in the same place, like the villagers recruited in *Sworn Sword* (Wet Wat and Barleycorn Wat). It is only a nobleman, that belongs to a noble house, who can have a *proper* last name denoting his lineage. So Robb of house Stark is Robb Stark.
Now knights are in an interesting place. They have an honorific placed in front of their names, are a step above the commoners, but that honorific doesn't come with anything else. No lands, thus no noble house, thus no last name. So unless a knight is already of noble birth, he won't get a last name just by being knighted.
Hedge knights, by definition, are poor knights who are not sworn to any single lord on a permanent basis. The vast majority of them are of common stock, since nobly born knights tend to find employment easier with other nobles, which gives us a lot of knights living in the hedges with no last name. To give themselves proper *airs* most of those titleless knights adopt a qualifier of some sort to distinguish them. A home village (Ser Arlan of Pennytree), or a physical trait (Ser Duncan the Tall), and so on. | We know why Ser Duncan the Tall doesn't have a last name because his background is described in the short story [The Hedge Knight](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tales_of_Dunk_and_Egg#The_Hedge_Knight) (I'm assuming it's the same person). Actually, having just searched for a link to the story I see there are two sequels that I haven't read - maybe there is more in them.
Anyhow, Ser Duncan was found as a small boy living wild and sort of adopted by another hedge knight (I don't think we ever learn his mentor's name). He made up his name when asked what it was on the grounds his mentor had called him Duncan and he was tall - nothing if not logical.
The implication is that anyone can be a hedge knight just by behaving as one. Given what a miserable life it is (the story states hedge knights have been known to become robbers during lean times) the role isn't likely to appeal to anyone with enough status to have a last name. |
118,608 | I think utorrent has been consuming lots of bandwidth and my connection is not that fast.
How do I set it so that it consumes the less possible bandwidth?
I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps. Together with the download bandwidth allocation set to low. I even exited utorrent but it seems that it is still consuming lots of bandwidth. How do I solve this one? | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/118608",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/23950/"
] | Try to limit the number of max connections. A lot of routers/modems have a limited number of connections they support (Windows does too by the way).
uTorrent can make lots and lots of connections, resulting in a slow network no matter if you actually download/upload at all. | >
> I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps.
>
>
>
I believe that affects only the actual torrent data exchange.
You might also want to turn off DHT. |
118,608 | I think utorrent has been consuming lots of bandwidth and my connection is not that fast.
How do I set it so that it consumes the less possible bandwidth?
I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps. Together with the download bandwidth allocation set to low. I even exited utorrent but it seems that it is still consuming lots of bandwidth. How do I solve this one? | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/118608",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/23950/"
] | Try to limit the number of max connections. A lot of routers/modems have a limited number of connections they support (Windows does too by the way).
uTorrent can make lots and lots of connections, resulting in a slow network no matter if you actually download/upload at all. | Devices like home routers usually have problems when it comes to high number of simultaneous connections. Having many open connections is way more of a problem than bandwidth. Limit the number of open connection to 80 from your .torrent client.
It should be enough to up/down and not overkill anything in the process.
When you don'y use it, exit it (by right click and exit), as said by ChrisF. |
118,608 | I think utorrent has been consuming lots of bandwidth and my connection is not that fast.
How do I set it so that it consumes the less possible bandwidth?
I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps. Together with the download bandwidth allocation set to low. I even exited utorrent but it seems that it is still consuming lots of bandwidth. How do I solve this one? | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/118608",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/23950/"
] | Don't forget that closing uTorrent via the [x] at the top right doesn't actually exit the program. It closes the UI but keeps the process running - there should be an icon in the system tray.
To completely close uTorrent you have to select **File > Exit**. | >
> I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps.
>
>
>
I believe that affects only the actual torrent data exchange.
You might also want to turn off DHT. |
118,608 | I think utorrent has been consuming lots of bandwidth and my connection is not that fast.
How do I set it so that it consumes the less possible bandwidth?
I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps. Together with the download bandwidth allocation set to low. I even exited utorrent but it seems that it is still consuming lots of bandwidth. How do I solve this one? | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/118608",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/23950/"
] | Don't forget that closing uTorrent via the [x] at the top right doesn't actually exit the program. It closes the UI but keeps the process running - there should be an icon in the system tray.
To completely close uTorrent you have to select **File > Exit**. | Devices like home routers usually have problems when it comes to high number of simultaneous connections. Having many open connections is way more of a problem than bandwidth. Limit the number of open connection to 80 from your .torrent client.
It should be enough to up/down and not overkill anything in the process.
When you don'y use it, exit it (by right click and exit), as said by ChrisF. |
118,608 | I think utorrent has been consuming lots of bandwidth and my connection is not that fast.
How do I set it so that it consumes the less possible bandwidth?
I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps. Together with the download bandwidth allocation set to low. I even exited utorrent but it seems that it is still consuming lots of bandwidth. How do I solve this one? | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/118608",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/23950/"
] | >
> I've tried setting its download and upload limit to 1kbps.
>
>
>
I believe that affects only the actual torrent data exchange.
You might also want to turn off DHT. | Devices like home routers usually have problems when it comes to high number of simultaneous connections. Having many open connections is way more of a problem than bandwidth. Limit the number of open connection to 80 from your .torrent client.
It should be enough to up/down and not overkill anything in the process.
When you don'y use it, exit it (by right click and exit), as said by ChrisF. |
2,773 | Como anticipamos en [las ideas de la retrospectiva de 2017](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/a/2766/5481), los moderadores hemos estado trabajando en incorporar un concurso-recopilación con las mejores respuestas de cada trimestre. Esto es algo que sabemos que [se hace en otros stacks](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2718/rewards-for-the-best-answer-from-the-1st-quarter-of-2017) y creemos que podría ser beneficioso para el nuestro.
Básicamente, crearíamos un meta-post con la pregunta "¿Cuáles han sido las mejores respuestas de [tal trimestre de tal año]?", que incluiría un enlace a una consulta (a <http://data.stackexchange.com>) que tendría un enlace a una lista de respuestas publicadas ese trimestre. Responderíamos con publicaciones con un enlace a una respuesta y una breve explicación de por qué pensamos que ha sido una de las mejores preguntas del trimestre. El sistema de votos del stack convertiría entonces el hilo en una especie de "concurso de popularidad". Se admitirían múltiples "entradas" por usuario (no múltiples respuestas en una misma publicación, pero sí más de una respuesta por usuario) y se podrían nominar las respuestas de uno mismo.
A las respuestas con más votos les daríamos una recompensa (cortesía mía) de, propongamos, 150, 100 y 50 puntos al primer, segundo y tercer puesto respectivamente.
Objetivos (¿por qué hacemos esto?)
----------------------------------
Creemos que esto puede ser interesante porque:
* Añadiría un pelín más de motivación a crear buenas respuestas de calidad.
* Motivaría para revisar contenido del sitio. Tenemos grandes aportaciones en el stack que nos han hecho aprender un montón de cosas. Ahora, con los pocos post que tenemos por día parece que es fácil estar al tanto de todos, pero al revisar cuáles han sido los mejores post de un trimestre (tanto al evaluar respuestas como al ver las propuestas de otros) podemos encontrarnos con algo que no vimos o con algo que al releer podemos entender y aprender mejor (un poco de refuerzo).
* Daría visibilidad a potenciales joyas que en su momento pasaron desapercibidas.
* Animaría a votar buenas preguntas, si no lo hicimos en su momento. [Me repito hasta la saciedad con este tema](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2446/5481), pero al premiar el contenido de calidad recompensamos a quienes dedican su tiempo a crearlo, validamos el contenido del sitio y damos reputación a usuarios, para que se puedan hacer cargo de tareas de moderación. Tenemos incluso multitud de medallas que se entregan por tareas relacionadas con votos.
* Conocer post existentes ayudaría a identificar duplicados.
* Sería divertido (miradlo como un "[translation-golf](https://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/translation-golf "show questions tagged 'translation-golf'") para Meta").
No sería dificil ir refinando la idea a través de sucesivas iteraciones del "concurso", pero como en todo post-discusión queremos dar voz antes de implementarlo para expresar cualquier tipo de duda, queja, oposición o idea que pueda contribuir a mejorarlo. Por ejemplo:
* la consulta, ¿debería ser lo más "ciega" posible, para no tener un sesgo de ir solo a revisar las preguntas que ya tienen más votos o a nuestros usuarios favoritos?
* dudas sobre el mecanismo, como "¿puedo nominar una pregunta del [translation-golf](https://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/translation-golf "show questions tagged 'translation-golf'") si me ha hecho aprender algo muy interesante o es sobresaliente en otro aspecto?" | 2018/01/12 | [
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2773",
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/users/5481/"
] | Me parece una gran idea por la parte de dar visibilidad a las respuestas y premiar buen contenido (en un stack en el que, habiendo tan pocos votantes, puede costar un poco conseguir reputación si no estás todos los días en la brecha).
El tema de las recompensas, creo que convendría aplicarlo solo a usuarios que aún no hayan alcanzado cierta reputación, por ejemplo 5000 (que es cuando te dan el último [privilegio de moderación](https://spanish.stackexchange.com/help/privileges)). De lo contrario, nos arriesgamos a que las recompensas vayan a parar siempre a usuarios que ya de por sí suelen ser los más votados, con lo que el concurso perdería parte de su sentido. De hecho, quizá sería mejor aplicar ese límite al concurso en sí, por los mismos motivos.
En cuanto a las respuestas del TG, bueno :D Dudo que nadie las vaya a encontrar "mejores" que las respuestas a preguntas normales, que son mucho más informativas, pero no pasa nada por incluirlas.
Un apunte sobre las recompensas y el [mecanismo de *bounties* de SE](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/16067/362105):
>
> ### What is the minimum amount of rep I can offer a bounty for?
>
>
> For most questions, 50 reputation. There are some exceptions, though:
>
>
> * If you have already answered the question before, the minimum bounty offer is 100.
> * If you have already offered a bounty on the question before, the minimum offer is double your last offer (see below).
>
>
>
Comento esto porque, para poder dar recompensas de 50, 100 y 150, seguramente os tendréis que repartir el trabajo :) Nos pasó con el especial de TG ;) | Para empezar ya con el último semestre/trimestre de 2017, abogo por no hacer filtro por usuarios. Si luego vemos que se desmadra, ya perfilamos. Es que si esperamos un poco ya no nos acordaremos de qué se coció en el sitio durante ese trimestre :)
Por ejemplo, con este filtro tenemos las respuestas del cuarto trimestre de 2017: <https://spanish.stackexchange.com/search?q=is%3Aanswer+created%3A2017-10..2017-12>
Tomando de la pregunta equivalente en Movies.SE, [Favourite questions and answers from the 4th quarter of 2017](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/q/4104/4078), tendríamos estas consultas para Spanish.SE:
* [Preguntas del cuarto trimestre con más visitas](https://data.stackexchange.com/spanish/query/738288/questions-with-most-views-created-within-3-month-range?StartDate=2017/10/01)
* [Preguntas del cuarto trimestre con más votos](https://data.stackexchange.com/spanish/query/738289/questions-with-best-score-created-within-3-month-range?StartDate=2017/10/01)
* [Respuestas del cuarto trimestre con más votos](https://data.stackexchange.com/spanish/query/738290/answers-with-best-score-created-within-3-month-range?StartDate=2017/10/01) |
2,428,713 | I've used this official [tutorial](http://developer.android.com/guide/developing/device.html) to setup my machine so it could detect my Android devices. But from some reason ADB doesn't detects any of my devices properly(Hero and Magic), ie it doesn't show device's IMEI or Firmware version but a bunch of question marks:
>
> ?????????????
>
>
>
I've tried googling for a solution but I've found nothing. | 2010/03/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2428713",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/291899/"
] | The same problem on Ubuntu 9.10 x64 + HTC Desire
Solution:
* Create/edit a udev rules file: "sudo vim /etc/udev/rules.d/51-android.rules"
* Add the following line: SUBSYSTEM=="usb", SYSFS{idVendor}=="0bb4", MODE="0666"
Here 0bb4 is HTC id. You can "lsusb" to list your vendor id.
* Restart udev: "sudo reload udev"
* Connect device
* Run "adb devices"
and you should see your device
Taked from: <http://alan.lamielle.net/2010/01/22/nexus-one-usb-in-ubuntu-9-10> | >
> The last thing I've done is adding the
> android /tools directory to the system
> path
>
>
>
Then your problem isn't that ADB doesn't detect you device, you doesn't even running the ADB. |
179,074 | I'm having fun compositing some videos on Blender and it's awesome. However, when I'm done compositing a video and start rendering with both Compositor and Sequencer checked, the video renders with audio BUT no compositing effect that I added is rendered (only raw video and audio are rendered)
When I uncheck Sequencer and leave only Compositor checked, the video is rendered with the compositing effects that I added, BUT no audio is rendered! Why?
Here are some screenshots of my set up:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vf1lQ.jpg) | 2020/05/20 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/179074",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/96897/"
] | **Does this solve your question?**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/67mXS.gif) | Although the other answer helps, it doesn't include what you may need with the VSE (the audio setting will try to get audio from the scene). I was able to replicate your problem and resolve it with the VSE. Here are the essentials:
First, a scene with your compositing setup:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G7LRF.png)
Check the compositing checkbox but not the VSE.
Second, create a new scene (in 2.9x at least, a scene can't use itself in the VSE), open up the VSE. Add the original video - this will add an audio and video track. You can delete or hide the video track, but keep the audio (and be sure your frame rate matches! This syncs the audio). Then, add your first scene (which has your compositing setup) as a track above any other video. It will show your 3D camera view, but don't worry - as long as you check compositing in the first scene, you'll be fine.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3TbuQ.png)
Make sure the sequencer post-processing checkbox is checked for the second scene, and then render out the video. :) |
7,554,508 | I am using Visio professional 2003. It was working fine. But now when I copy and paste any shapes it showing the error "Open clipboard failed". After that I am not able to change any properties or name.
When I try to close the window it is showing warning as "You cant quit visio program because a program is handling an event from visio. If VBA at break point, reset VBA, then quit"
Can anyone tell me what the problem is? | 2011/09/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7554508",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/792277/"
] | this has been a problem with Visio for 7 years and the last 3 versions of the product([Visio 2003](http://www.dotnet247.com/247reference/msgs/42/214420.aspx) to [Visio 2010](http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en-AU/visiogeneral/thread/5f3b6b7b-e206-4c9e-b54a-cf430a7cc7ac)).
The issue happens if you are running some other clipboard manager, like [ditto](http://ditto-cp.sourceforge.net/) or [similar](http://www.techsupportalert.com/best-free-clipboard-replacement-utility.htm#Quick_Selection_Guide). The only thing you can do is use task manager to kill visio, then disable any clipboard manager you are using and restart visio. | It is working fine after i restarted the system. |
7,554,508 | I am using Visio professional 2003. It was working fine. But now when I copy and paste any shapes it showing the error "Open clipboard failed". After that I am not able to change any properties or name.
When I try to close the window it is showing warning as "You cant quit visio program because a program is handling an event from visio. If VBA at break point, reset VBA, then quit"
Can anyone tell me what the problem is? | 2011/09/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7554508",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/792277/"
] | this has been a problem with Visio for 7 years and the last 3 versions of the product([Visio 2003](http://www.dotnet247.com/247reference/msgs/42/214420.aspx) to [Visio 2010](http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en-AU/visiogeneral/thread/5f3b6b7b-e206-4c9e-b54a-cf430a7cc7ac)).
The issue happens if you are running some other clipboard manager, like [ditto](http://ditto-cp.sourceforge.net/) or [similar](http://www.techsupportalert.com/best-free-clipboard-replacement-utility.htm#Quick_Selection_Guide). The only thing you can do is use task manager to kill visio, then disable any clipboard manager you are using and restart visio. | I'd like to ring in that I had this issue when a Citrix session remoting to server 1 which was remoting to server 2 went into "triple lock": The screen saver in all three servers had kicked in. Ditto went crazy as did every app that I used the clipboard in.
Once I unlocked the sessions (which were lagging like crazy) everything went back to normal. |
7,554,508 | I am using Visio professional 2003. It was working fine. But now when I copy and paste any shapes it showing the error "Open clipboard failed". After that I am not able to change any properties or name.
When I try to close the window it is showing warning as "You cant quit visio program because a program is handling an event from visio. If VBA at break point, reset VBA, then quit"
Can anyone tell me what the problem is? | 2011/09/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7554508",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/792277/"
] | this has been a problem with Visio for 7 years and the last 3 versions of the product([Visio 2003](http://www.dotnet247.com/247reference/msgs/42/214420.aspx) to [Visio 2010](http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en-AU/visiogeneral/thread/5f3b6b7b-e206-4c9e-b54a-cf430a7cc7ac)).
The issue happens if you are running some other clipboard manager, like [ditto](http://ditto-cp.sourceforge.net/) or [similar](http://www.techsupportalert.com/best-free-clipboard-replacement-utility.htm#Quick_Selection_Guide). The only thing you can do is use task manager to kill visio, then disable any clipboard manager you are using and restart visio. | On my side the issue was coming from Citrix. Thx for pointing that out Vincent. |
23,235 | **What practical methods should citizens be using to protect themselves against, and reduce the impact of an attack against critical national infrastructure**
A lot of recent news about critical network infrastructure under DDoS attacks, for example GoDaddy. Furthermore with the discovery of APTs like Stuxnet and flame the danger of cyber war is beginning. The U.S. Defense Secretary said that if we don't secure our computer systems and networks they will be on the way to destruction. So I'm wondering, what practical methods should citizens be using to protect themselves against, and reduce the impact of a Cyber Pearl Harbor?
According to my threat model I divided computer systems into tiers. Each higher tier should follow everything lowers tiers do and more. The lowest is regular computer users - primarily they need to protect against becoming infected as part of a zombie botnet, but also becoming infected so that any removable media could not infect their workplaces (a higher tier priority).
Regular people:
* Strong (high entropy and salted) Passwords Changed Monthly
* Full Disk Encryption and External Hard Drive (reduce the attack surface to modify your computer data to one of: physical access, remote code execution..) compartmentalizing threat models. with regular backups.
* Firewall and no unnecessary services:
* Disable vulnerable software java and flash
* HTTPS everywhere (block interception and man in the middle attacks.. make sure all devices check certificates correctly)
* Tor over VPN (anonymity + privacy).
* ensure wireless router is not usable for DDOS by reflection attacks
* Cryptographically Signed Daily Software Upgrade (protection against all patched exploits: only have to worry about 0-days).
* System installer disks: If you get a virus or suspect a rootkit just wipe the computer and start again
* Offline computers: A "backup" computer not connected to the internet at all
Businesses:
* Regular business security practices and certifications plus:
* Encrypted Cloud Services: check that cloud computer services you use encrypt so that they cannot leak information to cyber attackers
* Large scale Cooperation with LE via Counter surveillance of alien packets.
* PGP encrypted emails.
* 2 factor Authentication to protect against phishing and social engineering.
* Censorship of propaganda against for recruitment: [UN report urges internet strategy against terrorism](http://news.techeye.net/internet/un-report-urges-internet-strategy-against-terrorism)
CAs: It is unknown how Certificate Authority should operate in a time of cyber war. Due to the danger of another DigiNotar it should perhaps be supported by the web of trust, also using "offline" methods such as IPoAC to issue certificate revocations.
Drones: hackers may attempt reprogram surveillance drones to operate offensively.
This is the highest priority so they will have the strictest security measures of all include the Obama "red button" to completely disable network operation of the country. Also in dire circumstances maybe assemble a "hack back" counter attack team to produce a worm which is capable of shutting down the entire worlds internet parallel to the cold war standoff? | 2012/10/26 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/23235",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/15345/"
] | Cyber Pearl Harbor is a really stupid term used by people who don't know the first thing about IT security, or those who do but want to get in the newspapers. "Cyber warfare" and "Cyber terrorism" are also examples of terms being bandied about by those looking to get sound bites or a higher IT security budget. It's all complete, total nonsense, and using these types of phrases could cause the industry lose credibility. It is also short-termist thinking. These problems are going to go away because the USAF builds a "cyber-command center".
Don't get me wrong, IT Security is a big, expensive problem which needs the investment of time and money from governments, organizations, and individuals to maintain. However, the notion of there being some sort of massive, all-out cyber attack that could "cripple a nation's infrastructure" and "bring it to its knees" is all hollywood.
The main problems with most of the infrastructure at risk from "cyber warfare" is that it's badly managed and out of date. People talk about the threat of these massive government-sponsored cyber warfare groups as if they are incredibly knowledgeable and sophisticated to be able to hack into things, when in reality it's the complete lack of patching and basic protective mechanisms making it easy for them to do. Most of the threat vectors into this critical infrastructure are well-known and solved vulnerabilities, so if they simply patched the systems and put in some basic network security measures it would make intrusion an order of magnitude more difficult. The talking heads are saying we need a "cyber response", when I say we need **patching**!
All this talk about cyber this and cyber that annoys me, and talk of "do this list of things and you'll be protected from the cyber pearl harbor" is misleading, because that list is out of date or incomplete by the time you click on submit. IT security is ever-evolving, not preparation for some sort of single cataclysm event. It's still going to be just as relevant 100 years from now, so start thinking long-term! | The phrase Cyber Pearl Harbor is silliness, typically used by people who are trying to drum up money for their agency or business among politicians in Washington, DC.
I suspect you are asking what we can do to protect ourselves from attacks on our critical infrastructure. If so, here's my take:
**What can citizens do?** Nothing. You can't do anything to make critical infrastructure more secure. Talk to your representatives in government, if you really care.
More realistically, you can stock up bottled water, canned goods, a first aid kit, and other supplies in your basement so that if there is a natural disaster or other failure of infrastructure, you can last for a few weeks on your own. This is just good practice regardless of any "cyber"-hype, as everyone who lives in earthquake country lives.
See also [Schneier's take on this subject](https://www.schneier.com/blog/archives/2012/10/stoking_cyber_f.html).
**Last word.** No discussion of this subject is complete without a reference to the following web site: <http://willusingtheprefixcybermakemelooklikeanidiot.com/> |
154,953 | Is there a way to send a 'form' to your Contacts (not registered as Users), get their reply and update their respective contact record based on the replies.
Has anyone done this before?
Till now I have,
1) create a **public site** with
2) a **visualforce page** accessing a **visual workflow** screen as form which
3) updates the contact record
3) Send site URL through **email** manually.
Thank you | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/154953",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/14745/"
] | Your approach is fine, but site guest user does not have update permission on contact, so your flow will need to write to a custom object and you can use process builder or autolaunched flow to update contact record.
I wrote up a post around using flows as a replacement for stay in touch that is similar to what you are doing
<http://goravseth.com/replacement-for-stay-in-touch-using-flows>
Note that I do not know if this approach violates Salesforce terms of use, since it bypasses the restriction on site guest user updating contact, so keep that in mind. | According to me the best way is -
1. Create a visualforce page as form.
2. Host that page on your public site.
3. Create a button on the contact detail page that will shoot the email for that particular record.
4. You should have an email template pointing to that public site url and should have the contact id or any unique id that will identify the contact to which the response will be recorded.
5. The #3 and #4 will be linked thru an another visualforce page which will be responsible to shoot email (the controller of this visualforce page will select the email template that you created in #4). |
2,701,576 | *This is a multipart Index question:*
1. Is there a way one can create index
on index?
2. Why would one wish to to so?
3. And if so, are there any examples? | 2010/04/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2701576",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/319280/"
] | **NO**, Indexes are meant for **COLUMNS IN TABLES**
[How MySQL Uses Indexes](http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/mysql-indexes.html)
>
> Indexes are used to find rows with
> specific column values quickly.
> Without an index, MySQL must begin
> with the first row and then read
> through the entire table to find the
> relevant rows. The larger the table,
> the more this costs. If the table has
> an index for the columns in question,
> MySQL can quickly determine the
> position to seek to in the middle of
> the data file without having to look
> at all the data. If a table has 1,000
> rows, this is at least 100 times
> faster than reading sequentially.
>
>
> | You can see from syntax diagram for [create index](http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/statements_5010.htm) in the oracle documentation that it does not apply to indexes.
Nor can I think of a reason you would want to. |
2,701,576 | *This is a multipart Index question:*
1. Is there a way one can create index
on index?
2. Why would one wish to to so?
3. And if so, are there any examples? | 2010/04/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2701576",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/319280/"
] | **NO**, Indexes are meant for **COLUMNS IN TABLES**
[How MySQL Uses Indexes](http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/mysql-indexes.html)
>
> Indexes are used to find rows with
> specific column values quickly.
> Without an index, MySQL must begin
> with the first row and then read
> through the entire table to find the
> relevant rows. The larger the table,
> the more this costs. If the table has
> an index for the columns in question,
> MySQL can quickly determine the
> position to seek to in the middle of
> the data file without having to look
> at all the data. If a table has 1,000
> rows, this is at least 100 times
> faster than reading sequentially.
>
>
> | An index is already sorted so really you probably do not want to create an index to one as such. You might, however, if doing low-level programming, want to store a subset of an index, say every 1024th or every 2048th record, in memory or a smaller area of disk, so you can look there first and search where in the bigger index a record lies.
The "square root" rule works well here. So if the table has 4 million entries, that is 2048 \* 2048 (approx). You "load" 2048 records and then find which 2048 record section of the main index you need to load in order to find the record, thus you load only 2 blocks in total rather than having to binary-search through 2048 blocks.
This can be a huge optimisation but it is for low-level programmers, i.e. developers of database tools, not users of them. |
2,701,576 | *This is a multipart Index question:*
1. Is there a way one can create index
on index?
2. Why would one wish to to so?
3. And if so, are there any examples? | 2010/04/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2701576",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/319280/"
] | You can see from syntax diagram for [create index](http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/statements_5010.htm) in the oracle documentation that it does not apply to indexes.
Nor can I think of a reason you would want to. | An index is already sorted so really you probably do not want to create an index to one as such. You might, however, if doing low-level programming, want to store a subset of an index, say every 1024th or every 2048th record, in memory or a smaller area of disk, so you can look there first and search where in the bigger index a record lies.
The "square root" rule works well here. So if the table has 4 million entries, that is 2048 \* 2048 (approx). You "load" 2048 records and then find which 2048 record section of the main index you need to load in order to find the record, thus you load only 2 blocks in total rather than having to binary-search through 2048 blocks.
This can be a huge optimisation but it is for low-level programmers, i.e. developers of database tools, not users of them. |
52,084 | When I picked up my guitar today I noticed my 1st string was a bizarre 2 semitones flat. I would tune it but the instant I bend it, stretch it, or play for a minute the string goes back down to the exact same note and won't hold tuning any higher.
Granted the strings are 6+ weeks old and I play 6-7 days a week but this only occurs on one of my guitars. I'm using GHS 9's in drop C (easy on the fingers).
Why do the higher strings lose the ability to hold certain tunings? Is there a reason it always detunes to the same note? Is there a way to prevent this so I don't have to change my strings so suddenly?(I only want to change them when I record something high quality). | 2017/01/11 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/52084",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/34897/"
] | Old string do this sometimes. It may be the wrap around the tuning post is slipping, it may be the winding at the ball-end is unravelling, but after all those hours playing, and possibly(?) no cleaning after play means they're ready for changing. They are the sacrificial part of guitars, anyway. Answer to 2nd part - always clean and dry after playing, with clean dry hands, and storing guitar in a static temp. and humidity - away from interested tiny hands. | Older strings just do this with use.. oxidation and the high freq. of the vibrations are just some of the major factors I feel. It could also have something to do with the guitars tuning pegs, a loose screw here can cause this also the nut... if its to tight around a string it can hold it up slightly till that magic moment (the bend) when it lets it slip or even tighten just so. Good luck My friend, I wish I could be of more help. Next time you go by a shop, I would suggest having a pro look at it for you.. wont cost that much if anything and might be worth the hassle just to eliminate a problem that obviously is wearing on you and your practice time. |
52,084 | When I picked up my guitar today I noticed my 1st string was a bizarre 2 semitones flat. I would tune it but the instant I bend it, stretch it, or play for a minute the string goes back down to the exact same note and won't hold tuning any higher.
Granted the strings are 6+ weeks old and I play 6-7 days a week but this only occurs on one of my guitars. I'm using GHS 9's in drop C (easy on the fingers).
Why do the higher strings lose the ability to hold certain tunings? Is there a reason it always detunes to the same note? Is there a way to prevent this so I don't have to change my strings so suddenly?(I only want to change them when I record something high quality). | 2017/01/11 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/52084",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/34897/"
] | Old string do this sometimes. It may be the wrap around the tuning post is slipping, it may be the winding at the ball-end is unravelling, but after all those hours playing, and possibly(?) no cleaning after play means they're ready for changing. They are the sacrificial part of guitars, anyway. Answer to 2nd part - always clean and dry after playing, with clean dry hands, and storing guitar in a static temp. and humidity - away from interested tiny hands. | Metal stretches and fatigues. Many ductile materials, once stretched, never return to their original length. Furthermore, compression and relief of the tension on the string increases the fatigue of a spring. Both playing and tuning causes wear on the string. Even just letting the guitar sit will cause oxidation on the string and aging of the metal due to contact with air. |
52,084 | When I picked up my guitar today I noticed my 1st string was a bizarre 2 semitones flat. I would tune it but the instant I bend it, stretch it, or play for a minute the string goes back down to the exact same note and won't hold tuning any higher.
Granted the strings are 6+ weeks old and I play 6-7 days a week but this only occurs on one of my guitars. I'm using GHS 9's in drop C (easy on the fingers).
Why do the higher strings lose the ability to hold certain tunings? Is there a reason it always detunes to the same note? Is there a way to prevent this so I don't have to change my strings so suddenly?(I only want to change them when I record something high quality). | 2017/01/11 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/52084",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/34897/"
] | Old string do this sometimes. It may be the wrap around the tuning post is slipping, it may be the winding at the ball-end is unravelling, but after all those hours playing, and possibly(?) no cleaning after play means they're ready for changing. They are the sacrificial part of guitars, anyway. Answer to 2nd part - always clean and dry after playing, with clean dry hands, and storing guitar in a static temp. and humidity - away from interested tiny hands. | 6 weeks isn't 'old' for a guitar string. Assuming that you've tried the obvious solution of a replacement string, perhaps you should be looking for a fault in the tuning mechanism. |
267,981 | Do they mean something like "please go! You must leave!" or could it be "We assure you that he left"? | 2015/08/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/267981",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/61075/"
] | In American English, there is no ambiguity. There is no issue with it being idiomatic; it is. Your sentence is in the indicative for us:
>
> They insisted that he left.
>
>
>
That version *always* means that they are assuring you that he has indeed departed. It is a done deal.
Had we meant the other thing, we would have said this, using an untensed verb in the subordinate clause to indicate subjunctive effect:
>
> They insisted that he leave.
>
>
>
Which means that they had demanded his departure. Whether he actually left or not is unstated. | Noting that @tchrist assures us there can be no ambiguity in AmE, I feel I should post the contrary position. Which I can't substantiate as representing BrE in general, but it's certainly how ***I*** see it.
There's no doubt the untensed "infinitive/subjunctive" *They insisted [that] he leave* only ever means that what they demanded (of *him*, or whoever controlled his actions) was that he ***should*** leave.
But to me at least,...
>
> [*She insisted that we **went** into the house and **shared** the meal they were just about to have.*](https://www.google.com/search?q=%22She%20insisted%20that%20we%20went%20into%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1)
>
>
>
...is perfectly acceptable. But if it weren't for this question reminding me of a possible (perverse) interpretation, it would never occur to me to think it might mean she insistently claimed later that this is what happened.
In short, I don't think it's particularly uncommon (or generally perceived to be a significant error) to use *X insisted that Y **Z'ed*** to mean they were adamant that *Y **should** do Z* (was required to, at the time). The alternative interpretation - insistence that *Y **did in fact** do Z* - may be equally credible in some contexts, so I would simply say the construction itself is inherently ambiguous. |
82,425 | If I am uploading a CSV file via dataloader into Salesforce, is this data flowing into Salesforce encrypted? Would someone be able to sniff out the data sent by dataloader to Salesforce - and see it as non-encrypted data? | 2015/07/06 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/82425",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/18757/"
] | The upload is done over HTTPS that encrypts the data as it is transmitted. HTTPS is widely used to ensure that the data being transmitted can't be intercepted and looked at (sniffed).
Generally thinks like obvious passwords or data ending up on a laptop that is lost are bigger security risks. | I am not sure if this is the answer but hope this helps
<https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.dataLoader.meta/dataLoader/command_line_create_encryption_key.htm> |
790,801 | What is the best way to synchronize huge data of a running production server?
Our server has over 20 million files (small files with 10k and bigger files up to 50MB) stored in 1 millon directories. The size of all data is about 5 TB (steadily increasing).
Is it possible to synchronize the data with lsyncd and what are the limits (especially of inotify)? How much additional space does lsyncd need? What about the load (cpu and memory) and the live time?
Another solution would be GlusterFS. Is it possible to use GlusterFS on a production with none or minimal downtime? GlusterFS stores a lot of magic data in x-attributes files and the storage volume is about 15 to 20% bigger than systems with non GlusterFS. Seems like a huge amount of waste...? What about the load?
And at least rsync and cronjobs could do the job. rsync would only run on the slave... So no additional space is needed on the primary server, but rsync must read the full directory tree every time the cron runs... | 2016/07/19 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/790801",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/133787/"
] | I'd seriously recommend using something like ZFS for the filesystem.
Built-in tools like the ZFS snapshot and ZFS send/receive allow you to take block-level snaps of the filesystem and ship it to a second server.
Some third party tools like [sanoid/syncoid](https://github.com/jimsalterjrs/sanoid) can set automatic management/pruning and synchronization of your filesystem from one host to another.
This is done at the block device level, so you avoid the rsync checksum/inventory process. | If you cannot change the filesystem on the production server, I would put the files on another server and mount them with NFS. I would use Linux and ZFS if man-hours are inexpensive, maybe some kind of home NAS distribution or maybe even a home NAS (both probably ZFS-based) if *everything* is expensive *and* you can find one that does professional-level redundancy, or a NetApp or an IBM Spectrum Scale if money is not a problem compared to reliability and support.
Once you have the files on a real full-featured file server with professional-level redundancy, you point your backup server either directly to the primary NFS IP if you configured failover, or to the backup NFS server. |
388,187 | I have one **HP Proliant ML 115 G5** (AMD) with the latest BIOS (**07-06-2009**) and recently I've installed an USB disk.
This is a common problem on old Proliant servers.
When you plug the USB disk, BIOS boot order changes and tries to boot via USB.
So, I'll change the BIOS settings and make the SATA disk the default boot device.
The problem is, when I need to unplug the usb disk, and plug it again later.
I can't be always changing the BIOS settings...
How can one solve this for ever?!?! | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/388187",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/61951/"
] | The firmware release you're on is the final release for that model, as it was end-of-life in 2009. There won't be much assistance from HP on this.
You didn't describe the usage scenarios, but since this is a server, what is the problem with leaving the system on and reducing the frequency of reboots? The USB disk is an additional drive (and not the boot drive), so there's no harm in plugging it after the system has booted, right?
Edit: Apparent HP does not support permanent attachment of USB disks in the scenarios you're describing. There's [an interesting workaround here](http://pressf1.pcworld.co.nz/showthread.php?101301-USB-HDD-Booting-problem), but that's about it. | 1. Log a case with HP support identifying it as a bug/feature request. If have a HP account manager discuss this with them.
2. Wait for an updated BIOS and apply it.
Good luck. |
21,234,711 | How can I remove the version placeholder on iTunes Connect?
I have uploaded a version on a wrong application and when I realized that I removed the binary but I have never thought of this - can I also delete the placeholder? - because there is no update developed for this app yet.
Image for explanation
 | 2014/01/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/21234711",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/450606/"
] | To edit the version number, select the falsely numbered version on the left on iTunes Connect (so NOT the "App Information", but under that the version "1.0.1 Prepare for Submission" etc), scroll down in the right pane to "General App Information" -- just below the App Icon you can see the version number and it's editable! Change it, hit save, and you'll see the version number change on the left side.
(My answer is valid for iTunes Connect web UI as of 5. Jan 2016) | Its not possible to delete a placeholder of a version. But it doesnt affect anything at all so just wait till you are ready to upload 1.1 and update the same version. Or create a new version and work on that (e.g. 2.0). I've had this happen to me a few months ago and I couldn't do much. |
59,558 | [From previous answers](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/187/passages-validating-goethe-as-nietzsches-%C3%9Cbermensch) it became clear to me that Nietzsche did not think that there has been any Übermensch yet. He identified Goethe as a person that has overcome and disciplined himself to advance himself and "become who he is". This means, while Goethe is not considered to be an Übermensch, he has taken steps to advance on Zarathustra's "rope tied between beast and Übermensch".
Yet in my reading of Nietzsche, becoming the Übermensch is intimitely tied to *re-evaluating traditional values* and *creating one's own values*.
>
> Can you give yourself your own evil and your own good and hang your own will over yourself as a law?
>
>
>
I find it difficult to see why the creation of values is in any way connected to an exceptional accomplishment.
**What is the link between disciplining oneself to create something great and creating one's own values?** Specifically, what would be an example of a person that had to overthrow conventional values in order to reach the goal he gave himself? | 2019/01/15 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/59558",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/30966/"
] | There is not one standard for good in Nietsche, if there were, he would be proposing a single morality. Instead he is proposing that a single standard of value is impossible.
He calls out in one case the approach of "Perspectivism" -- that each person has a unique part of the truth, and should pursue that. At another, he suggests that to be oneself one must make a work of art out of your Self. A work of art only has real value if it is unique -- a print or a reproduction is not a work of art -- its beauty is borrowed. So too with morality. Every person's morality would ideally be his own, a work of art, a perspective not taken by any other. Only then would he have escaped from herd mentality and be something other than a member of a community.
An outstanding member of a community may be a good thing, but it is good in a way that Nietzsche finds 'wretched'. It has an upper limit. It can only get so good, and then it turns derivative and wastes opportunities. A herd will not tolerate a non-herd animal, only the very best kind of herd animal. So ultimately this leads away from all opportunities to find any better form of good than the one your community has already found, and is slowly advancing on their own.
These are two unrelated ways of being good, and one is better than the other. But obviously succeeding at the less worthy is better than failing at both. People like Goethe have value, sometimes, as in his case, immense value. But it is a value that strengthens a culture rather than transcending it and producing another. He does not put Goethe on the list of 'Creators' including Zoroaster, Moses, and Jesus, who he sees as having *created* cultures by surpassing the culture that produced them.
If you can create a culture, even if it is a culture of one, it is a higher calling than being the finest exemplar of your existing culture. But if the culture you produce is inferior to the one you came out of, it is an unfortunate overreach and a missed calling. | >
> He identified Goethe as a person that has overcome and disciplined himself to advance himself and "become who he is".
>
>
>
This rather ignores poetry was already recognised as a creative activity from time immemorial and not something then that Goethe had to invent for himself and then leave for us as a gift - he merely revived it; and the same goes for science of optics where Goethe had a special interest.
I'd also query what was he doing when he a mewling babe in his mothers arms sucking on his mothers milk. Was he 'disciplining himself' then? Or perhaps one might say, he wasn't himself yet then.
How about later, when he was a five year old, ready to go to school, and eating at the table three times a day and going to bed at regular hours - was he disciplining himself or allowing himself to be disciplined, and was he being abject in allowing himself to be disciplined? or is that question not even worth asking?
Or later still, when he is eighteen and has come of age - but by then - much of what he has become has been unconciously imbibed as the fruits of his own culture, or rather ours, as culture everywhere belongs to all, and is not the property of any one nation or a man - though it varies from people to people. There is, I think, a great deal of truth to the saying, 'the son is the father of the man'; but to be a son means to have a father, and it's the father that disciplines the son so that the son can become who he should be, which is a son of his nation; and of nations, and hence of man, himself.
>
> He has taken steps to advance on Zarathustra's "rope tied between beast and Übermensch".
>
>
>
Zarathrutha, himself, I mean the real Zarathrutha, as far as we can tell said no similar thing. N merely appropriated his prophetic tone, and then not to move forward Zarathurthas philosophy, but to begat his own, which inverts and negates everything in Zarathrutha.
I find it interesting that you're confusing the character that N creates to promote himself with the real historical/religious figure that Zarathrutha was. Perhaps once it might have been seen as a 'creative confusion', but today it seems merely post-truth or even anti-truth.
>
> the Übermensch is intimitely tied to re-evaluating traditional values and creating one's own values.
>
>
>
Nietschze also admired Napoleon as an ubermensch, which really suggests that N, despite all his bombastic rhetoric of coming up with a 'new ethics' and 'new values', is simply interested in asserting the ethics of the warrior. This is not new wine, but old wine, Nietschze is just bottling it into new, shiny bottles branded with his own name.
This is not a new ethics, but a very ancient ethic. All ancient traditions admitted the ethics of the warrior but they demurred placing the warrior ethic as the supreme value. Nietschze wants the warrior ethic to reign supreme. The closest approach to this in the modern era has been the frenzy of militaristic nationalism in the early part of the 20th C with the consequences that are too familiar to require repeating. This is why as a thinker and writer he has been admired by the fascistic and aesthetic set during the early 20th C, and it is important to recall this after his white-washing by Foucault and Deleuze.
>
> I find it difficult to see why the creation of values is in any way connected to an exceptional accomplishment.
>
>
>
The creation of values is already an exceptional accomplishment. Its generally the creation of a culture rather than of one man, but being anthropomorphic idolaters we tend to credit a man in the singular, rather than men in the plural - or perhaps that of gods or God; it has only ever happened once. Its like the invention of the wheel or of language: it happened once, and every other so called re-invention is a modification, a renewal, or an appropriation. |
59,558 | [From previous answers](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/187/passages-validating-goethe-as-nietzsches-%C3%9Cbermensch) it became clear to me that Nietzsche did not think that there has been any Übermensch yet. He identified Goethe as a person that has overcome and disciplined himself to advance himself and "become who he is". This means, while Goethe is not considered to be an Übermensch, he has taken steps to advance on Zarathustra's "rope tied between beast and Übermensch".
Yet in my reading of Nietzsche, becoming the Übermensch is intimitely tied to *re-evaluating traditional values* and *creating one's own values*.
>
> Can you give yourself your own evil and your own good and hang your own will over yourself as a law?
>
>
>
I find it difficult to see why the creation of values is in any way connected to an exceptional accomplishment.
**What is the link between disciplining oneself to create something great and creating one's own values?** Specifically, what would be an example of a person that had to overthrow conventional values in order to reach the goal he gave himself? | 2019/01/15 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/59558",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/30966/"
] | There is not one standard for good in Nietsche, if there were, he would be proposing a single morality. Instead he is proposing that a single standard of value is impossible.
He calls out in one case the approach of "Perspectivism" -- that each person has a unique part of the truth, and should pursue that. At another, he suggests that to be oneself one must make a work of art out of your Self. A work of art only has real value if it is unique -- a print or a reproduction is not a work of art -- its beauty is borrowed. So too with morality. Every person's morality would ideally be his own, a work of art, a perspective not taken by any other. Only then would he have escaped from herd mentality and be something other than a member of a community.
An outstanding member of a community may be a good thing, but it is good in a way that Nietzsche finds 'wretched'. It has an upper limit. It can only get so good, and then it turns derivative and wastes opportunities. A herd will not tolerate a non-herd animal, only the very best kind of herd animal. So ultimately this leads away from all opportunities to find any better form of good than the one your community has already found, and is slowly advancing on their own.
These are two unrelated ways of being good, and one is better than the other. But obviously succeeding at the less worthy is better than failing at both. People like Goethe have value, sometimes, as in his case, immense value. But it is a value that strengthens a culture rather than transcending it and producing another. He does not put Goethe on the list of 'Creators' including Zoroaster, Moses, and Jesus, who he sees as having *created* cultures by surpassing the culture that produced them.
If you can create a culture, even if it is a culture of one, it is a higher calling than being the finest exemplar of your existing culture. But if the culture you produce is inferior to the one you came out of, it is an unfortunate overreach and a missed calling. | The will to power, which Nietzsche sees as operating in all life operates in a type of hierarchy for him. Now the will to power is a fascinating thing, because it always implies an evaluation. The answer to your question has to do with how we as humans negotiate the forces that we encounter: is their affirmation or negation?
In the lowest ranges of humanity you have reactive being, which is characterized by conceptual personas representing resentment (typical reactive values), bad conscience (internalizing force against oneself), the ascetic (trying to make bad conscience tolerable or displacing will to power for an "afterlife), etc.
Then you have those that have learned to affirm, the figures of apollo and dionysus that he upholds, those that learn to let go of memory so that they man create anew.
At the highest levels you have those that not only affirm but learn to actively subdue the reactive, those that go beyond simply letting go of memory but proactively using its faculty to create something new in the world.
Now, the will to power always implies an evaluation. There's never simply a "recognition" of values from the perspective of the will to power. A "recognition" is merely cover for the dominance of a force in an evaluation. So our values derive their value, and our meanings derive their significance because of relations of force, which one's own will-to-power is also a participant. The qualities of forces are what give our values their value and our meanings their significance. Are the forces affirming, negating, and in what ways?
The transvaluation of values is tied to the Ubermensch because the will-to-power is no longer simply reacting to existing force, its not simply side-stepping existing force, it's not even simply rising above it. It's kind of like seeing it all, realizing the power one's faculties have for working with them all, and like an artist, casting something new and beautiful from the material one has to work with.
The will to power begins at the level of the drives and affects that exist within oneself. Nietzsche admires those that come to first off create a kind of unified Whole or Vision from the disparate drives and affects. It's a kind of self-mastery. All externally facing aspects of the will-to-power really derive from this first one relating to self. Goethe and Napoleon despite being two very different people are people Nietzsche saw something in --for their exemplary approach towards what man would need to achieve if it were to create an Ubermensch--, not because of any particular action, work or (in the case of Napoleon) any of his conquests, but because of their "character" which exhibits this particular affirming "vitality", the highest expression of which is creative and "sovereign" with respect to passively received values. I think the point here with respect to your question about "why" is what Nietzsche continually mentions with respect to nihilism -- that it has many avatars and layers and deceptive forms. It is always hiding behind some seemingly innocent value or judgement. The Ubermensch is not done if values have not undergone transvaluation. Transvaluation has as its object that from which all values derive their value. Nihilism hasn't been defeated otherwise because the keenness of sense and awareness of self required to spot and squash nihilism's avatars has not yet become total. |
91,102 | There is 3 types of fallacies that comes to my mind for this,
1. Fallacy of straw man
>
> A straw man (sometimes written as strawman) is a form of argument and
> an informal fallacy of having the impression of refuting an argument,
> whereas the real subject of the argument was not addressed or refuted,
> but instead replaced with a false one
>
>
>
[Straw man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Straw_man)
In the situation I refer to, it shares the feature that they are refuting an argument that was not addressed or refuted by the speaker, but they are refering to the argument of another speaker so it seems different.
2. Fallacy of association
>
> An association fallacy is an informal inductive fallacy of the
> hasty-generalization or red-herring type and which asserts, by
> irrelevant association and often by appeal to emotion, that qualities
> of one thing are inherently qualities of another. Two types of
> association fallacies are sometimes referred to as guilt by
> association and honor by association.
>
>
> Premise: A is a B Premise: A is also a C Conclusion: Therefore, all Bs
> are Cs
>
>
>
[Association fallacy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Association_fallacy#:%7E:text=An%20association%20fallacy%20is%20an,are%20inherently%20qualities%20of%20another.)
In the situation I refer to, they are asserting the qualities of one person are the same that other qualities a group he belongs to has, so it seems similar to a fallacy of association, but it turns out to be that the person either doesnt belong to that group they are implying, so it seems different in this sense.
3. Fallacy ad hominem
>
> Ad hominem (Latin for 'to the person'), short for argumentum ad
> hominem (Latin for 'argument to the person'), refers to several types
> of arguments, some but not all of which are fallacious. Typically this
> term refers to a rhetorical strategy where the speaker attacks the
> character, motive, or some other attribute of the person making an
> argument rather than attacking the substance of the argument itself.
> The most common form of ad hominem is "A makes a claim x, B asserts
> that A holds a property that is unwelcome, and hence B concludes that
> argument x is wrong".
>
>
>
[Ad Hominem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ad_hominem)
In the situation I describe, they are indeed asserting that the person has a property that is unwelcome, and therefore the argument is wrong (fallacy), in this sense it seems this type of fallacy, but it turns out that the unwelcome property is also false, so in this sense it seems another kind of fallacy.
So, to me, the fallacy I refer to it seems like a combination or mix of the 3 types of fallacies I mentioned, but may be I'm wrong and it's just one of them, or 2. Does the fallacy I describe (which is very common by the way) have a name?
Which kind of fallacy is a fallacy that associates a person to the negative ideas of a group he doesnt belong to? | 2022/05/11 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/91102",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/22365/"
] | Well, if we define "Paradox" as "[apparent contradiction in physical descriptions of the universe](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Physical_paradox)" then sure. Paradoxes don't exist in nature because a paradox is a contradiction in our DESCRIPTIONS of the universe, not contradictions in the UNIVERSE ITSELF.
So under that definition, you're probably right that in nature, no paradox exists. But in PHYSICS (or ANY study of the real world) paradoxes are all over the place.
**Normally, a paradox exposes the limitations of a theory or framework by using it to arrive at a conclusion that seems absurd. It ALSO usually imposes a constraint on the world that theory is supposed to be representing.** Consider...
[Russel's Paradox](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell%27s_paradox): Say a barber shaves everyone in town who does not shave himself. Does the barber shave himself?
This paradox was actually used really effectively to create a consistent version of Set Theory. But also, in the real world you can't have a barber who shaves everyone who does not shave himself, BY THE DEFINITION of "shaving" and "himself".
**Others PURPORT to show a weakness in the theory, but actually point to something being possible in the physical world that we think is absurd.** Consider...
[EPR Paradox](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EPR_paradox). If you have a system decay into two parts that must have zero total momentum (because the thing that decayed has total momentum), then when you measure one, you know the state of the other immediately, even if it's on the other side of the universe. If the states weren't pre-determined because Quantum Mechanics, then that means the former was sending a signal to the latter faster than the speed of light, and that's bad.
Turns out, Entanglement is actually a thing. We probably can't use it to make magical sci-fi signal transmitters, but the thing E and P and R thought was absurd actually happens and we've since measured it.
**Others try to reach an unexpected conclusion using a theory we trust, but actually end up slowing a weakness in the theory itself. That normally comes from using some flawed reasoning or a theory that doesn't apply.** For example...
[Zeno's Paradox](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zeno%27s_paradoxes#Achilles_and_the_tortoise): Say Achilles gets into a footrace with a tortoise who was given a head start. Since the tortoise moves forward whenever Achilles closes some distance, the former can never pass the latter.
Zeno came up with this paradox to argue against our understanding of the motion and change in the real world, but it's resolved when we consider that a certain geometric series converges.
**So which is the Grandfather Paradox?** Is it a paradox that limits what can exist in the real world? A way of showing that time travel is impossible because doing so would lead to a contradiction? Or is time travel possible if the universe functions a certain way (say, by pulling a Marvel Cinematic Universe and using the [Everett's Many Worlds](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Temporal_paradox#Quantum_physics) interpretation of Quantum Mechanics to make it possible)? Or are our attempts to use fancy reasoning to make the Grandfather Paradox consistent really just exposing the flaws in our own reasoning?
I suppose the answer is up for debate, but I can say one thing: Arguing that nature must conspire to make something possible because it's a paradox but in nature no paradox exists is NOT a good approach. That reasoning can be shown to be flawed in lots of different ways. | The Grandfather Paradox exactly aims to draw attention to a contradiction, that if the conditions exist to create closed time-like curves we open the door to a paradox. So we can be pretty sure General Relativity isn't the whole story. Or, materials with positive gravity, or Tipler Cylinders, aren't possible for some fundamental reason. Closed time-like curves can't loop to 'before' they are created. They have to be created, continue to exist, then causality-affecting objects travel back through them, so this could mean they are possible, while explaining why we haven't seen them impact our universe - they could be too unstable to form naturally.
The alternatives to GR are extremely varied, like branching multiverses, emergent time, two-time physics, M-theory multiverses, etc etc. Quantum Field Theory is considered our best theory, and just takes time as an assumption. GR pictures time as a dimension. But both theories are (almost entirely) reversible, and leaving a conundrum about where the initial low entropy state of the universe came from, and how come irreversibility is such a dominant feature of our experience. In short, we don't know what time is, & our best theories are incompatible.
Consider the [Sorites Paradox](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sorites_paradox), also called The Paradox of the Heap: at what number of grains of sand, do we get a heap? This exposes the real utility of paradoxes, in exposing contradictions *in our premises*. In practice a collection of grains doesn't suddenly become a heap, there is a size & context where the two descriptions overlap, & the assumption the two descriptions are mutually exclusive, is faulty. The paradox exists in the world, there is a number of grains of sand we describe as grains, & that we call a heap, even if different people draw the boundaries differently. The Grandfather Paradox is telling us something about how we currently think about time, implies contradictions.
Descartes 'Cogito ergo sum' is fatally undermined by The Private Language Argument. When you use complex concepts like 'self', 'think' & 'exists', you draw on a whole cultural history of people comparing experiences and drawing analogies, to give those words meaning. We can see from The Dunbar Number that our neocortex emerged to be able to figure out the intentions of others, & our sense of identity, the self, emerged as a tool in that social context. Octopuses are clever, & very unusually solitary for such intelligences, but they are limited to the capacities of 1 individuals brain in 1 life, because they cannot pass on knowledge with language - which depends on a social self.
In Buddhist thought they describe this pattern as 'dependent arising', or inter-being, & they have this great metaphor for it, [Indra's Net](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indra%27s_net). It is by engaging with others intersubjectively, that any complex abstractions exist at all. Your self is a tool your experiences with others have taught you to use. |
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