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82,974 | I remember learning and memorizing that TAS increases as altitude increases, however I don't understand why. Especially since my C-152's PoH seems to indicate the opposite in the cruise performance section. Can someone please explain what I'm misunderstanding here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a4VCX.png) | 2020/12/18 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/82974",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/53810/"
] | True air speed (TAS) does indeed increase with altitude. The reason is because with increasing altitude the air density decreases. The Indicated air speed (IAS) which is measured by the pitot is a function of the dynamic pressure (Q) acting on the aircraft. The equation for the dynamic pressure is:
**Q = 1/2 \* rho \* V^2**
where:
**Q** = *dynamic pressure.*
**rho** = *density.*
**V** = *True air speed.*
According to the equation, if we want to keep the IAS or Q constant in a climb, the TAS should increase, because there is a decrease in density (rho) with altitude. So, there is absolutely nothing wrong with what you have learnt, because it is correct in the sense TAS increases with altitude.
So, why is your POH contradictory. Let us look at it, shall we? I will use the data given at 2000 ft and 12000 ft, under *standard temperature* to explain what is happening.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OgnWH.png)
If we look at the table we can see that at 2000 ft, if you cruise at 2300 RPM, the engine is able to produce 66 Brake horsepower. The result is a TAS of 96 knots. But at 12000 ft the same engine is only able to produce 54 Brake horsepower at the same 2300 RPM. The reason why the TAS dropped to 92 knots is because your engine is unable to generate enough power at higher altitudes due to the reduced air density (C-152 has a normally aspirated engine). Hence, the aircraft is unable to fly at a higher TAS. If you want to increase your TAS you could increase the RPM to 2450 (more air rammed inside the cylinders) and get a TAS of 100 knots, but that will cost you more fuel.
It is expected that you will climb at the speed for best rate of climb (Vy). Once you reach your cruise altitude, you will push the nose down to level off, pull the power back to the desired RPM and trim it. If you climbed to 12000 ft and set 2300 RPM and trim the aircraft, the IAS that is shown in your air speed indicator will result in the tabled value of 92 knots. The value of IAS is not mentioned in cruise performance is because TAS is what determines your aircraft navigation performance and fuel consumption. | Although, it is a backwards way of thinking about it, consider that the True AirSpeed is not changing with altitude for an aircraft keeping a constant speed. In actuality, the Indicated AirSpeed is what is changing. This is due to the IAS being measured by using Ram Air Pressure inside of the pitot tube. The RAP is directly related to the density of the air. The higher the air density, the higher the RAP at the same speed.
More gas molecule mass in the air is entering the pitot at any given time at lower density altitudes (higher air density). Think of it this way. A single bb would have less impact than 100 shot gun pellets fired at the same muzzle velocity.
Your pitot static system is actually measuring the impact of the air molecules and converting that into IAS. In order to fly at a constant IAS at a higher altitude, you have to increase your TAS because the air is less dense (fewer air molecules). |
82,974 | I remember learning and memorizing that TAS increases as altitude increases, however I don't understand why. Especially since my C-152's PoH seems to indicate the opposite in the cruise performance section. Can someone please explain what I'm misunderstanding here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a4VCX.png) | 2020/12/18 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/82974",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/53810/"
] | To the extent that 75% cruise power available is constant with increasing altitude, it's simply that TAS goes up because the constant HP has less and less resistance to work against as the air thins out, while you are able to maintain 75% cruise power by opening throttle more. On a non-turbocharged engine, that is possible up to the point at which the engine is maxed out making cruise power (75%), somewhere around 8000 feet give or take (where the available manifold pressure at wide open throttle drops to about 22").
At this point the engine is wide open throttle just to make 75% power and is maxed out there. As you go above 8000 ft with wide open throttle, by the time you get to 10000 ft it can produce only 68 thrust HP (per the chart, in standard conditions) with wide open throttle and maximum TAS drops to 103 kt.
If the engine had turbocharging, it would be able to maintain 75 HP (75% of 100) to some much higher altitude and you could climb to say, 15000 ft, still making 75 HP in the even thinner air thanks to the turbo, and your TAS would be up to something like, say, 115 kt (you would also need a constant speed prop to exploit that power, but that's another issue). | Inflight, the IAS is measured via the pitot/static system and is displayed on your ASI, the primary airspeed display instrument. TAS cannot be directly measured by a probe or transducer, it has to be calculated by using the IAS as a starting reference.
**IAS:** The pitot pressure is static pressure + the pressure on account of air molecules impinging on the pitot probe from the direction of flight. If the air density reduces, as it does with altitude, in order to fly a given IAS, it requires the airplane to fly faster through the thinner air for the pitot to experience the same pressure and indicate the same IAS. This faster speed is your TAS. Aerodynamic forces such as lift, drag, propeller torque/thrust etc. all depend on the flow of air molecules over the wings and body of the airplane and stall speeds, maneuvering speeds and limit speeds all relate therefore to the IAS.
**TAS:** is a calculated speed, as there is no instrumentation to physically measure it - in it's simplest form it is arrived at by plugging the IAS into a formula and based on the International Standard Atmosphere. TAS is useful for planning and actual navigation as it is your true speed in relation to the ground in nil winds.
**Atmospheric Air Density as per ISA:** As per the Standard atmosphere around 6600ft the density of air is about half of what it is at Mean Sea Level, at 12000ft around a quarter, and around 18000ft it is a tenth of the sea level density and so on.
You memorized "TAS increases as altitude increases" but the statement is incomplete in that it gives no info on the reference speed you are flying on your ASI. So a more complete statement is "IAS being constant, TAS increases as altitude increases".
**POH 'Contradiction':** Your C-152 POH Cruise Performance table ***seems*** to indicate a reducing TAS as altitude increases. This is because the page does not indicate the IAS to be flown, instead it gives you an RPM setting for level flight and the resultant TAS (and inflight we accept the resultant IAS). Take 2100rpm, the TAS is:
86KTAS at 2000ft
85KTAS at 4000ft
84KTAS at 6000ft
83KTAS at 8000ft
82KTAS at 10000ft
81KTAS at 12000ft
*Seems to reduce with altitude*, but [calculating the IAS equivalent to the TAS and Alt at ISA](https://aerotoolbox.com/airspeed-conversions/) using the 'aerotoolbox' webpage gives:
86KTAS at 2000ft = 83KIAS
85KTAS at 4000ft = 80KIAS
84KTAS at 6000ft = 77KIAS
83KTAS at 8000ft = 74KIAS
82KTAS at 10000ft = 71KIAS
81KTAS at 12000ft = 67KIAS
>
> Here are values of TAS for fixed IAS, good for any airplane, and clearly showing the TAS increasing with altitude:
>
> 77KIAS
>
> = 79KTAS at 2000ft
>
> = 87KTAS at 8000ft
>
> = 93KTAS at 12000ft
>
>
>
In the cockpit you can either fly a speed on the ASI (adjusting the RPM to suit) or you can fly the manufacturers recommended RPM and accept the resultant speed on the ASI.
As per the POH page, you input altitude and RPM (with mixture leaned) and the table gives you the Power, TAS, and Fuel consumption. The chart gives you this data for an airplane weight of 1670lbs and various RPM settings of the engine at even thousands of feet altitude ranging from 2,000 to 12,000 ft. (And for ISA, ISA-20degC, ISA+20degC.)
An input of altitude - RPM - OAT/ISAdev gives the TAS and fuel consumption per hour. These are the parameters you need alongwith forecast winds to make out a navigation and fuel flight plan. TAS and Wind gives Groundspeed/leg times and Heading to steer, and further with Fuel cons/hr it gives you the fuel for trip etc. *The fact that the table outputs no IAS is of no particular disadvantage in the cockpit.*
The data could have been shown by using a fixed IAS strategy, replacing the RPM settings with different IAS values in which case you would input altitude, IAS, Temp/dev the chart would output an RPM, TAS and Fuel consumption. |
82,974 | I remember learning and memorizing that TAS increases as altitude increases, however I don't understand why. Especially since my C-152's PoH seems to indicate the opposite in the cruise performance section. Can someone please explain what I'm misunderstanding here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a4VCX.png) | 2020/12/18 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/82974",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/53810/"
] | True air speed (TAS) does indeed increase with altitude. The reason is because with increasing altitude the air density decreases. The Indicated air speed (IAS) which is measured by the pitot is a function of the dynamic pressure (Q) acting on the aircraft. The equation for the dynamic pressure is:
**Q = 1/2 \* rho \* V^2**
where:
**Q** = *dynamic pressure.*
**rho** = *density.*
**V** = *True air speed.*
According to the equation, if we want to keep the IAS or Q constant in a climb, the TAS should increase, because there is a decrease in density (rho) with altitude. So, there is absolutely nothing wrong with what you have learnt, because it is correct in the sense TAS increases with altitude.
So, why is your POH contradictory. Let us look at it, shall we? I will use the data given at 2000 ft and 12000 ft, under *standard temperature* to explain what is happening.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OgnWH.png)
If we look at the table we can see that at 2000 ft, if you cruise at 2300 RPM, the engine is able to produce 66 Brake horsepower. The result is a TAS of 96 knots. But at 12000 ft the same engine is only able to produce 54 Brake horsepower at the same 2300 RPM. The reason why the TAS dropped to 92 knots is because your engine is unable to generate enough power at higher altitudes due to the reduced air density (C-152 has a normally aspirated engine). Hence, the aircraft is unable to fly at a higher TAS. If you want to increase your TAS you could increase the RPM to 2450 (more air rammed inside the cylinders) and get a TAS of 100 knots, but that will cost you more fuel.
It is expected that you will climb at the speed for best rate of climb (Vy). Once you reach your cruise altitude, you will push the nose down to level off, pull the power back to the desired RPM and trim it. If you climbed to 12000 ft and set 2300 RPM and trim the aircraft, the IAS that is shown in your air speed indicator will result in the tabled value of 92 knots. The value of IAS is not mentioned in cruise performance is because TAS is what determines your aircraft navigation performance and fuel consumption. | Inflight, the IAS is measured via the pitot/static system and is displayed on your ASI, the primary airspeed display instrument. TAS cannot be directly measured by a probe or transducer, it has to be calculated by using the IAS as a starting reference.
**IAS:** The pitot pressure is static pressure + the pressure on account of air molecules impinging on the pitot probe from the direction of flight. If the air density reduces, as it does with altitude, in order to fly a given IAS, it requires the airplane to fly faster through the thinner air for the pitot to experience the same pressure and indicate the same IAS. This faster speed is your TAS. Aerodynamic forces such as lift, drag, propeller torque/thrust etc. all depend on the flow of air molecules over the wings and body of the airplane and stall speeds, maneuvering speeds and limit speeds all relate therefore to the IAS.
**TAS:** is a calculated speed, as there is no instrumentation to physically measure it - in it's simplest form it is arrived at by plugging the IAS into a formula and based on the International Standard Atmosphere. TAS is useful for planning and actual navigation as it is your true speed in relation to the ground in nil winds.
**Atmospheric Air Density as per ISA:** As per the Standard atmosphere around 6600ft the density of air is about half of what it is at Mean Sea Level, at 12000ft around a quarter, and around 18000ft it is a tenth of the sea level density and so on.
You memorized "TAS increases as altitude increases" but the statement is incomplete in that it gives no info on the reference speed you are flying on your ASI. So a more complete statement is "IAS being constant, TAS increases as altitude increases".
**POH 'Contradiction':** Your C-152 POH Cruise Performance table ***seems*** to indicate a reducing TAS as altitude increases. This is because the page does not indicate the IAS to be flown, instead it gives you an RPM setting for level flight and the resultant TAS (and inflight we accept the resultant IAS). Take 2100rpm, the TAS is:
86KTAS at 2000ft
85KTAS at 4000ft
84KTAS at 6000ft
83KTAS at 8000ft
82KTAS at 10000ft
81KTAS at 12000ft
*Seems to reduce with altitude*, but [calculating the IAS equivalent to the TAS and Alt at ISA](https://aerotoolbox.com/airspeed-conversions/) using the 'aerotoolbox' webpage gives:
86KTAS at 2000ft = 83KIAS
85KTAS at 4000ft = 80KIAS
84KTAS at 6000ft = 77KIAS
83KTAS at 8000ft = 74KIAS
82KTAS at 10000ft = 71KIAS
81KTAS at 12000ft = 67KIAS
>
> Here are values of TAS for fixed IAS, good for any airplane, and clearly showing the TAS increasing with altitude:
>
> 77KIAS
>
> = 79KTAS at 2000ft
>
> = 87KTAS at 8000ft
>
> = 93KTAS at 12000ft
>
>
>
In the cockpit you can either fly a speed on the ASI (adjusting the RPM to suit) or you can fly the manufacturers recommended RPM and accept the resultant speed on the ASI.
As per the POH page, you input altitude and RPM (with mixture leaned) and the table gives you the Power, TAS, and Fuel consumption. The chart gives you this data for an airplane weight of 1670lbs and various RPM settings of the engine at even thousands of feet altitude ranging from 2,000 to 12,000 ft. (And for ISA, ISA-20degC, ISA+20degC.)
An input of altitude - RPM - OAT/ISAdev gives the TAS and fuel consumption per hour. These are the parameters you need alongwith forecast winds to make out a navigation and fuel flight plan. TAS and Wind gives Groundspeed/leg times and Heading to steer, and further with Fuel cons/hr it gives you the fuel for trip etc. *The fact that the table outputs no IAS is of no particular disadvantage in the cockpit.*
The data could have been shown by using a fixed IAS strategy, replacing the RPM settings with different IAS values in which case you would input altitude, IAS, Temp/dev the chart would output an RPM, TAS and Fuel consumption. |
82,974 | I remember learning and memorizing that TAS increases as altitude increases, however I don't understand why. Especially since my C-152's PoH seems to indicate the opposite in the cruise performance section. Can someone please explain what I'm misunderstanding here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a4VCX.png) | 2020/12/18 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/82974",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/53810/"
] | To the extent that 75% cruise power available is constant with increasing altitude, it's simply that TAS goes up because the constant HP has less and less resistance to work against as the air thins out, while you are able to maintain 75% cruise power by opening throttle more. On a non-turbocharged engine, that is possible up to the point at which the engine is maxed out making cruise power (75%), somewhere around 8000 feet give or take (where the available manifold pressure at wide open throttle drops to about 22").
At this point the engine is wide open throttle just to make 75% power and is maxed out there. As you go above 8000 ft with wide open throttle, by the time you get to 10000 ft it can produce only 68 thrust HP (per the chart, in standard conditions) with wide open throttle and maximum TAS drops to 103 kt.
If the engine had turbocharging, it would be able to maintain 75 HP (75% of 100) to some much higher altitude and you could climb to say, 15000 ft, still making 75 HP in the even thinner air thanks to the turbo, and your TAS would be up to something like, say, 115 kt (you would also need a constant speed prop to exploit that power, but that's another issue). | For a given power setting, True Airspeed increases with altitude because there is less drag due to the air being less dense. Aircraft are more efficient at high altitude because of this simple fact. Providing the engine can produce enough power, any aircraft will fly faster and further, without burning more fuel, if you fly at a higher altitude.
Your C-152 chart shows this quite clearly.
2000’ 59% power = 91 KTAS @ 4.8 GPH
12,000’ 59% power = 97 KTAS @ 4.8 GPH |
82,974 | I remember learning and memorizing that TAS increases as altitude increases, however I don't understand why. Especially since my C-152's PoH seems to indicate the opposite in the cruise performance section. Can someone please explain what I'm misunderstanding here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a4VCX.png) | 2020/12/18 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/82974",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/53810/"
] | True air speed (TAS) does indeed increase with altitude. The reason is because with increasing altitude the air density decreases. The Indicated air speed (IAS) which is measured by the pitot is a function of the dynamic pressure (Q) acting on the aircraft. The equation for the dynamic pressure is:
**Q = 1/2 \* rho \* V^2**
where:
**Q** = *dynamic pressure.*
**rho** = *density.*
**V** = *True air speed.*
According to the equation, if we want to keep the IAS or Q constant in a climb, the TAS should increase, because there is a decrease in density (rho) with altitude. So, there is absolutely nothing wrong with what you have learnt, because it is correct in the sense TAS increases with altitude.
So, why is your POH contradictory. Let us look at it, shall we? I will use the data given at 2000 ft and 12000 ft, under *standard temperature* to explain what is happening.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OgnWH.png)
If we look at the table we can see that at 2000 ft, if you cruise at 2300 RPM, the engine is able to produce 66 Brake horsepower. The result is a TAS of 96 knots. But at 12000 ft the same engine is only able to produce 54 Brake horsepower at the same 2300 RPM. The reason why the TAS dropped to 92 knots is because your engine is unable to generate enough power at higher altitudes due to the reduced air density (C-152 has a normally aspirated engine). Hence, the aircraft is unable to fly at a higher TAS. If you want to increase your TAS you could increase the RPM to 2450 (more air rammed inside the cylinders) and get a TAS of 100 knots, but that will cost you more fuel.
It is expected that you will climb at the speed for best rate of climb (Vy). Once you reach your cruise altitude, you will push the nose down to level off, pull the power back to the desired RPM and trim it. If you climbed to 12000 ft and set 2300 RPM and trim the aircraft, the IAS that is shown in your air speed indicator will result in the tabled value of 92 knots. The value of IAS is not mentioned in cruise performance is because TAS is what determines your aircraft navigation performance and fuel consumption. | For a given power setting, True Airspeed increases with altitude because there is less drag due to the air being less dense. Aircraft are more efficient at high altitude because of this simple fact. Providing the engine can produce enough power, any aircraft will fly faster and further, without burning more fuel, if you fly at a higher altitude.
Your C-152 chart shows this quite clearly.
2000’ 59% power = 91 KTAS @ 4.8 GPH
12,000’ 59% power = 97 KTAS @ 4.8 GPH |
136,842 | If you consider the dark spots on the pattern produced by the double slit experiment to maybe be a shadow of the slitless area of the dividing wall between and around the slits, as silly a thought as that might be, leads one to consider how that would be testable.
What happens in the experiment when one of the slits is slanted just slightly?
Do the slants manifest in the results on the backdrop? | 2014/09/23 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/136842",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/20235/"
] | Yes, most certainly the shape of each slit affects the diffraction and interference patterns. I admit up front to being too lazy to write out the generalized solution, but if you grab any decent optics text, you'll get the integral formulas for the patterns as a function of slit shape.
Qualitatively, you can see that a 'slanted' single slit will produce a "rotated" version of the single-slit diffraction pattern. The two-slit pattern (one straight, the other slanted) could be thought of as a combination of several two-slit patterns, each with a different separation (chop the slits into slice pairs). After that, too much math for this early in the century :-) | Take - if you want - in your mind the fact that even a edge interact with a light source (a monochromatic point source give the best results) by the way that you could see fringes on a display behind the edge.
So you have to ask why there is an area between shadow an "no shadow" which contains fringes. The answer is: Because the interaction between the light's photons and the edges's electrons is quantitized and that lead to the dark (no photons on the screen) - bright (arrivel of photons on the screen and this with twice the intensity so that in sum approx. all photons arrive on the screen) - pattern on the screen. |
77,173 | I recently purchased a used Samsung Galaxy S Captivate. While it seems fine for my purposes, it would be nice if it were just a bit faster, in terms of loading different pages more quickly. From what I've seen, Cyanogenmod claims that it's faster than many stock roms, since it doesn't use the company's extra interface, which, in this case, would be TouchWiz. However, Cyanogenmod would also bring my operating system up to Android 4.4, and I'm not sure how much additional power that would take. I'm also open to using older versions of Cyanogenmod, if that's feasible.
Would it be better in terms of performance to keep my phone at the stock rom or to install Cyanogenmod? | 2014/07/13 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/77173",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/67216/"
] | In theory, your phone should perform considerably faster with CyanogenMod 11, because KitKat was designed with entry/mid-level phones in mind; requiring only 512 MB of RAM to run. (See [this page about Project Svelte](http://www.trustedreviews.com/opinions/android-4-4-kitkat-s-project-svelte-what-it-is-and-why-you-should-care) for more information.)
CyanogenMod also adds a whole slew of features like Heads Up Notifications and Privacy Guard on top of the AOSP code, so your phone will not only be fast but also be very useful.
Keep in mind, however, that CyanogenMod (along with others such as PA and OmniROM) are *third-party* ROMs, and therefore lack the various "enhancements" that the manufacturer has made in the stock ROM; so don't be surprised if you see that the camera doesn't perform as well, the battery drains faster than usual, etc. | Never do that. Perhaps it helps to increase your speed but it consumes much more power.
If performance in CPU increases, undoubtedly,the power usage will increase dramatically. Try to keep your factory ROM and looking for some good free app in the market for increasing the speed. |
12,723 | I'm building convoluted neural networks with TensorFlow. I've got the latest Mac Pro, use all of my cores, and yet it still takes me several hours to train a single network. I need to do grid search on many different tuning parameters, so this is not ideal.
This is for a personal project, so I want to save money by using the cloud. I have used AWS extensively, and I like the idea of using their spot market, however I've heard that 1) Amazon's GPU instances aren't compatible out of the box with TensorFlow (AWS's GPUs have CUDA 3.0 and TensorFlow requires 3.5) and 2) Amazon's GPUs are a bit slow.
Does Microsoft's Azure or Google's Google Compute Engine have easy-to-use GPUs when using TensorFlow? How do their GPUs compare to those of Amazon in terms of the relevant neural-net-training tech specs, prices, and ease of use? Are there smaller cloud providers that you would recommend instead?
Also, roughly how much faster can I expect training to take on one of these virtual GPUs compared to a top of the line Mac Pro? | 2016/07/11 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/12723",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/12515/"
] | Microsoft announced a couple of weeks ago virtual machines in Azure with [GPUs](https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-n-series-preview-availability/?utm_content=buffer2720b&utm_medium=social&utm_source=twitter.com&utm_campaign=buffer). They use K-80 NVIDIA cards. The biggest machine has 4 GPUs and 224 GB of ram.
Good to play with deep learning :-) | Google does not currently have any public GPU or TPU offerings, but they might be able to help if you work for a large company. Contact them directly.
Source: Google reps, just today. |
5,528,363 | I'm new to Drupal and dont know how to use it properly yet. I'm stuck on this part where I'm displaying links which when the user clicks on, I need the code to POST certain informaiton to that link and then redirect the user to that page.
1. User clicks on a link: [Enter Other Site]
2. System posts UserId, SecretPasswrod, etc to <http://www.theotherside.com/handle.php>
3. The User's browse is redirected to handle.php (whiuch redirects him elsewhere as appropriate)
I know how to do this in php (by creating a form on the page and then submitting it), but not sure how to do this 'properly' in Drupal. | 2011/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5528363",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/878354/"
] | I think you're looking for how to do POST using PHP. I'm not familiar of any Drupal specific method, but this is how I'd do it:
* Create a module with a [menu hook](http://api.drupal.org/api/drupal/developer--hooks--core.php/function/hook_menu/6 "menu hook") of name, say, mymodule-enter-other-site
* Define and create page callback function: in it, put the POST code you want using e.g. [HTTP POST from PHP example](http://wezfurlong.org/blog/2006/nov/http-post-from-php-without-curl/ "HTTP POST from PHP example")
-- You may also want to define additional settings for permissions etc
* Make the link you want user to click to point to yourdomain.com/mymodule-enter-other-site
* Activate your module and give it a go
Should everything work as intended, page callback function is executed when user visits the address and you can build the data and finally redirect the user. | There are two ways to do it in Drupal
1) Use FORM API to create the form and then write your form submit code in form\_submit function
see <http://drupal.org/node/751826>
2) Use the webform module to create the form. see <http://drupal.org/project/webform> |
5,528,363 | I'm new to Drupal and dont know how to use it properly yet. I'm stuck on this part where I'm displaying links which when the user clicks on, I need the code to POST certain informaiton to that link and then redirect the user to that page.
1. User clicks on a link: [Enter Other Site]
2. System posts UserId, SecretPasswrod, etc to <http://www.theotherside.com/handle.php>
3. The User's browse is redirected to handle.php (whiuch redirects him elsewhere as appropriate)
I know how to do this in php (by creating a form on the page and then submitting it), but not sure how to do this 'properly' in Drupal. | 2011/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5528363",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/878354/"
] | You don't need to use the HTTP POST from PHP example, Drupal has it's own process fot that:
<http://api.drupal.org/api/drupal/includes--common.inc/function/drupal_http_request/7> | There are two ways to do it in Drupal
1) Use FORM API to create the form and then write your form submit code in form\_submit function
see <http://drupal.org/node/751826>
2) Use the webform module to create the form. see <http://drupal.org/project/webform> |
5,528,363 | I'm new to Drupal and dont know how to use it properly yet. I'm stuck on this part where I'm displaying links which when the user clicks on, I need the code to POST certain informaiton to that link and then redirect the user to that page.
1. User clicks on a link: [Enter Other Site]
2. System posts UserId, SecretPasswrod, etc to <http://www.theotherside.com/handle.php>
3. The User's browse is redirected to handle.php (whiuch redirects him elsewhere as appropriate)
I know how to do this in php (by creating a form on the page and then submitting it), but not sure how to do this 'properly' in Drupal. | 2011/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5528363",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/878354/"
] | I think you're looking for how to do POST using PHP. I'm not familiar of any Drupal specific method, but this is how I'd do it:
* Create a module with a [menu hook](http://api.drupal.org/api/drupal/developer--hooks--core.php/function/hook_menu/6 "menu hook") of name, say, mymodule-enter-other-site
* Define and create page callback function: in it, put the POST code you want using e.g. [HTTP POST from PHP example](http://wezfurlong.org/blog/2006/nov/http-post-from-php-without-curl/ "HTTP POST from PHP example")
-- You may also want to define additional settings for permissions etc
* Make the link you want user to click to point to yourdomain.com/mymodule-enter-other-site
* Activate your module and give it a go
Should everything work as intended, page callback function is executed when user visits the address and you can build the data and finally redirect the user. | You don't need to use the HTTP POST from PHP example, Drupal has it's own process fot that:
<http://api.drupal.org/api/drupal/includes--common.inc/function/drupal_http_request/7> |
1,473,221 | I was thinking of writing a script to check, at login, if the version of out .net program was the same as the one on the server and then install an update, but if there's anything on the net which does such a thing (and has extra bells and whistles) that anyone can recommend, I'd be interested to hear about it. | 2009/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1473221",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/56861/"
] | You're looking for [ClickOnce](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/t71a733d.aspx) deployment. | I worked with MS, there we have been using a lot, so personally I have worked and approves it. |
1,473,221 | I was thinking of writing a script to check, at login, if the version of out .net program was the same as the one on the server and then install an update, but if there's anything on the net which does such a thing (and has extra bells and whistles) that anyone can recommend, I'd be interested to hear about it. | 2009/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1473221",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/56861/"
] | You're looking for [ClickOnce](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/t71a733d.aspx) deployment. | Here's an open-source solution I wrote to address specific needs we had for WinForms and WPF apps. The general idea is to have the greatest flexibility, at the lowest overhead possible.
So, **integration** is super-easy, and the library does pretty much everything for you, including synchronizing operations. It is also **highly flexible**, and lets you determine what tasks to execute and on what conditions - you make the rules (or use some that are there already). Last by not least is the support for **any updates source** (web, BitTorrent, etc) and any **feed format** - whatever is not implemented you can just write for yourself.
Cold updates (requiring an application restart) is also supported, and done automatically unless "hot-swap" is specified for the task.
This boild down to one DLL, less than 70kb in size.
More details at <http://www.code972.com/blog/2010/08/nappupdate-application-auto-update-framework-for-dotnet/>
Code is at <http://github.com/synhershko/NAppUpdate> (Licensed under the Apache 2.0 license) |
93,824 | I'm working at a software consultancy that a has a lot of volunteers available for about a month and a half at a time (when we're between projects and learning things) and we'd like to start contributing to open source projects that have a positive social impact. Any idea which projects we can look at?
The constraints are:
* Built on a fairly modern language and stack that's suitable for beginners but has wide adoption - Java+Spring+Hibernate / RoR / Groovy+Grails - basically a stack we'd expect to work on in other projects too.
* Has / aims to have a positive on peoples lives - like Ushahidi, OpenMRS, RapidFTR, FrontlineSMS, etc.
* Has well defined stories and requirements, or has owners who are willing to work with our analysts to come up with them.
Any ideas? | 2011/07/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/93824",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1919/"
] | You could look into [distributed social networks](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Distributed_social_network), like Diaspora or Appleseed. Having monoliths like Facebook or Google controlling our online interactions could/has lead to bad places. | I am not deeply familiar with the projects promoted there, but <https://www.engineeringforchange.org/> aims to offer people an easy way to connect with humanitarian projects in all aspects of engineering - they have a section on 'Info Systems', I suspect that one or more of those projects will fit your interests. |
30,394 | I see [here](http://help.exacttarget.com/en/documentation/exacttarget/content/ampscript/ampscript_syntax_guide/datetime_ampscript_functions/#DatePart) that S1 = The part of the date to retrieve. Valid values include year (Y), month (M), monthname, day (D), hour (H), and minute (MI). I don't see a script to isolate the part of the datestamp which would indicate AM/PM. Is there one? | 2014/03/18 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/30394",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/4825/"
] | I don't believe there is such a function. The reason being that AM/PM data is not stored in the date; the date is stored in 24h format and AM/PM would need to be calculated. A possible workaround: if you need to just display it nicely on a landing page, then you could format it client side using something like date.js. Otherwise you could use SSJS and use a function to do it like the following, only modifying it to run server side:
function formatAMPM(date) {
var hours = date.getHours();
var minutes = date.getMinutes();
var ampm = hours >= 12 ? 'pm' : 'am';
hours = hours % 12;
hours = hours ? hours : 12; // the hour '0' should be '12'
minutes = minutes < 10 ? '0'+minutes : minutes;
var strTime = hours + ':' + minutes + ' ' + ampm;
return strTime;
}
(Taken from
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8888491/how-do-you-display-javascript-datetime-in-12-hour-am-pm-format>) | The suggestion below is certainly valid and may have benefits over my own workaround but I figured out a fairly easy "AMPscript only" solution. I used concat to set the AMPM value in the datestamp and it works but, the challenge is getting it to set a DatePart for the form that sets the events time as there is no method in datepart specific to the AMPM appendage.
So what I did is created a separate field in the data extension which ALSO holds the AM/PM setting of the record. When we update a record, it now uses the @ampm variable from the dropdown menu both to set the value in the concatenated datestamp and ALSO to set the AMPM value in the specific data extension column which only holds that information.
Now when the landing page reads the data extension it sets the dropdown based on the ampm column, and if that is changed and submitted it will update both that field AND the datestamp. An extra field to mimic data which otherwise can't be isolated. Simple and effective. |
52,571,130 | Open CV provides a simple API to detect and extract faces from given images. ( I do not think it works perfectly fine though because I experienced that it cuts frames from the input pictures that have nothing to do with face images. )
I wonder if tensorflow API can be used for face detection. I failed finding relevant information but hoping that maybe an experienced person in the field can guide me on this subject. Can tensorflow's object detection API be used for face detection as well in the same way as Open CV does? (I mean, you just call the API function and it gives you the face image from the given input image.) | 2018/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52571130",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9328846/"
] | You can, but some work is needed.
First, take a look at the object detection [README](https://github.com/tensorflow/models/tree/master/research/object_detection). There are some useful articles you should follow. Specifically: (1) Configuring an object detection pipeline, (3) Preparing inputs and (3) Running locally. You should start with an existing architecture with a pre-trained model. Pretrained models can be found in [Model Zoo](https://github.com/tensorflow/models/blob/master/research/object_detection/g3doc/detection_model_zoo.md), and their corresponding configuration files can be found [here](https://github.com/tensorflow/models/tree/master/research/object_detection/samples/configs).
The most common pre-trained models in Model Zoo are on COCO dataset. Unfortunately this dataset doesn't contain face as a class (but does contain person).
Instead, you can start with a pre-trained model on Open Images, such as faster\_rcnn\_inception\_resnet\_v2\_atrous\_oid, which does contain face as a class.
Note that this model is larger and slower than common architectures used on COCO dataset, such as SSDLite over MobileNetV1/V2. This is because Open Images has a lot more classes than COCO, and therefore a well working model need to be much more expressive in order to be able to distinguish between the large amount of classes and localizing them correctly.
Since you only want face detection, you can try the following two options:
1. If you're okay with a slower model which will probably result in better performance, start with faster\_rcnn\_inception\_resnet\_v2\_atrous\_oid, and you can only slightly fine-tune the model on the single class of face.
2. If you want a faster model, you should probably start with something like SSDLite-MobileNetV2 pre-trained on COCO, but then fine-tune it on the class of face from a different dataset, such as your own or the face subset of Open Images.
Note that the fact that the pre-trained model isn't trained on faces doesn't mean you can't fine-tune it to be, but rather that it might take more fine-tuning than a pre-trained model which was pre-trained on faces as well. | just increase the shape of the input, I tried and it's work much better |
8,428,640 | I'm looking for a way to recursively parse an xml file, no matter what kind of structure it has, and get the attributes/values inside that element or tag. Is it possible? If yes, how? | 2011/12/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8428640",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1057040/"
] | Your question sounds like a description of XSLT. Have you looked at using XSLT? | Have a look at SAX parser:
<http://www.androidpeople.com/android-xml-parsing-tutorial-using-saxparser> |
8,428,640 | I'm looking for a way to recursively parse an xml file, no matter what kind of structure it has, and get the attributes/values inside that element or tag. Is it possible? If yes, how? | 2011/12/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8428640",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1057040/"
] | Your question sounds like a description of XSLT. Have you looked at using XSLT? | Why do you need it to be recursively?
If its not a requirement than you can look at this tutorial its very good
<http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/x-android/> |
10,476 | I noticed a strange and unexpected thing recently. I never paid attention to details of pencils because I had assumed if a pencil is from a well known brand, they would be consistent for same series.
---
I bought Faber Castell **5B** (12 piece) pencils of **9000** series, which came in a bit old **cardboard**/hard paper box. Its date of first availability was around **2010** on Amazon. The 12 pencil costed me about 6 USD.
I already have some other pencils like HB to 8B, which were part of a set of 6 pencils, and came in a **metallic** box. **For this question, let's take example of only one, 8B**. Its date of first availability was around **2019** on Amazon. 6 pencils also costed me about 6 USD (strange that per pencil price is double here).
---
8B has a bit different in terms of look and feel of printed text. I mean the information and branding is exactly same for both 5B and 8B. But there are slight differences in thickness of fonts and color of the golden painted ring (which is at the end of pencil).
In case of 8B, the ring was a bit golden color and for 5B it was bit silver like.
For 5B, the green color was a bit unsaturated (like bit black green). And the green color was not smooth on pencil. It was obvious that they weren't dried properly after coloring was done because I can see the green color spots inside the paper/card box.
For 8B, it was like fresh and bright green (subtle difference, not sure you'd notice in the images) and there was no as such problem of coloring. They look like more finished.
You can see some of the differences in following images:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8rVZ6.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RkoFk.jpg)
So all these things make me guess that despite having same series, the 5B were manufactured years ago and 8B were manufactured recently. I don't know, but these personal evidences make me really feel so. (I don't have any clear proof so I guess I have no right to make a strict statement on it).
**Now comes the more important thing. The wood**.
8B felt a bit better when I was sharpening them with sharpener. The wood was a bit whiter than the 5B and smooth too. 5B wood was breaking easily in parts and wasn't smooth. You can notice the difference in following pencils:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hW0mc.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D4W0C.jpg)
This difference was a bit significant and made me eventually ask this question.
---
One alternate theory that could explain this is: 5Bs are manufactured locally in my country and it's a duplicate product. But that's highly unlikely. **Because I did not notice any problem in working of pencils**. Worked just like other grades. Further the reviews on Amazon are excellent for both pencils.
---
I have to buy 2 or 3 more grades (12 each) and now I'm just thinking if I should go with what's available irrespective of quality of wood. Or if it's actually a quality problem, I would try to find the latest ones somewhere (if I could). So your views would help me know things better.
Like I had said, I had believed that if a pencil is made by well known brand, it would be consistent in terms of quality. But now I'm really curious. If even a well known brand can have manufacturing faults and still end up in market.
**So is it possible that with such a time span of manufacturing, say a decade, the wood used in newer ones could be a bit better? Or alternatively, maybe the wood in older pencils turned a bit bad with time?**
---
PS: I have nothing against Faber Castell or any particular brand. It's just I noticed these unexpected wood differences, which were very obvious. So I just want to go into details to know some truth. | 2021/08/02 | [
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com/questions/10476",
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com",
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com/users/2568/"
] | [This](https://mayarts.com/ribbons/1-8-inch-silk/?attribute_color=SK-8-14%20-%20RED) is what I ended up getting: a "hand-dyed silk ribbon with woven edge".
It is very soft and supple — just like I wanted. It's actually *very* mild - no way the edges will slice through old paper. This ribbon was perfect for the job, although rather expensive at $30/spool. | What you're looking for is actually called "Bible ribbon" bookmark. They come with 5 or 8 colored ribbons, like this example from ChurchSupplyer.com:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YqPlJ.jpg)
The tab can be inserted into the spine of the book and the ribbons used as bookmarks. There are many more examples of that kind in different online shops.
From what I can see, they are all **grosgrain woven ribbons**. I'm honestly a little supprised that this is used for bookmarks because it has a certain stiffness and doesn't bend along the widths of the ribbon. Notice the ribs across the ribbon:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OUVfk.jpg)
Another alternative that will probably work is **cotton twill tape**. This is a sewing supply and it's very supple and soft and easily bent or folded. You'll have more luck finding it in sewing or quilting shops. The only problem could be finding colored twill tape in your required width, because it's mostly only available in black and white. Notice the heringbone pattern:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aZ1Jz.jpg)
Satin bibbon, which you can usually find in craft stores, is woven in a different way to make the surface very smooth and shiny. It's also usually rather thin and stiff and I can imagine how easily it can cut the pages. |
24,697 | I was working for a company in 2019 and I presented an idea that I had been working on since I was a student, and I developed it before my graduation. The company filed a patent application and I was its inventor. in 2020, I changed my job and no longer work for that company. The patent was published in 2021. Now the status of the invention has changed to "APPLICATION DEEMED TO BE WITHDRAWN". As its inventor, can I reapply for the patent?
What is my right in this situation when the employer wasted my idea and efforts?
I greatly appreciate your advice. | 2022/06/17 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/24697",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/27619/"
] | I am not a lawyer. What you can do is probably determined by the specifics of your case. I will address a few things that jump out at me. First, if you created and developed the invention before working for the company I don't see where the company should have any rights to it at all. Therefore, I assume you must have assigned them rights to the invention. I also assume you wouldn't have do so without getting something in return. The specifics of the contract assigning rights are important and you haven't detailed those. If your research, while a student, was sponsored and paid for by the college, university or other funding institution, then it is possible you didn't have sole rights to the invention anyway.
As George White points out, if you know the application publication number, you can look it up on the USPTO [Public PAIR](https://portal.uspto.gov/pair/PublicPair) or [Patent Center](https://patentcenter.uspto.gov/#!/) sites and read the communications between your old employer and the examiner. These might help you understand the history of the application. You also could reach out to your previous employer and ask them why the application was withdrawn. Ultimately, you probably should ask an actual patent attorney for guidance. | The likely bottom line is they paid you for your efforts, you signed over all rights to them and they can do what they think is in their best interests.
As to intangibles, since the application was published with you listed as an inventor, it is available for all to see and learn from your creation.
By the way, the order of inventors is often meaningful to the inventors and others but has no legal consequence. |
3,769 | This keeps me wondering. I normally see front and rear shocks on downhill bikes, but when it comes to touring, road, or mountain bikes, almost every one has only the front shock.
What is the reason for this? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3769",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/847/"
] | 1. Price - a suspended frame is much more complicated and expensive to make, and a good shock alone can cost more than a decent rigid frame.
2. Maintenance - both shocks (due to gaskets/seals, lubrication, cleaning) and elements suspended frames (additional bearings) are relatively high-maintenance and short-lived, compared to rigid frames. This also translates into less reliability, especially important in touring/trekking trips.
3. Cost-effectiveness and weight-effectiveness - especially in road biking or touring, it's not such a big deal. Much better to put wider tires or suspended saddle.
4. Pedalling efficiency - even the best suspension systems rob some of the user's energy. In mountain biking, it's more than offset by less energy expended by the rider, who can spend less time out of the saddle on uneven terrain, but in road cycling it's absolutely unjustifiable. | **Efficiency:** On a suspension bike, some of the energy from the rider's pedaling is translated into the bike bouncing up and down on the suspension, so that's a strike against it.
In addition, **weight** is a factor: Suspension makes a bike heavier, and this is a particular concern with road bikes.
It's much harder to fit **racks** on a bike with suspension. Although it is possible to do so, such frames are more expensive and can be somewhat finicky to attach: Do a search on any touring forum for "rack" and "suspension" and you'll find many threads asking how to do this.
**Cost** is also a factor. Good suspension systems are expensive, bad ones are cheap and ubiquitous.
Also, suspension is just one more thing that can **break down**. It would be difficult to repair a hydraulic suspension system at the side of a road or in a SAG wagon.
(Personally, I hate suspension with a passion because it makes it harder for me to "feel" the road. Ironically, one of the reasons steel is favored among touring cyclists is because it absorbs bumps better than Aluminum, which is said to be "stiffer" than steel, so a group that mostly avoids suspension favors a frame material that has some of the same qualities.) |
3,769 | This keeps me wondering. I normally see front and rear shocks on downhill bikes, but when it comes to touring, road, or mountain bikes, almost every one has only the front shock.
What is the reason for this? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3769",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/847/"
] | 1. Price - a suspended frame is much more complicated and expensive to make, and a good shock alone can cost more than a decent rigid frame.
2. Maintenance - both shocks (due to gaskets/seals, lubrication, cleaning) and elements suspended frames (additional bearings) are relatively high-maintenance and short-lived, compared to rigid frames. This also translates into less reliability, especially important in touring/trekking trips.
3. Cost-effectiveness and weight-effectiveness - especially in road biking or touring, it's not such a big deal. Much better to put wider tires or suspended saddle.
4. Pedalling efficiency - even the best suspension systems rob some of the user's energy. In mountain biking, it's more than offset by less energy expended by the rider, who can spend less time out of the saddle on uneven terrain, but in road cycling it's absolutely unjustifiable. | Some pro racers have successfully campaigned full-suspension bikes. However, pro racers have big budgets and team mechanics to keep everything ship-shape.
A good rear shock absorber can cost more than an entry-level bike...
For most off-road riders, they are simply not necessary; let your legs be the suspension. |
208,162 | Say you had a live video stream of a popular boardwalk that had thousands of pedestrians walk down it each day. Could software be written to count the number of people that walk by a camera and collect data on things like how many of them were wearing red clothing or how many were over 6' tall?
I'm thinking the software would be a layer between the camera and the people. But I have no idea if that is even possible. If something like this already exists, I wasn't able to find it but please share if it does.
Thanks! | 2013/08/13 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/208162",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/84830/"
] | It is possible and it has been already done decades ago. Currently only challenge is to streamline it sufficiently to be run on mobile devices.
Examples
<http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PrzjLg4voEM>
<http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=k-wOJ8rFy8Q>
Currently that kind of result can be achieved with off-the-shelf open source libraries such as [OpenCV](http://opencv.org/).
In fact there is webinar related to that very topic tomorrow. ["Beyond Real-time Video Surveillance Analytics with GPUs"](http://opencv.org/beyond-real-time-video-surveillance-analytics-with-gpus.html) | Absolutely this is possible.
MathWorks has a Matlab toolbox for doing the basics of recognizing people.
Noticing red clothing or height over 6'0" will require you to do some more work.
What's amazing to me is that this kind of thing can be done on a good PC these days. |
355,006 | I am new to using Windows Forms in C++ (and just in general), and I am not exactly sure of the name or if it's even possible to do.
Currently I am currently working on a school project in which we must make a program for an imaginary bookstore. I am trying right now to make a sort of list that shows what the "customer" is buying. I have to make it sort by price and ISBN and any other variable that the book has.
In essence I am trying to make something like the following:
I just need to know how to get started. I can't figure out what the name of the control is or how to even get it to sort every time the user clicks on the header. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/355006",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44840/"
] | You need to write a managed C++
Please look at
<http://www.codeproject.com/KB/miscctrl/mfcandwindowsforms.aspx?fid=3422&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=2509859>
Try to do your control same way. | The WindowsForms control you are looking for is called a DataGrid |
355,006 | I am new to using Windows Forms in C++ (and just in general), and I am not exactly sure of the name or if it's even possible to do.
Currently I am currently working on a school project in which we must make a program for an imaginary bookstore. I am trying right now to make a sort of list that shows what the "customer" is buying. I have to make it sort by price and ISBN and any other variable that the book has.
In essence I am trying to make something like the following:
I just need to know how to get started. I can't figure out what the name of the control is or how to even get it to sort every time the user clicks on the header. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/355006",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44840/"
] | You need to write a managed C++
Please look at
<http://www.codeproject.com/KB/miscctrl/mfcandwindowsforms.aspx?fid=3422&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=2509859>
Try to do your control same way. | It's not entirely clear by your question, but if you are trying to access Windows Forms from standard c++ you are out of luck. Windows Forms lives in the Managed world while c++ is unmanaged. To use windows forms you'd have to switch to C++/CLI or C#. Which if you are doing something for a school project may not be an option.
If it is an option to switch languages like that. I'd start looking at C++/CLI documentation to get a feel for how things might work for you. |
355,006 | I am new to using Windows Forms in C++ (and just in general), and I am not exactly sure of the name or if it's even possible to do.
Currently I am currently working on a school project in which we must make a program for an imaginary bookstore. I am trying right now to make a sort of list that shows what the "customer" is buying. I have to make it sort by price and ISBN and any other variable that the book has.
In essence I am trying to make something like the following:
I just need to know how to get started. I can't figure out what the name of the control is or how to even get it to sort every time the user clicks on the header. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/355006",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44840/"
] | You need to write a managed C++
Please look at
<http://www.codeproject.com/KB/miscctrl/mfcandwindowsforms.aspx?fid=3422&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=2509859>
Try to do your control same way. | If you want to know Windows UI inner workings, I recommend you to stay away from .NET for now, and learn some basic things in C++ and WinAPI. Sometimes programming .NET (or C++ / COM) requires you to invoke unmanaged components/functions and you'll be glad you understand how the low-level things work.
If your project requires .NET, go on, but don't forget to make yourself some time to learn good-old Win32 / C++ programming. |
355,006 | I am new to using Windows Forms in C++ (and just in general), and I am not exactly sure of the name or if it's even possible to do.
Currently I am currently working on a school project in which we must make a program for an imaginary bookstore. I am trying right now to make a sort of list that shows what the "customer" is buying. I have to make it sort by price and ISBN and any other variable that the book has.
In essence I am trying to make something like the following:
I just need to know how to get started. I can't figure out what the name of the control is or how to even get it to sort every time the user clicks on the header. | 2008/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/355006",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44840/"
] | You need to write a managed C++
Please look at
<http://www.codeproject.com/KB/miscctrl/mfcandwindowsforms.aspx?fid=3422&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=2509859>
Try to do your control same way. | Please give some more details about the question Dalze->
is there any requirement about using managed controls? or not using them?
What's your prof want you to learn from this exercise (and is how to use stack overflow to do your homework one of them)?
There's several ways to skin this cat.
If you are supposed to or want to used managed code:
DataGrid mentioned is a good simple database tool [link text](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.ui.webcontrols.datagrid.aspx)
An sql database could also hold all the information and allows sorting on the various sub elements.
If you choose not to use managed code you can build a few simple objects to carry the information you need, then add some sort functions for each of the variables of interest. |
170,683 | For the record, yes I can google. Search results all say I need the following before I can see Celebi:
* All characters
* All stages
* All 51 event matches
* Beating Giga Bowser
* Beating Crazy Hand
* Sound Test
* Score Display
* Random stage select
(Some of these are redundant, and sometimes Giga Bowser and Crazy Hand are omitted in sources.)
I have done all of the above, checking the character screen for characters and the stage select screen for stages, as well as checking the message log to see that I've unlocked all characters and stages. I beat Giga Bowser after completing Adventure Mode on Normal in a speedy enough fashion, and beat Crazy Hand after completing Classic Mode on Normal also quick enough. The former gave me the Giga Bowser trophy but the latter didn't give me anything (so I don't have a Crazy Hand trophy, but sources say to get Celebi one must unlock "everything except trophies"). I did all of the event matches, got the sound test, score display, and random stage select.
In an attempt to see Celebi, I've had four computers playing Final Destination with the only item being the PokeBall set to Very High frequency. After observing and keeping track a bit, I estimate very conservatively that I've seen well over 800 PokeBalls opened and still no Celebi. Mathematically, as the chances of seeing Celebi in each PokeBall in a normal Vs. match are 1/251, the chances of *not* seeing Celebi in 800 PokeBalls is just over 4%. Either I've been pretty unlucky so far or I'm missing something - which is it?
P.S. I've never used action replay or any hacking tool, and I'm pretty sure I've never deleted my data (although it has been over 10 years since I've last played, according to the message log, lol).
P.P.S. Bonuses count in Vs matches right? So if I see Celebi in a Vs. match (even with all computers playing), it will count towards the Diskun trophy. If I do an unlimited time match and at some later point pause and reset, getting a No Contest screen, will all of the bonuses still count, and would seeing Celebi for the first time still count if it was done in that time period? | 2014/06/05 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/170683",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/20138/"
] | First of all, it must be unlocked; it won't appear out of a Poké Ball until all playable characters and stages have been unlocked, the Sound Test has been unlocked, all Event Matches have been completed, and Score Display has been unlocked. Once that's done, the chance of Celebi appearing is 1/251
[***SOURCE***](http://supersmashbros.wikia.com/wiki/Celebi) | Celebi is extremely hard and rare to see. You must fulfill requirements before you even have a chance to see it. The requirements are the following:
Unlock all characters. This can be done through a minimum of 1000 vs matches.
Unlock all stages. Yes, you must play 200 vs matches, get a Birdo or Pidgit trophy, clear classic mode with Mr. Game & Watch, clear All-Star mode, clear all events, clear all Target tests, get a distance of over 1300 in Home-run contest with Yoshi, and survive 15 minute melee.
Unlock special things. You must unlock all characters and stages and get a total of 5000 KOs.
Defeat the secret final bosses. You have to beat Crazy Hand and Giga Bowser in classic and adventure mode respectivley at least once.
After all that you have a 1/251 chance of it appearing in a poke ball. That's the same chance as Mew! |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | [Burnside's lemma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnside%27s_lemma) was first proved by Frobenius. [Vandermonde's identity](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vandermonde%27s_identity) was known in China long before. [Pólya's enumeration theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polya_theorem) is due to Redfield. And $3/4$ of calculus was proved by Euler, but credited to all sorts of other people!
The list goes on ad nauseam. | * The Wiener process, also called Brownian motion, was already known to [Louis Bachelier](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Louis_Bachelier) (11 March 1870 – 28 April 1946) who worked on an option pricing theory five years before Einstein published his Brownian motion paper (1905). Norbert Wiener showed among other things the non-differentiability of the Brownian paths in the early 1920-ies.
* An early version of Ito's lemma (1944) was known to [Wolfgang Doeblin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolfgang_Doeblin) (17 March 1915 – 21 June 1940). |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | Wikipedia has an article on everything: [List of misnamed theorems](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_misnamed_theorems). | A proof of the Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem was published by Bolzano about 2 years after Weierstrass was born. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | A proof of the Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem was published by Bolzano about 2 years after Weierstrass was born. | When I first heard that some people are calling the standard trick from calculus books the *Feynman's trick* my first impression was *WTF?! Are you kidding me?!*
Then I saw that more and more people calling the trick known to Leibnitz as the *Feynman trick*. I knew where it came from, I have read *Surely you are joking Mr Feynman?!* This might be one of the most preposterious cases illustrating the Stigler's law of eponymy.
The other similar situation is with [Glasser's Master Theorem](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GlassersMasterTheorem.html) that dates back to [Boole](https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1015739/285751), 1857. There isn't yet a Wikipedia or Wolfram article for *Feynman's trick*, but there is for [Glasser's Master Theorem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glasser%27s_master_theorem). Boole is not even mentioned in these articles. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | [L'Hospital's rule](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L%27H%C3%B4pital%27s_rule) was popularized by him but proved by Johann Bernoulli. Supposedly he paid off Bernoulli to keep quiet. | When I first heard that some people are calling the standard trick from calculus books the *Feynman's trick* my first impression was *WTF?! Are you kidding me?!*
Then I saw that more and more people calling the trick known to Leibnitz as the *Feynman trick*. I knew where it came from, I have read *Surely you are joking Mr Feynman?!* This might be one of the most preposterious cases illustrating the Stigler's law of eponymy.
The other similar situation is with [Glasser's Master Theorem](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GlassersMasterTheorem.html) that dates back to [Boole](https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1015739/285751), 1857. There isn't yet a Wikipedia or Wolfram article for *Feynman's trick*, but there is for [Glasser's Master Theorem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glasser%27s_master_theorem). Boole is not even mentioned in these articles. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | Stokes' Theorem was basically formulated by everyone else but Stokes. | Not quite an answer but maybe relevant:
*Arnold's Principle*: If a notion bears a personal name, then this name is not the name of the discoverer.
*Berry Principle*: Arnold's Principle is applicable to itself.
[[source](http://pauli.uni-muenster.de/~munsteg/arnold.html)]
---
By the way [this MO thread](https://mathoverflow.net/questions/66075/the-half-life-of-a-theorem-or-arnolds-principle-at-work) on Arnold's principle contains a lot of actual answers to OP question. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | [Edmonds-Karp's algorithm](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edmonds-Karp_algorithm) is actually [Dinic's](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edmonds-Karp_algorithm). In addition to that, Dinic found a better running time. | An interesting "inappropriate" credit is for the [Diffie-Hellman key exchange](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diffie%E2%80%93Hellman_key_exchange), not mentioning Ralph Merkle.
Hellman himself suggested the algorithm be called Diffie–Hellman–Merkle key exchange and has quoted that:
"The system...has since become known as Diffie–Hellman key exchange. While that system was first described in a paper by Diffie and me, it is a public key distribution system, a concept developed by Merkle, and hence should be called 'Diffie–Hellman–Merkle key exchange' if names are to be associated with it. I hope this small pulpit might help in that endeavor to recognize Merkle's equal contribution to the invention of public key cryptography."
I find it very interesting that one of the names of the key exchange actually would like to add another name for credit. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | Nobody's mentioned the Pythagorean theorem yet? | When I first heard that some people are calling the standard trick from calculus books the *Feynman's trick* my first impression was *WTF?! Are you kidding me?!*
Then I saw that more and more people calling the trick known to Leibnitz as the *Feynman trick*. I knew where it came from, I have read *Surely you are joking Mr Feynman?!* This might be one of the most preposterious cases illustrating the Stigler's law of eponymy.
The other similar situation is with [Glasser's Master Theorem](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GlassersMasterTheorem.html) that dates back to [Boole](https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1015739/285751), 1857. There isn't yet a Wikipedia or Wolfram article for *Feynman's trick*, but there is for [Glasser's Master Theorem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glasser%27s_master_theorem). Boole is not even mentioned in these articles. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | Stokes' Theorem was basically formulated by everyone else but Stokes. | When I first heard that some people are calling the standard trick from calculus books the *Feynman's trick* my first impression was *WTF?! Are you kidding me?!*
Then I saw that more and more people calling the trick known to Leibnitz as the *Feynman trick*. I knew where it came from, I have read *Surely you are joking Mr Feynman?!* This might be one of the most preposterious cases illustrating the Stigler's law of eponymy.
The other similar situation is with [Glasser's Master Theorem](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GlassersMasterTheorem.html) that dates back to [Boole](https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1015739/285751), 1857. There isn't yet a Wikipedia or Wolfram article for *Feynman's trick*, but there is for [Glasser's Master Theorem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glasser%27s_master_theorem). Boole is not even mentioned in these articles. |
410,457 | The point of this question is to compile a list of theorems that don't give credit to right people in the sense that the name(s) of the mathematician(s) who first proved the theorem doesn't (do not) appear in the theorem name.
For instance the [Cantor Schröder Bernstein theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem) was first proved by [Dedekind](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor%E2%80%93Bernstein%E2%80%93Schroeder_theorem#History).
I'd also like to include situations in which someone conjectured something, didn't prove it, then someone else conjectured the same thing later, also without proving it, and was credited with having first conjectured it.
Similar unfair things which I didn't remember to include might also be considered.
Some kind of reference is appreciated. | 2013/06/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/410457",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/55235/"
] | **Wilhelm Killing:**
To quote [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wilhelm_Killing):
"
From 1888 to 1890, Killing essentially classified the complex finite dimensional simple Lie algebras, as a requisite step of classifying Lie groups, inventing the notions of a Cartan subalgebra and the Cartan matrix
"
Also Coleman in [the greatest mathematical paper of all time](http://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF03025189) says
"By one of those miscarriages of justice which are commonplace in mathematics, most of the fundamental results about Lie algebras which were discovered by Killing are usually attributed to E.Cartan."
and
"
He (Wilhelm Killing) exhibited the characteristic equation of the Weyl group when Weyl was 3 years old and listed the orders of the Coxeter transformation 19 years before Coxeter was born."
Also Killing was the one who introduced the notion of the 'characteristic polynomial' (see [this](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Characteristic_polynomial#Characteristic_equation)). | * The Wiener process, also called Brownian motion, was already known to [Louis Bachelier](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Louis_Bachelier) (11 March 1870 – 28 April 1946) who worked on an option pricing theory five years before Einstein published his Brownian motion paper (1905). Norbert Wiener showed among other things the non-differentiability of the Brownian paths in the early 1920-ies.
* An early version of Ito's lemma (1944) was known to [Wolfgang Doeblin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolfgang_Doeblin) (17 March 1915 – 21 June 1940). |
79,834 | Assuming I'm rich, take a PP course and buy a Boeing 737 or A320. Could I fly these planes for non-commercial purposes? | 2020/07/27 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79834",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46990/"
] | In the US, yes. There are no restrictions from the FAA on the size of aircraft you fly with a private pilot certificate. If the aircraft requires a type rating, you would have to get that added to your certificate along with the category and class. The insurance carrier covering that aircraft would probably have much more stringent requires over and above the FAA requirements.
John Travolta has/had a Boeing 707 (similar to a B737) that he flies out of his private home/airport.
>
> **§61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.**
> (a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft:
>
>
> (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air).
>
>
> (2) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
>
>
> (3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.
>
>
> (b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating, provided—
>
>
> (1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of flights;
>
>
> (2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the authorization;
>
>
> (3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and
>
>
> (4) The flight—
>
>
> (i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot certificate or rating;
>
>
> (ii) Is within the United States;
>
>
> (iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and
>
>
> (iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight.
>
>
> (5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of flights.
>
>
> (c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire.
>
>
> (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in command of an aircraft, a person must—
>
>
> (1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown; or
>
>
> (2) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate to the pilot certification level, aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received an endorsement for solo flight in that aircraft from an authorized instructor.
>
>
> | Yes, but with major caveats.
1. You'll have to get a multi-engine private rating.
2. You'll probably have to be instrument rated.
3. You'll have to get type-rated for the specific jet that you want to fly, and many type-ratings have fairly significant prerequisites
4. Most aircraft like that are not certified for single pilot operation, so you will have to get an appropriately type-rated co-pilot to fly it with you.
5. The costs and insurance requirements would be astronomical
But yes... its possible. John Travolta flew his own private 707 with a Qantas paint job. |
17,794 | The company I recently joined is owned and being run by a single person: my boss.
He knew me from earlier in person a little, so he called me one day over the phone, to leave my previous employer and join his company. I met him in person, he told me all about his impressive plans on starting a new business branch which involved custom machine design (let's call it "the prosperity machine"), and made an offer whith such a high salary that I did not even think about not joining. I have 5 years experience in custom machine design, my boss little.
In the beginning everything went fine. I started working directly with him and he mostly talked about his business plans and the prosperity in the future. He gave me little tasks which had nothing to do with my profession, but I thought that's ok, it's just the start.
As time passed by, I found out more and more red flags: high turnover rate among people directly working with him , some mention that he is bipolar, and he also started behaving unusually, telling me that I cost too much for the company and do nothing.
- So what would you like me to do then? - He tried giving me some daily little projects, fortunately a little bit more to do with my profession, but every project got stalled near the beginning as he did not agree with my design proposals. Sometimes he even sent me home because he had nothing to give to me for that day.
So one day I told him to start doing the project he hired me for, and design the "prosperity machine".
He finally agreed to this, and started the project by introducing his plans to me. He came to me every day with his new ideas that he was thinking about all night. Filled papers full of drawings, had a meeting with me every day.
Whenever I tried to add my ideas or add something to his ideas he just would not listen. He appeared to be completely incompetent in machine design and had the worst and most impossible ideas I have ever heard. I tried to tell him how to do it but he got upset and angry calling me a rebel. He even told me not to think and leave it up to him to do as he says. So I agreed and he often gave me tasks on filling excel charts that add no value to the project, or his regular nonsense drawings. I am a little lost, working on something that makes no sense, leads to completely nowhere, wasting time, yet still receiving a high salary which is being produced by the other people in a different profession (which my boss tells me he hates) at this company.
As I work alone in my profession, I cannot talk to anyone about the project specifics, however if I mention the boss, most people share their bad experience with him, but don't really care as they have their own work to do.
There is a co-supervisor at the company who is helpful in every way, but cannot or does not want to help as he is legally just another employee who has been working with my boss for many years and says there is nothing to do.
The "prosperity machine" project itself is not bad at all, the basic concept is viable, so I consider designing and building it. It would greatly help if he would trust me at least little enough that he would let me work.
**How can I express disagreement to my boss without him feeling insulted every time I share my ideas?** | 2018/08/21 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/17794",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/20889/"
] | *"How can I express disagreement to my boss without him feeling insulted every time I share my ideas?"*
I'm not sure you can. My best advice here would be to try to found a new job.
However, you can still try to improve things:
First, plan a meeting. Tell him that you think the way you work as a group doesn't seem efficient enough. Blame you, not him, you do not want to put him on the defensive, otherwise, communication will be lost. Then, suggest improvement. This is very important, do not go there without a solution.
In a regular meeting, try to make him focus on his *needs*, why does he want this done that way? Why does he think X is a better idea than Y? If he ask you something impossible, find out what he really want, then explain to him it cannot be done and why before (or after) giving him an alternative. If he want you to do things his way, tell him that *you* would be more efficient doing them yours (but you sure the opposite is also true).
Try to reassure him, make him feel like his ideas have value and that you respect him. Be patient and humble, listen to him, do not interrupt him and, when he is finished talking, guide him to where you want him to go. Try to not make it a matter of "him vs you" but "you both vs the difficulties". Make him feel like you are a team.
If you think he might be bipolar, do research on that subject. It might help you understand your boss, which would lead to a more effective communication. However, her is the basic symptom of bipolarity: if he doesn't take any medications, that means he has two periods. The "down" one, when he is depressed and the "up" one, when he thinks he can conquer the world and probably doesn't sleep much. | Basically your new employer head hunted you for a specific purpose. He took you from your old job and therefore has responsibility for your welfare. But why did he do this?
Firstly because he has an ambition to build a machine from a concept which he has no idea about nor how to build it.
Secondly he poached you because of your experience which he has not got.
So you have been hired as the expert to realise his dreams. But it turns out that he expects you to magic up his ideas whilst just sitting at your desk - with no concrete concept drawings or development plans.
He has QUICKLY shown you that he can be inconsiderate and disrespectful, and that he at all points does not value your advice. He has the potential to make further nasty comments at will.
Basically as long as you are liable for this abuse then you cannot deliver your best solution. Also what worsens this situation is the fact that he just does not listen to your ideas and solutions which are SKILL BASED advice to realise his dreams.
So either you must just look elsewhere for a job where you will be valued, or ask your old employer if they will re - employ you. Or you must completely lay out your conditions for going forward to your employer. This also includes informing him of his rudeness, making him aware that it will no longer be tolerated. Do not fear this, because right is right in any scenario. If it came to a tribunal for unfair dismissal then you would win. Also it is likely that any such claim would never come to court because he would settle. So the only answer is to stop your boss from galloping all over you whilst contributing nothing but silly ideas.
Not easy - it has to be borne to move forward. |
17,794 | The company I recently joined is owned and being run by a single person: my boss.
He knew me from earlier in person a little, so he called me one day over the phone, to leave my previous employer and join his company. I met him in person, he told me all about his impressive plans on starting a new business branch which involved custom machine design (let's call it "the prosperity machine"), and made an offer whith such a high salary that I did not even think about not joining. I have 5 years experience in custom machine design, my boss little.
In the beginning everything went fine. I started working directly with him and he mostly talked about his business plans and the prosperity in the future. He gave me little tasks which had nothing to do with my profession, but I thought that's ok, it's just the start.
As time passed by, I found out more and more red flags: high turnover rate among people directly working with him , some mention that he is bipolar, and he also started behaving unusually, telling me that I cost too much for the company and do nothing.
- So what would you like me to do then? - He tried giving me some daily little projects, fortunately a little bit more to do with my profession, but every project got stalled near the beginning as he did not agree with my design proposals. Sometimes he even sent me home because he had nothing to give to me for that day.
So one day I told him to start doing the project he hired me for, and design the "prosperity machine".
He finally agreed to this, and started the project by introducing his plans to me. He came to me every day with his new ideas that he was thinking about all night. Filled papers full of drawings, had a meeting with me every day.
Whenever I tried to add my ideas or add something to his ideas he just would not listen. He appeared to be completely incompetent in machine design and had the worst and most impossible ideas I have ever heard. I tried to tell him how to do it but he got upset and angry calling me a rebel. He even told me not to think and leave it up to him to do as he says. So I agreed and he often gave me tasks on filling excel charts that add no value to the project, or his regular nonsense drawings. I am a little lost, working on something that makes no sense, leads to completely nowhere, wasting time, yet still receiving a high salary which is being produced by the other people in a different profession (which my boss tells me he hates) at this company.
As I work alone in my profession, I cannot talk to anyone about the project specifics, however if I mention the boss, most people share their bad experience with him, but don't really care as they have their own work to do.
There is a co-supervisor at the company who is helpful in every way, but cannot or does not want to help as he is legally just another employee who has been working with my boss for many years and says there is nothing to do.
The "prosperity machine" project itself is not bad at all, the basic concept is viable, so I consider designing and building it. It would greatly help if he would trust me at least little enough that he would let me work.
**How can I express disagreement to my boss without him feeling insulted every time I share my ideas?** | 2018/08/21 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/17794",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/20889/"
] | *"How can I express disagreement to my boss without him feeling insulted every time I share my ideas?"*
I'm not sure you can. My best advice here would be to try to found a new job.
However, you can still try to improve things:
First, plan a meeting. Tell him that you think the way you work as a group doesn't seem efficient enough. Blame you, not him, you do not want to put him on the defensive, otherwise, communication will be lost. Then, suggest improvement. This is very important, do not go there without a solution.
In a regular meeting, try to make him focus on his *needs*, why does he want this done that way? Why does he think X is a better idea than Y? If he ask you something impossible, find out what he really want, then explain to him it cannot be done and why before (or after) giving him an alternative. If he want you to do things his way, tell him that *you* would be more efficient doing them yours (but you sure the opposite is also true).
Try to reassure him, make him feel like his ideas have value and that you respect him. Be patient and humble, listen to him, do not interrupt him and, when he is finished talking, guide him to where you want him to go. Try to not make it a matter of "him vs you" but "you both vs the difficulties". Make him feel like you are a team.
If you think he might be bipolar, do research on that subject. It might help you understand your boss, which would lead to a more effective communication. However, her is the basic symptom of bipolarity: if he doesn't take any medications, that means he has two periods. The "down" one, when he is depressed and the "up" one, when he thinks he can conquer the world and probably doesn't sleep much. | Almost two years have passed and I wish to write a follow-up, and also give a possible answer which I have just recently learned, in case someone else boards the same boat.
*After getting your answers @Ael, @Elsdon Ward, I decided to return to my previous employer, who was happy to take me back, and I am working on really good projects ever since. Everything worked out, even my salary got raised multiple times so I couldn't complain.*
Recently, I've read a book written by Thomas Erikson, that categorizes personalities as red, yellow, green and blue. My boss here was definitely a red. The book states that to deal with this personality type, you must openly share your opinion, be determined and, try to learn and share personality traits with the red person in question. Be open for battle, you will be found similar which is a huge bonus. In the end you must give up your viewpoint a little, but the key here is to never let the other just run over you. If you let that happen you will find yourself warming the bench. However if you stick to your ideas and do know what you are doing, be open about it and you will stay in league and find the way to success.
Since I prefer being let to work and not having to discuss everything all the time, returning to my previous employer was the best, however I could have survived here with this small knowledge. I'll definitly give it a shot the next time. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | If I had to do this, I'd just plane down the entire boards on a thickness planer, cut a 3/8" x 1" x 7' board and glue it back in the desired place. If you don't have a thickness planer, maybe a friend does or maybe a mill shop in your area would do it very inexpensively. A 18 ga nailer with 3/4 nails could be used to hold the 1x7 in place while the glue dried, or even a bunch of small screws.
I know I'm not answering the question you asked, just suggesting an alternate approach. | **Circular saw table adjustment to the rescue.** If you don't already have a router bit this is a good solution. Otherwise, a router would do fine. You'd need a straight bit without a roller tip.
*This technique is easy and relatively fast. It doesn't require removing safety equipment from your tools.*
1. Set your saw's table to the depth of the material to be removed. Make a test cut to be sure it's accurate.
2. Mark your board and make the first cuts around the 1" strip to be left.
3. Make cuts across the board every 3/8" or so, leapfrogging small strips. This is to keep a level cutting surface for future cuts.
4. Where you can't cut all the way through to the 1" strip, make similar cuts lengthwise on the board.
At this point you should have a completely striped (sliced) board over all areas outside the 1" strip. You have a couple options to continue:
* Knock all the remaining ribs off with a hammer and chisel. They'll practically fall off due to the cross-grain connection. Shave down any lumps with the chisel.
Or...
* Slide the circular saw *sideways* from one end, carving away the ribs as you go. You'll need to make several passes to clear the entire width of the board. This is a very effective technique, but requires more advanced tool control.
Use eye and ear protection, of course. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | **Circular saw table adjustment to the rescue.** If you don't already have a router bit this is a good solution. Otherwise, a router would do fine. You'd need a straight bit without a roller tip.
*This technique is easy and relatively fast. It doesn't require removing safety equipment from your tools.*
1. Set your saw's table to the depth of the material to be removed. Make a test cut to be sure it's accurate.
2. Mark your board and make the first cuts around the 1" strip to be left.
3. Make cuts across the board every 3/8" or so, leapfrogging small strips. This is to keep a level cutting surface for future cuts.
4. Where you can't cut all the way through to the 1" strip, make similar cuts lengthwise on the board.
At this point you should have a completely striped (sliced) board over all areas outside the 1" strip. You have a couple options to continue:
* Knock all the remaining ribs off with a hammer and chisel. They'll practically fall off due to the cross-grain connection. Shave down any lumps with the chisel.
Or...
* Slide the circular saw *sideways* from one end, carving away the ribs as you go. You'll need to make several passes to clear the entire width of the board. This is a very effective technique, but requires more advanced tool control.
Use eye and ear protection, of course. | Lay out three of the boards side-by-side with a gap, e.g. 1/2", between them. With the outer boards for support use a router to make multiple passes down the center board until you have reached the desired thickness. (The gaps allow you to run of the edges off the center board without sacrificing the guide boards.) A bit of cleanup, e.g. with a random orbit sander, will probably be needed.
If your router base isn't large enough to straddle the outer boards you'll need to extend it, e.g. by attaching a suitable piece of plywood.
Depending on the number of boards to be processed you may want to make a guide board with spacers for the gap and a fence for the area to be left at full thickness. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | **Circular saw table adjustment to the rescue.** If you don't already have a router bit this is a good solution. Otherwise, a router would do fine. You'd need a straight bit without a roller tip.
*This technique is easy and relatively fast. It doesn't require removing safety equipment from your tools.*
1. Set your saw's table to the depth of the material to be removed. Make a test cut to be sure it's accurate.
2. Mark your board and make the first cuts around the 1" strip to be left.
3. Make cuts across the board every 3/8" or so, leapfrogging small strips. This is to keep a level cutting surface for future cuts.
4. Where you can't cut all the way through to the 1" strip, make similar cuts lengthwise on the board.
At this point you should have a completely striped (sliced) board over all areas outside the 1" strip. You have a couple options to continue:
* Knock all the remaining ribs off with a hammer and chisel. They'll practically fall off due to the cross-grain connection. Shave down any lumps with the chisel.
Or...
* Slide the circular saw *sideways* from one end, carving away the ribs as you go. You'll need to make several passes to clear the entire width of the board. This is a very effective technique, but requires more advanced tool control.
Use eye and ear protection, of course. | On condition you haven't yet bought the board, buy two boards, one the thickness of the lower part, the other to make up the total thickness. Then simply cut out, with a jigsaw, the top board.
This doesn't directly answer your question, but solves your problem.
To answer the question, a router will do the job - but it's messy and time consuming. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | If I had to do this, I'd just plane down the entire boards on a thickness planer, cut a 3/8" x 1" x 7' board and glue it back in the desired place. If you don't have a thickness planer, maybe a friend does or maybe a mill shop in your area would do it very inexpensively. A 18 ga nailer with 3/4 nails could be used to hold the 1x7 in place while the glue dried, or even a bunch of small screws.
I know I'm not answering the question you asked, just suggesting an alternate approach. | Lay out three of the boards side-by-side with a gap, e.g. 1/2", between them. With the outer boards for support use a router to make multiple passes down the center board until you have reached the desired thickness. (The gaps allow you to run of the edges off the center board without sacrificing the guide boards.) A bit of cleanup, e.g. with a random orbit sander, will probably be needed.
If your router base isn't large enough to straddle the outer boards you'll need to extend it, e.g. by attaching a suitable piece of plywood.
Depending on the number of boards to be processed you may want to make a guide board with spacers for the gap and a fence for the area to be left at full thickness. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | If I had to do this, I'd just plane down the entire boards on a thickness planer, cut a 3/8" x 1" x 7' board and glue it back in the desired place. If you don't have a thickness planer, maybe a friend does or maybe a mill shop in your area would do it very inexpensively. A 18 ga nailer with 3/4 nails could be used to hold the 1x7 in place while the glue dried, or even a bunch of small screws.
I know I'm not answering the question you asked, just suggesting an alternate approach. | On condition you haven't yet bought the board, buy two boards, one the thickness of the lower part, the other to make up the total thickness. Then simply cut out, with a jigsaw, the top board.
This doesn't directly answer your question, but solves your problem.
To answer the question, a router will do the job - but it's messy and time consuming. |
217,973 | We bought a ~50 year old house a few years ago. At the time we knew there was a few humps in the flooring, in particular over the beams. However since we've lived in the house for a while now, we've noticed we have sagging floors in a few spots throughout the house.
It occurs on both the main floor and the second floor (above). On the main floor, we see the biggest sag underneath our eating area and under our fridge. I've measured the sags (as best I can) and they range from 1/2 inch to maybe 3/4 inch sags (over 10-12 feet span). We've also noticed that essentially everywhere in the house when your near the outside frame, you can feel the floors sag right away. It wouldn't be noticeable to 75% of people, but I notice it.
We're debating doing a renovation of our main floor and trying to decide the best ways to spend our money. We have hardwood floors throughout the main floor and while there are areas where we will need to replace some boards, on the whole refinishing the hardwood will be much cheaper than refinishing the entire floor. Our basement is finished so hard to view joists without ripping out the ceiling.
My concern is the structure of the house might be flawed and is something that needs to be fixed, but I've talked to friends who are "handy" and they say they think it's unlikely. If I have to sister every joist in our house, my guess is it will eat up a lot of our renovation budget. Should I simply fix the sloped floors where possible and live with the rest? Or should I rip up the ceiling in the basement and inspect/fix the joists ? | 2021/03/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/217973",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/131079/"
] | Lay out three of the boards side-by-side with a gap, e.g. 1/2", between them. With the outer boards for support use a router to make multiple passes down the center board until you have reached the desired thickness. (The gaps allow you to run of the edges off the center board without sacrificing the guide boards.) A bit of cleanup, e.g. with a random orbit sander, will probably be needed.
If your router base isn't large enough to straddle the outer boards you'll need to extend it, e.g. by attaching a suitable piece of plywood.
Depending on the number of boards to be processed you may want to make a guide board with spacers for the gap and a fence for the area to be left at full thickness. | On condition you haven't yet bought the board, buy two boards, one the thickness of the lower part, the other to make up the total thickness. Then simply cut out, with a jigsaw, the top board.
This doesn't directly answer your question, but solves your problem.
To answer the question, a router will do the job - but it's messy and time consuming. |
87,586 | I've read in a few recipes, especially ones using gelatinous parts of pork like the head and trotters, that long rinsing under running water, and several changes of water soaking is called for.
Why is this?
Why does this practice seem to be unique to pork?
Thanks | 2018/02/06 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/87586",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/64972/"
] | A book I have (Thai Food by David Thompson - a fantastic book, by the way) suggests washing pork and even blanching in boiling water for any dishes involving boiling/stewing/poaching, as it creates a clearer broth with a clearer flavour (author's words, not mine).
I have found I am less likely to get scum and surface impurities in the dish as it cooks. | People frequently wash meat out of a sense of cleanliness. This is unnecessary: you can't wash off bacteria, and even if you could, you're going to miss anything that has penetrated the meat. Bacteria will be killed by cooking, not washing. All it does is get bacteria-laden water splashed around your kitchen. There are efforts to get people to stop doing that:
<https://www.food.gov.uk/news-updates/campaigns/campylobacter/fsw-2014>
I haven't seen recipes calling for soaking trotters or head. It's possible that this is older advice, since these parts are rarely cooked now. These parts will have more crevices for actual dirt to be retained; it would generally be washed off in processing, but if you're getting it from a non-factory processor, it's possible that they've retained some of the dirt the animal was standing on. |
32,529,213 | Chrome Version 45.0.2454.85 m.
All of a sudden one day Inspect Element option in right button context menu greyed out. Ctrl + Shift + I doesn't do anything and F12 doesn't do anything. Cleaned the cache as suggested by one answer here but that didn't help either. | 2015/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32529213",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2105488/"
] | I found out that for strange reasons, either Windows update or Chrome update changed this registry setting.
Software/Policies/Google/Chrome/DeveloperToolsDisabled to 1. Changed it to 0 and restarted the system. | go to your software, then go into policies, google ,chrome ,then you see DeveloperToolsDisabled is at 1, change it to 0. DONE |
889,021 | Is it possible to detect and get proxy server name and port in javascript? | 2009/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/889021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/110024/"
] | No. The browser proxy settings are not available from JavaScript running in a web page.
Maybe. The browser proxy settings may be available (in some web browsers) from JavaScript running with elevated permissions (for example, a Firefox add-on). | For what it's worth: While you're asking about JavaScript, getting access to the browser proxy settings even from any kind of browser plug-in such as a Flash or Java applet is also not possible, or at the very least not in any reliable or compliant way.
I mention this only because sometimes such plug-ins provide viable workarounds when JavaScript can't do something ... but here I think you are S.O.L.
Perhaps you could tell us a little bit more about what you are trying to accomplish? Maybe there's another way to address your needs. |
173,440 | I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!
Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons. | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/173440",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/144886/"
] | *“Every act of conscious learning requires the willingness to suffer an injury to one's self-esteem.” --- Thomas Szasz, Psychiatrist.*
Your supervisor's comment sounds like a rather curt observation to me; while it is perhaps somewhat abrupt, in the context of evaluating and instructing a student (and with the limited information you have given about the incident) I would not classify it as rude. In any case, if there are cultural differences between you and your supervisor, that is all the more reason to grant some leeway if you find that your supervisor's assessments of your work are excessively blunt. (Obviously there are cultural differences across countries in terms of the bluntness with which such an observation would be delivered, so if you think this is a factor, make an allowance for it.) Ultimately, if improvement in your discipline comes at the expense of occasional hurt feelings, you will find that that is a worthwhile trade-off in the long-term.
Much of the information you give surrounding this matter suggests that you may be proceeding under some misapprehensions about the standards of a PhD candidature and the appropriate scope of instruction from supervisors. For example, the fact that you were considered to be a good writer at high school/college level does not mean that you write well enough to be published in a scholarly journal. This is not unusual for early PhD candidates, and it is generally reasonable in the context of a PhD candidature that a supervisor would openly state this to you, even in the presence of other students/academics in a meeting. Since you are only one year into your candidature, you are probably not expected to be producing publishable work yet, but you ought to be working on any skills you need to do this. It sounds like you are already working on ways to improve your work, so that is what you need to be doing. Once you have submitted a paper for publication you will have the benefit of referee feedback, and this will give you another opinion on the quality of your writing.
Being under academic supervision necessarily entails regular scrutiny and judgment of the quality of your work. Unless your situation involves repeated instances of unreasonable criticisms (and I see no evidence of that from your post) I recommend that you take this one on the chin and just work on improving your own work. | It is not acceptable to be subjected to derogatory comments in any circumstances.
You can expect robust criticism during your individual one-on-one meetings with your supervisor, but these should never be delivered with the aim of damaging your sense of worth.
Cultural differences certainly can play a part in challenges faced by supervisor and student, but that should never be used to excuse poor behavior.
Who else is on your supervision team? Can you approach them for advice?
You are in your first year. Do you have a preliminary first year review with your Department/Faculty where you can raise these issues and seek advice?
Do you have a PhD student representative who reports to Department/Faculty? Can you talk to them? |
173,440 | I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!
Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons. | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/173440",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/144886/"
] | *“Every act of conscious learning requires the willingness to suffer an injury to one's self-esteem.” --- Thomas Szasz, Psychiatrist.*
Your supervisor's comment sounds like a rather curt observation to me; while it is perhaps somewhat abrupt, in the context of evaluating and instructing a student (and with the limited information you have given about the incident) I would not classify it as rude. In any case, if there are cultural differences between you and your supervisor, that is all the more reason to grant some leeway if you find that your supervisor's assessments of your work are excessively blunt. (Obviously there are cultural differences across countries in terms of the bluntness with which such an observation would be delivered, so if you think this is a factor, make an allowance for it.) Ultimately, if improvement in your discipline comes at the expense of occasional hurt feelings, you will find that that is a worthwhile trade-off in the long-term.
Much of the information you give surrounding this matter suggests that you may be proceeding under some misapprehensions about the standards of a PhD candidature and the appropriate scope of instruction from supervisors. For example, the fact that you were considered to be a good writer at high school/college level does not mean that you write well enough to be published in a scholarly journal. This is not unusual for early PhD candidates, and it is generally reasonable in the context of a PhD candidature that a supervisor would openly state this to you, even in the presence of other students/academics in a meeting. Since you are only one year into your candidature, you are probably not expected to be producing publishable work yet, but you ought to be working on any skills you need to do this. It sounds like you are already working on ways to improve your work, so that is what you need to be doing. Once you have submitted a paper for publication you will have the benefit of referee feedback, and this will give you another opinion on the quality of your writing.
Being under academic supervision necessarily entails regular scrutiny and judgment of the quality of your work. Unless your situation involves repeated instances of unreasonable criticisms (and I see no evidence of that from your post) I recommend that you take this one on the chin and just work on improving your own work. | What each person finds mean or not is very subjective and depends a lot in their personal context. It also seems like a big part of the problem is that the criticism was made in public, since you don't mention any specific derogatory or offensive language.
I would approach them in private and ask them politely to discuss this kind of concerns and criticisms with you in private in the future. If they were downright offensive I would also mention it during the meeting ("I felt/think/etc. this way because" instead of "you are/were"). |
173,440 | I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!
Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons. | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/173440",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/144886/"
] | I would say that the first step is to work out whether what your advisor said is a mean comment, or is it constructive criticism. In this case I'd say what your advisor is saying falls more under constructive criticism than mean comments.
A key thing to keep in mind is that academic writing is a very different thing to any other kinds of writing you've done. You're trying to very clearly explain a very complex idea to someone else using only written works (and probably some figures/equations). In high school the value of your writing may have been more in its creativity than its clarity. In collage you probably weren't writing too many essays, and when you wrote long prose its goal was to demonstrate understanding of ideas to people who understood those ideas better than you (based on your username I'm guessing chemistry major).
Regarding improvements, one text I would recommend for academic writing is: "the sense of style" by Steven Pinker. This author tries to explain rules rather than just giving you a list of rules to follow. In fact, they argue against a number of commonly believed grammatical rules that aren't followed by the best writers (including sometimes those who advocate for them) and your advisor ignoring them might be part of the reason you believe them to be bad at grammar.
***The following is specifically for the original poster and probably doesn't generalise to other cases (it's also probably more of a comment but is much to long for that):***
Furthermore, based on your question (which I replicated below), I'd lean towards your advisor being a better writer. While its possible your writing is normally better, issues that I can see in a hastily written question are probably similar to issues that keep reappearing in a complicated review paper that you have written. And therefore have probably led your advisor to their conclusion regarding your writing ability.
>
> Title: How to deal with a PhD advisor who makes mean comments?
>
>
>
First one is that you've coded your question in a way that its informal and implies that we are your friends or family from whom you're hoping to receive sympathy. This is mainly because "mean comments" suggests a younger age than I expect you actually are. You should probably have coded your question to a professional audience by using a more 'adult'/professional sounding version of mean comments, e.g. "How to deal with comments from my advisor that I feel to be overly mean?" or "How to deal with criticism from my advisor that I feel is unwarranted?".
>
> I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort! Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons.
>
>
>
On my first read through this I felt like something was wrong but I couldn't put my finger on it, but on a second read through I could find a couple of issues which would probably impact your academic writing.
The first was "révisons" instead of "revisions", I googled your word and I could only find guides to French so I'm guessing you know French as well?
The second was that your sentences lack connectors between them, leaving the idea of each of your sentences floating disconnected from one another. This means I need to provide the connections, fine for simple ideas or ideas I know well, but for new and complex ideas not so much. Here you're pushing the workload onto me to essentially re-perform your research project, rather than accepting the workload to clearly explain it to me through your writing. For example your second and third sentences might be more elegant if you wrote:
" I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college, though my advisor was critical of me during a group meeting. Specifically by stating that my writing is too bad to be published."
Here I've joined the two new sentences by using a connector 'specifically' so I know that the second sentence above is specifying something from the first sentence (what the advisor was critical of).
Third, you seem to be confusing how to use a few words, for example "discussing" isn't right unless they were discussing your bad writing with you (in which case you need to make clear who they were discussing with). And when you say "Geography definitely plays a role" is suspect you mean "Culture/Background definitely plays a role" since the geography of where they work/have worked isn't influencing their language ability. But their background/culture, which you've mentioned and linked to this sentence, does play a role. Though as a side note to my second comment, the relation of this sentence with the previous sentence is unclear.
Fourth, You seem to switch tenses within a sentence, e.g. "I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult." switches from past tense to present tense.
Fifth, the sentence "I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!" is confused. You seem to be saying: I'm - (1) looking for ways to improve, (2) finding some comfort. Instead I think you wanted to say: I'm looking for - (1) ways to improve, (2) some comfort from others.
A number of these things are mentioned in the Steven Pinker book I suggested above which might explain what is wrong better than I have here (and probably give some words you can google for even more info). | It is not acceptable to be subjected to derogatory comments in any circumstances.
You can expect robust criticism during your individual one-on-one meetings with your supervisor, but these should never be delivered with the aim of damaging your sense of worth.
Cultural differences certainly can play a part in challenges faced by supervisor and student, but that should never be used to excuse poor behavior.
Who else is on your supervision team? Can you approach them for advice?
You are in your first year. Do you have a preliminary first year review with your Department/Faculty where you can raise these issues and seek advice?
Do you have a PhD student representative who reports to Department/Faculty? Can you talk to them? |
173,440 | I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!
Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons. | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/173440",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/144886/"
] | I would say that the first step is to work out whether what your advisor said is a mean comment, or is it constructive criticism. In this case I'd say what your advisor is saying falls more under constructive criticism than mean comments.
A key thing to keep in mind is that academic writing is a very different thing to any other kinds of writing you've done. You're trying to very clearly explain a very complex idea to someone else using only written works (and probably some figures/equations). In high school the value of your writing may have been more in its creativity than its clarity. In collage you probably weren't writing too many essays, and when you wrote long prose its goal was to demonstrate understanding of ideas to people who understood those ideas better than you (based on your username I'm guessing chemistry major).
Regarding improvements, one text I would recommend for academic writing is: "the sense of style" by Steven Pinker. This author tries to explain rules rather than just giving you a list of rules to follow. In fact, they argue against a number of commonly believed grammatical rules that aren't followed by the best writers (including sometimes those who advocate for them) and your advisor ignoring them might be part of the reason you believe them to be bad at grammar.
***The following is specifically for the original poster and probably doesn't generalise to other cases (it's also probably more of a comment but is much to long for that):***
Furthermore, based on your question (which I replicated below), I'd lean towards your advisor being a better writer. While its possible your writing is normally better, issues that I can see in a hastily written question are probably similar to issues that keep reappearing in a complicated review paper that you have written. And therefore have probably led your advisor to their conclusion regarding your writing ability.
>
> Title: How to deal with a PhD advisor who makes mean comments?
>
>
>
First one is that you've coded your question in a way that its informal and implies that we are your friends or family from whom you're hoping to receive sympathy. This is mainly because "mean comments" suggests a younger age than I expect you actually are. You should probably have coded your question to a professional audience by using a more 'adult'/professional sounding version of mean comments, e.g. "How to deal with comments from my advisor that I feel to be overly mean?" or "How to deal with criticism from my advisor that I feel is unwarranted?".
>
> I’m one year into my PhD program, and I recently drafted my first review article. I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college. My advisor made mean comments during a group meeting, discussing that my writing is too bad to be published. My Advisor is from Northern Europe and is bad at grammar. I admitted that my academic writing wasn’t top notch and promised to improve. I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult. I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort! Geography definitely plays a role. My M.S advisor is an Indian, and I had a lot of publications with minimal révisons.
>
>
>
On my first read through this I felt like something was wrong but I couldn't put my finger on it, but on a second read through I could find a couple of issues which would probably impact your academic writing.
The first was "révisons" instead of "revisions", I googled your word and I could only find guides to French so I'm guessing you know French as well?
The second was that your sentences lack connectors between them, leaving the idea of each of your sentences floating disconnected from one another. This means I need to provide the connections, fine for simple ideas or ideas I know well, but for new and complex ideas not so much. Here you're pushing the workload onto me to essentially re-perform your research project, rather than accepting the workload to clearly explain it to me through your writing. For example your second and third sentences might be more elegant if you wrote:
" I’m a native English speaker, and was often applauded for my writing during high school and college, though my advisor was critical of me during a group meeting. Specifically by stating that my writing is too bad to be published."
Here I've joined the two new sentences by using a connector 'specifically' so I know that the second sentence above is specifying something from the first sentence (what the advisor was critical of).
Third, you seem to be confusing how to use a few words, for example "discussing" isn't right unless they were discussing your bad writing with you (in which case you need to make clear who they were discussing with). And when you say "Geography definitely plays a role" is suspect you mean "Culture/Background definitely plays a role" since the geography of where they work/have worked isn't influencing their language ability. But their background/culture, which you've mentioned and linked to this sentence, does play a role. Though as a side note to my second comment, the relation of this sentence with the previous sentence is unclear.
Fourth, You seem to switch tenses within a sentence, e.g. "I was never ridiculed in front of people, and I feel it as an insult." switches from past tense to present tense.
Fifth, the sentence "I’m looking for ways to improve and finding some comfort!" is confused. You seem to be saying: I'm - (1) looking for ways to improve, (2) finding some comfort. Instead I think you wanted to say: I'm looking for - (1) ways to improve, (2) some comfort from others.
A number of these things are mentioned in the Steven Pinker book I suggested above which might explain what is wrong better than I have here (and probably give some words you can google for even more info). | What each person finds mean or not is very subjective and depends a lot in their personal context. It also seems like a big part of the problem is that the criticism was made in public, since you don't mention any specific derogatory or offensive language.
I would approach them in private and ask them politely to discuss this kind of concerns and criticisms with you in private in the future. If they were downright offensive I would also mention it during the meeting ("I felt/think/etc. this way because" instead of "you are/were"). |
4,594,218 | I have a solr index accessed using SolrNet, and I would like to retrieve the index (position) of a particular document in the results, without returning the whole result set.
In more detail... the query returns ~30,000 documents and is ordered by an integer field. The unique key field contains a Guid, and I would like to find where in the results a particular document is, based on the unique key, while only returning the first 10 results.
This index was originally implemented in plain old Lucene, and this task was achieved with two queries, one to get the lucene doc id of the document I want to know about, then a second that returns the whole result set. I can then use the doc id to find where the document appears in the full result set, but then only enumerate the documents for the first 10.
Is there a way to achieve what I'm after with Solr, without returning all 30000 results (even limiting this to the Guid only seems too slow)?
Thanks | 2011/01/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4594218",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/217119/"
] | I think you can do with a range query, including your user point's as lower level you can get the number of users above. You can do an explicit query or get that info using the facet range approach.
so, if you know that you user point is 10.000, you could do a query: game:tetris points[MaxInt TO 10000], and if the result is 375 you would know that your user is in rank 375. | The only reliable way I can think of is building the ranking at index-time, i.e. have a "rank" integer field and populate it when you build the index. The downside of this is that every update requires rebuilding the whole index.
Lucene doc ids are not stable, I wouldn't recommend using them for this (see [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1296709/getting-the-doc-id-in-lucene), [this](http://lucene.472066.n3.nabble.com/on-the-fly-quot-filters-quot-from-docID-lists-td984102.html), [this](http://www.mail-archive.com/java-user@lucene.apache.org/msg13795.html)), and Solr does not expose them anyway. |
8,236,785 | I ran into a few synchronization issues where I had to checkout my project a few times over.
A number of us are working on an android project and need to retain the proper package structure, resource files, etc... I think that all of these should be in the repository but the class/build files should be excluded, right?
Is it good practice for my team to ignore committing their .class files? | 2011/11/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8236785",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/557836/"
] | Yes, .class files produced from .java files in the same project should be ignored.
Usually you want to have a separate build folder for all your .class files to go in, and then put that whole folder in .svnignore.
See:
[Which files do you commit and/or omit from your source control?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1480274/which-files-do-you-commit-and-or-omit-from-your-source-control) | You should put source in the repo but not things generated from the source. So yea, you should not commit class files. You should commit your build scripts, but not files generated by the build |
8,236,785 | I ran into a few synchronization issues where I had to checkout my project a few times over.
A number of us are working on an android project and need to retain the proper package structure, resource files, etc... I think that all of these should be in the repository but the class/build files should be excluded, right?
Is it good practice for my team to ignore committing their .class files? | 2011/11/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8236785",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/557836/"
] | You should put source in the repo but not things generated from the source. So yea, you should not commit class files. You should commit your build scripts, but not files generated by the build | Generate files (build files, class files, etc) should not typically be placed into source control. It's best to add these to an ignore list, depending on your SCM. |
8,236,785 | I ran into a few synchronization issues where I had to checkout my project a few times over.
A number of us are working on an android project and need to retain the proper package structure, resource files, etc... I think that all of these should be in the repository but the class/build files should be excluded, right?
Is it good practice for my team to ignore committing their .class files? | 2011/11/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8236785",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/557836/"
] | Yes, .class files produced from .java files in the same project should be ignored.
Usually you want to have a separate build folder for all your .class files to go in, and then put that whole folder in .svnignore.
See:
[Which files do you commit and/or omit from your source control?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1480274/which-files-do-you-commit-and-or-omit-from-your-source-control) | Generate files (build files, class files, etc) should not typically be placed into source control. It's best to add these to an ignore list, depending on your SCM. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The day after the Georgia governor signed the law, *PBS Newshour* correspondent Lisa Desjardins [interviewed](https://www.pbs.org/newshour/show/outcry-from-biden-democrats-over-georgias-new-elections-law) a spokesperson for the Georgia Secretary of State's office, which oversees elections:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> To discuss the new law, Gabriel Sterling is the chief operating officer of the Georgia secretary of state's office. He's a Republican.
>
>
>
They basically have two arguments. The first is a claim that handing out water was already being used as a workaround for the ban on campaigning at polling sites:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> You know what is making headlines, of course, is this ban on handing out food and water at the polls. I understand you made the argument that, in the last election, there may have been some **activists who used giving out water as an excuse to talk to voters**.
>
>
> First, do we know that that happened? And, second, if so, why not just enforce the campaign ban? Why eliminate giving out food and water?
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> Well, the main thing is, it's been used as a work-around to get around that law.
>
>
>
Note how the official dodged the reporter's question "do we know that that happened?"
---
The second claim is that it is not a new idea, and particularly that President Biden's home state already banned giving out water:
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> And the irony of this, as we looked it up, this is actually the law in the president's home state of Delaware right now. So, this is not some new thing that's been brought out. This is pretty standard across the country to avoid those kind of loopholes where people can go and campaign and try to influence voters in the line.
>
>
> And that's been the law in this state for decades. This was a work-around. People sort of abused it. It's hard to enforce for elections officials and sheriffs. Like I said, it's the law in the president's home state of Delaware. So I'm surprised that shock isn't being held for his own state legislature, who passed the same thing.
>
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling, with the Georgia secretary of state's office, thank you for talking with us.
>
>
>
@Jontia linked to a [*Washington Post* story](https://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/2021/03/29/no-delaware-doesnt-specifically-prohibit-food-or-water-polls-like-georgia/) that specifically disproved Sterling's claim from this *PBS Newshour* interview.
---
So that's the rationale of Georgian election officials. Whether or not it is supported by facts, this is what they believe. | Please note that I'm not saying any of the justifications are good or have anything to do with anyone's other reasons for passing the law. This is just the justification publicly given by politicians in Georgia.
Politicians in Georgia are justifying it by saying that ["giveaways or gifts" to people waiting in line can influence how they vote](https://sos.ga.gov/index.php/elections/secretary_raffensperger_cracks_down_on_line_warming_loophole) (if I give you a nice gift, you think I'm a nice person and vote for me).
But how does water become a "giveaway or gift"?
This is a tactic which can be called "moving the line". Since the law doesn't like large grey areas, it's reasonable to argue that a line must be drawn at some point (this side of the line is OK, that side of the line is Wrong). But having drawn a line, someone can take advantage of a series of small steps in order to move the line towards one position or another. If everyone agrees that X is wrong and should be banned, then X+epsilon, where epsilon is a very small change, seems to also be wrong. So if X+epsilon is wrong, then X+epsilon+epsilon...you get the picture.
To show how ridiculous this is, we can also do this in reverse:
Giving people water is OK (not bribery). If giving people water is OK, then giving someone juice should be OK. If giving someone juice is OK, then giving someone a soda is OK. .... So giving someone an Isabella Islay whiskey, price USD 6 million (yup) is OK and definitely not bribery.
Ideally neither side would do a large amount of line moving, so that the line would end up inside the grey area for both sides (although in some cases there may be no shared grey area). |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The day after the Georgia governor signed the law, *PBS Newshour* correspondent Lisa Desjardins [interviewed](https://www.pbs.org/newshour/show/outcry-from-biden-democrats-over-georgias-new-elections-law) a spokesperson for the Georgia Secretary of State's office, which oversees elections:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> To discuss the new law, Gabriel Sterling is the chief operating officer of the Georgia secretary of state's office. He's a Republican.
>
>
>
They basically have two arguments. The first is a claim that handing out water was already being used as a workaround for the ban on campaigning at polling sites:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> You know what is making headlines, of course, is this ban on handing out food and water at the polls. I understand you made the argument that, in the last election, there may have been some **activists who used giving out water as an excuse to talk to voters**.
>
>
> First, do we know that that happened? And, second, if so, why not just enforce the campaign ban? Why eliminate giving out food and water?
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> Well, the main thing is, it's been used as a work-around to get around that law.
>
>
>
Note how the official dodged the reporter's question "do we know that that happened?"
---
The second claim is that it is not a new idea, and particularly that President Biden's home state already banned giving out water:
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> And the irony of this, as we looked it up, this is actually the law in the president's home state of Delaware right now. So, this is not some new thing that's been brought out. This is pretty standard across the country to avoid those kind of loopholes where people can go and campaign and try to influence voters in the line.
>
>
> And that's been the law in this state for decades. This was a work-around. People sort of abused it. It's hard to enforce for elections officials and sheriffs. Like I said, it's the law in the president's home state of Delaware. So I'm surprised that shock isn't being held for his own state legislature, who passed the same thing.
>
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling, with the Georgia secretary of state's office, thank you for talking with us.
>
>
>
@Jontia linked to a [*Washington Post* story](https://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/2021/03/29/no-delaware-doesnt-specifically-prohibit-food-or-water-polls-like-georgia/) that specifically disproved Sterling's claim from this *PBS Newshour* interview.
---
So that's the rationale of Georgian election officials. Whether or not it is supported by facts, this is what they believe. | The food and drink restriction is a reaction to well publicized splashy free-food events in voting lines during the 2020 elections. The bill is fixing a presumed "pizza loophole" in vote-buying. That's the formal justification: in the future free food might be used for vote-buying.
[Pizza to the Polls](https://polls.pizza/trucks/), started handing out slices during the 2016 elections. They bring a truck with a big American flag painted on, and a "Democracy / Delicious" logo. They went to 29 cities in 2020, including Atlanta. To a conservative Georgian this looks like an out-of-state group interfering with their elections, trying to embarrass their state.
But that's just the tip. This [The Eater Oct 28th article](https://www.eater.com/21536548/feeding-voters-food-at-the-polls-election-day-voting) (an on-line national magazine) describes how *Chefs for the Polls*, who were already giving away free meals to people who needed them, decided to have food give-aways near polls, including in Atlanta. The article also describes studies that this increases voter turnout. So there it is in black-and-white: free food is a way to increase Democratic voter turn-out (which is where the long lines are).
An Oct 30 [Atlanta Journal-Constitution article](https://www.ajc.com/politics/giving-free-food-to-voters-allowed-in-practice-despite-legal-gray-area/RBCFSSGRJRFOLJWAIEOWYBBBHY/) describes the legal issues. Giving food to only voters is a grey "vote buying" area, but setting up near a polling place and giving food to anyone is legal -- described as a loophole. It describes Gwinnett county (a 1/3rd black Atlanta suburb) refusing an out-of-state donor wanting to send pizzas to voting lines. Then later "armed residents" confronting other free-food volunteers. It also describes the term "line warming" as giving free food and water to improve waiting in long voting lines. Summed-up, conservative Georgians are aware of "line warming", vaguely link it to illegal vote-buying, don't like it, and probably think there should be a law against it.
This Dec 30 [Atlanta TV station Alive-11 atricle](https://www.11alive.com/article/news/politics/elections/georgia-elections-officials-line-warming-crackdown/85-afb28fc8-f0aa-4cab-800d-443bc58ddca8) describes Georgia secretary of state Brad Raffensperger's (the same one Trump famously called to say he only needed 11,780 votes) press release. Raffensperger again calls it "line warming" but redefines it to mean warming them to your candidate with free food. He's running with the previous vote-buying theme, implying that it's happened. The article says there have been no complaints about that. Even so, he goes on to say it could be used to influence voters, and so on.
That seems like a pretty straight line to Section 2.13 of the bill. SB202 "*...with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote*...". Clearly, the "many groups" can only be the free food groups.
To sum up, free food for people waiting to vote in Atlanta really is a thing. It increases Democratic turn-out, highlights what seems like unfair voting processes, and became a political issue as a result. The Georgia legislature seems to have 1/2-convinced themselves there really was and will be illegal vote-buying with these Yankee "line warmers". As for evidence, many in Georgia are sure there was cheating somehow -- the president told them so over and over. In a climate like that "this seems suspicious" counts as evidence. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | >
> What is the rationale behind this restriction?
>
>
>
The rationale given in [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121?#page=6) is:
>
> (13) The sanctity of the precinct was also brought into sharp focus in 2020, with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote is of paramount importance to protecting the election system and ensuring elector confidence;
>
>
>
---
>
> I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have some reason that doesn't sound evil.
>
>
>
The content of the bill is public and was agreed to by the majority of Republican Senators and Representatives in the Georgia General Assembly.
Complaints about "[voter suppression](https://www.brennancenter.org/our-work/analysis-opinion/georgias-voter-suppression-law)" often refer to more than giving water.
The text of the rationale from the bill, given above, "doesn't sound evil."
---
>
> Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water?
>
>
>
Clearly, some felt there was, though I found no specific complaints from Republicans about Democrats giving water to voters; though there were some "incidents" (see below). Apparently, only Georgia's Secretary of State is making statements about it: [Georgia Doesn’t Want Voters Waiting in Line to Be Offered Free Food and Drinks](https://www.foodandwine.com/news/georgia-voting-line-food-and-drinks-law-secretary-of-state).
Perhaps, it came from this type of operation, which was scheduled for the 2020 general election in a number of large cities, including Atlanta. The use of "DEMOCRACY" on the truck might be seen to subtly suggest "DEMOCRAT," or it could just be that Atlanta tends toward Democrats and Republicans want to be less accommodating to those voters.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1o6os.png)
[Source](https://www.foodandwine.com/news/food-for-poll-workers-voters-in-line)
[PolitiFact reports](https://www.politifact.com/factchecks/2021/mar/09/facebook-posts/georgia-bill-would-ban-giving-food-water-voters-li/):
>
> Pizza to the Polls told PolitiFact that it delivered more than 7,000 boxes of pizza and more than 65,000 snacks during the general election and Senate runoff. **The group was co-founded by a 2016 Obama field organizer** but says it is nonpartisan: "Ain’t nothing partisan about trying to make voting less of a drag," it says on its website. Chef José Andrés’ World Central Kitchen, as part of its Chefs for the Polls project, brought tacos, sandwiches and pizza to lines of voters in Georgia in 2020, the Atlanta Journal-Constitution reported. The group is also nonpartisan, but **Andres supported Biden’s candidacy**. [Emboldening added.]
>
>
> **Georgia law already bans gifts to voters**
>
>
> Existing Georgia law bans giving gifts "for the purpose of registering as a voter, voting, or voting for a particular candidate." That provision doesn’t mention food or water directly, but the Secretary of State Brad Raffensperger has interpreted it to include food or water.
>
>
> In February, the Georgia elections board referred for investigation to prosecutors a couple of cases in which candidates gave food or water to voters.
>
>
> Matthew Wilson bought four pizzas and passed out slices to those in line to vote in 2018, according to Reporter Newspapers. Wilson, a Democrat who won his race for state representative, said he distributed the pizza after getting permission from a poll manager. Kelly Rose, a Democrat who lost a state senate race, told PolitiFact that her team handed out water, oranges and chips at a 2020 polling site. "A woman passed out one day we were there," Rose told PolitiFact. Rose said she didn’t campaign at the site and didn’t break the law. (A state law bans soliciting votes within 150 feet of a building where voting takes place.)
>
>
> | The idea isn't restriction of voting, but restricting something called [electioneering](https://www.ncsl.org/research/elections-and-campaigns/electioneering.aspx)
>
> Each state has some form of restriction on political activities near polling places when voting is taking place.
>
> These restrictions usually include limiting the display of signs, handing out campaign literature or soliciting votes within a pre-determined distance (typically 50 to 200 feet) of a polling place. Some states also address what apparel voters can wear within polling places
>
>
>
So imagine that you're going to vote and people in political T-shirts are standing outside the polling place handing out food and/or water bottles ([something that actually happened in Georgia in Nov 2020](https://www.douglascountysentinel.com/news/local/rep-bruce-under-investigation-for-handing-out-snacks-to-voters-in-lines/article_5c69c150-2b15-5ed1-8eb1-465f9acd0fe9.html)). It's also possible in this day and age that the water bottles have custom-printed political message labels on them. It's pretty hard not to see how that's electioneering.
From [the full text of SB 202](https://legiscan.com/GA/text/SB202/id/2348602/Georgia-2021-SB202-Enrolled.pdf) (starts at line 1872)
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast:
>
> (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is established;
>
> (2) Within any polling place; or
>
> (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
> "(e) This Code section shall not be construed to prohibit a poll officer from distributing materials, as required by law, which are necessary for the purpose of instructing electors or from distributing materials prepared by the Secretary of State which are designed solely for the purpose of encouraging voter participation in the election being conducted or from making available self-service water from an unattended receptacle to an elector waiting in line to vote."
>
>
>
[A recent National Review article](https://www.nationalreview.com/news/dem-abuses-prompted-georgia-voting-laws-food-and-drink-rule) interviewed the two representatives who wrote and sponsored it
>
> The reason for the new provision was to cut down on the real, and increasingly abused practice of line warming, which already was against the law in Georgia, the authors of the state House and Senate election-security bills told National Review. The two bills were eventually merged into Senate Bill 202, which was signed in late March by Georgia governor Brian Kemp.
>
> The food-and-drink provision of Georgia’s law is based on a similar provision in New York state’s election law, state Senate majority leader Mike Dugan said.
>
>
>
New York statue says this
>
> Any person who…in respect of any election during the hours of voting…gives or provides, or causes to be given or provided, or shall pay, wholly or in part, for any meat, drink, tobacco, refreshment or provision to or for any person, other than [poll workers and other voting officials], except any such meat, drink, tobacco, refreshment or provision having a retail value of less than one dollar, which is given or provided to any person in a polling place without any identification of the person or entity supplying such provisions, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. N.Y. Elec. Law § 17-140
>
>
>
Going back to the NR interview, they specifically mention why it says "any person"
>
> “The part that was getting a little bit carried away was, ‘We’re not campaigning. We’re handing out free drinks and snacks,’” Dugan said. “Let’s take it to the extremes. Let’s say the Proud Boys decided they were going to come and stand outside of precincts and pass out water and go up and down the lines. That could be taken by some as voter intimidation.”
>
>
>
>
> The new law clarifies that handing out money or gifts — including food and drinks, or really anything else of value — to voters in line is prohibited for everyone, regardless of their political or nonpolitical intent. “We don’t really want to put the poll workers in the position to have to define (political intent) constantly all day long,” Fleming said.
>
>
>
Multiple states across the political spectrum ban the practice of handing out food and/or drink *outside a polling place on election day*. The reason for the "any person" restriction is that people were engaging in electioneering activities in 2020 and 2021. Nothing in the law prohibits you from doing these things outside the 150ft/46M perimeter of a polling place. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The point is to make voting harder and, therefore, to discourage it. By preventing volunteers from giving out food and water to voters, it makes the wait to vote (which can stretch to hours in some places) more unpleasant and discourages voters who are less motivated from waiting it out.
This is in keeping with the long-standing push from the US right to shrink the electorate. This is not *necessarily* about gaining a partisan electoral advantage. The good-faith explanation for this is that the country benefits from an informed and motivated electorate, and a voter who doesn't feel strongly enough to put up with some discomfort to cast their vote is unlikely to cast an "informed" or "high-quality" vote.
Representative John Kavanagh, a Republican legislator who chairs Arizona’s Government and Elections Committee and who is pushing through their own set of voting restrictions, [laid it out plainly to CNN](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/11/politics/arizona-republicans-voter-suppression-bills/index.html):
>
> Democrats value as many people as possible voting, and they’re willing to risk fraud. Republicans are more concerned about fraud, so we don’t mind putting security measures in that won’t let everybody vote — but everybody shouldn’t be voting … Not everybody wants to vote, and if somebody is uninterested in voting, that probably means that they’re totally uninformed on the issues. Quantity is important, but we have to look at the quality of votes, as well.
>
>
>
Similarly, David Harsanyi, a senior editor at the Federalist, argued in a [Washington Post editorial in 2016](https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/we-must-weed-out-ignorant-americans-from-the-electorate/2016/05/20/f66b3e18-1c7a-11e6-8c7b-6931e66333e7_story.html):
>
> Never have so many people with so little knowledge made so many consequential decisions for the rest of us. ... by weeding out millions of irresponsible voters who can’t be bothered to learn the rudimentary workings of the Constitution, or their preferred candidate’s proposals or even their history, we may be able to mitigate the recklessness of the electorate.
>
>
>
While [The National Review argued last year](https://www.nationalreview.com/2020/01/democracy-no-defense-against-authoritarianism/):
>
> The libertarian writer James Bovard famously worried about vulgar majoritarianism, the kind of democracy that amounts to “two wolves and a sheep voting on what to have for dinner.” (The quip often is misattributed to Ben Franklin, among others.) The American founders by and large feared and despised democracy, which they took from their experience to be a dreary antechamber to anarchy. ...
>
>
> The rising authoritarianism of our time is not an aberration but the ordinary natural fulfillment of mass democracy when it has overflowed its constitutional restraints
>
>
>
Whether this provision was motivated by a philosophical objection to unconstrained democracy or a predicted partisan advantage is hard to say for sure, but aim to make it just a bit harder to vote is clear. | The food and drink restriction is a reaction to well publicized splashy free-food events in voting lines during the 2020 elections. The bill is fixing a presumed "pizza loophole" in vote-buying. That's the formal justification: in the future free food might be used for vote-buying.
[Pizza to the Polls](https://polls.pizza/trucks/), started handing out slices during the 2016 elections. They bring a truck with a big American flag painted on, and a "Democracy / Delicious" logo. They went to 29 cities in 2020, including Atlanta. To a conservative Georgian this looks like an out-of-state group interfering with their elections, trying to embarrass their state.
But that's just the tip. This [The Eater Oct 28th article](https://www.eater.com/21536548/feeding-voters-food-at-the-polls-election-day-voting) (an on-line national magazine) describes how *Chefs for the Polls*, who were already giving away free meals to people who needed them, decided to have food give-aways near polls, including in Atlanta. The article also describes studies that this increases voter turnout. So there it is in black-and-white: free food is a way to increase Democratic voter turn-out (which is where the long lines are).
An Oct 30 [Atlanta Journal-Constitution article](https://www.ajc.com/politics/giving-free-food-to-voters-allowed-in-practice-despite-legal-gray-area/RBCFSSGRJRFOLJWAIEOWYBBBHY/) describes the legal issues. Giving food to only voters is a grey "vote buying" area, but setting up near a polling place and giving food to anyone is legal -- described as a loophole. It describes Gwinnett county (a 1/3rd black Atlanta suburb) refusing an out-of-state donor wanting to send pizzas to voting lines. Then later "armed residents" confronting other free-food volunteers. It also describes the term "line warming" as giving free food and water to improve waiting in long voting lines. Summed-up, conservative Georgians are aware of "line warming", vaguely link it to illegal vote-buying, don't like it, and probably think there should be a law against it.
This Dec 30 [Atlanta TV station Alive-11 atricle](https://www.11alive.com/article/news/politics/elections/georgia-elections-officials-line-warming-crackdown/85-afb28fc8-f0aa-4cab-800d-443bc58ddca8) describes Georgia secretary of state Brad Raffensperger's (the same one Trump famously called to say he only needed 11,780 votes) press release. Raffensperger again calls it "line warming" but redefines it to mean warming them to your candidate with free food. He's running with the previous vote-buying theme, implying that it's happened. The article says there have been no complaints about that. Even so, he goes on to say it could be used to influence voters, and so on.
That seems like a pretty straight line to Section 2.13 of the bill. SB202 "*...with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote*...". Clearly, the "many groups" can only be the free food groups.
To sum up, free food for people waiting to vote in Atlanta really is a thing. It increases Democratic turn-out, highlights what seems like unfair voting processes, and became a political issue as a result. The Georgia legislature seems to have 1/2-convinced themselves there really was and will be illegal vote-buying with these Yankee "line warmers". As for evidence, many in Georgia are sure there was cheating somehow -- the president told them so over and over. In a climate like that "this seems suspicious" counts as evidence. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The point is to make voting harder and, therefore, to discourage it. By preventing volunteers from giving out food and water to voters, it makes the wait to vote (which can stretch to hours in some places) more unpleasant and discourages voters who are less motivated from waiting it out.
This is in keeping with the long-standing push from the US right to shrink the electorate. This is not *necessarily* about gaining a partisan electoral advantage. The good-faith explanation for this is that the country benefits from an informed and motivated electorate, and a voter who doesn't feel strongly enough to put up with some discomfort to cast their vote is unlikely to cast an "informed" or "high-quality" vote.
Representative John Kavanagh, a Republican legislator who chairs Arizona’s Government and Elections Committee and who is pushing through their own set of voting restrictions, [laid it out plainly to CNN](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/11/politics/arizona-republicans-voter-suppression-bills/index.html):
>
> Democrats value as many people as possible voting, and they’re willing to risk fraud. Republicans are more concerned about fraud, so we don’t mind putting security measures in that won’t let everybody vote — but everybody shouldn’t be voting … Not everybody wants to vote, and if somebody is uninterested in voting, that probably means that they’re totally uninformed on the issues. Quantity is important, but we have to look at the quality of votes, as well.
>
>
>
Similarly, David Harsanyi, a senior editor at the Federalist, argued in a [Washington Post editorial in 2016](https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/we-must-weed-out-ignorant-americans-from-the-electorate/2016/05/20/f66b3e18-1c7a-11e6-8c7b-6931e66333e7_story.html):
>
> Never have so many people with so little knowledge made so many consequential decisions for the rest of us. ... by weeding out millions of irresponsible voters who can’t be bothered to learn the rudimentary workings of the Constitution, or their preferred candidate’s proposals or even their history, we may be able to mitigate the recklessness of the electorate.
>
>
>
While [The National Review argued last year](https://www.nationalreview.com/2020/01/democracy-no-defense-against-authoritarianism/):
>
> The libertarian writer James Bovard famously worried about vulgar majoritarianism, the kind of democracy that amounts to “two wolves and a sheep voting on what to have for dinner.” (The quip often is misattributed to Ben Franklin, among others.) The American founders by and large feared and despised democracy, which they took from their experience to be a dreary antechamber to anarchy. ...
>
>
> The rising authoritarianism of our time is not an aberration but the ordinary natural fulfillment of mass democracy when it has overflowed its constitutional restraints
>
>
>
Whether this provision was motivated by a philosophical objection to unconstrained democracy or a predicted partisan advantage is hard to say for sure, but aim to make it just a bit harder to vote is clear. | The idea isn't restriction of voting, but restricting something called [electioneering](https://www.ncsl.org/research/elections-and-campaigns/electioneering.aspx)
>
> Each state has some form of restriction on political activities near polling places when voting is taking place.
>
> These restrictions usually include limiting the display of signs, handing out campaign literature or soliciting votes within a pre-determined distance (typically 50 to 200 feet) of a polling place. Some states also address what apparel voters can wear within polling places
>
>
>
So imagine that you're going to vote and people in political T-shirts are standing outside the polling place handing out food and/or water bottles ([something that actually happened in Georgia in Nov 2020](https://www.douglascountysentinel.com/news/local/rep-bruce-under-investigation-for-handing-out-snacks-to-voters-in-lines/article_5c69c150-2b15-5ed1-8eb1-465f9acd0fe9.html)). It's also possible in this day and age that the water bottles have custom-printed political message labels on them. It's pretty hard not to see how that's electioneering.
From [the full text of SB 202](https://legiscan.com/GA/text/SB202/id/2348602/Georgia-2021-SB202-Enrolled.pdf) (starts at line 1872)
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast:
>
> (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is established;
>
> (2) Within any polling place; or
>
> (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
> "(e) This Code section shall not be construed to prohibit a poll officer from distributing materials, as required by law, which are necessary for the purpose of instructing electors or from distributing materials prepared by the Secretary of State which are designed solely for the purpose of encouraging voter participation in the election being conducted or from making available self-service water from an unattended receptacle to an elector waiting in line to vote."
>
>
>
[A recent National Review article](https://www.nationalreview.com/news/dem-abuses-prompted-georgia-voting-laws-food-and-drink-rule) interviewed the two representatives who wrote and sponsored it
>
> The reason for the new provision was to cut down on the real, and increasingly abused practice of line warming, which already was against the law in Georgia, the authors of the state House and Senate election-security bills told National Review. The two bills were eventually merged into Senate Bill 202, which was signed in late March by Georgia governor Brian Kemp.
>
> The food-and-drink provision of Georgia’s law is based on a similar provision in New York state’s election law, state Senate majority leader Mike Dugan said.
>
>
>
New York statue says this
>
> Any person who…in respect of any election during the hours of voting…gives or provides, or causes to be given or provided, or shall pay, wholly or in part, for any meat, drink, tobacco, refreshment or provision to or for any person, other than [poll workers and other voting officials], except any such meat, drink, tobacco, refreshment or provision having a retail value of less than one dollar, which is given or provided to any person in a polling place without any identification of the person or entity supplying such provisions, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. N.Y. Elec. Law § 17-140
>
>
>
Going back to the NR interview, they specifically mention why it says "any person"
>
> “The part that was getting a little bit carried away was, ‘We’re not campaigning. We’re handing out free drinks and snacks,’” Dugan said. “Let’s take it to the extremes. Let’s say the Proud Boys decided they were going to come and stand outside of precincts and pass out water and go up and down the lines. That could be taken by some as voter intimidation.”
>
>
>
>
> The new law clarifies that handing out money or gifts — including food and drinks, or really anything else of value — to voters in line is prohibited for everyone, regardless of their political or nonpolitical intent. “We don’t really want to put the poll workers in the position to have to define (political intent) constantly all day long,” Fleming said.
>
>
>
Multiple states across the political spectrum ban the practice of handing out food and/or drink *outside a polling place on election day*. The reason for the "any person" restriction is that people were engaging in electioneering activities in 2020 and 2021. Nothing in the law prohibits you from doing these things outside the 150ft/46M perimeter of a polling place. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The point is to make voting harder and, therefore, to discourage it. By preventing volunteers from giving out food and water to voters, it makes the wait to vote (which can stretch to hours in some places) more unpleasant and discourages voters who are less motivated from waiting it out.
This is in keeping with the long-standing push from the US right to shrink the electorate. This is not *necessarily* about gaining a partisan electoral advantage. The good-faith explanation for this is that the country benefits from an informed and motivated electorate, and a voter who doesn't feel strongly enough to put up with some discomfort to cast their vote is unlikely to cast an "informed" or "high-quality" vote.
Representative John Kavanagh, a Republican legislator who chairs Arizona’s Government and Elections Committee and who is pushing through their own set of voting restrictions, [laid it out plainly to CNN](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/11/politics/arizona-republicans-voter-suppression-bills/index.html):
>
> Democrats value as many people as possible voting, and they’re willing to risk fraud. Republicans are more concerned about fraud, so we don’t mind putting security measures in that won’t let everybody vote — but everybody shouldn’t be voting … Not everybody wants to vote, and if somebody is uninterested in voting, that probably means that they’re totally uninformed on the issues. Quantity is important, but we have to look at the quality of votes, as well.
>
>
>
Similarly, David Harsanyi, a senior editor at the Federalist, argued in a [Washington Post editorial in 2016](https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/we-must-weed-out-ignorant-americans-from-the-electorate/2016/05/20/f66b3e18-1c7a-11e6-8c7b-6931e66333e7_story.html):
>
> Never have so many people with so little knowledge made so many consequential decisions for the rest of us. ... by weeding out millions of irresponsible voters who can’t be bothered to learn the rudimentary workings of the Constitution, or their preferred candidate’s proposals or even their history, we may be able to mitigate the recklessness of the electorate.
>
>
>
While [The National Review argued last year](https://www.nationalreview.com/2020/01/democracy-no-defense-against-authoritarianism/):
>
> The libertarian writer James Bovard famously worried about vulgar majoritarianism, the kind of democracy that amounts to “two wolves and a sheep voting on what to have for dinner.” (The quip often is misattributed to Ben Franklin, among others.) The American founders by and large feared and despised democracy, which they took from their experience to be a dreary antechamber to anarchy. ...
>
>
> The rising authoritarianism of our time is not an aberration but the ordinary natural fulfillment of mass democracy when it has overflowed its constitutional restraints
>
>
>
Whether this provision was motivated by a philosophical objection to unconstrained democracy or a predicted partisan advantage is hard to say for sure, but aim to make it just a bit harder to vote is clear. | The day after the Georgia governor signed the law, *PBS Newshour* correspondent Lisa Desjardins [interviewed](https://www.pbs.org/newshour/show/outcry-from-biden-democrats-over-georgias-new-elections-law) a spokesperson for the Georgia Secretary of State's office, which oversees elections:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> To discuss the new law, Gabriel Sterling is the chief operating officer of the Georgia secretary of state's office. He's a Republican.
>
>
>
They basically have two arguments. The first is a claim that handing out water was already being used as a workaround for the ban on campaigning at polling sites:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> You know what is making headlines, of course, is this ban on handing out food and water at the polls. I understand you made the argument that, in the last election, there may have been some **activists who used giving out water as an excuse to talk to voters**.
>
>
> First, do we know that that happened? And, second, if so, why not just enforce the campaign ban? Why eliminate giving out food and water?
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> Well, the main thing is, it's been used as a work-around to get around that law.
>
>
>
Note how the official dodged the reporter's question "do we know that that happened?"
---
The second claim is that it is not a new idea, and particularly that President Biden's home state already banned giving out water:
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> And the irony of this, as we looked it up, this is actually the law in the president's home state of Delaware right now. So, this is not some new thing that's been brought out. This is pretty standard across the country to avoid those kind of loopholes where people can go and campaign and try to influence voters in the line.
>
>
> And that's been the law in this state for decades. This was a work-around. People sort of abused it. It's hard to enforce for elections officials and sheriffs. Like I said, it's the law in the president's home state of Delaware. So I'm surprised that shock isn't being held for his own state legislature, who passed the same thing.
>
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling, with the Georgia secretary of state's office, thank you for talking with us.
>
>
>
@Jontia linked to a [*Washington Post* story](https://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/2021/03/29/no-delaware-doesnt-specifically-prohibit-food-or-water-polls-like-georgia/) that specifically disproved Sterling's claim from this *PBS Newshour* interview.
---
So that's the rationale of Georgian election officials. Whether or not it is supported by facts, this is what they believe. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The rationalization stems from similar proclamations across multiple states against voter intimidation or vote-buying. Nobody should have the fact that they're stuck in a line be taken advantage-of by people trying to change who you're going to vote for.
Georgia is [already not allowed](https://www.ncsl.org/research/elections-and-campaigns/electioneering.aspx) to have campaign posters, imagery, or even campaign t-shirts within 150 feet of a polling place, has made it illegal to offer someone (within 150 feet of a polling place) a bribe to vote the way you want them to, and to threaten to harm or actually harm someone to influence their vote.
In addition, two other provisions in the [new law](https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2021/04/01/us/politics/georgia-voting-law.html) help set up a situation of long lines to vote in urban counties. The first provision (lines 430-435) says that counties cannot solicit third-party funds to be able to afford to increase access, and if they ever do allow such funding, it will be distributed equally amongst counties. This means that urban counties (which skew both poorer and higher population-density) are going to have fewer resources with which to open new polling places or expand hours of existing ones. The second provision (lines 1488-1518) expands early voting for some rural counties (which rarely need the extra capacity) but restricts early voting for urban counties (because they're already running at/over capacity) by restricting early voting to a smaller period and only during the 9-5 workday.
Now, someone who is standing in line for more than three hours to vote is going to reeeeeally want food and water, and is thus much more vulnerable to someone trading food or drink for votes. So rather than just prohibit campaign literature on food or water given to a person (which already exists), they decided to ban the practice entirely.
Now, it isn't a huge stretch of the imagination to see what they *want* to happen because of this: people in urban counties (which skew left) will have to wait so long in line to vote that (assuming they didn't bring food and drink with them) they'll have to step out of line in order to eat/drink/go to the bathroom and thus will eliminate themselves from the voting pool. | The day after the Georgia governor signed the law, *PBS Newshour* correspondent Lisa Desjardins [interviewed](https://www.pbs.org/newshour/show/outcry-from-biden-democrats-over-georgias-new-elections-law) a spokesperson for the Georgia Secretary of State's office, which oversees elections:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> To discuss the new law, Gabriel Sterling is the chief operating officer of the Georgia secretary of state's office. He's a Republican.
>
>
>
They basically have two arguments. The first is a claim that handing out water was already being used as a workaround for the ban on campaigning at polling sites:
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> You know what is making headlines, of course, is this ban on handing out food and water at the polls. I understand you made the argument that, in the last election, there may have been some **activists who used giving out water as an excuse to talk to voters**.
>
>
> First, do we know that that happened? And, second, if so, why not just enforce the campaign ban? Why eliminate giving out food and water?
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> Well, the main thing is, it's been used as a work-around to get around that law.
>
>
>
Note how the official dodged the reporter's question "do we know that that happened?"
---
The second claim is that it is not a new idea, and particularly that President Biden's home state already banned giving out water:
>
> Gabriel Sterling:
>
>
> And the irony of this, as we looked it up, this is actually the law in the president's home state of Delaware right now. So, this is not some new thing that's been brought out. This is pretty standard across the country to avoid those kind of loopholes where people can go and campaign and try to influence voters in the line.
>
>
> And that's been the law in this state for decades. This was a work-around. People sort of abused it. It's hard to enforce for elections officials and sheriffs. Like I said, it's the law in the president's home state of Delaware. So I'm surprised that shock isn't being held for his own state legislature, who passed the same thing.
>
>
> Lisa Desjardins:
>
>
> Gabriel Sterling, with the Georgia secretary of state's office, thank you for talking with us.
>
>
>
@Jontia linked to a [*Washington Post* story](https://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/2021/03/29/no-delaware-doesnt-specifically-prohibit-food-or-water-polls-like-georgia/) that specifically disproved Sterling's claim from this *PBS Newshour* interview.
---
So that's the rationale of Georgian election officials. Whether or not it is supported by facts, this is what they believe. |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The rationalization stems from similar proclamations across multiple states against voter intimidation or vote-buying. Nobody should have the fact that they're stuck in a line be taken advantage-of by people trying to change who you're going to vote for.
Georgia is [already not allowed](https://www.ncsl.org/research/elections-and-campaigns/electioneering.aspx) to have campaign posters, imagery, or even campaign t-shirts within 150 feet of a polling place, has made it illegal to offer someone (within 150 feet of a polling place) a bribe to vote the way you want them to, and to threaten to harm or actually harm someone to influence their vote.
In addition, two other provisions in the [new law](https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2021/04/01/us/politics/georgia-voting-law.html) help set up a situation of long lines to vote in urban counties. The first provision (lines 430-435) says that counties cannot solicit third-party funds to be able to afford to increase access, and if they ever do allow such funding, it will be distributed equally amongst counties. This means that urban counties (which skew both poorer and higher population-density) are going to have fewer resources with which to open new polling places or expand hours of existing ones. The second provision (lines 1488-1518) expands early voting for some rural counties (which rarely need the extra capacity) but restricts early voting for urban counties (because they're already running at/over capacity) by restricting early voting to a smaller period and only during the 9-5 workday.
Now, someone who is standing in line for more than three hours to vote is going to reeeeeally want food and water, and is thus much more vulnerable to someone trading food or drink for votes. So rather than just prohibit campaign literature on food or water given to a person (which already exists), they decided to ban the practice entirely.
Now, it isn't a huge stretch of the imagination to see what they *want* to happen because of this: people in urban counties (which skew left) will have to wait so long in line to vote that (assuming they didn't bring food and drink with them) they'll have to step out of line in order to eat/drink/go to the bathroom and thus will eliminate themselves from the voting pool. | >
> What is the rationale behind this restriction?
>
>
>
The rationale given in [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121?#page=6) is:
>
> (13) The sanctity of the precinct was also brought into sharp focus in 2020, with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote is of paramount importance to protecting the election system and ensuring elector confidence;
>
>
>
---
>
> I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have some reason that doesn't sound evil.
>
>
>
The content of the bill is public and was agreed to by the majority of Republican Senators and Representatives in the Georgia General Assembly.
Complaints about "[voter suppression](https://www.brennancenter.org/our-work/analysis-opinion/georgias-voter-suppression-law)" often refer to more than giving water.
The text of the rationale from the bill, given above, "doesn't sound evil."
---
>
> Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water?
>
>
>
Clearly, some felt there was, though I found no specific complaints from Republicans about Democrats giving water to voters; though there were some "incidents" (see below). Apparently, only Georgia's Secretary of State is making statements about it: [Georgia Doesn’t Want Voters Waiting in Line to Be Offered Free Food and Drinks](https://www.foodandwine.com/news/georgia-voting-line-food-and-drinks-law-secretary-of-state).
Perhaps, it came from this type of operation, which was scheduled for the 2020 general election in a number of large cities, including Atlanta. The use of "DEMOCRACY" on the truck might be seen to subtly suggest "DEMOCRAT," or it could just be that Atlanta tends toward Democrats and Republicans want to be less accommodating to those voters.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1o6os.png)
[Source](https://www.foodandwine.com/news/food-for-poll-workers-voters-in-line)
[PolitiFact reports](https://www.politifact.com/factchecks/2021/mar/09/facebook-posts/georgia-bill-would-ban-giving-food-water-voters-li/):
>
> Pizza to the Polls told PolitiFact that it delivered more than 7,000 boxes of pizza and more than 65,000 snacks during the general election and Senate runoff. **The group was co-founded by a 2016 Obama field organizer** but says it is nonpartisan: "Ain’t nothing partisan about trying to make voting less of a drag," it says on its website. Chef José Andrés’ World Central Kitchen, as part of its Chefs for the Polls project, brought tacos, sandwiches and pizza to lines of voters in Georgia in 2020, the Atlanta Journal-Constitution reported. The group is also nonpartisan, but **Andres supported Biden’s candidacy**. [Emboldening added.]
>
>
> **Georgia law already bans gifts to voters**
>
>
> Existing Georgia law bans giving gifts "for the purpose of registering as a voter, voting, or voting for a particular candidate." That provision doesn’t mention food or water directly, but the Secretary of State Brad Raffensperger has interpreted it to include food or water.
>
>
> In February, the Georgia elections board referred for investigation to prosecutors a couple of cases in which candidates gave food or water to voters.
>
>
> Matthew Wilson bought four pizzas and passed out slices to those in line to vote in 2018, according to Reporter Newspapers. Wilson, a Democrat who won his race for state representative, said he distributed the pizza after getting permission from a poll manager. Kelly Rose, a Democrat who lost a state senate race, told PolitiFact that her team handed out water, oranges and chips at a 2020 polling site. "A woman passed out one day we were there," Rose told PolitiFact. Rose said she didn’t campaign at the site and didn’t break the law. (A state law bans soliciting votes within 150 feet of a building where voting takes place.)
>
>
> |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The food and drink restriction is a reaction to well publicized splashy free-food events in voting lines during the 2020 elections. The bill is fixing a presumed "pizza loophole" in vote-buying. That's the formal justification: in the future free food might be used for vote-buying.
[Pizza to the Polls](https://polls.pizza/trucks/), started handing out slices during the 2016 elections. They bring a truck with a big American flag painted on, and a "Democracy / Delicious" logo. They went to 29 cities in 2020, including Atlanta. To a conservative Georgian this looks like an out-of-state group interfering with their elections, trying to embarrass their state.
But that's just the tip. This [The Eater Oct 28th article](https://www.eater.com/21536548/feeding-voters-food-at-the-polls-election-day-voting) (an on-line national magazine) describes how *Chefs for the Polls*, who were already giving away free meals to people who needed them, decided to have food give-aways near polls, including in Atlanta. The article also describes studies that this increases voter turnout. So there it is in black-and-white: free food is a way to increase Democratic voter turn-out (which is where the long lines are).
An Oct 30 [Atlanta Journal-Constitution article](https://www.ajc.com/politics/giving-free-food-to-voters-allowed-in-practice-despite-legal-gray-area/RBCFSSGRJRFOLJWAIEOWYBBBHY/) describes the legal issues. Giving food to only voters is a grey "vote buying" area, but setting up near a polling place and giving food to anyone is legal -- described as a loophole. It describes Gwinnett county (a 1/3rd black Atlanta suburb) refusing an out-of-state donor wanting to send pizzas to voting lines. Then later "armed residents" confronting other free-food volunteers. It also describes the term "line warming" as giving free food and water to improve waiting in long voting lines. Summed-up, conservative Georgians are aware of "line warming", vaguely link it to illegal vote-buying, don't like it, and probably think there should be a law against it.
This Dec 30 [Atlanta TV station Alive-11 atricle](https://www.11alive.com/article/news/politics/elections/georgia-elections-officials-line-warming-crackdown/85-afb28fc8-f0aa-4cab-800d-443bc58ddca8) describes Georgia secretary of state Brad Raffensperger's (the same one Trump famously called to say he only needed 11,780 votes) press release. Raffensperger again calls it "line warming" but redefines it to mean warming them to your candidate with free food. He's running with the previous vote-buying theme, implying that it's happened. The article says there have been no complaints about that. Even so, he goes on to say it could be used to influence voters, and so on.
That seems like a pretty straight line to Section 2.13 of the bill. SB202 "*...with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote*...". Clearly, the "many groups" can only be the free food groups.
To sum up, free food for people waiting to vote in Atlanta really is a thing. It increases Democratic turn-out, highlights what seems like unfair voting processes, and became a political issue as a result. The Georgia legislature seems to have 1/2-convinced themselves there really was and will be illegal vote-buying with these Yankee "line warmers". As for evidence, many in Georgia are sure there was cheating somehow -- the president told them so over and over. In a climate like that "this seems suspicious" counts as evidence. | Please note that I'm not saying any of the justifications are good or have anything to do with anyone's other reasons for passing the law. This is just the justification publicly given by politicians in Georgia.
Politicians in Georgia are justifying it by saying that ["giveaways or gifts" to people waiting in line can influence how they vote](https://sos.ga.gov/index.php/elections/secretary_raffensperger_cracks_down_on_line_warming_loophole) (if I give you a nice gift, you think I'm a nice person and vote for me).
But how does water become a "giveaway or gift"?
This is a tactic which can be called "moving the line". Since the law doesn't like large grey areas, it's reasonable to argue that a line must be drawn at some point (this side of the line is OK, that side of the line is Wrong). But having drawn a line, someone can take advantage of a series of small steps in order to move the line towards one position or another. If everyone agrees that X is wrong and should be banned, then X+epsilon, where epsilon is a very small change, seems to also be wrong. So if X+epsilon is wrong, then X+epsilon+epsilon...you get the picture.
To show how ridiculous this is, we can also do this in reverse:
Giving people water is OK (not bribery). If giving people water is OK, then giving someone juice should be OK. If giving someone juice is OK, then giving someone a soda is OK. .... So giving someone an Isabella Islay whiskey, price USD 6 million (yup) is OK and definitely not bribery.
Ideally neither side would do a large amount of line moving, so that the line would end up inside the grey area for both sides (although in some cases there may be no shared grey area). |
63,285 | From [S.B. 202](https://www.legis.ga.gov/api/legislation/document/20212022/201121) (emphasis added):
>
> No person shall solicit votes in any manner or by any means or method, nor shall any person distribute or display any campaign material, **nor shall any person give, offer to give, or participate in the giving of any money or gifts, including, but not limited to, food and drink, to an elector**, nor shall any person solicit signatures for any petition, nor shall any person, other than election officials discharging their duties, establish or set up any tables or booths on any day in which ballots are being cast: (1) Within 150 feet of the outer edge of any building within which a polling place is1818established; (2) Within any polling place; or (3) Within 25 feet of any voter standing in line to vote at any polling place. These restrictions shall not apply to conduct occurring in private offices or areas which cannot be seen or heard by such electors."
>
>
>
This has been discussed at length in the news:
* CNN: ["It's now illegal in Georgia to give food and water to voters in line"](https://www.cnn.com/2021/03/26/politics/georgia-voting-law-food-drink-ban-trnd/index.html)
* The Hill: ["Georgia law makes it a crime to give food, water to people waiting to vote"](https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/545120-georgia-law-makes-it-a-crime-to-give-water-to-people-waiting-to-vote%5D)
* Reuters: ["Georgia bans giving water to voters in line under sweeping restrictions"](https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-georgia-voting/georgia-bans-giving-water-to-voters-in-line-under-sweeping-restrictions-idUSKBN2BH2TC)
At best, this seems unnecessary. Is there evidence of political operatives seeking to sway elections by handing out water? At worst, it's cruel: [Georgia is hot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Georgia_(U.S._state)#Statistics_for_selected_cities), and [long lines at polls are well documented](https://www.fox5atlanta.com/news/extremely-long-lines-at-the-polls-one-woman-says-she-waited-close-to-10-hours).
**What is the rationale behind this restriction?** I am interested in public statements from officials in Georgia -- I understand many opposed to this bill believe the intent is to suppress the minority vote, but the GOP must have *some* reason that doesn't sound evil. | 2021/04/02 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/63285",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/20374/"
] | The rationalization stems from similar proclamations across multiple states against voter intimidation or vote-buying. Nobody should have the fact that they're stuck in a line be taken advantage-of by people trying to change who you're going to vote for.
Georgia is [already not allowed](https://www.ncsl.org/research/elections-and-campaigns/electioneering.aspx) to have campaign posters, imagery, or even campaign t-shirts within 150 feet of a polling place, has made it illegal to offer someone (within 150 feet of a polling place) a bribe to vote the way you want them to, and to threaten to harm or actually harm someone to influence their vote.
In addition, two other provisions in the [new law](https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2021/04/01/us/politics/georgia-voting-law.html) help set up a situation of long lines to vote in urban counties. The first provision (lines 430-435) says that counties cannot solicit third-party funds to be able to afford to increase access, and if they ever do allow such funding, it will be distributed equally amongst counties. This means that urban counties (which skew both poorer and higher population-density) are going to have fewer resources with which to open new polling places or expand hours of existing ones. The second provision (lines 1488-1518) expands early voting for some rural counties (which rarely need the extra capacity) but restricts early voting for urban counties (because they're already running at/over capacity) by restricting early voting to a smaller period and only during the 9-5 workday.
Now, someone who is standing in line for more than three hours to vote is going to reeeeeally want food and water, and is thus much more vulnerable to someone trading food or drink for votes. So rather than just prohibit campaign literature on food or water given to a person (which already exists), they decided to ban the practice entirely.
Now, it isn't a huge stretch of the imagination to see what they *want* to happen because of this: people in urban counties (which skew left) will have to wait so long in line to vote that (assuming they didn't bring food and drink with them) they'll have to step out of line in order to eat/drink/go to the bathroom and thus will eliminate themselves from the voting pool. | The food and drink restriction is a reaction to well publicized splashy free-food events in voting lines during the 2020 elections. The bill is fixing a presumed "pizza loophole" in vote-buying. That's the formal justification: in the future free food might be used for vote-buying.
[Pizza to the Polls](https://polls.pizza/trucks/), started handing out slices during the 2016 elections. They bring a truck with a big American flag painted on, and a "Democracy / Delicious" logo. They went to 29 cities in 2020, including Atlanta. To a conservative Georgian this looks like an out-of-state group interfering with their elections, trying to embarrass their state.
But that's just the tip. This [The Eater Oct 28th article](https://www.eater.com/21536548/feeding-voters-food-at-the-polls-election-day-voting) (an on-line national magazine) describes how *Chefs for the Polls*, who were already giving away free meals to people who needed them, decided to have food give-aways near polls, including in Atlanta. The article also describes studies that this increases voter turnout. So there it is in black-and-white: free food is a way to increase Democratic voter turn-out (which is where the long lines are).
An Oct 30 [Atlanta Journal-Constitution article](https://www.ajc.com/politics/giving-free-food-to-voters-allowed-in-practice-despite-legal-gray-area/RBCFSSGRJRFOLJWAIEOWYBBBHY/) describes the legal issues. Giving food to only voters is a grey "vote buying" area, but setting up near a polling place and giving food to anyone is legal -- described as a loophole. It describes Gwinnett county (a 1/3rd black Atlanta suburb) refusing an out-of-state donor wanting to send pizzas to voting lines. Then later "armed residents" confronting other free-food volunteers. It also describes the term "line warming" as giving free food and water to improve waiting in long voting lines. Summed-up, conservative Georgians are aware of "line warming", vaguely link it to illegal vote-buying, don't like it, and probably think there should be a law against it.
This Dec 30 [Atlanta TV station Alive-11 atricle](https://www.11alive.com/article/news/politics/elections/georgia-elections-officials-line-warming-crackdown/85-afb28fc8-f0aa-4cab-800d-443bc58ddca8) describes Georgia secretary of state Brad Raffensperger's (the same one Trump famously called to say he only needed 11,780 votes) press release. Raffensperger again calls it "line warming" but redefines it to mean warming them to your candidate with free food. He's running with the previous vote-buying theme, implying that it's happened. The article says there have been no complaints about that. Even so, he goes on to say it could be used to influence voters, and so on.
That seems like a pretty straight line to Section 2.13 of the bill. SB202 "*...with many groups approaching electors while they waited in line. Protecting electors from improper interference, political pressure, or intimidation while waiting in line to vote*...". Clearly, the "many groups" can only be the free food groups.
To sum up, free food for people waiting to vote in Atlanta really is a thing. It increases Democratic turn-out, highlights what seems like unfair voting processes, and became a political issue as a result. The Georgia legislature seems to have 1/2-convinced themselves there really was and will be illegal vote-buying with these Yankee "line warmers". As for evidence, many in Georgia are sure there was cheating somehow -- the president told them so over and over. In a climate like that "this seems suspicious" counts as evidence. |
119,181 | **Background:** I have an icy moon on a collision course with my fantasy world. Mages on this world have the ability to slow the speed of the moon gradually. I want them to use this power to lock the moon into orbit around the planet.
Note that 'moon' in this case refers to a *moon-sized* object, which is actually orbiting the sun like a comet.
Based on my understanding of how to capture an asteroid (from [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/9970/9937) and [here](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l5X--a3ZJH8) [for the visuals of the orbit]), the process the mages would follow goes something like this:
1. The mages slow the oncoming moon sufficiently for it to achieve a closed orbit around the planet.
2. The mages must wait for the moon to pass the planet once. This might result in [aerobreaking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerobraking).
3. Once the moon has passed the planet, the mages slow it more, gradually making its orbit more circular.
If this process is correct, there will be other questions about the second stage, so ignore for now any effects aerobraking or a close pass might have on the planet. The **question** is as follows:
**Is this process correct?** Do the mages have to wait for the moon to pass them to apply the third step, or can they achieve a closed orbit and immediately begin making it circular, thus avoiding the second step completely? That's my main concern. However, if there are other aspects (or all) of the process which are wrong, please let me know.
---
NOTES:
* I am not at this time interested in numbers or formulas. Those will come in following questions. This question deals only with the process to capture the moon via slowing it.
* Ignore the reasoning for such a plan. Don't worry about why the mages want to capture the moon, instead of just slowing it so that it bypasses the planet completely.
* Please back up your answer with explanations and/or links, but please phrase them in layman terms. Literally everything I know about orbital mechanics is in the above. | 2018/07/24 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/119181",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | You have only mentioned slowing the object, so I assume the mages can not increase the speed or energy of the object.
Assuming it is on a collision course before any intervention, you will need to slow the object while it is still at a large distance from the planet. This will cause the trajectory to cross the planet's orbit after the planet has passed.
At that point, some significant slowing is needed to bring the object into a closed orbit. Without further and immediate slowing, the object will be deflected by the planet but will head back into space.
It would be best for the object to pass well behind the planet in orbit. That will define the closest point in the orbit. Your mages will be able to lower the orbit, but not raise it. Unless they can absorb the exact amount of energy, the orbit will be highly eccentric.
By removing energy at the highest point, the orbit can be made to approach the planet more closely. By removing energy when the object is the closest, the mages can make the orbit more circular.
Yes. If you have mages who can slow an astronomical object currently on a collision course with the planet, they can capture the object and place it in an orbit at any desired height. | Really there are two steps for capture.
1. Maneuver for Intercept - Slowing the object down (if it's orbiting farther away from the sun than the planet) so that its orbit crosses the path of the planet at the desired periapsis (altitude of closest approach to the surface of the planet).
2. Maneuver for Capture - Slowing the object down while at periapsis to bring its orbit around the planet. You stop slowing it when the apoapsis (altitude of farthest distance from its parent body) is at the desired altitude.
The main thing to remember is: when at periapsis, slowing down will bring your apoapsis closer to the planet. When at apoapsis, slowing down will bring your periapsis closer to the planet. |
119,181 | **Background:** I have an icy moon on a collision course with my fantasy world. Mages on this world have the ability to slow the speed of the moon gradually. I want them to use this power to lock the moon into orbit around the planet.
Note that 'moon' in this case refers to a *moon-sized* object, which is actually orbiting the sun like a comet.
Based on my understanding of how to capture an asteroid (from [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/9970/9937) and [here](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l5X--a3ZJH8) [for the visuals of the orbit]), the process the mages would follow goes something like this:
1. The mages slow the oncoming moon sufficiently for it to achieve a closed orbit around the planet.
2. The mages must wait for the moon to pass the planet once. This might result in [aerobreaking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerobraking).
3. Once the moon has passed the planet, the mages slow it more, gradually making its orbit more circular.
If this process is correct, there will be other questions about the second stage, so ignore for now any effects aerobraking or a close pass might have on the planet. The **question** is as follows:
**Is this process correct?** Do the mages have to wait for the moon to pass them to apply the third step, or can they achieve a closed orbit and immediately begin making it circular, thus avoiding the second step completely? That's my main concern. However, if there are other aspects (or all) of the process which are wrong, please let me know.
---
NOTES:
* I am not at this time interested in numbers or formulas. Those will come in following questions. This question deals only with the process to capture the moon via slowing it.
* Ignore the reasoning for such a plan. Don't worry about why the mages want to capture the moon, instead of just slowing it so that it bypasses the planet completely.
* Please back up your answer with explanations and/or links, but please phrase them in layman terms. Literally everything I know about orbital mechanics is in the above. | 2018/07/24 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/119181",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | Really there are two steps for capture.
1. Maneuver for Intercept - Slowing the object down (if it's orbiting farther away from the sun than the planet) so that its orbit crosses the path of the planet at the desired periapsis (altitude of closest approach to the surface of the planet).
2. Maneuver for Capture - Slowing the object down while at periapsis to bring its orbit around the planet. You stop slowing it when the apoapsis (altitude of farthest distance from its parent body) is at the desired altitude.
The main thing to remember is: when at periapsis, slowing down will bring your apoapsis closer to the planet. When at apoapsis, slowing down will bring your periapsis closer to the planet. | I posted this as a comment but decided that your request for Layman's terms means I've made this as an answer:
First off a simple glossary makes life a lot easier, just refer back to this whenever people get stuck
* Apoapsis: Highest Altitude compared to the Parent Body it orbits
* Periapsis: Lowest Altitude compared to the Parent Body it orbits
The below are directions of the orbital line (this is for a Anti-Clockwise Direction which is standard)
* Prograde: Forward or in the direction the orbit already follows, basically speed up
* Retrograde: backwards or against the direction the orbit already follows, bscailly slow down
* Radial In: Left in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Radial Out Right in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Normal: Up in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Anti-Normal: Down in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
The final part is the all important orbital mechanic of the question, if you think of the orbit as a circle around central point. at the Top of the Circle is point A, and the bottom of the Circle is point B, if you slow down at A, this doesn't change the orbital line at A, it reduces the altitude of point B, on the other side of the orbit.
**So for your answer**
if the Moon and the Planet were both orbiting the Sun and on a collision course due to impact in an more than about 6 months time, then it stands to reason that you and the moon would most likely be somewhere in the region of the Point A, (but only if the moon was not within the sphere of influence of the planets gravity), part of the Orbit whereas the collision would be at Point B of orbit, so that means that any retrograde force applied now, would stop this impact from happening, and can be made to simply capture the moon.
However if the collision is taking place in less than that time, or the moon is already inside the Planets gravity Well or sphere of influence, then a retrograde force would actually only make the collision even more certain, if this is the case you would most likely need to push Radial In or Radial Out the left or right to stop the impact from happening and then once the Moon was at its Periapsis, you would want to slow it down because this would lower its Apoapsis, Again slowly down Point A to reduce the altitude of Point B. and this would bring the moon's orbit entirely into the Planets Gravity Well, , if the moon was travelling too fast then it would fling back out into a Solar Orbit rather than staying Orbiting the Planet.
Aerobraking is a way to reduce the amount of fuel and energy needed to slow an object or craft. if you don't use Aerobraking to do this then you need to burn your engines and fuel constantly to slow down. this is not required for your moon, but it is an option (as you said ignoring the massive ramifications of that happening)
The next and final part is if you have used aerobraking that means your Periapsis is very low, and leaving it there would mean that the moon continued to slow on each orbit and eventually it would crash into the planet, so once you've got the Apoapsis where you want it, the you need to speed up the moon at the Apoapsis to raise the Periapsis, again Speed up Point A to Raise Point B.
Hope this helps. if you wanted to see this in action, then i recommend Kerbal Space Program, (the game in your second link) it has an entire tutorial section on just this |
119,181 | **Background:** I have an icy moon on a collision course with my fantasy world. Mages on this world have the ability to slow the speed of the moon gradually. I want them to use this power to lock the moon into orbit around the planet.
Note that 'moon' in this case refers to a *moon-sized* object, which is actually orbiting the sun like a comet.
Based on my understanding of how to capture an asteroid (from [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/9970/9937) and [here](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l5X--a3ZJH8) [for the visuals of the orbit]), the process the mages would follow goes something like this:
1. The mages slow the oncoming moon sufficiently for it to achieve a closed orbit around the planet.
2. The mages must wait for the moon to pass the planet once. This might result in [aerobreaking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerobraking).
3. Once the moon has passed the planet, the mages slow it more, gradually making its orbit more circular.
If this process is correct, there will be other questions about the second stage, so ignore for now any effects aerobraking or a close pass might have on the planet. The **question** is as follows:
**Is this process correct?** Do the mages have to wait for the moon to pass them to apply the third step, or can they achieve a closed orbit and immediately begin making it circular, thus avoiding the second step completely? That's my main concern. However, if there are other aspects (or all) of the process which are wrong, please let me know.
---
NOTES:
* I am not at this time interested in numbers or formulas. Those will come in following questions. This question deals only with the process to capture the moon via slowing it.
* Ignore the reasoning for such a plan. Don't worry about why the mages want to capture the moon, instead of just slowing it so that it bypasses the planet completely.
* Please back up your answer with explanations and/or links, but please phrase them in layman terms. Literally everything I know about orbital mechanics is in the above. | 2018/07/24 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/119181",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | You have only mentioned slowing the object, so I assume the mages can not increase the speed or energy of the object.
Assuming it is on a collision course before any intervention, you will need to slow the object while it is still at a large distance from the planet. This will cause the trajectory to cross the planet's orbit after the planet has passed.
At that point, some significant slowing is needed to bring the object into a closed orbit. Without further and immediate slowing, the object will be deflected by the planet but will head back into space.
It would be best for the object to pass well behind the planet in orbit. That will define the closest point in the orbit. Your mages will be able to lower the orbit, but not raise it. Unless they can absorb the exact amount of energy, the orbit will be highly eccentric.
By removing energy at the highest point, the orbit can be made to approach the planet more closely. By removing energy when the object is the closest, the mages can make the orbit more circular.
Yes. If you have mages who can slow an astronomical object currently on a collision course with the planet, they can capture the object and place it in an orbit at any desired height. | I posted this as a comment but decided that your request for Layman's terms means I've made this as an answer:
First off a simple glossary makes life a lot easier, just refer back to this whenever people get stuck
* Apoapsis: Highest Altitude compared to the Parent Body it orbits
* Periapsis: Lowest Altitude compared to the Parent Body it orbits
The below are directions of the orbital line (this is for a Anti-Clockwise Direction which is standard)
* Prograde: Forward or in the direction the orbit already follows, basically speed up
* Retrograde: backwards or against the direction the orbit already follows, bscailly slow down
* Radial In: Left in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Radial Out Right in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Normal: Up in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
* Anti-Normal: Down in relation to the direction the orbit already follows
The final part is the all important orbital mechanic of the question, if you think of the orbit as a circle around central point. at the Top of the Circle is point A, and the bottom of the Circle is point B, if you slow down at A, this doesn't change the orbital line at A, it reduces the altitude of point B, on the other side of the orbit.
**So for your answer**
if the Moon and the Planet were both orbiting the Sun and on a collision course due to impact in an more than about 6 months time, then it stands to reason that you and the moon would most likely be somewhere in the region of the Point A, (but only if the moon was not within the sphere of influence of the planets gravity), part of the Orbit whereas the collision would be at Point B of orbit, so that means that any retrograde force applied now, would stop this impact from happening, and can be made to simply capture the moon.
However if the collision is taking place in less than that time, or the moon is already inside the Planets gravity Well or sphere of influence, then a retrograde force would actually only make the collision even more certain, if this is the case you would most likely need to push Radial In or Radial Out the left or right to stop the impact from happening and then once the Moon was at its Periapsis, you would want to slow it down because this would lower its Apoapsis, Again slowly down Point A to reduce the altitude of Point B. and this would bring the moon's orbit entirely into the Planets Gravity Well, , if the moon was travelling too fast then it would fling back out into a Solar Orbit rather than staying Orbiting the Planet.
Aerobraking is a way to reduce the amount of fuel and energy needed to slow an object or craft. if you don't use Aerobraking to do this then you need to burn your engines and fuel constantly to slow down. this is not required for your moon, but it is an option (as you said ignoring the massive ramifications of that happening)
The next and final part is if you have used aerobraking that means your Periapsis is very low, and leaving it there would mean that the moon continued to slow on each orbit and eventually it would crash into the planet, so once you've got the Apoapsis where you want it, the you need to speed up the moon at the Apoapsis to raise the Periapsis, again Speed up Point A to Raise Point B.
Hope this helps. if you wanted to see this in action, then i recommend Kerbal Space Program, (the game in your second link) it has an entire tutorial section on just this |
7,473,429 | This is probably a very basic question, but I'm in the process of making a Windows Forms based application, which will involve a hefty amount of data storage. It will essentially be a sports simulator where there'll be hundreds of teams, with thousands of players.
So I need to figure out the best way to store this data. Windows Forms is relatively new to me as I've been mostly working with ASP.NET, but I've come up with the following ideas:
1. Compact SQL database in the program directory
2. Files containing the serializable objects.
Are there any other solutions out there that may be better? Or which of these should I pick? | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7473429",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/460407/"
] | Your requirements are extremely vague, but in general stay away from serialization for any kind of persistent data store.
If your data is relational (it has internal structure, such as "teams must contain players" or "a player can be a member of only one team") then I suggest a relational DBMS such as SQL Server Compact Edition or SQLite.
If your data is not relational, I suggest a key/value store like [RavenDB](http://ravendb.net/).
Also, do not put data in the program directory; it may not be writable by the user. Store data in the user directory. | If you have any need to execute queries against the data, I would stay away from serializing it in a proprietary format.
If there is only one user, then you could do something simple like an Access MDB via the JET drivers, SQLLite or NoSQL.
If there are going to be multiple concurrent users, you'll almost certainly need to look at a 'server' based SQL - e.g. SQL Express (although note the DB Size limitations), MySQL etc. |
7,473,429 | This is probably a very basic question, but I'm in the process of making a Windows Forms based application, which will involve a hefty amount of data storage. It will essentially be a sports simulator where there'll be hundreds of teams, with thousands of players.
So I need to figure out the best way to store this data. Windows Forms is relatively new to me as I've been mostly working with ASP.NET, but I've come up with the following ideas:
1. Compact SQL database in the program directory
2. Files containing the serializable objects.
Are there any other solutions out there that may be better? Or which of these should I pick? | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7473429",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/460407/"
] | If you have any need to execute queries against the data, I would stay away from serializing it in a proprietary format.
If there is only one user, then you could do something simple like an Access MDB via the JET drivers, SQLLite or NoSQL.
If there are going to be multiple concurrent users, you'll almost certainly need to look at a 'server' based SQL - e.g. SQL Express (although note the DB Size limitations), MySQL etc. | Could use an .MDB Access database to store the data. Not as reliable in my experience as SQLite.
Also, you don't mention if you need to persist these data after the form closes? If you don't you may just want to use in memory DataSet's (or DataTables) to keep the data quickly accessable. |
7,473,429 | This is probably a very basic question, but I'm in the process of making a Windows Forms based application, which will involve a hefty amount of data storage. It will essentially be a sports simulator where there'll be hundreds of teams, with thousands of players.
So I need to figure out the best way to store this data. Windows Forms is relatively new to me as I've been mostly working with ASP.NET, but I've come up with the following ideas:
1. Compact SQL database in the program directory
2. Files containing the serializable objects.
Are there any other solutions out there that may be better? Or which of these should I pick? | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7473429",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/460407/"
] | Your requirements are extremely vague, but in general stay away from serialization for any kind of persistent data store.
If your data is relational (it has internal structure, such as "teams must contain players" or "a player can be a member of only one team") then I suggest a relational DBMS such as SQL Server Compact Edition or SQLite.
If your data is not relational, I suggest a key/value store like [RavenDB](http://ravendb.net/).
Also, do not put data in the program directory; it may not be writable by the user. Store data in the user directory. | Could use an .MDB Access database to store the data. Not as reliable in my experience as SQLite.
Also, you don't mention if you need to persist these data after the form closes? If you don't you may just want to use in memory DataSet's (or DataTables) to keep the data quickly accessable. |
60,298 | I finding service where my english sentences correcting a native speakers. I used lang-8.com. But correction was rare. I find same service like it. Ore another where I get help. don't matter free or not. | 2015/06/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/60298",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/18581/"
] | "I'm looking for a service where I can get my English sentences corrected by native speakers. I used lang-8.com, but corrections were rare. I am looking for some service like it, or another where I can get help. It doesn't matter if it is free or not".
Well, firstly this is a good site, although you may need to improve your English some more to get full benefit. Your question is off-topic according to the rules and I would suggest that just reading through the questions and answers posted here may help you. | This is a good website, but you better should ask for rules or the correct grammar between two or more sentences rather than create lots of threads asking for a correction of a sentence or a text. Anyway, you will probably learn more if we explain to you how it works and why.
You're welcome to this website. We hope StackExchange will be useful to you. |
47,386 | I recently accepted a job offer at German software company. My salary in the probation period will be 3000 Euros and then afterwards 3250 Euros. I don't have experience in the industry because i'm just a fresh graduate (master in CS) from a German Uni. One of my German friends told me that my salary will be increased automatically every year because of some labor law.
My questions:
1- is there a law in Germany that forces employers to raise the salaries of employees every year?
2- If so, how much would the raise be?
3- If no such law exists, what is the criteria that I should use to estimate how much the increase should be for me? Just to give a fair estimate.
As I found from my research, the pay in this company is a little below the average. But this is for almost all employees. Mainly because it's new (~10 years) and not that big. They have a startup culture. Also I read from some employees reviews (www.kununu.com) that although the salaries are not that high, but it pays off because of the culture and working environment. I met a lot of employees and most of them told me the last time they had to work overtime was like years ago and there is minimal to almost no stress working there. The company is a very nice company and it seems very comfortable to work for. They also have very interesting projects and tasks. Thus I don't want to think about leaving the company after one or two years just because of the money. I want to be really fair in my assessments.
I found that a lot of fresh graduates earn about 4k/month at big German companies but I have no idea how boring/interesting/stressful their jobs are.
Edit:
My contract is a permanent contract. | 2015/05/29 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/47386",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/30186/"
] | >
> is there a law in Germany that forces employers to raise the salaries of employees every year
>
>
>
No, there is no such law. Any payment details are set in the contract. That includes potential automatic increases. The only law that governs wages is the minimum wage law "Mindestlohngesetz ([MiLoG](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mindestlohngesetz_%28Deutschland%29))" but if you are working as a developer, you will never come into contact with it. If you would, it would force the contract to be changed, so the simple rule remains: your payment is as written in your contract. Any change is a change to this contract and is only valid if accepted by both sides.
Now what are common terms in contracts that do trigger automatic changes?
* It is quite common to grant an increase in payment after the probation period. That would be clearly written in the contract (for example "Nach der Probezeit beträgt das Gehalt ...").
* The company could be following a contract with a union on how to pay certain jobs (called a [Tarifvertrag](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarifvertrag)). It may even be that they take this as a base and put something on top. The Tarifvertrag is a minimum though. You cannot say you are following this contract when you change any part of it to be less favorable. Such a Tarifvertrag often does include regular raises. Your contract might only read "you are paid according to the Tarifvertrag XYZ".
* If you are working for the government as a public official, your wages will be set by the state. There are tables just like in a Tarifvertrag. Your contract will include a reference to those instead, it's called a [Besoldungsgruppe](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Besoldungsgruppe).
There is no hard and fast rule what you should ask for if you want a raise. The going inflation rate is reasonable. But in the end, you should ask yourself how well is the company doing and what was your part in it? How much money would you make if you were working someplace else?
And don't use other cities as a reference if you don't want to move there. For example, I could easily make 50% to 100% more on paper if I moved to a city either 90 minutes north or 5 hours to the south. But the truth is that they pay more because the cost of living is so high in these cities. They don't actually get more money after deducting taxes and living costs, they just have higher numbers on their paychecks and all bills. Someone making 4K right out of university as a developer is probably in one of those cities. | As far as I know there is no such law. But in many companies it is customary to negotiate a raise yearly. The absolute minimum you should negotiate for is the current rate of inflation.
Larger companies often have a collective agreement with a trade union ("Tarifvertrag") which determines the wages for (almost) all positions and by how much they raise during the years the agreement was negotiated for, but for a small startup this would be quite unusual. |
47,386 | I recently accepted a job offer at German software company. My salary in the probation period will be 3000 Euros and then afterwards 3250 Euros. I don't have experience in the industry because i'm just a fresh graduate (master in CS) from a German Uni. One of my German friends told me that my salary will be increased automatically every year because of some labor law.
My questions:
1- is there a law in Germany that forces employers to raise the salaries of employees every year?
2- If so, how much would the raise be?
3- If no such law exists, what is the criteria that I should use to estimate how much the increase should be for me? Just to give a fair estimate.
As I found from my research, the pay in this company is a little below the average. But this is for almost all employees. Mainly because it's new (~10 years) and not that big. They have a startup culture. Also I read from some employees reviews (www.kununu.com) that although the salaries are not that high, but it pays off because of the culture and working environment. I met a lot of employees and most of them told me the last time they had to work overtime was like years ago and there is minimal to almost no stress working there. The company is a very nice company and it seems very comfortable to work for. They also have very interesting projects and tasks. Thus I don't want to think about leaving the company after one or two years just because of the money. I want to be really fair in my assessments.
I found that a lot of fresh graduates earn about 4k/month at big German companies but I have no idea how boring/interesting/stressful their jobs are.
Edit:
My contract is a permanent contract. | 2015/05/29 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/47386",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/30186/"
] | nvoigts answer covers a lot of points where there are fixed increases in salary. However, in companies which do not fall under the "Tarifvertrag" or "öffentlicher Dienst" in general, it is very common to have regular (i.e. yearly) performance reviews. During those reviews not only your performance is discussed, there is also time where you can discuss things with management. One of those aspects is to revise your current contract.
* It is your time to negotiate a pay-raise, typically at the end of the performance review, when positions are set.
* Also negotiating more paid time off is common.
* Or a conversion of both (i.e. less salary increase but more paid time off).
* Negotiate the hours you work per week if you like.
Pretty much anything can be brought up. Should your review be positive, you can aim for higher goals. Definitely a pay-raise higher than inflation. The numbers you mention (from 3000€ to 3250€) translate into a pay raise of 8.33%. This number is on-par with that I experienced (a company which matches your description, possibly even the exact same company, who knows).
Companies do these reviews in order to "review" your progress, but also to give you a chance for pay-raises without having to switch companies. They are probably willing to give a pay raise.
This could be, what your friends wanted to tell you. So better make sure that your yearly performance review is happening.
Good Luck! | As far as I know there is no such law. But in many companies it is customary to negotiate a raise yearly. The absolute minimum you should negotiate for is the current rate of inflation.
Larger companies often have a collective agreement with a trade union ("Tarifvertrag") which determines the wages for (almost) all positions and by how much they raise during the years the agreement was negotiated for, but for a small startup this would be quite unusual. |
47,386 | I recently accepted a job offer at German software company. My salary in the probation period will be 3000 Euros and then afterwards 3250 Euros. I don't have experience in the industry because i'm just a fresh graduate (master in CS) from a German Uni. One of my German friends told me that my salary will be increased automatically every year because of some labor law.
My questions:
1- is there a law in Germany that forces employers to raise the salaries of employees every year?
2- If so, how much would the raise be?
3- If no such law exists, what is the criteria that I should use to estimate how much the increase should be for me? Just to give a fair estimate.
As I found from my research, the pay in this company is a little below the average. But this is for almost all employees. Mainly because it's new (~10 years) and not that big. They have a startup culture. Also I read from some employees reviews (www.kununu.com) that although the salaries are not that high, but it pays off because of the culture and working environment. I met a lot of employees and most of them told me the last time they had to work overtime was like years ago and there is minimal to almost no stress working there. The company is a very nice company and it seems very comfortable to work for. They also have very interesting projects and tasks. Thus I don't want to think about leaving the company after one or two years just because of the money. I want to be really fair in my assessments.
I found that a lot of fresh graduates earn about 4k/month at big German companies but I have no idea how boring/interesting/stressful their jobs are.
Edit:
My contract is a permanent contract. | 2015/05/29 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/47386",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/30186/"
] | >
> is there a law in Germany that forces employers to raise the salaries of employees every year
>
>
>
No, there is no such law. Any payment details are set in the contract. That includes potential automatic increases. The only law that governs wages is the minimum wage law "Mindestlohngesetz ([MiLoG](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mindestlohngesetz_%28Deutschland%29))" but if you are working as a developer, you will never come into contact with it. If you would, it would force the contract to be changed, so the simple rule remains: your payment is as written in your contract. Any change is a change to this contract and is only valid if accepted by both sides.
Now what are common terms in contracts that do trigger automatic changes?
* It is quite common to grant an increase in payment after the probation period. That would be clearly written in the contract (for example "Nach der Probezeit beträgt das Gehalt ...").
* The company could be following a contract with a union on how to pay certain jobs (called a [Tarifvertrag](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarifvertrag)). It may even be that they take this as a base and put something on top. The Tarifvertrag is a minimum though. You cannot say you are following this contract when you change any part of it to be less favorable. Such a Tarifvertrag often does include regular raises. Your contract might only read "you are paid according to the Tarifvertrag XYZ".
* If you are working for the government as a public official, your wages will be set by the state. There are tables just like in a Tarifvertrag. Your contract will include a reference to those instead, it's called a [Besoldungsgruppe](http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Besoldungsgruppe).
There is no hard and fast rule what you should ask for if you want a raise. The going inflation rate is reasonable. But in the end, you should ask yourself how well is the company doing and what was your part in it? How much money would you make if you were working someplace else?
And don't use other cities as a reference if you don't want to move there. For example, I could easily make 50% to 100% more on paper if I moved to a city either 90 minutes north or 5 hours to the south. But the truth is that they pay more because the cost of living is so high in these cities. They don't actually get more money after deducting taxes and living costs, they just have higher numbers on their paychecks and all bills. Someone making 4K right out of university as a developer is probably in one of those cities. | nvoigts answer covers a lot of points where there are fixed increases in salary. However, in companies which do not fall under the "Tarifvertrag" or "öffentlicher Dienst" in general, it is very common to have regular (i.e. yearly) performance reviews. During those reviews not only your performance is discussed, there is also time where you can discuss things with management. One of those aspects is to revise your current contract.
* It is your time to negotiate a pay-raise, typically at the end of the performance review, when positions are set.
* Also negotiating more paid time off is common.
* Or a conversion of both (i.e. less salary increase but more paid time off).
* Negotiate the hours you work per week if you like.
Pretty much anything can be brought up. Should your review be positive, you can aim for higher goals. Definitely a pay-raise higher than inflation. The numbers you mention (from 3000€ to 3250€) translate into a pay raise of 8.33%. This number is on-par with that I experienced (a company which matches your description, possibly even the exact same company, who knows).
Companies do these reviews in order to "review" your progress, but also to give you a chance for pay-raises without having to switch companies. They are probably willing to give a pay raise.
This could be, what your friends wanted to tell you. So better make sure that your yearly performance review is happening.
Good Luck! |
404,712 | This is the working circuit :
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/l747D.png)
I have researched it quite a lot in the past few hours but still I don't understand what the error is about.
### The problem
When I add a switch, it gives an error (I am quite a noob with Proteus and electronics):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/E90KW.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oQCcx.png) | 2018/11/02 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/404712",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/203137/"
] | You should use a level converter (also called level shifter) from 3.3V to 5V (and around). These devices are bi-directional.
You connect:
* 3.3V to the LV (Low voltage) pin
* 5V to the HV (High Voltage) pin
* RX of the ESP to A0, A1, A2 or A3, e.g. A0
* TX of the ESP to A0, A1, A2 or A3, e.g. A1
* RX of the Arduino opposite of the TX of the ESP, e.g. B0
* TX of the Arduino opposite of the RX of the ESP, e.g. B1
* Connect the GNDs, for clearity better put them on the same row (ESP next to A4, Arduino next to B4).
See [bi-directionional-logic-level-converter-hookup-guide](https://learn.sparkfun.com/tutorials/bi-directional-logic-level-converter-hookup-guide/all) for more details.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gOplj.jpg) | Arduino with 5 V AVR MCU reads 3.3 V as HIGH. But the RX of the 3.3 V MCU's RX pin could be damaged by 5 V TX of the 5 V MCU. A voltage divider will do it. |
459,279 | Consider the following setup:
* 1 Hypervisor
* 3 Clients (Server 2012 with AD, Server 2012, Windows 8).
Now we can remote desktop into the Hypervisor and manage the VMs with the manager.
This also works from the Server 2012 (I installed the manager there).
But it doesn't work from the Windows 8 machine.
By that I mean that I get that I am unauthorized to connect to the HyperV manager.
All machines are in the same domain.
Am I forgetting something?
I followed [this long page](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc794756%28v=ws.10%29.aspx).
But I find it so weird that it works for the same user on Windows Server 2012, but not on Windows 8. | 2012/12/19 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/459279",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/89678/"
] | If you're talking about the RSAT tools for Windows 8, mainly the Server Management tools - there's a known issue with them not installing properly until you install the en-US language pack. Most Windows 8 machines only have en-GB, and the RSAT tools will not work with this language pack.(powershell command = Add-WindowsPackage -PackagePath .\langpacks\en-us\lp.cab -Online) | Assuming you are using an Administrative-level account that also has local admin rights to the Windows 8 PC, you might check your firewall settings and NLA (network location awareness) settings on the Windows 8 PC to ensure they are not blocking access to the Hypervisor. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | Although, this question is too broad to answer but in short I can say **'It depends upon number of factor which tool you want to use'**.
1. Project/Organization budget
2. Scope of Automation
3. Skillset available with team
4. Complexity/functionalities of automation
5. Reporting
6. Test case management
7. Tool support, etc.
Don't just compare the tools theoretically, use them for different types of applications which you want to support with that tool and then decide based on your findings which tool you want to go with. Every tool has some limitations, some advantages, some dis-advantages and some assumptions which has to be considered while selecting a tool, as this is a big decision especially when it is a licensed tool and you have to use it for number of applications and have to show **ROI**.
Now, coming to your question in detail. I have tried (compared) Selenium, Telerik's Test Studio and Test Complete for one of our web-application long ago *(so after a detailed analysis we selected Test Studio, the only reason was that application was rich in Telerik's control, hence we selected their own testing tool and that time we supported majorly IE browser)*. But have found Selenium to be a powerful tool for testing of web-applications **(which is your target)**. So, if you want to go for free tool, then Selenium is a very good option to with and it is very popular among QAs in automation field. You can extend its use for Mobile, Desktop, Performance testing with use of free extensions, plugins and frameworks. While for other tools as mentioned by you either you have to buy multiple tools or you have to buy extension of same tool.
Our organization too is using Selenium with a wide range of projects (Mobile and Web applications).
However, these are some limitations of Selenium (which are no blocker for you):
1. Its and open source tool so in case of any technical issues you need to rely on the selenium community forums to get your issue resolved. While for paid tool you just need to raise ticket and will get solution. But, selenium has a vast community and user support.
2. You need to know at least one of the supported language very well in order to automate your application successfully. With other tools like Test Complete and Test Studio (it have a power recorder) you can go with recording, but at some point you have to enter into coding.
3. No inbuilt reporting capability so you need plugins like JUnit and TestNG for test reports. This is what other paid tools provide you i.e. in built good looking reports.
4. Lot of challenges with IE browser.
**Things which Selenium offers but others doesn't are:-**
1. No Fee i.e. Free Tool (A bigger factor)
2. Support for multiple languages you can use Java, C#, Python and ROR etc. for creating test cases.
3. Lots of Testing frameworks to choose from (others have only one pre-defined framework to be used).
4. Execute tests in parallel on multiple OS, browser combinations using Selenium Grid
5. Supports all the popular browsers and versions (others too support multiple browsers)
6. Integrate with DEV and CI environment seamlessly
7. **Most important:** Already grown and more growing use of Selenium in automated testing, that almost every QA opening mention that person should know about Selenium. So, a good value to your career, skill set and resume.
Courtesy to following links:-
<http://www.softwaretestingmentor.com/selenium-tutorials/limitations-of-selenium/>
<http://www.gallop.net/blog/tag/test-automation-tools-comparison/>
If you compare selenium with the mentioned tools, you will find that every tool development company has already compared and published that analysis for people e.g. this [link](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) and have shown their tool is much better ;-) *(I call it a sales strategy)* | >
> First things first- The question title and description don't match each other. You're asking features of Selenium that are not present in other tools, while in body you're asking the limitations. That's a dampner :-(
>
>
>
Back to the question- Dhiman has an excellent answer and he has covered almost all the points. Selenium as a functional web-testing tool is intensely powerful.
You can use the power of waits to handle AJAX calls, while you can use the power of various classes present inside the Selenium API to interact with dynamic web elements like Pop-ups, Modal windows, Drag-Drop Scenarios, Hover-over Menus etc.
Since you're talking about limitations, let me put forward some of the limitations I have personally felt, using Selenium over the last one and a half years :
1. **No Support for Captcha/Barcode Readers** : Well that's the whole point of Captcha- so that it can't be automated and read by machines. If you want to automate this, you need to use external API's (and I'm not sure if they are successful).
2. **Selenium can't use proxy to connect to other websites:**
That's because Selenium, technically is already a proxy, and you can't really configure it to go through another proxy (at least not that I know of).
3. **Cross Browser Issues** : It is true that Selenium gives you the flexibility to run your tests across browsers. It is also good at that. But since there are browser specific binding, you can't really be sure if a method is going to perform same way on Chrome, the same way it performs on Firefox. A good example is the [Screenshot conundrum](https://seleniumwithjavapython.wordpress.com/selenium-with-python/basics-of-webdriver/taking-screenshot-of-a-page/).
4. **Issues and Limitations while testing with Flash** : I know that now a days Flash is used less in web applications. However, in case you website has any, you will find it hard to automate with Selenium. Here is a [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14339540/testing-flash-applications-on-web-using-selenium) on SO that discusses this.
5. **Problems in automating Java applets** : You can read more about this on this SO [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10765682/how-to-automate-java-applet).
Points 4 and 5 are only situation specific, so they don't come into picture unless you have these in your web application. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | Although, this question is too broad to answer but in short I can say **'It depends upon number of factor which tool you want to use'**.
1. Project/Organization budget
2. Scope of Automation
3. Skillset available with team
4. Complexity/functionalities of automation
5. Reporting
6. Test case management
7. Tool support, etc.
Don't just compare the tools theoretically, use them for different types of applications which you want to support with that tool and then decide based on your findings which tool you want to go with. Every tool has some limitations, some advantages, some dis-advantages and some assumptions which has to be considered while selecting a tool, as this is a big decision especially when it is a licensed tool and you have to use it for number of applications and have to show **ROI**.
Now, coming to your question in detail. I have tried (compared) Selenium, Telerik's Test Studio and Test Complete for one of our web-application long ago *(so after a detailed analysis we selected Test Studio, the only reason was that application was rich in Telerik's control, hence we selected their own testing tool and that time we supported majorly IE browser)*. But have found Selenium to be a powerful tool for testing of web-applications **(which is your target)**. So, if you want to go for free tool, then Selenium is a very good option to with and it is very popular among QAs in automation field. You can extend its use for Mobile, Desktop, Performance testing with use of free extensions, plugins and frameworks. While for other tools as mentioned by you either you have to buy multiple tools or you have to buy extension of same tool.
Our organization too is using Selenium with a wide range of projects (Mobile and Web applications).
However, these are some limitations of Selenium (which are no blocker for you):
1. Its and open source tool so in case of any technical issues you need to rely on the selenium community forums to get your issue resolved. While for paid tool you just need to raise ticket and will get solution. But, selenium has a vast community and user support.
2. You need to know at least one of the supported language very well in order to automate your application successfully. With other tools like Test Complete and Test Studio (it have a power recorder) you can go with recording, but at some point you have to enter into coding.
3. No inbuilt reporting capability so you need plugins like JUnit and TestNG for test reports. This is what other paid tools provide you i.e. in built good looking reports.
4. Lot of challenges with IE browser.
**Things which Selenium offers but others doesn't are:-**
1. No Fee i.e. Free Tool (A bigger factor)
2. Support for multiple languages you can use Java, C#, Python and ROR etc. for creating test cases.
3. Lots of Testing frameworks to choose from (others have only one pre-defined framework to be used).
4. Execute tests in parallel on multiple OS, browser combinations using Selenium Grid
5. Supports all the popular browsers and versions (others too support multiple browsers)
6. Integrate with DEV and CI environment seamlessly
7. **Most important:** Already grown and more growing use of Selenium in automated testing, that almost every QA opening mention that person should know about Selenium. So, a good value to your career, skill set and resume.
Courtesy to following links:-
<http://www.softwaretestingmentor.com/selenium-tutorials/limitations-of-selenium/>
<http://www.gallop.net/blog/tag/test-automation-tools-comparison/>
If you compare selenium with the mentioned tools, you will find that every tool development company has already compared and published that analysis for people e.g. this [link](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) and have shown their tool is much better ;-) *(I call it a sales strategy)* | To add to @Dhiman's excellent answer, and noting that limits mentioned by @log\_file was not a problem for me:
* **Selenium is W3C standard for browser automation,** so it is here to stay.
* For competent programmer, **programming** (instead of session recording) **is not a bug, but a feature.**
With competent programming team, you can develop pageobjects and reuse them in extremely flexible ways. We have multiple ways to generate data to feed into our integration testing system:
* one of the paths collect some transaction data from production and replays them in testing system.
* Another use of Selenium is to generate reports for the same datapoints in production and testing, and compare them to detect the differences. Because we replay data, we can analyze detected differences and automate major part of the diff analysis.
* and of course standard regression tests.
So in some sense, some of our tests are data-driven (we can generate data sets for test, instead of endlessly replaying the same tests). Fuzzying, border conditions testing - just generate proper data sets.
Also in our experience, record/replay test are very fragile and sensitive to UI changes. After even a small change, many tests needs to be updated. With pageobject design pattern, such changes are localized and much simpler to manage.
I do not have experience using other competing automation framework (beyond dabbing into our legacy FitNesse a bit). But our **company policy is to use open source tools for production whenever possible,** because in our experience the response from **commercial support is often delayed way into the future, and often forces you to "upgrade treadmill"** - solution is "yes, we will fix it in next version of our library", so skipping version upgrades (as we like to do) would not be possible. From our POV such approach is unreliable - they are solving their problem, not ours.
**With open source systems,** if we do have some problem, usually someone else already solved it, and **solution is discoverable** by google search and some own development. Or you can always try to solve it yourself or hire an expert on hourly rate **(buy time with money),** which is not possible with closed systems.
With 2 years of experience in Selenium, I would not consider switching to proprietary test system if I can avoid it.
Yes, cross-browser testing is a problem, and IE is as usually the biggest offender - because MSFTies think that being incompatible with web standards will allow them to hang on the chunk of the market they have. If your IE customers are minority, incompatibilities are MSFT's problem not yours. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | Although, this question is too broad to answer but in short I can say **'It depends upon number of factor which tool you want to use'**.
1. Project/Organization budget
2. Scope of Automation
3. Skillset available with team
4. Complexity/functionalities of automation
5. Reporting
6. Test case management
7. Tool support, etc.
Don't just compare the tools theoretically, use them for different types of applications which you want to support with that tool and then decide based on your findings which tool you want to go with. Every tool has some limitations, some advantages, some dis-advantages and some assumptions which has to be considered while selecting a tool, as this is a big decision especially when it is a licensed tool and you have to use it for number of applications and have to show **ROI**.
Now, coming to your question in detail. I have tried (compared) Selenium, Telerik's Test Studio and Test Complete for one of our web-application long ago *(so after a detailed analysis we selected Test Studio, the only reason was that application was rich in Telerik's control, hence we selected their own testing tool and that time we supported majorly IE browser)*. But have found Selenium to be a powerful tool for testing of web-applications **(which is your target)**. So, if you want to go for free tool, then Selenium is a very good option to with and it is very popular among QAs in automation field. You can extend its use for Mobile, Desktop, Performance testing with use of free extensions, plugins and frameworks. While for other tools as mentioned by you either you have to buy multiple tools or you have to buy extension of same tool.
Our organization too is using Selenium with a wide range of projects (Mobile and Web applications).
However, these are some limitations of Selenium (which are no blocker for you):
1. Its and open source tool so in case of any technical issues you need to rely on the selenium community forums to get your issue resolved. While for paid tool you just need to raise ticket and will get solution. But, selenium has a vast community and user support.
2. You need to know at least one of the supported language very well in order to automate your application successfully. With other tools like Test Complete and Test Studio (it have a power recorder) you can go with recording, but at some point you have to enter into coding.
3. No inbuilt reporting capability so you need plugins like JUnit and TestNG for test reports. This is what other paid tools provide you i.e. in built good looking reports.
4. Lot of challenges with IE browser.
**Things which Selenium offers but others doesn't are:-**
1. No Fee i.e. Free Tool (A bigger factor)
2. Support for multiple languages you can use Java, C#, Python and ROR etc. for creating test cases.
3. Lots of Testing frameworks to choose from (others have only one pre-defined framework to be used).
4. Execute tests in parallel on multiple OS, browser combinations using Selenium Grid
5. Supports all the popular browsers and versions (others too support multiple browsers)
6. Integrate with DEV and CI environment seamlessly
7. **Most important:** Already grown and more growing use of Selenium in automated testing, that almost every QA opening mention that person should know about Selenium. So, a good value to your career, skill set and resume.
Courtesy to following links:-
<http://www.softwaretestingmentor.com/selenium-tutorials/limitations-of-selenium/>
<http://www.gallop.net/blog/tag/test-automation-tools-comparison/>
If you compare selenium with the mentioned tools, you will find that every tool development company has already compared and published that analysis for people e.g. this [link](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) and have shown their tool is much better ;-) *(I call it a sales strategy)* | Selenium is at present the most intense Open Source Automation device accessible. It depends on java scripting to a huge degree. It is more suited for the new methodology like agile of coding and testing.
Supports languages like Java,Python,Perl,Ruby,c# and php etc. but QTP supports only vbscript.
It has support for all of the popular browsers like Internet Explorer, Firefox, Mozilla, Safari etc.
Selenium IDE is useful for paths.
Selenium IDE is Freeware.
Selenium IDE Easy to install.
Selenium IDE is the only tool of selenium that allows us to record user actions on browser window.
Run multiple tests at a time. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | Although, this question is too broad to answer but in short I can say **'It depends upon number of factor which tool you want to use'**.
1. Project/Organization budget
2. Scope of Automation
3. Skillset available with team
4. Complexity/functionalities of automation
5. Reporting
6. Test case management
7. Tool support, etc.
Don't just compare the tools theoretically, use them for different types of applications which you want to support with that tool and then decide based on your findings which tool you want to go with. Every tool has some limitations, some advantages, some dis-advantages and some assumptions which has to be considered while selecting a tool, as this is a big decision especially when it is a licensed tool and you have to use it for number of applications and have to show **ROI**.
Now, coming to your question in detail. I have tried (compared) Selenium, Telerik's Test Studio and Test Complete for one of our web-application long ago *(so after a detailed analysis we selected Test Studio, the only reason was that application was rich in Telerik's control, hence we selected their own testing tool and that time we supported majorly IE browser)*. But have found Selenium to be a powerful tool for testing of web-applications **(which is your target)**. So, if you want to go for free tool, then Selenium is a very good option to with and it is very popular among QAs in automation field. You can extend its use for Mobile, Desktop, Performance testing with use of free extensions, plugins and frameworks. While for other tools as mentioned by you either you have to buy multiple tools or you have to buy extension of same tool.
Our organization too is using Selenium with a wide range of projects (Mobile and Web applications).
However, these are some limitations of Selenium (which are no blocker for you):
1. Its and open source tool so in case of any technical issues you need to rely on the selenium community forums to get your issue resolved. While for paid tool you just need to raise ticket and will get solution. But, selenium has a vast community and user support.
2. You need to know at least one of the supported language very well in order to automate your application successfully. With other tools like Test Complete and Test Studio (it have a power recorder) you can go with recording, but at some point you have to enter into coding.
3. No inbuilt reporting capability so you need plugins like JUnit and TestNG for test reports. This is what other paid tools provide you i.e. in built good looking reports.
4. Lot of challenges with IE browser.
**Things which Selenium offers but others doesn't are:-**
1. No Fee i.e. Free Tool (A bigger factor)
2. Support for multiple languages you can use Java, C#, Python and ROR etc. for creating test cases.
3. Lots of Testing frameworks to choose from (others have only one pre-defined framework to be used).
4. Execute tests in parallel on multiple OS, browser combinations using Selenium Grid
5. Supports all the popular browsers and versions (others too support multiple browsers)
6. Integrate with DEV and CI environment seamlessly
7. **Most important:** Already grown and more growing use of Selenium in automated testing, that almost every QA opening mention that person should know about Selenium. So, a good value to your career, skill set and resume.
Courtesy to following links:-
<http://www.softwaretestingmentor.com/selenium-tutorials/limitations-of-selenium/>
<http://www.gallop.net/blog/tag/test-automation-tools-comparison/>
If you compare selenium with the mentioned tools, you will find that every tool development company has already compared and published that analysis for people e.g. this [link](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) and have shown their tool is much better ;-) *(I call it a sales strategy)* | It really depends on the exact requirements your application has. We have been in a similar situation some time ago and we did a lot of research on this topic.
We have found a nice comparison of [Ranorex vs. Selenium](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) which helped us in the decision-making process.
However, in the end it is the best choice to give the tools a try and test them by yourself. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | To add to @Dhiman's excellent answer, and noting that limits mentioned by @log\_file was not a problem for me:
* **Selenium is W3C standard for browser automation,** so it is here to stay.
* For competent programmer, **programming** (instead of session recording) **is not a bug, but a feature.**
With competent programming team, you can develop pageobjects and reuse them in extremely flexible ways. We have multiple ways to generate data to feed into our integration testing system:
* one of the paths collect some transaction data from production and replays them in testing system.
* Another use of Selenium is to generate reports for the same datapoints in production and testing, and compare them to detect the differences. Because we replay data, we can analyze detected differences and automate major part of the diff analysis.
* and of course standard regression tests.
So in some sense, some of our tests are data-driven (we can generate data sets for test, instead of endlessly replaying the same tests). Fuzzying, border conditions testing - just generate proper data sets.
Also in our experience, record/replay test are very fragile and sensitive to UI changes. After even a small change, many tests needs to be updated. With pageobject design pattern, such changes are localized and much simpler to manage.
I do not have experience using other competing automation framework (beyond dabbing into our legacy FitNesse a bit). But our **company policy is to use open source tools for production whenever possible,** because in our experience the response from **commercial support is often delayed way into the future, and often forces you to "upgrade treadmill"** - solution is "yes, we will fix it in next version of our library", so skipping version upgrades (as we like to do) would not be possible. From our POV such approach is unreliable - they are solving their problem, not ours.
**With open source systems,** if we do have some problem, usually someone else already solved it, and **solution is discoverable** by google search and some own development. Or you can always try to solve it yourself or hire an expert on hourly rate **(buy time with money),** which is not possible with closed systems.
With 2 years of experience in Selenium, I would not consider switching to proprietary test system if I can avoid it.
Yes, cross-browser testing is a problem, and IE is as usually the biggest offender - because MSFTies think that being incompatible with web standards will allow them to hang on the chunk of the market they have. If your IE customers are minority, incompatibilities are MSFT's problem not yours. | >
> First things first- The question title and description don't match each other. You're asking features of Selenium that are not present in other tools, while in body you're asking the limitations. That's a dampner :-(
>
>
>
Back to the question- Dhiman has an excellent answer and he has covered almost all the points. Selenium as a functional web-testing tool is intensely powerful.
You can use the power of waits to handle AJAX calls, while you can use the power of various classes present inside the Selenium API to interact with dynamic web elements like Pop-ups, Modal windows, Drag-Drop Scenarios, Hover-over Menus etc.
Since you're talking about limitations, let me put forward some of the limitations I have personally felt, using Selenium over the last one and a half years :
1. **No Support for Captcha/Barcode Readers** : Well that's the whole point of Captcha- so that it can't be automated and read by machines. If you want to automate this, you need to use external API's (and I'm not sure if they are successful).
2. **Selenium can't use proxy to connect to other websites:**
That's because Selenium, technically is already a proxy, and you can't really configure it to go through another proxy (at least not that I know of).
3. **Cross Browser Issues** : It is true that Selenium gives you the flexibility to run your tests across browsers. It is also good at that. But since there are browser specific binding, you can't really be sure if a method is going to perform same way on Chrome, the same way it performs on Firefox. A good example is the [Screenshot conundrum](https://seleniumwithjavapython.wordpress.com/selenium-with-python/basics-of-webdriver/taking-screenshot-of-a-page/).
4. **Issues and Limitations while testing with Flash** : I know that now a days Flash is used less in web applications. However, in case you website has any, you will find it hard to automate with Selenium. Here is a [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14339540/testing-flash-applications-on-web-using-selenium) on SO that discusses this.
5. **Problems in automating Java applets** : You can read more about this on this SO [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10765682/how-to-automate-java-applet).
Points 4 and 5 are only situation specific, so they don't come into picture unless you have these in your web application. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | >
> First things first- The question title and description don't match each other. You're asking features of Selenium that are not present in other tools, while in body you're asking the limitations. That's a dampner :-(
>
>
>
Back to the question- Dhiman has an excellent answer and he has covered almost all the points. Selenium as a functional web-testing tool is intensely powerful.
You can use the power of waits to handle AJAX calls, while you can use the power of various classes present inside the Selenium API to interact with dynamic web elements like Pop-ups, Modal windows, Drag-Drop Scenarios, Hover-over Menus etc.
Since you're talking about limitations, let me put forward some of the limitations I have personally felt, using Selenium over the last one and a half years :
1. **No Support for Captcha/Barcode Readers** : Well that's the whole point of Captcha- so that it can't be automated and read by machines. If you want to automate this, you need to use external API's (and I'm not sure if they are successful).
2. **Selenium can't use proxy to connect to other websites:**
That's because Selenium, technically is already a proxy, and you can't really configure it to go through another proxy (at least not that I know of).
3. **Cross Browser Issues** : It is true that Selenium gives you the flexibility to run your tests across browsers. It is also good at that. But since there are browser specific binding, you can't really be sure if a method is going to perform same way on Chrome, the same way it performs on Firefox. A good example is the [Screenshot conundrum](https://seleniumwithjavapython.wordpress.com/selenium-with-python/basics-of-webdriver/taking-screenshot-of-a-page/).
4. **Issues and Limitations while testing with Flash** : I know that now a days Flash is used less in web applications. However, in case you website has any, you will find it hard to automate with Selenium. Here is a [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14339540/testing-flash-applications-on-web-using-selenium) on SO that discusses this.
5. **Problems in automating Java applets** : You can read more about this on this SO [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10765682/how-to-automate-java-applet).
Points 4 and 5 are only situation specific, so they don't come into picture unless you have these in your web application. | Selenium is at present the most intense Open Source Automation device accessible. It depends on java scripting to a huge degree. It is more suited for the new methodology like agile of coding and testing.
Supports languages like Java,Python,Perl,Ruby,c# and php etc. but QTP supports only vbscript.
It has support for all of the popular browsers like Internet Explorer, Firefox, Mozilla, Safari etc.
Selenium IDE is useful for paths.
Selenium IDE is Freeware.
Selenium IDE Easy to install.
Selenium IDE is the only tool of selenium that allows us to record user actions on browser window.
Run multiple tests at a time. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | It really depends on the exact requirements your application has. We have been in a similar situation some time ago and we did a lot of research on this topic.
We have found a nice comparison of [Ranorex vs. Selenium](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) which helped us in the decision-making process.
However, in the end it is the best choice to give the tools a try and test them by yourself. | >
> First things first- The question title and description don't match each other. You're asking features of Selenium that are not present in other tools, while in body you're asking the limitations. That's a dampner :-(
>
>
>
Back to the question- Dhiman has an excellent answer and he has covered almost all the points. Selenium as a functional web-testing tool is intensely powerful.
You can use the power of waits to handle AJAX calls, while you can use the power of various classes present inside the Selenium API to interact with dynamic web elements like Pop-ups, Modal windows, Drag-Drop Scenarios, Hover-over Menus etc.
Since you're talking about limitations, let me put forward some of the limitations I have personally felt, using Selenium over the last one and a half years :
1. **No Support for Captcha/Barcode Readers** : Well that's the whole point of Captcha- so that it can't be automated and read by machines. If you want to automate this, you need to use external API's (and I'm not sure if they are successful).
2. **Selenium can't use proxy to connect to other websites:**
That's because Selenium, technically is already a proxy, and you can't really configure it to go through another proxy (at least not that I know of).
3. **Cross Browser Issues** : It is true that Selenium gives you the flexibility to run your tests across browsers. It is also good at that. But since there are browser specific binding, you can't really be sure if a method is going to perform same way on Chrome, the same way it performs on Firefox. A good example is the [Screenshot conundrum](https://seleniumwithjavapython.wordpress.com/selenium-with-python/basics-of-webdriver/taking-screenshot-of-a-page/).
4. **Issues and Limitations while testing with Flash** : I know that now a days Flash is used less in web applications. However, in case you website has any, you will find it hard to automate with Selenium. Here is a [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14339540/testing-flash-applications-on-web-using-selenium) on SO that discusses this.
5. **Problems in automating Java applets** : You can read more about this on this SO [link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10765682/how-to-automate-java-applet).
Points 4 and 5 are only situation specific, so they don't come into picture unless you have these in your web application. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | To add to @Dhiman's excellent answer, and noting that limits mentioned by @log\_file was not a problem for me:
* **Selenium is W3C standard for browser automation,** so it is here to stay.
* For competent programmer, **programming** (instead of session recording) **is not a bug, but a feature.**
With competent programming team, you can develop pageobjects and reuse them in extremely flexible ways. We have multiple ways to generate data to feed into our integration testing system:
* one of the paths collect some transaction data from production and replays them in testing system.
* Another use of Selenium is to generate reports for the same datapoints in production and testing, and compare them to detect the differences. Because we replay data, we can analyze detected differences and automate major part of the diff analysis.
* and of course standard regression tests.
So in some sense, some of our tests are data-driven (we can generate data sets for test, instead of endlessly replaying the same tests). Fuzzying, border conditions testing - just generate proper data sets.
Also in our experience, record/replay test are very fragile and sensitive to UI changes. After even a small change, many tests needs to be updated. With pageobject design pattern, such changes are localized and much simpler to manage.
I do not have experience using other competing automation framework (beyond dabbing into our legacy FitNesse a bit). But our **company policy is to use open source tools for production whenever possible,** because in our experience the response from **commercial support is often delayed way into the future, and often forces you to "upgrade treadmill"** - solution is "yes, we will fix it in next version of our library", so skipping version upgrades (as we like to do) would not be possible. From our POV such approach is unreliable - they are solving their problem, not ours.
**With open source systems,** if we do have some problem, usually someone else already solved it, and **solution is discoverable** by google search and some own development. Or you can always try to solve it yourself or hire an expert on hourly rate **(buy time with money),** which is not possible with closed systems.
With 2 years of experience in Selenium, I would not consider switching to proprietary test system if I can avoid it.
Yes, cross-browser testing is a problem, and IE is as usually the biggest offender - because MSFTies think that being incompatible with web standards will allow them to hang on the chunk of the market they have. If your IE customers are minority, incompatibilities are MSFT's problem not yours. | Selenium is at present the most intense Open Source Automation device accessible. It depends on java scripting to a huge degree. It is more suited for the new methodology like agile of coding and testing.
Supports languages like Java,Python,Perl,Ruby,c# and php etc. but QTP supports only vbscript.
It has support for all of the popular browsers like Internet Explorer, Firefox, Mozilla, Safari etc.
Selenium IDE is useful for paths.
Selenium IDE is Freeware.
Selenium IDE Easy to install.
Selenium IDE is the only tool of selenium that allows us to record user actions on browser window.
Run multiple tests at a time. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | To add to @Dhiman's excellent answer, and noting that limits mentioned by @log\_file was not a problem for me:
* **Selenium is W3C standard for browser automation,** so it is here to stay.
* For competent programmer, **programming** (instead of session recording) **is not a bug, but a feature.**
With competent programming team, you can develop pageobjects and reuse them in extremely flexible ways. We have multiple ways to generate data to feed into our integration testing system:
* one of the paths collect some transaction data from production and replays them in testing system.
* Another use of Selenium is to generate reports for the same datapoints in production and testing, and compare them to detect the differences. Because we replay data, we can analyze detected differences and automate major part of the diff analysis.
* and of course standard regression tests.
So in some sense, some of our tests are data-driven (we can generate data sets for test, instead of endlessly replaying the same tests). Fuzzying, border conditions testing - just generate proper data sets.
Also in our experience, record/replay test are very fragile and sensitive to UI changes. After even a small change, many tests needs to be updated. With pageobject design pattern, such changes are localized and much simpler to manage.
I do not have experience using other competing automation framework (beyond dabbing into our legacy FitNesse a bit). But our **company policy is to use open source tools for production whenever possible,** because in our experience the response from **commercial support is often delayed way into the future, and often forces you to "upgrade treadmill"** - solution is "yes, we will fix it in next version of our library", so skipping version upgrades (as we like to do) would not be possible. From our POV such approach is unreliable - they are solving their problem, not ours.
**With open source systems,** if we do have some problem, usually someone else already solved it, and **solution is discoverable** by google search and some own development. Or you can always try to solve it yourself or hire an expert on hourly rate **(buy time with money),** which is not possible with closed systems.
With 2 years of experience in Selenium, I would not consider switching to proprietary test system if I can avoid it.
Yes, cross-browser testing is a problem, and IE is as usually the biggest offender - because MSFTies think that being incompatible with web standards will allow them to hang on the chunk of the market they have. If your IE customers are minority, incompatibilities are MSFT's problem not yours. | It really depends on the exact requirements your application has. We have been in a similar situation some time ago and we did a lot of research on this topic.
We have found a nice comparison of [Ranorex vs. Selenium](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) which helped us in the decision-making process.
However, in the end it is the best choice to give the tools a try and test them by yourself. |
15,402 | I have recently joined a company and we are looking to standardize our testing frameworks and tools across multiple (many legacy) products.
Because of this, I'm seriously considering the Selenium Test framework for automated regression of web based systems.
What are its unique advantages? Specifically, what features does Selenium posses that are unique and not present in competing frameworks? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/15402",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/7365/"
] | It really depends on the exact requirements your application has. We have been in a similar situation some time ago and we did a lot of research on this topic.
We have found a nice comparison of [Ranorex vs. Selenium](http://www.ranorex.com/ranorex-vs-selenium.html) which helped us in the decision-making process.
However, in the end it is the best choice to give the tools a try and test them by yourself. | Selenium is at present the most intense Open Source Automation device accessible. It depends on java scripting to a huge degree. It is more suited for the new methodology like agile of coding and testing.
Supports languages like Java,Python,Perl,Ruby,c# and php etc. but QTP supports only vbscript.
It has support for all of the popular browsers like Internet Explorer, Firefox, Mozilla, Safari etc.
Selenium IDE is useful for paths.
Selenium IDE is Freeware.
Selenium IDE Easy to install.
Selenium IDE is the only tool of selenium that allows us to record user actions on browser window.
Run multiple tests at a time. |
88,439 | I wrote a final exam in a course, in which the professor said that he would not test our memory and give all the needed formulae, so I didn't concentrate on memorizing them.
Would it be appropriate to politely send the professor an email with some feedback / opinion about this situation? And if this would be appropriate, what would be the best way to express this opinion as neutrally and politely as possible? So that the professor wouldn't think that I'm mad at him or something like that. | 2017/04/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/88439",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/46383/"
] | The personalities of professors vary wildly, so you may want to first consider if your professor would be open to feedback about the exam. Also, make sure that you aren't the only or one of a few students who made such mistakes. For instance, is it possible that you missed some content or communication about the exam? If you are on the same page as others, you have a stronger case.
If you feel like giving feedback is beneficial, make sure that you express it constructively and professionally. Some professors may dismiss feedback that simply comes across as "This wasn't fair." For instance, explaining that "many students who studied were confused by some of the communication about how to approach the exam. Is it possible to have a review sheet provided for the next exam?" Or "I studied and followed instructions on the exam, but am confused about how I missed some things that were discussed before the exam. Can you help me understand where I went wrong or how to better prepare next time?" This is less confrontational and helps open a difficult dialogue.
I hope this helps! | >
> Would it be appropriate to politely send the professor an email with some feedback / opinion about this situation?
>
>
>
Sending *feedback* may be OK, but sending your *opinion*, on the other hand, may not be welcomed. (Well, it is not helpful you both you and the instructor and will almost surely read as a complaint…)
As for most question that ask for "how to give feedback on…" the most important part of the answer is
**Respect basic feedback rules.**
Some of these are: Stick to facts, not opinions. Describe your experiences, but don't judge the other's behavior. Use "I" and "me" more than "you". |
28,204 | I am working on a shoot-up-game in XNA, it is going to be my final project in school. I was thinking of utilizing the minimax algorithm for AI agents for making tactics. However, I realized that the most important issue in such a game is to avoid bullets(fired by the player). An AI agent making tactics but no good at avoiding bullets would be useless in a shoot-em-up game I guess.
So, I need your help about what algorithm to utilize. It's not going to be a bullet storm like game, but it's fast(thanks to XNA). I have read about using threat maps and also pathfinding algorithms but couldn't figure out which one is ideal in such a game. I mean it needs to be simple enough for a fast paced gameplay, but it should also help AI agents act intelligently. | 2012/04/28 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/28204",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/15792/"
] | You could just keep it simple. Create a frustum (smaller than view frustum) to calculate a sort of target area for the player. If the enemy is in that frustum, they should stay in cover (for a period of time, not forever). Then make sure you're A.I. always try to spread out.
If they are always trying to use some tactics then you should be able to find out where you want them to be and create a path for them to that point. So they will always be trying to follow their path to that point. If you use the frustum to tell them to take cover then it could look effective. They move a bit along the path, then their in sight so they instantly take cover.
It should be smart enough to look compelling, but dump enough to give the player plenty of time to shoot them. Also, if their popping up when your not looking, it means it will drive the player to look around a lot, which will add to the sense of vertigo in your fast paced shooter.
The main problem, I think, will be keeping a track of the nearest bit of effective cover to get them to run to when their being aimed at. | You should use a combination of [Steering Behaviours](http://www.steeringbehaviors.de/) and speed fluctuation if you want your AI to be able to dodge bullets. It will not be perfect so maybet it will be the right tool. |
28,204 | I am working on a shoot-up-game in XNA, it is going to be my final project in school. I was thinking of utilizing the minimax algorithm for AI agents for making tactics. However, I realized that the most important issue in such a game is to avoid bullets(fired by the player). An AI agent making tactics but no good at avoiding bullets would be useless in a shoot-em-up game I guess.
So, I need your help about what algorithm to utilize. It's not going to be a bullet storm like game, but it's fast(thanks to XNA). I have read about using threat maps and also pathfinding algorithms but couldn't figure out which one is ideal in such a game. I mean it needs to be simple enough for a fast paced gameplay, but it should also help AI agents act intelligently. | 2012/04/28 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/28204",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/15792/"
] | You could just keep it simple. Create a frustum (smaller than view frustum) to calculate a sort of target area for the player. If the enemy is in that frustum, they should stay in cover (for a period of time, not forever). Then make sure you're A.I. always try to spread out.
If they are always trying to use some tactics then you should be able to find out where you want them to be and create a path for them to that point. So they will always be trying to follow their path to that point. If you use the frustum to tell them to take cover then it could look effective. They move a bit along the path, then their in sight so they instantly take cover.
It should be smart enough to look compelling, but dump enough to give the player plenty of time to shoot them. Also, if their popping up when your not looking, it means it will drive the player to look around a lot, which will add to the sense of vertigo in your fast paced shooter.
The main problem, I think, will be keeping a track of the nearest bit of effective cover to get them to run to when their being aimed at. | I don't think you've got your answer since you're asking about dodging bullets (and not general avoidance ai behaviour).
There are many simple ways to deal with that, each one is appropriate for a different scenario.
1- trace a ray from all bullets towards their respective progrades and with the ray magnitude (distance) relative to their velocity PLUS (or TIMES) the inverse of a 'response time' factor. If the ray hits an enemy, you get they outta the way.
(MEDIUM SPEED BULLETS)
2- trace a ray(/triangleish/coneish shape if there's spread) from the weapon when the player shoots. If there's an enemy there, move him outta the way.
(HIGH SPEED BULLETS)
3- if the bullets are really slow, you could simply loop all of them for each enemy and determine their positions in the future, and add to that the velocity vector of the current enemy being looped, consider a reasonable response time and threshold, if the positions are similar, then don't move the enemy there OR move the enemy outta there.
(LOW SPEED BULLETS)
P.S.: I'm assuming you're using a physics engine (box2d, etc) for the 1st and 2nd items.
if the bullets doesn't have 'speed', but are simply raytraces (instantly hits anything), then there's no way other than using the direction the player is facing to somehow determine that (see OriginalDaemon's answer). |
28,204 | I am working on a shoot-up-game in XNA, it is going to be my final project in school. I was thinking of utilizing the minimax algorithm for AI agents for making tactics. However, I realized that the most important issue in such a game is to avoid bullets(fired by the player). An AI agent making tactics but no good at avoiding bullets would be useless in a shoot-em-up game I guess.
So, I need your help about what algorithm to utilize. It's not going to be a bullet storm like game, but it's fast(thanks to XNA). I have read about using threat maps and also pathfinding algorithms but couldn't figure out which one is ideal in such a game. I mean it needs to be simple enough for a fast paced gameplay, but it should also help AI agents act intelligently. | 2012/04/28 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/28204",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/15792/"
] | I don't think you've got your answer since you're asking about dodging bullets (and not general avoidance ai behaviour).
There are many simple ways to deal with that, each one is appropriate for a different scenario.
1- trace a ray from all bullets towards their respective progrades and with the ray magnitude (distance) relative to their velocity PLUS (or TIMES) the inverse of a 'response time' factor. If the ray hits an enemy, you get they outta the way.
(MEDIUM SPEED BULLETS)
2- trace a ray(/triangleish/coneish shape if there's spread) from the weapon when the player shoots. If there's an enemy there, move him outta the way.
(HIGH SPEED BULLETS)
3- if the bullets are really slow, you could simply loop all of them for each enemy and determine their positions in the future, and add to that the velocity vector of the current enemy being looped, consider a reasonable response time and threshold, if the positions are similar, then don't move the enemy there OR move the enemy outta there.
(LOW SPEED BULLETS)
P.S.: I'm assuming you're using a physics engine (box2d, etc) for the 1st and 2nd items.
if the bullets doesn't have 'speed', but are simply raytraces (instantly hits anything), then there's no way other than using the direction the player is facing to somehow determine that (see OriginalDaemon's answer). | You should use a combination of [Steering Behaviours](http://www.steeringbehaviors.de/) and speed fluctuation if you want your AI to be able to dodge bullets. It will not be perfect so maybet it will be the right tool. |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | There is no way from preventing the user from obtaining the URL and accessing it directly, if he really want's to, and then positing it in a online forum.
There is a way to prevent this particular scenario, but it still does not protect the application completely. The idea is to ship the application with a secret key in it's binary that get's used to sign every request sent from your site, see [here](https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/18684/how-to-implement-an-api-key-mechanism) for some details.
This way you can ensure that the request came from someone who had the API key, most likely your app. This would prevent the scenario where the URL gets posted on a forum and the app gets accessed directly via web browser.
This mechanism is normally used to protect JSON APIs, but can also be used to protect access to web pages from a web view app.
But this does not prevent someone from inspecting the binary to get to the API key, and produce another app or program that signs requests with it, creating a clone of your app.
For example apps like twitter had their keys exposed in [blog posts](http://arstechnica.com/security/2010/09/twitter-a-case-study-on-how-to-do-oauth-wrong/).
So it's a tradeoff of security versus convenience: if you want to cover the URL being access from browsers, use an API key and periodically scan the android store for clone applications and report them to be shut down. This should be infrequent and easily spotted, and also users will report it to you.
If you want more security then put the app up for free, and manage login/payments yourself: it's much more complicated, and will discourage users meaning less sales. Using an API key seems to be the best security/convenience tradeoff. | You can download from a webservice the wrapped URL (use https) and that way the URL will never be inside the app to decompile it.
Anyway, a web request could be monitored by a sniffer and possibly still retrieved. |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | This question reminds me of [another discussion here in which I participated in](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/17748897/is-it-possible-to-remotely-host-a-resource-used-in-a-android-app-in-such-a-way-t) with a similar problem. The accepted answer have quite an extensive list of things that you can try.
For my own answer there, this is the short summary from the ["Verifying Back-End Calls from Android Apps" article)](http://android-developers.blogspot.com/2013/01/verifying-back-end-calls-from-android.html) that I linked:
>
> You use the GoogleAuthUtil class, available through Google Play
> services, to retrieve a string called an “ID Token”. You send the
> token to your back end and your back end can use it to quickly and
> cheaply verify which app sent it and who was using the app.
>
>
>
In general, the approach is to add some code to check that the requests coming to your URL are produced by "authenticated/paid" users (which in the Android blog example is by checking their Google Play Services account). | You can download from a webservice the wrapped URL (use https) and that way the URL will never be inside the app to decompile it.
Anyway, a web request could be monitored by a sniffer and possibly still retrieved. |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | You can download from a webservice the wrapped URL (use https) and that way the URL will never be inside the app to decompile it.
Anyway, a web request could be monitored by a sniffer and possibly still retrieved. | You can try these ways :
1. *Use shrinker, optimizer, obfuscator, and preverifier class like **PROGUARD***
2. *Divide your web site url in more pieces* and put it in your strings.xml
3. *Write encryption like **AES** or **DES** to encrypt your strings of url in strings.xml*
4. *On runtime you can decrypt,combine your url string and set it to a variable. And when you use it then you can set that variable to null so people cant get it on memory*
I think this hides your string and people cant find it easily, |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | Client side verification would be useless, because, if anyone knows the URL will be able to access it. And, no matter how much code obfuscation you use, it will be never hidden from a determinant hacker. Furthermore hacking is even not necessary if the request is route through a proxy, log will revealed URL anyway.
You should do a server side verification and have a simple script to see where those request are coming from.
Every HTTP request provide some information about the client. You can look into that information to determine where the request exactly came from. To add little bit more security you can modify and set your own value in HTTP header from client side.
Implementation would be different in Android and for IOS as the challenges are also different .
**Android**
On Android, it is relatively easy to publish an app into market, and if anyone knows your url, they can do the same trick with HTTP request and release another app. To prevent that:-
Every android app is signed by a certificate, you can send signature value with HTTP header verify that on server side. See [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5578871/how-to-get-app-signature) for how to get signature from android app.
Remember that app signature is unique and this is how Google Play store identity an app, So their is no way another developer will get a hold on that. if it doesn't satisfy you add additional header value (some secret) and change it every with every update.
[HttpURLConnection](http://developer.android.com/reference/java/net/HttpURLConnection.html) and other HTTP API from Android or from Apache provide support to do that.
**iOS**
See [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5116192/how-to-set-http-header-fields-in-objective-c) for how to modify http header on iOS.
In this case one problem is still exist is anyone can create an iOS app and do same but, on iOS, people can not simply do that as every app goes through lengthy Apple verification process. You can even have rotating secret, or generating it on the fly, with every new app update or http request, which only your server will be able to verify to make things more difficult. | You can download from a webservice the wrapped URL (use https) and that way the URL will never be inside the app to decompile it.
Anyway, a web request could be monitored by a sniffer and possibly still retrieved. |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | I believe you should use OAuth 2 to restrict access to your web server.
This question maybe of help: [Options to securely authenticate mobile access using OAuth2](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8389134/options-to-securely-authenticate-mobile-access-using-oauth2) | You can download from a webservice the wrapped URL (use https) and that way the URL will never be inside the app to decompile it.
Anyway, a web request could be monitored by a sniffer and possibly still retrieved. |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | There is no way from preventing the user from obtaining the URL and accessing it directly, if he really want's to, and then positing it in a online forum.
There is a way to prevent this particular scenario, but it still does not protect the application completely. The idea is to ship the application with a secret key in it's binary that get's used to sign every request sent from your site, see [here](https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/18684/how-to-implement-an-api-key-mechanism) for some details.
This way you can ensure that the request came from someone who had the API key, most likely your app. This would prevent the scenario where the URL gets posted on a forum and the app gets accessed directly via web browser.
This mechanism is normally used to protect JSON APIs, but can also be used to protect access to web pages from a web view app.
But this does not prevent someone from inspecting the binary to get to the API key, and produce another app or program that signs requests with it, creating a clone of your app.
For example apps like twitter had their keys exposed in [blog posts](http://arstechnica.com/security/2010/09/twitter-a-case-study-on-how-to-do-oauth-wrong/).
So it's a tradeoff of security versus convenience: if you want to cover the URL being access from browsers, use an API key and periodically scan the android store for clone applications and report them to be shut down. This should be infrequent and easily spotted, and also users will report it to you.
If you want more security then put the app up for free, and manage login/payments yourself: it's much more complicated, and will discourage users meaning less sales. Using an API key seems to be the best security/convenience tradeoff. | You can try these ways :
1. *Use shrinker, optimizer, obfuscator, and preverifier class like **PROGUARD***
2. *Divide your web site url in more pieces* and put it in your strings.xml
3. *Write encryption like **AES** or **DES** to encrypt your strings of url in strings.xml*
4. *On runtime you can decrypt,combine your url string and set it to a variable. And when you use it then you can set that variable to null so people cant get it on memory*
I think this hides your string and people cant find it easily, |
22,797,364 | I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com
I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly? | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/"
] | This question reminds me of [another discussion here in which I participated in](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/17748897/is-it-possible-to-remotely-host-a-resource-used-in-a-android-app-in-such-a-way-t) with a similar problem. The accepted answer have quite an extensive list of things that you can try.
For my own answer there, this is the short summary from the ["Verifying Back-End Calls from Android Apps" article)](http://android-developers.blogspot.com/2013/01/verifying-back-end-calls-from-android.html) that I linked:
>
> You use the GoogleAuthUtil class, available through Google Play
> services, to retrieve a string called an “ID Token”. You send the
> token to your back end and your back end can use it to quickly and
> cheaply verify which app sent it and who was using the app.
>
>
>
In general, the approach is to add some code to check that the requests coming to your URL are produced by "authenticated/paid" users (which in the Android blog example is by checking their Google Play Services account). | You can try these ways :
1. *Use shrinker, optimizer, obfuscator, and preverifier class like **PROGUARD***
2. *Divide your web site url in more pieces* and put it in your strings.xml
3. *Write encryption like **AES** or **DES** to encrypt your strings of url in strings.xml*
4. *On runtime you can decrypt,combine your url string and set it to a variable. And when you use it then you can set that variable to null so people cant get it on memory*
I think this hides your string and people cant find it easily, |
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