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22,797,364
I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly?
2014/04/01
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/" ]
Client side verification would be useless, because, if anyone knows the URL will be able to access it. And, no matter how much code obfuscation you use, it will be never hidden from a determinant hacker. Furthermore hacking is even not necessary if the request is route through a proxy, log will revealed URL anyway. You should do a server side verification and have a simple script to see where those request are coming from. Every HTTP request provide some information about the client. You can look into that information to determine where the request exactly came from. To add little bit more security you can modify and set your own value in HTTP header from client side. Implementation would be different in Android and for IOS as the challenges are also different . **Android** On Android, it is relatively easy to publish an app into market, and if anyone knows your url, they can do the same trick with HTTP request and release another app. To prevent that:- Every android app is signed by a certificate, you can send signature value with HTTP header verify that on server side. See [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5578871/how-to-get-app-signature) for how to get signature from android app. Remember that app signature is unique and this is how Google Play store identity an app, So their is no way another developer will get a hold on that. if it doesn't satisfy you add additional header value (some secret) and change it every with every update. [HttpURLConnection](http://developer.android.com/reference/java/net/HttpURLConnection.html) and other HTTP API from Android or from Apache provide support to do that. **iOS** See [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5116192/how-to-set-http-header-fields-in-objective-c) for how to modify http header on iOS. In this case one problem is still exist is anyone can create an iOS app and do same but, on iOS, people can not simply do that as every app goes through lengthy Apple verification process. You can even have rotating secret, or generating it on the fly, with every new app update or http request, which only your server will be able to verify to make things more difficult.
You can try these ways : 1. *Use shrinker, optimizer, obfuscator, and preverifier class like **PROGUARD*** 2. *Divide your web site url in more pieces* and put it in your strings.xml 3. *Write encryption like **AES** or **DES** to encrypt your strings of url in strings.xml* 4. *On runtime you can decrypt,combine your url string and set it to a variable. And when you use it then you can set that variable to null so people cant get it on memory* I think this hides your string and people cant find it easily,
22,797,364
I am creating a web app that I will wrap in a web view for Android and iOS devices. The web view will be very simple code basically pointing at my web app. For example: www.myapp.com I want the users to only be able to access the web app (use it) after they bought the apps in appstore. How can I prevent users from decompiling the source and go to the URL directly?
2014/04/01
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22797364", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454049/" ]
I believe you should use OAuth 2 to restrict access to your web server. This question maybe of help: [Options to securely authenticate mobile access using OAuth2](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8389134/options-to-securely-authenticate-mobile-access-using-oauth2)
You can try these ways : 1. *Use shrinker, optimizer, obfuscator, and preverifier class like **PROGUARD*** 2. *Divide your web site url in more pieces* and put it in your strings.xml 3. *Write encryption like **AES** or **DES** to encrypt your strings of url in strings.xml* 4. *On runtime you can decrypt,combine your url string and set it to a variable. And when you use it then you can set that variable to null so people cant get it on memory* I think this hides your string and people cant find it easily,
548,756
Been working on this for some hours. I bought a DSL-526B ADSL2/2+ Ethernet/USB Modem Router this one here <http://www.dlink.com.au/products/?pid=803> and I have windows 7, connected to the internet via ADSL-2 Ethernet. The internet works OK, but what I'm after is to get my iPad to connect to it. I was told by the guy at JB Hi Fi that this modem could spread an internet signal to wifi. Still though I cannot get any wireless signal detected on my iPad. So I'm stuck, not knowing if it's my hardware or configuration or what. Please help?
2013/02/09
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/548756", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/166307/" ]
The description of that unit makes no mention of any 802.11 capability, that is, it does not have any wireless capability. If you want an all-in-one unit, look for something with "**wireless** router" as well as "ADSL modem" in the product name/description. Such units do exist (I have one). To help confuse you, many people simply say "router" when they really mean "wireless router" (i.e. a router with a wireless access point), and make no effort to distinguish what they mean versus a plain (wired-only) "router".
If (as other answers suggest) the modem only does wired, then you **still have options.**. If you have a computer that you can connect using ethernet, then as long as that computer is connected, you should be able to share your internet connection using your computer's wifi. This article shows how. <http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/how-to-share-an-internet-connection-in-windows-7.html>
548,756
Been working on this for some hours. I bought a DSL-526B ADSL2/2+ Ethernet/USB Modem Router this one here <http://www.dlink.com.au/products/?pid=803> and I have windows 7, connected to the internet via ADSL-2 Ethernet. The internet works OK, but what I'm after is to get my iPad to connect to it. I was told by the guy at JB Hi Fi that this modem could spread an internet signal to wifi. Still though I cannot get any wireless signal detected on my iPad. So I'm stuck, not knowing if it's my hardware or configuration or what. Please help?
2013/02/09
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/548756", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/166307/" ]
I hate to break this to you, but the guy at JB Hi Fi lied to you; that model *strictly* does wired. You will need an additional (non-DSL) router to allow your wired network to interface with wireless devices (or a completely different modem, of course).
If (as other answers suggest) the modem only does wired, then you **still have options.**. If you have a computer that you can connect using ethernet, then as long as that computer is connected, you should be able to share your internet connection using your computer's wifi. This article shows how. <http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/how-to-share-an-internet-connection-in-windows-7.html>
277,189
I am wondering which is more efficient in the beginning: building new rooms (production specifically) or upgrading existing rooms? Assume that the rooms are already three wide and that I would (obviously) be upgrading them all at the same time. I am trying to figure out what will get the best return on investment right away. The main reason I'm wondering is that in my vault I'm going for 3 layers of the following (power, food, water), followed by several layers of med/rad labs for mass-storage purposes, training rooms, etc. I'm trying to quickly build up a solid base of the first three and wondering what the most efficient method is between upgrading (3 rooms) and building (3 rooms). It seems that building more rooms might be better as it would probably get more in the long run (two rooms vs one) even with the bonus of upgrading. However, it does get more expensive to build rooms the more of one that there is. Coupled with the upgrade bonus, would this make it worth it to simply upgrade before building more? Additionally, at least in the beginning, it is difficult to store up enough caps to actually upgrade due to expense. Would this make it more efficient to simply build more rooms, even with that additional expense? First off, I know similar questions have been asked before; however, they usually don't really mention what I am looking for specifically (efficiency). Thanks!
2016/07/25
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/277189", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/120898/" ]
This actually depends on how you play the game, and how many dwellers you can equip. **Play Style** If you only play for a short period, and usually have at least 20 minutes or so between play periods, then getting more rooms is not a bad idea. This is because you can place only one dweller in the room, and it will still be ready by the next time you play. During the interim, your dwellers do not consume resources. If you play for longer periods or more frequently, then you care about the cycle time for each room. If you play for 10 minutes, and your food room with one dweller takes 18 to finish, then you're going to have starving dwellers. So, in the case where you play more often, you need to sufficiently staff your room, making it more difficult to expand. Additionally, upgrading causes the room to produce more food per cycle, increasing the food-per-second. Either way, you should be careful not to fully upgrade your rooms unless you have tough dwellers with good weapons, or else the incidents will be a serious problem. **Dwellers** More rooms means either more dwellers, or less dwellers per room. I talked about the number of dwellers per room above. If you plan to fully staff these new rooms, you'll need a lot more dwellers. You want everybody in the vault to have a decent weapon to deal with incidents, so you shouldn't expand faster than you're increasing your weapons supply. If you have plenty of weapons, then creating and fully staffing new rooms might be a viable option. Don't create new rooms and staff them with six level one dwellers carrying BB guns. **What I Do** I usually don't play for more than 5-10 minutes at a time, and only look at the vault a few times a day. I build one each of food, water, stimpacks, and radaway production. I try to fully staff the rooms as quickly as possible. At some point, I will upgrade each room once, but not twice. This is determined by need. If I'm running out of water, I upgrade the water room. Because I then build training rooms, and am constantly upgrading my dwellers' outfits, these individual rooms are enough for quite some time. I eventually build second food and water rooms when the single rooms are no longer sufficient to keep everyone fed and watered. Clearly, there are a lot of factors involved that will affect your individual vault, but I wouldn't expect additional food and water rooms to be needed until you have around 50 dwellers. I currently have a survival vault with 71 dwellers that just recently built new food and water rooms, and a survival vault with 37 dwellers that still only has one of each.
My opinion is that you should build 3 rooms side-by-side so they will merge then upgrade them. Once you need more stuff, repeat the cycle
72
Very frequently I can see the need to referencing plans. Mostly to give context to questions. Like the OP did in this question: [How to make a long shallow cut on a narrow piece of wood with a circular saw](https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/questions/235/how-to-make-a-long-shallow-cut-on-a-narrow-piece-of-wood-with-a-circular-saw) Now that was pretty basic but it helped give context. I was curious if anyone was aware of a tool or utility that could render something like this: ![Square with holes!](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zgBfV.jpg) [SketchUp](http://www.sketchup.com/) comes to mind first thing. It even appear that this came from SketchUp. As of the time of this post it seems like a very capable tool but with a learning curve that might not appeal to some users. So are there other tools for doing even just basic 2D drawings that come to mind? I was hoping for something capable to whats above with maybe a little more sophistication then, say, MSPaint. ![The Plan in MSPaint](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vAuS7.png) I'm aware I might get answers like "SketchUp isnt so bad" just phishing for other possibilities. Maybe hoping this might be a question to refer other to. Maybe there is something quick and dirtier... just not as dirty and "The Plan" above **Edit from comment discussion** In general I could see this topic coming up with new user who see our question and want to know how to add this type of context to their post. "I have 2 pieces of wood meeting at a 45 degree angle" could leave room for interpretation. A simple tool where they could draw/design could save a comment based clarification discussion. For ease of use I would guess the "tool" in question would not need to conform to scale or (necessarily) measurement constraints. I am not suggesting making proper plans. Just clean diagrams for community clarification.
2015/03/20
[ "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/72", "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/128/" ]
The best answer for a particular person is going to depend on various factors. 1. the amount of space available, having a detached 100 ft² garage is going to support a quite different tool progressions than doing it out of a Tokio apartment. 2. budget, coupled with possibility of just abandoning woodworking altogether and the drive to build your own tools plus the source/price of the wood he will be working with. 3. Planned projects, a hobbyist woodworker without a project is more likely to leave the tools to rust than one that has actual short-term goals (beyond building a set of jigs and tools).
I agree with [Joe](https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/14)'s answer about the need for specific questions. We are likely to have several questions about this topic, such as [What minimum amount of equipment is required to start turning bowls?](https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/questions/285) I think we should have a tag for this topic. It would help people compare the equipment needs of various kinds of woodworking, and prioritize items that are likely to be useful for multiple projects. What would be a good tag name? The tag name should be chosen carefully, because users reasonably expect that tagged topics are in the site's scope. The tag wiki can discuss what kinds of questions are welcome in the tag, but very few new users are likely to read the tag wiki.
72
Very frequently I can see the need to referencing plans. Mostly to give context to questions. Like the OP did in this question: [How to make a long shallow cut on a narrow piece of wood with a circular saw](https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/questions/235/how-to-make-a-long-shallow-cut-on-a-narrow-piece-of-wood-with-a-circular-saw) Now that was pretty basic but it helped give context. I was curious if anyone was aware of a tool or utility that could render something like this: ![Square with holes!](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zgBfV.jpg) [SketchUp](http://www.sketchup.com/) comes to mind first thing. It even appear that this came from SketchUp. As of the time of this post it seems like a very capable tool but with a learning curve that might not appeal to some users. So are there other tools for doing even just basic 2D drawings that come to mind? I was hoping for something capable to whats above with maybe a little more sophistication then, say, MSPaint. ![The Plan in MSPaint](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vAuS7.png) I'm aware I might get answers like "SketchUp isnt so bad" just phishing for other possibilities. Maybe hoping this might be a question to refer other to. Maybe there is something quick and dirtier... just not as dirty and "The Plan" above **Edit from comment discussion** In general I could see this topic coming up with new user who see our question and want to know how to add this type of context to their post. "I have 2 pieces of wood meeting at a 45 degree angle" could leave room for interpretation. A simple tool where they could draw/design could save a comment based clarification discussion. For ease of use I would guess the "tool" in question would not need to conform to scale or (necessarily) measurement constraints. I am not suggesting making proper plans. Just clean diagrams for community clarification.
2015/03/20
[ "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/72", "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/128/" ]
This is the kind of question is really not on topic unless it's specific. Off topic, and unsalvageable without a complete rewrite: > > What order should I buy my tools in? > > > On topic: > > I am building a deck, and need to cut 4x4 and 2x10 boards, plus some smaller boards. What tools should I first buy to do this? > > > On topic, mostly: > > I'm looking to get into hobbyist woodworking, to build toys and some small furniture. What are the core tools I should own regardless of exactly what project I work on? > > > The latter would probably want some further clarification, into a completely on topic question: > > I'm looking to get into hobbyist woodworking, to build toys and some small furniture. Would a table saw and a table mounted jigsaw or miter saw be necessary for this kind of work, or would I be better off with handheld tools? > > > I think the former version would be *okay*, but the latter question is very good as it gets right to the core of what they need to know. It's important to get people to include *all* of the context of their question. Otherwise you end up with a chameleon that doesn't help anyone and either gets no answers or frustrates the answerers.
I agree with [Joe](https://woodworking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/14)'s answer about the need for specific questions. We are likely to have several questions about this topic, such as [What minimum amount of equipment is required to start turning bowls?](https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/questions/285) I think we should have a tag for this topic. It would help people compare the equipment needs of various kinds of woodworking, and prioritize items that are likely to be useful for multiple projects. What would be a good tag name? The tag name should be chosen carefully, because users reasonably expect that tagged topics are in the site's scope. The tag wiki can discuss what kinds of questions are welcome in the tag, but very few new users are likely to read the tag wiki.
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
Kolaru has made a very important observation: the Industrial Revolution was not inevitable, and it is much more likely for your story that the civilization will be agrarian and static rather than industrial and dynamic. Consider that in the First century AD, Hero of Alexandria created simple steam and atmospheric engines (some of which were used as temple "props" to do things like automatically open doors to worshippers), and several books on the subject of these machines survived to the present. Romans could also build devices which we would recognize as clockwork, and the waterwheel and crank mechanism were known to them. Much of the basic technology existed, but it was not widely adopted or improved upon. Culturally, the Romans (and the Greeks before them) considered science to be a hobby, and technological devices were mostly considered rich men's playthings. Flash forward to 1500 and the Serenìsima Repùblica Vèneta had developed a form of assembly line in the "Arsenal", had advanced accounting/book keeping and a high degree of literacy, and was quite open to outside influence as a major trading empire. They also had a relatively merit based public administration and government, but no industrial revolution was sparked there either. The question as to why England was able to begin an industrial revolution when many other nations with similar circumstances could not or did not is still somewhat mysterious. Obviously a combination of science, technology, culture and even resources (England was facing "peak wood" as most of the native forests had been cut for firewood, charcoal making or ship building, so they turned to coal as an alternative energy source) was involved, but the exact mix isn't easy to determine, and there is little agreement as to why the process could become self sustaining in England when it didn't take off elsewhere. So perhaps the focus of your story could be not how to suppress an industrial revolution, but rather how to start one....
Note that industry revolution only emerged in Europe, thousands of years after being populated. Moreover, most of the world, at the time of industrial revolution, showed no sign of transforming toward industrial revolution. This indicate that industrial revolution is not inherent to any human society. In fact a lot of human societies seem stable on the long run (e.g. tribal societies) and are likely not to tend to industrial revolution (nor to any other major changes). With this in mind, it is more relevant to look at what is necessary for a industrial revolution to happen. Here is a non exhaustive list. 1. Cities : since factories are permanent immobile structures, you need towns to place them. It can seem trivial, but it means that nomadic tribes will never ends up in launching a industrial revolution without settling. 2. Surplus of food : you need something to eat for the workers who does not produce food. It made industrial revolution impossible in medieval Europe, because most people had to be farmers, simply to keep everyone alive (and even like that it regularly failed). Actually, the industrial revolution was preceded by an agricultural revolution which produced a lot of extra food. 3. Good reason : you need to gain something, on short notice, by using machines. In the Roman Empire, there were plenty of slaves producing way enough goods for every free man, therefore there were no needs for machines. Indeed the Romans seemed to have the capability for an industrial revolution during hundreds of years, but did not tend to it. There were no need for it, because of slaves. 4. Acceptance of change : [Japan](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sakoku) did not enter industrial era until the US army forced the country to open to the rest of the world. You can see that the list is surely not complete, simply because it does not make clear why China or the Ottoman Empire, for example, did not enter the industrial revolution before Europe.
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
It's a little-known fact that the Chinese almost arrived at an industrial revolution (as well as a global empire) in the 15th century. And then ... a dynasty came to an end. The new emperor and the Confucian bureaucracy on which he depended for power felt threatened by new inventions and foreign influences. So they banned them! It became a capital crime to build or operate any ocean-going ships of the sort that had reached India and Africa and probably discovered America. And so China slumbered for the next few centuries while its "barbarians" advanced technologically, and was powerless when they in turn navigated around Africa and India. This may not be unique. You could argue that the Eastern Roman empire (later the Byzantine empire) failed to progress beyond the technologies of Rome for similar reasons. The Ottoman empire which succeeded it, likewise. It may be that an Industrial revolution is a rarity in the realm of alternative histories, rather than a near-inevitability, and requires some very special social conditions that were present in Protestant Europe and lacking at all earlier opportunities. The original Arab Caliphate was yet another once-vibrant civilisation whose rulers legislated it into stasis and decline. So there's my answer backed by real world history. Fear of the destabilizing effects of the new. Fear of losing power, influence, and control.
Kolaru has made a very important observation: the Industrial Revolution was not inevitable, and it is much more likely for your story that the civilization will be agrarian and static rather than industrial and dynamic. Consider that in the First century AD, Hero of Alexandria created simple steam and atmospheric engines (some of which were used as temple "props" to do things like automatically open doors to worshippers), and several books on the subject of these machines survived to the present. Romans could also build devices which we would recognize as clockwork, and the waterwheel and crank mechanism were known to them. Much of the basic technology existed, but it was not widely adopted or improved upon. Culturally, the Romans (and the Greeks before them) considered science to be a hobby, and technological devices were mostly considered rich men's playthings. Flash forward to 1500 and the Serenìsima Repùblica Vèneta had developed a form of assembly line in the "Arsenal", had advanced accounting/book keeping and a high degree of literacy, and was quite open to outside influence as a major trading empire. They also had a relatively merit based public administration and government, but no industrial revolution was sparked there either. The question as to why England was able to begin an industrial revolution when many other nations with similar circumstances could not or did not is still somewhat mysterious. Obviously a combination of science, technology, culture and even resources (England was facing "peak wood" as most of the native forests had been cut for firewood, charcoal making or ship building, so they turned to coal as an alternative energy source) was involved, but the exact mix isn't easy to determine, and there is little agreement as to why the process could become self sustaining in England when it didn't take off elsewhere. So perhaps the focus of your story could be not how to suppress an industrial revolution, but rather how to start one....
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
Simple answer: religion. Create your religion in such a way that iron becomes the symbol/root/instrument of evil. Without iron, our modern world wouldn't exist as we know it. For one, we wouldn't have steel, cars, or even metal pickaxes. Maybe we would be using something else (wood?), but nothing is as prevalent, useful, and durable as iron. Alternatively, do what I did for one region of a recent world: make stone sacrosanct. Defacing rock or stone -- including the cutting, painting, shaping, or mining of stone -- was outlawed by the theocratic society. Without the ability to mine the ground, you can't produce any metals.
Well, the Amish would be culturally opposed to the industrial revolution. Maybe it's a religious/spiritual philosophy decision like the Amish.
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
Kolaru has made a very important observation: the Industrial Revolution was not inevitable, and it is much more likely for your story that the civilization will be agrarian and static rather than industrial and dynamic. Consider that in the First century AD, Hero of Alexandria created simple steam and atmospheric engines (some of which were used as temple "props" to do things like automatically open doors to worshippers), and several books on the subject of these machines survived to the present. Romans could also build devices which we would recognize as clockwork, and the waterwheel and crank mechanism were known to them. Much of the basic technology existed, but it was not widely adopted or improved upon. Culturally, the Romans (and the Greeks before them) considered science to be a hobby, and technological devices were mostly considered rich men's playthings. Flash forward to 1500 and the Serenìsima Repùblica Vèneta had developed a form of assembly line in the "Arsenal", had advanced accounting/book keeping and a high degree of literacy, and was quite open to outside influence as a major trading empire. They also had a relatively merit based public administration and government, but no industrial revolution was sparked there either. The question as to why England was able to begin an industrial revolution when many other nations with similar circumstances could not or did not is still somewhat mysterious. Obviously a combination of science, technology, culture and even resources (England was facing "peak wood" as most of the native forests had been cut for firewood, charcoal making or ship building, so they turned to coal as an alternative energy source) was involved, but the exact mix isn't easy to determine, and there is little agreement as to why the process could become self sustaining in England when it didn't take off elsewhere. So perhaps the focus of your story could be not how to suppress an industrial revolution, but rather how to start one....
Warm weather. ============= It's obvious that in Scotland, people are miserable, unhappy, do nothing but work, and they invented the entirety of the modern world. ("The Enlightenment" and "Industrial Revolution" were just minor passing issues born in Scotland.) ( <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scottish_inventions_and_discoveries> ) Whereas. Go to the tropics and everyone's happy, well-balanced, has sex all day, and eat the world's best food (mangos, lobsters, etc) all day. They don't bother inventing anything. Why would you? There are any number of popular books and scholarly studies on this. <https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.1080/10400419.2018.1411571> <https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/unique-everybody-else/201211/cold-winters-and-the-evolution-intelligence> Some say that everything was invented in Scotland because of the weather, religion, bad food, etc. But it's pretty obvious it's just the weather. Make your planet as sunny as Florida, not as dreech as Scotland. ================================================================ And you're there. They'll never invent anything. They'll have happy sex and eat lobster all day.
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
Well, the Amish would be culturally opposed to the industrial revolution. Maybe it's a religious/spiritual philosophy decision like the Amish.
To answer this, You need to understand the factors that caused the industrial revolution. * First of all, you need a demand for energy greater then that which trees can produce * Secondly, you need an abundance of a source of energy (like a fossil fuel) that can easily be collected and moved about * thirdly, there should be a society of free thinkers, who can mingle and share ideas without regulation (so scientific thinking or the drive to improve should be encouraged and not regulated) * also, a government that can encourage trade and entrepreneurship is necessary as, for an industrial revolution to happen; trade routes need to be protected, maintained and expanded on, and there also should be a growing demand for cheap goods (as well as an increase in consumerisation) Now, The first two needs are slightly less important then the bottom two (when delaying an industrial revolution). A society that doesn't encourage improvement of ideas or the free unregulated exchange of information along with a government that discourages the above should easily delay an industrial revolution until such a time the above factors are available. *note: the above factors were all taken from the BBC documentery "Why the industrial revolution happened here"*
29,362
In a world similar to Earth, how can I realistically prevent the industrial revolution from occurring as an event? * I need it to be held off for at least 200 years. * It has to be a cultural reason, not a magical one or an individual one. * The main point of this is to prevent creation of large scale factories.
2015/11/09
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/29362", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11049/" ]
**They took our jobs!** A cultural reason for the industrial revolution not happening could simply be that people don't like industry. If the people of this world care more about items being handcrafted by a human and less about money, reproducibility, and large scale manufacturing, then it's plausible the industrial revolution will never occur there.
Warm weather. ============= It's obvious that in Scotland, people are miserable, unhappy, do nothing but work, and they invented the entirety of the modern world. ("The Enlightenment" and "Industrial Revolution" were just minor passing issues born in Scotland.) ( <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scottish_inventions_and_discoveries> ) Whereas. Go to the tropics and everyone's happy, well-balanced, has sex all day, and eat the world's best food (mangos, lobsters, etc) all day. They don't bother inventing anything. Why would you? There are any number of popular books and scholarly studies on this. <https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.1080/10400419.2018.1411571> <https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/unique-everybody-else/201211/cold-winters-and-the-evolution-intelligence> Some say that everything was invented in Scotland because of the weather, religion, bad food, etc. But it's pretty obvious it's just the weather. Make your planet as sunny as Florida, not as dreech as Scotland. ================================================================ And you're there. They'll never invent anything. They'll have happy sex and eat lobster all day.
42,837,776
Given a sentence, the words which are separated by spaces. Make it into two sentences with the rule: in the first rewrite all even the order of words, and the second - odd. thanks
2017/03/16
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/42837776", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7722014/" ]
Because the default physics hands Leap provides in its core assets are interpreted as "kinematic," they basically have infinite mass. Objects are flying away when you try to grab or touch them because the underlying physics solver is trying to figure out what happens when you crush a perfectly rigid body (hence "Rigidbody") between two other rigidbodies of infinite mass... The solver winds up with huge velocities and as a result you get behavior that looks weird and feels bad. There's some fancy math (Kabsch solving) and real-time physics (soft, non-rigid contact behavior) involved in make touching and grasping objects feel good, so you're probably just going to want to download Leap's Interaction Engine, which does all of that for you! Make sure you have the latest "Core Assets" from the [main developer resource page](https://developer.leapmotion.com/unity), and you can find the "Interaction Engine" on that same page. Download those packages and import them into Unity, then your workflow will basically work thusly: * Find the InteractionManager prefab in the InteractionEngine folder, and drag it into your scene. This object just does necessary bookkeeping for the interaction system. * ***Remove those RigidRoundHands*** you were using from the Hand Controller, and add the Interaction Brush Hands in the InteractionEngine folder instead. These hands have extra physics logic baked in that prevents interactions from being explosive the way you were describing. * Add an InteractionBehaviour component to any object you would like to be able to touch or pick up. From there, you should be good to go. If something stops working at any step, you can check out the Interaction Engine 101 example on the developer page; it's an open-source Unity project with a working implementation of the latest Interaction Engine.
I think you should move it using a Coroutine. You can find more info here: <https://docs.unity3d.com/Manual/Coroutines.html> This should do the trick without much code.
449,024
I've got an exam coming up, and I'm worried that (as I usually tend to do) I will mess up with some minor algebraic calculation in a large problem like finding the determinant of a 4x4 or larger matrix. I'm likely to be asked to use Laplace Expansion, and I'd like to know if there are any other quick and dirty ways I can try to make sure my answer was correct. Considering I'm not alowed to use a calculator, is there some other non-standard method I can use to try to verify a correct solution? I know how to find the determinant no problem, but I'm very prone to minor mistakes and I don't want to have to spend too much time reading over every problem in fine detail to make sure I didn't omit a negative sign somewhere.
2013/07/21
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/449024", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/39748/" ]
If the matrix is structured so that a certain row or column has a lot of zeros in it then you should be sure to take advantage of this. Expanding along such a row/column will reduce the number of calculations you must perform, which will save time and simultaneously reduce the risk of error.
There's not a standard way to compute determinant avoiding those errors, but you can use some tricks before Laplace Expansion to simplify your matrix. Anyway, the tricks you can use depends on your matrix. For example, if it has two similar rows, you can reduce by rows to obtain a lot of zeros which makes simpler your computation. Instead, if using Gaussian elimination you can get quickly a triangular matrix, you can use it and then compute determinant taking the product of diagonal entries.
29,302
There are a number of informal heuristic arguments for the consistency of ZFC, enough that I am happy enough to believe that ZFC is consistent. This is true for even some of the more tame large cardinal axioms, like the existence of an infinite number of Grothendieck universes. Are there any such heuristic arguments for the existence of Vopenka cardinals or huge cardinals? I'd very much like to believe them, mainly because they simplify a great deal of trouble one has to go through when working with accessible categories and localization (every localizer is accessible on a presheaf category, for instance). For Vopenka's principle, the category-theoretic definition is that every full complete (cocomplete) subcategory of a locally presentable category is reflective (coreflective). This seems rather unintuitive to me (and I don't even understand the model-theoretic definition of Vopenka's principle). What reason is there to believe that ZFC+VP (or ZFC+HC, which implies the consistency of VP) is consistent? Obviously, I am willing to accept heuristic or informal arguments (since a formal proof is impossible).
2010/06/24
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/29302", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/1353/" ]
William Reinhardt gave heuristic reasons for some very large cardinal axioms in a paper in the proceedings of the 1967 UCLA set theory meeting. I don't know whether he considered cardinals as large as the ones you want, but some of the ideas there might be useful for you. (Disclaimer: I'm not at all convinced that such large cardinals exist. My belief in their consistency is based on the fact that very smart people, like Jack Silver, have looked seriously for inconsistencies and haven't found any.)
Here is a practical argument. Set theorists like to solve various problems and large cardinals help as either (rarely) they imply a positive answer or (more usually) their consistency implies the consistency of a positive answer. Under "positive" I mean an answer that is not a counterexample, an answer that does not give an object with strange properties. For example, determinacy at the *n*-th level of the projective hierarchy solves most problems on sets of that level positively (if blah are sets of that level then blah blah vs there is a sequence of blah sets for which this and this hold but this and this do not) and said determinacy is equiconsistent to the existence of *n* Woodin cardinals.
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
Is this a case of not using a multi threaded approach? Is the machine using 100% of one core of a processor and that's the bottleneck? EDIT: Sorry for stating the obvious, was just an idea before you mentioned that it was already multi threaded. I'm afraid I can't offer any more suggestions.
Maybe the server can't deliver more data over the network (so it's network IO bound)?
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
Robin Day is probably right, however if you are using a processor that supports hyper threading you *may* get a performance benefit by turning this off in the BIOS. You can try an a A/B performance test. You could also check the SQL instance (when you say reporting service you mean SSRS right?) has not a got processor affinity set.
Maybe the server can't deliver more data over the network (so it's network IO bound)?
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
All the threads of your application are fighting for a single lock. Use a profiler to see if there is a congestion somewhere. If you have four cores, that would explain why you see 25% overall CPU usage.
Maybe the server can't deliver more data over the network (so it's network IO bound)?
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
SQL Server Reporting Services limits the number of reports run to 2 simultaneous ad-hoc reports and 2 simultaneous web reports. This is a hard limit imposed by the server.
Maybe the server can't deliver more data over the network (so it's network IO bound)?
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
SQL Server Reporting Services limits the number of reports run to 2 simultaneous ad-hoc reports and 2 simultaneous web reports. This is a hard limit imposed by the server.
Is this a case of not using a multi threaded approach? Is the machine using 100% of one core of a processor and that's the bottleneck? EDIT: Sorry for stating the obvious, was just an idea before you mentioned that it was already multi threaded. I'm afraid I can't offer any more suggestions.
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
SQL Server Reporting Services limits the number of reports run to 2 simultaneous ad-hoc reports and 2 simultaneous web reports. This is a hard limit imposed by the server.
Robin Day is probably right, however if you are using a processor that supports hyper threading you *may* get a performance benefit by turning this off in the BIOS. You can try an a A/B performance test. You could also check the SQL instance (when you say reporting service you mean SSRS right?) has not a got processor affinity set.
542,148
I've set up a solution that creates rapid fire PDF reports. Currently it seems I can't get Reporting Services to use all the resources it has available to it. The system doesn't appear to be IO bound, CPU bound, or memory bound. Any suggestions on trying to figure out why it's running so? The application isn't network IO bound, and it is multi-threaded to 2 times the number of processors.
2009/02/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/542148", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7756/" ]
SQL Server Reporting Services limits the number of reports run to 2 simultaneous ad-hoc reports and 2 simultaneous web reports. This is a hard limit imposed by the server.
All the threads of your application are fighting for a single lock. Use a profiler to see if there is a congestion somewhere. If you have four cores, that would explain why you see 25% overall CPU usage.
206,237
In a double slit experiment with electron we cannot know which slit the electron went through. If we measure it then the interference pattern disappears. Is it possible to get a probability for which slit the electron went through given that it was detected at some place? For example if the electron was detected at the place of central maxima can we say that the probability that it came through slit A is p?
2015/09/10
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/206237", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/21613/" ]
Suppose you have some prior probability distribution for the state of the electron as it's emitted. Then, given the point where a given electron hits the detector, you can use Bayes's rule to update that probability distribution. Now for any given initial state, you can calculate the probability that an observation at slit A will detect the electron. Integrating over your Bayesian-updated probability distribution, you can calculate a number that could reasonably be interpreted as "The probability this particular electron would have been detected at slit A, had I chosen to make that observation." Of course if the initial probability distribution is concentrated on a single state (i.e. if you *know* the state of the electron as it's emitted), then the updating has no effect, so in that case the probability you calculate will be independent of where the electron hits the detector screen.
A probability assigned to a retrodiction isn't science like the probability of a prediction. And of you do it repeatedly you can't condition a current event on a future event. And if you recorded both so you could analyze them both later, then you would be working with the no interference population, so it would tell you zero, nothing, about how things worked when you didn't look. If you tried to post select you'd sample from a different population, the population for a specific range of results on the screen, but then can't go back in time to measure which went through which slit. So the reproduction becomes a story, not a scientifically verifiable fact. If you want to tell stories about what happens when you don't look then there are a range of stories. Some stories would say that it doesn't have a position when you sent measuring position. Others would say the positions can change in a completely discontinuous way when you aren't looking so it can go through both by jumping back and forth between the slits as it goes through. Others would insist that it has a position, well that the entire system has a configuration which is note and is essential. And those theories would still have some freedom, just like you can add a divergence free field to a current and not real change the dynamics of the the thing the current is a flow of. So for some currents it might be as simple as the leftmost portion of the screen is 100% due to the paths that went through the left slit and the rightmost portion of the screen is 100% due to the paths that went through the right slit and somewhere in between is one sharp dividing line related to the total flux through each it compared to the total flux on the screen. But a different choice of current that differed by a divergence free field would model it differently (maybe the dividing line becomes a dividing swirl). And I would have said there would be by definition no way to tell the difference, but now I worry that maybe you can if you include all the back reaction you ignored to focus on just the frequency of the results. But it still isn't a prediction about experimental results, it's just a story. No better than claiming that they couldn't have a position before you measured it. So the theory of quantum mechanics makes no predictions about it since it isn't a verifiable statement. And different interpretations will tell different stories.
206,237
In a double slit experiment with electron we cannot know which slit the electron went through. If we measure it then the interference pattern disappears. Is it possible to get a probability for which slit the electron went through given that it was detected at some place? For example if the electron was detected at the place of central maxima can we say that the probability that it came through slit A is p?
2015/09/10
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/206237", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/21613/" ]
Suppose you have some prior probability distribution for the state of the electron as it's emitted. Then, given the point where a given electron hits the detector, you can use Bayes's rule to update that probability distribution. Now for any given initial state, you can calculate the probability that an observation at slit A will detect the electron. Integrating over your Bayesian-updated probability distribution, you can calculate a number that could reasonably be interpreted as "The probability this particular electron would have been detected at slit A, had I chosen to make that observation." Of course if the initial probability distribution is concentrated on a single state (i.e. if you *know* the state of the electron as it's emitted), then the updating has no effect, so in that case the probability you calculate will be independent of where the electron hits the detector screen.
The first experiments with electron diffraction behind an edge was carried out by Möllenstedt. He used a wire and get left and right the shadow of the wire intensity distributions. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pPTcH.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pPTcH.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IsdrB.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IsdrB.jpg) Please take attention to the fact that not a double slit nor any slit was used. The next step of his experiments was to connect the wire with an electric source and to increase the electrical potential. The distribution pattern does changes. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fZWBX.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fZWBX.jpg) Why I tell you this? It is possible to answer your question > > Is it possible to get a probability for which slit the electron went through given that it was detected at some place? > > > with YES for the cases, where the intenity distributions do not overlapping. One has to suppose that electrons in such experiments are indivisible particles. But how then explain the distribution patterns? Electrons interact with the electrons on the surface of the wire and they build a common field. This field quantized. The flying electrons, dependent from their trajectory get deflected inside the common quantized field and hit the detector with a distribution in the form of fringes. This explanation works very well for single electron experiments and for fringes behind a single edge too. But keep in mind that electrons as well as photons have wave characteristics due to their quantized field in any interaction.
25,692
I want to understand why we do not build space stations in a similar way that we build a home, piece by piece. Instead we construct modules on the ground and fly them up. Are there some technical limitations other than money that make this impossible? Why don't we fly up raw materials, prefabbed metal panels, structural steel and any other material and slowly construct a space station that is suitable for somewhat normal living, normal sized rooms, ceiling heights, etc.? I'm wondering if any plans exist or working groups are exploring this idea. Or is it a technical limitation, for example: not being able to ensure a complete seal between the exterior pieces? Is what I am wondering clear?
2012/01/24
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/25692", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/4141/" ]
Somebody has to put the pieces together somewhere. If you do it in the ground, you can work in shirtsleeves, with easy access to supplies, tools, equipment, and other workers. If you need a tool, you can probably walk next door to get it, or ask someone to bring it to you. If you drop a tool, you can pick it up. In orbit, you have to work in a bulky pressure suit, with perhaps one or two other astronauts helping, with everything you use costing thousands of dollars per kilogram and months of advance planning to get to orbit. And if you drop a tool, it can float away and be lost (and have to be tracked by NORAD). The more assembly work you can do on the ground, the easier and cheaper the entire process is going to be, likely by several orders of magnitude. The optimal method is to assemble things on the ground in modules as big as you can carry into orbit, and (if necessary) assemble the modules as simply as possible once you get there. This is why the International Space Station consists largely of connected modules, each of which fits in a Shuttle cargo bay. (Thanks to dmckee for pointing this out.)
The most comparable thing would be constructing a submarine, not a house. Let's bring a few things to consider. 1. They must be air tight. 2. They have complex electronics to regulate systems. 3. They both operate in non-typical environments. Submarines are typically constructed in dry docks, and then placed in the water. That way they can get everything welded when it is easy to do so, and won't have problems with constructing in an extreme environment.
28,710
I graduated in 2007 with a mathematics degree and have since had multiple postdocs at R1 universities. While I have definitely enjoyed my experiences as a researcher, I am very interested in pursuing a career teaching at a small liberal arts institution. So, my question is how to present my research-heavy resume in a way that is palatable to a college which may be wary of my credentials? Is it advisable to drop "invited talks/conferences" from my CV? Do I select only my favorite publications to include? Also, I understand that it is inappropriate to give an overly detailed research statement. However, as a representation theorist, I think it is to my advantage that my research draws on a lot of different fields. Is it better to explain the broader relevance of my research, or do I ignore that in favor of what I can teach undergraduates to program on a computer? Does it make sense to write separate statements?
2014/09/18
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/28710", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11258/" ]
I wouldn't drop anything from your CV. I might shift things around so that the "List of Courses Taught" (or that you could teach) is on page 1 or 2. Teachings awards and anything similar also up front. The cover letter is key. Your research accomplishments should be one paragraph while discussion of your love of math, the fantastic students you interacted with at one of your postdocs, the courses you would like to teach at X, and your teaching style should be at least 2-3 paragraphs. One thing that I did when I was applying to SLACs was to have a list of my courses in my cover letter followed by a very small print (all course syllabi listed here are available on my website: www.example.com). And of course you should also include a separate teaching statement if they require one -- or even hint of wanting one.
I wouldn't advocate so much for the inclusion of your "favourite" articles -- but those that are most relevant to the position to which you are applying. Same for invited talks -- it'd be crazy to delete all of them. Suggestion: "Publications (selected)" (perhaps indicate h-index here, too); "Invited conferences (selected)". If the reviewer is interested in your academic output, s/he can just check google scholar for the more detailed overview anyway.
4,179,879
I want to do a test load for a web page. I want to do it in python with multiple threads. First POST request would login user (set cookies). Then I need to know how many users doing the same POST request simultaneously can server take. So I'm thinking about spawning threads in which requests would be made in loop. I have a couple of questions: 1. Is it possible to run 1000 - 1500 requests at the same time CPU wise? I mean wouldn't it slow down the system so it's not reliable anymore? 2. What about the bandwidth limitations? How good the channel should be for this test to be reliable? Server on which test site is hosted is Amazon EC2 script would be run from another server(Amazon too). Thanks!
2010/11/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4179879", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/219449/" ]
cPython does not take advantage from multiple cores when running multiple threads. It means, that basically, You will only have one core doing the testing job. There are dedicated tools to do what You want to do. Let me suggest two: [**FunkLoad**](http://pypi.python.org/pypi/funkload/) is a functional and load web tester, written in Python, whose main use cases are: * Functional testing of web projects, and thus regression testing as well. * Performance testing: by loading the web application and monitoring your servers it helps you to pinpoint bottlenecks, giving a detailed report of performance measurement. * Load testing tool to expose bugs that do not surface in cursory testing, like volume testing or longevity testing. * Stress testing tool to overwhelm the web application resources and test the application recoverability. * Writing web agents by scripting any web repetitive task, like checking if a site is alive. --- [**Tsung**](http://tsung.erlang-projects.org/) is an open-source multi-protocol distributed load testing tool > > The purpose of Tsung is to simulate > users in order to test the scalability > and performance of IP based > client/server applications. You can > use it to do load and stress testing > of your servers. Many protocols have > been implemented and tested, and it > can be easily extended. WebDAV, LDAP > and MySQL support have been added > recently (experimental). > > > It can be distributed on several > client machines and is able to > simulate hundreds of thousands of > virtual users concurrently (or even > millions if you have enough hardware > ...). > > > --- If You decide to write Your own tool, You will probably want to use Python's [**multiprocessing module**](http://docs.python.org/library/multiprocessing.html) as it would let You use multiple cores. You should also take a look on [**Twisted**](http://twistedmatrix.com/trac/wiki/Documentation) as it would let You easily handle multiple sockets while a limited number of threads. That would be much better than spawning a new thread for each socket. You work with Amazon EC2, so I would recommend using Tsung. You can rent a dozen of multicore servers for a few hours and run some really heavy load tests with Tsung. It scales very well in this kind of configuration. As for the bandwidth, it's usually not a problem, but it depends on the application. You will have to monitor all Your resources closely while performing a load test.
too many variables. 1000 at the *same time*... no. in the same second... possibly. bandwidth may well be the bottleneck. this is something best solved by experimentation.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
**In your specific case:** In your case, I think the new ruler is a new monarch, not a dictator. The new ruler doesn't have enough force or influence to rule with absolute power. Any of the other families could depose this new ruler in a heart beat. So I don't think they qualify as a dictator, unless one of the major families allies with them. The problem is as follows: *Army **beats** Police Force.* *Bankers **+** Money **+** Mercenary Army **beats** Police Force.* This specific scenario might make more sense if it was the army that took over and seized the whole nation. Or some group that can leverage extreme force. **In general:** That said, the ancient Greeks thought that a [benevolent dictatorship](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Benevolent_dictatorship) would be one of the most ideal forms of government. [They theorized many different ways to make this happen](https://gimmesometruthblog.wordpress.com/2014/07/17/did-the-people-of-greece-prefer-tyranny-to-democracy-2/#_ftn17). But basically if you have a dictator who wants the good of their people, there are a lot of things they can do that traditional governments can't. Income inequality, lack of jobs, civil rights abuses, almost anything can be solved with a hand wave and overwhelming force. The problem is not having a benevolent dictator, the problem is that the people who tend to become dictators are not benevolent (usually traitors to begin with). And second, even if you get a benevolent dictator, as there have been in history, once they pass away their is no guarantee that the next person will be benevolent.
A few good things can come from Palace coups d'etat. The most important are the churn in key personelle, if the new decision makers are competent, and the need to buy up popular feeling, which might lead to pay increases, redistribution of land or grain, the sacking of the outgoing title holders to pay promises to supporters, and perhaps reformation of banking and land title law, rental caps, employment incentives. The bad aspects of dictatorships generally outweigh the good. The personalities of the Junta, in order to pursue absolute power, are not at all considerate or sensitive, but rather, murderously egoistic. They are schooled and experienced in the emotional realities of dominance/ submission, and unlikely to engage in negotiations toward compromise, let alone collaboration. Avoidance of conflict is not on their radar. Any good good that comes of them, with rare exceptions, is not by their own conscious design. The success of the nation resulting from the coup d'etat could be the result of new personelle bringing creativity to old problems, and also from a freeing up of social mobility , at least for a select group. New business deals and management strategies from new relationships, with an aura of new beginnings, could perhaps create business optimism. Rewriting of the official narrative, (ie, the deposed group will now be depicted as bad), could make many people more energetic for psycho-emotional reasons, as anyone who had sufferred under the last regime can speak out and direct their anger toward the past, also giving an aura of positive change.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
A common effect of political fragmentation is the imposition of economic barriers. Each subsection of the realm will institute trade barriers such as high tolls for transshipping goods, and possibly tariffs whose intent is to increase the prices of imported goods and make them less competitive with locally-produced products. The practice occurred, for instance, in many of the original American colonies. This has a very bad long-term effect on the larger economy. Successful economies generally encourage specialization, with trade to distribute each specialized areas goods to the others. It's entirely possible for a dictator to eliminate these barriers to the free flow of goods. This will have excellent consequences for the economy as a whole, although not necessarily for any particular realm. Depending on the smarts of the dictator, it's also possible for him to institute (at least partially) a command economy, with resources devoted to projects with long-term payoffs which would otherwise not occur. An example might be investment in civil waterworks and piping, which will provide clean water to all, with an attendant drop in disease rates. Of course, none of this is guaranteed to succeed. As the saying goes, "Power tends to corrupt, absolute power corrupts absolutely." This will apply to the dictator, and (importantly) to his advisors. Corruption in the application of otherwise well-intended projects can easily offset any benefits, and in the worst case produce a kleptocracy. This pattern is widely seen in third-world countries today.
It's impossible because the intention to seize totalitarian power contradicts the intentions to do actual "good". ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Let's take a more libertarian/philosophical approach. The types of relations humans can have are essentially this: * Based on (continuous) negotiation and reciprocal benefit: "We both agree to benefit each other, and we both are free to stop." * Based on power with winner and loser: "Obey or suffer the consequences. I command you, and if you refuse, I will destroy you." What must a dictator be as a baseline in order to **be** a dictator before even actively "doing" anything specific? * He must be willing to invoke taxes on all people he has control over. * He must be willing to exert force and coercion over people who refuse to pay taxes or comply with his laws and demands. * He must be willing to hold, perpetuate and benefit from a collectivist ideology, which promotes state power and the foundational idea that it is just and reasonable to initiate violence against people for the sake of the ***higher good***. * Along with that, he must be in opposition to individualism - he must be convinced that he can micro- and macromanage people (and the economy) better than they themselves, and that individuals would just "waste" their freedoms for things he doesn't deem useful. * He must be complicit with the idea to hold power as centralized, undivided and undeluded as possible. The magnitude of course matters - the same ruler could either starve its citizens or just take less from them. But the practice in *essence* is the same - and if he doesn't take *enough*, he can not be a dictator. So let's assume a high magnitude. --- So - the question boils down to this at this point: **What can a dictator, who is already exploiting and oppressing its people en masse to a large degree, prevent his economy to collapse too rapidly?** A significant correlation is this: The more individual liberties (free speech, property rights) and economic opportunities (less taxes, less restrictions), the more economic success and prosperity. And for the sake of definition let's say that is actual "good", along with having ethics, internal peace, more negotiation based relationships, less power based relationships. Let's not expand on the reasoning, but let's assume it is true - can a dictator ever go towards these goals without ceasing to be a dictator, without removing himself from the power he once desired and succeeded to seize - or likely intends to hold as he might claim to "fight corruption" (which often is the result of special state and big corporation interactions in the first place)? The answer is no. One would have to fight his own beliefs, his own being. --- What can a "benevolent dictator" do? He can pursue planned economy or economic fascism. The best case scenario is that it works out on the ***short term*** - and as such probably even tremendously, mustering massive resources for war and major social plans - but will fail on the ***long term***. "Success" would be merely temporary. Also it causes major issues which slowly and inevitably lead to internal and/or external conflicts and issues - rendering the system and the regime highly unstable. Getting rid of "corruption" is also a questionable goal if state power is the soil it depends on, which is maximized in the first place. It's more likely to replace one type of corruption with another type (which can be just a different type of unethical practice). Besides, if there is a regime which has a structure set up to serve the will of a benevolent dictator, it wouldn't be too difficult to replace him with someone who is more fitting to such a position of power - who would no longer be "benevolent".
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
The intent of this answer is not to glorify evil in any way. I simply wish to state some truth. It is true that Adolf Hitler did many evil things and I don't want to make him sound good. but it is also true that Germany and its allies got terrifyingly close to taking over the eastern world. Only were they stopped by a coalition of the greatest forces in the world and some battles won barely dangling by a strand. This occurred because of the dictatorship of Hitler. I suggest to find more information about this look up things like "how was Hitler so successful?" or "why did Hitler accomplish so much?". I can provide more information myself I just do not have the time to do so at the moment but leave a comment if you would like me to expound upon this answer.
A few good things can come from Palace coups d'etat. The most important are the churn in key personelle, if the new decision makers are competent, and the need to buy up popular feeling, which might lead to pay increases, redistribution of land or grain, the sacking of the outgoing title holders to pay promises to supporters, and perhaps reformation of banking and land title law, rental caps, employment incentives. The bad aspects of dictatorships generally outweigh the good. The personalities of the Junta, in order to pursue absolute power, are not at all considerate or sensitive, but rather, murderously egoistic. They are schooled and experienced in the emotional realities of dominance/ submission, and unlikely to engage in negotiations toward compromise, let alone collaboration. Avoidance of conflict is not on their radar. Any good good that comes of them, with rare exceptions, is not by their own conscious design. The success of the nation resulting from the coup d'etat could be the result of new personelle bringing creativity to old problems, and also from a freeing up of social mobility , at least for a select group. New business deals and management strategies from new relationships, with an aura of new beginnings, could perhaps create business optimism. Rewriting of the official narrative, (ie, the deposed group will now be depicted as bad), could make many people more energetic for psycho-emotional reasons, as anyone who had sufferred under the last regime can speak out and direct their anger toward the past, also giving an aura of positive change.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
A well-run dictatorship is superior to any other form of government. Well-run dictatorships are unicorns though, since most of the goals I'm about to list are the exact opposite of what dictators are aiming for. Why can a dictatorship be great? Because you can ignore special interests and other inefficiencies. You can remove corruption. You can invest heavily in the future without worrying about temporary setbacks. You can engage in long-term planning. You can make decisions quickly. **Special interests and other inefficiencies**. You said that one Family controls the Navy, one the banks, one the produce, etc. That sounds like your entire nation is a series of monopolies, which is probably inefficient. Use your dictatorial powers to open up the field for competition. Allow the free market to improve productivity. **Remove corruption**. Ruthlessly execute corrupt officials and strip their family of all assets. Make it so that the rewards of corruption aren't worth the risks, and you'll find your nation operating more efficiently at all levels. This one will actually affect the lives of normal people - imagine a medieval peasant actually being able to trust the police. **Invest heavily in the future**, ignoring minor setbacks. Build those infrastructure projects. Educate your populace. Invite foreign investment and make sure that they have sustained legal protection so that even more flows in (no "nationalizing/stealing" foreign assets.) Use your stability and vision to forge economic alliances that boost your economy and open up markets for your corruption-free, open market industries to compete in. Fund research and exploration. Be prepared for war even when peace is long-lived. **You can make decisions quickly**. In a democracy, even the most sensible decision can take time. The dictator can cut through red tape, can issue direct orders, and can bring the nation to action as fast as his commands can be distributed. An okay decision today is often better than a good decision a year from now. The best example I have here is Pinochet from Chile. Pinochet was no angel - he killed/disappeared thousands of people (many of whom would be considered innocent). But the general consensus is that he managed to set Chile on a path that has made them the best nation in South American by almost any economic measure except equality. Even there, the modern Chilean poor are better off and less numerous than the Chilean poor when Pinochet took power, so judge carefully.
A few good things can come from Palace coups d'etat. The most important are the churn in key personelle, if the new decision makers are competent, and the need to buy up popular feeling, which might lead to pay increases, redistribution of land or grain, the sacking of the outgoing title holders to pay promises to supporters, and perhaps reformation of banking and land title law, rental caps, employment incentives. The bad aspects of dictatorships generally outweigh the good. The personalities of the Junta, in order to pursue absolute power, are not at all considerate or sensitive, but rather, murderously egoistic. They are schooled and experienced in the emotional realities of dominance/ submission, and unlikely to engage in negotiations toward compromise, let alone collaboration. Avoidance of conflict is not on their radar. Any good good that comes of them, with rare exceptions, is not by their own conscious design. The success of the nation resulting from the coup d'etat could be the result of new personelle bringing creativity to old problems, and also from a freeing up of social mobility , at least for a select group. New business deals and management strategies from new relationships, with an aura of new beginnings, could perhaps create business optimism. Rewriting of the official narrative, (ie, the deposed group will now be depicted as bad), could make many people more energetic for psycho-emotional reasons, as anyone who had sufferred under the last regime can speak out and direct their anger toward the past, also giving an aura of positive change.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
**In your specific case:** In your case, I think the new ruler is a new monarch, not a dictator. The new ruler doesn't have enough force or influence to rule with absolute power. Any of the other families could depose this new ruler in a heart beat. So I don't think they qualify as a dictator, unless one of the major families allies with them. The problem is as follows: *Army **beats** Police Force.* *Bankers **+** Money **+** Mercenary Army **beats** Police Force.* This specific scenario might make more sense if it was the army that took over and seized the whole nation. Or some group that can leverage extreme force. **In general:** That said, the ancient Greeks thought that a [benevolent dictatorship](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Benevolent_dictatorship) would be one of the most ideal forms of government. [They theorized many different ways to make this happen](https://gimmesometruthblog.wordpress.com/2014/07/17/did-the-people-of-greece-prefer-tyranny-to-democracy-2/#_ftn17). But basically if you have a dictator who wants the good of their people, there are a lot of things they can do that traditional governments can't. Income inequality, lack of jobs, civil rights abuses, almost anything can be solved with a hand wave and overwhelming force. The problem is not having a benevolent dictator, the problem is that the people who tend to become dictators are not benevolent (usually traitors to begin with). And second, even if you get a benevolent dictator, as there have been in history, once they pass away their is no guarantee that the next person will be benevolent.
After about half a century of attempting to absorb information about history and feeling I may have acquired what Oscar Levant referred to as a smattering of ignorance, I feel it possible, when evaluating the potential effectiveness of dictatorship, we may lead ourselves into an intellectual corner by the use of the word "absolute" when discussing the nature of dictatorship or what is referred to often as "absolutism". I am left with the impression that no matter how effective a given individual has been in consolidating power, it is never literally "absolute". It is always dependent on factors that are essential for the acquisition and maintenance of the power, more often than not the interested loyalty of what Alexis de T. called "the organized adolescents of the world known as the military class". In some cases it may depend on having a wife who will not poison you or a Praetorian guard who will not slit your throat in that tunnel up on the Palatine Hill or having a populace that will tolerate the autocrat. There seem always to be important and essential factors that limit an "absolute" autocrat, beginning with the degree of the individual´s competence/incompetence. (The last Czar of the Russian Empire is a good example.) I can think of a myriad of other examples, but, I recognize the degree to which my opinion may be well-received depends on not going on at length too much. Suffice it to say, my point in answer to the question posed is that the success of any dictatorship (in the eyes of those of us who would judge him/her benevolent or tyrannical) in making a country successful, depends, in the first instance on what you mean by a successful country, (a Switzerland or a Norway or some totalitarian state that has temporarily defeated its competition, North Korea or Venezuela, perhaps.) In the second instance, when a dictator is involved, it depends on the degree to which the dictator either cows opposition (using, deceit, intimidation, fear of violence or the use of it) or placates it, (using bread and circuses, munificence, permissiveness, public works, easy credit and other bribes) and uses scapegoats for whatever does not placate the unruly masses and *whether there exist factors or institutions that limit the power*. A good study on this is Rome under Augustus, the Pax Romana. (See, Stark, Rome on the Euphrates, page 149, "Augustus´Handling of Power" and page 153, Tragedy of the Facade".) If this makes sense, then, to judge success, after defining what a successful country is, I suggest we may need to look less at the manners and mores of a putative dictator and examine closely his/her methods and the available factors that limit the exercise of the power. In the ultimate instance, it is the results that count and, looking at history, one might conclude that no dictator can make a successful country unless, over time, he/she becomes less and less of a dictator.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
The intent of this answer is not to glorify evil in any way. I simply wish to state some truth. It is true that Adolf Hitler did many evil things and I don't want to make him sound good. but it is also true that Germany and its allies got terrifyingly close to taking over the eastern world. Only were they stopped by a coalition of the greatest forces in the world and some battles won barely dangling by a strand. This occurred because of the dictatorship of Hitler. I suggest to find more information about this look up things like "how was Hitler so successful?" or "why did Hitler accomplish so much?". I can provide more information myself I just do not have the time to do so at the moment but leave a comment if you would like me to expound upon this answer.
It's impossible because the intention to seize totalitarian power contradicts the intentions to do actual "good". ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Let's take a more libertarian/philosophical approach. The types of relations humans can have are essentially this: * Based on (continuous) negotiation and reciprocal benefit: "We both agree to benefit each other, and we both are free to stop." * Based on power with winner and loser: "Obey or suffer the consequences. I command you, and if you refuse, I will destroy you." What must a dictator be as a baseline in order to **be** a dictator before even actively "doing" anything specific? * He must be willing to invoke taxes on all people he has control over. * He must be willing to exert force and coercion over people who refuse to pay taxes or comply with his laws and demands. * He must be willing to hold, perpetuate and benefit from a collectivist ideology, which promotes state power and the foundational idea that it is just and reasonable to initiate violence against people for the sake of the ***higher good***. * Along with that, he must be in opposition to individualism - he must be convinced that he can micro- and macromanage people (and the economy) better than they themselves, and that individuals would just "waste" their freedoms for things he doesn't deem useful. * He must be complicit with the idea to hold power as centralized, undivided and undeluded as possible. The magnitude of course matters - the same ruler could either starve its citizens or just take less from them. But the practice in *essence* is the same - and if he doesn't take *enough*, he can not be a dictator. So let's assume a high magnitude. --- So - the question boils down to this at this point: **What can a dictator, who is already exploiting and oppressing its people en masse to a large degree, prevent his economy to collapse too rapidly?** A significant correlation is this: The more individual liberties (free speech, property rights) and economic opportunities (less taxes, less restrictions), the more economic success and prosperity. And for the sake of definition let's say that is actual "good", along with having ethics, internal peace, more negotiation based relationships, less power based relationships. Let's not expand on the reasoning, but let's assume it is true - can a dictator ever go towards these goals without ceasing to be a dictator, without removing himself from the power he once desired and succeeded to seize - or likely intends to hold as he might claim to "fight corruption" (which often is the result of special state and big corporation interactions in the first place)? The answer is no. One would have to fight his own beliefs, his own being. --- What can a "benevolent dictator" do? He can pursue planned economy or economic fascism. The best case scenario is that it works out on the ***short term*** - and as such probably even tremendously, mustering massive resources for war and major social plans - but will fail on the ***long term***. "Success" would be merely temporary. Also it causes major issues which slowly and inevitably lead to internal and/or external conflicts and issues - rendering the system and the regime highly unstable. Getting rid of "corruption" is also a questionable goal if state power is the soil it depends on, which is maximized in the first place. It's more likely to replace one type of corruption with another type (which can be just a different type of unethical practice). Besides, if there is a regime which has a structure set up to serve the will of a benevolent dictator, it wouldn't be too difficult to replace him with someone who is more fitting to such a position of power - who would no longer be "benevolent".
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
A well-run dictatorship is superior to any other form of government. Well-run dictatorships are unicorns though, since most of the goals I'm about to list are the exact opposite of what dictators are aiming for. Why can a dictatorship be great? Because you can ignore special interests and other inefficiencies. You can remove corruption. You can invest heavily in the future without worrying about temporary setbacks. You can engage in long-term planning. You can make decisions quickly. **Special interests and other inefficiencies**. You said that one Family controls the Navy, one the banks, one the produce, etc. That sounds like your entire nation is a series of monopolies, which is probably inefficient. Use your dictatorial powers to open up the field for competition. Allow the free market to improve productivity. **Remove corruption**. Ruthlessly execute corrupt officials and strip their family of all assets. Make it so that the rewards of corruption aren't worth the risks, and you'll find your nation operating more efficiently at all levels. This one will actually affect the lives of normal people - imagine a medieval peasant actually being able to trust the police. **Invest heavily in the future**, ignoring minor setbacks. Build those infrastructure projects. Educate your populace. Invite foreign investment and make sure that they have sustained legal protection so that even more flows in (no "nationalizing/stealing" foreign assets.) Use your stability and vision to forge economic alliances that boost your economy and open up markets for your corruption-free, open market industries to compete in. Fund research and exploration. Be prepared for war even when peace is long-lived. **You can make decisions quickly**. In a democracy, even the most sensible decision can take time. The dictator can cut through red tape, can issue direct orders, and can bring the nation to action as fast as his commands can be distributed. An okay decision today is often better than a good decision a year from now. The best example I have here is Pinochet from Chile. Pinochet was no angel - he killed/disappeared thousands of people (many of whom would be considered innocent). But the general consensus is that he managed to set Chile on a path that has made them the best nation in South American by almost any economic measure except equality. Even there, the modern Chilean poor are better off and less numerous than the Chilean poor when Pinochet took power, so judge carefully.
A common effect of political fragmentation is the imposition of economic barriers. Each subsection of the realm will institute trade barriers such as high tolls for transshipping goods, and possibly tariffs whose intent is to increase the prices of imported goods and make them less competitive with locally-produced products. The practice occurred, for instance, in many of the original American colonies. This has a very bad long-term effect on the larger economy. Successful economies generally encourage specialization, with trade to distribute each specialized areas goods to the others. It's entirely possible for a dictator to eliminate these barriers to the free flow of goods. This will have excellent consequences for the economy as a whole, although not necessarily for any particular realm. Depending on the smarts of the dictator, it's also possible for him to institute (at least partially) a command economy, with resources devoted to projects with long-term payoffs which would otherwise not occur. An example might be investment in civil waterworks and piping, which will provide clean water to all, with an attendant drop in disease rates. Of course, none of this is guaranteed to succeed. As the saying goes, "Power tends to corrupt, absolute power corrupts absolutely." This will apply to the dictator, and (importantly) to his advisors. Corruption in the application of otherwise well-intended projects can easily offset any benefits, and in the worst case produce a kleptocracy. This pattern is widely seen in third-world countries today.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
A common effect of political fragmentation is the imposition of economic barriers. Each subsection of the realm will institute trade barriers such as high tolls for transshipping goods, and possibly tariffs whose intent is to increase the prices of imported goods and make them less competitive with locally-produced products. The practice occurred, for instance, in many of the original American colonies. This has a very bad long-term effect on the larger economy. Successful economies generally encourage specialization, with trade to distribute each specialized areas goods to the others. It's entirely possible for a dictator to eliminate these barriers to the free flow of goods. This will have excellent consequences for the economy as a whole, although not necessarily for any particular realm. Depending on the smarts of the dictator, it's also possible for him to institute (at least partially) a command economy, with resources devoted to projects with long-term payoffs which would otherwise not occur. An example might be investment in civil waterworks and piping, which will provide clean water to all, with an attendant drop in disease rates. Of course, none of this is guaranteed to succeed. As the saying goes, "Power tends to corrupt, absolute power corrupts absolutely." This will apply to the dictator, and (importantly) to his advisors. Corruption in the application of otherwise well-intended projects can easily offset any benefits, and in the worst case produce a kleptocracy. This pattern is widely seen in third-world countries today.
A few good things can come from Palace coups d'etat. The most important are the churn in key personelle, if the new decision makers are competent, and the need to buy up popular feeling, which might lead to pay increases, redistribution of land or grain, the sacking of the outgoing title holders to pay promises to supporters, and perhaps reformation of banking and land title law, rental caps, employment incentives. The bad aspects of dictatorships generally outweigh the good. The personalities of the Junta, in order to pursue absolute power, are not at all considerate or sensitive, but rather, murderously egoistic. They are schooled and experienced in the emotional realities of dominance/ submission, and unlikely to engage in negotiations toward compromise, let alone collaboration. Avoidance of conflict is not on their radar. Any good good that comes of them, with rare exceptions, is not by their own conscious design. The success of the nation resulting from the coup d'etat could be the result of new personelle bringing creativity to old problems, and also from a freeing up of social mobility , at least for a select group. New business deals and management strategies from new relationships, with an aura of new beginnings, could perhaps create business optimism. Rewriting of the official narrative, (ie, the deposed group will now be depicted as bad), could make many people more energetic for psycho-emotional reasons, as anyone who had sufferred under the last regime can speak out and direct their anger toward the past, also giving an aura of positive change.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
The intent of this answer is not to glorify evil in any way. I simply wish to state some truth. It is true that Adolf Hitler did many evil things and I don't want to make him sound good. but it is also true that Germany and its allies got terrifyingly close to taking over the eastern world. Only were they stopped by a coalition of the greatest forces in the world and some battles won barely dangling by a strand. This occurred because of the dictatorship of Hitler. I suggest to find more information about this look up things like "how was Hitler so successful?" or "why did Hitler accomplish so much?". I can provide more information myself I just do not have the time to do so at the moment but leave a comment if you would like me to expound upon this answer.
After about half a century of attempting to absorb information about history and feeling I may have acquired what Oscar Levant referred to as a smattering of ignorance, I feel it possible, when evaluating the potential effectiveness of dictatorship, we may lead ourselves into an intellectual corner by the use of the word "absolute" when discussing the nature of dictatorship or what is referred to often as "absolutism". I am left with the impression that no matter how effective a given individual has been in consolidating power, it is never literally "absolute". It is always dependent on factors that are essential for the acquisition and maintenance of the power, more often than not the interested loyalty of what Alexis de T. called "the organized adolescents of the world known as the military class". In some cases it may depend on having a wife who will not poison you or a Praetorian guard who will not slit your throat in that tunnel up on the Palatine Hill or having a populace that will tolerate the autocrat. There seem always to be important and essential factors that limit an "absolute" autocrat, beginning with the degree of the individual´s competence/incompetence. (The last Czar of the Russian Empire is a good example.) I can think of a myriad of other examples, but, I recognize the degree to which my opinion may be well-received depends on not going on at length too much. Suffice it to say, my point in answer to the question posed is that the success of any dictatorship (in the eyes of those of us who would judge him/her benevolent or tyrannical) in making a country successful, depends, in the first instance on what you mean by a successful country, (a Switzerland or a Norway or some totalitarian state that has temporarily defeated its competition, North Korea or Venezuela, perhaps.) In the second instance, when a dictator is involved, it depends on the degree to which the dictator either cows opposition (using, deceit, intimidation, fear of violence or the use of it) or placates it, (using bread and circuses, munificence, permissiveness, public works, easy credit and other bribes) and uses scapegoats for whatever does not placate the unruly masses and *whether there exist factors or institutions that limit the power*. A good study on this is Rome under Augustus, the Pax Romana. (See, Stark, Rome on the Euphrates, page 149, "Augustus´Handling of Power" and page 153, Tragedy of the Facade".) If this makes sense, then, to judge success, after defining what a successful country is, I suggest we may need to look less at the manners and mores of a putative dictator and examine closely his/her methods and the available factors that limit the exercise of the power. In the ultimate instance, it is the results that count and, looking at history, one might conclude that no dictator can make a successful country unless, over time, he/she becomes less and less of a dictator.
140,495
How would a Dictatorship make a country more successful (Wealthy, politically and materialistically powerful, secure, stable)? **Background:** In this instance the country is a monarchy to begin with. The provinces are controlled by different families who mostly do what they want... all of them have control over specific elements in the economy. Like the one family controls the Navy; another controls a large percentage of the country's produce; another controls the Banks. The Monarch is basically in place to give everyone a power check and keep the country united. He is overthrown by the Family that happens to control the police force (but not the army, which is unprepared and not very large). The obvious answer for the benefit of a dictatorship is that the country is united behind one leader. An important characteristic in this situation however, is that even after the change of power, the Families would still have some power... **Definition:** Dictator - a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force. \* *Note that this doesn't state that the Dictator is cruel or tyrannical. The common people actually aren't treated worse than before. The main difference is among the higher ups, like where the money goes and who has the final say in decision and international policy.*
2019/03/01
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/140495", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61909/" ]
A well-run dictatorship is superior to any other form of government. Well-run dictatorships are unicorns though, since most of the goals I'm about to list are the exact opposite of what dictators are aiming for. Why can a dictatorship be great? Because you can ignore special interests and other inefficiencies. You can remove corruption. You can invest heavily in the future without worrying about temporary setbacks. You can engage in long-term planning. You can make decisions quickly. **Special interests and other inefficiencies**. You said that one Family controls the Navy, one the banks, one the produce, etc. That sounds like your entire nation is a series of monopolies, which is probably inefficient. Use your dictatorial powers to open up the field for competition. Allow the free market to improve productivity. **Remove corruption**. Ruthlessly execute corrupt officials and strip their family of all assets. Make it so that the rewards of corruption aren't worth the risks, and you'll find your nation operating more efficiently at all levels. This one will actually affect the lives of normal people - imagine a medieval peasant actually being able to trust the police. **Invest heavily in the future**, ignoring minor setbacks. Build those infrastructure projects. Educate your populace. Invite foreign investment and make sure that they have sustained legal protection so that even more flows in (no "nationalizing/stealing" foreign assets.) Use your stability and vision to forge economic alliances that boost your economy and open up markets for your corruption-free, open market industries to compete in. Fund research and exploration. Be prepared for war even when peace is long-lived. **You can make decisions quickly**. In a democracy, even the most sensible decision can take time. The dictator can cut through red tape, can issue direct orders, and can bring the nation to action as fast as his commands can be distributed. An okay decision today is often better than a good decision a year from now. The best example I have here is Pinochet from Chile. Pinochet was no angel - he killed/disappeared thousands of people (many of whom would be considered innocent). But the general consensus is that he managed to set Chile on a path that has made them the best nation in South American by almost any economic measure except equality. Even there, the modern Chilean poor are better off and less numerous than the Chilean poor when Pinochet took power, so judge carefully.
After about half a century of attempting to absorb information about history and feeling I may have acquired what Oscar Levant referred to as a smattering of ignorance, I feel it possible, when evaluating the potential effectiveness of dictatorship, we may lead ourselves into an intellectual corner by the use of the word "absolute" when discussing the nature of dictatorship or what is referred to often as "absolutism". I am left with the impression that no matter how effective a given individual has been in consolidating power, it is never literally "absolute". It is always dependent on factors that are essential for the acquisition and maintenance of the power, more often than not the interested loyalty of what Alexis de T. called "the organized adolescents of the world known as the military class". In some cases it may depend on having a wife who will not poison you or a Praetorian guard who will not slit your throat in that tunnel up on the Palatine Hill or having a populace that will tolerate the autocrat. There seem always to be important and essential factors that limit an "absolute" autocrat, beginning with the degree of the individual´s competence/incompetence. (The last Czar of the Russian Empire is a good example.) I can think of a myriad of other examples, but, I recognize the degree to which my opinion may be well-received depends on not going on at length too much. Suffice it to say, my point in answer to the question posed is that the success of any dictatorship (in the eyes of those of us who would judge him/her benevolent or tyrannical) in making a country successful, depends, in the first instance on what you mean by a successful country, (a Switzerland or a Norway or some totalitarian state that has temporarily defeated its competition, North Korea or Venezuela, perhaps.) In the second instance, when a dictator is involved, it depends on the degree to which the dictator either cows opposition (using, deceit, intimidation, fear of violence or the use of it) or placates it, (using bread and circuses, munificence, permissiveness, public works, easy credit and other bribes) and uses scapegoats for whatever does not placate the unruly masses and *whether there exist factors or institutions that limit the power*. A good study on this is Rome under Augustus, the Pax Romana. (See, Stark, Rome on the Euphrates, page 149, "Augustus´Handling of Power" and page 153, Tragedy of the Facade".) If this makes sense, then, to judge success, after defining what a successful country is, I suggest we may need to look less at the manners and mores of a putative dictator and examine closely his/her methods and the available factors that limit the exercise of the power. In the ultimate instance, it is the results that count and, looking at history, one might conclude that no dictator can make a successful country unless, over time, he/she becomes less and less of a dictator.
12,812
Does anyone know where I can find more detailed dimensions of the Mars Curiosity rover? For example, what are various dimensions of the boogie rocker system? Or the dimensions of the main body itself, or the dimensions of the arm?
2015/11/28
[ "https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/12812", "https://space.stackexchange.com", "https://space.stackexchange.com/users/12468/" ]
This PDF has [a side view with some dimensions](http://trs-new.jpl.nasa.gov/dspace/bitstream/2014/41421/1/08-0699.pdf). [![MSL side view](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lePR8.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lePR8.png) The [Press kit](http://www.jpl.nasa.gov/news/press_kits/MSLLanding.pdf) has lots of information. And NASA has made a [3D model](http://nasa3d.arc.nasa.gov/detail/mars-rover-curiosity) which you can open and measure.
I've also been interested in having more precise dimensions. A comment on the answer says "surely those specifications are available somewhere" but I've found that not to be the case, and there is much ambiguity in whatever measurements are out there. For example, it's commonly referenced that Curiosity's wheels are 50 cm diameter, but does this include the treads/cleats/grousers, or is that measurement just to the outer skin of the wheel? And how wide are the wheels? A couple years ago I never found a figure for the width, and estimated it to be 45 cm from photos. This year, I see figures of 40 cm. But today when I take the detailed 3D printable model and scale it so the diameter is correct (for reference, I'm using 139%), the wheel width is 45 cm. So, which is it? In another comment, I see measurements for the main part of the body estimated from the 3D printable model. But I just measured it myself, and I get different figures: about 1560 long by 1100 wide by 380 high, if that helps anybody. Part of the problem is the multiple levels of ambiguity. Do we agree on what the "box" part is? I mean the rectangular prism part that doesn't include the angled back where the reactor is. But even if we agree on that, the sides of that box are not planar (this is evident in detailed photos, or the 3D printable model), so are we measuring to the innermost outer panels or the outermost outer panels or to the edge things that go around them...? From photos and the 3D printable model, the thickness (diameter) of the front leg appears to be just shy of 9 cm. Looking at the side view PDF diagram, it seems the angles of the legs are about 12.5 and 20 deg on the upper suspension, and about 30 and -5 deg on the lower suspension. However, looking at the 3D printable model, the upper suspension appears to have angles of about 10 and 16 deg, and the lower of about 37 and -2 deg. This means the model matches the diagram for the lower suspension (total angle of 35 deg) but not for the upper suspension (32.5 vs. 26 deg). This is not a measurement error; if I hold up a printout of the diagram over an orthgraphic side view of the 3D printable model on a monitor, I can see the angles don't match. They disagree by about 6.5 degrees. So, which is correct: the diagram, the model, or neither? The 3m length appears to be from the front tangent of the front wheels to the back tip of the reactor part of the body; that is, this is the total extent of the rover in its direction of travel. Width is given as 2.8m, which obvious includes the wheels. I believe the middle wheels are the furthest out, but by how much compared to the front and rear wheels? Are the front and rear wheels aligned with each other? So many simple questions seem to lack definitive answers.
32,543,072
I have a problem, but I dont know how to solve it. I create a project for android 6.0 can I launch my prj on android 4.2.1? I am sorry for that kind of stupid question. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vIj8T.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vIj8T.png)
2015/09/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32543072", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4945792/" ]
You need to set the minSdk to 17 or below. See the answer below on how to do this. [How do I set the minimum api level for projects in Android Studio?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/21449947/how-do-i-set-the-minimum-api-level-for-projects-in-android-studio)
Go to "android manifest" and change there the "Min sdk" version to 17
32,543,072
I have a problem, but I dont know how to solve it. I create a project for android 6.0 can I launch my prj on android 4.2.1? I am sorry for that kind of stupid question. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vIj8T.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vIj8T.png)
2015/09/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32543072", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4945792/" ]
You need to set the minSdk to 17 or below. See the answer below on how to do this. [How do I set the minimum api level for projects in Android Studio?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/21449947/how-do-i-set-the-minimum-api-level-for-projects-in-android-studio)
Change minSdkVersin in gradle. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SHQYY.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SHQYY.png)
42,819
According to Campbell Biology, > > A **growth factor** is a protein released by certain cells that stimulates other cells to divide. > > > and according to Wikipedia, > > A **mitogen** is a chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis. > > > What’s the difference between them? I suppose a mitogen specifically refers to mitosis, but if something is stimulating mitosis, isn’t it stimulating growth? Are mitogens all growth factors? Are all growth factors mitogens?
2016/01/30
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/42819", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/15272/" ]
In (very) short: enzymes are necessary for life. Cytoplasm is necessary for enzymes to function. Water is necessary for cytoplasm to exist. Cells have osmotic membranes. Given a cell in a solution (even a goopy one, like jam) with a very high concentration of sugar, water will move along a gradient of low to high sugar concentration, in other words, water will move out of the cell and into the jam, thus stopping all major activity in the bacterium (basically stopping it from reproducing, if not exactly killing it. The killing actually comes from heating the jam and canning it while still hot enough to kill most bacteria.) [Plasmolysis](http://www.biology-online.org/dictionary/Plasmolysis): The shrinking of protoplasm away from the cell wall of a plant or bacterium due to water loss from osmosis.
Actually, it doesn't kill them. As far as I am aware people with weak immune responses shouldn't eat honey or jams because of risk of fungal or bacterial infections. Resource: <http://www.mayoclinic.org/drugs-supplements/honey/evidence/hrb-20059618>
42,819
According to Campbell Biology, > > A **growth factor** is a protein released by certain cells that stimulates other cells to divide. > > > and according to Wikipedia, > > A **mitogen** is a chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis. > > > What’s the difference between them? I suppose a mitogen specifically refers to mitosis, but if something is stimulating mitosis, isn’t it stimulating growth? Are mitogens all growth factors? Are all growth factors mitogens?
2016/01/30
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/42819", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/15272/" ]
In short our environment always tries to maintain an equilibrium, a stable state. When microbes encounter a surrounding like a high concentrated sugar state or solution **(hypertonic)**, water diffuses out of the permeable cellular membrane of the microbe to its outer environment with high sugar concentration causing dehydration of the microbe and it leads to shrinking of cell. As water is necessary for chemical reactions inside the cell, the natural metabolism is hindered.The phenomenon of contraction of a cell as a result of water loss is called **plasmolysis** and the food preservation technique is called **sugar curing**. Actually we can say a different environment created for microorganism (here for the purpose of food preservation) with high sugar concentration has effect of **plasmolysis** in microbe resulting inhibition of its natural metabolic activity that results its destruction.
Actually, it doesn't kill them. As far as I am aware people with weak immune responses shouldn't eat honey or jams because of risk of fungal or bacterial infections. Resource: <http://www.mayoclinic.org/drugs-supplements/honey/evidence/hrb-20059618>
42,819
According to Campbell Biology, > > A **growth factor** is a protein released by certain cells that stimulates other cells to divide. > > > and according to Wikipedia, > > A **mitogen** is a chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis. > > > What’s the difference between them? I suppose a mitogen specifically refers to mitosis, but if something is stimulating mitosis, isn’t it stimulating growth? Are mitogens all growth factors? Are all growth factors mitogens?
2016/01/30
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/42819", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/15272/" ]
In (very) short: enzymes are necessary for life. Cytoplasm is necessary for enzymes to function. Water is necessary for cytoplasm to exist. Cells have osmotic membranes. Given a cell in a solution (even a goopy one, like jam) with a very high concentration of sugar, water will move along a gradient of low to high sugar concentration, in other words, water will move out of the cell and into the jam, thus stopping all major activity in the bacterium (basically stopping it from reproducing, if not exactly killing it. The killing actually comes from heating the jam and canning it while still hot enough to kill most bacteria.) [Plasmolysis](http://www.biology-online.org/dictionary/Plasmolysis): The shrinking of protoplasm away from the cell wall of a plant or bacterium due to water loss from osmosis.
In short our environment always tries to maintain an equilibrium, a stable state. When microbes encounter a surrounding like a high concentrated sugar state or solution **(hypertonic)**, water diffuses out of the permeable cellular membrane of the microbe to its outer environment with high sugar concentration causing dehydration of the microbe and it leads to shrinking of cell. As water is necessary for chemical reactions inside the cell, the natural metabolism is hindered.The phenomenon of contraction of a cell as a result of water loss is called **plasmolysis** and the food preservation technique is called **sugar curing**. Actually we can say a different environment created for microorganism (here for the purpose of food preservation) with high sugar concentration has effect of **plasmolysis** in microbe resulting inhibition of its natural metabolic activity that results its destruction.
45,073
Since Allah wrote out our fate long before we were born, does that mean he won’t change the outcome or change some paths? What I mean is, say there’s a job you really want; your dream job, but you’re not meant to get that job since it’s not written down in your fate, does that mean no matter how much you pray to Allah asking for that job and no matter how hard you try and get it - you won’t get it? Or can Allah change the fate and the path; which could lead to a completely different final outcome? Which also leads me to another question, if the fate is already determined and everything is already planned; how come we say “Alhamdulilah” for some outcomes (such as getting a job) when it was already meant to be your fate? I don’t mean that question in any disrespect to Allah, but if outcomes don’t change; aren’t we just thanking Allah for our own actions? Similarly, say we survive a car accident; fate was that we don’t die anyways, how come we say “Alhamdulilah” as a sign of gratitude? What I’m trying to get here is, if Allah does not interfere with our lives and we are free to do anything (under his rules as applied by the Quran) and our fate is already made; why pray and request for things in this world? This question is obviously void if fates do change by prayer and if Allah wills (which leads back to the previous paragraph’s question).
2017/12/25
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/45073", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/25618/" ]
[Qadar](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Predestination_in_Islam) (predestination) is one of the six articles of Islamic faith. Thus, if Allah has written down that you don't get the job, then indeed you won't get the job. However, what could be written down might be along the lines of *Alice prays and strives towards getting a job, and gets the job*. And striving towards a goal is encouraged in the Qur'an: > > And that there is not for man except that [good] for which he strives And that his effort is going to be seen - Then he will be recompensed for it with the fullest recompense > > [Qur'an 53:39-42](https://quran.com/53/39-42) > > > Humans are ordinarily considered to have free will. We have the ability to make decisions, choose right from wrong, and influence the future such as through hard work. Thus, the future is not imposed on us (up until death, at least). Nevertheless, Allah accurately predicts (and can even influence) the ultimate outcome.
**You have two questions, right?** 1. What is fate and if it's changeable by praying? 2. If everything is already written then why pray? If prayer can change our fate then how come Allah said 'Fate is already written'? Your question is kind of a loop. Fate is like that, **a loop**, if you can't understand it properly and I will try to help as much as Allah let me. First one: ========== > > Narrated `Ali: While we were in a funeral procession in Baqi Al-Gharqad, Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) came and sat down, and we sat around him. He had a small stick in his hand and he bent his head and started scraping the ground with it. He then said, "There is none among you, and no created soul but has his place written for him either in Paradise or in the Hell-Fire and also has his happy or miserable fate (in the Hereafter) written for him." A man said, "O Allah's Messenger (ﷺ)! Shall we depend upon what is written for us and give up doing (good) deeds? For whoever among us is destined to be fortunate (in the Hereafter), will join the fortunate peoples and whoever among us is destined to be miserable will do such deeds as are characteristic of the people who are destined to misery." The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Those who are destined to be happy (in the Hereafter) will find it easy and pleasant to do the deeds characteristic of those destined to happiness, while those who are to be among the miserable (in the Hereafter), will find it easy to do the deeds characteristic of those destined to misery." Then he recited: 'As for him who gives (in charity) and keeps his duty to Allah and believes in the Best reward from Allah, We will make smooth for him the path of ease. But he who is a greedy miser and thinks himself self-sufficient, and gives the lie to the Best reward from Allah we will make smooth for him the path for evil.' [**92:5-10**] > **Sahih al-Bukhari USC-MSA web (English) reference: Vol. 6, Book 60, Hadith 473 Arabic reference: Book 65, Hadith 4948** > > > As we can see Allah told us to do our part "To Be Good and Do Good". We should be thinking in our perspective, not Allah's.Let's give you an example: If I ask your father about you, couldn't he tell me all about you? The answer is yes he could. "You say how?" Your father has been watching you from your birth so he knows a great deal about you **but not everything**. Unlike your father, Allah is all-knowing, all-seeing and for what it's worth he created you so he knows **everything about you**. So it's easy for him to write a book about your present, past and the future. As Allah said in the Quran: > > He said, "Thus [it will be]; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me" [**19:23**] > > > Like it's easy for Allah to create a mosquito but for you, could you make a mosquito? I don't think so. So think as Allah is talking to you not the other way around. It will be easy for you to understand fate. > > The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Take refuge with Allah from the difficulties of severe calamities, from having an evil end and a bad fate and from the malicious joy of your enemies." **Reference: Sahih al-Bukhari 6616 > In-book reference : Book 82, Hadith 22 > USC-MSA web (English) Reference: Vol. 8, Book 77, Hadith 613 > (deprecated numbering scheme)** > > > So you must pray cause Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) said so and he doesn't say any word except what Allah said. > > And if Muhammad had made up about Us some [false] sayings, We would have seized him by the right hand; Then We would have cut from him the aorta.And there is no one of you who could prevent [Us] from him.[**69:44-47**] > > > *Because man does not know what is decreed for him, what he must do is to adhere to shariah and abide by its commands and prohibitions, and to seek the help of Allaah and pray to Him for guidance (istikhaarah) concerning all his affairs, whilst implementing the means, one of the most important of which is consulting sincere people who have relevant experience.* Second one: =========== Why should we thank Allah for our good actions you say, right? Another example on its way: Let's say you were a scientist or pharmacist and you created a pain-killer. Now we all know what a pain-killer does, it reduces pain. So, we can take pain-killer for our comfort or there is another usage right, what's that? Well, you could take pain-killer as narcotic. Now you'll get applause for giving people comfort but what about the discomfort you caused? Are you going to take credit for that? No, you won't. Why should you? **You created pain-killer as intended for good use, right?** **Allah also created us for doing good, he didn't want us to do bad. That's why he must get the gratitude for our good deeds, not the other way around.** Hope that helps and if it doesn't feel free to ask again. [You could read more about **Qadr** here](https://islamqa.info/en/20806)! **Allah knows best** *Taqabbal Allaahu minna wa minkum (May Allaah accept (this worship) from us and from you).*
858,798
I have a lot of files that I create on my Windows 8 computer and save in my files, but I want to save them to my USB flash drive too. I usually just save the file in my computer and then save it again on my flash drive, but this is really inconvenient. Is there any way I can set it up so the files save to both locations at the same time? The files are mostly .html, .js, .css, and .py files, but there will be some .docx and .txt files.
2014/12/31
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/858798", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/403304/" ]
Windows 8 has a built-in file cloning mechanism called 'File History'. When enabled, you can allow it to backup (or in your case, double-save) the files from a specific folder to your USB drive. This can be accessed by going to Control Panel -> System and Security -> File History ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JMaUo.png) You should have an option prompting you to enable File History. ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I3eIs.png) From this menu, you can add any form of external storage to be used as a backup drive. You would select your USB drive. After this, it will start copying the files from your Documents folder. To change this, go to 'Exclude Folders', where you're able to select which folders get backed up. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rAcVG.png) The backups are done almost instantaneously. Also, if you don't have your USB drive inserted while changing the files, when the drive is re-inserted, Windows will copy the files over. **Important note** File History will make a backup of every version of a file you make, which means if you were to save a file three times, it will appear three times on your USB. There is an option in File History which allows you to automatically delete these after a certain amount of time however.
You can use RealTimeSync feature of [FreeFileSync](http://www.fosshub.com/FreeFileSync.html). It's a free software.
858,798
I have a lot of files that I create on my Windows 8 computer and save in my files, but I want to save them to my USB flash drive too. I usually just save the file in my computer and then save it again on my flash drive, but this is really inconvenient. Is there any way I can set it up so the files save to both locations at the same time? The files are mostly .html, .js, .css, and .py files, but there will be some .docx and .txt files.
2014/12/31
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/858798", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/403304/" ]
Windows 8 has a built-in file cloning mechanism called 'File History'. When enabled, you can allow it to backup (or in your case, double-save) the files from a specific folder to your USB drive. This can be accessed by going to Control Panel -> System and Security -> File History ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JMaUo.png) You should have an option prompting you to enable File History. ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I3eIs.png) From this menu, you can add any form of external storage to be used as a backup drive. You would select your USB drive. After this, it will start copying the files from your Documents folder. To change this, go to 'Exclude Folders', where you're able to select which folders get backed up. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rAcVG.png) The backups are done almost instantaneously. Also, if you don't have your USB drive inserted while changing the files, when the drive is re-inserted, Windows will copy the files over. **Important note** File History will make a backup of every version of a file you make, which means if you were to save a file three times, it will appear three times on your USB. There is an option in File History which allows you to automatically delete these after a certain amount of time however.
You can't really save the file itself in multiple locations, but you can create a folder which holds the file and saves that in multiple locations. For example, in the system at my work, there are certain documents being edited by multiple users, so I cannot change their location. So instead I create a shortcut of the folder which contains those docs, and save it to my desktop or where ever else I want to quickly access the file for myself. All the files contained within the shortcuts will be synchronised with the master file/folder.
110,599
As we see from Broly's appearances, his LSSJ form seems much stronger than the normal SSJ's that we see him fight, but that is where the confusion begins. Just how much stronger is his form from the standard? We see from games that his LSSJ form can ascend further, like the normal SSJ, into forms such as the Golden (or Green?) Oozaru, or the Super Saiyan 3. And the rumor of his Ki/power level constantly growing? What are the exact distinctions that make the Legendary Super Saiyan unique?
2015/12/15
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/110599", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/57254/" ]
From the movies, its implied that Broly is so much more powerful as a supersayian because he is so much more powerful before going supersayian. He was born with a power level of 10,000 something goku does not achieve until after his training on king kai's planet (somewhere around age 30). It is also mentioned that Broly is essentially a biological anomaly that happens ever 1000 years to the sayains, in which he is essentially geneticly perfect and has increased strength, and easy access to his supersayian abilities. Piccolo mentions that now that vegeta is a super sayian his power probably surpasses goku since vegeta was the stronger non-super sayian. It also appears that brolys legendary form, seems to be a powerup similar to goku's ss3, in terms of how much he outclasses normal ss's.
We have 2 Legendary Super Saiyans now, Broly and Kale. Both do the same things, tho Kale does reach Legendary Super Saiyan 2. Super Saiyan = blonde hair, power level x 50 of your current level, must maintain anger to keep the form Legendary Super Saiyan = green hair, power level x 50? x madness, lose self control and grow based on how berserk they get. Legendary doesn't seem to have a cap on power-like the Hulk from Marvel, it just gets stronger, but at the cost of your self. It can be overpowered, but has to be hit in 1 shot. Legendary 2 seems to grant a multiple of the current level of the legendary super saiyan X an unknown amount, and preserves the Saiyan's mind. In the movies, Broly consistently powers up beyond his current opponent. The opponent has to draw that power out of him however. Vegito was far beyond Broly during their fight, but Broly kept getting stronger slowly catching up. Vegito had to overwhelm him to bring him to defeat. Similiarly Kale-slowly grew in power, before getting knocked out by Jiren(who was well beyond anything she had hoped to reach) The other Saiyans, use the additional transformations to reach higher or better levels of power. Legendary is just get mad get strong
2,302,144
I'm learning real analysis at the moment, however, I'm having a lot of difficulties. Although I have already learned univariate and multivariate calculus as well as analytical geometry and linear algebra I can rarely prove anything in real analysis, moreover I have acquired a bad habit of transcribing demonstrations rather than doing them. In general I can understand the demonstrations when I see them, however when I try to do it myself I can not. Any material recommendations before I go back to face real analysis?
2017/05/30
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2302144", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/223097/" ]
Depending on what real analysis book you're using, it may help to use an easy one as a supplement, like "Elementary Analysis: The theory of calculus" by Ross. Marsden's "Elementary Classical Analysis" also has a lot of worked out material, which may be helpful next to some of the more common texts like Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis. Also, a book that has an introduction to proofs, like Vellman's "How to Prove it", or West + D'Angelo's "Mathematical Thinking: Problem-solving and Proofs" may be useful as well. At the end of the day though, it's likely a question of effort and mathematical maturity, which means being exposed to the material for a while and ~~suffering~~ working through it. =)
Since I'm not a native English speaker, I can't really give you a good material recommendation apart from some classic books (which you probably already know of and people will probably suggest anyway). While not really answering your question, my suggestion is too long for a mere comment. First, get a highlighter pen and mark the definitions, theorems, propositions and such. Not the demonstrations, but the statements. Some demonstrations only combines them in a meaningful way. After that, carefully read the demonstrations and note down the overall steps. Don't detail them too much, only the main tricks and techniques. Next, try to demontrate yourself some theorems with your own words. Try not to look into the guide you made, but feel free to review the previous theorems you highlighted. If you really hit a wall, then only read the next step needed. Then, go for the exercises. Remember the most used techniques you read before, because they're likely to be used in the exercises too. Some exercises may also follow the overall proofs in the text, but adding or removing conditions. Try also to find people that are interested in studying with you, if possible. Last but not least, when you get really stuck, don't hesitate to ask us!
43,171
For example, if I have [Astral Cornucopia](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bAstral%20Cornucopia%5d) in play along with [Jhoira's Familiar](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bJhoira%27s%5d%2b%5bFamiliar%5d), what happens? Can I cast it for X = 1 without paying any mana? I know that there is a question here regarding to X spells with cost reducers, but the question does not cover spells with multiple Xs, which is why I am asking this.
2018/08/14
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/43171", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/12141/" ]
**Casting Astral Cornucopia with X=1 and Jhoira's Familiar in play will cost {2}.** The number of Xs in a casting cost doesn't matter for cost reduction effects. If you choose X=1, the mana cost of Astral Cornucopia will simply be {1}{1}{1}, or {3}, the sum of mana symbols. Jhoira's Familiar will reduce the mana cost by {1}, resulting in a total cost of {2}. > > 202.1a The mana cost of an object represents what a player must spend from their mana pool to cast that card. Unless an object’s mana cost includes Phyrexian mana symbols (see rule 107.4f), paying that mana cost requires matching the type of any colored or colorless mana symbols as well as paying the generic mana indicated in the cost. > > > 601.2f The player determines the total cost of the spell. Usually this is just the mana cost. [..] The total cost is the mana cost or alternative cost (as determined in rule 601.2b), plus all additional costs and cost increases, and minus all cost reductions.[..] > > >
No, if X = 1, then the card costs 2 to cast. When casting a card with X in the cost, you choose a value for X. Then, you calculate the cost of the card based on your chosen X. > > 601.2b [...]If the spell has a variable cost that will be paid as it’s being cast (such as an {X} in its mana cost; see rule 107.3), the player announces the value of that variable. > > > 601.2f The player determines the total cost of the spell. Usually this is just the mana cost. Some spells have additional or alternative costs. Some effects may increase or reduce the cost to pay, or may provide other alternative costs. > > > All Jhoira's Familiar does here is to reduce the total cost (normally 3) by 1.
119
The Ethereum virtual machine has a large number of operation codes and base level instruction sets. Is a complete listing available?
2016/01/20
[ "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/questions/119", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/users/130/" ]
1) Ethan's answer references the official list of opcodes in the Yellow Paper (YP). It can be a bit dry and difficult to navigate to the newcomer. My favorite list is this one: <https://github.com/djrtwo/evm-opcode-gas-costs>. It's easy to navigate, and it also contains opcodes gas information as well. 2) Some opcodes may be missing from the official YP list. An example that comes to mind is `REVERT` (0xFD). I believe this opcode was introduced with Metropolis phase 1 (Byzantium), and it is still not mentioned in the YP. For that, your best reference will be an actual client implementation, or Solidity's implementation. Example: <https://github.com/ethereum/solidity/blob/develop/libevmasm/Instruction.h> (and .c as well). Be careful with clients' implementations though, they may contain opcodes that are still experimental.
Here is a more recent link to a repo. The list is usually updated after a new upgrade/fork on the network: <https://github.com/crytic/evm-opcodes>
119
The Ethereum virtual machine has a large number of operation codes and base level instruction sets. Is a complete listing available?
2016/01/20
[ "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/questions/119", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/users/130/" ]
1) Ethan's answer references the official list of opcodes in the Yellow Paper (YP). It can be a bit dry and difficult to navigate to the newcomer. My favorite list is this one: <https://github.com/djrtwo/evm-opcode-gas-costs>. It's easy to navigate, and it also contains opcodes gas information as well. 2) Some opcodes may be missing from the official YP list. An example that comes to mind is `REVERT` (0xFD). I believe this opcode was introduced with Metropolis phase 1 (Byzantium), and it is still not mentioned in the YP. For that, your best reference will be an actual client implementation, or Solidity's implementation. Example: <https://github.com/ethereum/solidity/blob/develop/libevmasm/Instruction.h> (and .c as well). Be careful with clients' implementations though, they may contain opcodes that are still experimental.
[evm codes](https://evm.codes/) helps a lot! It shows the gas costs of each opcode, how it affects the stack, and has a very cool playground where you can test in solidity, yul, bytecode or mnemonics (opcodes) and see the change in stack, memory, storage and return variables in details
119
The Ethereum virtual machine has a large number of operation codes and base level instruction sets. Is a complete listing available?
2016/01/20
[ "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/questions/119", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/users/130/" ]
Here is a more recent link to a repo. The list is usually updated after a new upgrade/fork on the network: <https://github.com/crytic/evm-opcodes>
[evm codes](https://evm.codes/) helps a lot! It shows the gas costs of each opcode, how it affects the stack, and has a very cool playground where you can test in solidity, yul, bytecode or mnemonics (opcodes) and see the change in stack, memory, storage and return variables in details
57,531
I see a lot of commentary to the effect that for many conservative U.S. voters, a major reason they supported Trump was because they foresaw, correctly, that his term would see the appointment of several Supreme Court justices. I recall seeing interviews with supporters indicating that some were supporting him reluctantly, despite a dislike of his behaviour, because they very much wanted those justices replaced by a Republican president. Those in the anti-abortion and pro-gun-rights positions, I believe, were highly represented in this cohort. So, if Trump's pick to replace Justice Ginsberg is approved, and the SC gets into a pretty solid conservative-friendly majority, will these voters *need* Trump any more? Has there been any analysis of how many might just relax and stay home on election day, or perhaps vote Republican for the houses but not much mind if Biden gets the White House? Would it perhaps not be better strategy for Trump to delay this appointment, so that social conservatives have a firm reason to see him in a second term?
2020/09/27
[ "https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/57531", "https://politics.stackexchange.com", "https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/16501/" ]
A. It wasn't just the Supreme Court, but the other federal courts as well. Those will continue to be relevant. B. There aren't any obvious SCOTUS vacancies in the next four years, but there could be. (Perhaps Thomas retires.) C. While unlikely, Trump could prevent court packing schemes. Though the odds Trump wins the White House and the Republicans lose the Senate is slight. > > Would it perhaps not be better strategy for Trump to delay this appointment, so that social conservatives have a firm reason to see him in a second term? > > > Unlikely. Trump promised his base they would "win," and he doesn't have many victories in 2020. If he successfully appoints a popular justice, that's good for his campaign.
Yes, the need to appoint conservative supreme justices won't be over just because he gets a new one before the election. There are still several justices who are getting up in age in length of service on the court. <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Supreme_Court_of_the_United_States> Clarence Tomas: 72 with 29 years of service appointed by Bush in 91 Stephen Breyer: 82 with 26 years of service appointed by Clinton in 94 Two members who are getting up there in age and in service and with one being a Democrat would be a big win for Trump to replace. There are several more who are in their 60's as well.
57,531
I see a lot of commentary to the effect that for many conservative U.S. voters, a major reason they supported Trump was because they foresaw, correctly, that his term would see the appointment of several Supreme Court justices. I recall seeing interviews with supporters indicating that some were supporting him reluctantly, despite a dislike of his behaviour, because they very much wanted those justices replaced by a Republican president. Those in the anti-abortion and pro-gun-rights positions, I believe, were highly represented in this cohort. So, if Trump's pick to replace Justice Ginsberg is approved, and the SC gets into a pretty solid conservative-friendly majority, will these voters *need* Trump any more? Has there been any analysis of how many might just relax and stay home on election day, or perhaps vote Republican for the houses but not much mind if Biden gets the White House? Would it perhaps not be better strategy for Trump to delay this appointment, so that social conservatives have a firm reason to see him in a second term?
2020/09/27
[ "https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/57531", "https://politics.stackexchange.com", "https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/16501/" ]
A. It wasn't just the Supreme Court, but the other federal courts as well. Those will continue to be relevant. B. There aren't any obvious SCOTUS vacancies in the next four years, but there could be. (Perhaps Thomas retires.) C. While unlikely, Trump could prevent court packing schemes. Though the odds Trump wins the White House and the Republicans lose the Senate is slight. > > Would it perhaps not be better strategy for Trump to delay this appointment, so that social conservatives have a firm reason to see him in a second term? > > > Unlikely. Trump promised his base they would "win," and he doesn't have many victories in 2020. If he successfully appoints a popular justice, that's good for his campaign.
To add to the other answers: Leaving the supreme court seat open would just as well give the democratic base a firmer reason to show up by raising the stakes. Filling it surely angers and motivates them as well, but arguably not as much as the prospect of an open supreme court seat, beside the fact that it would be a far to risky gamble anyway.
1,184,395
For example, [this webpage](http://mp.weixin.qq.com/s/Q7ipdKzGQUISWDGAN5vfnA) contains pictures, when I tried to copy & paste into word 2010, the pictures are not pasted, only generated a picture placeholder. I've tried the trick in <https://superuser.com/a/132861/109367> but also to no avail. However, if I open the webpage in Internet Explorer, copy & paste works.
2017/03/02
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1184395", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/109367/" ]
The website you provided use a custom URL structure that doesn't have the extension in it (eg. ".png" or ".jpg") ; that's why Word can't recognize it as a picture and thus won't copy it. try to download the images separately and insert them manually into word
You can simply use a snipping tool to grab the photos on the webpage, Simply open snipping tool and select the area of the page(Photo) and you can paste it in word 2010.
25,979
I got couple of [good](https://jenniferonwriting.blogspot.in/2008/05/all-about-print-runs.html) [definitions](http://www.deanwesleysmith.com/the-new-world-of-publishing-what-is-a-print-run-grandpa/) of the traditional Print run. One of the disturbing things mentioned in one of the definitions that many a times 50 percent of them are destroyed. How it was destroyed is not known but if it has anything to do with burning of books or something, bad for everybody. I am surprised if that used to be the case. I come from India and here for most people one big source of fiction books has been something called booksbyweight <https://www.facebook.com/Booksbyweight/> . This is very popular with millennials who go to discover new authors, new genres at very low cost. While this is good for the seller and probably a bit for Publishers, are authors compensated for it ? I would also ask what authors think of it.
2017/01/10
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/25979", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/22915/" ]
Booksbyweight appears to be simply a used bookstore with a bulk pricing model. In the paper world the economic model for books is that the publisher sells copies. The copy then belongs to the person who bought it. They can resell it to whoever they want, including used book stores. The author and publisher receive no further compensation when a book is resold. Generally speaking, authors and publishers don't receive any compensation when their books are lent out by libraries either, though there are now public lending right payments in some countries. (Pretty small, I believe.) The model for the digital world is very different. The publisher licenses a right to view individual volumes in a digital library. You can view the copies you license on multiple devices, but you cannot resell the book after you have finished it. There is no used market for e-books. Another model that is emerging (pioneered by O'Reilley for technical books) is that you subscribe to an entire library of books for an annual fee. The publisher and author than get a cut from the library when their book is actually read. In fact, they get paid by how many pages are read, so you get less if someone reads a chapter and abandons it than if they read all the way to the end. I think the latter model may actually be the fairest model of all to writers and publishers.
Another possible route to market for books unsold by the publisher is that they get remaindered, which means that unsold stock is sold cheaply and in bulk to merchants who will try to sell on through bulk discounters, possibly in third world countries. For the publisher, the alternative is often to pay storage fees at a distributor or pay for the books to be pulped. Pulping often involves book materials being put to [uses that you wouldn't guess at](http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/england/west_midlands/3330245.stm), incidentally. There is unlikely to be a royalty payment for the author for such sales, as they are often below the sunk cost of the product (printing, distribution, storage). eBook sales to libraries are often at a considerably higher price than retail. Bearing in mind that an eBook with an official retail price of £25 can sell to a retailer for half of that, it might be sold to a library with a "30 simultaneous borrowers" agreement for a high multiple of £25. I've seen multiples ranging from x2 to x20, and library prices of over GBP 1,000 for an eBook (of which an author would get their contractual royalty share, of course).
25,979
I got couple of [good](https://jenniferonwriting.blogspot.in/2008/05/all-about-print-runs.html) [definitions](http://www.deanwesleysmith.com/the-new-world-of-publishing-what-is-a-print-run-grandpa/) of the traditional Print run. One of the disturbing things mentioned in one of the definitions that many a times 50 percent of them are destroyed. How it was destroyed is not known but if it has anything to do with burning of books or something, bad for everybody. I am surprised if that used to be the case. I come from India and here for most people one big source of fiction books has been something called booksbyweight <https://www.facebook.com/Booksbyweight/> . This is very popular with millennials who go to discover new authors, new genres at very low cost. While this is good for the seller and probably a bit for Publishers, are authors compensated for it ? I would also ask what authors think of it.
2017/01/10
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/25979", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/22915/" ]
Booksbyweight appears to be simply a used bookstore with a bulk pricing model. In the paper world the economic model for books is that the publisher sells copies. The copy then belongs to the person who bought it. They can resell it to whoever they want, including used book stores. The author and publisher receive no further compensation when a book is resold. Generally speaking, authors and publishers don't receive any compensation when their books are lent out by libraries either, though there are now public lending right payments in some countries. (Pretty small, I believe.) The model for the digital world is very different. The publisher licenses a right to view individual volumes in a digital library. You can view the copies you license on multiple devices, but you cannot resell the book after you have finished it. There is no used market for e-books. Another model that is emerging (pioneered by O'Reilley for technical books) is that you subscribe to an entire library of books for an annual fee. The publisher and author than get a cut from the library when their book is actually read. In fact, they get paid by how many pages are read, so you get less if someone reads a chapter and abandons it than if they read all the way to the end. I think the latter model may actually be the fairest model of all to writers and publishers.
What that definition of "print run" is missing is the actual printing cost. There is a huge cost of setting everything up to print let's say a 200 page book. If you print 10,000 books, the first book costs an enormous sum of money; the other 9,999 are dirt cheap. So if you estimate you can sell 6,000 books, and print 6,000 books, and you sell them all and realise you could sell 2,000 more, printing these 2,000 will cost you almost as much as printing 6,000, and printing 6,000 plus 2,000 will cost you as much as printing 15,000 in one go. That's why you will always print a lot more than you think you will be selling, because its much cheaper to have too many printed than not having enough printed.
29,235,186
I have an application that works on a previous version of the WAMP stack. There are couple of changes in Apache, which were not relevant when the application was on that stack, but now are. This also prevents the application to run on the current stack. To get it working, I need the older version of WAMP stack. Any way I can download that? Or a suggested path to upgrade to newer versions of the WAMP stack? Thanks
2015/03/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29235186", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4707850/" ]
You can search for it in archive.org. The file has the same url but it's not linked in the description page. For example, now I need the dmg file of the version 3.0 of redmine, so I go to: <https://web.archive.org/web/>\*/<https://bitnami.com/stack/redmine/installer> And copy the url from the download link from a date prior to the launch of the 3.1 version.
Bitnami developer here. You can request the version of the stack that you want in the community forum of Bitnami. You have to create a new post and tell the stack and the version that you want. <https://community.bitnami.com> I hope it helps.
2,557
I have a laptop running Server 2008 and Hyper-V. I have created a virtual machine that is also running Server 2008, that I used `dcpromo` to create as a domain controller. I disabled IPv6 because I had no idea how to enter a default address, and I just wanted to make a standalone MOSS dev environment. I have tried every combination of creating a virtual network on the host and then connecting to that in the VM, but I can't get the VM to communicate with the host and vice versa. No pinging, no copy and paste, nothing. Thanks. To update: My VM (which is its own DC) currently does not have a static IP. When I set the IP to static, I could not find anything that would let it talk to the host machine.
2009/05/01
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/2557", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/1489/" ]
This is old, but I stumbled across this while searching for something else. You said this is a laptop. One issue you may be running into is that I believe Hyper-V doesn't support wireless network cards. If the network card you are trying to use is your wireless one and not your ethernet one, that may be your issue. I ran into a similar issue when trying to re-purpose an old laptop as a test machine.
In the settings for the VM itself (as opposed to the networking settings in hyperV), does the ethernet port have the target network selected? (this is a setting I seem very prone to forgetting to check/change) Up to this point, I keep the host and guest on the same subnet, I'm not sure how well hyperV is going to NAT that out on its own? Give the VM a static address on the same subnet as the DC to take DNS out of the picture and test basic "hardware" connectivity.
13,107,636
I would like to synchronize my computer with an external camcorder recording so that I can know exactly (to the millisecond) when certain recored events happen with respect to other sensors logged by the computer. One idea is to playback short sound pulses or chirps every second from the computer that get picked up by the microphone on the camcorder. But the accuracy of a simple cron job playing a sound clip is not precise enough. I was thinking of using something like gstreamer, but how does one get it to playback a clip at precisely a certain time according to the system clock?
2012/10/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13107636", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1780526/" ]
This is probably due to the pointer pointing to an object which is already deleted. Check your native code.
you can tell GDB to ignore those signals : handle SIGSEGV nostop
13,107,636
I would like to synchronize my computer with an external camcorder recording so that I can know exactly (to the millisecond) when certain recored events happen with respect to other sensors logged by the computer. One idea is to playback short sound pulses or chirps every second from the computer that get picked up by the microphone on the camcorder. But the accuracy of a simple cron job playing a sound clip is not precise enough. I was thinking of using something like gstreamer, but how does one get it to playback a clip at precisely a certain time according to the system clock?
2012/10/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13107636", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1780526/" ]
I realized much later that jni throws signals that normally it would catch but in gdb, it causes gdb to report crash. My code had other very mundane bugs that I was not able to catch because I was relying on gdb to debug.
you can tell GDB to ignore those signals : handle SIGSEGV nostop
64,651
I still don't understand what the proper way is to playing trills and tremolos, even though I've read a lot about them and watched a lot of videos. Worse it seems like all the people explaining it do them differently. What confuses me is the movement of the forearm. I don't understand if the movement for a 2-4 trill or an octave tremolo solely comes from the forearm, meaning no movement of the finger muscles at all or if the movement comes from the finger with a little forearm rotation. If I use only forearm rotation (the way I would rotate a door knob or change a light bulb), then I get extremly slow and watching other pianist doing tremolos or trills, it seems to me that the movemet comes from the finger and there is very little forearm rotation. The second thing which I don't understand is the movement of the wrist. Especially when I trill on 2-4 and keep my wrist in motion then it feels very awkward to play a trill. I know there are many questions about trills, but I still don't understand it after reading them.
2017/12/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/64651", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/44653/" ]
I don't have any direct experience in doing trills on piano but I have have experience in other musical areas which may relate to your problem. When playing guitar I once used only my arm to strum. This bad technique caused lots of muscle pain after playing for long periods. I then was told to add in a twisting of my forearm in combination with the initial movement to decrease pain in my arm and sound better. This greatly helped me. Later when this good technique was learned I started to add in a finger movement that I had seen many Spanish guitarists use to achieve fast strumming. I believe that theis will relate to you in the way that while you have to have a twisting of the forearm motion in piano trills, you also have to add in a finger movement to increase speed and technique. Try this: Extend your whole arm level with the floor in front of you. While keeping your fingers loose and untensed, twist your forearm back and forth as if you are doing a trill on a piano. Now do this same thing but have your fingers hitting a tabletop. Then move your fingers so they increase and decrease pressure on the tabletop after a period of ten or so forearm rotations. Do this whole thing but with your fingers tensed. Does this feel more coordinated? It shouldn't. Anyways, I hope you can understand what I am meaning. Good luck. :)
I'm only an amateur jazz pianist, but I once told a professional jazz pianist that I couldn't do those octave trills that others seemed to be able to do easily. When I showed him how I tried to do it (on a table), he said immediately: "I see what your problem is, you're not moving your fingers!" So definitely a large part of the movement should come from the fingers, although the wrist/forearm should help. He also noted that some finger independence is needed to do it well.
64,651
I still don't understand what the proper way is to playing trills and tremolos, even though I've read a lot about them and watched a lot of videos. Worse it seems like all the people explaining it do them differently. What confuses me is the movement of the forearm. I don't understand if the movement for a 2-4 trill or an octave tremolo solely comes from the forearm, meaning no movement of the finger muscles at all or if the movement comes from the finger with a little forearm rotation. If I use only forearm rotation (the way I would rotate a door knob or change a light bulb), then I get extremly slow and watching other pianist doing tremolos or trills, it seems to me that the movemet comes from the finger and there is very little forearm rotation. The second thing which I don't understand is the movement of the wrist. Especially when I trill on 2-4 and keep my wrist in motion then it feels very awkward to play a trill. I know there are many questions about trills, but I still don't understand it after reading them.
2017/12/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/64651", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/44653/" ]
I don't have any direct experience in doing trills on piano but I have have experience in other musical areas which may relate to your problem. When playing guitar I once used only my arm to strum. This bad technique caused lots of muscle pain after playing for long periods. I then was told to add in a twisting of my forearm in combination with the initial movement to decrease pain in my arm and sound better. This greatly helped me. Later when this good technique was learned I started to add in a finger movement that I had seen many Spanish guitarists use to achieve fast strumming. I believe that theis will relate to you in the way that while you have to have a twisting of the forearm motion in piano trills, you also have to add in a finger movement to increase speed and technique. Try this: Extend your whole arm level with the floor in front of you. While keeping your fingers loose and untensed, twist your forearm back and forth as if you are doing a trill on a piano. Now do this same thing but have your fingers hitting a tabletop. Then move your fingers so they increase and decrease pressure on the tabletop after a period of ten or so forearm rotations. Do this whole thing but with your fingers tensed. Does this feel more coordinated? It shouldn't. Anyways, I hope you can understand what I am meaning. Good luck. :)
One thing that helped me was learning to make the keypress movements very small. Just considering the physics of it, it takes more energy to move a greater distance in the same amount of time. So, to use less energy (and therefore make it easier, and less tiring), you make the movement smaller. Translating that to piano playing, the fingers shouldn't lift too high off the keys, if at all. In fact, you can even play a trill without letting the keys return up to the full, at-rest height.
64,651
I still don't understand what the proper way is to playing trills and tremolos, even though I've read a lot about them and watched a lot of videos. Worse it seems like all the people explaining it do them differently. What confuses me is the movement of the forearm. I don't understand if the movement for a 2-4 trill or an octave tremolo solely comes from the forearm, meaning no movement of the finger muscles at all or if the movement comes from the finger with a little forearm rotation. If I use only forearm rotation (the way I would rotate a door knob or change a light bulb), then I get extremly slow and watching other pianist doing tremolos or trills, it seems to me that the movemet comes from the finger and there is very little forearm rotation. The second thing which I don't understand is the movement of the wrist. Especially when I trill on 2-4 and keep my wrist in motion then it feels very awkward to play a trill. I know there are many questions about trills, but I still don't understand it after reading them.
2017/12/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/64651", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/44653/" ]
I'm only an amateur jazz pianist, but I once told a professional jazz pianist that I couldn't do those octave trills that others seemed to be able to do easily. When I showed him how I tried to do it (on a table), he said immediately: "I see what your problem is, you're not moving your fingers!" So definitely a large part of the movement should come from the fingers, although the wrist/forearm should help. He also noted that some finger independence is needed to do it well.
One thing that helped me was learning to make the keypress movements very small. Just considering the physics of it, it takes more energy to move a greater distance in the same amount of time. So, to use less energy (and therefore make it easier, and less tiring), you make the movement smaller. Translating that to piano playing, the fingers shouldn't lift too high off the keys, if at all. In fact, you can even play a trill without letting the keys return up to the full, at-rest height.
138,520
I placed some rusty steel pieces on a plastic or rubber kitchen cutting board and covered the pieces with several lubricants and solvents, including WD-40. Although the combination loosened the rust successfully, my friend told me that the cutting board should leave the kitchen forever because there was no way to clean it thoroughly enough for it to be a safe food preparation surface. It was/is my favorite cutting board. Should I move it to the workshop now or is there a way to scrub and rinse it well enough for safe food preparation?
2018/05/07
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/138520", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/85522/" ]
The *with several lubricants and solvents* part of the question nails it, in my opinion: move it to the workshop. A solvent is designed to dissolve stuff. It is quite possible that those products, or trace elements in them affected your plastic. There's no way you can be sure your board is still safe for food.
Put it into a dishwasher, use a strong 'fat removing' dish detergent. do this twice and it'll remove all the residues. If you don't want to use the dishwasher, fill a basin with rolling boil (at least 200F) water, same kind of detergent, wear a good pair of rubber gloves, get a sponge and start rubbing. You will see oily particles detaching from your mat. Anyway if your surface is made of wood, just throw it away as wood absorbs chemicals and is almost impossible to remove them.
138,520
I placed some rusty steel pieces on a plastic or rubber kitchen cutting board and covered the pieces with several lubricants and solvents, including WD-40. Although the combination loosened the rust successfully, my friend told me that the cutting board should leave the kitchen forever because there was no way to clean it thoroughly enough for it to be a safe food preparation surface. It was/is my favorite cutting board. Should I move it to the workshop now or is there a way to scrub and rinse it well enough for safe food preparation?
2018/05/07
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/138520", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/85522/" ]
"several lubricants and solvents" - with no experience or knowledge, you are trying to invent a way to remove rust *chemically* using products from the local big-box store. That can kill you - mixing some of these products produces lethal vapors. (which is why you can't bring liquids on airplanes anymore). There is a way to do that, but it requires Tesla "smarts", not Edison "trying every single thing". It's also hazardous and not less complicated than homebrewing beer. In particular, WD-40 is a generally useless product that suffers from all-too-good marketing, causing many wanna-be gadget freaks to believe it's an indispensable. *It's not even a penetrating oil*. Research its history: it's not wrong to say it's only for polishing your missile. WD-40 has a particularly noxious tendency to do long-term damage to rubbers and plastics. I have destroyed several pieces of expensive equipment by using WD-40 to "help it along"; months later, rubber and plastic parts start catastrophically failing. So toss the WD-40 in the trash and buy *proper* wasp killer for wasp nests, Kroil for penetrating oil, 3-in-1 oil and graphite for general lubrication, Sriracha sauce for seasoning -- and for rust removal, use mechanical removal or learn to pickle. Also throw that cutting board in the trash, because the WD-40 will cause the plastic in the cutting board to break down and leach chemicals into the food. It's not a question of the WD-40, it's the other chemicals produced by the board reacting with it. Also, do everything you can to remove vestiges of WD-40 from anything else it touched, before it damages them too. Except your Atlas missile. It's fine there. By the way, the Atlas was made out of *stainless* steel, and the goal was *prevent* corrosion, not treat it retroactively.
Put it into a dishwasher, use a strong 'fat removing' dish detergent. do this twice and it'll remove all the residues. If you don't want to use the dishwasher, fill a basin with rolling boil (at least 200F) water, same kind of detergent, wear a good pair of rubber gloves, get a sponge and start rubbing. You will see oily particles detaching from your mat. Anyway if your surface is made of wood, just throw it away as wood absorbs chemicals and is almost impossible to remove them.
14,829
Let's say Aaron (property owner) and Bob (prospective tenant) are considering entering into a lease. They reach preliminary agreement verbally, and so Aaron drafts a lease agreement, signs it, and sends it to Bob for his signature. (Suppose Aaron is managing the property remotely, from a far-away city, so they can't meet in person for the signing). Let's say this happens about 2 months before the start date of the lease. At this point, Bob has a lease agreement with Aaron's signature on it. It seems to me that if Bob is unscrupulous, he can delay adding his signature for up to 2 months. He can look for a better deal on a different apartment for that entire time. If he finds a better deal, he can simply tear up the contract with Aaron - after all, he never signed it! If he doesn't find a better deal, he can simply add his signature to the contract with Aaron to make it binding. On the other hand, it seems to me that Aaron is at a significant disadvantage - he cannot look for other tenants and sign anything with them, because at any point Bob can make the original lease valid, and force Aaron to lease to him. I realize that the lease itself could have some wording to solve this issue (e.g. "only valid if signed by both parties by such-and-such date"), but - for example - the standard lease agreement I've seen used in Washington State doesn't have any such clauses. So, my questions are: * Is my understanding correct? Can Bob indeed delay signing, putting Aaron at a significant disadvantage? Or is there anything in law that would prevent such a trick on Bob's part? * Does the answer change if this is lease renewal and not a new lease? In case it matters, the jurisdiction I am most interested in is Washington State, USA.
2016/10/26
[ "https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/14829", "https://law.stackexchange.com", "https://law.stackexchange.com/users/59/" ]
Common Law Contracts -------------------- Contracts do not have to be signed. They do not even have to be written down. In fact, the overwhelming majority of contracts entered into are not written – when did you last sign a contract to buy a cup of coffee? See [What is a contract and what is required for them to be valid?](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/6263/what-is-a-contract-and-what-is-required-for-them-to-be-valid) A contract is an enforceable agreement. It exists from the moment that agreement was reached irrespective of who signed what. Putting a signature on a contract is *evidence* of the contract: it is not the contract. Real Estate ----------- Having said this, real estate law is an area where legislators can't leave the common law alone and is generally subject to specific regulation. For example, it is quite common that real estate contracts *must* be in writing and are unenforceable if they are not. However, while the contract may not be enforceable, the promise might be. Promissory Estoppel ------------------- The common law as we know it today is actually derived from two different stands of English law: the actual common law as decided by the magistrates, and equity law as decided by the King/Queen in the courts of Chancellery. In the absence of a contract there is nothing the common law can enforce. However, principles of equity law are grounded in notions of fairness (or equity – see how that works?). If I were to make a promise to you (that was not a contract) and you took action on the strength of my promise that would be to your detriment *and* I knew you were doing that: promissory estoppel would prevent me from breaking my promise or allow you to recover damages (more or less – in practice a promissory estoppel suit is usually an act of desperation). Your lease ---------- When was the contract formed? * If the agreement had been reached and the written lease simply documented that agreement **without adding anything new**, then the contract is already on foot and both Aaron and Bob are bound. * If agreement has not been reached or there were additional terms in the document (which there almost certainly would be) then by putting forward the document Aaron is making an offer to Bob. By extending the offer, Aaron knows that he cannot lease the premises to someone else until the offer has been rejected or he withdraws the offer: this is true irrespective of whether Aaron has signed or not. If Bob accepts that offer **without changing it**, then the contract exists from the moment of Bob's acceptance irrespective of whether he has signed. If Bob makes changes (other than inconsequential ones) then he has made a counteroffer: the ball is now in Aaron's court and the original offer is dead. Promissory estoppel can arise if, for example, the negotiations ends with Bob saying, "I'm looking at several places but yours would be the one I want if you were to change the carpets," Aaron send Bob carpet samples, Bob picks one, Aaron makes the change, and Bob then walks away.
Aaron can send the agreement unsigned, as an offer, to Bob. If Bob accepts the offer and signs it (and sends it back to Aaron), following [RCW 59.18.065](http://apps.leg.wa.gov/rcw/default.aspx?cite=59.18&full=true), Aaron must provide an executed copy to each tenant who signs the rental agreement. That would solve Aaron's problem (though he actually doesn't have a problem). It is not required that parties to an agreement be in the same room to sign an agreement. 59.18.060(12)(a) requires signatures by all parties on a fire safety information checklist and (c) states that "The written notice or checklist must be provided to new tenants at the time the lease or rental agreement is signed". This might suggest that a signed rental agreement is required. However, at common law, a signature is simply one way of establishing that there is an agreement, and Washington law does not directly require signatures on a lease. An email from Bob indicating acceptance of the lease would also establish an agreement (if it is clear that it's an agreement – a return email saying "Thanks!" is insufficient). Signatures are taken to be absolute evidence to having agreed (except if you can show that there was a misunderstanding, i.e. there was no "meeting of the minds"). Aaron could make it an explicit condition of the agreement that there is no agreement unless both parties sign, which *would* make a signature mandatory. In lieu of such a term, the simple presence of a line for parties to sign does not, as far as I know, make a signature mandatory, and agreement can be indicated in other ways (though certain kinds of agreements may statutorily require signatures and witnesses, such as a mortgage). Turning the tables, Aaron puts himself on the hook somewhat merely by making an offer. Assuming there are no conditions like "must be accepted by date X," once Aaron makes an offer, all Bob has to do is accept the offer, and there is an agreement (binding lease), so Aaron's signature isn't crucial. If Bob doesn't like the terms and changes something (like crosses out something or writes in something), Bob has made a counter-offer – which Aaron can then accept (or not) and it becomes an agreement (if accepted). Therefore, Aaron needs to include *some* clause that cancels the offer if both parties are not irrevocably on board with the agreement by a certain date – e.g., "If Bob fails to sign and return this agreement within 14 days of today, this agreement is void."
176,019
I would like to put my /etc directory iunder source control using bazaar. Are there any gotchas in doing this. It seems safer to do it user an ordinary user rather than root - might there a be a problem with .bzr belonging to such a user.
2010/08/30
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/176019", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/11195/" ]
You should look at using [etckeeper](http://joey.kitenet.net/code/etckeeper/), instead of trying to reinvent the wheel.
Here's a way [using SVN and cron to manage /etc](http://lisas.de/~adrian/?p=478). I suppose it could be adapted.
176,019
I would like to put my /etc directory iunder source control using bazaar. Are there any gotchas in doing this. It seems safer to do it user an ordinary user rather than root - might there a be a problem with .bzr belonging to such a user.
2010/08/30
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/176019", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/11195/" ]
You should look at using [etckeeper](http://joey.kitenet.net/code/etckeeper/), instead of trying to reinvent the wheel.
Could be overkill for a single system (unless you need to 'rebuild' it from time to time) but the usual solution for [configuration management](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Configuration_management) is to use some [scm](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Software_configuration_management) like [cfEngine](http://www.cfengine.org/), [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/), [bcfg2](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bcfg2) , or the like, and then put *their* data under source control.
176,019
I would like to put my /etc directory iunder source control using bazaar. Are there any gotchas in doing this. It seems safer to do it user an ordinary user rather than root - might there a be a problem with .bzr belonging to such a user.
2010/08/30
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/176019", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/11195/" ]
Could be overkill for a single system (unless you need to 'rebuild' it from time to time) but the usual solution for [configuration management](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Configuration_management) is to use some [scm](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Software_configuration_management) like [cfEngine](http://www.cfengine.org/), [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/), [bcfg2](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bcfg2) , or the like, and then put *their* data under source control.
Here's a way [using SVN and cron to manage /etc](http://lisas.de/~adrian/?p=478). I suppose it could be adapted.
99,951
I'm receiving some kinds of automated job completion notification by email. Thus it is hard to manage hundreds of email, so I'd like to automate it. So, is it possible to save all or unread emails' subjects in a text, CSV, or Excel file?
2016/10/30
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/99951", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/26693/" ]
You can probably do something with [If This Then That](http://ifttt.com). 1. Create a Gmail trigger, either all new messages or new messages that meet some search criteria 2. Create an action to add a line to a Google Sheet. You would probably want the date/time, sender, and the subject [This recipe](https://ifttt.com/recipes/482430-save-mail-subjects-to-google-sheet) should give you an idea of what you can do (or you can simply modify this recipe for your own purposes).
Maybe you can use web scraping and Windows task scheduler. First, write a code to do the following. 1. Log in to your Gmail account. 2. Collect your e-mail subjects using Python Selenium library Do the above tasks repeatedly using Windows Task Scheduler.
15,051,475
I have written an application for Android, which starts & stops a modified GPLv2-licensed tool via shell command. It works as a closed-source GUI and I will bundle it with the GPLv2-licensed part into an android-apk. As mentioned, I have modified the GPLv2-software (trimmed it from unneeded stuff and extended it a bit). I will call the (modified) GPLv2-software via command line to not harm the GPL-license (calling via shell is not like linking). It will look like following: [closed-source GUI] -> shell-command (start/stop) -> [modified GPLv2-tool] All parts are at the end published in one .apk-file. My question now is: 1. how do I have to provide the modified source of the GPL-tool? * just on request (e.g. "email me")? * also bundled into the APK-file (would be the simplest)? * publish it on the web (where?!)? 2. what do I have to write in the "credits" of my software? * Thanks to .. ? * Have a look at #1 to get the source? I will respect the license agreements but GPL is a new area for me, so I could need some help. PS: Maybe also someone has a final answer on: Can I also call the GPLed tool via Java-JNI? But I think that will harm the GPL.
2013/02/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15051475", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/164036/" ]
You can set differents localization files for each target. Just open Utilies, at target membership selected the targets you want to localize. Example: * en.string (mark target1 only) * he.string, sw.string (mark target2 only) * cd.string (mark target2 and 3) * it.string (mark target3 only) * ![jap.string (mark target4 only)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tUwGR.png)
use this answer [manual language selection in an iOS-App (iPhone and iPad)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/9939885/manual-language-selection-in-an-ios-app-iphone-and-ipad) You can set any language you want, remember "Localizable.strings" for containing language text
1,476,957
My outlook search box looks like this: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ll0N9.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ll0N9.png) I want it like this again with all the additional fields like Attachments, To, Subject, ... [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RaZFG.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RaZFG.jpg) How can I get this done?
2019/08/30
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1476957", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/1082561/" ]
Select Search Box, navigate to Refine Tab, click 'More, add the search criteria to the search box. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsZaf.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsZaf.png)
In Outlook, in the grey area at the top, right click, customize, and then in the dialog box that comes up, All icons, select Search and add it Now in my Outlook I use the Search field at the top of the of the email messages. I click there and that shows the the Search tab with all the search tools including Advanced Find. I prefer the latter approach and it is all there.
326,360
Take a look at this picture here: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/544vy.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/544vy.png) Please note that the two resistors are equal in size. Here it says that the voltage at Point TP3 is zero volts. I do not understand how that is. The creator of this image says in a video that this is because the Voltage at Point TP2 (-6V) and TP8 (+6V) cancel each other out. Is he right? Do they cancel each other out? Here is the link to the youtube video: watch?v=tsrAP8EgcbQ \*\*\*\*EDIT\*\*\*\* So here is my scribble:[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XxhHK.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XxhHK.png) My understanding is that the Voltage "AB" (the voltage above R2) will be feed to the amplifier. In the first picture i posted that would be the voltage "TP3TP8". So the voltage between the point A and the point B will be 0 volts? ***Edit*** Thanks for the help. Something must be wrong with my understanding of voltages. I have now something to work with. Again thank you!
2017/08/29
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/326360", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/161287/" ]
No the voltages do not "cancel out", it's a a bad way to think about it. But we can show that the voltage at TP3 is in fact 0, assuming the two resistances are equal. Look at my poor scribble below. Let's do a KCL analysis at the TP3 junction. I3, the current going into the OpAmp is 0, because that is an assumption of ideal op-amps. We are only left with two currents I1 an I2 which must be equal. Now substituting the equations with voltages using I = V/R we can see that TP3 voltage must be 0 volts. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/smTJi.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/smTJi.png)
Think of it as both resistors being between 12V and 0V - simple voltage divider, you get 6V at the node TP3, which is thus 6V apart from both rails (TP2 and TP8). Equal voltage across both equal resistors is a given when they both have the same current through them (which is an absolute given in the circuit shown). Whatever voltages you put on TP2 and TP8 - TP3 is always going to be an equal amount apart from both. At 6V and -6V, 0V is the value where it will be 6V apart from them. BTW, if you are building this circuit in practice: This will fail if you use high value (say 100s of Kiloohms) resistors and an Opamp that needs a high input bias current.
326,360
Take a look at this picture here: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/544vy.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/544vy.png) Please note that the two resistors are equal in size. Here it says that the voltage at Point TP3 is zero volts. I do not understand how that is. The creator of this image says in a video that this is because the Voltage at Point TP2 (-6V) and TP8 (+6V) cancel each other out. Is he right? Do they cancel each other out? Here is the link to the youtube video: watch?v=tsrAP8EgcbQ \*\*\*\*EDIT\*\*\*\* So here is my scribble:[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XxhHK.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XxhHK.png) My understanding is that the Voltage "AB" (the voltage above R2) will be feed to the amplifier. In the first picture i posted that would be the voltage "TP3TP8". So the voltage between the point A and the point B will be 0 volts? ***Edit*** Thanks for the help. Something must be wrong with my understanding of voltages. I have now something to work with. Again thank you!
2017/08/29
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/326360", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/161287/" ]
Rather than "cancel each other out", I would say that the two resistors form a voltage divider between TP2 (-6V) and TP3 (+6V). If the two resistors are of equal value, the mid-point must be half way between the two end voltages. Since the end voltages are equal, but opposite polarity, the mid-point must be zero volts. This assumes that the amplifier input does not source or sink any current. If it does source or sink current, the current in the two resistors, and therefore the voltage across them, will be affected by that current, so the mid-point will not be zero volts.
Think of it as both resistors being between 12V and 0V - simple voltage divider, you get 6V at the node TP3, which is thus 6V apart from both rails (TP2 and TP8). Equal voltage across both equal resistors is a given when they both have the same current through them (which is an absolute given in the circuit shown). Whatever voltages you put on TP2 and TP8 - TP3 is always going to be an equal amount apart from both. At 6V and -6V, 0V is the value where it will be 6V apart from them. BTW, if you are building this circuit in practice: This will fail if you use high value (say 100s of Kiloohms) resistors and an Opamp that needs a high input bias current.
35,226,352
Could not resize “/private/var/folders/\_5/jhpy2pns35n0kljwt0l08q\_40000gn/T/TemporaryItems/(A Document Being Saved By Xcode 3)/dyld\_shared\_cache\_armv7s” (No space left on device) Has anyone figured out how to solve this issue? I am trying to set up an iPhone 6s with Xcode, and this just started happening. I tried reinstalling Xcode, but that did nothing.
2016/02/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35226352", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2376576/" ]
I had this same problem, I had lots of free space on my iPhone but it was claiming no space left on device. I hadn't thought that the memory on my Mac would affect this but once I deleted a few files the app downloaded to my device correctly. I would recommend: * Make sure your device and mac have enough memory * Clean XCode * Reset XCode The combination of all of these fixed the issue for me. Credit to @Vinícius Albino in the comments for getting me to this answer
I did try everything. And finally realized I had to reboot my mac to make it work. This is still (unfortunatly) more often than not a step we need to make when things go wrong before further research
174,731
A weird situation took place last week at work. A person (let’s call him “agent”) that seems the owner and only employee of an engineering company contacted the company I work for to describe us an opportunity to cooperate in the development of a new machinery for a final industry client (shipping company) for which he was not allowed to reveal his name at this stage at least. We signed a two-way NDA with agent (agent asked that), and after that he sent us some calculations in a power point presentation. This was the first red flag as there was nothing proprietary that was requiring an actual NDA (calculations were generated using a freeware software and the design points selected do not imply any industrial know-how). An engineer (colleague) responsible in the calculations and more experienced than me in the subject matter prepared and corrected his calculations (and design points!) based on our company’s experience and real situations that we would manufacture the machinery. The agent became mad and stated that we should stick into his calculations and that we made wrong in the calculations. After long discussions he agreed that our calculations are based on the real and in practice scenarios that we would encounter, but even in that case he still persisted that we did wrong in the calculations. I eventually understood that he had been using an older version of the software and that new version has some important updates that are immediately related to the design of that specific machinery. The agent finally acknowledged that and “allowed us” to use the latest version, as if we do not know ours job! All of this week, the agent was acting as if we were students in an undergraduate or postgraduate course, and not real professionals that we take pride in our work (the company I work designs similar systems for over 20 years)! After those issues were settled I asked the agent to discuss with the final client a series of issues/questions (related to the industry: shipping industry), that resolving them would help us to reach the final machinery configuration and cost of the machinery. The first issue was that the machinery design was asking too much flow of cooling water flow and energy. First he was open to discuss that issue with the final client and then he said that the client had in the past accepted those data! The energy asked for was enormous for the client to accept based on our experience in marine projects (in the shipping industry), so we know those data were never presented to the client. The second issue is that the agent denied to discuss with the client an alternative (contingency) option (to use the cheaper and more in abundance seawater flow - as cooling water flow - as most people would do) and he stated that we should to stick to his design. The third issue is that he was totally reluctant to ask the client for the classification society the ship belongs to. This has major impact on the design standards that need to be followed, the product certifications and so on the cost. Not for the agent to be able to discuss and those issues with the client was a major red flag for me that this was not a real project. Probably, the agent did not want to fake any complicated terminology as answers to my questions and decided to simply deny answering my questions. Most probably, we wanted to just use the pricing of such an equipment and the related design for his own research or for any other purpose. Agent’s profile in LinkedIn seems to reveal a person with more of an academia profile than a person with strong ties with the industry (and definitely not the shipping industry). Finally I responded to the client if those issues/questions are not answered, we plan to halt all related work. Agent responded that he will not cooperate with us any more. We wished him good luck. In conclusion, I spent more than a week going back and forth with him for nothing. The question is whether there are any specific (non-technical) and clever questions that can be asked from the real beginning that would easily reveal if a project is real one, whether the final client is a real one, and whether they are trying to use our company just to get the pricing information for any other reason other than actually purchasing an equipment. Although as a company we try to help other companies in their first steps with some degree of engineering (for free!), we demand some honesty and transparency in the follow-up process, so we understand in return the possibility of the project to actually take place and the resources we will have to allocate for that project.
2021/07/18
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/174731", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/92654/" ]
When they give you radically wrong numbers and stubbornly resist accepting yours, then there is a red flag regardless of whether or not the project and final client exist.
The simple answer to prevent clients taking you for a ride, is to make sure they pay consultancy fees to compensate your company for effort. Just make it a policy. You can phrase it as a non-refundable down-payment if you wish. There is no question you can ask, because for every question there is an answer that will satisfy you, and they can just say that. You may as well just ask: "Are you taking me for a ride?". In this instance you would simply charge a fee to the client for you to sit at the table and discuss possibilities. If they are serious, they'll happily pay the fee.
174,731
A weird situation took place last week at work. A person (let’s call him “agent”) that seems the owner and only employee of an engineering company contacted the company I work for to describe us an opportunity to cooperate in the development of a new machinery for a final industry client (shipping company) for which he was not allowed to reveal his name at this stage at least. We signed a two-way NDA with agent (agent asked that), and after that he sent us some calculations in a power point presentation. This was the first red flag as there was nothing proprietary that was requiring an actual NDA (calculations were generated using a freeware software and the design points selected do not imply any industrial know-how). An engineer (colleague) responsible in the calculations and more experienced than me in the subject matter prepared and corrected his calculations (and design points!) based on our company’s experience and real situations that we would manufacture the machinery. The agent became mad and stated that we should stick into his calculations and that we made wrong in the calculations. After long discussions he agreed that our calculations are based on the real and in practice scenarios that we would encounter, but even in that case he still persisted that we did wrong in the calculations. I eventually understood that he had been using an older version of the software and that new version has some important updates that are immediately related to the design of that specific machinery. The agent finally acknowledged that and “allowed us” to use the latest version, as if we do not know ours job! All of this week, the agent was acting as if we were students in an undergraduate or postgraduate course, and not real professionals that we take pride in our work (the company I work designs similar systems for over 20 years)! After those issues were settled I asked the agent to discuss with the final client a series of issues/questions (related to the industry: shipping industry), that resolving them would help us to reach the final machinery configuration and cost of the machinery. The first issue was that the machinery design was asking too much flow of cooling water flow and energy. First he was open to discuss that issue with the final client and then he said that the client had in the past accepted those data! The energy asked for was enormous for the client to accept based on our experience in marine projects (in the shipping industry), so we know those data were never presented to the client. The second issue is that the agent denied to discuss with the client an alternative (contingency) option (to use the cheaper and more in abundance seawater flow - as cooling water flow - as most people would do) and he stated that we should to stick to his design. The third issue is that he was totally reluctant to ask the client for the classification society the ship belongs to. This has major impact on the design standards that need to be followed, the product certifications and so on the cost. Not for the agent to be able to discuss and those issues with the client was a major red flag for me that this was not a real project. Probably, the agent did not want to fake any complicated terminology as answers to my questions and decided to simply deny answering my questions. Most probably, we wanted to just use the pricing of such an equipment and the related design for his own research or for any other purpose. Agent’s profile in LinkedIn seems to reveal a person with more of an academia profile than a person with strong ties with the industry (and definitely not the shipping industry). Finally I responded to the client if those issues/questions are not answered, we plan to halt all related work. Agent responded that he will not cooperate with us any more. We wished him good luck. In conclusion, I spent more than a week going back and forth with him for nothing. The question is whether there are any specific (non-technical) and clever questions that can be asked from the real beginning that would easily reveal if a project is real one, whether the final client is a real one, and whether they are trying to use our company just to get the pricing information for any other reason other than actually purchasing an equipment. Although as a company we try to help other companies in their first steps with some degree of engineering (for free!), we demand some honesty and transparency in the follow-up process, so we understand in return the possibility of the project to actually take place and the resources we will have to allocate for that project.
2021/07/18
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/174731", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/92654/" ]
> > The question is whether there are any specific (non-technical) and > clever questions that can be asked from the real beginning that would > easily reveal if a project is real one, whether the final client is a > real one, and whether they are trying to use our company just to get > the pricing information for any other reason other than actually > purchasing an equipment. > > > There are no magic questions. You could choose not to work with anyone who is the sole employee of their company. That would avoid any back and forth and reduce the amount of research you need to do. That tactic might mean you miss out on some good opportunities. You and your company get to decide what it is worth to research these sorts of possibilities. Perhaps it's worth a week of your time. Perhaps not. That should be a company decision.
The simple answer to prevent clients taking you for a ride, is to make sure they pay consultancy fees to compensate your company for effort. Just make it a policy. You can phrase it as a non-refundable down-payment if you wish. There is no question you can ask, because for every question there is an answer that will satisfy you, and they can just say that. You may as well just ask: "Are you taking me for a ride?". In this instance you would simply charge a fee to the client for you to sit at the table and discuss possibilities. If they are serious, they'll happily pay the fee.
174,731
A weird situation took place last week at work. A person (let’s call him “agent”) that seems the owner and only employee of an engineering company contacted the company I work for to describe us an opportunity to cooperate in the development of a new machinery for a final industry client (shipping company) for which he was not allowed to reveal his name at this stage at least. We signed a two-way NDA with agent (agent asked that), and after that he sent us some calculations in a power point presentation. This was the first red flag as there was nothing proprietary that was requiring an actual NDA (calculations were generated using a freeware software and the design points selected do not imply any industrial know-how). An engineer (colleague) responsible in the calculations and more experienced than me in the subject matter prepared and corrected his calculations (and design points!) based on our company’s experience and real situations that we would manufacture the machinery. The agent became mad and stated that we should stick into his calculations and that we made wrong in the calculations. After long discussions he agreed that our calculations are based on the real and in practice scenarios that we would encounter, but even in that case he still persisted that we did wrong in the calculations. I eventually understood that he had been using an older version of the software and that new version has some important updates that are immediately related to the design of that specific machinery. The agent finally acknowledged that and “allowed us” to use the latest version, as if we do not know ours job! All of this week, the agent was acting as if we were students in an undergraduate or postgraduate course, and not real professionals that we take pride in our work (the company I work designs similar systems for over 20 years)! After those issues were settled I asked the agent to discuss with the final client a series of issues/questions (related to the industry: shipping industry), that resolving them would help us to reach the final machinery configuration and cost of the machinery. The first issue was that the machinery design was asking too much flow of cooling water flow and energy. First he was open to discuss that issue with the final client and then he said that the client had in the past accepted those data! The energy asked for was enormous for the client to accept based on our experience in marine projects (in the shipping industry), so we know those data were never presented to the client. The second issue is that the agent denied to discuss with the client an alternative (contingency) option (to use the cheaper and more in abundance seawater flow - as cooling water flow - as most people would do) and he stated that we should to stick to his design. The third issue is that he was totally reluctant to ask the client for the classification society the ship belongs to. This has major impact on the design standards that need to be followed, the product certifications and so on the cost. Not for the agent to be able to discuss and those issues with the client was a major red flag for me that this was not a real project. Probably, the agent did not want to fake any complicated terminology as answers to my questions and decided to simply deny answering my questions. Most probably, we wanted to just use the pricing of such an equipment and the related design for his own research or for any other purpose. Agent’s profile in LinkedIn seems to reveal a person with more of an academia profile than a person with strong ties with the industry (and definitely not the shipping industry). Finally I responded to the client if those issues/questions are not answered, we plan to halt all related work. Agent responded that he will not cooperate with us any more. We wished him good luck. In conclusion, I spent more than a week going back and forth with him for nothing. The question is whether there are any specific (non-technical) and clever questions that can be asked from the real beginning that would easily reveal if a project is real one, whether the final client is a real one, and whether they are trying to use our company just to get the pricing information for any other reason other than actually purchasing an equipment. Although as a company we try to help other companies in their first steps with some degree of engineering (for free!), we demand some honesty and transparency in the follow-up process, so we understand in return the possibility of the project to actually take place and the resources we will have to allocate for that project.
2021/07/18
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/174731", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/92654/" ]
> > The question is whether there are any specific (non-technical) and > clever questions that can be asked from the real beginning that would > easily reveal if a project is real one, whether the final client is a > real one, and whether they are trying to use our company just to get > the pricing information for any other reason other than actually > purchasing an equipment. > > > There are no magic questions. You could choose not to work with anyone who is the sole employee of their company. That would avoid any back and forth and reduce the amount of research you need to do. That tactic might mean you miss out on some good opportunities. You and your company get to decide what it is worth to research these sorts of possibilities. Perhaps it's worth a week of your time. Perhaps not. That should be a company decision.
When they give you radically wrong numbers and stubbornly resist accepting yours, then there is a red flag regardless of whether or not the project and final client exist.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
Remember it is the first you ride a road bike,the riding position is very different from a MTB bike,road bike position put more pressure on back,you need time to get used to it use more often it should be ok.
That's a too low handlebar! Most road bikes are intended for athletic cyclists with very strong arms. Mere mortals cannot ride on them. Look at the handlebar height. The top of the handlebar should be no more than 2 centimeters below the top of the saddle. If it's lower than that, you have too low handlebar (unless of course you are racing cyclist in which case lower handlebar is ok). Most likely the bike doesn't even have enough stem spacers for raising the stem and the stock stem is probably 6 or 7 degrees. Thus, you need to purchase a new high-rise stem. Maybe 17 degrees turned up will do it, maybe you need 35 degrees. But before that, tilt the stem up and put all spacers below the stem, and look at the height of the handlebar now. Raising handlebar height by a large amount might make the old length adjustment obsolete (if it was correct in the first place, probably wasn't) so you may need to not only buy a first stem with correct handlebar height, but also a second stem with both correct handlebar height and correct stem length (reach). I know that for example a too long stem doesn't cause the problems that too low handlebar causes so the cause of your pain can't be too long stem unless it's off by a massive amount.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
Don’t try to correct reach with the saddle fore-aft position. Only use stem length for that. Moving the saddle forward probably made it worse. Generally the more backwards your saddle is, the easier it gets to ride with your hands “hovering” above the handlebars i.e. the more weight you can take off from your hands, simply by pushing down with your legs. Without good photos it’s hard to tell how good or bad your position actually is. But keep in mind that you’ll always need some time to adapt to a road bike position. Even experienced road cyclists can get sore neck muscles and butt pain after a winter break (on the very same bike they could ride >100km without issues before). On a road bike you should spend most of your time on the hoods, but changing hand positions to the tops or drops occasionally can help.
My process for initial sizing a bike is to: 1. set the saddle height to my preferred distance from the crank, which I remember as 85cm. This is high enough that the leg is almost but not quite straight when at the bottom of the stroke. And the seat post must still have enoknowugh length inside the frame. 2. Most road bikes lack adjustment on the stem, instead requiring replacement. So all I change there is the angle of the handlebars to make the hoods feel "right" It is also possible to use an adjustable stem to find your preferred angle/length, and then buy exactly that one. 3. Then I ride it for a while; at least 10 minutes of steady riding. Your 130 km is ample to decide if the setup is good. Your description of lower back pain suggests you are hunched over too much, with a curved back. Raising the bars by one or more of * Rotate the bars in the stem * Raise the threadless stem on the steerer, which means rearranging spacers and hopefully steerer isn't cut too short, OR * Raise the quill stem by undoing the wedge bolt and raising. Be mindful of the "minimum insertion" lines. Another thing to do is mentally "mock up" where you would prefer the handlebars to be. Stem length and angle interact, because your arm length and elbow angle are also part of the connection and your back does(should) not change in length but your shoulders will follow an arc.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
My process for initial sizing a bike is to: 1. set the saddle height to my preferred distance from the crank, which I remember as 85cm. This is high enough that the leg is almost but not quite straight when at the bottom of the stroke. And the seat post must still have enoknowugh length inside the frame. 2. Most road bikes lack adjustment on the stem, instead requiring replacement. So all I change there is the angle of the handlebars to make the hoods feel "right" It is also possible to use an adjustable stem to find your preferred angle/length, and then buy exactly that one. 3. Then I ride it for a while; at least 10 minutes of steady riding. Your 130 km is ample to decide if the setup is good. Your description of lower back pain suggests you are hunched over too much, with a curved back. Raising the bars by one or more of * Rotate the bars in the stem * Raise the threadless stem on the steerer, which means rearranging spacers and hopefully steerer isn't cut too short, OR * Raise the quill stem by undoing the wedge bolt and raising. Be mindful of the "minimum insertion" lines. Another thing to do is mentally "mock up" where you would prefer the handlebars to be. Stem length and angle interact, because your arm length and elbow angle are also part of the connection and your back does(should) not change in length but your shoulders will follow an arc.
You can adjust your distance to the handlebar by changing the way you hold it. You can vary between somewhat a base of your palm and about 2/3 of the length of your fingers. I think it is about 10 cm so quite noticeable. Changing the position allows longer ride before you get tired just from sitting on a bicycle. Of course, hold the handlebar properly where you need more careful steering. I initially used this trick during my 30 minute ride, and it helped me. After few months of commuting daily I probably got somewhat stronger because I do not longer need to care.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
Don’t try to correct reach with the saddle fore-aft position. Only use stem length for that. Moving the saddle forward probably made it worse. Generally the more backwards your saddle is, the easier it gets to ride with your hands “hovering” above the handlebars i.e. the more weight you can take off from your hands, simply by pushing down with your legs. Without good photos it’s hard to tell how good or bad your position actually is. But keep in mind that you’ll always need some time to adapt to a road bike position. Even experienced road cyclists can get sore neck muscles and butt pain after a winter break (on the very same bike they could ride >100km without issues before). On a road bike you should spend most of your time on the hoods, but changing hand positions to the tops or drops occasionally can help.
If that pain comes after a while off riding most likely there is too much load on your lower back and your arms. *Back* Lower back pain may come from a much lower position in the new bike. Things you may do against it: * Increase bar height by adding spacers and flipping stem. * Tilt your hip forward (anterior pelvic rotation) to avoid a rounded back. Tilting the saddle nose down helps doing that. Some saddles help with it too (Selle SMP). * Strengthen your back with exercises off the bike. Another reason for back pain may be too little reach. To compensate the rider arches their back. * Check if you have to increase reach. A photo from the side will inform you. You might try to stretch out while riding in different positions. Yet another reason is an overstretched neck. If your flexibility is not good enough you might have a compensatory pose that causes pain elsewhere. *Arms* Arm pain may be caused by too much weight on your arms. Ideally you'd be able to put all your weight through your legs and seat and cantilever your upper torso with your hip and shoulder muscles. At this point you should be able to completely unload your arms. This requires you put a lot of power through your pedals to provide enough torque. Alternatively don't pedal, level cranks and almost stand on them. (Like attack position in MTB). Needs also a strong back. What is more, your centre of mass must not be too far forward of the bottom bracket (saddle position). * A weak back makes arm pain worse * A saddle that is too far forward increases arm load considerably. * Hunched shoulders cause all kinds of arm and shoulder pain and may cause chronic injury. Learn how to centre your shoulders (rhomboid muscles engagement). Reaching down to a bar that's too far away (wrong reach or stack) might also trigger this. * Weak arms will hurt however good your make your fit. Strengthen them with exercises off the bike.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
A couple of decades ago I had a problem where my hands would get painful from leaning on the handlebar as I pedaled. Went around in circles for awhile and then I discovered a brand of bike glove with strips of rubber in the palm. The strips were about 1/8" diameter and close together. When you leaned on the bar while wearing the gloves the strips prevented blood flow in the palms from being stopped, making riding much more comfortable. The gloves wore out so I tried another fix. I first wrapped the bar with a single layer of bar tape, then applied about 6 thin strips of silicone caulk to the bar (running parallel to the bar), then, after the caulk set, wrapped things in another layer of bar tape. This worked well and lasted a long time.
Remember it is the first you ride a road bike,the riding position is very different from a MTB bike,road bike position put more pressure on back,you need time to get used to it use more often it should be ok.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
Don’t try to correct reach with the saddle fore-aft position. Only use stem length for that. Moving the saddle forward probably made it worse. Generally the more backwards your saddle is, the easier it gets to ride with your hands “hovering” above the handlebars i.e. the more weight you can take off from your hands, simply by pushing down with your legs. Without good photos it’s hard to tell how good or bad your position actually is. But keep in mind that you’ll always need some time to adapt to a road bike position. Even experienced road cyclists can get sore neck muscles and butt pain after a winter break (on the very same bike they could ride >100km without issues before). On a road bike you should spend most of your time on the hoods, but changing hand positions to the tops or drops occasionally can help.
A couple of decades ago I had a problem where my hands would get painful from leaning on the handlebar as I pedaled. Went around in circles for awhile and then I discovered a brand of bike glove with strips of rubber in the palm. The strips were about 1/8" diameter and close together. When you leaned on the bar while wearing the gloves the strips prevented blood flow in the palms from being stopped, making riding much more comfortable. The gloves wore out so I tried another fix. I first wrapped the bar with a single layer of bar tape, then applied about 6 thin strips of silicone caulk to the bar (running parallel to the bar), then, after the caulk set, wrapped things in another layer of bar tape. This worked well and lasted a long time.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
Lower back pain can also be caused by impact without dampening. Because of higher tire pressure, stiffer and higher frames, no suspension and hard saddles, road bikes pass impacts through to the rider much more direct than other bikes. If that is the case consider a suspended saddle post and a saddle with springs, even if that's a bit anathema to a road bike where weight reduction is a prime design goal.
Remember it is the first you ride a road bike,the riding position is very different from a MTB bike,road bike position put more pressure on back,you need time to get used to it use more often it should be ok.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
My process for initial sizing a bike is to: 1. set the saddle height to my preferred distance from the crank, which I remember as 85cm. This is high enough that the leg is almost but not quite straight when at the bottom of the stroke. And the seat post must still have enoknowugh length inside the frame. 2. Most road bikes lack adjustment on the stem, instead requiring replacement. So all I change there is the angle of the handlebars to make the hoods feel "right" It is also possible to use an adjustable stem to find your preferred angle/length, and then buy exactly that one. 3. Then I ride it for a while; at least 10 minutes of steady riding. Your 130 km is ample to decide if the setup is good. Your description of lower back pain suggests you are hunched over too much, with a curved back. Raising the bars by one or more of * Rotate the bars in the stem * Raise the threadless stem on the steerer, which means rearranging spacers and hopefully steerer isn't cut too short, OR * Raise the quill stem by undoing the wedge bolt and raising. Be mindful of the "minimum insertion" lines. Another thing to do is mentally "mock up" where you would prefer the handlebars to be. Stem length and angle interact, because your arm length and elbow angle are also part of the connection and your back does(should) not change in length but your shoulders will follow an arc.
Go to a professional bike fitter and get set up correctly. DIY bike fitting is like trying to give yourself a haircut.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
You can get great advice here from a talented and experienced group of cyclists. As was mentioned, without images and/or video of your positioning to inspect, it is challenging to make suggestions, but we are still able to do so. We can get you pretty close to optimum, with enough time and input/feedback. That said, if we fail to be able to get you fit to your new road bike, there is another option. A bike fitting from your local bike shop or a bike fitter could go a long way to providing you the best comfort while at the same time setting you up to get maximum efficiency and power out of your new road bike. Remember, you are the engine, and the engine needs to be aligned correctly to optimize the ride, and minimize discomfort/injury. This is a subject where you can ask around your local area for recommendations on bike fitters/bike shops for this. There are good ones and not-so good ones out there.
Lower back pain can also be caused by impact without dampening. Because of higher tire pressure, stiffer and higher frames, no suspension and hard saddles, road bikes pass impacts through to the rider much more direct than other bikes. If that is the case consider a suspended saddle post and a saddle with springs, even if that's a bit anathema to a road bike where weight reduction is a prime design goal.
84,526
I bought my first road bike (from a MTB) about a 2 weeks ago, and I’ve given it 200 kms so far. However, I’ve been experiencing lower back pain and weight on my hands that slowly creep up (sometimes with shoulder and neck pain), and is kind of ruining the fun on my new bike. I’ve set the saddle at the correct height (heel is straight), and I’ve tried moving the saddle forward and a little higher to reduce reach which I believe is hurting my back, but that is just making my hands hurt more. I'm thinking of moving the saddle back which would relieve the pain from the hands, but it would make the back situation worse. Another reason for the pain might be that my body needs time to get used to the forwards leaning position, and that it’d go away after my first 100KM ride with that bike. Does anyone might know why I feel this pain - or is it just a beginner’s sore?
2022/06/24
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/84526", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/65584/" ]
You can get great advice here from a talented and experienced group of cyclists. As was mentioned, without images and/or video of your positioning to inspect, it is challenging to make suggestions, but we are still able to do so. We can get you pretty close to optimum, with enough time and input/feedback. That said, if we fail to be able to get you fit to your new road bike, there is another option. A bike fitting from your local bike shop or a bike fitter could go a long way to providing you the best comfort while at the same time setting you up to get maximum efficiency and power out of your new road bike. Remember, you are the engine, and the engine needs to be aligned correctly to optimize the ride, and minimize discomfort/injury. This is a subject where you can ask around your local area for recommendations on bike fitters/bike shops for this. There are good ones and not-so good ones out there.
If that pain comes after a while off riding most likely there is too much load on your lower back and your arms. *Back* Lower back pain may come from a much lower position in the new bike. Things you may do against it: * Increase bar height by adding spacers and flipping stem. * Tilt your hip forward (anterior pelvic rotation) to avoid a rounded back. Tilting the saddle nose down helps doing that. Some saddles help with it too (Selle SMP). * Strengthen your back with exercises off the bike. Another reason for back pain may be too little reach. To compensate the rider arches their back. * Check if you have to increase reach. A photo from the side will inform you. You might try to stretch out while riding in different positions. Yet another reason is an overstretched neck. If your flexibility is not good enough you might have a compensatory pose that causes pain elsewhere. *Arms* Arm pain may be caused by too much weight on your arms. Ideally you'd be able to put all your weight through your legs and seat and cantilever your upper torso with your hip and shoulder muscles. At this point you should be able to completely unload your arms. This requires you put a lot of power through your pedals to provide enough torque. Alternatively don't pedal, level cranks and almost stand on them. (Like attack position in MTB). Needs also a strong back. What is more, your centre of mass must not be too far forward of the bottom bracket (saddle position). * A weak back makes arm pain worse * A saddle that is too far forward increases arm load considerably. * Hunched shoulders cause all kinds of arm and shoulder pain and may cause chronic injury. Learn how to centre your shoulders (rhomboid muscles engagement). Reaching down to a bar that's too far away (wrong reach or stack) might also trigger this. * Weak arms will hurt however good your make your fit. Strengthen them with exercises off the bike.
25,095,870
I have been facing the "Unable to validate Weblogic domain" issue from OEPE for last 2 days. I have tried (a) downloading and installing different versions of OEPE ; (b) Using Eclipse and Oracle Weblogic separately ; outside of OEPE etc It used to work previously and then one day last week, my system shut down unexpectedly and since then I am not able to get Eclipse (irrespective of version) and Weblogic to work together. I have moved on to using Jboss for the time being. But since my production environment is Weblogic and I would like to use Weblogic for development purposes as well, I am trying to get this issue resolved. I did search the Oracle and other communities and somebody mentioned its because of difference in java version and to add -Dsun.lang.ClassLoader.allowArraySyntax=true in eclipse.ini. My eclipse.ini already has this statement and I still face the issue.Please help.
2014/08/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25095870", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3594089/" ]
Iam not the person who answers this question. But the comment above is the answer for this question and it worked for me too. Below is the solution. *I finally got the resolution for this issue. Actually the full credit goes to my colleague, who resolved this bugging bug. Since it drove me crazy, decided that I would spare others from the same experience First of all, there were no errors in any of the logs. Server was starting up but Eclipse did not recognize it as such. And here is the resolution : Go to Window Tab -> Preferences -> General -> Network Connections Change the Active provider to "Direct". The default is usually Native. and that's it. Close and restart eclipse.*
It happened to me as well, I even reinstalled weblogic again, after a bit of research I decided to kill the Java(TM) Platform SE Binary process via Task Manager and restarted the Server. That's all It took to resolve the issue.
2,130
I've got monitoring setup on several devices in our office. The ping response time to small access switches is commonly 1-4ms... As of 3AM this morning, this has sky-rocketed to 300ms on average. Where does one start looking in a situation like this? What things can I observe in the switch to find the source of latency? NOTE: It's not load related.. all the links bandwidth usage is normal and unaffected, most links are very under utilized. Also - monitoring is local to the devices reporting the latency so there is no WAN factor here.
2013/06/27
[ "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2130", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1353/" ]
First, latency isn't directly tied to bandwidth. There are many reasons why a device would delay a packet other than a congested link. Have you attempted a traceroute? This will show you the latency between hops, if you're looking for a L3 boundary as a suspect. You might also check to see if any of the devices in the path have a significant usage of CPU/RAM.
I use cacti to monitor bandwidth, and openNMS to monitor latency. If you are monitoring all the devices linked to this switch you may see a corollary between usage and the latency. (i know you said it is not a bandwidth issue, but you never now) I have seen lower-end switches sag under heavy usage, which causes a lot of latency. Do you have any "dumb" devices feeding this switch that may be the source of the sag even though this switch is not passing much traffic. Also with cacti you may be able to poll the CPU usage, and you may see a spike at the time of the latency. As mentioned above, MTR or neotrace are also useful to keep an eye on the situation and you may see where the latency starts, which may not be this switch itself.
2,130
I've got monitoring setup on several devices in our office. The ping response time to small access switches is commonly 1-4ms... As of 3AM this morning, this has sky-rocketed to 300ms on average. Where does one start looking in a situation like this? What things can I observe in the switch to find the source of latency? NOTE: It's not load related.. all the links bandwidth usage is normal and unaffected, most links are very under utilized. Also - monitoring is local to the devices reporting the latency so there is no WAN factor here.
2013/06/27
[ "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2130", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1353/" ]
First, latency isn't directly tied to bandwidth. There are many reasons why a device would delay a packet other than a congested link. Have you attempted a traceroute? This will show you the latency between hops, if you're looking for a L3 boundary as a suspect. You might also check to see if any of the devices in the path have a significant usage of CPU/RAM.
if this is just based on the LAN, there's a few things you can do to start off to try and find out what is causing this: * **Show process cpu history** command: if the CPU usage is very high, then you need to see which process is causing this and perhaps hit google with the offending process. * **show debug** command: a common cause I've found is people leaving debug commands running on the switch. A common favourite was IP accounting being left on devices that were already over-utilized. Use "undebug all" to get rid of the debugs. * **Give it a reboot**: probably not possibly during the day, but use the "reload in" command to time it at night or over the weekend. You'd be surprised how many issues a quick reboot can fix. * **shut trunk ports** - If its a L3 switch, another common issue I've seen is too much traffic using this device for routing between VLANs. If possible, temporarily shut some of the trunk ports to see if this reduces the latency. Its good to be aware that your pings are low priority, in regards to latency and also when being processed by the CPU. Might also be a good idea to double check your QoS settings and make sure there's no silly mistakes causing this, as much as that is unlikely.
2,130
I've got monitoring setup on several devices in our office. The ping response time to small access switches is commonly 1-4ms... As of 3AM this morning, this has sky-rocketed to 300ms on average. Where does one start looking in a situation like this? What things can I observe in the switch to find the source of latency? NOTE: It's not load related.. all the links bandwidth usage is normal and unaffected, most links are very under utilized. Also - monitoring is local to the devices reporting the latency so there is no WAN factor here.
2013/06/27
[ "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2130", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1353/" ]
First, latency isn't directly tied to bandwidth. There are many reasons why a device would delay a packet other than a congested link. Have you attempted a traceroute? This will show you the latency between hops, if you're looking for a L3 boundary as a suspect. You might also check to see if any of the devices in the path have a significant usage of CPU/RAM.
If this is not happening on LAN, you could limit the "wan port" throghtput, this will force a better TDM. Try something arround 80% of your maximun throughput and see if it helps. You may need to tweek depending the amount of terminals.
2,130
I've got monitoring setup on several devices in our office. The ping response time to small access switches is commonly 1-4ms... As of 3AM this morning, this has sky-rocketed to 300ms on average. Where does one start looking in a situation like this? What things can I observe in the switch to find the source of latency? NOTE: It's not load related.. all the links bandwidth usage is normal and unaffected, most links are very under utilized. Also - monitoring is local to the devices reporting the latency so there is no WAN factor here.
2013/06/27
[ "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2130", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1353/" ]
I use cacti to monitor bandwidth, and openNMS to monitor latency. If you are monitoring all the devices linked to this switch you may see a corollary between usage and the latency. (i know you said it is not a bandwidth issue, but you never now) I have seen lower-end switches sag under heavy usage, which causes a lot of latency. Do you have any "dumb" devices feeding this switch that may be the source of the sag even though this switch is not passing much traffic. Also with cacti you may be able to poll the CPU usage, and you may see a spike at the time of the latency. As mentioned above, MTR or neotrace are also useful to keep an eye on the situation and you may see where the latency starts, which may not be this switch itself.
If this is not happening on LAN, you could limit the "wan port" throghtput, this will force a better TDM. Try something arround 80% of your maximun throughput and see if it helps. You may need to tweek depending the amount of terminals.
2,130
I've got monitoring setup on several devices in our office. The ping response time to small access switches is commonly 1-4ms... As of 3AM this morning, this has sky-rocketed to 300ms on average. Where does one start looking in a situation like this? What things can I observe in the switch to find the source of latency? NOTE: It's not load related.. all the links bandwidth usage is normal and unaffected, most links are very under utilized. Also - monitoring is local to the devices reporting the latency so there is no WAN factor here.
2013/06/27
[ "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2130", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1353/" ]
if this is just based on the LAN, there's a few things you can do to start off to try and find out what is causing this: * **Show process cpu history** command: if the CPU usage is very high, then you need to see which process is causing this and perhaps hit google with the offending process. * **show debug** command: a common cause I've found is people leaving debug commands running on the switch. A common favourite was IP accounting being left on devices that were already over-utilized. Use "undebug all" to get rid of the debugs. * **Give it a reboot**: probably not possibly during the day, but use the "reload in" command to time it at night or over the weekend. You'd be surprised how many issues a quick reboot can fix. * **shut trunk ports** - If its a L3 switch, another common issue I've seen is too much traffic using this device for routing between VLANs. If possible, temporarily shut some of the trunk ports to see if this reduces the latency. Its good to be aware that your pings are low priority, in regards to latency and also when being processed by the CPU. Might also be a good idea to double check your QoS settings and make sure there's no silly mistakes causing this, as much as that is unlikely.
If this is not happening on LAN, you could limit the "wan port" throghtput, this will force a better TDM. Try something arround 80% of your maximun throughput and see if it helps. You may need to tweek depending the amount of terminals.
4,875
I run a Usability/UX blog, and my biggest hurdle right now is finding examples to illustrate the topics I write about (bad error messages, good implementation of tabs, bad interactions...etc) So is there a website that has, for example, a database of categorized/tagged interface screenshots from various web sites on the web?
2010/01/29
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/4875", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
These are the pattern repositories I find myself referring to most often: * [Designing Interfaces](http://designinginterfaces.com/) * [Yahoo! Design Pattern Library](http://developer.yahoo.com/ypatterns/) * [Quince: UX Patterns Explorer](http://quince.infragistics.com/) * [Pattern Tap](http://patterntap.com/) * [UI Patterns](http://ui-patterns.com/) * [Welie Interaction Design Pattern Library](http://www.welie.com/patterns/) * [Designing Social Interfaces Wiki](http://www.designingsocialinterfaces.com/patterns.wiki/index.php?title=Main%5FPage) It's also worth having a look at various operating system interface guidelines for inspiration: * [Apple Human Interface Guidelines](http://developer.apple.com/Mac/library/documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/AppleHIGuidelines/XHIGIntro/XHIGIntro.html) * [Windows User Experience Interaction Guidelines](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511258.aspx) * [GNOME Human Interface Guidelines](http://library.gnome.org/devel/hig-book/stable/) Finally, if you're looking for some good books on the subject, the O'Reilly "Designing Interfaces" series is a great collection of pattern libraries: * [Designing Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596008031/) * [Designing Web Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596516253/) * [Designing Social Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596154936/) * [Designing Gestural Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596518394/) There quite a few more design pattern resources out there, but these are the resources that I've found to be the most useful.
Check this one too : [25 UI Inspiration and Design Pattern Resources by speckyboy](http://speckyboy.com/2010/02/01/25-ui-inspiration-and-design-pattern-resources/)
4,875
I run a Usability/UX blog, and my biggest hurdle right now is finding examples to illustrate the topics I write about (bad error messages, good implementation of tabs, bad interactions...etc) So is there a website that has, for example, a database of categorized/tagged interface screenshots from various web sites on the web?
2010/01/29
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/4875", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
These are the pattern repositories I find myself referring to most often: * [Designing Interfaces](http://designinginterfaces.com/) * [Yahoo! Design Pattern Library](http://developer.yahoo.com/ypatterns/) * [Quince: UX Patterns Explorer](http://quince.infragistics.com/) * [Pattern Tap](http://patterntap.com/) * [UI Patterns](http://ui-patterns.com/) * [Welie Interaction Design Pattern Library](http://www.welie.com/patterns/) * [Designing Social Interfaces Wiki](http://www.designingsocialinterfaces.com/patterns.wiki/index.php?title=Main%5FPage) It's also worth having a look at various operating system interface guidelines for inspiration: * [Apple Human Interface Guidelines](http://developer.apple.com/Mac/library/documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/AppleHIGuidelines/XHIGIntro/XHIGIntro.html) * [Windows User Experience Interaction Guidelines](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511258.aspx) * [GNOME Human Interface Guidelines](http://library.gnome.org/devel/hig-book/stable/) Finally, if you're looking for some good books on the subject, the O'Reilly "Designing Interfaces" series is a great collection of pattern libraries: * [Designing Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596008031/) * [Designing Web Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596516253/) * [Designing Social Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596154936/) * [Designing Gestural Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596518394/) There quite a few more design pattern resources out there, but these are the resources that I've found to be the most useful.
I'm sure there are plenty more, but my favorite resource for this type of data is [Pattern Tap](http://patterntap.com/).
4,875
I run a Usability/UX blog, and my biggest hurdle right now is finding examples to illustrate the topics I write about (bad error messages, good implementation of tabs, bad interactions...etc) So is there a website that has, for example, a database of categorized/tagged interface screenshots from various web sites on the web?
2010/01/29
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/4875", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
These are the pattern repositories I find myself referring to most often: * [Designing Interfaces](http://designinginterfaces.com/) * [Yahoo! Design Pattern Library](http://developer.yahoo.com/ypatterns/) * [Quince: UX Patterns Explorer](http://quince.infragistics.com/) * [Pattern Tap](http://patterntap.com/) * [UI Patterns](http://ui-patterns.com/) * [Welie Interaction Design Pattern Library](http://www.welie.com/patterns/) * [Designing Social Interfaces Wiki](http://www.designingsocialinterfaces.com/patterns.wiki/index.php?title=Main%5FPage) It's also worth having a look at various operating system interface guidelines for inspiration: * [Apple Human Interface Guidelines](http://developer.apple.com/Mac/library/documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/AppleHIGuidelines/XHIGIntro/XHIGIntro.html) * [Windows User Experience Interaction Guidelines](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511258.aspx) * [GNOME Human Interface Guidelines](http://library.gnome.org/devel/hig-book/stable/) Finally, if you're looking for some good books on the subject, the O'Reilly "Designing Interfaces" series is a great collection of pattern libraries: * [Designing Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596008031/) * [Designing Web Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596516253/) * [Designing Social Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596154936/) * [Designing Gestural Interfaces](http://oreilly.com/catalog/9780596518394/) There quite a few more design pattern resources out there, but these are the resources that I've found to be the most useful.
You asked for examples of good and bad web elements of various kinds. Here are some resources from which you can draw examples, screenshots, ideas of sites to look at, etc., on which to make ux-specific commentary: * [Time Magazine's 5 Worst Websites](http://www.time.com/time/specials/2007/article/0,28804,1638344%5F1638341,00.html) * [Time Magazine's 50 Best Websites 2009](http://www.time.com/time/specials/packages/article/0,28804,1918031%5F1918016,00.html) * [Top 10 Worst Websites You'll Wish you Hadn't seen](http://www.blogstorm.co.uk/top-10-worst-websites/) * [Web Pages That Suck](http://www.webpagesthatsuck.com/worst-business-web-sites-of-2009-but-you-can-learn-something-from-them.html#axzz0e7smhIXD) ('Worst of' by year, from 2005-2009) * [The World's Worst Website](http://www.angelfire.com/super/badwebs/)
4,875
I run a Usability/UX blog, and my biggest hurdle right now is finding examples to illustrate the topics I write about (bad error messages, good implementation of tabs, bad interactions...etc) So is there a website that has, for example, a database of categorized/tagged interface screenshots from various web sites on the web?
2010/01/29
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/4875", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
You asked for examples of good and bad web elements of various kinds. Here are some resources from which you can draw examples, screenshots, ideas of sites to look at, etc., on which to make ux-specific commentary: * [Time Magazine's 5 Worst Websites](http://www.time.com/time/specials/2007/article/0,28804,1638344%5F1638341,00.html) * [Time Magazine's 50 Best Websites 2009](http://www.time.com/time/specials/packages/article/0,28804,1918031%5F1918016,00.html) * [Top 10 Worst Websites You'll Wish you Hadn't seen](http://www.blogstorm.co.uk/top-10-worst-websites/) * [Web Pages That Suck](http://www.webpagesthatsuck.com/worst-business-web-sites-of-2009-but-you-can-learn-something-from-them.html#axzz0e7smhIXD) ('Worst of' by year, from 2005-2009) * [The World's Worst Website](http://www.angelfire.com/super/badwebs/)
I'm sure there are plenty more, but my favorite resource for this type of data is [Pattern Tap](http://patterntap.com/).