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22,153 | Being an electrical engineer, I'm hoping someone will help me double-check my math. I have a small circuit that I want to power for years that consumes an average 10uA at 3V.
I'd like to power this circuit from a small water turbine with a magnetic coupling that can sustain at most 1 oz-in of torque before slipping.
If the turbine runs 1hr/day at 100rpms (and 1 oz-in of torque), and assuming the generator and regulation circuit run at 100% efficiency, could it power that circuit. I think it's close. | 2018/06/09 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/22153",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/7015/"
] | The main problem is the extremely peaky load. Your gas tank stores power for a week, batteries store power for days, and can be charged off peak. OLEs deliver on demand, and that sort of power is expensive to dispatch compared to more balanced loads. You really need to look at what this sort of recharging infrastructure consists of. How many combined cycle gas turbine peaker plants would you need to build to supply Munich, say? Maybe six of [these](https://www.ge.com/content/dam/gepower/global/en_US/images/h-class/Haveli%20COD.jpg) would do.
On a slightly brighter note, there are some limited uses that have been looked at. For longer distances, an intermittent charge-on-the-go system that dump charges supercaps which then discharge to batteries can reduce vehicle weight and improve the versatility of electric vehicles. Using intelligent vehicles to plan routes and use the resources evenly can help. Recharging on straightish uphill segments would be a good exploit. | Batteries are limited and can explode, short or need service vs while wires do not. The best batteries can only charge about 3000 times before they are depleted. Problems in the wire can be viewed easily vs where a battery has to be tested. |
22,153 | Being an electrical engineer, I'm hoping someone will help me double-check my math. I have a small circuit that I want to power for years that consumes an average 10uA at 3V.
I'd like to power this circuit from a small water turbine with a magnetic coupling that can sustain at most 1 oz-in of torque before slipping.
If the turbine runs 1hr/day at 100rpms (and 1 oz-in of torque), and assuming the generator and regulation circuit run at 100% efficiency, could it power that circuit. I think it's close. | 2018/06/09 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/22153",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/7015/"
] | One thing about using overhead trolley wires to power vehicles is traffic congestion.
I can remember riding on trolley buses when I was very young & if a trolley bus had to pull over at a bus stop to drop off or pick up passengers it blocked the vehicles behind it. All vehicles behind it had to wait until the bus moved again.
Any vehicle connected to an overhead trolley wire, whether it be bus or car, has restricted movement. It cannot deviate significantly from the line of the overhead trolley wire.
Currently, if something is blocking the path of a self powered vehicle whether it be a combustion engine of a battery the vehicle can go around the obstacle. But vehicles powered by an overhead trolley wire cannot move around. They have to stay where they are until the obstacle is removed. | Batteries are limited and can explode, short or need service vs while wires do not. The best batteries can only charge about 3000 times before they are depleted. Problems in the wire can be viewed easily vs where a battery has to be tested. |
22,153 | Being an electrical engineer, I'm hoping someone will help me double-check my math. I have a small circuit that I want to power for years that consumes an average 10uA at 3V.
I'd like to power this circuit from a small water turbine with a magnetic coupling that can sustain at most 1 oz-in of torque before slipping.
If the turbine runs 1hr/day at 100rpms (and 1 oz-in of torque), and assuming the generator and regulation circuit run at 100% efficiency, could it power that circuit. I think it's close. | 2018/06/09 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/22153",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/7015/"
] | The main problem is the extremely peaky load. Your gas tank stores power for a week, batteries store power for days, and can be charged off peak. OLEs deliver on demand, and that sort of power is expensive to dispatch compared to more balanced loads. You really need to look at what this sort of recharging infrastructure consists of. How many combined cycle gas turbine peaker plants would you need to build to supply Munich, say? Maybe six of [these](https://www.ge.com/content/dam/gepower/global/en_US/images/h-class/Haveli%20COD.jpg) would do.
On a slightly brighter note, there are some limited uses that have been looked at. For longer distances, an intermittent charge-on-the-go system that dump charges supercaps which then discharge to batteries can reduce vehicle weight and improve the versatility of electric vehicles. Using intelligent vehicles to plan routes and use the resources evenly can help. Recharging on straightish uphill segments would be a good exploit. | One thing about using overhead trolley wires to power vehicles is traffic congestion.
I can remember riding on trolley buses when I was very young & if a trolley bus had to pull over at a bus stop to drop off or pick up passengers it blocked the vehicles behind it. All vehicles behind it had to wait until the bus moved again.
Any vehicle connected to an overhead trolley wire, whether it be bus or car, has restricted movement. It cannot deviate significantly from the line of the overhead trolley wire.
Currently, if something is blocking the path of a self powered vehicle whether it be a combustion engine of a battery the vehicle can go around the obstacle. But vehicles powered by an overhead trolley wire cannot move around. They have to stay where they are until the obstacle is removed. |
6,178,501 | I have to send some text-information from the webserver to the users. Unfortunately, this text have to be destroyed (which means access to the information should be deny) after 7 days. So one idea is to create an pdf with an "expiration date" inside, in order to get an file which is unable to open, after the 7. day.
Is this possible with PHP?
But how to start?
I don't need an solution which is 100% safe. The responsibility will be transferred to the user, if he goes an forbidden way to safe, copy or manipulate this document. I hope to find a way, to make the content unreadable (even it is (only) the first impression). But it looks like, there will be no way. | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6178501",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/644817/"
] | Once the PDF is generated, it cannot be "destroyed". There's no support in PDF for "do not open after 7 days", and such support is ENTIRELY dependent on the pdf viewer app honoring it. Nothing says the user can't reset their system clock back to a date/time that would fall within the PDF's viewing limit anyways.
PDF's (in)security flags are limited to encrypting the document so it can't be edited, and some flags to SUGGEST to the pd viewer that printing, screen reading, or text scraping should be forbidden. But they're just SUGGESTIONS and the PDF viewer is free to interpret/ignore them any way it wants.
Ultimately, this security "system" would be useless and trivially bypassed. And since it's browser-based, there is absolutely nothing you can do to control the remote user's machine to prevent the data from being downloaded/cached/saved in some form. | Content expiration is really an impossible problem. You can create some page that will be cleared after 7 days, but can't prevent people to copy the content to some other place.
All existing 'solutions' to this problem depend on [Security through Obscurity](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_through_obscurity). Which means people won't be able to get around your 'security' because they don't know how it works, and not because it is secure by nature. |
6,178,501 | I have to send some text-information from the webserver to the users. Unfortunately, this text have to be destroyed (which means access to the information should be deny) after 7 days. So one idea is to create an pdf with an "expiration date" inside, in order to get an file which is unable to open, after the 7. day.
Is this possible with PHP?
But how to start?
I don't need an solution which is 100% safe. The responsibility will be transferred to the user, if he goes an forbidden way to safe, copy or manipulate this document. I hope to find a way, to make the content unreadable (even it is (only) the first impression). But it looks like, there will be no way. | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6178501",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/644817/"
] | Once the PDF is generated, it cannot be "destroyed". There's no support in PDF for "do not open after 7 days", and such support is ENTIRELY dependent on the pdf viewer app honoring it. Nothing says the user can't reset their system clock back to a date/time that would fall within the PDF's viewing limit anyways.
PDF's (in)security flags are limited to encrypting the document so it can't be edited, and some flags to SUGGEST to the pd viewer that printing, screen reading, or text scraping should be forbidden. But they're just SUGGESTIONS and the PDF viewer is free to interpret/ignore them any way it wants.
Ultimately, this security "system" would be useless and trivially bypassed. And since it's browser-based, there is absolutely nothing you can do to control the remote user's machine to prevent the data from being downloaded/cached/saved in some form. | You can put the contents in a hidden form field. You can then add a JavaScript PDF action for the document open event so that the Javascript script will check the date and display the form field. This will work only if the end-user is using Adobe Reader. I am not sure whether there are other PDF viewer that support Adobe PDF Javascript.
This kind of security is a bit amateurish. As mentioned by another repsonder, the end-user can change the system date and the bypass the security measure.
If the JavaScript can obtain from a https webserver with a digital certificate, then perhaps this will work. |
26,994 | So, I went to build a game today in a .exe, and when I build it, it doesn't show the whole viewport as it does in the unity engine itself. So the game is cut off. It does this no matter what I do.
What I see in Unity:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vl1aC.png)
What I get running the exe:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tCufB.jpg)
Anyone know what's causing this? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/26994",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/12281/"
] | You are using "Free Aspect" for screen ratio in your game view, which essentially makes it as big as it can be. Go to "Edit->Project Settings->Player" and you should see a "Resolution and Presentation"-tag. Now select the "PC and Mac Standalone"-option and input the resolution you are planning to test it on. Then change the "Free Aspect" in the editor to "Standalone". This changes the Editor's gameview to the given resolution. | The problem is that the screen ratio you see in Unity's environment depends on the size of the viewport, not the game's final resolution or ratio. If you want your game to be in widescreen you need to limit your screen resolution to 16:9 or 16:10 ratios. If I remember it correctly, it is one of the build options.
To test your game using those resolutions from Unity's environment, enable the "Maximize on play" button in your Game viewport. |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | The plumber you had out kind of left you hanging. He should have put a camera down there to give you more details on what is going on.
Basically your septic tank is backing up or you have an issue with the main line. It could be slight collapsed or pinched or have roots growing in it or whatever.
So your first step is to have someone come out with a camera to tell you what the issue is. For something ongoing though like this I am guessing you have a pretty big job so brace for the worst. From your symptoms I am going to guess you have an old clay main line that is broken/collapsed. To replace this it involved a lot of jackhammering, digging and moving concrete. | try muriatic acid but be careful |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | The plumber you had out kind of left you hanging. He should have put a camera down there to give you more details on what is going on.
Basically your septic tank is backing up or you have an issue with the main line. It could be slight collapsed or pinched or have roots growing in it or whatever.
So your first step is to have someone come out with a camera to tell you what the issue is. For something ongoing though like this I am guessing you have a pretty big job so brace for the worst. From your symptoms I am going to guess you have an old clay main line that is broken/collapsed. To replace this it involved a lot of jackhammering, digging and moving concrete. | Turn off the water and dry the area where water is leaking out. Use some of the blue pvc cement made for plumbers. It's seals plastics/rubbers together well enough support over 200 psi. I had to use it plenty of times for my hydroponics setup for leaks. I use Rain-R-Shine PVC cement...just wear a mask, it's extremely volatile, but it's workable in 15 minutes, fully cured in 2 hours. Also, don't be afraid to use a wrench to get the can open...ours always seals itself closed. |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | The plumber you had out kind of left you hanging. He should have put a camera down there to give you more details on what is going on.
Basically your septic tank is backing up or you have an issue with the main line. It could be slight collapsed or pinched or have roots growing in it or whatever.
So your first step is to have someone come out with a camera to tell you what the issue is. For something ongoing though like this I am guessing you have a pretty big job so brace for the worst. From your symptoms I am going to guess you have an old clay main line that is broken/collapsed. To replace this it involved a lot of jackhammering, digging and moving concrete. | After a plumber cleans the line very well, run some water and verify it flows well. After running water for a few minutes shut it off and see if the water remains in the pipe. I have a hunch that your main line does not have enough slope to efficiently flush particles from the line. |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | Turn off the water and dry the area where water is leaking out. Use some of the blue pvc cement made for plumbers. It's seals plastics/rubbers together well enough support over 200 psi. I had to use it plenty of times for my hydroponics setup for leaks. I use Rain-R-Shine PVC cement...just wear a mask, it's extremely volatile, but it's workable in 15 minutes, fully cured in 2 hours. Also, don't be afraid to use a wrench to get the can open...ours always seals itself closed. | try muriatic acid but be careful |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | After a plumber cleans the line very well, run some water and verify it flows well. After running water for a few minutes shut it off and see if the water remains in the pipe. I have a hunch that your main line does not have enough slope to efficiently flush particles from the line. | try muriatic acid but be careful |
43,877 | In my basement laundry room is (to my knowledge) the only drain pipe in the whole basement, which hooks into the end of the main line as it exits the house and heads to the septic tank. When we moved in a year ago the drain was loosely plugged by an expanding ring cap. Never having owned a house before I didn't think much of it, but soon enough I learned what it was and why it was there, when a liter or so of black sludge backed up and forced the cap off and nearly ruined the carpet outside the room. Needless to say the smell was horrid. We cleaned it up as best we could and I snaked it five times (and two more from a toilet downstream [installed right onto the main drain line]), but nothing was draining, so we called a plumber.
The plumber took a much larger snake to it and eventually got it flowing again (after ripping out the toilet and snaking it from both directions) but couldn't identify the source of the clog. Meanwhile all the material that was coming up looked like mostly-decomposed food (though nothing we actually eat strangely enough) mixed with the sludge. We also noticed that running any water in the house except the aforementioned toilet caused the sludge level to rise in the drain.
Now the kicker - despite flushing the drain out with buckets of water every few days, a year later it has happened again. We took the same actions to clear it up, but still have no idea what the source is or how to fix it.
The drain itself smells awful, and has since day one (they had it masked with an air freshener when we moved in) so I'm sure it's an ongoing problem, but I'm clueless how to fix it without literally ripping up the basement to replace the pipe.
Can anyone offer advice on how to solve this issue or at least theorize on what the cause is? | 2014/06/10 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/43877",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23013/"
] | Turn off the water and dry the area where water is leaking out. Use some of the blue pvc cement made for plumbers. It's seals plastics/rubbers together well enough support over 200 psi. I had to use it plenty of times for my hydroponics setup for leaks. I use Rain-R-Shine PVC cement...just wear a mask, it's extremely volatile, but it's workable in 15 minutes, fully cured in 2 hours. Also, don't be afraid to use a wrench to get the can open...ours always seals itself closed. | After a plumber cleans the line very well, run some water and verify it flows well. After running water for a few minutes shut it off and see if the water remains in the pipe. I have a hunch that your main line does not have enough slope to efficiently flush particles from the line. |
9,513 | Which one of these two sentences is correct? and why?
>
> 1. "Many companies judge students **based** on their teachers' references"
> 2. "Many companies judge students **basing** on their teachers' references"
>
>
>
I'm an Italian native speaker so the second one sounds correct to me, but looking on internet I found that probably the first one is correct. So I would like someone to help me to solve this doubt.
Thank you in advance :) | 2013/08/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/9513",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/2427/"
] | *Base* is a [transitive verb](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transitive_verb): *base something on something*. The sentence is essentially equivalent to “Many companies base their judgement of students on their teachers' references”. Cast in the [passive voice](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_voice), this becomes (decidedly unidiomatically) “The judgement of students by many companies is based on their teachers' references”. We can expand this to “Many companies judge students in a certain way; that way is based on their teachers' references”. As this is rather clumsy, the sentence is condensed to “Many companies judge students based on their teachers' references”.
The past participle is used as an adjective. Its meaning is related to a the use of the past participle in the passive voice: it qualifies what is based (the judgement), not who is basing (the companies). Here is a slightly artificial sentence that illustrates the use of a participle phrase with a present participle, with an active meaning:
>
> Many companies evaluate students, basing their judgment on their teachers' references.
>
>
> | It's "Many companies judge students based on their teachers' references," because you don't have any tense confusion. The companies are judging the students because of the references their teachers wrote, so the companies are making their decisions something that happened in the past. "Basing" is present tense, based, however, is past. |
209,492 | I have downloaded a few world record time trial ghosts. In them (as expected) they take corners perfectly, execute shortcuts precisely and generally fly around the map ridiculously quickly.
But it seems that a key part of the strategy is to constantly jump and turn (even on straights). Whenever I have tried this it has resulted in me slowing down or turning off course.
What is the technique to doing this? How does this actually cause the karts to go so fast? | 2015/03/11 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/209492",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/99541/"
] | When you boost, touching the ground slows you down to normal speed pretty fast. Jumping helps you prolong the effect from the boosting, by slowing you down only when you touch the ground between jumps. | Just like in real life, the speed of your cart is detrimened by the amount of frictin you have. this means that on the ground you wiil be slower because, of course, friction on the ground is higher than in the air. therefore you should jump the f\*ck up!! :) |
209,492 | I have downloaded a few world record time trial ghosts. In them (as expected) they take corners perfectly, execute shortcuts precisely and generally fly around the map ridiculously quickly.
But it seems that a key part of the strategy is to constantly jump and turn (even on straights). Whenever I have tried this it has resulted in me slowing down or turning off course.
What is the technique to doing this? How does this actually cause the karts to go so fast? | 2015/03/11 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/209492",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/99541/"
] | These players are utilizing a technique that's been dubbed as "fire hopping" or "frogging". This technique allows players to prolong a speed boost by hopping. This happens because players lose boost speed faster when in contact with the ground than in the air.
All vehicles are capable of fire hopping, except for sports bikes, because of their unique drift hop style.
Some players consider this technique to be an exploit, as it doesn't appear to be intended by the developers, but others do not. You can read more about it (and view it in action) in [this Kotaku article](http://kotaku.com/mario-kart-has-a-new-controversial-technique-1585596362).
Drifting or turning on straightaways is not beneficial in MK8 (although [it was in MK:DS](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3388/mario-kart-ds-how-do-i-beat-staff-ghosts)), but players will often begin drifting into a turn before they actually reach that turn. This is to build up a boost faster and to cut the turn as close as possible. | When you boost, touching the ground slows you down to normal speed pretty fast. Jumping helps you prolong the effect from the boosting, by slowing you down only when you touch the ground between jumps. |
209,492 | I have downloaded a few world record time trial ghosts. In them (as expected) they take corners perfectly, execute shortcuts precisely and generally fly around the map ridiculously quickly.
But it seems that a key part of the strategy is to constantly jump and turn (even on straights). Whenever I have tried this it has resulted in me slowing down or turning off course.
What is the technique to doing this? How does this actually cause the karts to go so fast? | 2015/03/11 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/209492",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/99541/"
] | These players are utilizing a technique that's been dubbed as "fire hopping" or "frogging". This technique allows players to prolong a speed boost by hopping. This happens because players lose boost speed faster when in contact with the ground than in the air.
All vehicles are capable of fire hopping, except for sports bikes, because of their unique drift hop style.
Some players consider this technique to be an exploit, as it doesn't appear to be intended by the developers, but others do not. You can read more about it (and view it in action) in [this Kotaku article](http://kotaku.com/mario-kart-has-a-new-controversial-technique-1585596362).
Drifting or turning on straightaways is not beneficial in MK8 (although [it was in MK:DS](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3388/mario-kart-ds-how-do-i-beat-staff-ghosts)), but players will often begin drifting into a turn before they actually reach that turn. This is to build up a boost faster and to cut the turn as close as possible. | Just like in real life, the speed of your cart is detrimened by the amount of frictin you have. this means that on the ground you wiil be slower because, of course, friction on the ground is higher than in the air. therefore you should jump the f\*ck up!! :) |
161,261 | To [have a beef with somebody/something](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/have+a+beef+with) means:.
>
> * to think someone or something should be changed.
>
>
> + *I've got nothing against advertising, but I do have a beef with how many bad ads there are on TV.* (Cambridge Dictionary)
>
>
>
Is it more British or US in usage? But mostly, where does this "beef" come from? | 2014/04/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/161261",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | OED doesn't have much in the way of definite data:
>
> *noun*
>
> **4.** A protest, (ground for) complaint, grievance. *slang* (orig. *U.S.*). Cf. **beef v. 4.**
>
>
>
> >
> > 1900 G. Ade *Fables in Slang* 80 He made a Horrible Beef because he couldn't get Loaf Sugar for his Coffee.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> *verb*
>
> **4.** *intr.* To complain, grumble, protest. *slang* (orig. *U.S.*).
>
>
>
> >
> > 1888 *N.Y. World* 13 May (Farmer), He'll beef an' kick like a steer an' let on he won't never wear 'em.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
It would appear that cattle were known for being ornery and not afraid to complain about something they didn't like, and the term *beef* migrated to have that meaning. | Since the term is slang, and pretty modern, it's unlikely that there is anything written about the etymology of "beef".
Based on the limited information out there, it seems to have arisen from gang, street, or rap cultures in the United States. Most commonly it is used as a term for a fight, to start a fight, to have a cause for a fight, etc. As in, "don't start a beef with me because I will win."
There seems to be real roots in the underground rap/hip hop cultures, where rappers or artists would use "beef" to refer to the rap battles that they would have.
If I had to venture a guess, I would say that the term arose from the resemblance of your face after a street fight and ground beef, bloody and torn up.
Source: Pure speculation. |
263,501 | I'm looking for some software that would open BigTIFF files on a mac - ones that are 6GB or bigger. (I'm not opposed to writing some code to do so, but I'd prefer a prewritten solution.)
Does macOS have any built-in software to handle this sort of thing? If not, are there any commonly-used external programs or libraries that I could employ?
I just need to view the images and be able to zoom in - I don't need to edit them.
**NOTE:**
Just to be clear, I am not wanting to view large TIFF images. I am specifically referring to bigTIFF images. If you are not familiar with these, please refer to <http://bigtiff.org/> | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/263501",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Yes, macOS includes the Preview app which can open large TIFF images.
By default, the Preview app is located within your Applications folder.
The Preview app actually offers a lot of functionality, including:
* opening images and PDFs
* editing images and PDFs
* signing documents
* sharing files
* annotation
For more details, see this [page](https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201740).
If I've misunderstood your question, please feel free to clarify it. | Try [Graphic Converter](https://www.lemkesoft.de/en/products/graphicconverter/), my go-to photo and graphic app for many years, handles some tough tasks. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | [XAMPP](http://www.apachefriends.org/en/xampp.html) is very simple to install and use. | LAMP for linux
XAMPP for mac
and WAMP for win
Different gui almost the same thing easy to setup and configure. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | [XAMPP](http://www.apachefriends.org/en/xampp.html) is very simple to install and use. | The big advantages with [WAMP](http://www.wampserver.com/en/download.php) are that you can easily switch PHP/Apache/MySQL version and toggle PHP settings + extensions, directly from the taskbar.
That's why I'm using it.
Note: Even though you can't download the latest PHP version from their site, [it's very easy to install it yourself](http://markushedlund.com/dev-tech/install-php-5.3.3-on-wamp). |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Install [Z-WAMP](http://sourceforge.net/projects/zwamp/files/). It has the latest versions of Apache, MySQL and PHP (with APC and phyMyAdmin). It's also portable so you can have it installed on a mem stick. | If you combine requirement 1, 3 and 5 you make it extremely difficult.
There is not just one package that you can install on boot \*nix and windows. Simply because they use a different Operating System with other drive mappings, libraries, etc.
But for Windows I recommend one of the XAMP/WAMP implementation (I'm not a Windows User). For Mac there is MAMP. On other \*nix based systems I always used predefined packages or a manualy compiled amount of packages which does not meet your requirements. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | [XAMPP](http://www.apachefriends.org/en/xampp.html) is very simple to install and use. | Not quite sure if this is what you mean but take a look at [AppServ](http://www.appservnetwork.com/) it installs Apache, PHP and MySQL for you with one installation file. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Quoting:
>
> [Zend Server Community Edition](http://www.zend.com/en/products/server-ce/) is a fast and reliable PHP application stack. It is completely free, and you can use it in development, testing and production.
>
>
>
Further:
>
> Eliminate wasted time spent on putting together your PHP stack piece by piece. Zend Server Community Edition includes everything you need, whether you’re using Windows, Linux or Mac OS X. The simple, native installers will set you up in minutes with:
>
>
> * Bytecode accelerator (Optimizer+)
> * Zend Data Cache
> * A certified PHP distribution
> * Zend Framework
> * Apache (or IIS integration)
> * MySQL (on Windows and Mac OS X)
> * Out-of-the-box connectivity to all common databases
> * Java code connectivity
> * Web-based PHP administrator console
>
>
> | The big advantages with [WAMP](http://www.wampserver.com/en/download.php) are that you can easily switch PHP/Apache/MySQL version and toggle PHP settings + extensions, directly from the taskbar.
That's why I'm using it.
Note: Even though you can't download the latest PHP version from their site, [it's very easy to install it yourself](http://markushedlund.com/dev-tech/install-php-5.3.3-on-wamp). |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Quoting:
>
> [Zend Server Community Edition](http://www.zend.com/en/products/server-ce/) is a fast and reliable PHP application stack. It is completely free, and you can use it in development, testing and production.
>
>
>
Further:
>
> Eliminate wasted time spent on putting together your PHP stack piece by piece. Zend Server Community Edition includes everything you need, whether you’re using Windows, Linux or Mac OS X. The simple, native installers will set you up in minutes with:
>
>
> * Bytecode accelerator (Optimizer+)
> * Zend Data Cache
> * A certified PHP distribution
> * Zend Framework
> * Apache (or IIS integration)
> * MySQL (on Windows and Mac OS X)
> * Out-of-the-box connectivity to all common databases
> * Java code connectivity
> * Web-based PHP administrator console
>
>
> | LAMP for linux
XAMPP for mac
and WAMP for win
Different gui almost the same thing easy to setup and configure. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Install [Z-WAMP](http://sourceforge.net/projects/zwamp/files/). It has the latest versions of Apache, MySQL and PHP (with APC and phyMyAdmin). It's also portable so you can have it installed on a mem stick. | [XAMPP](http://www.apachefriends.org/en/xampp.html) is very simple to install and use. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | [XAMPP](http://www.apachefriends.org/en/xampp.html) is very simple to install and use. | If you combine requirement 1, 3 and 5 you make it extremely difficult.
There is not just one package that you can install on boot \*nix and windows. Simply because they use a different Operating System with other drive mappings, libraries, etc.
But for Windows I recommend one of the XAMP/WAMP implementation (I'm not a Windows User). For Mac there is MAMP. On other \*nix based systems I always used predefined packages or a manualy compiled amount of packages which does not meet your requirements. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Quoting:
>
> [Zend Server Community Edition](http://www.zend.com/en/products/server-ce/) is a fast and reliable PHP application stack. It is completely free, and you can use it in development, testing and production.
>
>
>
Further:
>
> Eliminate wasted time spent on putting together your PHP stack piece by piece. Zend Server Community Edition includes everything you need, whether you’re using Windows, Linux or Mac OS X. The simple, native installers will set you up in minutes with:
>
>
> * Bytecode accelerator (Optimizer+)
> * Zend Data Cache
> * A certified PHP distribution
> * Zend Framework
> * Apache (or IIS integration)
> * MySQL (on Windows and Mac OS X)
> * Out-of-the-box connectivity to all common databases
> * Java code connectivity
> * Web-based PHP administrator console
>
>
> | Not quite sure if this is what you mean but take a look at [AppServ](http://www.appservnetwork.com/) it installs Apache, PHP and MySQL for you with one installation file. |
2,333,486 | I have Windows 7 Enterprise and I want to run a web server on this computer and I wander what is the best web server would be in my case. I have several requirements to the web server.
1. It should be easy to install and set up the server. Just "click", "accept" and that's it.
2. It should support MySQL and PHP (with GET, POST, SESSION, and cookies).
3. I want to be able to install the server from CD or memory stick. In other words, I want to be able to download something on my CD and than use this CD to install the web server.
4. The server (software) should not occupy a lot of memory.
5. It should be possible to install the web server on Linux, Windows and MAC. | 2010/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2333486",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245549/"
] | Install [Z-WAMP](http://sourceforge.net/projects/zwamp/files/). It has the latest versions of Apache, MySQL and PHP (with APC and phyMyAdmin). It's also portable so you can have it installed on a mem stick. | Not quite sure if this is what you mean but take a look at [AppServ](http://www.appservnetwork.com/) it installs Apache, PHP and MySQL for you with one installation file. |
291,870 | What is the meaning of the expression in bold?
>
> "**Even the most jaded observer of American corporate culture had to blink** when, earlier this month, Home Depot’s board of directors handed the company’s C.E.O., Bob Nardelli, more than two hundred million dollars after pushing him out of his job."
>
>
> [The Sky-High Club](https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2007/01/22/the-sky-high-club) *The New Yorker* (2007)
>
>
> | 2021/07/20 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/291870",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/138305/"
] | Even people who have watched the world of business for a long time, and seen enough strange things to lose interest, would have been surprised when they heard that Home Depot's board of directors handed Bob Nardelli two hundred million dollars.
The meaning of 'jaded' that you need is
>
> not having interest or losing interest because you have experienced
> something too many times
>
>
>
[Jaded (Cambridge Dictionary)](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/jaded)
We can use 'blink' as a short way of saying 'be surprised' (people often blink when they are surprised).
>
> 5. to be surprised or amazed
>
>
>
[Blink (Collins Dictionary)](https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/blink) | The meaning of "blink" in this context is to be slightly shocked in reaction to something unexpected and disturbing. You may move your head back a bit and close your eyes slightly longer than a normal blink while you understand what you've just learned.
In image form:
<https://giphy.com/gifs/what-guy-white-blinking-RILsqUte1MME7TzQJ9> |
74,079 | Jude 1:8; ESV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these people also, **relying on their dreams**, defile the flesh, reject authority, and blaspheme the glorious ones.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; ASV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these also **in their dreamings** defile the flesh, and set at nought dominion, and rail at [j]dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; KJV;
>
> 8 Likewise also these **filthy dreamers** defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; DRB;
>
> 8 In like manner these men also defile the flesh, and despise dominion, and blaspheme majesty.
>
>
>
Some English translations mentioned **dreamings**, **dreamers**, or **who dreams**, such as ESV, ASV, and KJV, while others don't mention anything relating to dreaming, such as DRB. According to textual criticism, which are more accurate, KJV or DRB? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/74079",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/33285/"
] | I was about to provide my own literal translation but noticed that the BLB is quite good here in Jude 8 -
>
> Yet likewise also these dreaming ones indeed defile the flesh, and set
> aside authority, and blaspheme glorious ones.
>
>
>
I am at a loss to understand how DRB arrived at this translation which appears to ignore numerous features of the text.
* it ignores ἐνυπνιαζόμενοι = dreaming [ones]
* it ignores κυριότητα = authority
* it ignores δόξας = glorious [ones] and substitutes "majesty
I am also at a loss to understand "filthy" in the KJV as well as "dominion". Nothing in the text corresponds to these words. | All normal translations work along a spectrum between word-for-word and thought-for-thought. Some translations (like the NASB) lean much more toward the former, while others lean harder toward the latter (the Message is an extreme example). Aside from an interlinear, every translation uses at least some of the thought-for-thought.
So let's look at an interlinear, where the original words are simply translated in the order in which they appear. (Note that a *reverse* interlinear would be easier to read.) Quoting from the [Apostolic Bible Polyglot](https://studybible.info/ABP_Strongs/Jude)
>
> In like manner however also these dreaming ones, [3the flesh 1indeed 2defile], [3lordships 1and 2annul], [3glorious *things* 1and 2blaspheme].
>
>
>
So the KJV adds what isn't there ("filthy"), while the DRB doesn't mention that they're called "dreamers" in the original. Neither is a perfect translation. This does show the importance of using multiple translations and comparing. |
74,079 | Jude 1:8; ESV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these people also, **relying on their dreams**, defile the flesh, reject authority, and blaspheme the glorious ones.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; ASV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these also **in their dreamings** defile the flesh, and set at nought dominion, and rail at [j]dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; KJV;
>
> 8 Likewise also these **filthy dreamers** defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; DRB;
>
> 8 In like manner these men also defile the flesh, and despise dominion, and blaspheme majesty.
>
>
>
Some English translations mentioned **dreamings**, **dreamers**, or **who dreams**, such as ESV, ASV, and KJV, while others don't mention anything relating to dreaming, such as DRB. According to textual criticism, which are more accurate, KJV or DRB? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/74079",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/33285/"
] | [I've elsewhere written a more detailed answer with multiple sources cited](https://christianity.codidact.com/posts/285793/285794#answer-285794). To summarize,
1. The Greek New Testament manuscripts include the participle ἐνυπνιαζόμενοι (*enypniazomenoi*, "dreaming"), whereas the Vulgate used by the Douay-Rheims (DRB) does not have a corresponding Latin word.
2. The participle modifies all three verbs (i.e., defile, reject, and blaspheme).
3. The Greek sentence structure (i.e., the "μὲν ... δὲ ... δὲ" particles) puts each of the three verbs on par as actions these *dreaming people* (the subject) try to justify.
4. While a participle in English is traditionally translated with an "–ing" ending (i.e., "dreaming"), this doesn't always adequately convey the versatility and meaning of Greek participles. The English reader might have trouble connecting "dreaming" with each of the three verbs that follows.
5. The key takeaway is that the individuals doing these things are dreaming (in the sense of prophetic visions), and the author felt mentioning this dreaming was relevant to their behavior. The dreaming is the basis for (or otherwise related to) these people's actions. Any translation that conveys this is satisfactory.
For more information, [see this post](https://christianity.codidact.com/posts/285793/285794#answer-285794). | I was about to provide my own literal translation but noticed that the BLB is quite good here in Jude 8 -
>
> Yet likewise also these dreaming ones indeed defile the flesh, and set
> aside authority, and blaspheme glorious ones.
>
>
>
I am at a loss to understand how DRB arrived at this translation which appears to ignore numerous features of the text.
* it ignores ἐνυπνιαζόμενοι = dreaming [ones]
* it ignores κυριότητα = authority
* it ignores δόξας = glorious [ones] and substitutes "majesty
I am also at a loss to understand "filthy" in the KJV as well as "dominion". Nothing in the text corresponds to these words. |
74,079 | Jude 1:8; ESV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these people also, **relying on their dreams**, defile the flesh, reject authority, and blaspheme the glorious ones.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; ASV;
>
> 8 Yet in like manner these also **in their dreamings** defile the flesh, and set at nought dominion, and rail at [j]dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; KJV;
>
> 8 Likewise also these **filthy dreamers** defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.
>
>
>
Jude 1:8; DRB;
>
> 8 In like manner these men also defile the flesh, and despise dominion, and blaspheme majesty.
>
>
>
Some English translations mentioned **dreamings**, **dreamers**, or **who dreams**, such as ESV, ASV, and KJV, while others don't mention anything relating to dreaming, such as DRB. According to textual criticism, which are more accurate, KJV or DRB? | 2022/01/31 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/74079",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/33285/"
] | [I've elsewhere written a more detailed answer with multiple sources cited](https://christianity.codidact.com/posts/285793/285794#answer-285794). To summarize,
1. The Greek New Testament manuscripts include the participle ἐνυπνιαζόμενοι (*enypniazomenoi*, "dreaming"), whereas the Vulgate used by the Douay-Rheims (DRB) does not have a corresponding Latin word.
2. The participle modifies all three verbs (i.e., defile, reject, and blaspheme).
3. The Greek sentence structure (i.e., the "μὲν ... δὲ ... δὲ" particles) puts each of the three verbs on par as actions these *dreaming people* (the subject) try to justify.
4. While a participle in English is traditionally translated with an "–ing" ending (i.e., "dreaming"), this doesn't always adequately convey the versatility and meaning of Greek participles. The English reader might have trouble connecting "dreaming" with each of the three verbs that follows.
5. The key takeaway is that the individuals doing these things are dreaming (in the sense of prophetic visions), and the author felt mentioning this dreaming was relevant to their behavior. The dreaming is the basis for (or otherwise related to) these people's actions. Any translation that conveys this is satisfactory.
For more information, [see this post](https://christianity.codidact.com/posts/285793/285794#answer-285794). | All normal translations work along a spectrum between word-for-word and thought-for-thought. Some translations (like the NASB) lean much more toward the former, while others lean harder toward the latter (the Message is an extreme example). Aside from an interlinear, every translation uses at least some of the thought-for-thought.
So let's look at an interlinear, where the original words are simply translated in the order in which they appear. (Note that a *reverse* interlinear would be easier to read.) Quoting from the [Apostolic Bible Polyglot](https://studybible.info/ABP_Strongs/Jude)
>
> In like manner however also these dreaming ones, [3the flesh 1indeed 2defile], [3lordships 1and 2annul], [3glorious *things* 1and 2blaspheme].
>
>
>
So the KJV adds what isn't there ("filthy"), while the DRB doesn't mention that they're called "dreamers" in the original. Neither is a perfect translation. This does show the importance of using multiple translations and comparing. |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | If the airline can make any claim of weather, traffic, or any sort of delay out of their control, then you have [no right to recompense](http://airconsumer.dot.gov/publications/flyrights.htm#delayed). Sometimes they will offer hotel vouchers for overnight delays, but in my experience this is almost exclusively when it is due to mechanical problems with their equipment.
Even if the delays are due to problems on their end, there is no regulation requiring them to compensate you. The only time you are due compensation is when you are bumped from a flight for overbooking.
However, sometimes airlines may be willing to endorse transfers to other airlines, particularly in the case of flight cancellations. This is, however, entirely at their discretion. If they are not willing to work with you, there could actually be additional charges for cancellations. | For most weather related cancellations or delays (technical term is WX), as Beofett noted, the airline typically owes you nothing more than eventually getting you there (sometimes even by bus, although difficult to do in over-water flights :D), or refunding you your money.
For mechanical delays or cancellations (MX), the airline has a much higher obligation - usually re-routing you on other airlines or offering you overnight accommodations.
Here's some tips for handling irregular operations (IROPS):
* Fly enough to earn status on an airline. The higher the status, the greater the likelihood of you getting something comped in IROPS
* Definitely ask if there are any flights on partners or, failing that, other airlines. The originating carrier is usually loath to send you on a competitor, but sometimes it happens
* Be nice and courteous to the agent! Although you've had a rough day and it's not your fault, it really isn't theirs either. If the gate agent is harried, find one at another gate, or call the airline number.
* If your trip was now wasted because you missed the flight, tell the agent that it was a "trip in vain" and you just want to go home. They may not refund your ticket price from the hub to your home, but you should at least get the fare difference back on the int'l portion.
* Schedule more time in between flights. Given it was a once-a-day to some far-off destination, you only had an hour's buffer? That's super risky, especially in summer months (thunderstorms, etc.). I usually try and have 3-4 hours minimum - I check and make sure there's at least one more flight in between my flight and the int'l departure, in case something happens to the first one.
* For the longer layovers, get a lounge pass for one of the airlines. It's much quieter, calmer, and usually there's free food, drink, and internet to pass the time
* Sleep at the airport - check out <http://www.sleepinginairports.net/> . I've spent a few overnighters in airports and if you do it right, you can actually get a reasonable night's sleep, and be ready for the 6AM flight outta there! |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | If the airline can make any claim of weather, traffic, or any sort of delay out of their control, then you have [no right to recompense](http://airconsumer.dot.gov/publications/flyrights.htm#delayed). Sometimes they will offer hotel vouchers for overnight delays, but in my experience this is almost exclusively when it is due to mechanical problems with their equipment.
Even if the delays are due to problems on their end, there is no regulation requiring them to compensate you. The only time you are due compensation is when you are bumped from a flight for overbooking.
However, sometimes airlines may be willing to endorse transfers to other airlines, particularly in the case of flight cancellations. This is, however, entirely at their discretion. If they are not willing to work with you, there could actually be additional charges for cancellations. | I'm curious myself and did a Google search. I could only find some new news from [PBS](http://www.pbs.org/newshour/rundown/2011/04/passenger-bill-of-rights.html). They covered the new Passenger Bill of Rights (effective August 2011):
Excerpt:
>
> Notification of Flight Changes: Airlines are now required to inform passengers of delays and bumps either at the gate, via cell phone, or online for domestic flights. This gives passengers the option not to board a delayed flight and arrange other means of arriving at their destination.
>
>
>
I will add more info as I have more time to do research.
One other note. Apparently, these regulations are enforced but often airlines violate these rights regardless of if they're law. [They're willing to just pay fines instead](http://thehill.com/blogs/transportation-report/aviation/167413-group-united-violated-airline-passengers-bill-of-rights). |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | If the airline can make any claim of weather, traffic, or any sort of delay out of their control, then you have [no right to recompense](http://airconsumer.dot.gov/publications/flyrights.htm#delayed). Sometimes they will offer hotel vouchers for overnight delays, but in my experience this is almost exclusively when it is due to mechanical problems with their equipment.
Even if the delays are due to problems on their end, there is no regulation requiring them to compensate you. The only time you are due compensation is when you are bumped from a flight for overbooking.
However, sometimes airlines may be willing to endorse transfers to other airlines, particularly in the case of flight cancellations. This is, however, entirely at their discretion. If they are not willing to work with you, there could actually be additional charges for cancellations. | If you are flying an [EU-based carrier](http://www.yourlegalrights.co.uk/consumer/flight-rights), the [EU laws apply](http://ec.europa.eu/transport/publications/doc/apr_leaflet_en.pdf) (even in the US). Regarding domestic flights, I am not sure. I am not a lawyer, but I guess that since many US airlines code-share with EU partners that buying your ticket from an EU company might give you more compensation rights, even in the US.
Since you are not stating the direction of your international connection, I am not sure if this answer applies to your specific case. |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | For most weather related cancellations or delays (technical term is WX), as Beofett noted, the airline typically owes you nothing more than eventually getting you there (sometimes even by bus, although difficult to do in over-water flights :D), or refunding you your money.
For mechanical delays or cancellations (MX), the airline has a much higher obligation - usually re-routing you on other airlines or offering you overnight accommodations.
Here's some tips for handling irregular operations (IROPS):
* Fly enough to earn status on an airline. The higher the status, the greater the likelihood of you getting something comped in IROPS
* Definitely ask if there are any flights on partners or, failing that, other airlines. The originating carrier is usually loath to send you on a competitor, but sometimes it happens
* Be nice and courteous to the agent! Although you've had a rough day and it's not your fault, it really isn't theirs either. If the gate agent is harried, find one at another gate, or call the airline number.
* If your trip was now wasted because you missed the flight, tell the agent that it was a "trip in vain" and you just want to go home. They may not refund your ticket price from the hub to your home, but you should at least get the fare difference back on the int'l portion.
* Schedule more time in between flights. Given it was a once-a-day to some far-off destination, you only had an hour's buffer? That's super risky, especially in summer months (thunderstorms, etc.). I usually try and have 3-4 hours minimum - I check and make sure there's at least one more flight in between my flight and the int'l departure, in case something happens to the first one.
* For the longer layovers, get a lounge pass for one of the airlines. It's much quieter, calmer, and usually there's free food, drink, and internet to pass the time
* Sleep at the airport - check out <http://www.sleepinginairports.net/> . I've spent a few overnighters in airports and if you do it right, you can actually get a reasonable night's sleep, and be ready for the 6AM flight outta there! | I'm curious myself and did a Google search. I could only find some new news from [PBS](http://www.pbs.org/newshour/rundown/2011/04/passenger-bill-of-rights.html). They covered the new Passenger Bill of Rights (effective August 2011):
Excerpt:
>
> Notification of Flight Changes: Airlines are now required to inform passengers of delays and bumps either at the gate, via cell phone, or online for domestic flights. This gives passengers the option not to board a delayed flight and arrange other means of arriving at their destination.
>
>
>
I will add more info as I have more time to do research.
One other note. Apparently, these regulations are enforced but often airlines violate these rights regardless of if they're law. [They're willing to just pay fines instead](http://thehill.com/blogs/transportation-report/aviation/167413-group-united-violated-airline-passengers-bill-of-rights). |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | For most weather related cancellations or delays (technical term is WX), as Beofett noted, the airline typically owes you nothing more than eventually getting you there (sometimes even by bus, although difficult to do in over-water flights :D), or refunding you your money.
For mechanical delays or cancellations (MX), the airline has a much higher obligation - usually re-routing you on other airlines or offering you overnight accommodations.
Here's some tips for handling irregular operations (IROPS):
* Fly enough to earn status on an airline. The higher the status, the greater the likelihood of you getting something comped in IROPS
* Definitely ask if there are any flights on partners or, failing that, other airlines. The originating carrier is usually loath to send you on a competitor, but sometimes it happens
* Be nice and courteous to the agent! Although you've had a rough day and it's not your fault, it really isn't theirs either. If the gate agent is harried, find one at another gate, or call the airline number.
* If your trip was now wasted because you missed the flight, tell the agent that it was a "trip in vain" and you just want to go home. They may not refund your ticket price from the hub to your home, but you should at least get the fare difference back on the int'l portion.
* Schedule more time in between flights. Given it was a once-a-day to some far-off destination, you only had an hour's buffer? That's super risky, especially in summer months (thunderstorms, etc.). I usually try and have 3-4 hours minimum - I check and make sure there's at least one more flight in between my flight and the int'l departure, in case something happens to the first one.
* For the longer layovers, get a lounge pass for one of the airlines. It's much quieter, calmer, and usually there's free food, drink, and internet to pass the time
* Sleep at the airport - check out <http://www.sleepinginairports.net/> . I've spent a few overnighters in airports and if you do it right, you can actually get a reasonable night's sleep, and be ready for the 6AM flight outta there! | If you are flying an [EU-based carrier](http://www.yourlegalrights.co.uk/consumer/flight-rights), the [EU laws apply](http://ec.europa.eu/transport/publications/doc/apr_leaflet_en.pdf) (even in the US). Regarding domestic flights, I am not sure. I am not a lawyer, but I guess that since many US airlines code-share with EU partners that buying your ticket from an EU company might give you more compensation rights, even in the US.
Since you are not stating the direction of your international connection, I am not sure if this answer applies to your specific case. |
277 | The official website for [AJ Hackett's Macau Tower bungee jump](http://macau.ajhackett.com/products/index.html) states in its conditions that:
>
> Must weigh 40 kgs
>
>
>
This seems to be a really low limit, and I was wondering whether anyone has personally done the jump or knows someone who did, to confirm whether this is a rule they actually stick to strictly. Or am I misinterpreting the 'Must weigh 40 kgs' as *maximum* 40kg, as opposed to *minimum* 40kg?
(I did email them but they never replied.) | 2011/06/23 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/277",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | I'm curious myself and did a Google search. I could only find some new news from [PBS](http://www.pbs.org/newshour/rundown/2011/04/passenger-bill-of-rights.html). They covered the new Passenger Bill of Rights (effective August 2011):
Excerpt:
>
> Notification of Flight Changes: Airlines are now required to inform passengers of delays and bumps either at the gate, via cell phone, or online for domestic flights. This gives passengers the option not to board a delayed flight and arrange other means of arriving at their destination.
>
>
>
I will add more info as I have more time to do research.
One other note. Apparently, these regulations are enforced but often airlines violate these rights regardless of if they're law. [They're willing to just pay fines instead](http://thehill.com/blogs/transportation-report/aviation/167413-group-united-violated-airline-passengers-bill-of-rights). | If you are flying an [EU-based carrier](http://www.yourlegalrights.co.uk/consumer/flight-rights), the [EU laws apply](http://ec.europa.eu/transport/publications/doc/apr_leaflet_en.pdf) (even in the US). Regarding domestic flights, I am not sure. I am not a lawyer, but I guess that since many US airlines code-share with EU partners that buying your ticket from an EU company might give you more compensation rights, even in the US.
Since you are not stating the direction of your international connection, I am not sure if this answer applies to your specific case. |
53,121 | I have a gas fireplace, which I have not used in over 3 years. It starts with an on/off switch on the wall. When I turn it ON, nothing happens. I am kind of scared of trying anything with this as it works with gas and I don't totally understand how it works.
Any tips on checking some basic stuff to see if I can get it started before I call a professional? | 2014/11/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/53121",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1608/"
] | It sounds like the gas was turned off somewhere. Generally, there's a knob next to the fireplace that may require a tool to turn on or off. You may also need to bleed air out of the gas lines, perhaps try the on/off switch over and over a few times and see if anything changes. It's pretty straight forward and you would smell the gas if there were a leak. | After ensuring that the gas supply is not shut, cycle the on/off switch several (maybe numerous) times to free the system of air. You should hear the electric ignitor clicking for a short time after each time you activate the switch.
If you don't hear the ignitor- stop (you may have an electrical issue).
If a strong smell of gas develops- stop (you may have a problem with the gas supply equipment).
In most locales you can call your gas utility supplier and tell them "I smell gas" and they will come and take a look at the appliance for **free**. If you are lucky the technician will end up giving you a free diagnosis of the problem, if you are really lucky he/she will fix it for free (or for a nominal fee) because the utility **wants** you to burn gas ($$).
Those units employ an electrically operated valve that opens for a short time to allow the ignitor to light the gas, a thermocouple (bi-metallic strip which generates a small electrical current when heated) sends a signal for the valve to stay open if the burner lights, but allows it to close if no heat is present. |
53,121 | I have a gas fireplace, which I have not used in over 3 years. It starts with an on/off switch on the wall. When I turn it ON, nothing happens. I am kind of scared of trying anything with this as it works with gas and I don't totally understand how it works.
Any tips on checking some basic stuff to see if I can get it started before I call a professional? | 2014/11/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/53121",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1608/"
] | It's difficult to help you troubleshoot a device, without a bit more information about it. Since you're not giving us much, I'll try to give general advice.
Depending on the system, there's a few things that could be wrong.
Gas Valve Closed
================
This would affect every type of gas fireplace.
Test:
-----
1. Locate the gas valve.
2. Turn on the switch.
3. Listen for the valve to open.
If you hear the valve open (click, clank, clunk, etc.), but don't hear or smell gas. The valve may be off.
Most gas valves are quarter turn ball valves, so you can tell when they're open simply by looking at the knob. The knob should have an arrow, handle, or other linear feature on it. This feature should be aligned with (parallel to) the pipe, when the valve is open.
Solution:
---------
Turn on the gas.
No Gas
======
If you get your gas from a tank or bottle, you'll want to make sure you have gas.
Test:
-----
Similar to above, except that the valve will be open.
Solution:
---------
Fill the tank.
Bad Switch
==========
Since the system relies on a switch to know when to turn on, a bad switch could be devastating.
Test:
-----
1. Label and remove the wires from the switch.
2. Test continuity across the switch, in both positions.
When the switch is toggled on way, you should measure infinity (or not hear a beep). When the switch is toggled the other way, you should get a measurement (or hear a beep).
Solution:
---------
Replace the switch.
Pilot Not Lit
=============
If your system requires a pilot, and it's not lit. You can flip the switch all you want, you'll never make fire.
Test:
-----
1. Look at the pilot.
If you see a flame, it's lit.
Solution:
---------
Light the pilot.
Bad Flame Sensor
================
Fireplaces use flame sensors (thermocouples, thermopiles, etc.), to determine if there's a flame. If the sensor goes bad, the system will not hold the gas valve open.
Test:
-----
1. Disconnect the thermocouple from the system.
2. Set multimeter to measure DC millivolts (mV).
3. Connect the black lead to the button of the thermocouple.
4. Connect the red lead to the copper part of the thermocouple.
5. Heat the thermocouple with a torch.
As the thermocouple heats, you should get a reading on the multimeter.
Solution:
---------
Replace the flame sensor.
Bad Gas Valve
=============
If the system is getting all the right signals, but the gas valve is not opening. It could be a bad valve.
Test:
-----
See test for **Gas Valve Closed**. You won't hear the valve open. You'll have to be sure the valve is getting the signal to open, so make sure all other items check out first.
Solution:
---------
Replace the valve.
Depending on the type of fireplace, the ignition sequence will be a bit different. using the typical sequences below, you might be able to narrow down where the problem is.
Typical Gas Fireplace Ignition Sequence
=======================================
Pilot
-----
* Switch is flipped
* If pilot is lit (checked via a thermocouple or other flame sensor).
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait (There may be an adjustable timeout, or a hard set timeout).
+ If main burner lit (check via another thermocouple or other flame sensor).
- Leave main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- Purge system (in the case of a fireplace, this is likely a timed wait).
- *Retry ignition (this may happen 0 to many times, depending on the system)*.
* Else
+ Do nothing
Electronic Ignition with pilot
------------------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open pilot gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device (spark gap, hot surface, etc.).
* Wait.
* If pilot flame sensed.
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait.
+ If main burner flame sensed.
- Hold main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- *Purge system.*
- *Retry ignition.*
- If no ignition after retries
* Close pilot gas valve.
* Lockout (this may require something to be physically reset, or a simple timed lockout).
* Else
+ Close pilot gas valve.
+ *Purge system.*
+ *Retry ignition.*
+ If no ignition after retries
- Close pilot gas valve.
- Lockout.
Electronic Ignition
-------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open main burner gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device.
* Wait
* If flame sensed.
+ Hold main gas valve open.
* Else
+ Close main gas valve.
+ *Purge.*
+ *Retry.*
+ Lockout. | It sounds like the gas was turned off somewhere. Generally, there's a knob next to the fireplace that may require a tool to turn on or off. You may also need to bleed air out of the gas lines, perhaps try the on/off switch over and over a few times and see if anything changes. It's pretty straight forward and you would smell the gas if there were a leak. |
53,121 | I have a gas fireplace, which I have not used in over 3 years. It starts with an on/off switch on the wall. When I turn it ON, nothing happens. I am kind of scared of trying anything with this as it works with gas and I don't totally understand how it works.
Any tips on checking some basic stuff to see if I can get it started before I call a professional? | 2014/11/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/53121",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1608/"
] | Is the pilot lit? The wall switch will not turn the fireplace on if the pilot is not lit. Here is some general information regarding how gas appliances work (the source link below also has some pictures):
>
> Most gas appliance will have a gas valve, a thermocouple, a
> thermopile, a piezo, and a pilot light. These parts are used to light
> and control the main burner.
>
>
> A piezo spark ignition is used to ignite the pilot after the gas knob
> is turned to the “pilot” position and depressed. Once lit, the pilot
> light heats up BOTH a thermocouple and a thermopile.
>
>
> The thermocouple is sometimes called a heat sensor or flame sensor. A
> thermocouple is a device made of two different metals which creates a
> small electrical charge (25 to 100 millivolts) when heated at one end
> by the gas pilot. A millivolt is 1/1000th of a volt. This small charge
> causes an electromagnet inside the gas valve to open and allow gas to
> flow to the pilot light. If the pilot light goes out and the
> thermocouple is no longer heated, it will shut down the gas flow to
> both the pilot and main burner.
>
>
> Since the thermocouple must be heated in order to open the gas flow,
> fireplaces often have a startup mode, during which a pilot knob must
> be depressed and held for 30 seconds or so after lighting the pilot.
> At the end of the 30 seconds, the pilot should be generating enough
> heat so that the thermocouple is generating enough electricity for the
> gas to keep flowing to the pilot light. At this time, the startup knob
> can be released and the valve turned to an “on” position for appliance
> operation. Most fireplaces are designed to have a “standing” pilot
> light, which means it is always on –year round. Turning a pilot light
> on and off can shorten the lifespan of the thermocouple. A thermopile
> is a probe that contains multiple thermocouples; therefore it can
> produce a larger electrical current.
>
>
> The thermopile circuit causes a larger electromagnet inside the main
> gas valve to open and allow gas to flow to the main burner. This
> second circuit is also powerful enough (300-600 millivolts) to allow
> the use of a thermostat, wall switch or control switch to operate the
> main valve. Control of the valve is obtained simply by hooking a pair
> of wires (from the switch or remote control receiver) to two terminals
> located on the valve.
>
>
> Source: [Fireplace Warehouse](http://www.fpwhs.com/Resources/TroubleshootingGuide/tabid/87/Default.aspx)
>
>
> | After ensuring that the gas supply is not shut, cycle the on/off switch several (maybe numerous) times to free the system of air. You should hear the electric ignitor clicking for a short time after each time you activate the switch.
If you don't hear the ignitor- stop (you may have an electrical issue).
If a strong smell of gas develops- stop (you may have a problem with the gas supply equipment).
In most locales you can call your gas utility supplier and tell them "I smell gas" and they will come and take a look at the appliance for **free**. If you are lucky the technician will end up giving you a free diagnosis of the problem, if you are really lucky he/she will fix it for free (or for a nominal fee) because the utility **wants** you to burn gas ($$).
Those units employ an electrically operated valve that opens for a short time to allow the ignitor to light the gas, a thermocouple (bi-metallic strip which generates a small electrical current when heated) sends a signal for the valve to stay open if the burner lights, but allows it to close if no heat is present. |
53,121 | I have a gas fireplace, which I have not used in over 3 years. It starts with an on/off switch on the wall. When I turn it ON, nothing happens. I am kind of scared of trying anything with this as it works with gas and I don't totally understand how it works.
Any tips on checking some basic stuff to see if I can get it started before I call a professional? | 2014/11/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/53121",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1608/"
] | It's difficult to help you troubleshoot a device, without a bit more information about it. Since you're not giving us much, I'll try to give general advice.
Depending on the system, there's a few things that could be wrong.
Gas Valve Closed
================
This would affect every type of gas fireplace.
Test:
-----
1. Locate the gas valve.
2. Turn on the switch.
3. Listen for the valve to open.
If you hear the valve open (click, clank, clunk, etc.), but don't hear or smell gas. The valve may be off.
Most gas valves are quarter turn ball valves, so you can tell when they're open simply by looking at the knob. The knob should have an arrow, handle, or other linear feature on it. This feature should be aligned with (parallel to) the pipe, when the valve is open.
Solution:
---------
Turn on the gas.
No Gas
======
If you get your gas from a tank or bottle, you'll want to make sure you have gas.
Test:
-----
Similar to above, except that the valve will be open.
Solution:
---------
Fill the tank.
Bad Switch
==========
Since the system relies on a switch to know when to turn on, a bad switch could be devastating.
Test:
-----
1. Label and remove the wires from the switch.
2. Test continuity across the switch, in both positions.
When the switch is toggled on way, you should measure infinity (or not hear a beep). When the switch is toggled the other way, you should get a measurement (or hear a beep).
Solution:
---------
Replace the switch.
Pilot Not Lit
=============
If your system requires a pilot, and it's not lit. You can flip the switch all you want, you'll never make fire.
Test:
-----
1. Look at the pilot.
If you see a flame, it's lit.
Solution:
---------
Light the pilot.
Bad Flame Sensor
================
Fireplaces use flame sensors (thermocouples, thermopiles, etc.), to determine if there's a flame. If the sensor goes bad, the system will not hold the gas valve open.
Test:
-----
1. Disconnect the thermocouple from the system.
2. Set multimeter to measure DC millivolts (mV).
3. Connect the black lead to the button of the thermocouple.
4. Connect the red lead to the copper part of the thermocouple.
5. Heat the thermocouple with a torch.
As the thermocouple heats, you should get a reading on the multimeter.
Solution:
---------
Replace the flame sensor.
Bad Gas Valve
=============
If the system is getting all the right signals, but the gas valve is not opening. It could be a bad valve.
Test:
-----
See test for **Gas Valve Closed**. You won't hear the valve open. You'll have to be sure the valve is getting the signal to open, so make sure all other items check out first.
Solution:
---------
Replace the valve.
Depending on the type of fireplace, the ignition sequence will be a bit different. using the typical sequences below, you might be able to narrow down where the problem is.
Typical Gas Fireplace Ignition Sequence
=======================================
Pilot
-----
* Switch is flipped
* If pilot is lit (checked via a thermocouple or other flame sensor).
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait (There may be an adjustable timeout, or a hard set timeout).
+ If main burner lit (check via another thermocouple or other flame sensor).
- Leave main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- Purge system (in the case of a fireplace, this is likely a timed wait).
- *Retry ignition (this may happen 0 to many times, depending on the system)*.
* Else
+ Do nothing
Electronic Ignition with pilot
------------------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open pilot gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device (spark gap, hot surface, etc.).
* Wait.
* If pilot flame sensed.
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait.
+ If main burner flame sensed.
- Hold main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- *Purge system.*
- *Retry ignition.*
- If no ignition after retries
* Close pilot gas valve.
* Lockout (this may require something to be physically reset, or a simple timed lockout).
* Else
+ Close pilot gas valve.
+ *Purge system.*
+ *Retry ignition.*
+ If no ignition after retries
- Close pilot gas valve.
- Lockout.
Electronic Ignition
-------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open main burner gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device.
* Wait
* If flame sensed.
+ Hold main gas valve open.
* Else
+ Close main gas valve.
+ *Purge.*
+ *Retry.*
+ Lockout. | After ensuring that the gas supply is not shut, cycle the on/off switch several (maybe numerous) times to free the system of air. You should hear the electric ignitor clicking for a short time after each time you activate the switch.
If you don't hear the ignitor- stop (you may have an electrical issue).
If a strong smell of gas develops- stop (you may have a problem with the gas supply equipment).
In most locales you can call your gas utility supplier and tell them "I smell gas" and they will come and take a look at the appliance for **free**. If you are lucky the technician will end up giving you a free diagnosis of the problem, if you are really lucky he/she will fix it for free (or for a nominal fee) because the utility **wants** you to burn gas ($$).
Those units employ an electrically operated valve that opens for a short time to allow the ignitor to light the gas, a thermocouple (bi-metallic strip which generates a small electrical current when heated) sends a signal for the valve to stay open if the burner lights, but allows it to close if no heat is present. |
53,121 | I have a gas fireplace, which I have not used in over 3 years. It starts with an on/off switch on the wall. When I turn it ON, nothing happens. I am kind of scared of trying anything with this as it works with gas and I don't totally understand how it works.
Any tips on checking some basic stuff to see if I can get it started before I call a professional? | 2014/11/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/53121",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1608/"
] | It's difficult to help you troubleshoot a device, without a bit more information about it. Since you're not giving us much, I'll try to give general advice.
Depending on the system, there's a few things that could be wrong.
Gas Valve Closed
================
This would affect every type of gas fireplace.
Test:
-----
1. Locate the gas valve.
2. Turn on the switch.
3. Listen for the valve to open.
If you hear the valve open (click, clank, clunk, etc.), but don't hear or smell gas. The valve may be off.
Most gas valves are quarter turn ball valves, so you can tell when they're open simply by looking at the knob. The knob should have an arrow, handle, or other linear feature on it. This feature should be aligned with (parallel to) the pipe, when the valve is open.
Solution:
---------
Turn on the gas.
No Gas
======
If you get your gas from a tank or bottle, you'll want to make sure you have gas.
Test:
-----
Similar to above, except that the valve will be open.
Solution:
---------
Fill the tank.
Bad Switch
==========
Since the system relies on a switch to know when to turn on, a bad switch could be devastating.
Test:
-----
1. Label and remove the wires from the switch.
2. Test continuity across the switch, in both positions.
When the switch is toggled on way, you should measure infinity (or not hear a beep). When the switch is toggled the other way, you should get a measurement (or hear a beep).
Solution:
---------
Replace the switch.
Pilot Not Lit
=============
If your system requires a pilot, and it's not lit. You can flip the switch all you want, you'll never make fire.
Test:
-----
1. Look at the pilot.
If you see a flame, it's lit.
Solution:
---------
Light the pilot.
Bad Flame Sensor
================
Fireplaces use flame sensors (thermocouples, thermopiles, etc.), to determine if there's a flame. If the sensor goes bad, the system will not hold the gas valve open.
Test:
-----
1. Disconnect the thermocouple from the system.
2. Set multimeter to measure DC millivolts (mV).
3. Connect the black lead to the button of the thermocouple.
4. Connect the red lead to the copper part of the thermocouple.
5. Heat the thermocouple with a torch.
As the thermocouple heats, you should get a reading on the multimeter.
Solution:
---------
Replace the flame sensor.
Bad Gas Valve
=============
If the system is getting all the right signals, but the gas valve is not opening. It could be a bad valve.
Test:
-----
See test for **Gas Valve Closed**. You won't hear the valve open. You'll have to be sure the valve is getting the signal to open, so make sure all other items check out first.
Solution:
---------
Replace the valve.
Depending on the type of fireplace, the ignition sequence will be a bit different. using the typical sequences below, you might be able to narrow down where the problem is.
Typical Gas Fireplace Ignition Sequence
=======================================
Pilot
-----
* Switch is flipped
* If pilot is lit (checked via a thermocouple or other flame sensor).
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait (There may be an adjustable timeout, or a hard set timeout).
+ If main burner lit (check via another thermocouple or other flame sensor).
- Leave main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- Purge system (in the case of a fireplace, this is likely a timed wait).
- *Retry ignition (this may happen 0 to many times, depending on the system)*.
* Else
+ Do nothing
Electronic Ignition with pilot
------------------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open pilot gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device (spark gap, hot surface, etc.).
* Wait.
* If pilot flame sensed.
+ Open main burner gas valve.
+ Wait.
+ If main burner flame sensed.
- Hold main gas valve open.
+ Else
- Close main gas valve.
- *Purge system.*
- *Retry ignition.*
- If no ignition after retries
* Close pilot gas valve.
* Lockout (this may require something to be physically reset, or a simple timed lockout).
* Else
+ Close pilot gas valve.
+ *Purge system.*
+ *Retry ignition.*
+ If no ignition after retries
- Close pilot gas valve.
- Lockout.
Electronic Ignition
-------------------
* Switch is flipped
* Open main burner gas valve.
* Initiate electronic ignition device.
* Wait
* If flame sensed.
+ Hold main gas valve open.
* Else
+ Close main gas valve.
+ *Purge.*
+ *Retry.*
+ Lockout. | Is the pilot lit? The wall switch will not turn the fireplace on if the pilot is not lit. Here is some general information regarding how gas appliances work (the source link below also has some pictures):
>
> Most gas appliance will have a gas valve, a thermocouple, a
> thermopile, a piezo, and a pilot light. These parts are used to light
> and control the main burner.
>
>
> A piezo spark ignition is used to ignite the pilot after the gas knob
> is turned to the “pilot” position and depressed. Once lit, the pilot
> light heats up BOTH a thermocouple and a thermopile.
>
>
> The thermocouple is sometimes called a heat sensor or flame sensor. A
> thermocouple is a device made of two different metals which creates a
> small electrical charge (25 to 100 millivolts) when heated at one end
> by the gas pilot. A millivolt is 1/1000th of a volt. This small charge
> causes an electromagnet inside the gas valve to open and allow gas to
> flow to the pilot light. If the pilot light goes out and the
> thermocouple is no longer heated, it will shut down the gas flow to
> both the pilot and main burner.
>
>
> Since the thermocouple must be heated in order to open the gas flow,
> fireplaces often have a startup mode, during which a pilot knob must
> be depressed and held for 30 seconds or so after lighting the pilot.
> At the end of the 30 seconds, the pilot should be generating enough
> heat so that the thermocouple is generating enough electricity for the
> gas to keep flowing to the pilot light. At this time, the startup knob
> can be released and the valve turned to an “on” position for appliance
> operation. Most fireplaces are designed to have a “standing” pilot
> light, which means it is always on –year round. Turning a pilot light
> on and off can shorten the lifespan of the thermocouple. A thermopile
> is a probe that contains multiple thermocouples; therefore it can
> produce a larger electrical current.
>
>
> The thermopile circuit causes a larger electromagnet inside the main
> gas valve to open and allow gas to flow to the main burner. This
> second circuit is also powerful enough (300-600 millivolts) to allow
> the use of a thermostat, wall switch or control switch to operate the
> main valve. Control of the valve is obtained simply by hooking a pair
> of wires (from the switch or remote control receiver) to two terminals
> located on the valve.
>
>
> Source: [Fireplace Warehouse](http://www.fpwhs.com/Resources/TroubleshootingGuide/tabid/87/Default.aspx)
>
>
> |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | *I feel myself [to be] XXX* is an idiomatic metaphorical usage. It's normally associated with *considered assessment*. So if you said...
>
> ["I felt myself to be dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1)
>
>
>
...this would most likely mean that taking all circumstances into account, you genuinely believed that you were actually dying and would soon be dead. On the other hand,...
>
> ["I felt like I was dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&oq=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&gs_l=serp.3...139862.144412.0.144893.22.22.0.0.0.0.101.1414.21j1.22.0...0.0...1c.1.0YzFKkPQ8_U&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886)
>
>
>
...primarily emphasises *how bad you felt* (you may not really have believed you were about to die).
---
OP's examples 1, 2, 6 all strike me as non-standard, in that none of the states being referenced are anything that would require careful assessment.
We do also use the "reflexive" form in contexts where "feel" has the meaning *intuitively sense*, rather than *think, judge* - for example, *"I felt myself to be unwanted and unloved"*. But again, examples 1, 2, 6 don't fit that meaning.
Example 4 also seems rather odd. Without context, it could mean *"My current circumstances and reactions are similar to what I imagine an astronaut would experience"*, or it could mean *"In my opinion I **am** an astronaut"*. Both seem slightly weird sentiments to me.
Examples 3, 5 seem unexceptional to me. Personally, I'd normally include *"to be"* (as extensively explored in [this earlier question](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/57816/)). I should point out that [*"I feel myself guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...8335.9143.3.9464.6.6.0.0.0.0.90.370.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.XoB5dUjBhBo&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) is far more common than [*"I feel myself **to be** guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...130869.132110.4.132488.6.6.0.0.0.0.75.376.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.R5gheKPT6hA&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886). But they're both eclipsed by the standard [*"I feel guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...56280.57807.5.58312.13.9.0.0.0.3.132.629.7j2.9.0...0.0...1c.1.8rGafe0NoKQ&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) anyway. | In general, feelings can be felt in an internal mental sense, but physical objects like people aren't *felt*, except in a physcial sense. Generally with your hands.
If you say any of those phrases with "I feel myself" to a fluent English speaker, you are liable to receive a snicker at best. It sounds too much like a cross between "I play with myself" (a phrase implying masturbation), and the phrase "X felt up Y" (a phrase implying X used his/her hands on the body of Y for the purposes of sexual exploration). The ones with "to be" aren't so bad, because again "feel" is now talking about a state of existance rather than a literal person. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | *I feel myself [to be] XXX* is an idiomatic metaphorical usage. It's normally associated with *considered assessment*. So if you said...
>
> ["I felt myself to be dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1)
>
>
>
...this would most likely mean that taking all circumstances into account, you genuinely believed that you were actually dying and would soon be dead. On the other hand,...
>
> ["I felt like I was dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&oq=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&gs_l=serp.3...139862.144412.0.144893.22.22.0.0.0.0.101.1414.21j1.22.0...0.0...1c.1.0YzFKkPQ8_U&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886)
>
>
>
...primarily emphasises *how bad you felt* (you may not really have believed you were about to die).
---
OP's examples 1, 2, 6 all strike me as non-standard, in that none of the states being referenced are anything that would require careful assessment.
We do also use the "reflexive" form in contexts where "feel" has the meaning *intuitively sense*, rather than *think, judge* - for example, *"I felt myself to be unwanted and unloved"*. But again, examples 1, 2, 6 don't fit that meaning.
Example 4 also seems rather odd. Without context, it could mean *"My current circumstances and reactions are similar to what I imagine an astronaut would experience"*, or it could mean *"In my opinion I **am** an astronaut"*. Both seem slightly weird sentiments to me.
Examples 3, 5 seem unexceptional to me. Personally, I'd normally include *"to be"* (as extensively explored in [this earlier question](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/57816/)). I should point out that [*"I feel myself guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...8335.9143.3.9464.6.6.0.0.0.0.90.370.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.XoB5dUjBhBo&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) is far more common than [*"I feel myself **to be** guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...130869.132110.4.132488.6.6.0.0.0.0.75.376.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.R5gheKPT6hA&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886). But they're both eclipsed by the standard [*"I feel guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...56280.57807.5.58312.13.9.0.0.0.3.132.629.7j2.9.0...0.0...1c.1.8rGafe0NoKQ&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) anyway. | *I feel myself*, when not used in a tactile sense, means soemthing like *I consider myself*. It follows that examples 3, 4 and 5 are grammatical, and all three may be used without *to be*. 6 is grammatical, with or without *to be*, but, for semantic reasons, would be unlikely to be said by a native speaker. 1 and 2 are ungrammatical in the 'consider' sense. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | All of these sentences are grammatically valid, but for some of them the intended meaning is not at all clear, and they are not the way that most English speakers would express these ideas.
In general, "I feel myself" is generally understood to mean touching yourself for autoerotic pleasure, which is probably not what you mean in any of these examples.
"I feel myself badly." Sounds like you mean that you are unskilled at autoeroticism. If what you mean is that you are sick or unhappy, you should say simply "I feel bad."
"I feel myself well." Similar to badly but in the opposite direction. You probably mean "I feel good."
"I feel myself to be a hero/astronaut/suppressed." Valid. These would be understood to mean that you think you "qualify" as one of these things, but by using the word "feel" rather than simply stating that you "are", you imply that the classification might be debatable. Like, someone who has flown very high-altitude airplanes might say, "I feel myself to be an astrounaut", knowing that others will challenge the claim. I think most Enlgish speakers would be more likely to say, "I consider myself to be an astrounaut" or "I think of myself as an astronaut" or "I think I am an astronaut." But the sentence as written is valid if that's what you mean. Note this is different from saying, "I feel like a [whatever]". In that case, you are not claiming to actually be whatever, just that you have some similar experience. Like, "After an hour in the Space Shuttle simulator, I feel like an astronaut."
"I feel myself sleeping." I'm not sure what you're trying to say. If you're sleeping, you're not really feeling anything. Maybe "I feel myself falling asleep"? | In general, feelings can be felt in an internal mental sense, but physical objects like people aren't *felt*, except in a physcial sense. Generally with your hands.
If you say any of those phrases with "I feel myself" to a fluent English speaker, you are liable to receive a snicker at best. It sounds too much like a cross between "I play with myself" (a phrase implying masturbation), and the phrase "X felt up Y" (a phrase implying X used his/her hands on the body of Y for the purposes of sexual exploration). The ones with "to be" aren't so bad, because again "feel" is now talking about a state of existance rather than a literal person. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | *I feel myself [to be] XXX* is an idiomatic metaphorical usage. It's normally associated with *considered assessment*. So if you said...
>
> ["I felt myself to be dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1)
>
>
>
...this would most likely mean that taking all circumstances into account, you genuinely believed that you were actually dying and would soon be dead. On the other hand,...
>
> ["I felt like I was dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&oq=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&gs_l=serp.3...139862.144412.0.144893.22.22.0.0.0.0.101.1414.21j1.22.0...0.0...1c.1.0YzFKkPQ8_U&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886)
>
>
>
...primarily emphasises *how bad you felt* (you may not really have believed you were about to die).
---
OP's examples 1, 2, 6 all strike me as non-standard, in that none of the states being referenced are anything that would require careful assessment.
We do also use the "reflexive" form in contexts where "feel" has the meaning *intuitively sense*, rather than *think, judge* - for example, *"I felt myself to be unwanted and unloved"*. But again, examples 1, 2, 6 don't fit that meaning.
Example 4 also seems rather odd. Without context, it could mean *"My current circumstances and reactions are similar to what I imagine an astronaut would experience"*, or it could mean *"In my opinion I **am** an astronaut"*. Both seem slightly weird sentiments to me.
Examples 3, 5 seem unexceptional to me. Personally, I'd normally include *"to be"* (as extensively explored in [this earlier question](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/57816/)). I should point out that [*"I feel myself guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...8335.9143.3.9464.6.6.0.0.0.0.90.370.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.XoB5dUjBhBo&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) is far more common than [*"I feel myself **to be** guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...130869.132110.4.132488.6.6.0.0.0.0.75.376.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.R5gheKPT6hA&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886). But they're both eclipsed by the standard [*"I feel guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...56280.57807.5.58312.13.9.0.0.0.3.132.629.7j2.9.0...0.0...1c.1.8rGafe0NoKQ&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) anyway. | My opinion on American English usage is that there is no auto-erotic meaning to the clause "I feel myself" except among those who spend a disproportionate amount of time thinking in those terms. (This is illustrated in the popular cartoon series "Beavis and Butthead", which frequently exemplifies a juvenile obsession with anything erotic.)
The sentence "I feel myself" may require some further explanation, as it does seem to assert that something extraordinary is happening. This is simply because we all (or most of us, anyway) can physically feel or sense ourselves.
tchrist gave a link to some excellent examples of how "I feel myself..." can be used. Each of these cases appear to be self-consistent and not requiring additional explanation beyond the context that each one is in. (I didn't actually look at all of the nearly 2 million results.)
Most of your example sentences are not common in everyday usage, but I would not find them to be unusual in a first-person narrative story, for example. I that case, I would also expect plenty of context to give it clearer meaning.
"I feel myself badly" is a little difficult to imagine, but even that sentence could find a place in the right context. As for the others, you could just as easily substitute "I imagine myself..." if you want to know how "I feel myself..." might be used and interpreted. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | All of these sentences are grammatically valid, but for some of them the intended meaning is not at all clear, and they are not the way that most English speakers would express these ideas.
In general, "I feel myself" is generally understood to mean touching yourself for autoerotic pleasure, which is probably not what you mean in any of these examples.
"I feel myself badly." Sounds like you mean that you are unskilled at autoeroticism. If what you mean is that you are sick or unhappy, you should say simply "I feel bad."
"I feel myself well." Similar to badly but in the opposite direction. You probably mean "I feel good."
"I feel myself to be a hero/astronaut/suppressed." Valid. These would be understood to mean that you think you "qualify" as one of these things, but by using the word "feel" rather than simply stating that you "are", you imply that the classification might be debatable. Like, someone who has flown very high-altitude airplanes might say, "I feel myself to be an astrounaut", knowing that others will challenge the claim. I think most Enlgish speakers would be more likely to say, "I consider myself to be an astrounaut" or "I think of myself as an astronaut" or "I think I am an astronaut." But the sentence as written is valid if that's what you mean. Note this is different from saying, "I feel like a [whatever]". In that case, you are not claiming to actually be whatever, just that you have some similar experience. Like, "After an hour in the Space Shuttle simulator, I feel like an astronaut."
"I feel myself sleeping." I'm not sure what you're trying to say. If you're sleeping, you're not really feeling anything. Maybe "I feel myself falling asleep"? | My opinion on American English usage is that there is no auto-erotic meaning to the clause "I feel myself" except among those who spend a disproportionate amount of time thinking in those terms. (This is illustrated in the popular cartoon series "Beavis and Butthead", which frequently exemplifies a juvenile obsession with anything erotic.)
The sentence "I feel myself" may require some further explanation, as it does seem to assert that something extraordinary is happening. This is simply because we all (or most of us, anyway) can physically feel or sense ourselves.
tchrist gave a link to some excellent examples of how "I feel myself..." can be used. Each of these cases appear to be self-consistent and not requiring additional explanation beyond the context that each one is in. (I didn't actually look at all of the nearly 2 million results.)
Most of your example sentences are not common in everyday usage, but I would not find them to be unusual in a first-person narrative story, for example. I that case, I would also expect plenty of context to give it clearer meaning.
"I feel myself badly" is a little difficult to imagine, but even that sentence could find a place in the right context. As for the others, you could just as easily substitute "I imagine myself..." if you want to know how "I feel myself..." might be used and interpreted. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | All of these sentences are grammatically valid, but for some of them the intended meaning is not at all clear, and they are not the way that most English speakers would express these ideas.
In general, "I feel myself" is generally understood to mean touching yourself for autoerotic pleasure, which is probably not what you mean in any of these examples.
"I feel myself badly." Sounds like you mean that you are unskilled at autoeroticism. If what you mean is that you are sick or unhappy, you should say simply "I feel bad."
"I feel myself well." Similar to badly but in the opposite direction. You probably mean "I feel good."
"I feel myself to be a hero/astronaut/suppressed." Valid. These would be understood to mean that you think you "qualify" as one of these things, but by using the word "feel" rather than simply stating that you "are", you imply that the classification might be debatable. Like, someone who has flown very high-altitude airplanes might say, "I feel myself to be an astrounaut", knowing that others will challenge the claim. I think most Enlgish speakers would be more likely to say, "I consider myself to be an astrounaut" or "I think of myself as an astronaut" or "I think I am an astronaut." But the sentence as written is valid if that's what you mean. Note this is different from saying, "I feel like a [whatever]". In that case, you are not claiming to actually be whatever, just that you have some similar experience. Like, "After an hour in the Space Shuttle simulator, I feel like an astronaut."
"I feel myself sleeping." I'm not sure what you're trying to say. If you're sleeping, you're not really feeling anything. Maybe "I feel myself falling asleep"? | *I feel myself*, when not used in a tactile sense, means soemthing like *I consider myself*. It follows that examples 3, 4 and 5 are grammatical, and all three may be used without *to be*. 6 is grammatical, with or without *to be*, but, for semantic reasons, would be unlikely to be said by a native speaker. 1 and 2 are ungrammatical in the 'consider' sense. |
83,189 | I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say ***I feel myself badly*** instead of ***I feel ill***.
I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?
>
> 1. I feel myself badly
> 2. I feel myself well
> 3. I feel myself to be a hero
> 4. I feel myself to be an astronaut
> 5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)
> 6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)
>
>
>
Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?
**UPDATE**
Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well. | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83189",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2797/"
] | All of these sentences are grammatically valid, but for some of them the intended meaning is not at all clear, and they are not the way that most English speakers would express these ideas.
In general, "I feel myself" is generally understood to mean touching yourself for autoerotic pleasure, which is probably not what you mean in any of these examples.
"I feel myself badly." Sounds like you mean that you are unskilled at autoeroticism. If what you mean is that you are sick or unhappy, you should say simply "I feel bad."
"I feel myself well." Similar to badly but in the opposite direction. You probably mean "I feel good."
"I feel myself to be a hero/astronaut/suppressed." Valid. These would be understood to mean that you think you "qualify" as one of these things, but by using the word "feel" rather than simply stating that you "are", you imply that the classification might be debatable. Like, someone who has flown very high-altitude airplanes might say, "I feel myself to be an astrounaut", knowing that others will challenge the claim. I think most Enlgish speakers would be more likely to say, "I consider myself to be an astrounaut" or "I think of myself as an astronaut" or "I think I am an astronaut." But the sentence as written is valid if that's what you mean. Note this is different from saying, "I feel like a [whatever]". In that case, you are not claiming to actually be whatever, just that you have some similar experience. Like, "After an hour in the Space Shuttle simulator, I feel like an astronaut."
"I feel myself sleeping." I'm not sure what you're trying to say. If you're sleeping, you're not really feeling anything. Maybe "I feel myself falling asleep"? | *I feel myself [to be] XXX* is an idiomatic metaphorical usage. It's normally associated with *considered assessment*. So if you said...
>
> ["I felt myself to be dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1)
>
>
>
...this would most likely mean that taking all circumstances into account, you genuinely believed that you were actually dying and would soon be dead. On the other hand,...
>
> ["I felt like I was dying"](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&oq=%22I%20felt%20like%20I%20was%20dying%22&gs_l=serp.3...139862.144412.0.144893.22.22.0.0.0.0.101.1414.21j1.22.0...0.0...1c.1.0YzFKkPQ8_U&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886)
>
>
>
...primarily emphasises *how bad you felt* (you may not really have believed you were about to die).
---
OP's examples 1, 2, 6 all strike me as non-standard, in that none of the states being referenced are anything that would require careful assessment.
We do also use the "reflexive" form in contexts where "feel" has the meaning *intuitively sense*, rather than *think, judge* - for example, *"I felt myself to be unwanted and unloved"*. But again, examples 1, 2, 6 don't fit that meaning.
Example 4 also seems rather odd. Without context, it could mean *"My current circumstances and reactions are similar to what I imagine an astronaut would experience"*, or it could mean *"In my opinion I **am** an astronaut"*. Both seem slightly weird sentiments to me.
Examples 3, 5 seem unexceptional to me. Personally, I'd normally include *"to be"* (as extensively explored in [this earlier question](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/57816/)). I should point out that [*"I feel myself guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...8335.9143.3.9464.6.6.0.0.0.0.90.370.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.XoB5dUjBhBo&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) is far more common than [*"I feel myself **to be** guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20myself%20to%20be%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...130869.132110.4.132488.6.6.0.0.0.0.75.376.6.6.0...0.0...1c.1.R5gheKPT6hA&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886). But they're both eclipsed by the standard [*"I feel guilty"*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=%22I%20felt%20myself%20to%20be%20dying%22&btnG=Search%20Books&tbm=bks&tbo=1#hl=en&tbo=1&tbm=bks&sclient=psy-ab&q=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&oq=%22I%20feel%20guilty%22&gs_l=serp.3...56280.57807.5.58312.13.9.0.0.0.3.132.629.7j2.9.0...0.0...1c.1.8rGafe0NoKQ&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_cp.r_qf.&fp=46810cf96877f311&biw=1379&bih=886) anyway. |
43,025 | [Xantcha, Sleeper Agent](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bXantcha%2c%20Sleeper%20Agent%5d) has the ability:
>
> As Xantcha, Sleeper Agent enters the battlefield, an opponent of your
> choice gains control of it.
>
>
>
The [release notes for Commander 2018](https://magic.wizards.com/en/articles/archive/feature/commander-2018-edition-release-notes-2018-07-27) describe what happens when a player who controls a permanent owned by another player leaves the game as:
>
> If that player controlled any permanents owned by another player, the
> effects that gave control of them to the player who left end. If this
> doesn't give control of them to a different player (perhaps because
> they entered the battlefield under the control of the player who
> left), they're exiled.
>
>
>
In the same document, the release notes for Xantcha state:
>
> If the player under whose control Xantcha entered the battlefield
> leaves the game, the effect changing control of Xantcha ends.
>
>
>
[Answers to a previous question](https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/43013/does-a-xantcha-i-cast-trigger-a-warstorm-surge-i-control) lead me to believe that Xantcha's replacement effect causes it to enter the battlefield under an opponent's control and not under my control at all.
Because Xantcha appears to be entering the battlefield under an opponent's control, I thought Xantcha would be exiled when its controller leaves the game.
However, I know this is not what happens because [the official Magic: The Gathering Rules Manager has answered a question about it](https://twitter.com/EliShffrn/status/1022180668883709952):
>
> What happens to Xantcha when the opponent controlling her dies? Does
> she get exiled? Returned to my battlefield? Do I get to give her to
> another opponent? Is all of this in the release notes?
>
>
> It's all in the release notes, but I'll tell you! You end up with
> Xantcha. Will you keep her as your poisonous friend, or kill her so
> you can pop a new Xantcha out of the vat? #WotCStaff
>
>
>
So I know what is supposed to happen - Xantcha's owner is supposed to gain control of it when its current controller leaves the game. What I want to know is the full explanation within the rules of what causes this result to happen. | 2018/07/31 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/43025",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/3075/"
] | When Throne of Eldraine was released in October 2019, Xantcha, Sleeper Agent received functional errata that makes it now work the same way a card obtained with Bribery works; and Xantcha will now be exiled by 800.4a when her controller leaves the game.
Leaving the original answer below; as the question only existed due to the old wording on Xantcha and the old rules associated with that wording.
---
[Xantcha, Sleeper Agent](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bXantcha%2c%20Sleeper%20Agent%5d) has an ability that generates a continuous effect. This continuous effect then ends due to the first part of rule 800.4a:
>
> When a player leaves the game, all objects (see rule 109) owned by that player leave the game **and any effects which give that player control of any objects or players end**.
>
>
>
We can see that it is a continuous effect:
>
> 611. Continuous Effects
>
>
>
> >
> > 611.1. A continuous effect modifies characteristics of objects, **modifies control of objects**, or affects players or the rules of the game, for a fixed or indefinite period.
> >
> >
> > 611.2. A continuous effect may be generated by the resolution of a spell or ability.
> >
> >
> >
> > >
> > > 611.2a A continuous effect generated by the resolution of a spell or ability lasts as long as stated by the spell or ability creating it (such as “until end of turn”). **If no duration is stated, it lasts until the end of the game**.
> > >
> > >
> > >
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
This is confirmed by a Gatherer ruling on Xantcha:
>
> If the player under whose control Xantcha entered the battlefield leaves the game, the effect changing control of Xantcha ends. Because Xantcha’s replacement effect creates a continuous effect causing another player to control it, Xantcha isn’t exiled.
>
>
>
This is different from the wording on cards such as [Bribery](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bBribery%5d), which says "put that card onto the battlefield under your control". In that case, there is no continuous effect, the card simply entered the battlefield under your control. Because of this, the first part of 800.4a would not see a control-changing effect to end, and instead the third part of 800.4a would exile the creature.
Note that the wording that causes the controller to be an opponent is the same on Xantcha as it is on cards like [Donate](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bDonate%5d), "[...]player gains control". The only difference is that it is a replacement effect that happens as the creature enters the battlefield, instead of something that happens to a creature already on the battlefield. Bribery on the other hand has no such replacement effect or continuous effect, it simply lets you put something on the battlefield under your control.
It is still correct that you never controlled Xantcha in the first place, but that is not relevant. The rules don't cause Xantcha to "revert" to its original controller, they simply cause a control-changing effect to end. Theoretically, Xantcha could end up going to a different opponent instead, if there were multiple controller-changing effects in play. | **Xantcha will be exiled when the opponent that has control of her leaves the game but the game continues.**
The owner of Xantcha never had control of Xantcha, so there is no controller to revert to if the opponent controlling her leaves the game. Thus, Xantcha will be exiled. I have to suspect that the Rules manager tweet was mistaken, if he indeed meant that the owner will gain control of Xantcha. The bolded example of rule 800.4a is the closest equivalent to the Xantcha situation:
>
> 800.4a When a player leaves the game, all objects (see rule 109) owned by that player leave the game and any effects which give that player control of any objects or players end. Then, if that player controlled any objects on the stack not represented by cards, those objects cease to exist. **Then, if there are any objects still controlled by that player, those objects are exiled.** This is not a state-based action. It happens as soon as the player leaves the game. If the player who left the game had priority at the time they left, priority passes to the next player in turn order who’s still in the game.
>
>
> Example: Alex casts Mind Control, an Aura that reads, “You control enchanted creature,” on Bianca’s Assault Griffin. If Alex leaves the game, so does Mind Control, and Assault Griffin reverts to Bianca’s control. If, instead, Bianca leaves the game, so does Assault Griffin, and Mind Control is put into Alex’s graveyard.
>
>
> Example: Alex casts Act of Treason, which reads, in part, “Gain control of target creature until end of turn,” targeting Bianca’s Runeclaw Bears. If Alex leaves the game, Act of Treason’s change-of-control effect ends and Runeclaw Bears reverts to Bianca’s control.
>
>
> **Example: Alex casts Bribery, which reads, “Search target opponent’s library for a creature card and put that card onto the battlefield under your control. Then that player shuffles their library,” targeting Bianca. Alex puts Serra Angel onto the battlefield from Bianca’s library.** If Bianca leaves the game, Serra Angel also leaves the game. **If, instead, Alex leaves the game, Serra Angel is exiled.**
>
>
> Example: Alex controls Genesis Chamber, which reads, “Whenever a nontoken creature enters the battlefield, if Genesis Chamber is untapped, that creature’s controller creates a 1/1 colorless Myr artifact creature token.” If Alex leaves the game, all such Myr tokens that entered the battlefield under Alex’s control leave the game, and all such Myr tokens that entered the battlefield under any other player’s control remain in the game.
>
>
> |
83,830 | In Jane Austen's *The Watsons*, the maid of the titular family utters the following sentence:
>
> "Please, ma'am, master wants to know why he ben't to have his dinner?"
>
>
>
I have never encountered *ben't* before, and haven't been able to find much information about it through preliminary research. [This source](http://books.google.com/books?id=IrcZEZ1bOJsC&pg=PA7&lpg=PA7&dq=ben%27t%20contraction&source=bl&ots=7QwAod0CZo&sig=d0Tng0ytTwk4cerWKyDtF2rmyoI&hl=en&sa=X&ei=JKJiULTHLcPVyQHli4DgBA&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=ben%27t%20contraction&f=false), as well as a few others I encountered, states that *ben't* is among the **first** negative contractions attested in written English, in the 1600s, but gives no clue as to when its usage ended, nor what exactly it was used for. Given that *The Watsons* was written in 1805 and published in 1871, the form was evidently still recognized in the 19th century.
So, my question has several parts:
1. What exactly does *ben't* mean - how did its usage differ from *isn't, aren't*, etc? (In the example above, it sounds as though it would be interchangeable with *isn't*.)
2. When did *ben't* become archaic/obsolete?
3. Were there some dialects of English in which *ben't* was more commonly used than others? (I ask this because in the Austen example, it's the maid who uses *ben't*, which leads me to hypothesize that maybe - at least by the 19th century - it was only used in some nonstandard dialect, or a lower speech register, or something of that kind.) | 2012/09/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83830",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/15264/"
] | The OED shows many forms of *be* that have occurred over the centuries, including numerous negative forms. *Ben’t* is among them, having been in use from the seventeenth century onwards, and it may still be heard in some parts of England today. It has probably always been a non-standard form, in so far as it is possible to make such distinctions before a fully standardised form of English emerged.
There are similar forms which may represent similar pronunciations, so it is may not be clear which one the maid actually used.
The supporting citations show it being used with *I*, with the meaning *I am not*, but that doesn’t necessarily mean it is not found with other persons. | I encountered "ben't" for the first time in Jonathan Edwards' Treatise Concerning Religious Affections (18th c. America)
Commenting on the Shema' (Hear, O Israel...), he writes, "If we ben't in good earnest in Religion, and our Wills and Inclinations ben't strongly exercised, we are Nothing." (p. 10)
I realized this can only be a contraction for "be not." |
83,830 | In Jane Austen's *The Watsons*, the maid of the titular family utters the following sentence:
>
> "Please, ma'am, master wants to know why he ben't to have his dinner?"
>
>
>
I have never encountered *ben't* before, and haven't been able to find much information about it through preliminary research. [This source](http://books.google.com/books?id=IrcZEZ1bOJsC&pg=PA7&lpg=PA7&dq=ben%27t%20contraction&source=bl&ots=7QwAod0CZo&sig=d0Tng0ytTwk4cerWKyDtF2rmyoI&hl=en&sa=X&ei=JKJiULTHLcPVyQHli4DgBA&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=ben%27t%20contraction&f=false), as well as a few others I encountered, states that *ben't* is among the **first** negative contractions attested in written English, in the 1600s, but gives no clue as to when its usage ended, nor what exactly it was used for. Given that *The Watsons* was written in 1805 and published in 1871, the form was evidently still recognized in the 19th century.
So, my question has several parts:
1. What exactly does *ben't* mean - how did its usage differ from *isn't, aren't*, etc? (In the example above, it sounds as though it would be interchangeable with *isn't*.)
2. When did *ben't* become archaic/obsolete?
3. Were there some dialects of English in which *ben't* was more commonly used than others? (I ask this because in the Austen example, it's the maid who uses *ben't*, which leads me to hypothesize that maybe - at least by the 19th century - it was only used in some nonstandard dialect, or a lower speech register, or something of that kind.) | 2012/09/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83830",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/15264/"
] | The OED shows many forms of *be* that have occurred over the centuries, including numerous negative forms. *Ben’t* is among them, having been in use from the seventeenth century onwards, and it may still be heard in some parts of England today. It has probably always been a non-standard form, in so far as it is possible to make such distinctions before a fully standardised form of English emerged.
There are similar forms which may represent similar pronunciations, so it is may not be clear which one the maid actually used.
The supporting citations show it being used with *I*, with the meaning *I am not*, but that doesn’t necessarily mean it is not found with other persons. | Ban't or barnt is used along with man't or marnt is used in SW Lancashire to mean 'better hadn't' and mustn't. Thy ban't be doing that lad' was a phrase I often heard in my youth! |
83,830 | In Jane Austen's *The Watsons*, the maid of the titular family utters the following sentence:
>
> "Please, ma'am, master wants to know why he ben't to have his dinner?"
>
>
>
I have never encountered *ben't* before, and haven't been able to find much information about it through preliminary research. [This source](http://books.google.com/books?id=IrcZEZ1bOJsC&pg=PA7&lpg=PA7&dq=ben%27t%20contraction&source=bl&ots=7QwAod0CZo&sig=d0Tng0ytTwk4cerWKyDtF2rmyoI&hl=en&sa=X&ei=JKJiULTHLcPVyQHli4DgBA&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=ben%27t%20contraction&f=false), as well as a few others I encountered, states that *ben't* is among the **first** negative contractions attested in written English, in the 1600s, but gives no clue as to when its usage ended, nor what exactly it was used for. Given that *The Watsons* was written in 1805 and published in 1871, the form was evidently still recognized in the 19th century.
So, my question has several parts:
1. What exactly does *ben't* mean - how did its usage differ from *isn't, aren't*, etc? (In the example above, it sounds as though it would be interchangeable with *isn't*.)
2. When did *ben't* become archaic/obsolete?
3. Were there some dialects of English in which *ben't* was more commonly used than others? (I ask this because in the Austen example, it's the maid who uses *ben't*, which leads me to hypothesize that maybe - at least by the 19th century - it was only used in some nonstandard dialect, or a lower speech register, or something of that kind.) | 2012/09/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/83830",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/15264/"
] | I encountered "ben't" for the first time in Jonathan Edwards' Treatise Concerning Religious Affections (18th c. America)
Commenting on the Shema' (Hear, O Israel...), he writes, "If we ben't in good earnest in Religion, and our Wills and Inclinations ben't strongly exercised, we are Nothing." (p. 10)
I realized this can only be a contraction for "be not." | Ban't or barnt is used along with man't or marnt is used in SW Lancashire to mean 'better hadn't' and mustn't. Thy ban't be doing that lad' was a phrase I often heard in my youth! |
87,810 | I'm learning to use Illustrator and I've maid a brush stroke, but I cannot change the width profile of the brush stroke.
This is what I do: I select the stroke I've made with my custom brush, I go to the panel at the top, I change the width profile of the stroke but it doesn't work.
Even if I select any width profile and I use the brush, the brush stroke is always the same.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vai3r.jpg)
What is the problem? | 2017/03/31 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/87810",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/89962/"
] | You can only set a custom width profile or adjust the width (using the width tool) of a stroke with either a basic brush (a.k.a. no brush), an art brush or a pattern brush... The "5 pt. Round" brush you have set is a calligraphic brush so a width profile simply won't work. | You can *change* the type of brush stroke you're using under the Properties panel. From there, change the Brush setting to "basic". You can then change the width profile and arrows like a normal pen line, but you can't keep any special brush types.
Now, why they don't let you just use "basic" for your brush type in the first place is beyond me. |
252,935 | I'm in the market for a new network appliance router that either has the following features, or can be modded to have the following features:
* Dual Stack (ipv4, ipv6)
* On-Board Configurable DNS Server
* Wireless
* ...and VPN Support
Do they make such a router? | 2011/03/03 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/252935",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2293/"
] | Most of the routers that can be re-flashed to DD-WRT or OpenWRT should meet your requirements. This may void your warranty. Something with 8MB or more flash, and 32MB more memory should work well. Currently Atheros Wifi cards are best supported.
At least one manufacturer is distributing DD-WRT firmware and is open to re-flashing with alternative software. See the [OpenWRT Table of Hardware](http://wiki.openwrt.org/toh/start) for options. I run an ASUS WL-500G Premium providing DNS, DHCP, IPv6, and firewalls for both IPv4 and IPv6.
* DHCP and DNS are provided by DNSMasq.
* IPv6 is provided by a 6to4 tunnel to Hurricane Electric
* radvd is installed for IPv6 auto-configuration.
* Firewalls are implemented using shorewall-lite and shorewall6-lite.
* I have OpenVPN installed, but not configured.
Comcast appears to be one of the few North American IPSs that is working on IPv6. They have been working with the OpenWRT to release code for a dual stack home router. They have been testing implementation and deployment IPv6 using 6RD tunnels. This helps bypass problems with cable modems that don't yet or can not support dual stacks. | Currently the home LAN router industry seems to be completely ignoring IPv6, which is very disappointing.
The following web page seems to be keeping tabs on this:
Routers - SixXS Wiki
<http://www.sixxs.net/wiki/Routers>
Fortunately, there are some LinkSys and other home LAN routers that can take a customized firmware and there are some open source projects that will handle just that. I believe many of these projects focus on using Linux for this (I think OpenBSD would be an ideal fit as well given its excellent reputation for paranoid security), which could make it possible for you to include OpenVPN and other such technologies to better meet your needs. Additional research will be required on your part because you'll need to decide which hardware you're going to use, and then that would limit your selection of which custom firmware you may be able to use. |
11,537 | I know that if we have some data representing some wave, for example image line values, we can use fourier transform to get frequency function of that wave. But we have N values at points x=0...N-1 And we get only N frequencies at the output. So I want to analyze the wave everywhere in the range [0, N-1] For example at point u = 1.5. How can I do it? | 2010/01/12 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/11537",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/3195/"
] | Strictly speaking, you can't. That is, you have to interpolate to do it, and to do that in a meaningful way requires some knowledge of the problem domain. However, the easiest way to do so is to note that the given function is naturally written in terms of its discrete Fourier transform as a trigonometric polynomial, so you can just go ahead and evaluate that trigonometric polynomial at any intermediate point. The same thing goes with the function and its Fourier transform interchanged, of course. Though it does not really make good mathematical sense to do this interpolation in both domains simultaneously. | Here is one answer from the electrical engineering(or, image processing) point of view. However this answer much non-mathematical and more for practical illustration. Since this is a non-mathematical answer, I have made it community wiki so that I don't get reputation.
In digital signal processing, you sample an analog signal into digital encoding, and let your microprocessor work with it. When you do sampling, you clearly lose some information and there is no way you can recover it. When you become too greedy and actually try to get more, the problem of "aliasing" will happen.
[Here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aliasing) is the wikipedia link for aliasing.
For image processing, situation is even better for an illustration, since you can actually see wavy patterns. These are called Moiré patterns, and you must have seen it sometime in the real world. [Here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moire_pattern) is a wikipedia link. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a number of factors that have limited wider adoption of Turbo-Compounds and it all comes down to how they actually work and where they receive their greatest benefits. In the early studies of the concept by NACA in the 1940's they determined that the most critical factor is the Exhaust Exit Pressure (Pe) to Intake Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP, or Pm) ratio as this determines the Effective Mean Exhaust Jet Velocity, Ve(eff), available to the turbine power recovery stage. This means that a Turbo-Compound produces the largest benefits at low values of the ratio (low Pe, high Pm), making them ideal for use in conditions with either exceptionally high MAP or exceptionally low Pe. Excluding other exhaust recovery stages (such as a following turbo-supercharger), the Pe experienced by the Turbo-Compound turbine--the Power Recovery Turbine--is normally the same as the static atmospheric pressure (Pa). This means they make a lot of sense in Aircraft which operate at high altitudes with low Pa thereby naturally lowering the Pe:Pm ratio, and therefore increasing the Ve(eff) and the power available to the Power Recovery Turbine.
With this in mind, the limited efficacy of the Turbo-Compound in most road applications should be apparent. Since cars generally operate at or near sea level pressures they have a higher Pe, which increases the value of the Pm:Pe ratio and reduces the amount of recovery possible with the turbine. In order for a car to receive more than marginal benefit from a Turbo-Compound it would need to operate with a continuous boost in the MAP, and fairly significant one at that. This means it first must use Forced Induction (Supercharger or Turbocharger) and second, that the blower maintains a steady MAP of 30% or greater boost over Pa at normal operating conditions. Since most road cars operate at partial throttle under almost all conditions this means that it needs to have positive boost under those partial throttle conditions, which isn't a very common arrangement due to strain on the engine and the heat produced. This is why it is really only seen in Compression Ignition engines, Diesels, which operate within a limited set RPM range the vast majority of time at speeds which produce sufficient airflow for effective cooling (both charge-air and coolant). As others have pointed out, they could theoretically be of use in racing as well, especially long-track/oval racing, where the car is operated at continuous RPM and high-speed for extended periods. Another place where I could see good benefit to Turbo-Compounding is in Pike's Peak Hill Climb racing--short, full-throttle, high-boost sprints at high elevation.
All of these factors: the requirements to get the sufficient benefit from the system; the added cost, weight and complexity; the potential reduced reliability; and other available technologies; have relegated the traditional Turbo-Compound to a largely historical curiosity of "what could have been."
On the other hand, we are seeing variations of the idea. In the current F1 era they use something resembling Turbo-Compound which stores the recovered energy as electricity instead of applying directly back to the crank. Ferrari is developing a similar system for use in their next generation of sportscars as well but will use the recovered power to drive an electrical supercharger as a sort of uncoupled turbocharger set up. Either way, the power recovery is used more for electrical generation that anything and the electricity is then used to produce work through independent motors. | Modern compound engines use electric motors to translate the speed of the turbine to the speed of the wheel or propeller. For this, modern electronics is needed. It works in F1 and in the trucks and would work in hybrid cars with a small internal combustion engine. Turbines have a narrower working range than a piston engine. Cars most of the time idle or need full power for acceleration.
I wonder if it is possible to use a small compression ratio piston engine and a burning chamber (covered with a catalyst material, padded in insulation), where temperatures are low enough to reduce NOx, but still high enough to burn soot and CO. These temperatures aneal and thus flatten the catalyst's surface (so called pre-cat) and thus are avoided in usual catalyst converters. The high temperature, high pressure exhaust can be used to drive a two stage turbine. Note that this turbine housing costs more than a housing for relatively cold diesel exhaust. Also the first stage may need Nickel blades and only the second stage can have variable guide planes. A Cyclon (or even a filter) in the chamber may help to prolonge the duration of soot particles in the chamber.
All in all this is stuff for a premium hybrid car or truck. Agilty is due to the electric motor driven by a super-capacitor. FADEC enforces high temperatures at the filter in order to be never congested by soot. Excess energy is dumped into the batteries. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a number of factors that have limited wider adoption of Turbo-Compounds and it all comes down to how they actually work and where they receive their greatest benefits. In the early studies of the concept by NACA in the 1940's they determined that the most critical factor is the Exhaust Exit Pressure (Pe) to Intake Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP, or Pm) ratio as this determines the Effective Mean Exhaust Jet Velocity, Ve(eff), available to the turbine power recovery stage. This means that a Turbo-Compound produces the largest benefits at low values of the ratio (low Pe, high Pm), making them ideal for use in conditions with either exceptionally high MAP or exceptionally low Pe. Excluding other exhaust recovery stages (such as a following turbo-supercharger), the Pe experienced by the Turbo-Compound turbine--the Power Recovery Turbine--is normally the same as the static atmospheric pressure (Pa). This means they make a lot of sense in Aircraft which operate at high altitudes with low Pa thereby naturally lowering the Pe:Pm ratio, and therefore increasing the Ve(eff) and the power available to the Power Recovery Turbine.
With this in mind, the limited efficacy of the Turbo-Compound in most road applications should be apparent. Since cars generally operate at or near sea level pressures they have a higher Pe, which increases the value of the Pm:Pe ratio and reduces the amount of recovery possible with the turbine. In order for a car to receive more than marginal benefit from a Turbo-Compound it would need to operate with a continuous boost in the MAP, and fairly significant one at that. This means it first must use Forced Induction (Supercharger or Turbocharger) and second, that the blower maintains a steady MAP of 30% or greater boost over Pa at normal operating conditions. Since most road cars operate at partial throttle under almost all conditions this means that it needs to have positive boost under those partial throttle conditions, which isn't a very common arrangement due to strain on the engine and the heat produced. This is why it is really only seen in Compression Ignition engines, Diesels, which operate within a limited set RPM range the vast majority of time at speeds which produce sufficient airflow for effective cooling (both charge-air and coolant). As others have pointed out, they could theoretically be of use in racing as well, especially long-track/oval racing, where the car is operated at continuous RPM and high-speed for extended periods. Another place where I could see good benefit to Turbo-Compounding is in Pike's Peak Hill Climb racing--short, full-throttle, high-boost sprints at high elevation.
All of these factors: the requirements to get the sufficient benefit from the system; the added cost, weight and complexity; the potential reduced reliability; and other available technologies; have relegated the traditional Turbo-Compound to a largely historical curiosity of "what could have been."
On the other hand, we are seeing variations of the idea. In the current F1 era they use something resembling Turbo-Compound which stores the recovered energy as electricity instead of applying directly back to the crank. Ferrari is developing a similar system for use in their next generation of sportscars as well but will use the recovered power to drive an electrical supercharger as a sort of uncoupled turbocharger set up. Either way, the power recovery is used more for electrical generation that anything and the electricity is then used to produce work through independent motors. | I limit my comments to aircraft:
turbocompounding, as used in the R3350, was a way of extracting the kinetic energy of the exhaust gases with a turbine and putting it back on the crankshaft. Exhaust gas backpressure buildup was not a design limiter for cruise at 25,000 feet. Today, the exhaust gas energy recovery turbine is used instead to drive the supercharger, which on the 3350 was driven off the crankshaft, making turbosupercharging less complex than turbocompounding.
The question is moot for aircraft engines bigger than 600SHP or so, where turboprop engines have taken over. they are far more reliable in the 1500-2000 SHP range than the R3350 or the R4360 as well as having better power-to-weight.
As such, turbocompounding was a bridge technology sitting between piston engines and turboprop technology. Once engines like the Allison 501 came along, 18 and 28 cylinder piston engines, with or without turbocompounding, were finished. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a number of factors that have limited wider adoption of Turbo-Compounds and it all comes down to how they actually work and where they receive their greatest benefits. In the early studies of the concept by NACA in the 1940's they determined that the most critical factor is the Exhaust Exit Pressure (Pe) to Intake Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP, or Pm) ratio as this determines the Effective Mean Exhaust Jet Velocity, Ve(eff), available to the turbine power recovery stage. This means that a Turbo-Compound produces the largest benefits at low values of the ratio (low Pe, high Pm), making them ideal for use in conditions with either exceptionally high MAP or exceptionally low Pe. Excluding other exhaust recovery stages (such as a following turbo-supercharger), the Pe experienced by the Turbo-Compound turbine--the Power Recovery Turbine--is normally the same as the static atmospheric pressure (Pa). This means they make a lot of sense in Aircraft which operate at high altitudes with low Pa thereby naturally lowering the Pe:Pm ratio, and therefore increasing the Ve(eff) and the power available to the Power Recovery Turbine.
With this in mind, the limited efficacy of the Turbo-Compound in most road applications should be apparent. Since cars generally operate at or near sea level pressures they have a higher Pe, which increases the value of the Pm:Pe ratio and reduces the amount of recovery possible with the turbine. In order for a car to receive more than marginal benefit from a Turbo-Compound it would need to operate with a continuous boost in the MAP, and fairly significant one at that. This means it first must use Forced Induction (Supercharger or Turbocharger) and second, that the blower maintains a steady MAP of 30% or greater boost over Pa at normal operating conditions. Since most road cars operate at partial throttle under almost all conditions this means that it needs to have positive boost under those partial throttle conditions, which isn't a very common arrangement due to strain on the engine and the heat produced. This is why it is really only seen in Compression Ignition engines, Diesels, which operate within a limited set RPM range the vast majority of time at speeds which produce sufficient airflow for effective cooling (both charge-air and coolant). As others have pointed out, they could theoretically be of use in racing as well, especially long-track/oval racing, where the car is operated at continuous RPM and high-speed for extended periods. Another place where I could see good benefit to Turbo-Compounding is in Pike's Peak Hill Climb racing--short, full-throttle, high-boost sprints at high elevation.
All of these factors: the requirements to get the sufficient benefit from the system; the added cost, weight and complexity; the potential reduced reliability; and other available technologies; have relegated the traditional Turbo-Compound to a largely historical curiosity of "what could have been."
On the other hand, we are seeing variations of the idea. In the current F1 era they use something resembling Turbo-Compound which stores the recovered energy as electricity instead of applying directly back to the crank. Ferrari is developing a similar system for use in their next generation of sportscars as well but will use the recovered power to drive an electrical supercharger as a sort of uncoupled turbocharger set up. Either way, the power recovery is used more for electrical generation that anything and the electricity is then used to produce work through independent motors. | Turbo compounding is used currently in truck engines by Detroit diesel and Volvo, but they are suited to long haul applications where the engine is at a constant revs/load, the power turbine it is said extracts up to 50 horsepower to put back into the crankshaft but the trade off as explained earlier is increased exhaust backpressure meaning the pistons have to push harder to get the exhaust gas out, so in transient (engine up and down the rev range) operation the power turbine costs energy, in a steady state it can reduce fuel consumption 2-5% |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | I limit my comments to aircraft:
turbocompounding, as used in the R3350, was a way of extracting the kinetic energy of the exhaust gases with a turbine and putting it back on the crankshaft. Exhaust gas backpressure buildup was not a design limiter for cruise at 25,000 feet. Today, the exhaust gas energy recovery turbine is used instead to drive the supercharger, which on the 3350 was driven off the crankshaft, making turbosupercharging less complex than turbocompounding.
The question is moot for aircraft engines bigger than 600SHP or so, where turboprop engines have taken over. they are far more reliable in the 1500-2000 SHP range than the R3350 or the R4360 as well as having better power-to-weight.
As such, turbocompounding was a bridge technology sitting between piston engines and turboprop technology. Once engines like the Allison 501 came along, 18 and 28 cylinder piston engines, with or without turbocompounding, were finished. | I’ve been doing a lot of reading on this and what we haven’t seen is a form of turbo compounding but instead using a small turbine engine capable of running itself when a steady torque is required. If married to a reciprocating engine with variable valve timing, the valves could be held open; the turbine generating the power. Under acceleration the turbine could operate as a turbocharger using bleed air intercooled as boost. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a lot of reasons, but the main reasons are increase cost and decreased reliability. The power they produced also cost engine efficiency as they increased the back pressure in the exhaust line.
So when you design an engine you have a few choices. For instance, you can either increase engine efficiency, or sap energy from the exhaust line. If you employ variable valve timing, for instance, you can extract much more of that exhaust energy and put it into the crankshaft without a turbo. If you instead add a turbo, you've added another set of gears, more moving parts, taken up more space, and added more weight.
Now the turbo might be slightly better at extracting energy than the variable valve timing, but does it offset the additional cost, weight, and reliability?
So most engine manufacturers don't employ turbo unless there's a reason for it.
For instance, some races have a limit to the number of cylinders and cylinder volume, and racers do care more about that extra 0.1% efficiency than they care about reliability since they have a team of mechanics working on the vehicle. So it makes sense there.
It doesn't make much sense on a standard consumer vehicle where the cost/weight tradeoffs relative to performance can be more effectively employed elsewhere in the engine. | I limit my comments to aircraft:
turbocompounding, as used in the R3350, was a way of extracting the kinetic energy of the exhaust gases with a turbine and putting it back on the crankshaft. Exhaust gas backpressure buildup was not a design limiter for cruise at 25,000 feet. Today, the exhaust gas energy recovery turbine is used instead to drive the supercharger, which on the 3350 was driven off the crankshaft, making turbosupercharging less complex than turbocompounding.
The question is moot for aircraft engines bigger than 600SHP or so, where turboprop engines have taken over. they are far more reliable in the 1500-2000 SHP range than the R3350 or the R4360 as well as having better power-to-weight.
As such, turbocompounding was a bridge technology sitting between piston engines and turboprop technology. Once engines like the Allison 501 came along, 18 and 28 cylinder piston engines, with or without turbocompounding, were finished. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | Modern compound engines use electric motors to translate the speed of the turbine to the speed of the wheel or propeller. For this, modern electronics is needed. It works in F1 and in the trucks and would work in hybrid cars with a small internal combustion engine. Turbines have a narrower working range than a piston engine. Cars most of the time idle or need full power for acceleration.
I wonder if it is possible to use a small compression ratio piston engine and a burning chamber (covered with a catalyst material, padded in insulation), where temperatures are low enough to reduce NOx, but still high enough to burn soot and CO. These temperatures aneal and thus flatten the catalyst's surface (so called pre-cat) and thus are avoided in usual catalyst converters. The high temperature, high pressure exhaust can be used to drive a two stage turbine. Note that this turbine housing costs more than a housing for relatively cold diesel exhaust. Also the first stage may need Nickel blades and only the second stage can have variable guide planes. A Cyclon (or even a filter) in the chamber may help to prolonge the duration of soot particles in the chamber.
All in all this is stuff for a premium hybrid car or truck. Agilty is due to the electric motor driven by a super-capacitor. FADEC enforces high temperatures at the filter in order to be never congested by soot. Excess energy is dumped into the batteries. | I’ve been doing a lot of reading on this and what we haven’t seen is a form of turbo compounding but instead using a small turbine engine capable of running itself when a steady torque is required. If married to a reciprocating engine with variable valve timing, the valves could be held open; the turbine generating the power. Under acceleration the turbine could operate as a turbocharger using bleed air intercooled as boost. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a lot of reasons, but the main reasons are increase cost and decreased reliability. The power they produced also cost engine efficiency as they increased the back pressure in the exhaust line.
So when you design an engine you have a few choices. For instance, you can either increase engine efficiency, or sap energy from the exhaust line. If you employ variable valve timing, for instance, you can extract much more of that exhaust energy and put it into the crankshaft without a turbo. If you instead add a turbo, you've added another set of gears, more moving parts, taken up more space, and added more weight.
Now the turbo might be slightly better at extracting energy than the variable valve timing, but does it offset the additional cost, weight, and reliability?
So most engine manufacturers don't employ turbo unless there's a reason for it.
For instance, some races have a limit to the number of cylinders and cylinder volume, and racers do care more about that extra 0.1% efficiency than they care about reliability since they have a team of mechanics working on the vehicle. So it makes sense there.
It doesn't make much sense on a standard consumer vehicle where the cost/weight tradeoffs relative to performance can be more effectively employed elsewhere in the engine. | I’ve been doing a lot of reading on this and what we haven’t seen is a form of turbo compounding but instead using a small turbine engine capable of running itself when a steady torque is required. If married to a reciprocating engine with variable valve timing, the valves could be held open; the turbine generating the power. Under acceleration the turbine could operate as a turbocharger using bleed air intercooled as boost. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a lot of reasons, but the main reasons are increase cost and decreased reliability. The power they produced also cost engine efficiency as they increased the back pressure in the exhaust line.
So when you design an engine you have a few choices. For instance, you can either increase engine efficiency, or sap energy from the exhaust line. If you employ variable valve timing, for instance, you can extract much more of that exhaust energy and put it into the crankshaft without a turbo. If you instead add a turbo, you've added another set of gears, more moving parts, taken up more space, and added more weight.
Now the turbo might be slightly better at extracting energy than the variable valve timing, but does it offset the additional cost, weight, and reliability?
So most engine manufacturers don't employ turbo unless there's a reason for it.
For instance, some races have a limit to the number of cylinders and cylinder volume, and racers do care more about that extra 0.1% efficiency than they care about reliability since they have a team of mechanics working on the vehicle. So it makes sense there.
It doesn't make much sense on a standard consumer vehicle where the cost/weight tradeoffs relative to performance can be more effectively employed elsewhere in the engine. | Modern compound engines use electric motors to translate the speed of the turbine to the speed of the wheel or propeller. For this, modern electronics is needed. It works in F1 and in the trucks and would work in hybrid cars with a small internal combustion engine. Turbines have a narrower working range than a piston engine. Cars most of the time idle or need full power for acceleration.
I wonder if it is possible to use a small compression ratio piston engine and a burning chamber (covered with a catalyst material, padded in insulation), where temperatures are low enough to reduce NOx, but still high enough to burn soot and CO. These temperatures aneal and thus flatten the catalyst's surface (so called pre-cat) and thus are avoided in usual catalyst converters. The high temperature, high pressure exhaust can be used to drive a two stage turbine. Note that this turbine housing costs more than a housing for relatively cold diesel exhaust. Also the first stage may need Nickel blades and only the second stage can have variable guide planes. A Cyclon (or even a filter) in the chamber may help to prolonge the duration of soot particles in the chamber.
All in all this is stuff for a premium hybrid car or truck. Agilty is due to the electric motor driven by a super-capacitor. FADEC enforces high temperatures at the filter in order to be never congested by soot. Excess energy is dumped into the batteries. |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | There are a lot of reasons, but the main reasons are increase cost and decreased reliability. The power they produced also cost engine efficiency as they increased the back pressure in the exhaust line.
So when you design an engine you have a few choices. For instance, you can either increase engine efficiency, or sap energy from the exhaust line. If you employ variable valve timing, for instance, you can extract much more of that exhaust energy and put it into the crankshaft without a turbo. If you instead add a turbo, you've added another set of gears, more moving parts, taken up more space, and added more weight.
Now the turbo might be slightly better at extracting energy than the variable valve timing, but does it offset the additional cost, weight, and reliability?
So most engine manufacturers don't employ turbo unless there's a reason for it.
For instance, some races have a limit to the number of cylinders and cylinder volume, and racers do care more about that extra 0.1% efficiency than they care about reliability since they have a team of mechanics working on the vehicle. So it makes sense there.
It doesn't make much sense on a standard consumer vehicle where the cost/weight tradeoffs relative to performance can be more effectively employed elsewhere in the engine. | Turbo compounding is used currently in truck engines by Detroit diesel and Volvo, but they are suited to long haul applications where the engine is at a constant revs/load, the power turbine it is said extracts up to 50 horsepower to put back into the crankshaft but the trade off as explained earlier is increased exhaust backpressure meaning the pistons have to push harder to get the exhaust gas out, so in transient (engine up and down the rev range) operation the power turbine costs energy, in a steady state it can reduce fuel consumption 2-5% |
1,910 | [Turbo compound](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbo-compound_engine) engines extract some exhaust energy by using it to power a turbine connected to the driveshaft. Why are these engines not more widely used? | 2015/03/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1910",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/398/"
] | Turbo compounding is used currently in truck engines by Detroit diesel and Volvo, but they are suited to long haul applications where the engine is at a constant revs/load, the power turbine it is said extracts up to 50 horsepower to put back into the crankshaft but the trade off as explained earlier is increased exhaust backpressure meaning the pistons have to push harder to get the exhaust gas out, so in transient (engine up and down the rev range) operation the power turbine costs energy, in a steady state it can reduce fuel consumption 2-5% | I’ve been doing a lot of reading on this and what we haven’t seen is a form of turbo compounding but instead using a small turbine engine capable of running itself when a steady torque is required. If married to a reciprocating engine with variable valve timing, the valves could be held open; the turbine generating the power. Under acceleration the turbine could operate as a turbocharger using bleed air intercooled as boost. |
632,067 | I need to run a program, but I don't trust the author. I think it is infected with spyware, viruses, or malicious files. I scanned it and didn't find anything, but I'm still not feeling good about it.
So I was thinking to create another Windows user account.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts?
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC?
If that won't work then:
* Is there any *"sandbox"* to do some testing and insure that you're PC
is safe?
* Is Virtualbox an option?
I have Windows 7. | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/632067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/96624/"
] | Use Sandboxie. You can get it at sandboxie.com
Using another account will only help if you set the account as limited and the program you're trying to run doesn't request privilege escalation. Running your program in a sandbox like Sandboxie is much safer and easier. | When running suspect programs, you have to be aware that the program will infect the operating system of the computer, not just the user account.
To do so semi-safely, it would be best to run some sort of virtualization program like parallels or vmware or others which creates a virtualized instance - another copy of the operating system running partitioned. You could then boot the virtual OS, run the program and then later exit and throw away the virtual copy.
That said, it is highly desirable to NOT do this since it could do things like try to change your router settings or get other info about your LAN devices, damage or transmit info from files it can see and do other things - only limited by how much you allow the virtualized OS to see other things on your LAN. |
632,067 | I need to run a program, but I don't trust the author. I think it is infected with spyware, viruses, or malicious files. I scanned it and didn't find anything, but I'm still not feeling good about it.
So I was thinking to create another Windows user account.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts?
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC?
If that won't work then:
* Is there any *"sandbox"* to do some testing and insure that you're PC
is safe?
* Is Virtualbox an option?
I have Windows 7. | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/632067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/96624/"
] | Use Sandboxie. You can get it at sandboxie.com
Using another account will only help if you set the account as limited and the program you're trying to run doesn't request privilege escalation. Running your program in a sandbox like Sandboxie is much safer and easier. | From my personally experience if you want to run a program, but do not trust it, don't run it. However, take a look at where the program comes from. Many programs can be found on sites like sourceforge.com, github.com, etc, are open source and are generally peer reviewed - thus are unlikely to harbor a virus.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts? **Yes, and yes** Viruses will spread (why they are called viruses).
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC? **Unlikely** - if the viruses was designed well removing directories (users) will not help.
* Is there any "sandbox" to do some testing and insure that you're PC is safe? **Yes, many**. This depends on what you want and what type of testing.
* Is Virtualbox an option? **A great option.** and free. This will lower the chance of the virus escaping the testing grounds. However, there is still a chance (small) that a good virus can escape. |
632,067 | I need to run a program, but I don't trust the author. I think it is infected with spyware, viruses, or malicious files. I scanned it and didn't find anything, but I'm still not feeling good about it.
So I was thinking to create another Windows user account.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts?
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC?
If that won't work then:
* Is there any *"sandbox"* to do some testing and insure that you're PC
is safe?
* Is Virtualbox an option?
I have Windows 7. | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/632067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/96624/"
] | Note that a problem (the main problem) with solutions like VirtualBox, Vmware, or Windows Virtual PC, is that some (many) viruses are designed to spread to network shares and attached drives.
A solution to this problem is to make sure that your virtual box/machine has *no network connections* and *no attached drives*.
Which does make it rather harder to use, and much less convenient. But not impossible. Copy any software you want to test to the virtual box/machine, stop it, disconnect it. Restart it and install/test/use the software you want to install/test/use, then stop and discard any changes that have been made to the virtual machine. | When running suspect programs, you have to be aware that the program will infect the operating system of the computer, not just the user account.
To do so semi-safely, it would be best to run some sort of virtualization program like parallels or vmware or others which creates a virtualized instance - another copy of the operating system running partitioned. You could then boot the virtual OS, run the program and then later exit and throw away the virtual copy.
That said, it is highly desirable to NOT do this since it could do things like try to change your router settings or get other info about your LAN devices, damage or transmit info from files it can see and do other things - only limited by how much you allow the virtualized OS to see other things on your LAN. |
632,067 | I need to run a program, but I don't trust the author. I think it is infected with spyware, viruses, or malicious files. I scanned it and didn't find anything, but I'm still not feeling good about it.
So I was thinking to create another Windows user account.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts?
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC?
If that won't work then:
* Is there any *"sandbox"* to do some testing and insure that you're PC
is safe?
* Is Virtualbox an option?
I have Windows 7. | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/632067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/96624/"
] | Note that a problem (the main problem) with solutions like VirtualBox, Vmware, or Windows Virtual PC, is that some (many) viruses are designed to spread to network shares and attached drives.
A solution to this problem is to make sure that your virtual box/machine has *no network connections* and *no attached drives*.
Which does make it rather harder to use, and much less convenient. But not impossible. Copy any software you want to test to the virtual box/machine, stop it, disconnect it. Restart it and install/test/use the software you want to install/test/use, then stop and discard any changes that have been made to the virtual machine. | From my personally experience if you want to run a program, but do not trust it, don't run it. However, take a look at where the program comes from. Many programs can be found on sites like sourceforge.com, github.com, etc, are open source and are generally peer reviewed - thus are unlikely to harbor a virus.
* Will viruses on one account infect the second account? Do I have to scan both user accounts? **Yes, and yes** Viruses will spread (why they are called viruses).
* And if I removed the account infected, will viruses be removed from the PC? **Unlikely** - if the viruses was designed well removing directories (users) will not help.
* Is there any "sandbox" to do some testing and insure that you're PC is safe? **Yes, many**. This depends on what you want and what type of testing.
* Is Virtualbox an option? **A great option.** and free. This will lower the chance of the virus escaping the testing grounds. However, there is still a chance (small) that a good virus can escape. |
27,063 | Gerrymandering is often given as one explanation of why the Democrats lost congressional seats to the Republicans. Is there any good analysis about how many seats were lost because of gerrymandering that happened after 2008? To what extent have changes in district lines resulted in the Republicans gaining more seats? | 2017/12/21 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/27063",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/1483/"
] | Based on the [Cook Partisan Voting Index](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cook_Partisan_Voting_Index), the effect seems to be negligible.
Looking at the PVI for the 2010 election, which was the last one to be used under the old district boundaries, the Republican candidate outperformed their national result in 235 districts, whereas the Democratic candidate outperformed in 192 districts. 8 districts were even with the national result. [Source](http://electoral-vote.com/evp2010/House/house.html)
These numbers are not significantly different ahead of next year's midterms. The Republican candidate outperformed their national result in 238 districts, compared to 189 for Democrats. Again, 8 were even with the national result. [Source](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cook_Partisan_Voting_Index#By_congressional_district)
The swing here is only three seats, which in my opinion is not statistically significant. | According to analysis by the [Associated Press](https://www.apnews.com/fa6478e10cda4e9cbd75380e705bd380), the GOP benefited a bit from gerrymandering:
>
> The AP analysis also found that Republicans won as many as 22 additional U.S. House seats [in 2016] over what would have been expected based on the average vote share in congressional districts across the country.
>
>
>
The [NYT](https://www.nytimes.com/2017/08/02/upshot/its-time-to-end-the-old-debate-over-gerrymandering.html) shows that the effect was a bit less in 2012:
>
> Most of the political-science-based estimates suggested that gerrymandering cost the Democrats a net of 7 to 12 seats in 2012 (with a few estimates coming in higher and lower).
>
>
>
Analysis by the [Brennan Center](https://www.brennancenter.org/press-release/new-report-extreme-partisan-maps-account-16-17-republican-seats-congress) concludes:
>
> [A] new report from the Brennan Center for Justice at NYU School of Law finds that extreme partisan bias in congressional maps account for at least 16-17 Republican seats in the current Congress
>
>
> |
172,584 | I'm designing a series of 1-Wire components for my SmartHome Bus and use the DS2480B as Busmaster. Because the cable I run around the house has 3 wires (24V, 1-Wire, GND), I'd like to protect the DS2480B from overvoltage caused by accidentally short-circuiting the 24V and DQ lines. If possible, the design should also protect the Busmaster from ESD.
Note that I don't use 12V EEPROM programming, so the Voltage on the 1W line should never exceed 5V during normal operation. The DS2480B has an absolute max rating of 14V on the 1W line.
This is the original circuit proposed by Maxim to RC-Filter the 1W line and to protect the DS2480B from ESD:
I think I cannot use the DS9503 because it requires that both GND and 1W go through the package. Because I have additional components further down the bus that draw several 100mA of current (from 24V) and the DS9503 has a max current through package of 80mA rating, I can't loop GND through the DS9503.
So I came up with the following designs:
1. Use a Polyfuse in Series with the Resistor (reduce the resistor so that resistor + R\_Fuse =~ 62) and add a Zener-Diode between the DS2480B and the Resistor.
If 24V is connected to the 1W line, the Zener will short-circuit the excess voltage to GND and letting the fuse trip.
Problems/Questions:
* Is this feasible?
* What kind of Zener and Fuse would I need to use so the Zener survives the hit, and the Fuse adds a reliable, low resistante during normal operation?
2. Same as 1., but add a P-Type Mosfet between the Fuse and the Resistor.
Now, the Mosfet would short-circuit the 24V to GND, causing the fuse to trip faster and taking off load from the resistor and the Zener. However, the Mosfet has to take the hit this time. However, even the smallest Mosfets can take 0.8A continuous and 5A pulsed max currents, so they should be okay.
3. Use a Polyzen-Fuse such as TE ZEN056V075A48LS.
Problems/Questions:
* During normal operation, the current would flow from V\_OUT to V\_IN through the package. Is this an issue?
Which design would you recommend, or what kind of dimensions for the components would you use?
Additionally: How do I protect all the components from ESD? Can I still use the DS9503 and just connect one of the GND pins (and if so, which)? or both?
Of course, if you have better ideas, I'm all ears.
Thanks a lot in advance! | 2015/05/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/172584",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/77414/"
] | Something vital to remember when powering current-hungry devices on the bus cable, is that ground lift quickly becomes a problem, i.e. the DQ-GND voltage diff decreases since GND is lifted by the 24V loads.
If using a CAT5 cable, this can be mitigated by using multiple wires for GND.
But with several 100's of mA in the return wire, I'm not sure that will be enough.
A local example: lighting up a 20mA LED with a DS2408 at the far end of my ~80m home network was enough to render the whole net unusable, power cycling it was the only way to get it back. When using three GND leads instead of one (in the CAT5), it works like a charm. Not sure about the rest of the load on the net, but it's some 20+ DS18B20 and a few DS2406's, nothing fancy.
(Sorry, don't have enough reputation to comment, so using Answer even if it is not an Answer...) | Looking into this for myself; it seems the best answer is a low current PTC polyfuse (like a Bel 0ZCM0001FF2G) in series with a ~50ohm ballast resistor both in front of Zeners to Vdd/Vss might be the "best". Alternatively, Bourns has their TBU series of 2 terminal data line protection devices.
If I understand final's answer correctly, I don't believe a DMOS topology works. They seem to not be considering the body diode (conduction between the source in the direction of the drain.) Additionally, Vgs,max is +/-20V so even if the body could be connected somewhere else the gate would fail long before the Vds,max is close to violation. |
172,584 | I'm designing a series of 1-Wire components for my SmartHome Bus and use the DS2480B as Busmaster. Because the cable I run around the house has 3 wires (24V, 1-Wire, GND), I'd like to protect the DS2480B from overvoltage caused by accidentally short-circuiting the 24V and DQ lines. If possible, the design should also protect the Busmaster from ESD.
Note that I don't use 12V EEPROM programming, so the Voltage on the 1W line should never exceed 5V during normal operation. The DS2480B has an absolute max rating of 14V on the 1W line.
This is the original circuit proposed by Maxim to RC-Filter the 1W line and to protect the DS2480B from ESD:
I think I cannot use the DS9503 because it requires that both GND and 1W go through the package. Because I have additional components further down the bus that draw several 100mA of current (from 24V) and the DS9503 has a max current through package of 80mA rating, I can't loop GND through the DS9503.
So I came up with the following designs:
1. Use a Polyfuse in Series with the Resistor (reduce the resistor so that resistor + R\_Fuse =~ 62) and add a Zener-Diode between the DS2480B and the Resistor.
If 24V is connected to the 1W line, the Zener will short-circuit the excess voltage to GND and letting the fuse trip.
Problems/Questions:
* Is this feasible?
* What kind of Zener and Fuse would I need to use so the Zener survives the hit, and the Fuse adds a reliable, low resistante during normal operation?
2. Same as 1., but add a P-Type Mosfet between the Fuse and the Resistor.
Now, the Mosfet would short-circuit the 24V to GND, causing the fuse to trip faster and taking off load from the resistor and the Zener. However, the Mosfet has to take the hit this time. However, even the smallest Mosfets can take 0.8A continuous and 5A pulsed max currents, so they should be okay.
3. Use a Polyzen-Fuse such as TE ZEN056V075A48LS.
Problems/Questions:
* During normal operation, the current would flow from V\_OUT to V\_IN through the package. Is this an issue?
Which design would you recommend, or what kind of dimensions for the components would you use?
Additionally: How do I protect all the components from ESD? Can I still use the DS9503 and just connect one of the GND pins (and if so, which)? or both?
Of course, if you have better ideas, I'm all ears.
Thanks a lot in advance! | 2015/05/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/172584",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/77414/"
] | I now use a Depletion Mode Mosfet for Overvoltage protection with a low on resistance (Maxim uses a DN3135 in some examples which has about 35Ω, but I found that Infineon's BSS159N has even typically 3Ω at V(gs)=0V). I connect the Gate to the chip's VCC line which is always 5V.
The mosfet shuts off at about V(gs)=-3V (max), so the maximum voltage the chip should be exposed to is 8V. Because the Mosfet has a standoff voltage of 60V, my 24V polarity protection is no problem. For ESD-Protection, I use a TVS Diode with 24V standoff and low capcitance (<10pF), as capacitance is the enemy of long 1-wire buses.
Hope this helps someone in the future | Looking into this for myself; it seems the best answer is a low current PTC polyfuse (like a Bel 0ZCM0001FF2G) in series with a ~50ohm ballast resistor both in front of Zeners to Vdd/Vss might be the "best". Alternatively, Bourns has their TBU series of 2 terminal data line protection devices.
If I understand final's answer correctly, I don't believe a DMOS topology works. They seem to not be considering the body diode (conduction between the source in the direction of the drain.) Additionally, Vgs,max is +/-20V so even if the body could be connected somewhere else the gate would fail long before the Vds,max is close to violation. |
82,295 | For developing an application optimized for LXDE, should you choose GTK2, GTK3 or QT?
Most LXDE apps are currently using GTK2, but it looks like GTK2 is becoming dead and the LXDE developers are porting everything over to QT | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/82295",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/33094/"
] | As far as I have understood the situation with LXDE, they are not 100% sure to switch to Qt.
Since there will not be any further development on GTK+ 2, they have to choose between GTK+ 3 and Qt.
It looks like there will be two version of LXDE one with Qt and the other with GTK+ 2 or 3, until they decided which to choose.
To answer your question, today you can't really tell in which direction it will go.
My advice would be, it doesn't really matter which framework you will choose,
since on most unix desktops there are all three frameworks installed.
I would not recommend GTK+ 2, because this is definitely not beeing continued.
The best bet looks to be Qt, but it is a gamble. | Given it's developed using the GTK+ Toolkit I would assume that developing using GTK2 would make the most sense.
*excerpt from [LXDE wikipedia page](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/LXDE)*
>
> LXDE is written in the C programming language, using the GTK+ toolkit,
> and runs on Unix and other POSIX compliant platforms, such as Linux
> and BSD. GTK+ is commonly used in many Linux distributions and allows
> applications to run on different platforms.
>
>
> |
24,383 | I read this sentence [on this image](http://media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/236x/02/85/14/0285141f34df458170415440e3f9ea0e.jpg) :
>
> She smelled **of** sun and daisies with **a hint** of river water.
>
>
>
I don't get at all why do we say "She smelled **of**", why is there "of" after smelled ? Couldn't we get rid of that ?
My other question is about "a hint", although I think that I understand what it means, I would appreciate to have the opinion of you guys. | 2014/05/28 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/24383",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/5596/"
] | * Smelling *something* means you're doing the smelling, and the thing you're smelling is *something*.
* Smelling **of** *something* means that you smell, and what you smell **like** is *something*
>
> She smelled **of** ...
>
>
>
She smelled **like**
>
> ... sun and daisies with **a hint** of river water.
>
>
>
With *a small amount* of river water
Collins:
[hint (3)](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/hint)
>
> a small amount; trace
>
>
> | There is a marked difference between smelling something and smelling *of* something.
If you "smell" sun and daisies - you detect the odor of sun and daisies.
If you "smell *of*" sun and daisies - you *emit* the odor of sun and daisies. Others around you will "smell" sun and daisies.
Alternative wordings could be "smell like" or "smell similar to".
When referring to smell a "hint" of something means that scent (or as in this case *aspect* of the scent) is faint. |
24,383 | I read this sentence [on this image](http://media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/236x/02/85/14/0285141f34df458170415440e3f9ea0e.jpg) :
>
> She smelled **of** sun and daisies with **a hint** of river water.
>
>
>
I don't get at all why do we say "She smelled **of**", why is there "of" after smelled ? Couldn't we get rid of that ?
My other question is about "a hint", although I think that I understand what it means, I would appreciate to have the opinion of you guys. | 2014/05/28 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/24383",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/5596/"
] | There is a marked difference between smelling something and smelling *of* something.
If you "smell" sun and daisies - you detect the odor of sun and daisies.
If you "smell *of*" sun and daisies - you *emit* the odor of sun and daisies. Others around you will "smell" sun and daisies.
Alternative wordings could be "smell like" or "smell similar to".
When referring to smell a "hint" of something means that scent (or as in this case *aspect* of the scent) is faint. | Others have answered the "smell of" part.
When you say "a hint of X", you mean just a small amount of X, or that X is there but difficult to detect. Like if you said, "This cake contains a hint of chocolate", that means that it is NOT a chocolate cake, but there is a small amount of the taste of chocolate to it. Or I heard a politician just recently say that "there is not a hint of corruption" in his actions. He means, there is not the smallest, tiniest amount of corruption.
Note that this sentence is not literal. She might smell like daisies, but she probably does not literally smell like the sun. I don't think river water really has a distinctive smell, either. It's all a poetic way to say that she reminds one of pleasant things from nature. |
24,383 | I read this sentence [on this image](http://media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/236x/02/85/14/0285141f34df458170415440e3f9ea0e.jpg) :
>
> She smelled **of** sun and daisies with **a hint** of river water.
>
>
>
I don't get at all why do we say "She smelled **of**", why is there "of" after smelled ? Couldn't we get rid of that ?
My other question is about "a hint", although I think that I understand what it means, I would appreciate to have the opinion of you guys. | 2014/05/28 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/24383",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/5596/"
] | * Smelling *something* means you're doing the smelling, and the thing you're smelling is *something*.
* Smelling **of** *something* means that you smell, and what you smell **like** is *something*
>
> She smelled **of** ...
>
>
>
She smelled **like**
>
> ... sun and daisies with **a hint** of river water.
>
>
>
With *a small amount* of river water
Collins:
[hint (3)](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/hint)
>
> a small amount; trace
>
>
> | Others have answered the "smell of" part.
When you say "a hint of X", you mean just a small amount of X, or that X is there but difficult to detect. Like if you said, "This cake contains a hint of chocolate", that means that it is NOT a chocolate cake, but there is a small amount of the taste of chocolate to it. Or I heard a politician just recently say that "there is not a hint of corruption" in his actions. He means, there is not the smallest, tiniest amount of corruption.
Note that this sentence is not literal. She might smell like daisies, but she probably does not literally smell like the sun. I don't think river water really has a distinctive smell, either. It's all a poetic way to say that she reminds one of pleasant things from nature. |
56,908 | The Basic Set (p. B247) has the following entry for a **Fireball**.
>
> Lets the caster throw a ball of fire from his hand. This has 1/2D 25, Max 50, Acc 1. When it strikes something, it vanishes in a puff of flame. This spell is likely to ignite flammable targets.
>
>
> **Cost**: Any amount up to your Magery level per second, for three seconds. The fireball does 1d burning damage per energy point.
>
>
> **Time to cast**: 1 to 3 seconds.
>
>
> **Prerequisites**: Magery 1, Create Fire, and Shape Fire.
>
>
>
**I am trying to figure out what the range of this spell is?**
I am new to GURPS, and have been only skimming the rules for a couple of days, so there is a chance I have just missed some obvious entry about this. | 2015/02/17 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/56908",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/5989/"
] | The line you're looking for is here:
>
> This has 1/2D 25, Max 50, Acc 1.
>
>
>
This describes how you aim the spell.
The "1/2D" stat is the number of yards that you can shoot the spell at before it does half damage. In this case, the Fireball does full damage if you shoot a target within 25 yards.
The "Max" number is the maximum range of the spell. If you shoot it at a range in between the 1/2D and the Max, the spell does half damage. In this case, the Fireball has a max range of 50 yards, and does half damage when targeted between 26 and 50 yards.
The "Acc" number is the bonus you get when aiming the spell. If you take an Aim action before firing the spell, you get this bonus to your attack roll.
If you look at the Equipment section on B268 (the "B" there means it's in the Basic Set books, Characters or Campaigns), this stuff is explained. There is also a detailed description of how ranged combat works on B372.
You might also want to look at the rules for Missile Spells, on B240. | You've missed the section of the rules on weapons and ranges. One of the places you can get a primer on range is in the *GURPS Basic Set* Equipment chapter, page 268. The Combat chapter goes into more detail on page 372. (For an exhaustive list of places in the rules that cover range and things that are relevant to range, see the *Ranged attacks* entry in the Index.)
What that specific range means is that your target must be within 50 yards to hit them at all, and if they're farther than 25 yards away then they will take half damage if you do hit them. "Acc" tells you the number that's relevant to calculating the bonus to your attack roll granted by taking the Aim action (p. 364). |
582,741 | First let me say that I'm a mechanical engineer so I'm unfamiliar with a lot of things you'll consider basic.
I have a PCB that carries two cameras, and transfer their data to a Raspberry Pi 4. The cameras successfully function with power supply from only one of the USBs, the other USB is connected to the PCB's connector only by it's data+ and data- wires. Again, the second USB is connect the Pi 'normally' goes through my thick cable, and at the other end connects to the PCB only with data+ and data- wires.
I need to reduce the number of wires in the cable, so the question is can I eliminate the 5 V and ground all together so the Pi will receive a USB connector that has only two active wires **without damaging the signal**? | 2021/08/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/582741",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/294395/"
] | Sharing VBUS between endpoints isn’t compliant with the USB spec. Nor is connecting two VBUS lines together.
USB hosts are obliged to provide VBUS. Endpoints have the choice of using VBUS for power, power+reset, reset, or not at all and instead rely on DP/DM for reset.
In fact USB endpoints watch DP/DM for reset so they can support self-power modes. Knowing this, you could inject 5V separately to the cameras and save the one wire (that is, the cameras would be self-powered.)
But your idea of eliminating the ground? Nope. Unlike Ethernet, USB needs a shared ground.
So that means you need at least 3 pairs to make the connection: GND and +5V, and the two DP/DM pairs. And those pairs need to be impedance controlled if they run any significant distance (more than 1 foot or so.)
That’s a lot of work to save two wires. Your EE will hate you for it. | so you have 2 USB plugs but only 6 conductors, (sharing the +5 and 0V conductors between the two devices. that should work.
If you check the raspberry pi schematic you'll see that all the +5s are connected togetherm and same for the 0Vs. |
19,619,425 | I know the difference between a real mode and protected mode from the OS and hardware perspective.
But I am trying to figure out What does a program 'knows' about real mode or protected mode? how can you say while looking at an source code/object code that it is a real mode program or not?
Looking for an answer, All I could come up with is that a 'real mode' program uses BIOS subroutines along with OS subroutines whereas a 'protected mode' program uses only OS subroutines. instruction code differs since opcodes for registers are different and offset addresses are of different length. Is there any other feature that differentiates a real and protected mode program? | 2013/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19619425",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/597858/"
] | a 'real mode' program uses BIOS subroutines along with OS subroutines whereas a 'protected mode' program uses only OS subroutines.
instruction code differs since opcodes for registers are different and offset addresses are of different length. | The main difference is the mode the cpu is in. In protected mode the OS can use features like paging and virtual memory. Also real mode code is never in 32 bits whereas protected mode code can be 16 bits or 32 bits. Every x86 cpu starts in real mode and the OS must switch to protected mode. |
19,619,425 | I know the difference between a real mode and protected mode from the OS and hardware perspective.
But I am trying to figure out What does a program 'knows' about real mode or protected mode? how can you say while looking at an source code/object code that it is a real mode program or not?
Looking for an answer, All I could come up with is that a 'real mode' program uses BIOS subroutines along with OS subroutines whereas a 'protected mode' program uses only OS subroutines. instruction code differs since opcodes for registers are different and offset addresses are of different length. Is there any other feature that differentiates a real and protected mode program? | 2013/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19619425",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/597858/"
] | a 'real mode' program uses BIOS subroutines along with OS subroutines whereas a 'protected mode' program uses only OS subroutines.
instruction code differs since opcodes for registers are different and offset addresses are of different length. | >
> how can you say while looking at an source code/object code that it is a real mode program or not?
>
>
>
If there is a direct mapping(one-to-one) between the physical and virtual memory, the program is executing in real mode. To be more precise, since Virtual Memory is not activated in real mode, the program executes in 16 bit mode, where every address "viewed" by the source code/ object code, is the actual physical address on RAM.
The protected mode, on the other hand, has virtual memory feature enabled. Hence the mapping between the address accessed by the source code/object code is different than the actual memory location accessed in RAM.
To detect this, you can just check whether the paging flag is enabled or disabled in the CPU when the source/object code is executing.
For x86 based CPU, you can check the value in CR0 Register. if the CR0 Register is empty, the program is running in real mode. |
109,438 | I'm not an electrical engineer, I'm not even close to knowledgeable in electronics. But could someone explain to me how the switch on this actually provides power to the motor above?
I don't see anything that connects the ends of the battery to the actual wires that connect up to the motor. What am I missing?
 | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/109438",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/41452/"
] | >
> Question 1: Assuming that the oscillator (perhaps programmable) is
> given, what kind of hardware would you suggest for (2) and (3) ?
>
>
>
For 2: All-pass (phase-shifting) filter, a.k.a. Hilbert transformer
For 3: Balanced modulator
>
> Question 2: Does this setup have significant shortcomings (beside cost
> of components?)
>
>
>
Yes. While direct conversion to complex baseband is regularly done in the digital domain, it can be quite finicky to get the same concept working well (and reliably) in the analog domain. It's nearly always easier to do the detection at an intermediate RF frequency.
>
> Question 3: is this observation [about square-wave local oscillators] correct?
>
>
>
Yes, except that you want a bandbass filter that's centered on the carrier frequency, not a lowpass filter. Sometimes this filter has a bandwidth of approximately 2B, in which case it needs to be tuned along with the local oscillator. This sort of setup is called a preselector, and is commonly used in superheterodyne receivers, such as those used for the AM and FM broadcast bands.
But sometimes, a fixed bandpass filter that covers the entire band of interest is used instead. This works as long as none of the unwanted "image" bands ever falls into the band of interest. This is more common in 2-way VHF communications systems, such as those used for air traffic control and public service (police, fire). | Question 1: Assuming that the oscillator (perhaps programmable) is given, what kind of hardware would you suggest for (2) and (3) ?
I would suggest a dual DDS running out of phase I+Q duties (analog devices have dual synched dds), you have to convert DDS stepped sine to square wave using a hard driven op amp or hard limiter. I would use fast acting rf switches (non terminated) for the mixers so you really dont need a lot of rf gain.
Question 2: Does this setup have significant shortcomings (beside cost of components?)
In this arrangement you are not using a non linear device to drive multiplication but using the phase flips to drive multiplication, thus less IMD products. The only drawback with zero IF and low IF receiver designs are microphonics with too much LO energy leakage. |
119,981 | In recent years, mobile number has become an important factor for authentication and hence more and more enterprises employ methods to capture their users' mobile numbers using SMS.
In a typical scenario;
1. the GUI which user is interacting with (whether it is a web site or an app) asks user to enter her/his mobile number
2. then server generates a token and
3. sends that token to the provided mobile number
4. then user must switch to a new GUI for instance, if the original GUI is a web site, user must switch to her/his mobile device's to find the received message in SMS inbox. it is the same if user was originally in an app. in that case user must switch to SMS manager app on her/his Smartphone
5. the user then, must copy or memorize the received token to
6. then user must switch back to the original GUI and
7. enter the copied or memorized token into the originating web site or app and
8. hit a key (for example) and
9. wait for the server to process the entered token
10. at the end, server validates entered token and if it is correct then authorizes that mobile number and may set it as an authentication mean for the user and
11. finally the result is displayed on the GUI
this is a typical scenario which most of well known IT companies (such as Google, Facebook and others) use to authorize their users.
now assume another scenario,
1. the GUI which user is interacting with (whether it is a web site or an app) asks user to enter her/his mobile number
2. then server generates a token and
3. shows that token to the user in the same GUI and asks the user to send it to a specified number (Server Messaging Centre Number = SMCN) using the mobile number that is entered by user.
4. the user may have to copy or memorize the displayed token,
5. then user must switch to a new GUI, for instance, if the original GUI is a web site, user must switch to her/his mobile device to type the token and send it to SMCN. it is the same if user was originally in an app. in that case user must switch to SMS manager app on her/his Smartphone to send the token. however in this case, app may employ smart device's programming API to call SMS Launcher and pre-fills the address and content of the message on behalf of the user.
6. the user just sends the message to SMCN,
7. then user must switch back to the original GUI and
8. hit a key to declare that the token has been sent to the server and
9. wait for the server to process the entered token
10. at the end, server validates entered token and if it is correct then authorizes that mobile number and may set it as an authentication mean for the user and
11. finally the result is displayed on the GUI
**now the question is, which method is better in terms of security and other factors if there is any?**
**EDITED:**
*I have updated the question based on @Andre edit and answer for better understanding,*
first, both methods may use in authentication as well as authorization. assume the case that someone have logged into her/his Internet Banking account and wants to transfer money, here the mentioned methods may use to authorize user and grant her to transfer money or not.
second, let's focus on comparing these two methods and not talking about downside of using SMS in authN and authZ process.
Third, comparing two alternatives, (as I said before) in both cases users have to memorize or copy something then leave one environment for another and type or paste it. So, it sounds like, in terms of usability both methods are the same; as in method one, user have to type something received in SMS into the original GUI and in method two, user have to type something seen in original GUI into SMS send|receive GUI. Therefore in both cases, user may make something wrong. | 2016/04/09 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/119981",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/43411/"
] | Lets look at some different attacks and how they impact the two different systems, followed by some usability considerations.
**Control of phone (draw)**
If the attacker has full controll over the phone, it is game over no matter what. However, an attacker may have been able to get a [trojan](https://blog.kaspersky.com/banking-trojans-bypass-2fa/11545/) onto ther phone that only has limited permissions. At least on Android, reading and sending SMS is different permissions. However, this secnario feels rather contrived and I see no reason why it would be harder to get one permission than is is to get the other.
**Social engineering (#1 wins)**
To fool some users to read the code is easy if that is all the message contains. Call the user, say that you are from the cell phone company testing the reception or whatever, and that they will soon recieve a message to read back. (A competent attacker could come up with a way better lie than I just did.)
However, this can be made hard if the SMS contains an explanation of what the code is (and perhaps an exlpicit warning against phising), thereby revealing all your social engineering lies.
A user that has to send an SMS can get not such warning. That user could fall for tricks like "just send this code to this number to claim your free sport car". Not everybody would fall for this, but some would, especially if it is for a service they seldom use so they do not recognice the number.
**Eavesdropping on the phone network (#2 wins)**
As [GSM encryption](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A5/1) is famously weak, and [fake cell phone towers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stingray_phone_tracker) to use for MitM can be bought on the internet, an attacker might try to eavesdropp on the SMS communication. This is not a theoretical threat, but something that is done [in the wild](http://arstechnica.com/gadgets/2010/12/15-phone-3-minutes-all-thats-needed-to-eavesdrop-on-gsm-call/).
With system one, an eavesdropper has to read the passcode that is sent to the user when they try to login. The attacker then needs to use it before the user (should be easy if the process is automated). This requires the attacker to be in the physical proximity of the target when the user happens to login to the service.
With system two, it doesn't matter if the attacker reads the SMS. The passcode is (or at least should be) unique to the users device, and the attacker can not authenticate on his device even if he knows the passcode the user sent.
**SMS spoofing (#1 wins, major issue)**
[SMS spoofing](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_spoofing) is a very real thing that is used in the wild. If the attacker can spoof the users phone number in an SMS, he can overcome alternative two. This is a major weakness in that approach.
I just googled "[free SMS spoofing service](https://www.google.se/search?q=free+sms+spoofing+service)" and came up with [this](http://www.smsgang.com/) site. Surely even your computer illierate uncle could do the same, thereby bypassing your authentication scheme.
**Usability (#1 wins)**
Alternative two has some downside when it comes to usability:
* The user has to enter a passcode *and* a number to send it to. This takes longer time. Two things to copy paste is twice as many as one.
* The user might enter the wrong phone number, resulting in a failed login. If the wrong passcode is entered in alternative one, it is easy to give appropriate feedback to the user. If an incorrect phone number is entered, it is hard for the server to know what happend and give the right feedback to the user.
* Sending a SMS might cost money for the user.
**Conclusion**
On security, it is 2-1 to alternative one. But how serious are the different vulnerabilities? I would argue that especially SMS spoofing but also social engineering are larger threats than eavesdropping. They can both be done from anywhere in the world, and require much less effort and technical knowledge. SMS spoofing could possibly be done automated on a large scale.
So even leaving usability to the side, I would argue that alternative one is the safer alternative.
**TL;DR**
You can spoof the sender of an SMS, making them useless for identifying the sender. Use the first alternative. | The two options are distinct in the following way:
1. The company sends the SMS to the customer
2. The customer sends the SMS to the company
If we think carefully about how identity is verified in telephone networks, we will discover the core security issue the leads companies to choose option 1. Whenever you place a call or send an SMS, you know what number you are calling. However, when you receive a call or an SMS, you have no idea where it originated.
Let's look at this issue from the company's perspective. Their goal is to verify the user's identity in two ways. The company already trusts itself. The user's identity is verified by password and by receiving an SMS. The company knows that the SMS will arrive at the phone number that they send it to, since this is how the telephone system works. So, if the same person has the password and the telephone, they also have the SMS message and the token it contains. Trust is established.
In the second option, trust cannot be established from the perspective of the company. The company will receive an SMS from an arbitrary source and will not be able to determine what phone number it originated at. (Ironically, the customer can verify the company's identity this way, but the company cannot verify the customer's identity).
This is the same reason that we are told never to give banking details to someone that calls claiming to be from our bank. Instead, prudent people will hang up and dial their bank's phone number to verify the identity of the person they are speaking to. |
22,190 | We've created a series of mechanisms to terraform the temperature and atmosphere to be Earthlike. My geologists are screaming at me, because a lot of features are being rapidly eroded by the new hydrological process. Anywho.
**I still don't have soil.**
Our agronomists are great with hydroponics, but to plant small trees and root-based plants, I need real soil. [Soil formation takes time and organic processes](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369). A lot of both; neither of which I have. And while we really scored with the atmospheric science, we haven't progressed past 2015 for 'creating soil;' **how can I get the massive amounts of needed soil**?
---
Note 1: I read the book, The Martian, where he makes soil for potatoes from poop and Martian regolith. I was skeptical, and a friend who worked at the National Resources Conservation Service (specifically with soil survey), said, "That simply can not happen; that much soil would take forever to become viable." And a lot more than just poop\*.
Note 2: I was admonished ([down-voted](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369)) for stressing the importance of soil previously, so my question is not whether we need it; it's how do we get it.
Note 3: \*- I look forward to the day that poop gets its own tag, since I've seen it in WB frequently. [ Done. —ed. ] | 2015/08/08 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/22190",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/3276/"
] | There is a good treatment in [*The Martian*](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Martian_(Weir_novel)), where he uses his own *night soil* and composting all organic waste. With geometric growth it will cover "land" in short order, given water and labor to spread, mix, and prepare. (Weir's characters all refer to all dead regolith/crushed rock as "soil" too, which bugs me).
Heinlein's *Farmer in the Sky* describes the work of doing that on a holmstead-sized scale.
What's your friend have against it? It might be just fine *in a closed planting box*. It also doesn't need to be self-sufficient as an ecosystem, just allow the plant roots to work. Plants can be grown hydroponicly, so a large planter is possible.
In general, you want to carefully prepare both the microbiome *and* other self-replicating agents that extract power and resources *in situ* while doing the task of mixing and spreading further. E.g. earthworms, grubs, and various bugs.
Given crushed mineral matrix as a pre-existing starting point, you need to add water and inoculate the biome. If optimally mixed/layered/tended it will double in a few days, and you can divide that and repeat.
Using plots larger than you can tend explicitly, you want a small, patch to grow outward, which will be less efficient moving from soil to plain rock and only along the border which is growing linearly not geometrically.
So you improve it two ways: transplant into new disjoint patches as much as you can, and somehow coax it to spread in a fractal pattern.
RAH's farmers made stripes which grew together. How about controlling the irrigation to lead the growth in a pattern? Also engineer the "bugs" to cause dispersion to new areas.
Back to your friend's objections regarding the time scale and input. First, you are a well-prepared mission not a castaway with nothing but his own poop and one living plant. You can have a complex mix, *multiple* different mixes for different stages, and even engineered species.
The difference between "big pot" and "self-regulating ecosystem" is not all or nothing. For good story, you can imagine managing the *degree* of hands-on regulation needed vs. the size that can be handled with available labor and logistics.
Amending the soil while plowing and planting, adding fertilizer to irrigation, and weeding and checking pests, is all *normal* in agriculture which is more productive than nature. If you can add stuff— nutrients or new bacteria and fungi— to the irrigation water, you can easily give it whatever it needs on a day-to-day basis. So maybe you don't need anything more than crushed stone, essentially doing hydroponics on the ground. | Your friends objection is irrelevant. We are teraforming a planet with near future technology. "Quick" is not in our mission statement. So go back to your friend and ask what he means by "forever". If this is shorter than "we need more waste than 200 years of hydroponics would generate", there is simply no concern. It will take a long time, but we are in a slow process.
Your geologists objections is a bit weird. Almost certainly any plant growth and athmosphere will start in protected environments. There should be minimal impact beyond our walls. By the time we are able to start moving plants outside, we will have decades of growth of plant matter that we allow to decay to form our soil. Also, we are terraforming Mars with near future tech, keeping any landmarks recognizable is probably not in our mission profile.
Rapidly terraforming Mars, ie. within a generation or so, does not seem achievable with near future technology. Soil is a problem, but my guess is that athmosphere is a greater problem. Deeper into the future we would probably be able to create soil rapidly from a combination of genetically altered plants that grow hydroponically and nanobots.
Edit:
I see that you specify that we get athmosphere "for free". In which case, yes soil production is a real problem. However, in respect to your linked answer, bringing soil from earth remains a poor solution, it's just too expensive to transport that much mass. |
22,190 | We've created a series of mechanisms to terraform the temperature and atmosphere to be Earthlike. My geologists are screaming at me, because a lot of features are being rapidly eroded by the new hydrological process. Anywho.
**I still don't have soil.**
Our agronomists are great with hydroponics, but to plant small trees and root-based plants, I need real soil. [Soil formation takes time and organic processes](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369). A lot of both; neither of which I have. And while we really scored with the atmospheric science, we haven't progressed past 2015 for 'creating soil;' **how can I get the massive amounts of needed soil**?
---
Note 1: I read the book, The Martian, where he makes soil for potatoes from poop and Martian regolith. I was skeptical, and a friend who worked at the National Resources Conservation Service (specifically with soil survey), said, "That simply can not happen; that much soil would take forever to become viable." And a lot more than just poop\*.
Note 2: I was admonished ([down-voted](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369)) for stressing the importance of soil previously, so my question is not whether we need it; it's how do we get it.
Note 3: \*- I look forward to the day that poop gets its own tag, since I've seen it in WB frequently. [ Done. —ed. ] | 2015/08/08 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/22190",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/3276/"
] | This actually sounds like two unrelated questions: How do I stop erosion?, and, how do I transition from hydroponic agriculture to soil based agriculture?
For a fast means of providing ground cover, I might suggest that the ecological engineers start tweaking bacteria to create a strain (or strains) which form biofilms which cover the landscape. As a bonus, the bacteria start the process of terraforming soil and provides a source of nutrients for the next "generation" of ground cover. As noted in JDługosz answer, the cover should be spread in a fractal or checkerboard pattern to maximize coverage and infill.
For feeding a growing population, hydroponics and related techniques provide a compact and reliable means of providing food for the colony. Since we are living in a closed ecology, diverting poop to reconstitute soil outside of the colony is actually not a viable course of action. the waste materials will need to be processed to recycle the nutrients and water back into the system.
This also means the growing population will need to be mining the Martian crust (and possibly asteroids and Jovian moons) for minerals and trace elements to increase the capacity of the system. Some of the materials will also be diverted to the Martian surface to build the soil (although the timescale on this may be a millennium).
So the Martians will be spreading their bacteria on the soil for a millennial soil building project, while keeping their internal economy internal to provide food and oxygen to the colony. Even the external vegetation for the successive phases of terraforming will be "imports" in order to keep the closed cycle life support systems viable. | Your friends objection is irrelevant. We are teraforming a planet with near future technology. "Quick" is not in our mission statement. So go back to your friend and ask what he means by "forever". If this is shorter than "we need more waste than 200 years of hydroponics would generate", there is simply no concern. It will take a long time, but we are in a slow process.
Your geologists objections is a bit weird. Almost certainly any plant growth and athmosphere will start in protected environments. There should be minimal impact beyond our walls. By the time we are able to start moving plants outside, we will have decades of growth of plant matter that we allow to decay to form our soil. Also, we are terraforming Mars with near future tech, keeping any landmarks recognizable is probably not in our mission profile.
Rapidly terraforming Mars, ie. within a generation or so, does not seem achievable with near future technology. Soil is a problem, but my guess is that athmosphere is a greater problem. Deeper into the future we would probably be able to create soil rapidly from a combination of genetically altered plants that grow hydroponically and nanobots.
Edit:
I see that you specify that we get athmosphere "for free". In which case, yes soil production is a real problem. However, in respect to your linked answer, bringing soil from earth remains a poor solution, it's just too expensive to transport that much mass. |
22,190 | We've created a series of mechanisms to terraform the temperature and atmosphere to be Earthlike. My geologists are screaming at me, because a lot of features are being rapidly eroded by the new hydrological process. Anywho.
**I still don't have soil.**
Our agronomists are great with hydroponics, but to plant small trees and root-based plants, I need real soil. [Soil formation takes time and organic processes](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369). A lot of both; neither of which I have. And while we really scored with the atmospheric science, we haven't progressed past 2015 for 'creating soil;' **how can I get the massive amounts of needed soil**?
---
Note 1: I read the book, The Martian, where he makes soil for potatoes from poop and Martian regolith. I was skeptical, and a friend who worked at the National Resources Conservation Service (specifically with soil survey), said, "That simply can not happen; that much soil would take forever to become viable." And a lot more than just poop\*.
Note 2: I was admonished ([down-voted](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/15364/resources-to-justify-long-distance-space-mining-missions/15369#15369)) for stressing the importance of soil previously, so my question is not whether we need it; it's how do we get it.
Note 3: \*- I look forward to the day that poop gets its own tag, since I've seen it in WB frequently. [ Done. —ed. ] | 2015/08/08 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/22190",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/3276/"
] | Mars already has dust fields.
Add water to the dust and you get mud.
Add seeds to the mud and you get plants.
Wait for a year and you get dead plants.
Spray the fields of dead plants with the right bacteria and they will decompose back into the dust and you will have soil.
repeat this process for a few years and then it will become self sustaining. The soil will gradually get deeper and richer like earth.
Plants grow in mars dust:
<http://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0103138>
Select carefully the most suitable Earthplants, or even genetically engeneer them to increase the effectiveness of this plan.
But then, if plants grow in mars dust, why did you want soil? | Your friends objection is irrelevant. We are teraforming a planet with near future technology. "Quick" is not in our mission statement. So go back to your friend and ask what he means by "forever". If this is shorter than "we need more waste than 200 years of hydroponics would generate", there is simply no concern. It will take a long time, but we are in a slow process.
Your geologists objections is a bit weird. Almost certainly any plant growth and athmosphere will start in protected environments. There should be minimal impact beyond our walls. By the time we are able to start moving plants outside, we will have decades of growth of plant matter that we allow to decay to form our soil. Also, we are terraforming Mars with near future tech, keeping any landmarks recognizable is probably not in our mission profile.
Rapidly terraforming Mars, ie. within a generation or so, does not seem achievable with near future technology. Soil is a problem, but my guess is that athmosphere is a greater problem. Deeper into the future we would probably be able to create soil rapidly from a combination of genetically altered plants that grow hydroponically and nanobots.
Edit:
I see that you specify that we get athmosphere "for free". In which case, yes soil production is a real problem. However, in respect to your linked answer, bringing soil from earth remains a poor solution, it's just too expensive to transport that much mass. |
192,884 | I restored antique brass door knobs and plates.
This is what the brass looked like before restoration.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rBMzB.jpg)
This is what the brass looked like after restoration.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YoMhj.jpg)
The door knobs have a color mix of yellow and copper. The plates have mostly copper color.
Which color is supposed to be the original brass? And what or where is the other colored layer from? | 2020/05/16 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/192884",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/117335/"
] | Copper is "red", adding zinc to it makes it brass and the more zinc the more yellow/gold. However , there is always an exception. Yellow brass is usually 70 Cu; 30 Zn, but a cheaper yellow brass is ( *muntz metal* ) 60 Cu ;40 Zn and is a little reddish compared to 70;30. For these two alloys the color trend reverses. So it looks like the knobs are 70;30 and the plates are 60;40 ; both are brass.
These consumer items are very unlikely to be bronze ( *Cu + tin* ) which is more red than brass.
Well over 100 years ago some consumer items were bronze instead of brass. Plumbing materials are a little different as the better properties of bronze make bronze a little more likely to be used for plumbing.
Very long ago I worked at a secondary copper smelter; they melted copper alloys into standard composition ingots. It was important to separate copper scrap into about 10 categories. Experienced people could sort tons of these alloys by color and form, not counting the pure copper wire and tubing/pipe. | The brass you now show was not the original finish otherwise the brass would be matched in color.
The original finish was japanned or painted. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | The use of carats as unit of weight comes from the relatively narrow distribution of weight of the seed of [carob](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carob)
>
> The unit "carat", used for weighing precious metal and stones, also comes from κεράτιον, as alluding to an ancient practice of weighing gold and gemstones against the seeds of the carob tree by people in the Middle East. The system was eventually standardized, and one carat was fixed at 0.2 gram.
>
>
>
Since also the distribution of dimension of the seeds is pretty narrow, you can use the seeds as unit of length. The length of about 100 seeds should be somewhere around the length of 1 meter. ([image source](https://it.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratonia_siliqua))
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pg5u2.jpg) | **A large femur (thigh-bone) of an individual creature.**
Bones are relatively weather resistant and can last for a long time, so a particular femur off of a historical hunt may be passed on, similar to the metre bar.
There are a few disadvantages to this solution:
1. It is unique and may become damaged, making it worthless.
2. It is unique and is therefore not readily available, unlike a 'foot'. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | If your culture is scientifically advanced, a truly uiversal length unit is the [Planck length](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck_length). which is ca. 1.616×10-35 m. Using 1035 times this length gives you a suitable length of 1.616 m. | **A large femur (thigh-bone) of an individual creature.**
Bones are relatively weather resistant and can last for a long time, so a particular femur off of a historical hunt may be passed on, similar to the metre bar.
There are a few disadvantages to this solution:
1. It is unique and may become damaged, making it worthless.
2. It is unique and is therefore not readily available, unlike a 'foot'. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | [**Capillary action**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capillary_action)
When hollow tube is submerged to a fluid, the surface level inside tube is different from the outside, as if defying gravity. This difference is universal and can be used to set a standard length. For example with glass tube in water, in a 3.85 mm radius tube, the water would rise 3.85 mm. No other tube diameter can produce the ratio of 1 between diameter and height of meniscus.
From this meter standard can be derived when you place 260 inner diameters of such tube (presumably, casts of it) next to each other.
Casting metal alloy meter lengths, or marking bones centrally and distributing them seems more practical. | **A large femur (thigh-bone) of an individual creature.**
Bones are relatively weather resistant and can last for a long time, so a particular femur off of a historical hunt may be passed on, similar to the metre bar.
There are a few disadvantages to this solution:
1. It is unique and may become damaged, making it worthless.
2. It is unique and is therefore not readily available, unlike a 'foot'. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | The short answer is "anything." All you need is an evolutionary pressure to be X meters tall but not X+1 meters tall, and natural selection will take over. Balances in natural things have proven remarkably precise. Averages work even better. If you can measure the length of 100 things end-to-end, you can use the central limit theorem to get a more accurate measure. This is why Carab seeds are so effective for measuring mass, over say large rocks. They're nice and small.
One more precise answer would be to use the circumference of the planet. The meter was originally defined to be one ten-millionth of the distance from the pole to the equator. Such a measure would technically meet your needs, as it is measuring something natural. | **A large femur (thigh-bone) of an individual creature.**
Bones are relatively weather resistant and can last for a long time, so a particular femur off of a historical hunt may be passed on, similar to the metre bar.
There are a few disadvantages to this solution:
1. It is unique and may become damaged, making it worthless.
2. It is unique and is therefore not readily available, unlike a 'foot'. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | The use of carats as unit of weight comes from the relatively narrow distribution of weight of the seed of [carob](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carob)
>
> The unit "carat", used for weighing precious metal and stones, also comes from κεράτιον, as alluding to an ancient practice of weighing gold and gemstones against the seeds of the carob tree by people in the Middle East. The system was eventually standardized, and one carat was fixed at 0.2 gram.
>
>
>
Since also the distribution of dimension of the seeds is pretty narrow, you can use the seeds as unit of length. The length of about 100 seeds should be somewhere around the length of 1 meter. ([image source](https://it.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratonia_siliqua))
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pg5u2.jpg) | If your culture is scientifically advanced, a truly uiversal length unit is the [Planck length](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck_length). which is ca. 1.616×10-35 m. Using 1035 times this length gives you a suitable length of 1.616 m. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | The use of carats as unit of weight comes from the relatively narrow distribution of weight of the seed of [carob](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carob)
>
> The unit "carat", used for weighing precious metal and stones, also comes from κεράτιον, as alluding to an ancient practice of weighing gold and gemstones against the seeds of the carob tree by people in the Middle East. The system was eventually standardized, and one carat was fixed at 0.2 gram.
>
>
>
Since also the distribution of dimension of the seeds is pretty narrow, you can use the seeds as unit of length. The length of about 100 seeds should be somewhere around the length of 1 meter. ([image source](https://it.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratonia_siliqua))
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pg5u2.jpg) | [**Capillary action**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capillary_action)
When hollow tube is submerged to a fluid, the surface level inside tube is different from the outside, as if defying gravity. This difference is universal and can be used to set a standard length. For example with glass tube in water, in a 3.85 mm radius tube, the water would rise 3.85 mm. No other tube diameter can produce the ratio of 1 between diameter and height of meniscus.
From this meter standard can be derived when you place 260 inner diameters of such tube (presumably, casts of it) next to each other.
Casting metal alloy meter lengths, or marking bones centrally and distributing them seems more practical. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | The use of carats as unit of weight comes from the relatively narrow distribution of weight of the seed of [carob](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carob)
>
> The unit "carat", used for weighing precious metal and stones, also comes from κεράτιον, as alluding to an ancient practice of weighing gold and gemstones against the seeds of the carob tree by people in the Middle East. The system was eventually standardized, and one carat was fixed at 0.2 gram.
>
>
>
Since also the distribution of dimension of the seeds is pretty narrow, you can use the seeds as unit of length. The length of about 100 seeds should be somewhere around the length of 1 meter. ([image source](https://it.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratonia_siliqua))
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pg5u2.jpg) | The short answer is "anything." All you need is an evolutionary pressure to be X meters tall but not X+1 meters tall, and natural selection will take over. Balances in natural things have proven remarkably precise. Averages work even better. If you can measure the length of 100 things end-to-end, you can use the central limit theorem to get a more accurate measure. This is why Carab seeds are so effective for measuring mass, over say large rocks. They're nice and small.
One more precise answer would be to use the circumference of the planet. The meter was originally defined to be one ten-millionth of the distance from the pole to the equator. Such a measure would technically meet your needs, as it is measuring something natural. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | If your culture is scientifically advanced, a truly uiversal length unit is the [Planck length](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck_length). which is ca. 1.616×10-35 m. Using 1035 times this length gives you a suitable length of 1.616 m. | The short answer is "anything." All you need is an evolutionary pressure to be X meters tall but not X+1 meters tall, and natural selection will take over. Balances in natural things have proven remarkably precise. Averages work even better. If you can measure the length of 100 things end-to-end, you can use the central limit theorem to get a more accurate measure. This is why Carab seeds are so effective for measuring mass, over say large rocks. They're nice and small.
One more precise answer would be to use the circumference of the planet. The meter was originally defined to be one ten-millionth of the distance from the pole to the equator. Such a measure would technically meet your needs, as it is measuring something natural. |
158,409 | Consistent units are one of the most important inventions to the modern age.
Before standardization, one used natural units such as 'feet', but these all varied from person to person.
My world abides to all natural laws of Earth and has developed very similarly.
**Could anything exist naturally in my world that could serve as a consistent unit of distance measurement?**
Could there be a plant, mineral or other natural occurrence that grows to a certain, consistent size?
Ideally, a unit should be roughly equivalent to a metre. | 2019/10/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/158409",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/59407/"
] | [**Capillary action**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capillary_action)
When hollow tube is submerged to a fluid, the surface level inside tube is different from the outside, as if defying gravity. This difference is universal and can be used to set a standard length. For example with glass tube in water, in a 3.85 mm radius tube, the water would rise 3.85 mm. No other tube diameter can produce the ratio of 1 between diameter and height of meniscus.
From this meter standard can be derived when you place 260 inner diameters of such tube (presumably, casts of it) next to each other.
Casting metal alloy meter lengths, or marking bones centrally and distributing them seems more practical. | The short answer is "anything." All you need is an evolutionary pressure to be X meters tall but not X+1 meters tall, and natural selection will take over. Balances in natural things have proven remarkably precise. Averages work even better. If you can measure the length of 100 things end-to-end, you can use the central limit theorem to get a more accurate measure. This is why Carab seeds are so effective for measuring mass, over say large rocks. They're nice and small.
One more precise answer would be to use the circumference of the planet. The meter was originally defined to be one ten-millionth of the distance from the pole to the equator. Such a measure would technically meet your needs, as it is measuring something natural. |
157,825 | I'm desperate, otherwise I wouldn't post this long type of post on this forum, cause whenever I have a problem, I just search it on Google and 99% of cases I find the solution, but this time, I'm helpless. I would really appreciate if someone has a solution to my problem,
I have a Infocus M2. It is an awesome phone, I'm really satisfied with it. I have it for 1 year now and I have never had a problem, everything worked perfectly (and is still working), but for 7 days something keeps popping up: it doesn't matter if I'm in a game, or on the internet or am I doing something on the phone, a black screen with text "**Location service**" and after that a white screen appears with a little text "**Launcher loading**..." and a circle that is loading, and I have no idea what is that. I can't do anything, I just have to wait like 1 minute for it to disappear. After that a new app automatically start installing from Google play store.
All this problem started when I install a free app "**[Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)**" from Google play store. and this app automatically install a app "**Key Chain**" After that I just loose control over my phone. Whenever it connects to internet it start downloading apps like DU Speed, Battery Doctor and some those apps automatically install that I uninstalled 1 month ago etc. It's really frustrating. Also, this happens, like one time in 1 hours. I really hate it.
I have to mention a thing:
--------------------------
* Some times After the white screen disappears, Google App Store opens, at a shopping app called "Ali Express" (like it wants to install it or something), I had it installed only one time, but I uninstalled it 6 months ago.
* Key Chain does not remove by restore factory setting. that is automatically installed from [Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)
**Note**: I know one Key Chain is default app but my phone has 3 key chain
I have Attempts following steps to solve my problem:
====================================================
1. Restore factory setting and deleted all third party apps 2 times but problem is still.
2. Run up to 4 antivirus apps but no luck
3. Change google account password
4. Boot my phone in safe mode and clear cache, clear defaults of some apps like: launcher, key chain, location service etc. and Reset app preferrnces.
**I'm sorry for the large post, but I wanted to be as specific as possible. Thanks in advance.** | 2016/09/17 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/157825",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/187991/"
] | Since the 0.37 update on android, Root users have been forced out of the game. Niantic claim this to cut down on hacking (but a better option would be to not open if allow.mock.location is 1)
[Source 1](http://www.gamenguide.com/articles/45186/20160912/pokemon-go-latest-news-updates-niantic-bans-rooted-jailbroken-devices-players-complain-says-not-all-owners-of-rooted-devices-cheat.htm) - A report that talks about the new updates limits.
Either way, you do still have an option: Using Magisk, You can play Pokemon Go again with root. It is the exact same method as Allowing Android Pay with root, but I'll [Link it here, for simplicity](http://www.androidpolice.com/2016/09/11/guide-play-pokemon-go-0-37-rooted-android-magisk/) | Yes, 1) Download the superuser app
2) go to devlopper option and enable root for apps
3) go to superuser and go to settings and click clean root from phone and then niantic cant see it on your phone anymore |
157,825 | I'm desperate, otherwise I wouldn't post this long type of post on this forum, cause whenever I have a problem, I just search it on Google and 99% of cases I find the solution, but this time, I'm helpless. I would really appreciate if someone has a solution to my problem,
I have a Infocus M2. It is an awesome phone, I'm really satisfied with it. I have it for 1 year now and I have never had a problem, everything worked perfectly (and is still working), but for 7 days something keeps popping up: it doesn't matter if I'm in a game, or on the internet or am I doing something on the phone, a black screen with text "**Location service**" and after that a white screen appears with a little text "**Launcher loading**..." and a circle that is loading, and I have no idea what is that. I can't do anything, I just have to wait like 1 minute for it to disappear. After that a new app automatically start installing from Google play store.
All this problem started when I install a free app "**[Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)**" from Google play store. and this app automatically install a app "**Key Chain**" After that I just loose control over my phone. Whenever it connects to internet it start downloading apps like DU Speed, Battery Doctor and some those apps automatically install that I uninstalled 1 month ago etc. It's really frustrating. Also, this happens, like one time in 1 hours. I really hate it.
I have to mention a thing:
--------------------------
* Some times After the white screen disappears, Google App Store opens, at a shopping app called "Ali Express" (like it wants to install it or something), I had it installed only one time, but I uninstalled it 6 months ago.
* Key Chain does not remove by restore factory setting. that is automatically installed from [Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)
**Note**: I know one Key Chain is default app but my phone has 3 key chain
I have Attempts following steps to solve my problem:
====================================================
1. Restore factory setting and deleted all third party apps 2 times but problem is still.
2. Run up to 4 antivirus apps but no luck
3. Change google account password
4. Boot my phone in safe mode and clear cache, clear defaults of some apps like: launcher, key chain, location service etc. and Reset app preferrnces.
**I'm sorry for the large post, but I wanted to be as specific as possible. Thanks in advance.** | 2016/09/17 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/157825",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/187991/"
] | Since the 0.37 update on android, Root users have been forced out of the game. Niantic claim this to cut down on hacking (but a better option would be to not open if allow.mock.location is 1)
[Source 1](http://www.gamenguide.com/articles/45186/20160912/pokemon-go-latest-news-updates-niantic-bans-rooted-jailbroken-devices-players-complain-says-not-all-owners-of-rooted-devices-cheat.htm) - A report that talks about the new updates limits.
Either way, you do still have an option: Using Magisk, You can play Pokemon Go again with root. It is the exact same method as Allowing Android Pay with root, but I'll [Link it here, for simplicity](http://www.androidpolice.com/2016/09/11/guide-play-pokemon-go-0-37-rooted-android-magisk/) | There are methods called root cloaking. This is the process of hiding root from specific apps. I'd recommend checking out these posts for more information:
<http://forum.xda-developers.com/xposed/modules/mod-rootcloak-completely-hide-root-t2574647>
<http://repo.xposed.info/module/com.devadvance.rootcloak2> |
157,825 | I'm desperate, otherwise I wouldn't post this long type of post on this forum, cause whenever I have a problem, I just search it on Google and 99% of cases I find the solution, but this time, I'm helpless. I would really appreciate if someone has a solution to my problem,
I have a Infocus M2. It is an awesome phone, I'm really satisfied with it. I have it for 1 year now and I have never had a problem, everything worked perfectly (and is still working), but for 7 days something keeps popping up: it doesn't matter if I'm in a game, or on the internet or am I doing something on the phone, a black screen with text "**Location service**" and after that a white screen appears with a little text "**Launcher loading**..." and a circle that is loading, and I have no idea what is that. I can't do anything, I just have to wait like 1 minute for it to disappear. After that a new app automatically start installing from Google play store.
All this problem started when I install a free app "**[Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)**" from Google play store. and this app automatically install a app "**Key Chain**" After that I just loose control over my phone. Whenever it connects to internet it start downloading apps like DU Speed, Battery Doctor and some those apps automatically install that I uninstalled 1 month ago etc. It's really frustrating. Also, this happens, like one time in 1 hours. I really hate it.
I have to mention a thing:
--------------------------
* Some times After the white screen disappears, Google App Store opens, at a shopping app called "Ali Express" (like it wants to install it or something), I had it installed only one time, but I uninstalled it 6 months ago.
* Key Chain does not remove by restore factory setting. that is automatically installed from [Task bucks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.taskbucks.taskbucks&hl=en)
**Note**: I know one Key Chain is default app but my phone has 3 key chain
I have Attempts following steps to solve my problem:
====================================================
1. Restore factory setting and deleted all third party apps 2 times but problem is still.
2. Run up to 4 antivirus apps but no luck
3. Change google account password
4. Boot my phone in safe mode and clear cache, clear defaults of some apps like: launcher, key chain, location service etc. and Reset app preferrnces.
**I'm sorry for the large post, but I wanted to be as specific as possible. Thanks in advance.** | 2016/09/17 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/157825",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/187991/"
] | There are methods called root cloaking. This is the process of hiding root from specific apps. I'd recommend checking out these posts for more information:
<http://forum.xda-developers.com/xposed/modules/mod-rootcloak-completely-hide-root-t2574647>
<http://repo.xposed.info/module/com.devadvance.rootcloak2> | Yes, 1) Download the superuser app
2) go to devlopper option and enable root for apps
3) go to superuser and go to settings and click clean root from phone and then niantic cant see it on your phone anymore |
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