qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | A few different reasons:
1. Good pilots put the aircraft into a well-known (up) configuration after landing, so that the aircraft is ready for use on the next flight.
2. Flaps down during taxi was a signal to the tower that the aircraft had been hijacked.
3. Take-off flaps (10 degrees on my airplane) and landing flaps (45 degrees), are nearly always different, so leaving the flaps down after landing at, say, 45, doesn't save any steps for departure. If the pilots forgets to set flaps before takeoff, some aircraft (like mine) will make it almost impossible to depart and climb out on full flaps because of the induced drag, [while takeoff with no flaps is possible](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/9183/1696).
4. Prevent trucks and people from hitting the flaps while the airplane is parked, especially in the full-down (landing) configuration.
5. Some pilots employ the practice of [retracting the flaps during the rollout](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1189) because it puts more weight on the wheels, reducing stopping distance.
6. Flaps down increases the amount of lift generated by the wing, so some aircraft might actually lift off the ground while parked with full flaps in high winds. | You never know what wind speed will hit the aircraft until the crew returns. Also, retracted flaps are much less of an obstacle to careless drivers of airport trucks. [This video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cHhZwvdRR5c) shows a parked 747 in high winds. Now imagine what would have happened if the flaps had been deployed!
Note that fully extended high lift systems at ground angle of attack can produce five or six times the lift of the wing with flaps retracted. Lowering the trailing edge flaps increases wing area and lowers the zero-lift angle of attack, so at ground attitude the wing is much farther up on the lift curve slope.
In aircraft with manual controls it is also recommended to secure all control surfaces, so they don't float in the wind. Bearings and pushrods could be damaged, and in a careless preflight check might not raise suspicions, but can go on to fail in flight. Better be safe and reduce all chances of wind playing with the aircraft! |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | You never know what wind speed will hit the aircraft until the crew returns. Also, retracted flaps are much less of an obstacle to careless drivers of airport trucks. [This video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cHhZwvdRR5c) shows a parked 747 in high winds. Now imagine what would have happened if the flaps had been deployed!
Note that fully extended high lift systems at ground angle of attack can produce five or six times the lift of the wing with flaps retracted. Lowering the trailing edge flaps increases wing area and lowers the zero-lift angle of attack, so at ground attitude the wing is much farther up on the lift curve slope.
In aircraft with manual controls it is also recommended to secure all control surfaces, so they don't float in the wind. Bearings and pushrods could be damaged, and in a careless preflight check might not raise suspicions, but can go on to fail in flight. Better be safe and reduce all chances of wind playing with the aircraft! | and then the obvious one... you retract your flaps so you don't keep hitting your head on the flap when you are bent over walking around your plane :) |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | You never know what wind speed will hit the aircraft until the crew returns. Also, retracted flaps are much less of an obstacle to careless drivers of airport trucks. [This video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cHhZwvdRR5c) shows a parked 747 in high winds. Now imagine what would have happened if the flaps had been deployed!
Note that fully extended high lift systems at ground angle of attack can produce five or six times the lift of the wing with flaps retracted. Lowering the trailing edge flaps increases wing area and lowers the zero-lift angle of attack, so at ground attitude the wing is much farther up on the lift curve slope.
In aircraft with manual controls it is also recommended to secure all control surfaces, so they don't float in the wind. Bearings and pushrods could be damaged, and in a careless preflight check might not raise suspicions, but can go on to fail in flight. Better be safe and reduce all chances of wind playing with the aircraft! | On larger aircraft it would be standard operating procedure to retract the flaps after landing. This is to ensure the crew taking over from you are presented with an aircraft in the correct state in accordance with company SOPs.
Flaps could easily be damaged by ground crew loading and unloading. Also it would be difficult to refuel the aircraft with the flaps/slats extended (Larger Boeing types have the refuel system located at the leading edge underneath a wing).
There are occasions when you would leave the flaps extended, during operations in heavy snow for example - retracting contaminated surfaces may cause damage. |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | You never know what wind speed will hit the aircraft until the crew returns. Also, retracted flaps are much less of an obstacle to careless drivers of airport trucks. [This video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cHhZwvdRR5c) shows a parked 747 in high winds. Now imagine what would have happened if the flaps had been deployed!
Note that fully extended high lift systems at ground angle of attack can produce five or six times the lift of the wing with flaps retracted. Lowering the trailing edge flaps increases wing area and lowers the zero-lift angle of attack, so at ground attitude the wing is much farther up on the lift curve slope.
In aircraft with manual controls it is also recommended to secure all control surfaces, so they don't float in the wind. Bearings and pushrods could be damaged, and in a careless preflight check might not raise suspicions, but can go on to fail in flight. Better be safe and reduce all chances of wind playing with the aircraft! | On Pipers (Cherokee, Cherokee Six), the flaps had step areas on the inboard ends. When retracted, they were essentially locked in position. When extended to the first notch, they were spring loaded in such a way that they could be pushed down to expose the hinges and linkages for inspection from above. The pre-flight routine would include setting the flaps to 1 notch to facilitate inspection during walk-around, but otherwise keep them retracted until pre-take-off. So a reason for keeping retracted would be to help with boarding. |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | A few different reasons:
1. Good pilots put the aircraft into a well-known (up) configuration after landing, so that the aircraft is ready for use on the next flight.
2. Flaps down during taxi was a signal to the tower that the aircraft had been hijacked.
3. Take-off flaps (10 degrees on my airplane) and landing flaps (45 degrees), are nearly always different, so leaving the flaps down after landing at, say, 45, doesn't save any steps for departure. If the pilots forgets to set flaps before takeoff, some aircraft (like mine) will make it almost impossible to depart and climb out on full flaps because of the induced drag, [while takeoff with no flaps is possible](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/9183/1696).
4. Prevent trucks and people from hitting the flaps while the airplane is parked, especially in the full-down (landing) configuration.
5. Some pilots employ the practice of [retracting the flaps during the rollout](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1189) because it puts more weight on the wheels, reducing stopping distance.
6. Flaps down increases the amount of lift generated by the wing, so some aircraft might actually lift off the ground while parked with full flaps in high winds. | and then the obvious one... you retract your flaps so you don't keep hitting your head on the flap when you are bent over walking around your plane :) |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | A few different reasons:
1. Good pilots put the aircraft into a well-known (up) configuration after landing, so that the aircraft is ready for use on the next flight.
2. Flaps down during taxi was a signal to the tower that the aircraft had been hijacked.
3. Take-off flaps (10 degrees on my airplane) and landing flaps (45 degrees), are nearly always different, so leaving the flaps down after landing at, say, 45, doesn't save any steps for departure. If the pilots forgets to set flaps before takeoff, some aircraft (like mine) will make it almost impossible to depart and climb out on full flaps because of the induced drag, [while takeoff with no flaps is possible](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/9183/1696).
4. Prevent trucks and people from hitting the flaps while the airplane is parked, especially in the full-down (landing) configuration.
5. Some pilots employ the practice of [retracting the flaps during the rollout](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1189) because it puts more weight on the wheels, reducing stopping distance.
6. Flaps down increases the amount of lift generated by the wing, so some aircraft might actually lift off the ground while parked with full flaps in high winds. | On larger aircraft it would be standard operating procedure to retract the flaps after landing. This is to ensure the crew taking over from you are presented with an aircraft in the correct state in accordance with company SOPs.
Flaps could easily be damaged by ground crew loading and unloading. Also it would be difficult to refuel the aircraft with the flaps/slats extended (Larger Boeing types have the refuel system located at the leading edge underneath a wing).
There are occasions when you would leave the flaps extended, during operations in heavy snow for example - retracting contaminated surfaces may cause damage. |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | A few different reasons:
1. Good pilots put the aircraft into a well-known (up) configuration after landing, so that the aircraft is ready for use on the next flight.
2. Flaps down during taxi was a signal to the tower that the aircraft had been hijacked.
3. Take-off flaps (10 degrees on my airplane) and landing flaps (45 degrees), are nearly always different, so leaving the flaps down after landing at, say, 45, doesn't save any steps for departure. If the pilots forgets to set flaps before takeoff, some aircraft (like mine) will make it almost impossible to depart and climb out on full flaps because of the induced drag, [while takeoff with no flaps is possible](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/9183/1696).
4. Prevent trucks and people from hitting the flaps while the airplane is parked, especially in the full-down (landing) configuration.
5. Some pilots employ the practice of [retracting the flaps during the rollout](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1189) because it puts more weight on the wheels, reducing stopping distance.
6. Flaps down increases the amount of lift generated by the wing, so some aircraft might actually lift off the ground while parked with full flaps in high winds. | On Pipers (Cherokee, Cherokee Six), the flaps had step areas on the inboard ends. When retracted, they were essentially locked in position. When extended to the first notch, they were spring loaded in such a way that they could be pushed down to expose the hinges and linkages for inspection from above. The pre-flight routine would include setting the flaps to 1 notch to facilitate inspection during walk-around, but otherwise keep them retracted until pre-take-off. So a reason for keeping retracted would be to help with boarding. |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | and then the obvious one... you retract your flaps so you don't keep hitting your head on the flap when you are bent over walking around your plane :) | On Pipers (Cherokee, Cherokee Six), the flaps had step areas on the inboard ends. When retracted, they were essentially locked in position. When extended to the first notch, they were spring loaded in such a way that they could be pushed down to expose the hinges and linkages for inspection from above. The pre-flight routine would include setting the flaps to 1 notch to facilitate inspection during walk-around, but otherwise keep them retracted until pre-take-off. So a reason for keeping retracted would be to help with boarding. |
9,052 | I found this [question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/1950/what-are-the-general-post-flight-sequence-checks-and-do-they-start-automatically). One of the answer tell the flaps are generally retracted after landing. I assume this mean flaps are retracted when the airplane is on the ground between flights.
Flaps are extended for landing and then extended again for take off. Not taking care of their position while on ground (no need of them) and putting them in the required position before take off may save (few) flaps actions (something like putting them from landing to take-off position instead of landing position to fully retracted and then from retracted to take-off position).
Is there some good reason to retract the flaps on ground? Does this good reason varies from a type of aircraft to another? | 2014/10/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/9052",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/3394/"
] | On larger aircraft it would be standard operating procedure to retract the flaps after landing. This is to ensure the crew taking over from you are presented with an aircraft in the correct state in accordance with company SOPs.
Flaps could easily be damaged by ground crew loading and unloading. Also it would be difficult to refuel the aircraft with the flaps/slats extended (Larger Boeing types have the refuel system located at the leading edge underneath a wing).
There are occasions when you would leave the flaps extended, during operations in heavy snow for example - retracting contaminated surfaces may cause damage. | On Pipers (Cherokee, Cherokee Six), the flaps had step areas on the inboard ends. When retracted, they were essentially locked in position. When extended to the first notch, they were spring loaded in such a way that they could be pushed down to expose the hinges and linkages for inspection from above. The pre-flight routine would include setting the flaps to 1 notch to facilitate inspection during walk-around, but otherwise keep them retracted until pre-take-off. So a reason for keeping retracted would be to help with boarding. |
123,654 | Is there any character formula for demazure modules in arbitary kac moody settings which does not use demazure operators? | 2013/03/05 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/123654",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/21155/"
] | Ryom-Hansen, Steen(DK-CPNH)
Littelmann's refined Demazure character formula revisited. (English summary)
Sém. Lothar. Combin. 49 (2002/04), Art. B49d, 10 pp.
The review:
"The author provides a purely combinatorial proof the Demazure character formula, a generalisation of Weyl's character formula. This is done using only the combinatorial properties of crystals, namely Kashiwara's crystal operators and the ∗-operation. Prior proofs required an appeal to either representation theory or Littelmann's path models." | Littelmann's, which gives a positive formula (counting Littelmann paths). His ICM address is here: <http://www.mathunion.org/ICM/ICM1994.1/Main/icm1994.1.0298.0308.ocr.pdf>
He proves its *validity* using Demazure operators -- I hope that doesn't disqualify it! |
188,673 | I removed the old front porch light and found that the old wiring is being run through a pipe that sticks out about 1/2”. I can’t install the new light because it needs to flush to an outlet box. Ideas?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KQnXi.jpg) | 2020/03/30 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/188673",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/114955/"
] | The picture shows an armored conduit holding the wires. You could mount a box by removing the nut and mounting a box through a knockout at the back of the box, replacing the nut on the inside. You'd want to make sure it's rated for outdoor since it's exposed.
I'm not sure what type of base the light has and whether or not it will cover the box once you mount it or if that's important to you.
In this particular application code may allow you to attach the light directly to a mounting bar attached to the nipple. However, before you do that check codes. One of the electrical pros here might help you with that. | To have a flush mount as you have asked, cut out the brick where you want the outlet, and shorten the conduit. Use a shallow electrical box so the cut into the brick is minimized. |
188,673 | I removed the old front porch light and found that the old wiring is being run through a pipe that sticks out about 1/2”. I can’t install the new light because it needs to flush to an outlet box. Ideas?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KQnXi.jpg) | 2020/03/30 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/188673",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/114955/"
] | The picture shows an armored conduit holding the wires. You could mount a box by removing the nut and mounting a box through a knockout at the back of the box, replacing the nut on the inside. You'd want to make sure it's rated for outdoor since it's exposed.
I'm not sure what type of base the light has and whether or not it will cover the box once you mount it or if that's important to you.
In this particular application code may allow you to attach the light directly to a mounting bar attached to the nipple. However, before you do that check codes. One of the electrical pros here might help you with that. | Most of the time when I don’t have a J box I will recommend a wall pack. A wall pack is a surface mounted fixture that allows the wiring splices to be made inside the fixture. These come in every light type , incandescent, LED, HID including metal halide , sodium and fluorescent. In the past they were more common on industrial buildings but with LED lighting I see them much more often. |
200,168 | I'm on Windows 7, 64-bit. Can I run the Linux Fortran compiler for Intel with Cygwin? | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/200168",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/52579/"
] | no (because cygwin binaries are WINDOWS binaries).
but you can setup a virtual machine (with virtualbox.org), install linux in it and then run the fortran compiler. | Better (easier to install and configure) than cygwin is <http://andlinux.org> and you can get intel fortran compilers through andlinux. |
200,168 | I'm on Windows 7, 64-bit. Can I run the Linux Fortran compiler for Intel with Cygwin? | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/200168",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/52579/"
] | no (because cygwin binaries are WINDOWS binaries).
but you can setup a virtual machine (with virtualbox.org), install linux in it and then run the fortran compiler. | Yes, GCC (including GFortran) supports Cygwin, see: <http://gcc.gnu.org/install/specific.html#x-x-cygwin> |
200,168 | I'm on Windows 7, 64-bit. Can I run the Linux Fortran compiler for Intel with Cygwin? | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/200168",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/52579/"
] | While Cygwin provides a [POSIX](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/POSIX)-compatible layer for *source code* and *scripts*, it does not provide an **[ELF](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Executable_and_Linkable_Format) [loader](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loader_%28computing%29)** nor does it implement the Linux [**ABI**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_binary_interface), therefore it cannot run Linux binaries. | no (because cygwin binaries are WINDOWS binaries).
but you can setup a virtual machine (with virtualbox.org), install linux in it and then run the fortran compiler. |
200,168 | I'm on Windows 7, 64-bit. Can I run the Linux Fortran compiler for Intel with Cygwin? | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/200168",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/52579/"
] | While Cygwin provides a [POSIX](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/POSIX)-compatible layer for *source code* and *scripts*, it does not provide an **[ELF](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Executable_and_Linkable_Format) [loader](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loader_%28computing%29)** nor does it implement the Linux [**ABI**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_binary_interface), therefore it cannot run Linux binaries. | Better (easier to install and configure) than cygwin is <http://andlinux.org> and you can get intel fortran compilers through andlinux. |
200,168 | I'm on Windows 7, 64-bit. Can I run the Linux Fortran compiler for Intel with Cygwin? | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/200168",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/52579/"
] | While Cygwin provides a [POSIX](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/POSIX)-compatible layer for *source code* and *scripts*, it does not provide an **[ELF](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Executable_and_Linkable_Format) [loader](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loader_%28computing%29)** nor does it implement the Linux [**ABI**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_binary_interface), therefore it cannot run Linux binaries. | Yes, GCC (including GFortran) supports Cygwin, see: <http://gcc.gnu.org/install/specific.html#x-x-cygwin> |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | AccountA = Older account
AccountB = Primary account
So, what you're saying is that for AccountA, you listed AccountB as the alternate email? When you did that, Google (at least now they do) sent an email to your AccountB email from account-verification-noreply@google.com and had you verify the association. If you can find the email and click on the link within it, it should ask you to login to AccountA. | If account A is pulling emails from account B using POP3 you can check on <https://mail.google.com/mail/#settings/accounts>.
If account B is forwarding emails to account A then you will have to find an email that was forwarded and check the to address. Perhaps searching for a type of email that would have been delivered to account b.
Account A = primary account being backed up to.
Account B = lost secondary account being backed up from. |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info. | If account A is pulling emails from account B using POP3 you can check on <https://mail.google.com/mail/#settings/accounts>.
If account B is forwarding emails to account A then you will have to find an email that was forwarded and check the to address. Perhaps searching for a type of email that would have been delivered to account b.
Account A = primary account being backed up to.
Account B = lost secondary account being backed up from. |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | If account A is pulling emails from account B using POP3 you can check on <https://mail.google.com/mail/#settings/accounts>.
If account B is forwarding emails to account A then you will have to find an email that was forwarded and check the to address. Perhaps searching for a type of email that would have been delivered to account b.
Account A = primary account being backed up to.
Account B = lost secondary account being backed up from. | <https://families.google.com/families>
That did it for me. I got to see all the "child" accounts and could change the password from there. :) |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | If account A is pulling emails from account B using POP3 you can check on <https://mail.google.com/mail/#settings/accounts>.
If account B is forwarding emails to account A then you will have to find an email that was forwarded and check the to address. Perhaps searching for a type of email that would have been delivered to account b.
Account A = primary account being backed up to.
Account B = lost secondary account being backed up from. | "Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info."
But I do it and it asks me what first and last name I used and I don't remember that as well so is that over? |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | AccountA = Older account
AccountB = Primary account
So, what you're saying is that for AccountA, you listed AccountB as the alternate email? When you did that, Google (at least now they do) sent an email to your AccountB email from account-verification-noreply@google.com and had you verify the association. If you can find the email and click on the link within it, it should ask you to login to AccountA. | Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info. |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | AccountA = Older account
AccountB = Primary account
So, what you're saying is that for AccountA, you listed AccountB as the alternate email? When you did that, Google (at least now they do) sent an email to your AccountB email from account-verification-noreply@google.com and had you verify the association. If you can find the email and click on the link within it, it should ask you to login to AccountA. | <https://families.google.com/families>
That did it for me. I got to see all the "child" accounts and could change the password from there. :) |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | AccountA = Older account
AccountB = Primary account
So, what you're saying is that for AccountA, you listed AccountB as the alternate email? When you did that, Google (at least now they do) sent an email to your AccountB email from account-verification-noreply@google.com and had you verify the association. If you can find the email and click on the link within it, it should ask you to login to AccountA. | "Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info."
But I do it and it asks me what first and last name I used and I don't remember that as well so is that over? |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info. | <https://families.google.com/families>
That did it for me. I got to see all the "child" accounts and could change the password from there. :) |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info. | "Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info."
But I do it and it asks me what first and last name I used and I don't remember that as well so is that over? |
1,854 | I have an older Gmail account that I set up that I need access to. I know that I used my primary Gmail address as the backup account, but I can't remember the username that I used.
I'd swear that I found somewhere in settings or somewhere that I saw this before; but I think there's a place that lets you see what other accounts are using your Gmail account as the secondary account.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/1854",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/1089/"
] | <https://families.google.com/families>
That did it for me. I got to see all the "child" accounts and could change the password from there. :) | "Go to Gmail and choose ‘add new account’ then press the ‘I forgot my email’ button.
You’ll then be prompt to fill in your backup email or phone number. Then you’ll get a message with a list of all your email accounts associated with your backup info."
But I do it and it asks me what first and last name I used and I don't remember that as well so is that over? |
21,194 | I have a problem when Drupal sends email messages. I use the Rules module for doing it.
When the email is sent to a Hotmail account, the email is sent successfully; with other accounts (e.g. Yahoo, Gmail), the email is not received. The "recent log entries" shows the email as successfully sent, but the account doesn't receive it. | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/21194",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/5195/"
] | Likely the problem is not in drupal, but in server environment. You could use [Drupal SMTP Support](http://drupal.org/project/smtp) module to bypass this. | This may be due to the MIME Format. See [Multi-part message in MIME format wrong plain text format](http://drupal.org/node/319562) and the patch reported there. |
104,589 | I was given a rating of 2 which is "needs improvement" and was on a performance improvement plan (PIP) for two months. But then I completed the task given to me and now I have been holding the 1st ranking for the last 6 months.
Now I am looking for new job and I am concerned about what recruiters think about a guy who was on a PIP. My question is: Does it affect the selection process and how do I deal with questions related to PIP during interview? | 2018/01/02 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/104589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/81317/"
] | Is there any reason you need to mention the PIP at all?
Unless you think you're current employer will make mention of it when using them as a reference then I would simply not mention it. If it does come up during an interview or whatever then you can lay out the facts that you have here - you needed to improve and when you were on the PIP you did just that. | Depends a bit on the situation. On one hand, there is no particular need to mention a PIP (unless it may show up in a reference or comment from current employer).
On the other hand, working yourself up from a PIP to a top rating is a real success story and fairly unusual at that. It demonstrates that you can work through a difficult situation and turn it around. So it may be a good answer to a question like "How do you deal with conflict?" or "How do you deal with a confrontational situation or adversity?". |
104,589 | I was given a rating of 2 which is "needs improvement" and was on a performance improvement plan (PIP) for two months. But then I completed the task given to me and now I have been holding the 1st ranking for the last 6 months.
Now I am looking for new job and I am concerned about what recruiters think about a guy who was on a PIP. My question is: Does it affect the selection process and how do I deal with questions related to PIP during interview? | 2018/01/02 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/104589",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/81317/"
] | Is there any reason you need to mention the PIP at all?
Unless you think you're current employer will make mention of it when using them as a reference then I would simply not mention it. If it does come up during an interview or whatever then you can lay out the facts that you have here - you needed to improve and when you were on the PIP you did just that. | Some to-do thoughts:
1 - Check in with your boss on your current status. Typically, 6 months after a PIP, an employee gets a checkin reflecting the status of the PIP and their relative success/failure. Sounds like you have a big success. So it should be OK to say "hey, just checking in here... am I doing well?" You might even want to push for an official mid-year review where your better status gets recorded.
Reasons:
* it's good to know where you stand in your current job
* if asked for an official referral, the company *may* respond with your current status, and it would be good to have a good status
2 - Check in with HR on the company's employment reference process. At least in the US, this is a public policy that all employees should have access to. And there's all sorts of reasons to ask about it, because it should also apply to you as a person giving a reference for someone else, so it's not just a "hey, I am looking for a new job..." sort of thing.
Then you'll know, for sure, what the company says about you. Often you can even get the hotline and make the inquiry yourself, to verify your state.
3 - Paint a success story. It is not "I did my job so badly I got put on a PIP, then I recovered and now I'm great". It's "I got some great management feedback about X, and that led to me figuring out some better ways of working. From that process I learned Y, and it's make a big impact on my productivity. I'm now among the best in my team, and I deliver Z value to the group I work with."
* X = whatever the PIP was about
* Y = what you changed
* Z = in business terms, what being a top rated performer means. |
19,691 | I think of adding a RTC Module to my Raspberry Pi. I found the following tutorial.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-realtime-clock-rtc-ds1307-am-raspberry-pi-betreiben>
In general it's clear how I could connect it.
But I already have another thing connected to pin 5.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-hoch-und-runterfahren-mittels-taster-incl-status-led>
In short words:
* a 10k resistor between Pin#1 and Pin#5
* a pushbutton between Pin #5 and Pin #6
* I left out the LED on Pin #7
* Pin #5 is configured as IN, listening for a low signal
I need to have the 10k Pullup Connected to Pin #5 and I need a pushbutton between #5 and ground. This is used to power the raspi up or initiate a shut down.
---
So my basic question is:
Can I connect the RTC to Pin 5 anyway or does that interfere with the wiring above?
If I cannot connect the RTC to Pin 5, is there any alternative wiring i could use?
Either connecting the RTC to an different pin, or using an alternative layout for the wiring above. One thought on that would be connecting the pushbutton to 2 pins, perhaps adding a diode if needed. And splitting the logic a bit.
Shortcircuit between #5 and ground for power up (there is no alternative) and listening for low on any other free pin for shutting down.
Thanks in advance :) | 2014/06/25 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/19691",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/17644/"
] | The RTC uses pin 5 as an output, for the SCL signal. But you want to use it as an input. This could be difficult, and could even damage the Pi (if SCL is 3.3V and you press the button you'll be creating a short, possibly damaging pin 5 and maybe even the entire chip).
To prevent any damage you could add a resistor between pin 5 and the button.
Reading pin 5 while it is an output isn't possible, but you can just connect a second (free) pin the the button, and read that one. See schematic below
**This doesn't work**
**The top resistor should be less than 116Ohms to make GPIO 5 get below 0.8V. This is because of the relatively low value (1.8K) pull-up resistor present on the board, and the voltage drop of the diode. However when pin 5 is an output, and high, 28mA will flow when the button is pressed. Which is more than the Pi can handle.**
To prevent a LOW on output-pin 5 from registering as a button press you need an additional diode.
Not ideal, but it will make you use a single button for both wake-from-halt and shutdown. Also note that it will disrupt I2C communication if you press the button while the PI is talking to the RTC module. Though the chances of that happening are slim, as communication is maybe once every few minutes, and only takes a few milli-seconds. | The RTC seems to use the I2C interface which requires the secondary functions on pins 3,5.
(You could use the I2C on P5, but this would obviously require modifying the RTC software.)
There seems to be no reason why you could not use any of the other GPIO pins for the existing functions, although this would require minor changes to the software.
Incidentally there is no need for the 10KΩ pullup in your existing circuit as pins 3,5 already have 1.8KΩ pullups. |
19,691 | I think of adding a RTC Module to my Raspberry Pi. I found the following tutorial.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-realtime-clock-rtc-ds1307-am-raspberry-pi-betreiben>
In general it's clear how I could connect it.
But I already have another thing connected to pin 5.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-hoch-und-runterfahren-mittels-taster-incl-status-led>
In short words:
* a 10k resistor between Pin#1 and Pin#5
* a pushbutton between Pin #5 and Pin #6
* I left out the LED on Pin #7
* Pin #5 is configured as IN, listening for a low signal
I need to have the 10k Pullup Connected to Pin #5 and I need a pushbutton between #5 and ground. This is used to power the raspi up or initiate a shut down.
---
So my basic question is:
Can I connect the RTC to Pin 5 anyway or does that interfere with the wiring above?
If I cannot connect the RTC to Pin 5, is there any alternative wiring i could use?
Either connecting the RTC to an different pin, or using an alternative layout for the wiring above. One thought on that would be connecting the pushbutton to 2 pins, perhaps adding a diode if needed. And splitting the logic a bit.
Shortcircuit between #5 and ground for power up (there is no alternative) and listening for low on any other free pin for shutting down.
Thanks in advance :) | 2014/06/25 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/19691",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/17644/"
] | The RTC seems to use the I2C interface which requires the secondary functions on pins 3,5.
(You could use the I2C on P5, but this would obviously require modifying the RTC software.)
There seems to be no reason why you could not use any of the other GPIO pins for the existing functions, although this would require minor changes to the software.
Incidentally there is no need for the 10KΩ pullup in your existing circuit as pins 3,5 already have 1.8KΩ pullups. | Sorry. As far as I'm aware pins 3 and 5 are used for the hadware I2C port of the raspberry. There is another port available but it's used for HAT connectivity. I'd advice using another GPIO port for your input.
This website (not mine!) shows the different capabilities of the raspberry's GPIO header:
<http://pinout.xyz/> |
19,691 | I think of adding a RTC Module to my Raspberry Pi. I found the following tutorial.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-realtime-clock-rtc-ds1307-am-raspberry-pi-betreiben>
In general it's clear how I could connect it.
But I already have another thing connected to pin 5.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-hoch-und-runterfahren-mittels-taster-incl-status-led>
In short words:
* a 10k resistor between Pin#1 and Pin#5
* a pushbutton between Pin #5 and Pin #6
* I left out the LED on Pin #7
* Pin #5 is configured as IN, listening for a low signal
I need to have the 10k Pullup Connected to Pin #5 and I need a pushbutton between #5 and ground. This is used to power the raspi up or initiate a shut down.
---
So my basic question is:
Can I connect the RTC to Pin 5 anyway or does that interfere with the wiring above?
If I cannot connect the RTC to Pin 5, is there any alternative wiring i could use?
Either connecting the RTC to an different pin, or using an alternative layout for the wiring above. One thought on that would be connecting the pushbutton to 2 pins, perhaps adding a diode if needed. And splitting the logic a bit.
Shortcircuit between #5 and ground for power up (there is no alternative) and listening for low on any other free pin for shutting down.
Thanks in advance :) | 2014/06/25 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/19691",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/17644/"
] | The RTC uses pin 5 as an output, for the SCL signal. But you want to use it as an input. This could be difficult, and could even damage the Pi (if SCL is 3.3V and you press the button you'll be creating a short, possibly damaging pin 5 and maybe even the entire chip).
To prevent any damage you could add a resistor between pin 5 and the button.
Reading pin 5 while it is an output isn't possible, but you can just connect a second (free) pin the the button, and read that one. See schematic below
**This doesn't work**
**The top resistor should be less than 116Ohms to make GPIO 5 get below 0.8V. This is because of the relatively low value (1.8K) pull-up resistor present on the board, and the voltage drop of the diode. However when pin 5 is an output, and high, 28mA will flow when the button is pressed. Which is more than the Pi can handle.**
To prevent a LOW on output-pin 5 from registering as a button press you need an additional diode.
Not ideal, but it will make you use a single button for both wake-from-halt and shutdown. Also note that it will disrupt I2C communication if you press the button while the PI is talking to the RTC module. Though the chances of that happening are slim, as communication is maybe once every few minutes, and only takes a few milli-seconds. | Sorry. As far as I'm aware pins 3 and 5 are used for the hadware I2C port of the raspberry. There is another port available but it's used for HAT connectivity. I'd advice using another GPIO port for your input.
This website (not mine!) shows the different capabilities of the raspberry's GPIO header:
<http://pinout.xyz/> |
19,691 | I think of adding a RTC Module to my Raspberry Pi. I found the following tutorial.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-realtime-clock-rtc-ds1307-am-raspberry-pi-betreiben>
In general it's clear how I could connect it.
But I already have another thing connected to pin 5.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-hoch-und-runterfahren-mittels-taster-incl-status-led>
In short words:
* a 10k resistor between Pin#1 and Pin#5
* a pushbutton between Pin #5 and Pin #6
* I left out the LED on Pin #7
* Pin #5 is configured as IN, listening for a low signal
I need to have the 10k Pullup Connected to Pin #5 and I need a pushbutton between #5 and ground. This is used to power the raspi up or initiate a shut down.
---
So my basic question is:
Can I connect the RTC to Pin 5 anyway or does that interfere with the wiring above?
If I cannot connect the RTC to Pin 5, is there any alternative wiring i could use?
Either connecting the RTC to an different pin, or using an alternative layout for the wiring above. One thought on that would be connecting the pushbutton to 2 pins, perhaps adding a diode if needed. And splitting the logic a bit.
Shortcircuit between #5 and ground for power up (there is no alternative) and listening for low on any other free pin for shutting down.
Thanks in advance :) | 2014/06/25 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/19691",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/17644/"
] | The RTC uses pin 5 as an output, for the SCL signal. But you want to use it as an input. This could be difficult, and could even damage the Pi (if SCL is 3.3V and you press the button you'll be creating a short, possibly damaging pin 5 and maybe even the entire chip).
To prevent any damage you could add a resistor between pin 5 and the button.
Reading pin 5 while it is an output isn't possible, but you can just connect a second (free) pin the the button, and read that one. See schematic below
**This doesn't work**
**The top resistor should be less than 116Ohms to make GPIO 5 get below 0.8V. This is because of the relatively low value (1.8K) pull-up resistor present on the board, and the voltage drop of the diode. However when pin 5 is an output, and high, 28mA will flow when the button is pressed. Which is more than the Pi can handle.**
To prevent a LOW on output-pin 5 from registering as a button press you need an additional diode.
Not ideal, but it will make you use a single button for both wake-from-halt and shutdown. Also note that it will disrupt I2C communication if you press the button while the PI is talking to the RTC module. Though the chances of that happening are slim, as communication is maybe once every few minutes, and only takes a few milli-seconds. | I was facing the same problem; I had i2c RTCs, many models, and found that I needed to wake from halt, which was a problem. The solution was to switch my choice of the RTC over to an SPI based one. The one I ended up using was the [DS3234](https://datasheets.maximintegrated.com/en/ds/DS3234.pdf).
>
> **Key Features**
>
>
> * Highly Accurate RTC with Integrated Crystal and SRAM Completely Manages All Timekeeping Functions
> * Accuracy ±2ppm from 0°C to +40°C
> * Accuracy ±3.5ppm from -40°C to +85°C
> * Real-Time Clock Counts Seconds, Minutes, Hours, Day, Date, Month, and Year, with Leap Year Compensation Valid Up to 2099
> * Digital Temp Sensor Output: ±3°C Accuracy
> * Register for Aging Trim
> * Active-Low RST Input/Output
> * Two Time-of-Day Alarms
> * Programmable Square-Wave Output
> * Simple Serial Interface Connects to Most Microcontrollers
> * 4MHz SPI Bus Supports Modes 1 and 3
> * Battery-Backup Input for Continuous Timekeeping
> * Low Power Operation Extends Battery Backup Run Time
> * Operating Temperature Ranges: Commercial: 0°C to +70°C, Industrial: -40°C to +85°C
> * 300-Mil, 20-Pin SO Package
> * Underwriters Laboratories® (UL) Recognized
>
>
>
The temp sensor was a bonus, as I could use that for alerting of the ambient temperature of the RPI |
19,691 | I think of adding a RTC Module to my Raspberry Pi. I found the following tutorial.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-realtime-clock-rtc-ds1307-am-raspberry-pi-betreiben>
In general it's clear how I could connect it.
But I already have another thing connected to pin 5.
<http://www.forum-raspberrypi.de/Thread-tutorial-hoch-und-runterfahren-mittels-taster-incl-status-led>
In short words:
* a 10k resistor between Pin#1 and Pin#5
* a pushbutton between Pin #5 and Pin #6
* I left out the LED on Pin #7
* Pin #5 is configured as IN, listening for a low signal
I need to have the 10k Pullup Connected to Pin #5 and I need a pushbutton between #5 and ground. This is used to power the raspi up or initiate a shut down.
---
So my basic question is:
Can I connect the RTC to Pin 5 anyway or does that interfere with the wiring above?
If I cannot connect the RTC to Pin 5, is there any alternative wiring i could use?
Either connecting the RTC to an different pin, or using an alternative layout for the wiring above. One thought on that would be connecting the pushbutton to 2 pins, perhaps adding a diode if needed. And splitting the logic a bit.
Shortcircuit between #5 and ground for power up (there is no alternative) and listening for low on any other free pin for shutting down.
Thanks in advance :) | 2014/06/25 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/19691",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/17644/"
] | I was facing the same problem; I had i2c RTCs, many models, and found that I needed to wake from halt, which was a problem. The solution was to switch my choice of the RTC over to an SPI based one. The one I ended up using was the [DS3234](https://datasheets.maximintegrated.com/en/ds/DS3234.pdf).
>
> **Key Features**
>
>
> * Highly Accurate RTC with Integrated Crystal and SRAM Completely Manages All Timekeeping Functions
> * Accuracy ±2ppm from 0°C to +40°C
> * Accuracy ±3.5ppm from -40°C to +85°C
> * Real-Time Clock Counts Seconds, Minutes, Hours, Day, Date, Month, and Year, with Leap Year Compensation Valid Up to 2099
> * Digital Temp Sensor Output: ±3°C Accuracy
> * Register for Aging Trim
> * Active-Low RST Input/Output
> * Two Time-of-Day Alarms
> * Programmable Square-Wave Output
> * Simple Serial Interface Connects to Most Microcontrollers
> * 4MHz SPI Bus Supports Modes 1 and 3
> * Battery-Backup Input for Continuous Timekeeping
> * Low Power Operation Extends Battery Backup Run Time
> * Operating Temperature Ranges: Commercial: 0°C to +70°C, Industrial: -40°C to +85°C
> * 300-Mil, 20-Pin SO Package
> * Underwriters Laboratories® (UL) Recognized
>
>
>
The temp sensor was a bonus, as I could use that for alerting of the ambient temperature of the RPI | Sorry. As far as I'm aware pins 3 and 5 are used for the hadware I2C port of the raspberry. There is another port available but it's used for HAT connectivity. I'd advice using another GPIO port for your input.
This website (not mine!) shows the different capabilities of the raspberry's GPIO header:
<http://pinout.xyz/> |
2,698 | **Sowing a lawn organically seems to have 2 problems that need solving:**
1. **Killing the weeds prior to sowing**
2. **Avoiding weed growth after sowing**
Once the soil is levelled, I'm considering trying the **false seed bed** technique to kill off any remaining weeds before sowing grass. [Wikipedia's article on false seed beds](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stale_seed_bed) suggests hoeing the soil after 2 weeks, and probably repeating that step again at least once to be sure. If the technique is repeated enough, perhaps weed growth after sowing can be mostly avoided?
**Has anyone had experience sowing a lawn with the false seed bed technique? Is there any other advice that might be useful?**
***Background:***
I have recently built a house and the earthworks have resulted in approx 180sqm of a bumpy and difficult mixture of soil and pebbles around the house that I'd like to be lawn.
I know there are heaps of weed seeds in the soil as lots have sprouted over the last few weeks. Our first step will be to have the land levelled with a small digger as there's too much soil to shift by hand - this will hopefully kill off most of the weeds currently growing on the surface, but I'm sure it will also expose more weed seeds.
I have obtained quotes from tradesman for sowing the lawn, but they want to spray with a broadleaf herbicide several weeks after sowing to kill off weeds. Researching the ingredients in the proposed spray (picloram being one), they appear to be very safe in the short term but very little appears to be known about long term effects. It is also toxic to aquatic life, will readily drain through soil into the groundwater (our region uses mostly groundwater for irrigation and drinking!), is long lived, and may affect plant growth when it ends up in our compost. Interestingly, picloram also appears to be considered [inappropriate for residential use](http://www.beyondpesticides.org/pesticides/factsheets/Picloram.pdf). Going organic seems like a sensible option!
Thanks!
**Update:** I hoped the grass would win competing against other plants. After having some issues with birds eating the seed on the day it was sown, I resowed some areas then sprinkled sieved soil over the whole area to protect the seed. It took about 3 hours to sieve enough soil.
Now, something like 10 months later I think, the grass is growing well, however clover is healthily coexisting with the grass. In a few parts which didn't get enough grass seed, the weeds, such as plantain and ox tongue, are much more prolific, so it's clear the grass is dominant enough to keep them down where well sown. I've dug out a few thistle and ox tongues that established themselves amongst the grass.
I'm allergic to beestings, so my daughter might be too, which is why we'd rather not have much clover around; it attracts lots of bees in summer. One suggestion I've had was to add nitrogen fertiliser to make the clover bolt and then die off. I'm not sure whether any organic fertilisers would be adequate for this, or whether I'd need to use a non-organic one such as superphosphate. | 2011/11/07 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/2698",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/715/"
] | You could use corn gluten meal to control weeds. It is a germination inhibitor that lets the grass grow while keeping out the weeds.
However, don't put down corn gluten meal when you sow the grass seed, because it will inhibit germination there, which is exactly the wrong thing. Wait until the grass comes up! | This is an old question but I'm curious what you wound up doing and how it worked out for you as I did something similar.
I documented in detail on my site my [organic lawn renovation](http://www.organiclawndiy.com/2013/08/organic-lawn-renovation-results.html) which I did last fall. I also used and reviewed some [organic herbicides](http://www.organiclawndiy.com/2012/08/organic-lawn-renovation-burnout-ii-vs.html) which worked pretty well.
My initial plan was to apply the herbicides in two rounds. Once to kill the existing grass and weeds, and another application to kill new weeds that germinated. I changed my plan based on manufacturer recommendations and I got some weeds during germination. I should have gone with my initial plan.
Another option is [soil solarization](http://www.ipm.ucdavis.edu/PMG/PESTNOTES/pn74145.html) which has the benefit of killing some pathogens as well but must be done when it's hot out. Usually summer.
I was unaware of the false seed bed technique. That seems like a viable option. Whatever you do, do something to kill the existing lawn and weeds, resurface the soil, then water to let the new weed seeds that have been exposed germinate, kill the weed seedlings somehow and then seed your lawn. Similar sequence as using roundup but use organic methods. I liked the organic herbicides but next time I might try combination of different techniques that would include them and possibly solarization. Spraying is easier than hoeing. |
189,005 | I have the following task: developing a program where there is a block of sample text which should be typed by user. Any typos the user does during the test are registered. Basically, I can compare each typed char with the sample char based on caret index position of the input, but there is one significant flaw in such a "naive" approach. If the user typed mistakenly more letters than a whole string has, or inserted more white spaces between the string than should be, then the rest of the comparisons will be wrong because of the index offsets added by the additional wrong insertions.
I have thought of designing some kind of parser where each string (or even a char ) is tokenized and the comparisons are made "char-wise" and not "index-wise," but that seems to me like an overkill for such a task. I would like to get a reference to possibly existing algorithms which can be helpful in solving this kind of problem. | 2013/03/02 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/189005",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/75452/"
] | It sounds like what you need is equivalent to doing a 'diff' on two files. There are many ways to do this, but I'd look into Google's [diff-match-patch](https://code.google.com/p/google-diff-match-patch/) algorithm. | Pretty much the only way to do this is to use grapheme clusters and then compare their normalized versions. |
50,950 | F-35B [safer and looks more stable](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CoCuhHHAgX4) in terms of VTOL capability.
What is the basic difference between Harrier II and F-35B's VTOL technology? | 2018/04/27 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/50950",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | the F35 has a ton of electronics that the Harrier could only dream about, but I will focus on propulsion differences.
The biggest is that the [F35B](http://www.f-16.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=13586) uses a separate lift fan in front of the engine, oriented to provide vertical lift that balances the vectored thrust from the rear of the engine. The lift fan is disconnected when flight speed is obtained and covers closed. Roll control at low speed comes from bleed air from the front fan in the engine.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sLg9E.jpg)
The [Harrier](http://www.aerospaceweb.org/question/planes/q0042.shtml) uses a much larger version of a bleed system from a single engine to provide both forward located vertical lift/thrust and a similar total diversion system for rearward lift/thrust through four rotating nozzles. All nozzles are working all the time and rotated to a lift/thrust position. A separate bleed system provides roll and pitch control at low speed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2ufHK.jpg) | The F-35B can automatically do a VTOL landing while the Harrier is manual. Also the F-35B has a more powerful engine that has an air opening on the top of the jet to increase air intake for VTOL operations.
The performance difference is that the F-35B can go faster than the speed of sound while the Harrier cannot. Not to mention the F-35B has all the bells and whistles of a modern fighter. |
50,950 | F-35B [safer and looks more stable](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CoCuhHHAgX4) in terms of VTOL capability.
What is the basic difference between Harrier II and F-35B's VTOL technology? | 2018/04/27 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/50950",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In the Harrier, the bypass air from the large diameter low pressure compressor of the Pegasus engine is ducted through the front pair of nozzles while the remaining gas output from the engine passes through the rear pair. Rolls Royce designed the Pegasus engine with the main rotating components, the low and high pressure compressors and the corresponding high and low pressure turbines mounted on two concentric, counter-rotating shafts. This minimises gyroscopic coupling effects and makes it possible to control the Harrier in hovering flight manually, without the aid of an automatic stabilisation system. All four nozzles can be rotated through 98.5 degrees allowing for vertical takeoff and landing. Thrust vectoring can also be used in combat to enhance manoeuverability, a technique pioneered by the USMC. The F35B uses a separate engine driven fan in the forward fuselage in addition to thrust vectoring to provide vertical lift. The Harrier system is much less complex mechanically and avoids the need for the lift fan which is only used for take off and landing and is dead weight the rest of the time, and which also takes up a lot of space in the F35B's forward fuselage. | The F-35B can automatically do a VTOL landing while the Harrier is manual. Also the F-35B has a more powerful engine that has an air opening on the top of the jet to increase air intake for VTOL operations.
The performance difference is that the F-35B can go faster than the speed of sound while the Harrier cannot. Not to mention the F-35B has all the bells and whistles of a modern fighter. |
50,950 | F-35B [safer and looks more stable](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CoCuhHHAgX4) in terms of VTOL capability.
What is the basic difference between Harrier II and F-35B's VTOL technology? | 2018/04/27 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/50950",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | the F35 has a ton of electronics that the Harrier could only dream about, but I will focus on propulsion differences.
The biggest is that the [F35B](http://www.f-16.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=13586) uses a separate lift fan in front of the engine, oriented to provide vertical lift that balances the vectored thrust from the rear of the engine. The lift fan is disconnected when flight speed is obtained and covers closed. Roll control at low speed comes from bleed air from the front fan in the engine.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sLg9E.jpg)
The [Harrier](http://www.aerospaceweb.org/question/planes/q0042.shtml) uses a much larger version of a bleed system from a single engine to provide both forward located vertical lift/thrust and a similar total diversion system for rearward lift/thrust through four rotating nozzles. All nozzles are working all the time and rotated to a lift/thrust position. A separate bleed system provides roll and pitch control at low speed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2ufHK.jpg) | In the Harrier, the bypass air from the large diameter low pressure compressor of the Pegasus engine is ducted through the front pair of nozzles while the remaining gas output from the engine passes through the rear pair. Rolls Royce designed the Pegasus engine with the main rotating components, the low and high pressure compressors and the corresponding high and low pressure turbines mounted on two concentric, counter-rotating shafts. This minimises gyroscopic coupling effects and makes it possible to control the Harrier in hovering flight manually, without the aid of an automatic stabilisation system. All four nozzles can be rotated through 98.5 degrees allowing for vertical takeoff and landing. Thrust vectoring can also be used in combat to enhance manoeuverability, a technique pioneered by the USMC. The F35B uses a separate engine driven fan in the forward fuselage in addition to thrust vectoring to provide vertical lift. The Harrier system is much less complex mechanically and avoids the need for the lift fan which is only used for take off and landing and is dead weight the rest of the time, and which also takes up a lot of space in the F35B's forward fuselage. |
16,222 | Can anyone one provide counterexamples to the following: The assumption that all human behavioral level activity (i.e. no sub-personal or subconscious processes) can be bifurcated into two kinds of routines (activities, tasks, processes)- those that are representational and those that are non-representational; and that all activity is a combination or ratio of the two.
By “non-representational routines” I mean causally efficacious or mechanically productive environmental interactivity. Examples are: making a cup of coffee, cooking an egg, walking your dog, riding your bike, driving your car, throwing a ball, taking a bath, mowing the lawn, building a house, etc.
By “representational routine” I mean activity that consists in (linguistically mediated) thought and its communication (production) and or interpretation (consumption). Examples are: armchair rumination, inner mumblings, judging, thinking, believing, realizing, remembering, prediction, expecting, deeming, suspecting, surmising, assuming, conjecturing, planning, goal setting, reasoning, calculating, inferring, imagining, fantasizing, understanding, comprehending, (philosophizing!) etc. Inscription/enunciation: writing, texting, scrawling, sketching, illustrating, blogging, speaking/talking, discussing, debating, lecturing, miming, acting, etc. Reading/interpreting: speech, text, icons, symbols, signs, maps, (technical) drawings, diagrams, graphs, tables, etc. | 2014/09/28 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/16222",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/8172/"
] | Mostly, I'm not convinced there is a category of "non-representational routines." Any of the above could be highly symbolic and loaded with meaning.
E.g., I cook an egg for you seems quite representational. Or I go on a bike ride and in doing so break the promise that I had made to you to only ride my bike with you.
There's two reasons to think the distinction fails from a more strictly philosophical level. One is a concept I work with in my dissertation building on Henry Fingarette's *The Secular as Sacred* which is an interpretation of the *Analects*, viz., that our activity is *li*. I'll leave that one off since I still haven't published it outside my dissertation. The second and related idea is one we can find in Hegel -- which is that as the sort of conscious beings we are, the things we do are marked by consciousness.
In other words, we are always symbolizing, because we are not merely mechanical in our mode of engagement with the world but always acting from a sociological concept of what we are doing.
Thus, if I were to walk outside without any pants on, I would know exactly what this means or would be symbolizing something even though one might assert that to just walk outside in the natural state is not inherently representational. | I am not sure it is possible to provide a strong counterexample to your postulate, provided that one is allowed sufficient flexibility in choosing categories.
It is, of course, a simple matter of logic. If I define *frobulousness* in some way that allows me a rough quantification of it in any given action, and then I define everything else as *non-frobulousness*, I can normalize everything by dividing by the maximum frobulousness to get a score between 0 and 1 for any action. Then, trivially, every activity is a combination of frobulousness and non-frobulousness.
So the real question is: what *is* frobulousness? Does it correlate with anything interesting? Is there some fundamental, consistent, and explanatory difference between a wholly frobulous activity and a non-frobulous one? In this case, no. I just made it up. The ability to compute a ratio involving it is precisely useless.
Let's now consider representational vs. non-representational, and ask whether there is anything significant behind the different actions you've listed. The non-representational routines seem to involve significant motor activity; the others do not. As far as I can tell, that's about it. Building a house involves all sorts of judgment, planning, executive control, etc. etc.; you may remember cooking an egg or draw a diagram of the house you're going to build. If you do some fMRI, you quickly find out that a lot of the cortical regions that are involved in doing are also involved in thinking-about-doing (even motor cortex!), and although prefrontal cortex is involved in thinking about things, it's also active when doing. So the brain doesn't seem to clearly divide things along these lines. If it does so subtly--well, that is an empirical question that neurophilosophers may work out at some point.
In any case, before worrying about mixing frobulousness and not, you'd better have a very good definition of what it is to be frobulous, and show that it's important for something. Likewise with "representational activity". Thus far, that's missing. |
13,878 | Hello everyone!, this friday I will have my new mac mini server with me. My question is relating its 2 hard drives;how should I manage data? **Should I install the OS in both of them?** ***what should I place in the second hard drive?*** I know having a separate hard drive for your audio utilizations is better, but how? I mean, **should I place plugins, daws, samples,etc. or what in it?**
Thanks! | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/13878",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/3093/"
] | Drive 1 - Put the OS, all applications, plug-ins etc
Drive 2 - All media, so projects, samples, audio content etc.
The basic rule is that the operating system and applications should be on a drive together and you shouldn't put any media on that drive. S all projects, samples etc on the second and subsequent drives.
Hope that helps,
Mike. | As to why you should separate your OS/Apps and audio drive, it's mainly due to read/write speed and disk seek time. Your hard drives can only read data from one physical location at a time (less the case with SSD), so if everything is on one drive your computer will have a harder time jumping back and forth on disk reading data for apps and OS processes while also trying to stream audio. Separating out audio to another disk means the computer can handle audio from one HD (which takes a good deal of HD resources) while apps and OS related data can be read from the other without tying up audio read/write.
Of course CPU and RAM will also limit overall performance, but this will help avoid your HD being the weak link. Best to make sure your audio scratch drive is also as fast as possible, i.e. 7200 rpm, with a decent cache size.
The secondary reason as most people are aware is that audio of course takes up lots of disk space, so a dedicated drive will afford you as much storage room as possible. |
13,878 | Hello everyone!, this friday I will have my new mac mini server with me. My question is relating its 2 hard drives;how should I manage data? **Should I install the OS in both of them?** ***what should I place in the second hard drive?*** I know having a separate hard drive for your audio utilizations is better, but how? I mean, **should I place plugins, daws, samples,etc. or what in it?**
Thanks! | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/13878",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/3093/"
] | Depends what you're using it for?
if working to video I would split it
Drive 1 - OS/apps & video
Drive 2 - all audio
this way if say you're running a big session & working to picture, the data throughput/workload when you hit play is spread between drives... works for me
(my assistants PT10 station is mac mini server quad with 2 internal drives)
But if you aren't working to picture/video then you'd reassess what demands are being put on the drives for real time playback.... eg streaming sample libraries vs audio tracks
FWIW I have always run QTs (720p or 1080p PhotoJPG) off the same drive as the OS & apps | As to why you should separate your OS/Apps and audio drive, it's mainly due to read/write speed and disk seek time. Your hard drives can only read data from one physical location at a time (less the case with SSD), so if everything is on one drive your computer will have a harder time jumping back and forth on disk reading data for apps and OS processes while also trying to stream audio. Separating out audio to another disk means the computer can handle audio from one HD (which takes a good deal of HD resources) while apps and OS related data can be read from the other without tying up audio read/write.
Of course CPU and RAM will also limit overall performance, but this will help avoid your HD being the weak link. Best to make sure your audio scratch drive is also as fast as possible, i.e. 7200 rpm, with a decent cache size.
The secondary reason as most people are aware is that audio of course takes up lots of disk space, so a dedicated drive will afford you as much storage room as possible. |
13,878 | Hello everyone!, this friday I will have my new mac mini server with me. My question is relating its 2 hard drives;how should I manage data? **Should I install the OS in both of them?** ***what should I place in the second hard drive?*** I know having a separate hard drive for your audio utilizations is better, but how? I mean, **should I place plugins, daws, samples,etc. or what in it?**
Thanks! | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/13878",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/3093/"
] | Just to echo, here's my desktop rig:
Drive 1 (120GB SSD) - OS, Applications, Plugins
Drive 2 (1.5 TB) - Personal documents, music, videos, *client information*
Drive 3 (1 TB) - Pro Tools Audio *only*
Drive 4 (1 TB) - Video for Pro Tools *only* (all in DV25 format, using DVCPRO codec)
Drive 5 (1 TB) - Sound FX Library (all linked to SoundMiner)
I also have another drive I use for Final Cut capture scratch...
For a mini, I'd look at putting your OS and apps on the main drive and putting all PT audio on the other one. Then I'd really suggest looking into separate drives later to run your video files and maybe a sound fx library, if you do post work. | As to why you should separate your OS/Apps and audio drive, it's mainly due to read/write speed and disk seek time. Your hard drives can only read data from one physical location at a time (less the case with SSD), so if everything is on one drive your computer will have a harder time jumping back and forth on disk reading data for apps and OS processes while also trying to stream audio. Separating out audio to another disk means the computer can handle audio from one HD (which takes a good deal of HD resources) while apps and OS related data can be read from the other without tying up audio read/write.
Of course CPU and RAM will also limit overall performance, but this will help avoid your HD being the weak link. Best to make sure your audio scratch drive is also as fast as possible, i.e. 7200 rpm, with a decent cache size.
The secondary reason as most people are aware is that audio of course takes up lots of disk space, so a dedicated drive will afford you as much storage room as possible. |
41,606 | I'm looking for a way to browse the web without the distraction of colours and images. Most of the time, I like colours and images in web sites but there are occasions when I just want to get to the information without all the glare.
Have any of you found a browser or browser-configuration that you use to display text only?
Notes:
* Kind of like Lynx but not a console application.
* Must work on Windows. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/41606",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5483/"
] | With **Firefox** you can reduce a lot of stuff using just two addons, and still retain most of the browsing experience:
[**Adblock Plus**](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/1865)
[**NoScript**](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/722)
These addons allow you to selectively activate full access quickly, and block a lot of images and embedded content that you wish to skip. | [Web Developer 1.1.8](https://addons.mozilla.org/fr/firefox/addon/60) for firefox |
41,606 | I'm looking for a way to browse the web without the distraction of colours and images. Most of the time, I like colours and images in web sites but there are occasions when I just want to get to the information without all the glare.
Have any of you found a browser or browser-configuration that you use to display text only?
Notes:
* Kind of like Lynx but not a console application.
* Must work on Windows. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/41606",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5483/"
] | The [Readability bookmarklet](http://lab.arc90.com/experiments/readability/) may be just what you're looking for. | you can use the web developer toolbar on firefox to do it page by page, but i think you want to do it for all pages, so it might not be the best option. |
41,606 | I'm looking for a way to browse the web without the distraction of colours and images. Most of the time, I like colours and images in web sites but there are occasions when I just want to get to the information without all the glare.
Have any of you found a browser or browser-configuration that you use to display text only?
Notes:
* Kind of like Lynx but not a console application.
* Must work on Windows. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/41606",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5483/"
] | The [Readability bookmarklet](http://lab.arc90.com/experiments/readability/) may be just what you're looking for. | With **Firefox** you can reduce a lot of stuff using just two addons, and still retain most of the browsing experience:
[**Adblock Plus**](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/1865)
[**NoScript**](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/722)
These addons allow you to selectively activate full access quickly, and block a lot of images and embedded content that you wish to skip. |
41,606 | I'm looking for a way to browse the web without the distraction of colours and images. Most of the time, I like colours and images in web sites but there are occasions when I just want to get to the information without all the glare.
Have any of you found a browser or browser-configuration that you use to display text only?
Notes:
* Kind of like Lynx but not a console application.
* Must work on Windows. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/41606",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5483/"
] | The [Readability bookmarklet](http://lab.arc90.com/experiments/readability/) may be just what you're looking for. | [Web Developer 1.1.8](https://addons.mozilla.org/fr/firefox/addon/60) for firefox |
13,664,331 | I've searched the internet for some reference material containing a list of all C/C++ functions in the libraries that come with MinGW, but I only found large websites with hundreds of pages each one describing in depth every function. But I just want a plain list of all functions with their names and the required parameter types/names, and the header where each one of them can be found, without all the details (because I already know what they do, I just want to have a quick reference list that I could print, especially because I can't seem to remember the parameter lists). | 2012/12/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13664331",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1124684/"
] | I think this is what you are looking for:
1. <http://www.delorie.com/djgpp/doc/libc/>
2. <http://www.cppreference.com/> | Perhaps the [Microsoft Visual Studio runtime reference](http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?familyid=b8704100-0127-4d88-9b5d-896b9b388313&displaylang=en&tm) would address your concern? |
11,488 | I have a new [Powercolor HD 4670](http://www.powercolor.com/global/products_features.asp?ProductID=2389) pcie video card with dial DVI and s-video out.
If I connect the s-video output as the only display and power on the PC the display is black & white and scrolls. Obviously the card isn't outputting the correct signal.
Is the card defective, or is there a setting somewhere?
Could it be a PAL/NTSC issue? I'm confident that the TV can only accept NTSC inputs.
I should try to get the s-video output working with an LCD attached, but don't have one handy. I'll borrow one and test that.
I'm running a Gigabyte MA78GM-US2H mobo with a PHenom II 955 processor with Windows 7.
Thoughts? Thanks. | 2009/07/23 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/11488",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1355/"
] | I emailed Powercolor and they told me about the PAL/NTSC jumper on the card. I haven't had to set a jumper in years so it hadn't occurred to me to even look and it doesn't appear to be mentioned in the manual.
There is a jumper on the op edge of the card that, for me at least, shipped in the PAL setting. The driver can override the setting which is why I had it working in windows. I moved the jumper over and it was clear immediately on boot. | The exact same thing happens when I try to plug my SD TV into the TV-out of my laptop. I can't get it to work, though. It must be some TV format error that I don't have time to deal with. |
594,147 | I've recently encountered with my desktop the other day. the problems were like this
* Computer boots up. and Shows this Message
>
> F1 for Setup and Configuration
>
> F2 to load default values
>
> Checking NVRAM
>
>
>
Once select F2 my computer boots up normaly.
this always happen when I bootup my computer
but upon bootup my time and date settings are incorrect, even if I change them. once I shutdown my PC. they will change again.
am I having CMOS problems? or is there something I am missing? | 2013/05/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/594147",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/167668/"
] | Yes, it seems like your CMOS battery is starting to die (because of the problem of not being able to permanently reset the time and date in the BIOS).
Before you change the CMOS battery, you should write down all of your current BIOS settings. If you change the CMOS battery, all of your BIOS settings will be reset to their defaults.
Before going to get a new CMOS battery, remove the CMOS battery so that you can read the engraved battery model number on the top side of the battery. Take the old battery with you when you buy a new one to make sure that the new battery is the same size and model number as the old one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LO0Gn.jpg) | It sound like your CMOS battery in your PC is failing. This is easy to fix. Open up your computer and find the battery. It looks like the picture below:
If the CR# is visible, just write it down. If not, you can gently remove the battery with a small screwdriver and it will be written on one of the sided. Also, make a note of which side is positive (+) so you can be sure to put the battery in the correct way once you have the CR#.
CR#'s are standardized, so any brand that matches that number will be the right size and voltage. Once you have the proper CR# you can order a new one online, or go to your local RadioShack, or equivalent.
You do not have to worry about losing your settings like another poster answered. CMOS will retain its setting for about 10-15 minutes after the battery is removed. So after you have your new battery, just pry the old one out and put the new one in (again make sure you put it in the right way). |
594,147 | I've recently encountered with my desktop the other day. the problems were like this
* Computer boots up. and Shows this Message
>
> F1 for Setup and Configuration
>
> F2 to load default values
>
> Checking NVRAM
>
>
>
Once select F2 my computer boots up normaly.
this always happen when I bootup my computer
but upon bootup my time and date settings are incorrect, even if I change them. once I shutdown my PC. they will change again.
am I having CMOS problems? or is there something I am missing? | 2013/05/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/594147",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/167668/"
] | Yes, it seems like your CMOS battery is starting to die (because of the problem of not being able to permanently reset the time and date in the BIOS).
Before you change the CMOS battery, you should write down all of your current BIOS settings. If you change the CMOS battery, all of your BIOS settings will be reset to their defaults.
Before going to get a new CMOS battery, remove the CMOS battery so that you can read the engraved battery model number on the top side of the battery. Take the old battery with you when you buy a new one to make sure that the new battery is the same size and model number as the old one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LO0Gn.jpg) | It happened to me today. I had been using the PC and had my Kindle charging via a USB port. I then had to go out so shut down and switched off the PC, left the Kindle connected and switched on. Came back a couple of hours later and switched on the PC only to get the 'checking nvram' message and a black screen!. On going into BIOS and checking the boot sequence I found that the Kindle had become the 1st boot device, and of course the PC couldn't boot from a Kindle! Changed the boot order back to the main hard drive and it booted-up as normal, with the Kindle still connected. |
594,147 | I've recently encountered with my desktop the other day. the problems were like this
* Computer boots up. and Shows this Message
>
> F1 for Setup and Configuration
>
> F2 to load default values
>
> Checking NVRAM
>
>
>
Once select F2 my computer boots up normaly.
this always happen when I bootup my computer
but upon bootup my time and date settings are incorrect, even if I change them. once I shutdown my PC. they will change again.
am I having CMOS problems? or is there something I am missing? | 2013/05/11 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/594147",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/167668/"
] | It sound like your CMOS battery in your PC is failing. This is easy to fix. Open up your computer and find the battery. It looks like the picture below:
If the CR# is visible, just write it down. If not, you can gently remove the battery with a small screwdriver and it will be written on one of the sided. Also, make a note of which side is positive (+) so you can be sure to put the battery in the correct way once you have the CR#.
CR#'s are standardized, so any brand that matches that number will be the right size and voltage. Once you have the proper CR# you can order a new one online, or go to your local RadioShack, or equivalent.
You do not have to worry about losing your settings like another poster answered. CMOS will retain its setting for about 10-15 minutes after the battery is removed. So after you have your new battery, just pry the old one out and put the new one in (again make sure you put it in the right way). | It happened to me today. I had been using the PC and had my Kindle charging via a USB port. I then had to go out so shut down and switched off the PC, left the Kindle connected and switched on. Came back a couple of hours later and switched on the PC only to get the 'checking nvram' message and a black screen!. On going into BIOS and checking the boot sequence I found that the Kindle had become the 1st boot device, and of course the PC couldn't boot from a Kindle! Changed the boot order back to the main hard drive and it booted-up as normal, with the Kindle still connected. |
11,115,447 | I need help on this...
Especially since I don't know where to start..
I am an IT undergraduate and, along with my groupmates, is now undergoing on-the-job training in a company.
SCENARIO:
The company asked us to create a program that will generate a report and store it in a database.
The database that will be used is MySQL.
As for what language to use, we are considering VB.Net, Java, PHP.
The program must be able to :
1. generate a report that will be sent through email to an office
2. store in a database
3. collect all reports, collate those reports
4. generate a new report which will then be sent to their main office
5. then store it in their own databse...
For now,
we are still trying to determine how the program will run and what language will be used that has the capability of reading and extracting data from a text file (can either be a word document or a PDF file).
The company also wants the program to be online-ready for future expansion.
Now, our problem is
1. Is there a way to extract data from a PDF or Word file using either Java, PHP, VB then store it in the MySQL DB?
* if there is, can it be implemented without using any 3rd party software?
* the reason why we chose to use either a PDF or Word file type is that, the file should be printable for archive purposes.
2. What programming language can we easily use to be able to achieve our problem above?
I would like to apologize if the info I am giving is a bit messed up. I will be giving additional information once we are able to talk wth the company this week.
If there is a problem with the way I posted this, please forgive me. I am just trying my best to provide you with the information the best I could. | 2012/06/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11115447",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1468480/"
] | I'll answer for Java as it is what I use at work.
You can easily extract text from Word files or build a new Word file with [Apache POI](http://poi.apache.org/)
As for PDF, [iText](http://itextpdf.com/) or [PDFBox](http://pdfbox.apache.org/) both does a pretty nice job. | Why can't you use 3rd party software? If you could, I would recommend something like [How to read PDF files using Java?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4784825/how-read-pdf-using-java).
Or, to read a .doc file: <http://www.roseindia.net/tutorial/java/poi/readDocFile.html>
---
Anyway, if you can't use 3rd party tools, why not read the specifications and figure out how to extract the text from PDF, DOC, and DOCX files?
Here you can find DOC specifications: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc313118.aspx>
Here you can find the PDF format specification: <http://www.adobe.com/devnet/pdf/pdf_reference.html>
Good luck! |
283,094 | ‘Ssh! ’ said Egbert quickly.
The other man laughed again.
'What a rabbit you are! It’s a pity, because she’s quite a pretty girl. It seems a pity to waste her, but I agree with him that she’s better out of the way. I’ll make up the fire now I’m here. **Local colour!** And I won’t stop in case Daniels takes it into his pompous head to wonder what I’m doing.’
I know what is local color, but in the above sentence, it seems to have a
different meaning or allusion. | 2015/10/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/283094",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58207/"
] | Ha, ha! Nice. Use a lower case "e" and follow the "c" with a period. If the sentence continues, follow the period with a comma (no space). Similar circumstances for I.e., and e.g., . (Gosh, now where do I put that final period?) | first off, your sentances need deoderent. Forsoothe, the toothepaste!
"etc." is an abbreviation for "et cetera" which is latin for "and the rest (of such things)" or "and so forth." As an abbreviation, it follows the same rules as "Mister"... "Mr." and "Doctor"... "Dr."
In your three example choices, only the first is correct with respect to the treatment of the "etc." but on some level, a sentence with three egregious errors can never be said to be "correct." :) |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The real problem is the the USB device's formatting type . You need a FAT32 USB not an NTFS one. Indeed all the USB greater than 32GB **NEED** an NTFS system and is quite normal that the procedure doesn't work with them. You have to change in any case the system format of the USB in FAT32. ;) | If reformatting the USB drive does not work, try switching the USB-drive to another USB port on your computer. Doing this resolved this issue for me. |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | If reformatting the USB drive does not work, try switching the USB-drive to another USB port on your computer. Doing this resolved this issue for me. | check that the antivirus does not block some program process like "autorun.inf"
If this occurs, it will momentarily deactivate the antivirus or the real-time protection of the antivirus |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The real problem is the the USB device's formatting type . You need a FAT32 USB not an NTFS one. Indeed all the USB greater than 32GB **NEED** an NTFS system and is quite normal that the procedure doesn't work with them. You have to change in any case the system format of the USB in FAT32. ;) | I've had this problem, it seems that media creation tool will fail if the partition type is GPT even if the usb drive is formatted fat32 and the space is sufficient. Convert your usb drive to mbr and format it again as fat32 and it will work |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | I've had this problem, it seems that media creation tool will fail if the partition type is GPT even if the usb drive is formatted fat32 and the space is sufficient. Convert your usb drive to mbr and format it again as fat32 and it will work | The answer for me was to use a smaller USB drive. It worked successfully on an 8Gb USB flash drive.
I had searched for answers on the internet and it seems like everyone who was having similar problems were using USB drives greater than 32Gb.
Hope this helps someone. |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The answer for me was to use a smaller USB drive. It worked successfully on an 8Gb USB flash drive.
I had searched for answers on the internet and it seems like everyone who was having similar problems were using USB drives greater than 32Gb.
Hope this helps someone. | check that the antivirus does not block some program process like "autorun.inf"
If this occurs, it will momentarily deactivate the antivirus or the real-time protection of the antivirus |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The real problem is the the USB device's formatting type . You need a FAT32 USB not an NTFS one. Indeed all the USB greater than 32GB **NEED** an NTFS system and is quite normal that the procedure doesn't work with them. You have to change in any case the system format of the USB in FAT32. ;) | The media creation tool is full of bugs.
Just use it to create an iso (for a DVD install), then use Rufus or a similar tool to create a bootable USB flash drive from the iso. |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The real problem is the the USB device's formatting type . You need a FAT32 USB not an NTFS one. Indeed all the USB greater than 32GB **NEED** an NTFS system and is quite normal that the procedure doesn't work with them. You have to change in any case the system format of the USB in FAT32. ;) | The answer for me was to use a smaller USB drive. It worked successfully on an 8Gb USB flash drive.
I had searched for answers on the internet and it seems like everyone who was having similar problems were using USB drives greater than 32Gb.
Hope this helps someone. |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | I've had this problem, it seems that media creation tool will fail if the partition type is GPT even if the usb drive is formatted fat32 and the space is sufficient. Convert your usb drive to mbr and format it again as fat32 and it will work | The media creation tool is full of bugs.
Just use it to create an iso (for a DVD install), then use Rufus or a similar tool to create a bootable USB flash drive from the iso. |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The media creation tool is full of bugs.
Just use it to create an iso (for a DVD install), then use Rufus or a similar tool to create a bootable USB flash drive from the iso. | check that the antivirus does not block some program process like "autorun.inf"
If this occurs, it will momentarily deactivate the antivirus or the real-time protection of the antivirus |
1,148,528 | I am trying to use the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool to create a bootable USB flash drive but am getting an error message. It seems download the files successfully but fails part way through transferring the files to the USB drive.
The error message code I get is "Something went wrong ... 0x80070456 - 0xA0019"
The steps I take are
1. Run the program
2. Accept the license conditions
3. Choose "Create installation media for another PC"
4. Language "English (United States)", Edition "Windows 10", Architecture "64-bit (x64)"
5. Choose "USB flash drive"
6. Choose the USB flash drive from the list
I am running Windows 10 Professional. The USB drive is 64Gb. | 2016/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1148528",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138930/"
] | The real problem is the the USB device's formatting type . You need a FAT32 USB not an NTFS one. Indeed all the USB greater than 32GB **NEED** an NTFS system and is quite normal that the procedure doesn't work with them. You have to change in any case the system format of the USB in FAT32. ;) | check that the antivirus does not block some program process like "autorun.inf"
If this occurs, it will momentarily deactivate the antivirus or the real-time protection of the antivirus |
22,612 | In the first chapter you are supposed to slay the Kayran, this enormous beast:
I'm having a hard time with it. I drank the Mongoose potion for poison resistance and I have the Kayran trap, but it just hits me too often with its tentacles. Especially when the Kayran swings a tentacle sideways, not from above, I have a very hard time evading it.
Is there any trick besides not getting hit by the tentacles?
With a lot of luck I'm getting as far as the point where it's throwing stones. Any idea what I'm supposed to do then? | 2011/05/19 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/22612",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/4103/"
] | After finally beating the Kayran, here are some tips on killing the beast.
You need to trap the tentacles using the Yrden sign (The 4 tentacles with the slightly glowing, thicker part). **You can only trap the 4 rear tentacles with the glowing part, the front tentacles of the Kayran cannot be trapped!**. If you crafted a Kayran trap, you can use that one for the first tentacle, the location is highlighted if you have the trap in your inventory. You need to place an Yrden trap at a location where the tentacle will hit the ground. The easiest way to achieve this is to stand in the same location as the trap, once the Kayran lifts its tentacles, immediately roll to the side. The tentacle will hit the trap and you can sever it.
Avoiding the tentacles is important, a direct hit can do a lot of damage. Watch the pattern, you'll quickly notice when the Kayran lifts its tentacles and it is time to evade. Sometimes it also hits you from the side with a tentacle, but I haven't found what triggers this attack. You also shouldn't stand directly in front of the Kayrans mouth, it can perform an attack that poisons you (if you didn't drink the Mongoose potion) and immobilizes you.
You can also use the Quen sign to protect yourself from damage, but you have to time the casting right or you'll just be hit by a tentacle while or shortly after casting it.
After severing the third tentacle you get a quicktime event (right click, repeated left clicks and space) which will cause parts of the old bridge to collapse. The Kayran now throws stones after you. You need to go to the left and go up the fallen down part of the bridge that now leads directly onto the Kayran. And then you've finished this fight. Don't forget to loot the Kayran for reagents and crafting material.
 | See [this](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n4IlP01SXOA) video: |
22,612 | In the first chapter you are supposed to slay the Kayran, this enormous beast:
I'm having a hard time with it. I drank the Mongoose potion for poison resistance and I have the Kayran trap, but it just hits me too often with its tentacles. Especially when the Kayran swings a tentacle sideways, not from above, I have a very hard time evading it.
Is there any trick besides not getting hit by the tentacles?
With a lot of luck I'm getting as far as the point where it's throwing stones. Any idea what I'm supposed to do then? | 2011/05/19 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/22612",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/4103/"
] | After finally beating the Kayran, here are some tips on killing the beast.
You need to trap the tentacles using the Yrden sign (The 4 tentacles with the slightly glowing, thicker part). **You can only trap the 4 rear tentacles with the glowing part, the front tentacles of the Kayran cannot be trapped!**. If you crafted a Kayran trap, you can use that one for the first tentacle, the location is highlighted if you have the trap in your inventory. You need to place an Yrden trap at a location where the tentacle will hit the ground. The easiest way to achieve this is to stand in the same location as the trap, once the Kayran lifts its tentacles, immediately roll to the side. The tentacle will hit the trap and you can sever it.
Avoiding the tentacles is important, a direct hit can do a lot of damage. Watch the pattern, you'll quickly notice when the Kayran lifts its tentacles and it is time to evade. Sometimes it also hits you from the side with a tentacle, but I haven't found what triggers this attack. You also shouldn't stand directly in front of the Kayrans mouth, it can perform an attack that poisons you (if you didn't drink the Mongoose potion) and immobilizes you.
You can also use the Quen sign to protect yourself from damage, but you have to time the casting right or you'll just be hit by a tentacle while or shortly after casting it.
After severing the third tentacle you get a quicktime event (right click, repeated left clicks and space) which will cause parts of the old bridge to collapse. The Kayran now throws stones after you. You need to go to the left and go up the fallen down part of the bridge that now leads directly onto the Kayran. And then you've finished this fight. Don't forget to loot the Kayran for reagents and crafting material.
 | I found it a bit tricky to place the Yrden traps at the right distance to be effective. I found an easy way to do it though. If you have crafted the Kayran trap there will be a marker where you are supposed to place it. If you use it right away the marker will disappear, so don't. Instead use it as a guide for where to drop Yrden, and only use the trap on the final tentacle. This made the fight much easier for me. |
22,612 | In the first chapter you are supposed to slay the Kayran, this enormous beast:
I'm having a hard time with it. I drank the Mongoose potion for poison resistance and I have the Kayran trap, but it just hits me too often with its tentacles. Especially when the Kayran swings a tentacle sideways, not from above, I have a very hard time evading it.
Is there any trick besides not getting hit by the tentacles?
With a lot of luck I'm getting as far as the point where it's throwing stones. Any idea what I'm supposed to do then? | 2011/05/19 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/22612",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/4103/"
] | I found it a bit tricky to place the Yrden traps at the right distance to be effective. I found an easy way to do it though. If you have crafted the Kayran trap there will be a marker where you are supposed to place it. If you use it right away the marker will disappear, so don't. Instead use it as a guide for where to drop Yrden, and only use the trap on the final tentacle. This made the fight much easier for me. | See [this](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n4IlP01SXOA) video: |
73,337 | Russia did not flatten all of the central Kiev ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings with artillery. Yet it seems their artillery range was enough to allow that.
And it is not just Russia. As far I know, German government buildings were not specifically targeted for flattening in WWII (though there was certainly damage, I guess it was not on the level of a top target). Likewise, the Japanese Imperial palace or central government buildings were not flattened any more than the rest of Tokyo, which the US devastated.
Am I wrong? Are ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings particularly chosen as targets for flattening in such wars? Or is there a political reason not to? Or is it against laws of war which combatants actually obey? (Yet flattening the presidential buildings or war ministries would seem to be well within the laws of war.)
Again, I am not referring to whether these buildings are targeted, but to whether they are treated as high-priority target to the point where, given the firepower in such wars, they would be flattened. | 2022/05/27 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/73337",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/30819/"
] | The laws of war **allow** attacks which hit infrastructure as long as there is a *military* purpose and it is [proportionate](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proportionality_(law)#International_humanitarian_law) to the likely civilian damage. It is legal to attack bridges, factories, and also administrative headquarters.
The first so-called 'smart bombs' were [introduced](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Television_guidance) at the end of WWII, but those were early prototypes. It took until the [1960s](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AGM-62_Walleye) or [1970s](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laser-guided_bomb) before they came into common usage. During WWII, the accuracy of strategic bombing was measured in kilometers, not meters. So they might have aimed for an office block, but they would have been lucky to hit the right city center.
By the time of the 1990 gulf war, it was possible to go after 'leadership targets.' But doing so might be interpreted as a sign that one side was aiming for [regime change](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regime_change#Foreign-imposed_regime_change) in the opponent. This might be [difficult to agree](https://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/inatl/longterm/balkans/stories/gulf050199.htm) between allies in a coalition, and it would reduce the chances for a negotiated settlement short of total victory.
So it isn't illegal to target the bunker of the enemy leader. It may be unwise. | In the average conflict attacking non-military government buildings would be a war crime as those are civilian targets. They also have a fairly low strategic value as bombing parliament maybe stops some input for overall strategy to the generals. It's more important from a military perspective to target power, water, telecommunications, roads, rail lines, military bases. After the war anyone who targeted such buildings explicitly would face an uphill battle in proving they weren't war criminals, especially if they are the losing party.
In a total war scenario like WWII, targeting these buildings would make more sense, but they still aren't great targets because there aren't many people in them for the size of these buildings. In total war body count is one of the bigger factors in targets. Targeting government leadership would be great, but the important leaders generally have long since abandoned large public buildings for fortified bunkers.
If the goal is to capture territory sparing the government buildings also makes sense, because they can then be used by the new government. There's also something to be said for avoiding destruction of anything that is important to the national psyche of an enemy, as it can just as easily galvanize them against you as break their spirit. |
73,337 | Russia did not flatten all of the central Kiev ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings with artillery. Yet it seems their artillery range was enough to allow that.
And it is not just Russia. As far I know, German government buildings were not specifically targeted for flattening in WWII (though there was certainly damage, I guess it was not on the level of a top target). Likewise, the Japanese Imperial palace or central government buildings were not flattened any more than the rest of Tokyo, which the US devastated.
Am I wrong? Are ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings particularly chosen as targets for flattening in such wars? Or is there a political reason not to? Or is it against laws of war which combatants actually obey? (Yet flattening the presidential buildings or war ministries would seem to be well within the laws of war.)
Again, I am not referring to whether these buildings are targeted, but to whether they are treated as high-priority target to the point where, given the firepower in such wars, they would be flattened. | 2022/05/27 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/73337",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/30819/"
] | Even if it is not a war crime to do so, it is not a sensible military objective in most cases.
Usually, the goal of a military attack on a country is not to obliterate the country and salt the earth, but to secure a more favorable governing regime, or control of some part of the country, by replacing the top leadership of that country.
Ideally, in a case like Russia's initial goals in its invasion of the Ukraine, the goal is to install a friendly puppet regime in the militarily conquered country. But, in that scenario, the puppet regime would utilize, as much as feasible, the existing civil service of the existing regime to govern the country upon taking control.
If Russia, for example, destroyed the offices of the tax collection ministry or sub-ministry, the new regime taking power after its military success would have to incur lots of time and money rebuilding the country's tax collection system from scratch to put its own Russian friendly regime in place.
A military would only want to obliterate all government buildings if its goal were to render that country useless as an opponent, so that it could no longer attack it, without having any desire to actual rule or occupy or control the country attacked.
Also, wiping out all of the top leadership of a country isn't necessarily desirable. The cleanest way to win a war it to have the legitimate leaders of a country surrender and agree to your demands, as, for example, Japan did in World War II in 1945, and as the Confederacy did in the U.S. Civil War in 1865.
If the legitimate top leadership of a country is in place and still secure in its rule of its people, a single agreement from that leadership can achieve your military objectives swiftly with little further cost in blood or treasure, recognizing your credible threat to use further military force without actually requiring you to actually use that further military force to achieve your objectives.
But, if you have decapitated the ruling class of a country or at least undermined its authority beyond repair, then to achieve your objective and end the war you started on favorable terms, you need to enter into deals with every subcomponent of the country that has secure legitimate leadership possibly down to mayors and other local government officials, or worse yet, have to install a new system of government directly upon the people from scratch rebuilding their entire nation from the ground up in the face of a many headed hydra of opposition figures who must be subdued one by one. | In the average conflict attacking non-military government buildings would be a war crime as those are civilian targets. They also have a fairly low strategic value as bombing parliament maybe stops some input for overall strategy to the generals. It's more important from a military perspective to target power, water, telecommunications, roads, rail lines, military bases. After the war anyone who targeted such buildings explicitly would face an uphill battle in proving they weren't war criminals, especially if they are the losing party.
In a total war scenario like WWII, targeting these buildings would make more sense, but they still aren't great targets because there aren't many people in them for the size of these buildings. In total war body count is one of the bigger factors in targets. Targeting government leadership would be great, but the important leaders generally have long since abandoned large public buildings for fortified bunkers.
If the goal is to capture territory sparing the government buildings also makes sense, because they can then be used by the new government. There's also something to be said for avoiding destruction of anything that is important to the national psyche of an enemy, as it can just as easily galvanize them against you as break their spirit. |
73,337 | Russia did not flatten all of the central Kiev ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings with artillery. Yet it seems their artillery range was enough to allow that.
And it is not just Russia. As far I know, German government buildings were not specifically targeted for flattening in WWII (though there was certainly damage, I guess it was not on the level of a top target). Likewise, the Japanese Imperial palace or central government buildings were not flattened any more than the rest of Tokyo, which the US devastated.
Am I wrong? Are ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings particularly chosen as targets for flattening in such wars? Or is there a political reason not to? Or is it against laws of war which combatants actually obey? (Yet flattening the presidential buildings or war ministries would seem to be well within the laws of war.)
Again, I am not referring to whether these buildings are targeted, but to whether they are treated as high-priority target to the point where, given the firepower in such wars, they would be flattened. | 2022/05/27 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/73337",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/30819/"
] | It really depends on the broader war strategy. The US bombed several of Saddam's palaces during the two Gulf wars, trying to get him personally. And also between the wars proper, [e.g.](https://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/inatl/longterm/iraq/analysis.htm) during "Desert Fox" in 1998. The US was not really interested in reaching an accomodation with Saddam, but rather "regime change" was always on the agenda, albeit not always at the forefront (1st war). During the latter Gulf war, the US [also](https://abcnews.go.com/GMA/story?id=125232&page=1) bombed much more inconspicuous houses in crowded neighborhoods, where they suspected Saddam was hiding (and they weren't actually far off).
Having said this, I suspect it's much easier to justify politically killing a dictator reviled in many countries (for starting several wars with their neighbors, gassing the domestic opposition etc.)
But, you're gonna say, doesn't the Kremlin [also] want "regime change" in Kyiv? I'd say, yes, but Zelensky dying in an airstrike was probably not their preferred way of achieving that, if we were to infer from the [statement](https://www.france24.com/en/video/20220225-putin-calls-on-ukrainian-army-to-take-power-into-own-hands) Putin put out on February 25, which was calling for the Ukraine's military to depose the "neo-Nazi drug addicts" from Kyiv. Probably in the ideal scenario then envisaged by the Kremlin, that would have been followed by the Ukrainian armed forces laying down their arms or at least not fighting, which is more or less what had happened in Crimea in 2014. Putin was at least explicit that [he thought] it would be easier to come to an agreement with whomever deposed Zelensky.
On the other hand, Russia did strike some local/regional government buildings in various cities, ranging from [Kharkiv](https://www.aa.com.tr/en/russia-ukraine-crisis/russian-forces-hit-governors-building-in-ukraines-kharkiv-with-missile/2519526) to [Mykolaiv](https://www.businessinsider.com/video-captures-russian-missile-seconds-before-hitting-government-building-2022-3). Why they chose those targets is an interesting question, which alas probably cannot be answered definitively due to the lack of inquisitiveness of the Russian press that's invited to the Kremlin and Russian MoD briefings. I can speculate those targets are intended as a blow to the *local* symbols of power of Kyiv in regions that Russia perhaps intends to annex. Or that they might even be payback for the Ukrainian airstrike on [Luhansk in 2014](https://www.rferl.org/a/ukraine-unspun-luhansk-blast/25410384.html), etc. | In the average conflict attacking non-military government buildings would be a war crime as those are civilian targets. They also have a fairly low strategic value as bombing parliament maybe stops some input for overall strategy to the generals. It's more important from a military perspective to target power, water, telecommunications, roads, rail lines, military bases. After the war anyone who targeted such buildings explicitly would face an uphill battle in proving they weren't war criminals, especially if they are the losing party.
In a total war scenario like WWII, targeting these buildings would make more sense, but they still aren't great targets because there aren't many people in them for the size of these buildings. In total war body count is one of the bigger factors in targets. Targeting government leadership would be great, but the important leaders generally have long since abandoned large public buildings for fortified bunkers.
If the goal is to capture territory sparing the government buildings also makes sense, because they can then be used by the new government. There's also something to be said for avoiding destruction of anything that is important to the national psyche of an enemy, as it can just as easily galvanize them against you as break their spirit. |
73,337 | Russia did not flatten all of the central Kiev ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings with artillery. Yet it seems their artillery range was enough to allow that.
And it is not just Russia. As far I know, German government buildings were not specifically targeted for flattening in WWII (though there was certainly damage, I guess it was not on the level of a top target). Likewise, the Japanese Imperial palace or central government buildings were not flattened any more than the rest of Tokyo, which the US devastated.
Am I wrong? Are ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings particularly chosen as targets for flattening in such wars? Or is there a political reason not to? Or is it against laws of war which combatants actually obey? (Yet flattening the presidential buildings or war ministries would seem to be well within the laws of war.)
Again, I am not referring to whether these buildings are targeted, but to whether they are treated as high-priority target to the point where, given the firepower in such wars, they would be flattened. | 2022/05/27 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/73337",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/30819/"
] | Even if it is not a war crime to do so, it is not a sensible military objective in most cases.
Usually, the goal of a military attack on a country is not to obliterate the country and salt the earth, but to secure a more favorable governing regime, or control of some part of the country, by replacing the top leadership of that country.
Ideally, in a case like Russia's initial goals in its invasion of the Ukraine, the goal is to install a friendly puppet regime in the militarily conquered country. But, in that scenario, the puppet regime would utilize, as much as feasible, the existing civil service of the existing regime to govern the country upon taking control.
If Russia, for example, destroyed the offices of the tax collection ministry or sub-ministry, the new regime taking power after its military success would have to incur lots of time and money rebuilding the country's tax collection system from scratch to put its own Russian friendly regime in place.
A military would only want to obliterate all government buildings if its goal were to render that country useless as an opponent, so that it could no longer attack it, without having any desire to actual rule or occupy or control the country attacked.
Also, wiping out all of the top leadership of a country isn't necessarily desirable. The cleanest way to win a war it to have the legitimate leaders of a country surrender and agree to your demands, as, for example, Japan did in World War II in 1945, and as the Confederacy did in the U.S. Civil War in 1865.
If the legitimate top leadership of a country is in place and still secure in its rule of its people, a single agreement from that leadership can achieve your military objectives swiftly with little further cost in blood or treasure, recognizing your credible threat to use further military force without actually requiring you to actually use that further military force to achieve your objectives.
But, if you have decapitated the ruling class of a country or at least undermined its authority beyond repair, then to achieve your objective and end the war you started on favorable terms, you need to enter into deals with every subcomponent of the country that has secure legitimate leadership possibly down to mayors and other local government officials, or worse yet, have to install a new system of government directly upon the people from scratch rebuilding their entire nation from the ground up in the face of a many headed hydra of opposition figures who must be subdued one by one. | The laws of war **allow** attacks which hit infrastructure as long as there is a *military* purpose and it is [proportionate](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proportionality_(law)#International_humanitarian_law) to the likely civilian damage. It is legal to attack bridges, factories, and also administrative headquarters.
The first so-called 'smart bombs' were [introduced](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Television_guidance) at the end of WWII, but those were early prototypes. It took until the [1960s](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AGM-62_Walleye) or [1970s](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laser-guided_bomb) before they came into common usage. During WWII, the accuracy of strategic bombing was measured in kilometers, not meters. So they might have aimed for an office block, but they would have been lucky to hit the right city center.
By the time of the 1990 gulf war, it was possible to go after 'leadership targets.' But doing so might be interpreted as a sign that one side was aiming for [regime change](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regime_change#Foreign-imposed_regime_change) in the opponent. This might be [difficult to agree](https://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/inatl/longterm/balkans/stories/gulf050199.htm) between allies in a coalition, and it would reduce the chances for a negotiated settlement short of total victory.
So it isn't illegal to target the bunker of the enemy leader. It may be unwise. |
73,337 | Russia did not flatten all of the central Kiev ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings with artillery. Yet it seems their artillery range was enough to allow that.
And it is not just Russia. As far I know, German government buildings were not specifically targeted for flattening in WWII (though there was certainly damage, I guess it was not on the level of a top target). Likewise, the Japanese Imperial palace or central government buildings were not flattened any more than the rest of Tokyo, which the US devastated.
Am I wrong? Are ministries, presidential, and parliament buildings particularly chosen as targets for flattening in such wars? Or is there a political reason not to? Or is it against laws of war which combatants actually obey? (Yet flattening the presidential buildings or war ministries would seem to be well within the laws of war.)
Again, I am not referring to whether these buildings are targeted, but to whether they are treated as high-priority target to the point where, given the firepower in such wars, they would be flattened. | 2022/05/27 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/73337",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/30819/"
] | Even if it is not a war crime to do so, it is not a sensible military objective in most cases.
Usually, the goal of a military attack on a country is not to obliterate the country and salt the earth, but to secure a more favorable governing regime, or control of some part of the country, by replacing the top leadership of that country.
Ideally, in a case like Russia's initial goals in its invasion of the Ukraine, the goal is to install a friendly puppet regime in the militarily conquered country. But, in that scenario, the puppet regime would utilize, as much as feasible, the existing civil service of the existing regime to govern the country upon taking control.
If Russia, for example, destroyed the offices of the tax collection ministry or sub-ministry, the new regime taking power after its military success would have to incur lots of time and money rebuilding the country's tax collection system from scratch to put its own Russian friendly regime in place.
A military would only want to obliterate all government buildings if its goal were to render that country useless as an opponent, so that it could no longer attack it, without having any desire to actual rule or occupy or control the country attacked.
Also, wiping out all of the top leadership of a country isn't necessarily desirable. The cleanest way to win a war it to have the legitimate leaders of a country surrender and agree to your demands, as, for example, Japan did in World War II in 1945, and as the Confederacy did in the U.S. Civil War in 1865.
If the legitimate top leadership of a country is in place and still secure in its rule of its people, a single agreement from that leadership can achieve your military objectives swiftly with little further cost in blood or treasure, recognizing your credible threat to use further military force without actually requiring you to actually use that further military force to achieve your objectives.
But, if you have decapitated the ruling class of a country or at least undermined its authority beyond repair, then to achieve your objective and end the war you started on favorable terms, you need to enter into deals with every subcomponent of the country that has secure legitimate leadership possibly down to mayors and other local government officials, or worse yet, have to install a new system of government directly upon the people from scratch rebuilding their entire nation from the ground up in the face of a many headed hydra of opposition figures who must be subdued one by one. | It really depends on the broader war strategy. The US bombed several of Saddam's palaces during the two Gulf wars, trying to get him personally. And also between the wars proper, [e.g.](https://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/inatl/longterm/iraq/analysis.htm) during "Desert Fox" in 1998. The US was not really interested in reaching an accomodation with Saddam, but rather "regime change" was always on the agenda, albeit not always at the forefront (1st war). During the latter Gulf war, the US [also](https://abcnews.go.com/GMA/story?id=125232&page=1) bombed much more inconspicuous houses in crowded neighborhoods, where they suspected Saddam was hiding (and they weren't actually far off).
Having said this, I suspect it's much easier to justify politically killing a dictator reviled in many countries (for starting several wars with their neighbors, gassing the domestic opposition etc.)
But, you're gonna say, doesn't the Kremlin [also] want "regime change" in Kyiv? I'd say, yes, but Zelensky dying in an airstrike was probably not their preferred way of achieving that, if we were to infer from the [statement](https://www.france24.com/en/video/20220225-putin-calls-on-ukrainian-army-to-take-power-into-own-hands) Putin put out on February 25, which was calling for the Ukraine's military to depose the "neo-Nazi drug addicts" from Kyiv. Probably in the ideal scenario then envisaged by the Kremlin, that would have been followed by the Ukrainian armed forces laying down their arms or at least not fighting, which is more or less what had happened in Crimea in 2014. Putin was at least explicit that [he thought] it would be easier to come to an agreement with whomever deposed Zelensky.
On the other hand, Russia did strike some local/regional government buildings in various cities, ranging from [Kharkiv](https://www.aa.com.tr/en/russia-ukraine-crisis/russian-forces-hit-governors-building-in-ukraines-kharkiv-with-missile/2519526) to [Mykolaiv](https://www.businessinsider.com/video-captures-russian-missile-seconds-before-hitting-government-building-2022-3). Why they chose those targets is an interesting question, which alas probably cannot be answered definitively due to the lack of inquisitiveness of the Russian press that's invited to the Kremlin and Russian MoD briefings. I can speculate those targets are intended as a blow to the *local* symbols of power of Kyiv in regions that Russia perhaps intends to annex. Or that they might even be payback for the Ukrainian airstrike on [Luhansk in 2014](https://www.rferl.org/a/ukraine-unspun-luhansk-blast/25410384.html), etc. |
4,519,648 | I'm so confused about this. I can find the probability of getting atleast one 6 but what exactly am I supposed to do in case of this question? It clearly mentions that find the probability of getting atleast one 6 IF THE TWO FACES ARE DIFFERENT. But I have no clue what that really means. | 2022/08/27 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4519648",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/1089734/"
] | **Hint**:
You can rephrase the question as:
"If 2 *distinct* faces are selected randomly from a die then what is the probability that one of them carries number 6?"
---
**Edit**:
The selection takes place by throwing two dice simultaneously and eventually more than once. The first throw that provides two *distinct* outcomes provides the selection. | I think the question is not well defined. If you exclude same faces you also exclude (6,6) so you don't have "at least one six" but exactly one six. I give answers for both cases. First we consider the case where (6,6) is allowed. You have 36 possible outcomes. Take out the cases where the faces are the same, without a 6. That is 5 cases. So we are left with 31 cases. And the outcomes which have at least one six are, (6,6) and ten more with one six. So we get 11 outcomes. And the probability is 11/31.
Now assume that (6,6) is not allowed. Then we are left with 30 outcomes. And the outcomes with one six are 10, so the answer in this case is 10/30. |
4,519,648 | I'm so confused about this. I can find the probability of getting atleast one 6 but what exactly am I supposed to do in case of this question? It clearly mentions that find the probability of getting atleast one 6 IF THE TWO FACES ARE DIFFERENT. But I have no clue what that really means. | 2022/08/27 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4519648",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/1089734/"
] | I think the question is not well defined. If you exclude same faces you also exclude (6,6) so you don't have "at least one six" but exactly one six. I give answers for both cases. First we consider the case where (6,6) is allowed. You have 36 possible outcomes. Take out the cases where the faces are the same, without a 6. That is 5 cases. So we are left with 31 cases. And the outcomes which have at least one six are, (6,6) and ten more with one six. So we get 11 outcomes. And the probability is 11/31.
Now assume that (6,6) is not allowed. Then we are left with 30 outcomes. And the outcomes with one six are 10, so the answer in this case is 10/30. | You can answer many questions about roling two dice by having the following picture in your head (or sketching it on paper if necessary)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/e3b52.png)
If the two faces need to be different then you can ignore the main diagonal - leaving 30 combinations rather than the usual 36. 10 of these have a 6 so your probability is 10 out of 30, or one third. |
4,519,648 | I'm so confused about this. I can find the probability of getting atleast one 6 but what exactly am I supposed to do in case of this question? It clearly mentions that find the probability of getting atleast one 6 IF THE TWO FACES ARE DIFFERENT. But I have no clue what that really means. | 2022/08/27 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4519648",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/1089734/"
] | **Hint**:
You can rephrase the question as:
"If 2 *distinct* faces are selected randomly from a die then what is the probability that one of them carries number 6?"
---
**Edit**:
The selection takes place by throwing two dice simultaneously and eventually more than once. The first throw that provides two *distinct* outcomes provides the selection. | You can answer many questions about roling two dice by having the following picture in your head (or sketching it on paper if necessary)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/e3b52.png)
If the two faces need to be different then you can ignore the main diagonal - leaving 30 combinations rather than the usual 36. 10 of these have a 6 so your probability is 10 out of 30, or one third. |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | I doubt a definitive list exists.
But here is an algorithm to create your own list:
1. What altitude-based things make climbing a peak require gear?
2. At what altitude do problems in step 1 start occurring?
3. What non-altitude-based problems might cause a climb to require gear?
4. What peaks nearest me are this height or less?
Here are my personal answers to those questions:
1. Snow and Oxygen are the altitude-based problems in mountaineering.
2. At 20,000 feet (6 km) or taller, most peaks are covered in ice all year round. At 16,000 feet (4.9 km) there is so little oxygen you need to take several days to acclimate.
3. Glaciers, steep trails, and scrambles so steep there are no trails mean you have to break out crampons and/or rope. These days I refuse to do anything that includes the word "Crevasse".
4. Look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/).
Sure, you *can* hike Kilimanjaro (~20k ft / 6 km) without any gear. But it takes like a week to get acclimated to the lack of oxygen; how annoying! So, in my opinion, pick peaks under 16,000 ft (4.9 km) and hike in the Summer.
If you live in the continental US, [all peaks outside of Alaska](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Highest_mountain_peaks_of_the_United_States) are under 14,500 ft (4.4 km). If you're in Western Europe it's the same deal, there are no peaks over 4.9 km (16,000 ft).
So look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/) for all the mountains near you and see if they have permanent glacier-cover. That will require crampons. See if other hikers break out rope because the top is crazy steep with sharp drop-offs. Nothing to it, just read descriptions of the hike before you head out. People will say if they think gear was required. | I haven't seen anything like the Scottish guide books we have for [Munros](http://www.munromagic.com/) - the tallest mountains in Scotland, but as Scottish mountains are relatively small compared to mountains in the Andes, Alps, Rockies, Snowy Mountains, Himalayas etc but still have a lot of dangerous climbs, I wouldn't want to guess at how few large mountains are scramble-able (if we exclude Kilimanjaro, for example) |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | Referring to [@theJollySin's](https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/a/5727/2653) answer:
In Europe the mountains aren't *that* high but you still have to go over glaciers on most routes to the high summits. So you need to learn some basic safety/rope skills. And you can find really tough routes on *smaller* mountains, so you just have to read tour descriptions and check the difficulty level. You need to search for a [F-rated tour](http://www.alpinimages.com/Tourenmenue/Touren/Bewertung/Bewertung.php?PLang=en_GB#Hochtouren) without going over ice (risk of crevasses).
Some guide books also mark tours/routes which are solely going over rock, so this would be more the style of tour you have to search for. This is hiking on high altitudes. If you go *really* high (above 4000m or even 5000m), like being said, you need some time/experience to acclimate. And I guess there aren't lots of summits on these high altitudes which are technically that easy.
Kilimanjaro is a good example of a big but technically easy tour. [Mount Ararat](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mount_Ararat#Climbing_Mount_Ararat) might be interesting too, also in terms of history and culture. | I haven't seen anything like the Scottish guide books we have for [Munros](http://www.munromagic.com/) - the tallest mountains in Scotland, but as Scottish mountains are relatively small compared to mountains in the Andes, Alps, Rockies, Snowy Mountains, Himalayas etc but still have a lot of dangerous climbs, I wouldn't want to guess at how few large mountains are scramble-able (if we exclude Kilimanjaro, for example) |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | I doubt a definitive list exists.
But here is an algorithm to create your own list:
1. What altitude-based things make climbing a peak require gear?
2. At what altitude do problems in step 1 start occurring?
3. What non-altitude-based problems might cause a climb to require gear?
4. What peaks nearest me are this height or less?
Here are my personal answers to those questions:
1. Snow and Oxygen are the altitude-based problems in mountaineering.
2. At 20,000 feet (6 km) or taller, most peaks are covered in ice all year round. At 16,000 feet (4.9 km) there is so little oxygen you need to take several days to acclimate.
3. Glaciers, steep trails, and scrambles so steep there are no trails mean you have to break out crampons and/or rope. These days I refuse to do anything that includes the word "Crevasse".
4. Look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/).
Sure, you *can* hike Kilimanjaro (~20k ft / 6 km) without any gear. But it takes like a week to get acclimated to the lack of oxygen; how annoying! So, in my opinion, pick peaks under 16,000 ft (4.9 km) and hike in the Summer.
If you live in the continental US, [all peaks outside of Alaska](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Highest_mountain_peaks_of_the_United_States) are under 14,500 ft (4.4 km). If you're in Western Europe it's the same deal, there are no peaks over 4.9 km (16,000 ft).
So look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/) for all the mountains near you and see if they have permanent glacier-cover. That will require crampons. See if other hikers break out rope because the top is crazy steep with sharp drop-offs. Nothing to it, just read descriptions of the hike before you head out. People will say if they think gear was required. | There's a book published by Cicerone called 'Europe's High Points' which lists the highest peak in each country, and provides a pretty good description on how to climb them. There are plenty of easier ones to go at, as well as some more technical peaks (e.g. Mont Blanc) |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | Referring to [@theJollySin's](https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/a/5727/2653) answer:
In Europe the mountains aren't *that* high but you still have to go over glaciers on most routes to the high summits. So you need to learn some basic safety/rope skills. And you can find really tough routes on *smaller* mountains, so you just have to read tour descriptions and check the difficulty level. You need to search for a [F-rated tour](http://www.alpinimages.com/Tourenmenue/Touren/Bewertung/Bewertung.php?PLang=en_GB#Hochtouren) without going over ice (risk of crevasses).
Some guide books also mark tours/routes which are solely going over rock, so this would be more the style of tour you have to search for. This is hiking on high altitudes. If you go *really* high (above 4000m or even 5000m), like being said, you need some time/experience to acclimate. And I guess there aren't lots of summits on these high altitudes which are technically that easy.
Kilimanjaro is a good example of a big but technically easy tour. [Mount Ararat](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mount_Ararat#Climbing_Mount_Ararat) might be interesting too, also in terms of history and culture. | There's a book published by Cicerone called 'Europe's High Points' which lists the highest peak in each country, and provides a pretty good description on how to climb them. There are plenty of easier ones to go at, as well as some more technical peaks (e.g. Mont Blanc) |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | I doubt a definitive list exists.
But here is an algorithm to create your own list:
1. What altitude-based things make climbing a peak require gear?
2. At what altitude do problems in step 1 start occurring?
3. What non-altitude-based problems might cause a climb to require gear?
4. What peaks nearest me are this height or less?
Here are my personal answers to those questions:
1. Snow and Oxygen are the altitude-based problems in mountaineering.
2. At 20,000 feet (6 km) or taller, most peaks are covered in ice all year round. At 16,000 feet (4.9 km) there is so little oxygen you need to take several days to acclimate.
3. Glaciers, steep trails, and scrambles so steep there are no trails mean you have to break out crampons and/or rope. These days I refuse to do anything that includes the word "Crevasse".
4. Look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/).
Sure, you *can* hike Kilimanjaro (~20k ft / 6 km) without any gear. But it takes like a week to get acclimated to the lack of oxygen; how annoying! So, in my opinion, pick peaks under 16,000 ft (4.9 km) and hike in the Summer.
If you live in the continental US, [all peaks outside of Alaska](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Highest_mountain_peaks_of_the_United_States) are under 14,500 ft (4.4 km). If you're in Western Europe it's the same deal, there are no peaks over 4.9 km (16,000 ft).
So look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/) for all the mountains near you and see if they have permanent glacier-cover. That will require crampons. See if other hikers break out rope because the top is crazy steep with sharp drop-offs. Nothing to it, just read descriptions of the hike before you head out. People will say if they think gear was required. | Referring to [@theJollySin's](https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/a/5727/2653) answer:
In Europe the mountains aren't *that* high but you still have to go over glaciers on most routes to the high summits. So you need to learn some basic safety/rope skills. And you can find really tough routes on *smaller* mountains, so you just have to read tour descriptions and check the difficulty level. You need to search for a [F-rated tour](http://www.alpinimages.com/Tourenmenue/Touren/Bewertung/Bewertung.php?PLang=en_GB#Hochtouren) without going over ice (risk of crevasses).
Some guide books also mark tours/routes which are solely going over rock, so this would be more the style of tour you have to search for. This is hiking on high altitudes. If you go *really* high (above 4000m or even 5000m), like being said, you need some time/experience to acclimate. And I guess there aren't lots of summits on these high altitudes which are technically that easy.
Kilimanjaro is a good example of a big but technically easy tour. [Mount Ararat](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mount_Ararat#Climbing_Mount_Ararat) might be interesting too, also in terms of history and culture. |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | I doubt a definitive list exists.
But here is an algorithm to create your own list:
1. What altitude-based things make climbing a peak require gear?
2. At what altitude do problems in step 1 start occurring?
3. What non-altitude-based problems might cause a climb to require gear?
4. What peaks nearest me are this height or less?
Here are my personal answers to those questions:
1. Snow and Oxygen are the altitude-based problems in mountaineering.
2. At 20,000 feet (6 km) or taller, most peaks are covered in ice all year round. At 16,000 feet (4.9 km) there is so little oxygen you need to take several days to acclimate.
3. Glaciers, steep trails, and scrambles so steep there are no trails mean you have to break out crampons and/or rope. These days I refuse to do anything that includes the word "Crevasse".
4. Look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/).
Sure, you *can* hike Kilimanjaro (~20k ft / 6 km) without any gear. But it takes like a week to get acclimated to the lack of oxygen; how annoying! So, in my opinion, pick peaks under 16,000 ft (4.9 km) and hike in the Summer.
If you live in the continental US, [all peaks outside of Alaska](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Highest_mountain_peaks_of_the_United_States) are under 14,500 ft (4.4 km). If you're in Western Europe it's the same deal, there are no peaks over 4.9 km (16,000 ft).
So look on [Mountain Project](http://www.mountainproject.com/) for all the mountains near you and see if they have permanent glacier-cover. That will require crampons. See if other hikers break out rope because the top is crazy steep with sharp drop-offs. Nothing to it, just read descriptions of the hike before you head out. People will say if they think gear was required. | According [to Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aconcagua#Climbing):
>
> Aconcagua is arguably the highest non-technical mountain in the world, since the northern route does not absolutely require ropes, axes, and pins.
>
>
>
Of course, non-technical means just that. It is still difficult and dangerous, as mountains always are. It's nearly 7 km (6,961 metre) above sea level. It's an expedition that may take around three weeks not including acclimitisation time. There will be very little oxygen, even if you acclimatise at 5,000 metre for weeks you'll still suffer from altitude sickness. Cold weather exposure is common and kills people every year. Don't underestimate the mountain just because you may not need ropes or axes.
If you consider weather and oxygen conditions on Aconcagua to be to harsh for your list, then there is no definitive list, for the impact of weather and oxygen is gradual. What mountain does or doesn't need mountaineering experience is relative. |
494 | I was wondering if there is a list of the tallest mountains in the world where you can walk or scramble up to the summit? As opposed to using even basic rope skills? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/494",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/122/"
] | Referring to [@theJollySin's](https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/a/5727/2653) answer:
In Europe the mountains aren't *that* high but you still have to go over glaciers on most routes to the high summits. So you need to learn some basic safety/rope skills. And you can find really tough routes on *smaller* mountains, so you just have to read tour descriptions and check the difficulty level. You need to search for a [F-rated tour](http://www.alpinimages.com/Tourenmenue/Touren/Bewertung/Bewertung.php?PLang=en_GB#Hochtouren) without going over ice (risk of crevasses).
Some guide books also mark tours/routes which are solely going over rock, so this would be more the style of tour you have to search for. This is hiking on high altitudes. If you go *really* high (above 4000m or even 5000m), like being said, you need some time/experience to acclimate. And I guess there aren't lots of summits on these high altitudes which are technically that easy.
Kilimanjaro is a good example of a big but technically easy tour. [Mount Ararat](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mount_Ararat#Climbing_Mount_Ararat) might be interesting too, also in terms of history and culture. | According [to Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aconcagua#Climbing):
>
> Aconcagua is arguably the highest non-technical mountain in the world, since the northern route does not absolutely require ropes, axes, and pins.
>
>
>
Of course, non-technical means just that. It is still difficult and dangerous, as mountains always are. It's nearly 7 km (6,961 metre) above sea level. It's an expedition that may take around three weeks not including acclimitisation time. There will be very little oxygen, even if you acclimatise at 5,000 metre for weeks you'll still suffer from altitude sickness. Cold weather exposure is common and kills people every year. Don't underestimate the mountain just because you may not need ropes or axes.
If you consider weather and oxygen conditions on Aconcagua to be to harsh for your list, then there is no definitive list, for the impact of weather and oxygen is gradual. What mountain does or doesn't need mountaineering experience is relative. |
97,274 | How can I use one casting of [*vampiric touch*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/vampiric-touch) more often?
As far as I understand it, *vampiric touch* does the following:
1. Casting the spell takes an action (leaving the caster a bonus action, a reaction and a move left to do in no particular order)
2. For the duration of said minute (10 rounds) one has a chance to apply 3d6 necrotic damage and heal 1/2 of that, up to ten times via "melee spell attack".
**How could I acquire more "melee spell attacks" per round?**
Rangers', Fighters', Paladins' and Bards' (College of Valor) Extra Attack doesn't qualify and neither do Monks' Flurry of Blows, because none are "melee spell attacks". Even the spell [*haste*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/haste) won't work and that is practically a minute-long use of Action Surge. | 2017/03/29 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/97274",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8085/"
] | On the first turn, Quicken Spell will let you attack twice with it. By casting it as a bonus action (which includes attacking with it), you can free up your action, allowing you to attack with it again.
Other than that, the Fighter's Action Surge ability is your only option here.
>
> Until
> the
> spell
> ends,
> you
> can
> make
> the
> attack
> again
> on
> each
> of
> your
> turns
> **as
> an
> action**.
>
>
>
While there are various methods of speeding up the casting of a spell, *Vampiric Touch* gives you an extra use for your action. As such, only abilities that let you make multiple actions, not multiple attacks, can help you use it more than once. The fact that it involves a melee spell attack is unimportant.
As you've said, *Haste* won't work, since it specifies what actions can be used with its extra action. *Time Stop* won't work either (well, it will let you use *Vampiric Touch* on yourself, if that was a thing you wanted to do). Action Surge is the only ability that will give you an extra action with no restrictions.
Note that even with Action Surge, using it more than once in a turn is still potentially shaky. It says you can make the attack again on "each of your turns", which could be taken to imply that you can only use it once on each turn. | If you multiclass monk with a spell-caster you can use unarmed strikes to "Touch" the enemy, which does the vampiric touch effect. The "Make a melee spell attack" is, I think, is for the benefit of spell casters, who often times do not have the right proficiency to make unarmed strikes effectivley, thus rendering the spell almost useless to most regular spell casters. Once again the spell clearly states that
>
> "The touch of your shadow-wreathed hands can siphon the life force
> from others to heal your wounds."
>
>
>
Meaning touching your hand to something causes the spells effect to activate, and unlike shocking grasp, it lasts a minute instead of an instant. This allows you to be a little creative. Note: It's up to your DM to let you do this, though its not that game breaking, it still may not settle well with your DM. |
51,896 | The most common explanation I hear for why there was more slavery in the South than the North in is that farming was more profitable in the South due to climate, soil quality etc. and the North had more industry.
This explanation seems slightly anachronistic to me because the divide between Southern slave states and Northern free states was already evident by the time of the Constitutional Convention in 1787. At the time, my understanding is that both the North and South were agrarian economies (most people date the start of U.S. industrialization to the 1820s).
So, if both economies were based on agriculture, why were slaves common in one, and not the other? | 2019/04/01 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/51896",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/37298/"
] | For our purposes, there are two types of agriculture: Subsistence (food) agriculture and cash crop agriculture. The farming in the North focused on foodstuffs (corn, wheat, vegetables, etc.). The farming in the South focused on higher value cash crops, cotton, indigo, sugar, etc.
Under a subsistence economy focused on food, you don't want slaves, because they represent more mouths to feed. You want to use your farmland to grow food for your own family, not for a bunch of other people. This was true in the North, where the climate permitted people to grow only enough food for themselves (and a little extra for trade), but not for "export." Later, machines such as tractors enabled 1 person to grow food for 30-40, but those are cheaper than slaves. Enough said.
It was different in the South. Cash crops such as cotton or sugar are more valuable than food, but such crops grow best in warmer, southern latitudes. So you could employ slaves to grow these crops, sell them abroad, use the money to buy food for them and for yourself, and still make a profit. Many cash crops do not lend themselves well to mechanization, which is why slavery can be profitable.
Essentially, "agriculture" was more profitable in the South than in the North, and that's why northerners were more eager to "industrialize," while the South preferred to remain "agricultural" for longer. | Though not properly sourced it could provide keywords to help in the search.
From early on people coming to North America from Europe found that the warm weather of the lower latitudes offered several new diseases they were not familiar with. Later on people who signed on as indentured servants, 3 or so years of work to gain their freedom in the new world, were at risk for their first year or so. Their possible survival became known as "seasoning" that is, getting over the transition to the new climate. Often a bout of disease could make them unsuitable for hard labor anymore.
People originally from the lower latitudes, say Africans, had this problem beat already. The trade offs were overcome and total slavery was taken over recruiting European indentured servants. Source is a book described on *The John Bachelor Show* |
868,482 | I'm updating an old ASP/MySql webapp to ASP.NET/MS SQL.
We would like to keep the logins from the old website working in the new app.
Unfortunately the passwords were stored in the MySql DB using MySql's password() function.
**Is it possible to simulate MySql's password() function in either .NET or
MS SQL?**
Any help/links are appreciated. | 2009/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/868482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72859/"
] | the mysql password functions is not particularly secure
(eg there's no salt or other method of protection against looking for matching hashes)
the only reasons I can see for wanting to duplicate the algorithm are
1: you have a list/table of users with mysql password()s
2: you want to crack mysql passwords from the hashes in the user table.
Else use something different, eg a hash that combines both the user's name (and/or some other row invariant) and their password. thay way if two users pick the same password it won't be obvious. and if the table gets exposed the security does not decrease at the same rate
(eg google for 446a12100c856ce9 which is the password() hash of a very popular password) | You will not be able to simulate the MySql password() function. at least not without a lot of work and luck. Being that MySql uses their own algorithm to one-way encrypt strings, they are not going to disclose what algorithm they use; which means you would have to do trial and error, compare resulting strings, etc.
To fix your issue:
I'd replicate the DB but maintain a connection with MySql. Use a flag to identify a first time login. Ask them to use their current password; verify password with MySql password() function. If password is valid; ask them to reset it, either by entering the same password again, or a new one; at this point use your favorite encryption algorithm and store the result in your MS Sql DB.
I know it sounds like a pain, but it is the best you can do short of trying to hack your way into deciphering MySql encryption algorithm.
Good luck! |
868,482 | I'm updating an old ASP/MySql webapp to ASP.NET/MS SQL.
We would like to keep the logins from the old website working in the new app.
Unfortunately the passwords were stored in the MySql DB using MySql's password() function.
**Is it possible to simulate MySql's password() function in either .NET or
MS SQL?**
Any help/links are appreciated. | 2009/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/868482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72859/"
] | You can encrypt strings using MD5 or SHA1 in .Net, but the actual algorithm used by MySQL is probably different to these two methods. I suspect it is based on some kind of 'salt' based on the instance of the server, but I don't know.
In theory, since I believe MySQL is open source you could investigate the source and determine how this is done.
<http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/encryption-functions.html#function_password>
Edit 1: I believe the algorithm used is a double SHA1 with other 'tweaks' (according to [this](http://www.radialsoftware.co.uk/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=20:mysql-passwords&catid=11:understanding-mysql&Itemid=18) blog post). | You will not be able to simulate the MySql password() function. at least not without a lot of work and luck. Being that MySql uses their own algorithm to one-way encrypt strings, they are not going to disclose what algorithm they use; which means you would have to do trial and error, compare resulting strings, etc.
To fix your issue:
I'd replicate the DB but maintain a connection with MySql. Use a flag to identify a first time login. Ask them to use their current password; verify password with MySql password() function. If password is valid; ask them to reset it, either by entering the same password again, or a new one; at this point use your favorite encryption algorithm and store the result in your MS Sql DB.
I know it sounds like a pain, but it is the best you can do short of trying to hack your way into deciphering MySql encryption algorithm.
Good luck! |
868,482 | I'm updating an old ASP/MySql webapp to ASP.NET/MS SQL.
We would like to keep the logins from the old website working in the new app.
Unfortunately the passwords were stored in the MySql DB using MySql's password() function.
**Is it possible to simulate MySql's password() function in either .NET or
MS SQL?**
Any help/links are appreciated. | 2009/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/868482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72859/"
] | >
> "they are not going to disclose what
> algorithm they use"
>
>
>
erm ... someone should wake and tell you that MySQL is **OPEN SOURCE** ... they dont need to "disclose" something because everybody can read the very structure of the database - just download the sources, search for the encryption-functions (i guess they're using C++) and start investigating ...
SHA1 seems pretty insecure now - just recently a few scientists have proven that it is possible to choose up to **20%** of the data without limitations and **produce the same hash** so one would be advised to use AES or SHA2 (therefore not the MySQL-*PASSWORD*-func) | You will not be able to simulate the MySql password() function. at least not without a lot of work and luck. Being that MySql uses their own algorithm to one-way encrypt strings, they are not going to disclose what algorithm they use; which means you would have to do trial and error, compare resulting strings, etc.
To fix your issue:
I'd replicate the DB but maintain a connection with MySql. Use a flag to identify a first time login. Ask them to use their current password; verify password with MySql password() function. If password is valid; ask them to reset it, either by entering the same password again, or a new one; at this point use your favorite encryption algorithm and store the result in your MS Sql DB.
I know it sounds like a pain, but it is the best you can do short of trying to hack your way into deciphering MySql encryption algorithm.
Good luck! |
5,107,860 | I'm looking for an open source web application to monitor several JVM's over several servers. I've done some searching and found multiple options that are failing each in their own way.
I need it to:
1. Be a web application
2. Monitor several JVM's across multiple servers
3. Specifically monitor Heap/Perm Gen memory space
4. Be able to set off an email alert based on thresholds for both of these.
I found another question posted 2 years ago that is still updated, though it specifically calls out Tomcat, and doesn't allow for JVM's alone:
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/242958/best-tools-to-monitor-tomcat>
Looking into JavaMelody and a few others, from what I gather, they're not able to monitor multiple JVM's across multiple servers.
EDIT: Actually looking into this more and talking to associates more knowledgeable than I, most of the JVM's are instances of Tomcat, but we also use a few Jetty servers that also need to be covered.
Further research looks like a solution around OpenNMS (<http://www.opennms.org/>) might be a bit of overkill, but in the end would hit all the requirements, anyone think otherwise? | 2011/02/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5107860",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/632729/"
] | [JavaMelody](https://github.com/javamelody/javamelody/wiki) is able to do all these, except email alerts based on thresholds.
It can be used to monitor a single webapp, but you can also start a centralized collect server to monitor several webapps in multiple servers, separately or aggregated. See the centralized collect server in [Advanced user guide](https://github.com/javamelody/javamelody/wiki/UserGuideAdvanced) | I can suggest another approach I've used and it seemed beneficial. I used nagios + pnp4nagios and created a custom script that connects to the virtual machines and uses JMX to obtain relevant stuff. I've also written a custom web app that does the same without the nagios part. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | How exactly does this solve the problem? At best you get the person to downvote 5 times each day but there are very few people that have enough flags for it to make a difference.
[Marshal - 500 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1298/marshal) 2.8K awarded
[Deputy - 80 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1002/deputy) 11.8k awarded
[Citizen Patrol - raised a flag](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/8/citizen-patrol) 195.5K awarded
Looking at the data very few people would get a free vote and even fewer would get more than 2 free votes. | Down votes are really not needed. Specially when your searching for answers with positive feedback. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | Your proposal is *way* too complicated. We don’t need a Byzantine system for this.
**Problem:** not enough downvotes on answers because users are too obsessed with reputation, and unwilling to suffer the 1-point penalty.
**Solution:** stop charging the 1-point penalty for downvoting answers.
Note that [this is exactly the solution that was implemented many years back for the related problem of not enough people downvoting *questions*](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/90324/should-downvotes-on-questions-be-free). It [worked exceptionally well](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/91319), resulting in many more low-quality questions getting downvoted, thus making our content rating system more fair and effective. It also provided a useful signal that could be fed into the automated quality-control mechanisms developed later, including question bans.
There’s no reason for a reputation penalty here at all. Voting irregularities—including targeted, revenge, fraudulent, and tactical voting—can and should be handled by other means, many of which have been introduced to the system over the years, after the initial decision was made to have downvotes involve a reputation penalty.
**If voting is what we say it is—a content rating system—then it should be frictionless to rank content in either direction. Otherwise, we risk introducing a skew in the ratings.**
As a case-study, consider Meta. Technically, downvotes on answers still cost 1 reputation here as well, but since there is no displayed reputation score on Meta, nobody thinks about it. As a result, I believe that votes are given more freely and fairly on Meta. I don't see this causing any problem. Why should it be different on the main site?
The only argument I've heard so far against making downvotes "free" that I've found remotely persuasive is the one Jeff and Joel discussed on the podcast many years ago, that [they were worried about people downvoting for frivolous, non-technical reasons](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/15866), such as "Java sucks". That passes the smell test for me, but if it were going to be a problem, it would be *even more* of a problem on questions than on answers. Yet, making downvotes on questions "free" didn't cause a problem, so why should we expect problems from making downvotes on answers free?
There's another argument that gets made about how we want there to be a bit of friction on downvoting because we want people to think twice about it. In other words, only downvote if you're sure. That's fair enough, but I believe that it's inherent. People have a natural aversion to downvoting because they feel it is "unfriendly". Putting aside whether or not that is rational, it's been pretty well proven empirically. Since the friction is already inherent within the notion of downvoting, it doesn't need to be artificially induced with an attendant reputation loss. | How exactly does this solve the problem? At best you get the person to downvote 5 times each day but there are very few people that have enough flags for it to make a difference.
[Marshal - 500 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1298/marshal) 2.8K awarded
[Deputy - 80 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1002/deputy) 11.8k awarded
[Citizen Patrol - raised a flag](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/8/citizen-patrol) 195.5K awarded
Looking at the data very few people would get a free vote and even fewer would get more than 2 free votes. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | How exactly does this solve the problem? At best you get the person to downvote 5 times each day but there are very few people that have enough flags for it to make a difference.
[Marshal - 500 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1298/marshal) 2.8K awarded
[Deputy - 80 helpful flags](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/1002/deputy) 11.8k awarded
[Citizen Patrol - raised a flag](https://stackoverflow.com/help/badges/8/citizen-patrol) 195.5K awarded
Looking at the data very few people would get a free vote and even fewer would get more than 2 free votes. | When you get an upvote you get 10 rep points. Downvoting *answers* costs 1 rep point (and the fact that it costs a little matters, we have enough revenge downvoting on questions already)
I understand that users who have 130 rep don't want to lose a few points and the right to vote down but it's a cornercase.
Maybe it's just me, but if you use the site in a normal way you have to vote *and* contribute, which means asking/answering questions & editing posts. Therefore, you should *gain* reputation more than you lose with the downvotes.
Your suggestion is too complex to comprehend and would also be complex to implement just to save low-reputation downvoters a few points, that they can get back by answering good questions. "high reputation" users (where's the threshold? a few thousand points ?) shouldn't care about losing one point to give their negative (and anonymous) feedback.
And as a bonus, if the poster (under [peer-pressure](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/peer-pressure "show questions tagged 'peer-pressure'"))/a reviewer/a moderator deletes the answer, the downvoter gets back their point anyway, so a well-placed downvote is often free of charge if you wait long enough. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | Your proposal is *way* too complicated. We don’t need a Byzantine system for this.
**Problem:** not enough downvotes on answers because users are too obsessed with reputation, and unwilling to suffer the 1-point penalty.
**Solution:** stop charging the 1-point penalty for downvoting answers.
Note that [this is exactly the solution that was implemented many years back for the related problem of not enough people downvoting *questions*](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/90324/should-downvotes-on-questions-be-free). It [worked exceptionally well](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/91319), resulting in many more low-quality questions getting downvoted, thus making our content rating system more fair and effective. It also provided a useful signal that could be fed into the automated quality-control mechanisms developed later, including question bans.
There’s no reason for a reputation penalty here at all. Voting irregularities—including targeted, revenge, fraudulent, and tactical voting—can and should be handled by other means, many of which have been introduced to the system over the years, after the initial decision was made to have downvotes involve a reputation penalty.
**If voting is what we say it is—a content rating system—then it should be frictionless to rank content in either direction. Otherwise, we risk introducing a skew in the ratings.**
As a case-study, consider Meta. Technically, downvotes on answers still cost 1 reputation here as well, but since there is no displayed reputation score on Meta, nobody thinks about it. As a result, I believe that votes are given more freely and fairly on Meta. I don't see this causing any problem. Why should it be different on the main site?
The only argument I've heard so far against making downvotes "free" that I've found remotely persuasive is the one Jeff and Joel discussed on the podcast many years ago, that [they were worried about people downvoting for frivolous, non-technical reasons](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/15866), such as "Java sucks". That passes the smell test for me, but if it were going to be a problem, it would be *even more* of a problem on questions than on answers. Yet, making downvotes on questions "free" didn't cause a problem, so why should we expect problems from making downvotes on answers free?
There's another argument that gets made about how we want there to be a bit of friction on downvoting because we want people to think twice about it. In other words, only downvote if you're sure. That's fair enough, but I believe that it's inherent. People have a natural aversion to downvoting because they feel it is "unfriendly". Putting aside whether or not that is rational, it's been pretty well proven empirically. Since the friction is already inherent within the notion of downvoting, it doesn't need to be artificially induced with an attendant reputation loss. | Down votes are really not needed. Specially when your searching for answers with positive feedback. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | When you get an upvote you get 10 rep points. Downvoting *answers* costs 1 rep point (and the fact that it costs a little matters, we have enough revenge downvoting on questions already)
I understand that users who have 130 rep don't want to lose a few points and the right to vote down but it's a cornercase.
Maybe it's just me, but if you use the site in a normal way you have to vote *and* contribute, which means asking/answering questions & editing posts. Therefore, you should *gain* reputation more than you lose with the downvotes.
Your suggestion is too complex to comprehend and would also be complex to implement just to save low-reputation downvoters a few points, that they can get back by answering good questions. "high reputation" users (where's the threshold? a few thousand points ?) shouldn't care about losing one point to give their negative (and anonymous) feedback.
And as a bonus, if the poster (under [peer-pressure](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/peer-pressure "show questions tagged 'peer-pressure'"))/a reviewer/a moderator deletes the answer, the downvoter gets back their point anyway, so a well-placed downvote is often free of charge if you wait long enough. | Down votes are really not needed. Specially when your searching for answers with positive feedback. |
384,802 | I have a suggestion for modifying the answer downvote mechanism.
I searched for a duplicate to this suggestion, and all I could find were mostly posts complaining about (a) receiving downvotes, or (b) casting downvotes on answers costing the user reputation, or (c) condemning the voting mechanism in general.
From the point of view of site curation, I'm of the firm opinion that there aren't *enough* downvotes on poor-quality answers, and I gather from reading Meta posts that I'm not the only one who thinks that. If the problem is mostly due to reputation-focused users unwilling to part with any reputation points, then this suggestion should improve matters. Of course, it won't help with users who don't downvote because they think downvoting is "mean", but I don't know that there is a solution for that.
**Here's the suggestion:**
* At 2K reputation, a user is granted one daily free downvote, provided that they have at least 100 *helpful* flags on *answers only*.
* For each additional 300 *helpful* flags on *answers only*, an additional free daily downvote.
* Free downvotes on answers limited to a maximum of five (5).
* (Tricky part) Any downvote on an answer to a post where you have posted an answer is not free. If you downvote an answer and subsequently post an answer to the question, you pay the downvote penalty.
* If a user gets a ban of any kind, free downvotes are disabled for the duration of the ban.
Of course, the exact number of flags required in each step are debatable. I don't think free downvotes should be trivial to acquire, however. | 2019/05/09 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/384802",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/500276/"
] | Your proposal is *way* too complicated. We don’t need a Byzantine system for this.
**Problem:** not enough downvotes on answers because users are too obsessed with reputation, and unwilling to suffer the 1-point penalty.
**Solution:** stop charging the 1-point penalty for downvoting answers.
Note that [this is exactly the solution that was implemented many years back for the related problem of not enough people downvoting *questions*](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/90324/should-downvotes-on-questions-be-free). It [worked exceptionally well](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/91319), resulting in many more low-quality questions getting downvoted, thus making our content rating system more fair and effective. It also provided a useful signal that could be fed into the automated quality-control mechanisms developed later, including question bans.
There’s no reason for a reputation penalty here at all. Voting irregularities—including targeted, revenge, fraudulent, and tactical voting—can and should be handled by other means, many of which have been introduced to the system over the years, after the initial decision was made to have downvotes involve a reputation penalty.
**If voting is what we say it is—a content rating system—then it should be frictionless to rank content in either direction. Otherwise, we risk introducing a skew in the ratings.**
As a case-study, consider Meta. Technically, downvotes on answers still cost 1 reputation here as well, but since there is no displayed reputation score on Meta, nobody thinks about it. As a result, I believe that votes are given more freely and fairly on Meta. I don't see this causing any problem. Why should it be different on the main site?
The only argument I've heard so far against making downvotes "free" that I've found remotely persuasive is the one Jeff and Joel discussed on the podcast many years ago, that [they were worried about people downvoting for frivolous, non-technical reasons](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/15866), such as "Java sucks". That passes the smell test for me, but if it were going to be a problem, it would be *even more* of a problem on questions than on answers. Yet, making downvotes on questions "free" didn't cause a problem, so why should we expect problems from making downvotes on answers free?
There's another argument that gets made about how we want there to be a bit of friction on downvoting because we want people to think twice about it. In other words, only downvote if you're sure. That's fair enough, but I believe that it's inherent. People have a natural aversion to downvoting because they feel it is "unfriendly". Putting aside whether or not that is rational, it's been pretty well proven empirically. Since the friction is already inherent within the notion of downvoting, it doesn't need to be artificially induced with an attendant reputation loss. | When you get an upvote you get 10 rep points. Downvoting *answers* costs 1 rep point (and the fact that it costs a little matters, we have enough revenge downvoting on questions already)
I understand that users who have 130 rep don't want to lose a few points and the right to vote down but it's a cornercase.
Maybe it's just me, but if you use the site in a normal way you have to vote *and* contribute, which means asking/answering questions & editing posts. Therefore, you should *gain* reputation more than you lose with the downvotes.
Your suggestion is too complex to comprehend and would also be complex to implement just to save low-reputation downvoters a few points, that they can get back by answering good questions. "high reputation" users (where's the threshold? a few thousand points ?) shouldn't care about losing one point to give their negative (and anonymous) feedback.
And as a bonus, if the poster (under [peer-pressure](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/peer-pressure "show questions tagged 'peer-pressure'"))/a reviewer/a moderator deletes the answer, the downvoter gets back their point anyway, so a well-placed downvote is often free of charge if you wait long enough. |
5,837,261 | I have been looking into this project for a side-by-side upgrade solution. The most widely suggested/used solution is to do a full back of SQL Server 2000 database and restore on SQL Server 2008 with norecovery. Then restore the subsequent transaction log backups with norecovery. When we are ready to switch, change SQL Server 2000 to read-only mode, backup the tail-log and restore it on SQL Server 2008 with recovery. Then bring SQL Server 2008 online.
But, can't the upgrade be done with transactional replication where SQL Server 2000 is the publisher and SQL Server 2008 is the subscriber. Script all objects such as logins, indexes, etc and apply to SQL Server 2008. When we are ready to switch, we will stop replication, delete all replication jobs, and switch all apps to connect to SQL Server 2008. I haven't found anyone that suggests this method. Is there anything wrong with it? | 2011/04/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5837261",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/34853/"
] | If you aren't replicating otherwise, creating a replication subscription will change your schema and a few settings.
For example, you may end up with `GUIDs` generated for all your rows just to facilitate the replication. | Yes, it will work, provided that you transfer the other objects over. |
5,837,261 | I have been looking into this project for a side-by-side upgrade solution. The most widely suggested/used solution is to do a full back of SQL Server 2000 database and restore on SQL Server 2008 with norecovery. Then restore the subsequent transaction log backups with norecovery. When we are ready to switch, change SQL Server 2000 to read-only mode, backup the tail-log and restore it on SQL Server 2008 with recovery. Then bring SQL Server 2008 online.
But, can't the upgrade be done with transactional replication where SQL Server 2000 is the publisher and SQL Server 2008 is the subscriber. Script all objects such as logins, indexes, etc and apply to SQL Server 2008. When we are ready to switch, we will stop replication, delete all replication jobs, and switch all apps to connect to SQL Server 2008. I haven't found anyone that suggests this method. Is there anything wrong with it? | 2011/04/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5837261",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/34853/"
] | The method of data migration you describe is possible to perform using SQL Server Replication.
There is nothing wrong with this method or any other data migration method for that matter, so long as the choice you decide upon addresses the specific requirements of your project/application platform.
That said the method you describe is certainly more technically involved in both the configuration and implementation of the actual migration steps. If you can accept downtime, a simple backup and restore process is certainly going to be much more straight forward. Log shipping would also be another simpler migration method.
So far, you know that the replication method could work in theory. Now is the time to build out a working solution in test in order to validate your data migration strategy and to practice the implementation process. | If you aren't replicating otherwise, creating a replication subscription will change your schema and a few settings.
For example, you may end up with `GUIDs` generated for all your rows just to facilitate the replication. |
5,837,261 | I have been looking into this project for a side-by-side upgrade solution. The most widely suggested/used solution is to do a full back of SQL Server 2000 database and restore on SQL Server 2008 with norecovery. Then restore the subsequent transaction log backups with norecovery. When we are ready to switch, change SQL Server 2000 to read-only mode, backup the tail-log and restore it on SQL Server 2008 with recovery. Then bring SQL Server 2008 online.
But, can't the upgrade be done with transactional replication where SQL Server 2000 is the publisher and SQL Server 2008 is the subscriber. Script all objects such as logins, indexes, etc and apply to SQL Server 2008. When we are ready to switch, we will stop replication, delete all replication jobs, and switch all apps to connect to SQL Server 2008. I haven't found anyone that suggests this method. Is there anything wrong with it? | 2011/04/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5837261",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/34853/"
] | The method of data migration you describe is possible to perform using SQL Server Replication.
There is nothing wrong with this method or any other data migration method for that matter, so long as the choice you decide upon addresses the specific requirements of your project/application platform.
That said the method you describe is certainly more technically involved in both the configuration and implementation of the actual migration steps. If you can accept downtime, a simple backup and restore process is certainly going to be much more straight forward. Log shipping would also be another simpler migration method.
So far, you know that the replication method could work in theory. Now is the time to build out a working solution in test in order to validate your data migration strategy and to practice the implementation process. | Yes, it will work, provided that you transfer the other objects over. |
5,837,261 | I have been looking into this project for a side-by-side upgrade solution. The most widely suggested/used solution is to do a full back of SQL Server 2000 database and restore on SQL Server 2008 with norecovery. Then restore the subsequent transaction log backups with norecovery. When we are ready to switch, change SQL Server 2000 to read-only mode, backup the tail-log and restore it on SQL Server 2008 with recovery. Then bring SQL Server 2008 online.
But, can't the upgrade be done with transactional replication where SQL Server 2000 is the publisher and SQL Server 2008 is the subscriber. Script all objects such as logins, indexes, etc and apply to SQL Server 2008. When we are ready to switch, we will stop replication, delete all replication jobs, and switch all apps to connect to SQL Server 2008. I haven't found anyone that suggests this method. Is there anything wrong with it? | 2011/04/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5837261",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/34853/"
] | Caution - transactional replication will turn off all IDENTITY columns at the subscriber (the transactional replication SPs actually depend on this fact, as they insert into the IDENTITY columns without first specifying IDENTITY\_INSERT ON). I can only confirm this is the case when the subscriber is SQL 2000 as well - perhaps the subscriber on 2008 will behave differently.
For this reason, transactional replication with SQL 2K doesn't really give you a hot standby. We had to do a fair bit of SQL tweaking (re-instating the IDENTITY columns & re-writing the replication SPs with IDENTITY\_INSERT wrappers) to get ourselves a situation where the subscriber actually works as a hot standby, ready to have applications pointed at it. But it certainly wouldn't work out of the box =) | Yes, it will work, provided that you transfer the other objects over. |
5,837,261 | I have been looking into this project for a side-by-side upgrade solution. The most widely suggested/used solution is to do a full back of SQL Server 2000 database and restore on SQL Server 2008 with norecovery. Then restore the subsequent transaction log backups with norecovery. When we are ready to switch, change SQL Server 2000 to read-only mode, backup the tail-log and restore it on SQL Server 2008 with recovery. Then bring SQL Server 2008 online.
But, can't the upgrade be done with transactional replication where SQL Server 2000 is the publisher and SQL Server 2008 is the subscriber. Script all objects such as logins, indexes, etc and apply to SQL Server 2008. When we are ready to switch, we will stop replication, delete all replication jobs, and switch all apps to connect to SQL Server 2008. I haven't found anyone that suggests this method. Is there anything wrong with it? | 2011/04/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5837261",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/34853/"
] | The method of data migration you describe is possible to perform using SQL Server Replication.
There is nothing wrong with this method or any other data migration method for that matter, so long as the choice you decide upon addresses the specific requirements of your project/application platform.
That said the method you describe is certainly more technically involved in both the configuration and implementation of the actual migration steps. If you can accept downtime, a simple backup and restore process is certainly going to be much more straight forward. Log shipping would also be another simpler migration method.
So far, you know that the replication method could work in theory. Now is the time to build out a working solution in test in order to validate your data migration strategy and to practice the implementation process. | Caution - transactional replication will turn off all IDENTITY columns at the subscriber (the transactional replication SPs actually depend on this fact, as they insert into the IDENTITY columns without first specifying IDENTITY\_INSERT ON). I can only confirm this is the case when the subscriber is SQL 2000 as well - perhaps the subscriber on 2008 will behave differently.
For this reason, transactional replication with SQL 2K doesn't really give you a hot standby. We had to do a fair bit of SQL tweaking (re-instating the IDENTITY columns & re-writing the replication SPs with IDENTITY\_INSERT wrappers) to get ourselves a situation where the subscriber actually works as a hot standby, ready to have applications pointed at it. But it certainly wouldn't work out of the box =) |
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