qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
61,667 | Let's say I write a PhD thesis by looking at papers on arxiv. Can I use this as my PhD thesis one I enter into the program?
In other words, can you write a PhD thesis before going to graduate school?
**Note.** I took a year off and did intensive study. Given that, can I do it? | 2011/09/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/61667",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/15524/"
] | No, you can't. There have been a few exceptional undergraduates that I've heard of who wrote papers that could pass as PhD theses somewhere, and they all went to grad school and wrote different (and better) theses as PhD students. Furthermore, your PhD thesis has to be based on work you did at graduate school, normally under the direction of an advisor. You can't get credit for research done elsewhere.
On a positive note, writing a good paper will help you get into graduate school, and will otherwise be beneficial to your development as a mathematician. | Uh,you certainly can,but I've never heard of anyone,no matter how talented and precocious, doing such a thing. I HAVE heard of individuals who never formally entered a Master's or PHD program, were self taught and produced on their own a work of original research that was so significant, they were immediately awarded a doctorate on the spot and a research position. Karl Weirstruass famously did this, of course-as have several others. I believe there's a prestigious professorship chair at Harvard that's awarded once in a generation for pulling off such a feat.
But I think you can count on your fingers the number of people who have successfully done this. The odds are definitely not with you.I know,I was once arrogant enough to think I could do it. Given my situation, part of me is still hoping I CAN-but I'm far more realistic about its probability of occurring, which converges very near to zero in the limit of the sequence of all my attempts prior to death.
By all means,though-I wish you luck. |
46,777 | Are the any famous or well-known (today-living) researchers without academic degrees working as professors or permanent staff members?
There are two related questions:
* [PhD without previous academic degree: truth or myth?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/17841/phd-without-previous-academic-degree-truth-or-myth)
* [Is it possible to obtain a Master's degree without Bachelor's degree?](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/26786/is-it-possible-to-obtain-a-masters-degree-without-bachelors-degree)
However, I am curious about the no-degree (past upper secondary school, i.e. no BSc, MSc, PhD, etc) case. | 2015/06/07 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/46777",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/10421/"
] | In regard to your question's topic, at least two relevant terms come to mind: [lay scholar](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lay_scholar) and [autodidact](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Autodidacticism). Once we establish the right terminology, it is not too difficult to find information that you're looking for. In particular, [this Wikipedia list](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_autodidacts) and [this list](http://www.autodidactic.com/profiles/profiles.htm) seem to be rather comprehensive (you will have to filter the information to select the *modern-era* academics without degrees). | Freeman Dyson does not have a PhD.
<http://pipeline.corante.com/archives/2014/04/01/freeman_dyson_on_the_phd_degree.php> |
2,824,446 | I was wondering if there were any libraries out there to allow Mac desktop developers on Objective-C to create shareware applications, similar to sharify for Air. Perhaps through use of Paypal etc. | 2010/05/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2824446",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/163845/"
] | If you mean a prebuilt library that allows you to charge money for your app and so on, then the answer is "yes", with the caveat that "they're all kinda mediocre".
Here are the ones I know about:
1. [PotionStore](http://www.potionfactory.com/potionstore) (ruby webstore and cocoa framework to interact with it)
2. [eSellerate](http://www.esellerate.net/)
3. [AquaticPrime](http://aquaticmac.com/)
4. [Golden Braeburn](http://golden-braeburn.com/)
5. [Kagi](http://www.kagi.com/KRM/index.php) | I have never used it, but [Kagi](http://www.kagi.com/kagisolutions/software.php?page=krm) has always supported mac shareware. You can also use WebKit to display a PayPal page directly in you app. |
271,698 | My aunt gave me her old MacBook Pro, but unfortunately it has a few issues. The main problem is that lines appears after I use it with applications that heavily depend on graphics, but they don't necessarily appear in that window.
I also figured out that these lines appear with the windows, so the cursor goes over the lines, and menus and other windows also overlap them. If I take a screenshot of the window by itself, no lines appear.
It seems obvious to me that this is a driver-related problem. Unfortunately, there are no updates or anything for the driver. At first I tried asking for a solution at Apple's forum, but they were only able to figure out that "something is wrong with the video card".
I checked the MacBook with an Ubuntu disk, and the screen seemed OK.
I've uploaded some photos to my [Picasa account](https://picasaweb.google.com/112026026582730088118/SupportPictures?feat=directlink) to show the symptoms.
Recently, I've also noticed the screen flickering when using applications that need high performance graphics, like games.
Also, the MacBook Pro came with Mac OS X Tiger, but she upgraded it to Leopard (she only brought the Tiger disk with her.)
What can I do with this? | 2011/04/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/271698",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/76883/"
] | If it was a driver issue, everyone with a mac book pro would be having this issue. It could be (however unlikely) that your hard drive is in bad shape and happened to corrupt some portion of the driver. You could check the S.M.A.R.T status of the hard drive if you like.
It sounds more likely to be a heat issue to me. If you remove the bottom panel (eight screws), you can easily check to make sure all the fans work. Also make sure the heat sinks are not clogged with dust.
Maybe try keeping it extra cool with some additional fans blowing across the bottom to see if the issue goes away.
By the way, did you take those screen shots with an external camera or did you use the software on the computer? If they don't show up in print screens, it could be a monitor issue. Perhaps try hooking up a spare monitor? | I experienced a similar issue with my old Lenovo Thinkpad. However the lines are from end to end of the monitor and do not cover just a window. They got worse over time and were never visible on a secondary external monitor.
So, I guess in my case this is an aging issue. I hope that this is not the case with your MacBook, but it seems to me quite similar. |
4,036,807 | I am in search for a extension that is similar to django\_-volution.
The requirement is to alter the database, whitout deleting the wohle data.
I don't know, but for me, this is something so ordinary - doesn't django have a built-in function like that?
django\_evolution is still in working progress and has some bugs, so i want something that is stable and maybe has more options. Especially to write own mutations seems a little bit complex for me.
Does anybody know something similar?
Thanks for all answers | 2010/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4036807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/485650/"
] | You're looking for [South](http://south.aeracode.org/). It's currently the de-facto schema and data migration plugin for Django. I believe there have been talks about adding it to the core of Django. It has a bit of a learning curve but you seriously want to take the time and learn it. | You'd like something to perform 'migrations' a la rails, correct? The best known and most stable project is South, as far as I know. It offers "intelligent schema and data migrations for Django projects".
<http://south.aeracode.org/>
Personally, I just alter my model, and make the changes through the database command line client. |
41,593 | Is it possible to get the code (in any programming language) to give control over the features of a DSLR e.g shutter speed and exposure?
Canon and Nikon cameras come with a pre-included software that can allow to control the camera from the computer but I want the specific commands that I can send to the camera for it to vary its function and take pictures and send back to the computer.
I'm particularly interested in the Nikon D300, Sony Alpha 700, Olympus E300, Canon EOS 20D, 70D and Pentax K10D. | 2013/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/41593",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I am aware of two potential solutions (there are certainly more):
1. Nikon provides a free of charge SDK for tethering. I have never played with this, so I am not sure what it's capable of, but I imagine it should satisfy your needs to some extent. [Download it here.](https://sdk.nikonimaging.com/apply/)
2. The [DIYPhotobits.com Camera Control](http://www.diyphotobits.com/download-diyphotobitscom-camera-control/) software allows for setting aperture and shutter speed. If I'm not mistaken, it's based on [Windows Image Acquisition](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Windows_Image_Acquisition), which you can use in your own (Windows) programs. | You can try [CHDK](http://chdk.wikia.com/wiki/CHDK) (Canon Hack Development Kit). Simple DIY remote allows you to control your camera remotely.
It also allow you use uBASIC and Lua scripts to control camera without PC. Simply put script on storage card and run it from camera menu. |
41,593 | Is it possible to get the code (in any programming language) to give control over the features of a DSLR e.g shutter speed and exposure?
Canon and Nikon cameras come with a pre-included software that can allow to control the camera from the computer but I want the specific commands that I can send to the camera for it to vary its function and take pictures and send back to the computer.
I'm particularly interested in the Nikon D300, Sony Alpha 700, Olympus E300, Canon EOS 20D, 70D and Pentax K10D. | 2013/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/41593",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Canon also provide [SDK](https://www.developersupport.canon.com/content/canon-digital-camera-software-developers-kit-general-information). Only the following cameras are supported in **2.13 (July 11, 2013)**:
* EOS-1D C / EOS 6D / EOS M
* EOS-1D X / 1D Mark III / 1Ds Mark III / 1D Mark IV
* EOS 40D / 50D / 5D Mark II / 5D Mark III / 7D / 60D / 60Da
* EOS Rebel XSi / 450D
* EOS Rebel XS / 1000D
* EOS Rebel T1i / 500D
* EOS Rebel T2i / 550D
* EOS Rebel T3i / 600D
* EOS Rebel T4i / 650D
* EOS Rebel T3 / 1100D
* EOS Rebel T5i / 700D, EOS Rebel SL1 / 100D (**Newly supported models**)
Current (April 24, 2018) model compatibility charts you can find [here](https://www.developersupport.canon.com/content/canon-digital-camera-sdk-compatibility-charts). | I am aware of two potential solutions (there are certainly more):
1. Nikon provides a free of charge SDK for tethering. I have never played with this, so I am not sure what it's capable of, but I imagine it should satisfy your needs to some extent. [Download it here.](https://sdk.nikonimaging.com/apply/)
2. The [DIYPhotobits.com Camera Control](http://www.diyphotobits.com/download-diyphotobitscom-camera-control/) software allows for setting aperture and shutter speed. If I'm not mistaken, it's based on [Windows Image Acquisition](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Windows_Image_Acquisition), which you can use in your own (Windows) programs. |
41,593 | Is it possible to get the code (in any programming language) to give control over the features of a DSLR e.g shutter speed and exposure?
Canon and Nikon cameras come with a pre-included software that can allow to control the camera from the computer but I want the specific commands that I can send to the camera for it to vary its function and take pictures and send back to the computer.
I'm particularly interested in the Nikon D300, Sony Alpha 700, Olympus E300, Canon EOS 20D, 70D and Pentax K10D. | 2013/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/41593",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Canon also provide [SDK](https://www.developersupport.canon.com/content/canon-digital-camera-software-developers-kit-general-information). Only the following cameras are supported in **2.13 (July 11, 2013)**:
* EOS-1D C / EOS 6D / EOS M
* EOS-1D X / 1D Mark III / 1Ds Mark III / 1D Mark IV
* EOS 40D / 50D / 5D Mark II / 5D Mark III / 7D / 60D / 60Da
* EOS Rebel XSi / 450D
* EOS Rebel XS / 1000D
* EOS Rebel T1i / 500D
* EOS Rebel T2i / 550D
* EOS Rebel T3i / 600D
* EOS Rebel T4i / 650D
* EOS Rebel T3 / 1100D
* EOS Rebel T5i / 700D, EOS Rebel SL1 / 100D (**Newly supported models**)
Current (April 24, 2018) model compatibility charts you can find [here](https://www.developersupport.canon.com/content/canon-digital-camera-sdk-compatibility-charts). | You can try [CHDK](http://chdk.wikia.com/wiki/CHDK) (Canon Hack Development Kit). Simple DIY remote allows you to control your camera remotely.
It also allow you use uBASIC and Lua scripts to control camera without PC. Simply put script on storage card and run it from camera menu. |
18,536 | I would like to replicate the antialiasing made by my browser in photoshop. Look at this picture: It is 500% image of standard 13px Arial #464646 font. First line is screenshot from browser(chrome), other lines are some of the antialiasing options from PS.
Notice the color change on the first line. Does it have something to do with ClearType?
Can I somehow replicate the first line in PS?
 | 2013/06/04 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/18536",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/13140/"
] | Unfortunately, **no**, there isn't a way to, using the tools that Photoshop has by default, replicate the different browsers' rendering (note that all browsers render text in a distinct way). That's one of the reasons lots of designers create mockups straight in html/css, because of these discrepancies.
There are, however, Photoshop actions and plugins you can download to allow sub-pixel font rendering:
* [Sub-pixel font rendering](http://dribbble.com/shots/258339-Sub-pixel-font-rendering-in-Photoshop) by Dmitry Tsozik
* Laurent Baumann's Photoshop Action ([video](http://cubes.fr/37dx), [download](http://cubes.fr/631e)) | As Yisela mentions, the sub-pixel rendering is from the OS/Browser, while PhotoShop uses it's own anti-aliasing methods.
That said, if you really want to replicate it, type out your text in the browser, style with FireBug the way you want, then screen shot, paste into PhotoShop. |
17,384 | One of the theories out there for the cause of the Witch Trial is that economic jealousy motivates the poor to accuse the rich. This seems very contradictory to what is said in books on The Witch trials. For example, here is quote from *The Crucible* spoken by Marry Warren, one of the accusers, on Sarah Good, who was a suspected witch:
>
> Mary Warren, like one awakened to a marvelous secret in-sight: So many time, Mr. Proctor, she come to this very door, beggin’ bread and a cup of cider - and mark this: whenever I turned her away empty, she mumbled.
>
>
>
Obviously, Sarah Good is pretty poor. And this is the case for most of the accused.
So does the theory still stand? | 2014/12/04 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/17384",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/8459/"
] | It's quite simple: people would accuse anyone they didn't like. False accusations of horrible crimes that are very difficult to disprove (heresy is another one, and these days it's sexual abuse of children mainly) has always been a great way to get rid of people.
In the USSR, much later, this took the form of accusing people of being Mensheviks or Trokskyists. The accusation, especially in the days of Stalin's terror, but going on for decades after, was just about enough to guarantee at least a life sentence in the gulag for the accused, and often a death sentence.
The Salem witch trials were little different. | Most of the executed people at the [Salem Witch trials](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salem_witch_trials) were women. There were only six men (out of 19).
Most of the accused, at least initially, were poor, or social outcasts. Sarah Good was a beggar. Sarah Osborne had remarried an indentured servant. Tituba was a slave from the Caribbean who told strange, "witch" stories to young girls.
Many of the accusers were upper middle class girls. Some of them, at least, appear to have been going through the onset of "menses" or other "pubescent" activities, and perhaps projected their latent, repressed, sexuality, on the unfortunate women mentioned earlier. Essentially, a number of women were charged, not with "witchcraft," per se, but of "corrupting" these young girls. So were at least two men, John Proctor (who seduced Abigail Williams), and George Jacobs Jr. (accused by his daughter in law and granddaughter).
And there were a number of economic quarrels about boundaries of farms, etc., that led to various accusations. The statement, "jealously motivated the poor to accuse the rich" isn't really true. What was true was that once the process got under way, some of the original (upper middle class) accusing girls turned around and made accusations against others that were slightly wealthier, instead of just "poor people."
The [executions](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salem_witch_trials) took place from June to September 1692. Of the six men (five hanged, one "pressed" to death), four were killed in August, and two in September, after the executions of women had begun. (And women were mostly accused earlier.) On a "time-weighted" basis, women suffered more than 13/19 of the opprobrium, after allowing for the fact that they were indicted, and executed earlier "on average." |
182,419 | I’m looking for a poetic word or expression that means making professional connections, lobbying, networking, socializing professionally.
*League, circuit, club, society*, and so on and so forth. | 2014/07/05 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/182419",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/83136/"
] | Is it [*schmooze*](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/schmooze) you’re looking for? | I’d go with [*rubbing elbows*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/rub%20elbows) — or [*hobnobbing*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/hobnob).
Hunt and peck around those thesaurus links to look for others that may be more appropriate for your usage. |
182,419 | I’m looking for a poetic word or expression that means making professional connections, lobbying, networking, socializing professionally.
*League, circuit, club, society*, and so on and so forth. | 2014/07/05 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/182419",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/83136/"
] | Is it [*schmooze*](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/schmooze) you’re looking for? | The first word that comes to mind is **mingle**.
I've been hearing more frequently the word **politic** used as a verb.
"Let's meet tomorrow and *politic*." |
182,419 | I’m looking for a poetic word or expression that means making professional connections, lobbying, networking, socializing professionally.
*League, circuit, club, society*, and so on and so forth. | 2014/07/05 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/182419",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/83136/"
] | Let me first say that limericks are also a form of poetry. In that spirit my answer is *hobnob*. | I’d go with [*rubbing elbows*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/rub%20elbows) — or [*hobnobbing*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/hobnob).
Hunt and peck around those thesaurus links to look for others that may be more appropriate for your usage. |
182,419 | I’m looking for a poetic word or expression that means making professional connections, lobbying, networking, socializing professionally.
*League, circuit, club, society*, and so on and so forth. | 2014/07/05 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/182419",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/83136/"
] | I’d go with [*rubbing elbows*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/rub%20elbows) — or [*hobnobbing*](http://thesaurus.com/browse/hobnob).
Hunt and peck around those thesaurus links to look for others that may be more appropriate for your usage. | The first word that comes to mind is **mingle**.
I've been hearing more frequently the word **politic** used as a verb.
"Let's meet tomorrow and *politic*." |
182,419 | I’m looking for a poetic word or expression that means making professional connections, lobbying, networking, socializing professionally.
*League, circuit, club, society*, and so on and so forth. | 2014/07/05 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/182419",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/83136/"
] | Let me first say that limericks are also a form of poetry. In that spirit my answer is *hobnob*. | The first word that comes to mind is **mingle**.
I've been hearing more frequently the word **politic** used as a verb.
"Let's meet tomorrow and *politic*." |
51,323 | I'm currently developing a webapp for language learning in the hopes of turning it into a profitable business. I've been mulling over a certain name for a while though I've looked through the google play store and chrome add-on store and both have apps named virtually the same thing. They're all still in the same domain as mine (language learning with emphasis on vocab retention), but none of them have been updated in the last few years and they all have very few users/downloads. None of them seem to be trademarked.
If I ended up using this name and it takes off, should I be concerned about any of this? | 2020/05/06 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/51323",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/26996/"
] | It's probably not a good idea. You won't get trademark protection if your name is already being used by several others in the same market. You wouldn't really get protection anyway if your name was something obvious like "Language Learning App" that just describes what the app does.
But you might be able to get away with it. The things I mentioned cut both ways; it will be difficult for the existing apps to claim trademark if they allowed each other's existence this whole time. Also, using "passing off" instead of trademark requires that the plaintiff prove a loss of goodwill. With few users/downloads, this will be quite hard for them to establish. To be slightly safer, you may want to make sure your product is easily distinguishable from the others - for example, by having a distinctive icon. | Yes, you should be concerned
----------------------------
Trademarks exist at common law without needing to be registered. Worst case scenario, you are successful and they sue you for “passing off” and get all your profits. |
51,323 | I'm currently developing a webapp for language learning in the hopes of turning it into a profitable business. I've been mulling over a certain name for a while though I've looked through the google play store and chrome add-on store and both have apps named virtually the same thing. They're all still in the same domain as mine (language learning with emphasis on vocab retention), but none of them have been updated in the last few years and they all have very few users/downloads. None of them seem to be trademarked.
If I ended up using this name and it takes off, should I be concerned about any of this? | 2020/05/06 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/51323",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/26996/"
] | It's probably not a good idea. You won't get trademark protection if your name is already being used by several others in the same market. You wouldn't really get protection anyway if your name was something obvious like "Language Learning App" that just describes what the app does.
But you might be able to get away with it. The things I mentioned cut both ways; it will be difficult for the existing apps to claim trademark if they allowed each other's existence this whole time. Also, using "passing off" instead of trademark requires that the plaintiff prove a loss of goodwill. With few users/downloads, this will be quite hard for them to establish. To be slightly safer, you may want to make sure your product is easily distinguishable from the others - for example, by having a distinctive icon. | The more fanciful the name is, the less likely it is that you step on anyone’s toes, and the more likely that you have protection.
Call it “Learn Japanese with Naraitai” and you are not copying anyone’s name, and you would have very strong protection if someone else used it. |
859,317 | In MS Word 2010, I have a numbered list. The first time I want to use a second level, I want it to be bulleted. The second time, I want it to be a second numbered list. I want it to be something akin to:
>
> 1. Some stuff
> * My
> * second
> * level
> 2. Some more stuff
> 1. My other
> 2. second
> 3. level
>
>
>
However, whenever I try to change the style of one second level, the style of the other one changes to match it.
One solution is to make one second level to be in fact a third level, and then change the indentation to match the second level, but as a purist, I'd much rather not. Plus I'd like to level up my Office-fu.
Is there a good way to do this, to convince Word that the first level needs to be a single list, but the second levels are separate lists from each other? | 2015/01/01 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/859317",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/356134/"
] | What I do (in Microsoft Word 2007) is
* go to the Styles dialog box
* click on “Options…”
* Select styles to show: “All styles”
* then use the styles that you want for list type and level.
In your example, it would be:
>
> 1. List Number
> * List Bullet 2
> * List Bullet 2
> * List Bullet 2
> 2. List Number
> 1. List Number 2
> 2. List Number 2
> 3. List Number 2
>
>
> | **This worked for me <https://www.officetooltips.com/word_2016/tips/creating_a_multilevel_list.html>**
>
> To create a multilevel list, follow these steps: 1. Type your
> list, and then select it.
> 2. Do one of the following:
>
>
>
> - On the Home tab, in the Paragraph group, click the Multilevel List
> button: (Fig.1)
> You can find different styles by clicking the
> arrow next to Multilevel List on the Home tab, in the Paragraph group:
> (Fig.2)
> - Create a numbered or bulleted list (see Creating
> numbered lists) and then:
> * Press Tab - Word indents a level in
> the list
> * Press Shift+Tab - Word outdents a level in the
> list.
> - To add additional numbered
> items to your list, move the insertion point to the end of a line
> formatted with a number and press Enter. To stop entering items in the
> list, press Enter twice.
> - Move the insertion point to the end
> of the last numbered item in your list. Press Enter and then Del, or
> press Enter and click the Numbering button on the Home tab, in the
> Paragraph group, to turn off the number formatting.
>
> Fig.1
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wvTgA.png)
>
>
>
>
> Fig.2
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ftcVd.png)
>
>
> |
42,263 | So often used in trailers and horror movies, sounds played in reverse seem to have a heightened effect on viewers…
Any insights into this phenomenon, and are there any specific examples you can site?
[Moderators: I understand that this post will produce answers that are primarily opinion-based; I ask you to leave it open regardless. Thanks!] | 2017/10/24 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/42263",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/61/"
] | Some thoughts:
1. Reverse speech has the non tonal afterbreath placed first, making it sound like whisper.
2. Reverse speech is generally incomprehensible and sounds alien, so ends up in the general category of "fear of the unknown".
3. The reversed natural trail builds up momentary suspense. That applies to the reversing of most naturally fading sounds.
4. The reverse build up creates a sense of something closing in on you.
5. Genre convention
Add those points up and you get something scary ;-) | Adding on Michael's answer, there is an effect which makes you feel *uncomfortable*, but could be related to no.2. Like when a slow melody is played but the next note has no relation to the melody. It affects your brain like "Wow, wtf is going on here? This ain't right!". I think a reversing sound has a similar uncomfortable "WTF?!" effect, it's disjointed and pulls your attention, forcing you somewhere unpredictable, stopping your mind from settling anywhere familiar. |
43,237,879 | I have a python script that checks the temperature every 24 hours, is there a way to leave it running if I shut the computer down/log off. | 2017/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43237879",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7723305/"
] | Shutdown - no.
Logoff - potentially, yes.
If you want to the script to automatically start when you turn the computer back on, then you can add the script to your startup folder (Windows) or schedule the script (Windows tasks, cron job, systemd timer).
If you really want a temperature tracker that is permanently available, you can use a low-power solution like the Raspberry Pi rather than leaving your pc on. | Scripts are unable to run while your computer is powered off. What operating system are you running? How are you collecting the temperature? It is hard to give much more help without this information.
One thing I might suggest is powering on the system remotely at a scheduled time, using another networked machine. |
43,237,879 | I have a python script that checks the temperature every 24 hours, is there a way to leave it running if I shut the computer down/log off. | 2017/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43237879",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7723305/"
] | Shutdown - no.
Logoff - potentially, yes.
If you want to the script to automatically start when you turn the computer back on, then you can add the script to your startup folder (Windows) or schedule the script (Windows tasks, cron job, systemd timer).
If you really want a temperature tracker that is permanently available, you can use a low-power solution like the Raspberry Pi rather than leaving your pc on. | The best way to accomplish this is to have your program run on some type of server that your computer can connect to. A server could be anything from a raspberry pi to an old disused computer or a web server or cloud server. You would have to build a program that can be accessed from your computer, and depending on the server and you would access it in a lot of different ways depending the way you build your program and your server.
Doing things this way means your script will always be able to check the temperature because it will be running on a system that stays on. |
43,237,879 | I have a python script that checks the temperature every 24 hours, is there a way to leave it running if I shut the computer down/log off. | 2017/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43237879",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7723305/"
] | Shutdown - no.
Logoff - potentially, yes.
If you want to the script to automatically start when you turn the computer back on, then you can add the script to your startup folder (Windows) or schedule the script (Windows tasks, cron job, systemd timer).
If you really want a temperature tracker that is permanently available, you can use a low-power solution like the Raspberry Pi rather than leaving your pc on. | You can take a look at the following pages
<http://www.wikihow.com/Automatically-Turn-on-a-Computer-at-a-Specified-Time>
<http://lifehacker.com/5831504/how-can-i-start-and-shut-down-my-computer-automatically-every-morning>
Additionally once it turn on, you can perform a cronjob, for execute your python code by a console command >> python yourfile.py . [What is the Windows version of cron?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/132971/what-is-the-windows-version-of-cron) |
43,237,879 | I have a python script that checks the temperature every 24 hours, is there a way to leave it running if I shut the computer down/log off. | 2017/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43237879",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7723305/"
] | The best way to accomplish this is to have your program run on some type of server that your computer can connect to. A server could be anything from a raspberry pi to an old disused computer or a web server or cloud server. You would have to build a program that can be accessed from your computer, and depending on the server and you would access it in a lot of different ways depending the way you build your program and your server.
Doing things this way means your script will always be able to check the temperature because it will be running on a system that stays on. | Scripts are unable to run while your computer is powered off. What operating system are you running? How are you collecting the temperature? It is hard to give much more help without this information.
One thing I might suggest is powering on the system remotely at a scheduled time, using another networked machine. |
43,237,879 | I have a python script that checks the temperature every 24 hours, is there a way to leave it running if I shut the computer down/log off. | 2017/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43237879",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7723305/"
] | The best way to accomplish this is to have your program run on some type of server that your computer can connect to. A server could be anything from a raspberry pi to an old disused computer or a web server or cloud server. You would have to build a program that can be accessed from your computer, and depending on the server and you would access it in a lot of different ways depending the way you build your program and your server.
Doing things this way means your script will always be able to check the temperature because it will be running on a system that stays on. | You can take a look at the following pages
<http://www.wikihow.com/Automatically-Turn-on-a-Computer-at-a-Specified-Time>
<http://lifehacker.com/5831504/how-can-i-start-and-shut-down-my-computer-automatically-every-morning>
Additionally once it turn on, you can perform a cronjob, for execute your python code by a console command >> python yourfile.py . [What is the Windows version of cron?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/132971/what-is-the-windows-version-of-cron) |
56,137,138 | I want to prevent users from directly closing the task without resolving it in azure devops(vsts).Is there a way to put a constraint on the states? | 2019/05/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/56137138",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11492171/"
] | Yes, you can define a constraint. In Azure DevOps, you can create your custom rule: [Add a rule to a work item type (Inheritance process)](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/settings/work/custom-rules?view=azure-devops).
As example:
1. Add custom field (like Close Resolution) - [Add and manage fields for an inherited process](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/settings/work/customize-process-field?view=azure-devops)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/O4ZpL.png)
2. In the Resolve state, set some value for it - [Add a custom rule](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/settings/work/custom-rules?view=azure-devops#add-a-custom-rule)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UP4pj.png)
3. Make it required for the Close state - [Add a custom rule](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/settings/work/custom-rules?view=azure-devops#add-a-custom-rule)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s9tqD.png) | What you're asking for, frankly, doesn't make sense.
You can't save something with validation errors. You can close it without saving. What other options are there? Locking someone into a form is terrible UX design, to the extent that if it were possible, it would be called a bug. And no matter what, your users can always close their browser. |
8,551,507 | I find Windows Communication Foundation to be really great (and only getting better in 4.5 with integrated compression among others) for all kinds of communication needs and I truly enjoy programming in .NET.
Yet I really wonder how programmers in other languages deal with all their communication needs. Is there any other comparably comprehensive solution like WCF?
(I know Mono has parts of WCF, this question is about truly different approaches, platforms and OSes.) | 2011/12/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8551507",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/112882/"
] | [RemObjects SDK](http://www.remobjects.com/ro/) is a commercial component provided by [RemObjects Software](http://www.remobjects.com/) that provides WCF-like functionality between a whole range of platforms, protocols and languages. While perhaps not as complete as WCF, RemObjects has been around a long time (since 2002) and it does provide a lot of features:
Platforms supported: .NET (since version 1.1 and including Mono), Delphi (version 7 and later, also including FreePascal on Linux), XCode (Objective-C and Cocoa), Silverlight, Javascript and Java (still in development I think)
Some things are easier than WCF, some things are harder, (and I only have experience of the .NET and Delphi platforms) but the approach is generally as follows:
* You use a GUI tool called the *Service Builder* (which is usually available as an IDE plugin) to define your services, parameters and structs and this generates an XML file called the *RODL* meta data file (similar to WSDL), from which interface and implementation files are generated for any or all of the supported platforms. An async version of each call is also generated.
* You drop components onto a form to configure the channels and the message formats you wish to use and configure everything via these. Many different channel components exist, e.g., HTTP, HTTPS, something called SuperHTTP which is bi-directional, TCP, SuperTCP, named pipes, UDP and broadcast channels, email, etc. You can also choose between many different message formats SOAP, JSON, XML-RPC, a fast proprietary binary format, etc.
* Other WCF-like features include: *ZeroConf* which is similar to WCF server discovery; *Smart Services* allow you to easily publish the same service using multiple protocols simultaneously; it is extensible via events which can provide additional logging, security, etc. (similar to WCF IServiceBehaviors). | >
> Yet I really wonder how programmers in other languages deal with all their communication needs.
>
>
>
This is actually very interesting question because it comes to the biggest problems of .NET programmers. Developers on other platforms usually don't have "single API to rule them all" provided by "semi god" company. They usually have multiple choices and some of them are very specialized to solve single communication type in the most efficient way. So they first must understand the problem and after that select the most suitable API. .NET developers usually doesn't consider any other choice because they have WCF and WCF must solve everything, mustn't it?
Generally the more things single API can do the more complex it is. It requires more skills to use the API and more skills to add anything new to the API. I like WCF but it is the most complex and hard to use API (leave simple examples and try to use anything complex or integrate with other platform) in .NET world I have ever used and in the same time WCF (especially out-of-the box implementation) is not the API to solve every cross-process or cross-machine communication problem. Sometimes WCF is simply not suitable. As example I would use bidirectional communication where out-of-the box WCF implementation puts a lot of additional requirements and overhead. Another example is large data transfer - streaming transfer in SOAP service is not solution for passing tens (or more) MBs. |
8,746 | In my bio class, when we correct our tests our bio teacher asks us to compare the ones we got wrong on our test with our fellow classmates in order to correct our test mistakes. He also tells us to see *how* our classmate arrived at their correct answer in order to make us "better thinkers" so we will do better in the future and be more likely to get the correct answer.
Considering how (being a noob) I am always amazed that someone magically answers a question that I haven't found an answer to after searching for an hour, it might make me able to answer my OWN questions (and possibly post a Q&A) if I know how they found the information they did, so I can find answers to questions myself without asking. I believe that this would beneficial to the Ubuntu community as a whole. What are yinz's thoughts on this proposal? And if you think it is a good idea could it be instituted? | 2014/03/17 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/8746",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/247505/"
] | I think in general life, every good answer should be accompanied by at least an impression of it's foundation.
If I give an answer on Askubuntu, I try to make clear if it is based (mostly) on an external source (I add the source as a link), if I speak purely from my own experience, or a combination of both. This gives the user an idea where to find information, the "weight" of the answer and in many cases the tools to "tune" the answer to his or her personal situation.
In some cases, I try to give a quick "hint" to a solution, mentioning a link. In these cases, I post it as a comment because it does not have the quality of an answer. The same with trivial questions, mostly asked by newcomers, that I feel I should not "earn" reputation from. In these cases, I do not feel the responsibility to point out how I got there.
According to the site rules, I "should avoid to answer the question in a comment", but for me this is the exception. | In simple and small, I think, answers should be *explained* because they need to be understood by the OP. but *Why they got the answer?* or *How they got the answer?* should not be part of the answer. However, The answerer may make remarks about the way he got the answer, but it should not be an essential part of the answer.
The bottom line is, This is a Question/Answer site. Answers for questions. It should not teach OP how the OP can be a good researcher, unlike the Bio class, where the aim is truly that i.e making good researchers.
Hope you got it. |
381,875 | I would like to build a storage server (based on GNU/Linux or FreeBSD) which will be on all the time.
To prevent data corruption (which is unlikely to happen as I never had such a problem, but better be safe than sorry) I would like to use ECC RAM.
Although not as good as EDD (?) (which is way more expensive) and provides additional protection. ECC seems to correct only single bits errors.
ECC registered RAM is only usable with workstation / server boards such as Intel Xeon or AMD interlagos/magny-cours/valencia g34 or c32.
ECC unbuffered is usable on Intel Xeon lga1155 or AMD AM3+ on Asus boards.
The second option will be way much cheaper on the processor and motherboard side, and I doubt I will need more than 16GB of RAM (4x4 GB ECC unbuffered are the largest affordable sticks).
**The doubt I'm having is (mainly concerning asus am3+ board): is ECC-unbuffered RAM as good as ECC-registered RAM (from the point of view of safety and reliability) ? Or is it a worse choice. I don't care much for the speed.**
More details: server will use a server case with up to 24 x 3.5'' drives and should consume as little as possible. LGA1155 seems to be in that sense a better bet (TDP ~ 20-95W) versus the others (>80W) for twice the price. Any suggestion is welcome. Let's say less than 120W at idle (~ with 10 hard disks out of 24). | 2012/01/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/381875",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/51166/"
] | Two separate issues.
ECC Vs non-ECC
==============
* use ECC wherever uptime is important
* costs more -- need (multiples of) 9 chips instead of 8
* motherboard must support it to use it
Registered Vs Unbuffered:
=========================
* Can have (much) more total RAM installed with Registered DIMMs
+ Less electrical strain on the memory controller interface
* But all DIMMs installed must be registered or not
+ must remove unbuffered DIMMS if upgrading to Registered
* Also is more expensive, and a cycle slower to access
+ Unbuffered is slightly lower latency, if that matters
+ all random accesses take many cycles anyway
+ Note absolute access latency (time in nanoseconds) hasn't improved much over history of DRAM use in PC's
- cost, capacity and bandwidth vastly improved instead
- memory caches hides the latency for most memory accesses anyway
+ Longer latency hurts single-thread 'real-time' performance most
- usually doesn't affect 'server' use cases much
+ No/minimal difference in bandwidth and overall performance
- sequential access bandwidth unaffected
- L2/L3 caches mean actual access patterns mostly replace rows at a time in the cache, so are usually 'burst' accesses anyway | Well, if you use only 16GB RAM - which is not a server RAM range - you will be fine with pretty standard any desktop RAM/sys.
If it is only a storage server, you won't even need that much CPU performance.
Like you said, go with Sandy bridge, it will give you a cool, performant and reliable system.
Speaking of 16GB RAM ranges, you don't have to worry about ECC stuff. |
336,237 | in our field (mathematics) it is somewhat standard to write things like
>
> " In Chapter 4 we show that ..." "The experiments we have conducted (meaning: me, together with my collaborators)
>
>
>
or:
>
> " With this equation we get ..." (meaning: You, the reader, can follow my thoughts)
>
>
>
So who is meant by "we"? | 2016/07/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/336237",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/125653/"
] | It's a [nosism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nosism) (because *weism* is too close to bathroom humor), specifically [the author's **we**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nosism#The_author.27s_.22we.22_or_pluralis_modestiae).
>
> Similar to the editorial "we", *pluralis modestiae* is the practice common in mathematical and scientific literature of referring to a generic third person by we (instead of the more common one or the informal you).
>
>
> | In technical or scholarly writing, the universal "we" implies more than one person was or is involved with the project, experiment, or paper. There's always the Royal "we," in which monarchs always refer to themselves as a group. You can use "we" to infer that you're working with a group. However, it is always best to be forthcoming, and there's nothing negative about referring to yourself in the first person: "I." |
336,237 | in our field (mathematics) it is somewhat standard to write things like
>
> " In Chapter 4 we show that ..." "The experiments we have conducted (meaning: me, together with my collaborators)
>
>
>
or:
>
> " With this equation we get ..." (meaning: You, the reader, can follow my thoughts)
>
>
>
So who is meant by "we"? | 2016/07/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/336237",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/125653/"
] | It's a [nosism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nosism) (because *weism* is too close to bathroom humor), specifically [the author's **we**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nosism#The_author.27s_.22we.22_or_pluralis_modestiae).
>
> Similar to the editorial "we", *pluralis modestiae* is the practice common in mathematical and scientific literature of referring to a generic third person by we (instead of the more common one or the informal you).
>
>
> | Apart from the typical explanation given in other answers, it is considered that in most cases, a thesis is a work of one or more students supervised by one (or more) academic instructor(s).
Now, even if you did your thesis without other collaborators, wouldn't it be at least arrogant and egoistic to not consider your supervisor in mentions and say "I" instead of "we"?
As in the end more than one people were involved in the thesis (even in different roles), "we" is the most logical and appropriate mentioning way. |
336,237 | in our field (mathematics) it is somewhat standard to write things like
>
> " In Chapter 4 we show that ..." "The experiments we have conducted (meaning: me, together with my collaborators)
>
>
>
or:
>
> " With this equation we get ..." (meaning: You, the reader, can follow my thoughts)
>
>
>
So who is meant by "we"? | 2016/07/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/336237",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/125653/"
] | In technical or scholarly writing, the universal "we" implies more than one person was or is involved with the project, experiment, or paper. There's always the Royal "we," in which monarchs always refer to themselves as a group. You can use "we" to infer that you're working with a group. However, it is always best to be forthcoming, and there's nothing negative about referring to yourself in the first person: "I." | Apart from the typical explanation given in other answers, it is considered that in most cases, a thesis is a work of one or more students supervised by one (or more) academic instructor(s).
Now, even if you did your thesis without other collaborators, wouldn't it be at least arrogant and egoistic to not consider your supervisor in mentions and say "I" instead of "we"?
As in the end more than one people were involved in the thesis (even in different roles), "we" is the most logical and appropriate mentioning way. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | First thing to come to mind is poor bike fit.Second is are you wearing cycling shorts?If you bought the bike at a local shop see if they offer a fitting service.If they don't see if they will show you how to make some adjustments to the saddle height,forward-aft,and angle so you can experiment to see what makes improvements | If you're just getting back into riding after a long break, this is normal. It'll still happen for a while - especially on longer and longer rides as you build up your endurance.
There may be some fit issues there, but if you get a saddle with a cutout and your fit looks good (and there's no sharp pain) then you may just need to build up your tolerance a bit.
Cycling shorts definitely help this, as do not overly padded seats. You want your seat to have minimal padding and let your chamois do the padding for you.
Additionally, if you're mashing your pedals instead of spinning you'll most likely experience unnecessary numbness from all the bouncing in the saddle. If you find yourself bouncing, slow down and concentrate on spinning fluidly. There are a lot of threads here on how to improve spin. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | Perineal compression? - <http://www.livestrong.com/article/346680-bicycle-seat-nerve-damage/>
Basically, you need to change your saddle and/or your *bike fit* needs modification.
Very valuable information:
>
> This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
>
>
>
This is ***very clearly*** telling you that either the bike fit or the saddle is entirely wrong. My suggestion? Tweak your bike fit; then, seriously consider a new saddle.
The issue is compression of the perineum which reduces blood flow. Here's some light reading: <http://www.medicinenet.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=84072>
According to *Andy Pruitt's Complete Medical Guide for Cyclists* the issue is actually more common with recreational cyclists and not racers so much. Apparently, racers tend to be lighter and so aren't supporting so much weight on soft tissue. And also, tend to lift their hips off of the saddle frequently.
Andy Pruitt's key points for solving the problem are making sure that one has an appropriate saddle and especially good bike fit. Generally he recommends that the saddle is at the correct height and usually horizontal. However, for some individuals a slight downward tilt is optimal. An upward tilt is bad news for the perineum.
. wdy | First thing to come to mind is poor bike fit.Second is are you wearing cycling shorts?If you bought the bike at a local shop see if they offer a fitting service.If they don't see if they will show you how to make some adjustments to the saddle height,forward-aft,and angle so you can experiment to see what makes improvements |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | First thing to come to mind is poor bike fit.Second is are you wearing cycling shorts?If you bought the bike at a local shop see if they offer a fitting service.If they don't see if they will show you how to make some adjustments to the saddle height,forward-aft,and angle so you can experiment to see what makes improvements | Read the link that Dan sent; it's frightening! I used to get this 50 years ago, but bikes were were much more rudimentary then, and so were saddles, often made of hard leather. I used to angle it forwards but then always had a re-adjust my sitting position every few hundred yards. These days, saddles are so much better, so get a new and good one. And also wear gel shorts which really help. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | Perineal compression? - <http://www.livestrong.com/article/346680-bicycle-seat-nerve-damage/>
Basically, you need to change your saddle and/or your *bike fit* needs modification.
Very valuable information:
>
> This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
>
>
>
This is ***very clearly*** telling you that either the bike fit or the saddle is entirely wrong. My suggestion? Tweak your bike fit; then, seriously consider a new saddle.
The issue is compression of the perineum which reduces blood flow. Here's some light reading: <http://www.medicinenet.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=84072>
According to *Andy Pruitt's Complete Medical Guide for Cyclists* the issue is actually more common with recreational cyclists and not racers so much. Apparently, racers tend to be lighter and so aren't supporting so much weight on soft tissue. And also, tend to lift their hips off of the saddle frequently.
Andy Pruitt's key points for solving the problem are making sure that one has an appropriate saddle and especially good bike fit. Generally he recommends that the saddle is at the correct height and usually horizontal. However, for some individuals a slight downward tilt is optimal. An upward tilt is bad news for the perineum.
. wdy | If you're just getting back into riding after a long break, this is normal. It'll still happen for a while - especially on longer and longer rides as you build up your endurance.
There may be some fit issues there, but if you get a saddle with a cutout and your fit looks good (and there's no sharp pain) then you may just need to build up your tolerance a bit.
Cycling shorts definitely help this, as do not overly padded seats. You want your seat to have minimal padding and let your chamois do the padding for you.
Additionally, if you're mashing your pedals instead of spinning you'll most likely experience unnecessary numbness from all the bouncing in the saddle. If you find yourself bouncing, slow down and concentrate on spinning fluidly. There are a lot of threads here on how to improve spin. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | As others have suggested, bike fit, padded shorts, anatomical saddle, etc.
When it comes to bike fit, consider the tilt of the saddle: try tilting the nose of the saddle down. If it's above level, or even level, you'll exacerbate nerve compression with the small surface area of the nose. Don't tilt it too far down or as you slip forward you'll constantly be pushing yourself backward on the saddle. Further, examine the position of the saddle relative to the BB. If the saddle is too far back, you'll be sitting on the nose - try moving the saddle forward such that your bum is resting on the wider section of the saddle. Note that saddle position and tilt can affect the saddle height. So write down your saddle height before messing around and readjust afterward if necessary.
Also consider your body position. Are you resting your upper body on your handle bars, or are you supporting it with your core? This will affect hip rotation. The former causes you to roll your hips forward putting more pressure on your perineum. The latter will rotate your hips back relieving pressure on your perineum and resting more on your ischium (I think that's the bone you'd be sitting on.) You can work on your position by keeping your elbows rotated down, relieving weight from your hands, making a conscious effort to use your core, and a conscious effort to feel the effect of hips rotated forward and backward (as far as I can tell, rotating your hips back is done more with your lower abs, similar to thrusting your pelvis forward.)
All this considered, I still get numbness. I compete, I ride a bazillion km/year, I've got padded shorts and an anatomical saddle. Whatever. Likely because I don't support my upper body with my core and roll my hips forward. It's an aggressive position that I like, so I mitigate the issue by occasionally standing - if I'm on flats I switch to a high gear and turn over a low cadence, or I'll just rest my thigh on my saddle and coast (I do this a lot riding in traffic approaching red lights and stop signs.) | If you're just getting back into riding after a long break, this is normal. It'll still happen for a while - especially on longer and longer rides as you build up your endurance.
There may be some fit issues there, but if you get a saddle with a cutout and your fit looks good (and there's no sharp pain) then you may just need to build up your tolerance a bit.
Cycling shorts definitely help this, as do not overly padded seats. You want your seat to have minimal padding and let your chamois do the padding for you.
Additionally, if you're mashing your pedals instead of spinning you'll most likely experience unnecessary numbness from all the bouncing in the saddle. If you find yourself bouncing, slow down and concentrate on spinning fluidly. There are a lot of threads here on how to improve spin. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | If you're just getting back into riding after a long break, this is normal. It'll still happen for a while - especially on longer and longer rides as you build up your endurance.
There may be some fit issues there, but if you get a saddle with a cutout and your fit looks good (and there's no sharp pain) then you may just need to build up your tolerance a bit.
Cycling shorts definitely help this, as do not overly padded seats. You want your seat to have minimal padding and let your chamois do the padding for you.
Additionally, if you're mashing your pedals instead of spinning you'll most likely experience unnecessary numbness from all the bouncing in the saddle. If you find yourself bouncing, slow down and concentrate on spinning fluidly. There are a lot of threads here on how to improve spin. | Read the link that Dan sent; it's frightening! I used to get this 50 years ago, but bikes were were much more rudimentary then, and so were saddles, often made of hard leather. I used to angle it forwards but then always had a re-adjust my sitting position every few hundred yards. These days, saddles are so much better, so get a new and good one. And also wear gel shorts which really help. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | Perineal compression? - <http://www.livestrong.com/article/346680-bicycle-seat-nerve-damage/>
Basically, you need to change your saddle and/or your *bike fit* needs modification.
Very valuable information:
>
> This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
>
>
>
This is ***very clearly*** telling you that either the bike fit or the saddle is entirely wrong. My suggestion? Tweak your bike fit; then, seriously consider a new saddle.
The issue is compression of the perineum which reduces blood flow. Here's some light reading: <http://www.medicinenet.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=84072>
According to *Andy Pruitt's Complete Medical Guide for Cyclists* the issue is actually more common with recreational cyclists and not racers so much. Apparently, racers tend to be lighter and so aren't supporting so much weight on soft tissue. And also, tend to lift their hips off of the saddle frequently.
Andy Pruitt's key points for solving the problem are making sure that one has an appropriate saddle and especially good bike fit. Generally he recommends that the saddle is at the correct height and usually horizontal. However, for some individuals a slight downward tilt is optimal. An upward tilt is bad news for the perineum.
. wdy | As others have suggested, bike fit, padded shorts, anatomical saddle, etc.
When it comes to bike fit, consider the tilt of the saddle: try tilting the nose of the saddle down. If it's above level, or even level, you'll exacerbate nerve compression with the small surface area of the nose. Don't tilt it too far down or as you slip forward you'll constantly be pushing yourself backward on the saddle. Further, examine the position of the saddle relative to the BB. If the saddle is too far back, you'll be sitting on the nose - try moving the saddle forward such that your bum is resting on the wider section of the saddle. Note that saddle position and tilt can affect the saddle height. So write down your saddle height before messing around and readjust afterward if necessary.
Also consider your body position. Are you resting your upper body on your handle bars, or are you supporting it with your core? This will affect hip rotation. The former causes you to roll your hips forward putting more pressure on your perineum. The latter will rotate your hips back relieving pressure on your perineum and resting more on your ischium (I think that's the bone you'd be sitting on.) You can work on your position by keeping your elbows rotated down, relieving weight from your hands, making a conscious effort to use your core, and a conscious effort to feel the effect of hips rotated forward and backward (as far as I can tell, rotating your hips back is done more with your lower abs, similar to thrusting your pelvis forward.)
All this considered, I still get numbness. I compete, I ride a bazillion km/year, I've got padded shorts and an anatomical saddle. Whatever. Likely because I don't support my upper body with my core and roll my hips forward. It's an aggressive position that I like, so I mitigate the issue by occasionally standing - if I'm on flats I switch to a high gear and turn over a low cadence, or I'll just rest my thigh on my saddle and coast (I do this a lot riding in traffic approaching red lights and stop signs.) |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | Perineal compression? - <http://www.livestrong.com/article/346680-bicycle-seat-nerve-damage/>
Basically, you need to change your saddle and/or your *bike fit* needs modification.
Very valuable information:
>
> This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
>
>
>
This is ***very clearly*** telling you that either the bike fit or the saddle is entirely wrong. My suggestion? Tweak your bike fit; then, seriously consider a new saddle.
The issue is compression of the perineum which reduces blood flow. Here's some light reading: <http://www.medicinenet.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=84072>
According to *Andy Pruitt's Complete Medical Guide for Cyclists* the issue is actually more common with recreational cyclists and not racers so much. Apparently, racers tend to be lighter and so aren't supporting so much weight on soft tissue. And also, tend to lift their hips off of the saddle frequently.
Andy Pruitt's key points for solving the problem are making sure that one has an appropriate saddle and especially good bike fit. Generally he recommends that the saddle is at the correct height and usually horizontal. However, for some individuals a slight downward tilt is optimal. An upward tilt is bad news for the perineum.
. wdy | Read the link that Dan sent; it's frightening! I used to get this 50 years ago, but bikes were were much more rudimentary then, and so were saddles, often made of hard leather. I used to angle it forwards but then always had a re-adjust my sitting position every few hundred yards. These days, saddles are so much better, so get a new and good one. And also wear gel shorts which really help. |
9,384 | It's been about 5 years or so since I did any amount of bicycle riding to speak of. Recently, I picked up a mountain bike ([Giant Revel 2](http://www.giant-bicycles.com/en-us/bikes/model/revel.2.black.silver/9042/48921/)) and started getting back into riding around some local roads on a semi-regular basis. My goal is to work myself up to at least riding for one hour, three days a week.
However, there's a small problem with this. It seems after about a half-hour on the bike, I begin to experience numbness in my genitals. This usually clears up within a few minutes of standing, off of the bike.
What are some likely causes for this? Are there particular adjustments or modifications I should make to the bicycle or my riding technique to avoid it? | 2012/05/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9384",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1719/"
] | As others have suggested, bike fit, padded shorts, anatomical saddle, etc.
When it comes to bike fit, consider the tilt of the saddle: try tilting the nose of the saddle down. If it's above level, or even level, you'll exacerbate nerve compression with the small surface area of the nose. Don't tilt it too far down or as you slip forward you'll constantly be pushing yourself backward on the saddle. Further, examine the position of the saddle relative to the BB. If the saddle is too far back, you'll be sitting on the nose - try moving the saddle forward such that your bum is resting on the wider section of the saddle. Note that saddle position and tilt can affect the saddle height. So write down your saddle height before messing around and readjust afterward if necessary.
Also consider your body position. Are you resting your upper body on your handle bars, or are you supporting it with your core? This will affect hip rotation. The former causes you to roll your hips forward putting more pressure on your perineum. The latter will rotate your hips back relieving pressure on your perineum and resting more on your ischium (I think that's the bone you'd be sitting on.) You can work on your position by keeping your elbows rotated down, relieving weight from your hands, making a conscious effort to use your core, and a conscious effort to feel the effect of hips rotated forward and backward (as far as I can tell, rotating your hips back is done more with your lower abs, similar to thrusting your pelvis forward.)
All this considered, I still get numbness. I compete, I ride a bazillion km/year, I've got padded shorts and an anatomical saddle. Whatever. Likely because I don't support my upper body with my core and roll my hips forward. It's an aggressive position that I like, so I mitigate the issue by occasionally standing - if I'm on flats I switch to a high gear and turn over a low cadence, or I'll just rest my thigh on my saddle and coast (I do this a lot riding in traffic approaching red lights and stop signs.) | Read the link that Dan sent; it's frightening! I used to get this 50 years ago, but bikes were were much more rudimentary then, and so were saddles, often made of hard leather. I used to angle it forwards but then always had a re-adjust my sitting position every few hundred yards. These days, saddles are so much better, so get a new and good one. And also wear gel shorts which really help. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | The way I've always read that scene is that she fell, but did not die. She did however suffer severe trauma. The larger part of that trauma was to her psyche. An oft used story telling instrument in movies is the personality switching trauma. This happened to Selena when she fell, it changed her into a more assertive character. Having the cats around her when she woke up as the new Selena "impressed" on her mind a more feline personality. Not only is she more aggressive and independent, she also moves and acts more like a cat. You could say that the trauma to her head made her more than a little bit 'insane'. | I have not watched *Batman Returns* but if it is like *Catwoman*; Patience (the Catwoman incarnation of this movie) died and cats make her alive again.
It is told by the old woman (who is slightly implied to be Selena Kyle) that cats have magical powers and revived her from the dead and gave her abilities. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | The way I've always read that scene is that she fell, but did not die. She did however suffer severe trauma. The larger part of that trauma was to her psyche. An oft used story telling instrument in movies is the personality switching trauma. This happened to Selena when she fell, it changed her into a more assertive character. Having the cats around her when she woke up as the new Selena "impressed" on her mind a more feline personality. Not only is she more aggressive and independent, she also moves and acts more like a cat. You could say that the trauma to her head made her more than a little bit 'insane'. | Of course cats have magic!
It's funny, I saw Catwoman before this one and thought the 'licked back to life by magic cats' thing was the stupidest thing in a hilariously bad movie. Turns out *that* was the one thing she had in common with the actual Catwoman from the Batman movies? Mind: blown! XD
However, someone (I can't find it now) pointed out that Selina hit several things on the way down and so never fell constantly for an unsurvivable distance, and that she wasn't immediately skilled, struggling a lot at first. Maybe she wasn't 100% dead and brought back to life with superpowers by magical cats after all, but just had a personality shift via head injury like Phineas Gage. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | The way I've always read that scene is that she fell, but did not die. She did however suffer severe trauma. The larger part of that trauma was to her psyche. An oft used story telling instrument in movies is the personality switching trauma. This happened to Selena when she fell, it changed her into a more assertive character. Having the cats around her when she woke up as the new Selena "impressed" on her mind a more feline personality. Not only is she more aggressive and independent, she also moves and acts more like a cat. You could say that the trauma to her head made her more than a little bit 'insane'. | She doesn't die in Batman Returns. Nothing in the film expresses her death, which would have been a plot hole in and of itself seeing as there are no other cat magic resurrections happening anywhere else in the entire history of DC characters. Nothing about the entire movie is Paranormal in any sort of way. Hokey and unrealistic, yes, but not paranormal.
The cats play the same role for her as batman's bats did. Just the thing they needed at the time they decided to become vigilantes. An icon to fear and or respect. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | I have not watched *Batman Returns* but if it is like *Catwoman*; Patience (the Catwoman incarnation of this movie) died and cats make her alive again.
It is told by the old woman (who is slightly implied to be Selena Kyle) that cats have magical powers and revived her from the dead and gave her abilities. | Of course cats have magic!
It's funny, I saw Catwoman before this one and thought the 'licked back to life by magic cats' thing was the stupidest thing in a hilariously bad movie. Turns out *that* was the one thing she had in common with the actual Catwoman from the Batman movies? Mind: blown! XD
However, someone (I can't find it now) pointed out that Selina hit several things on the way down and so never fell constantly for an unsurvivable distance, and that she wasn't immediately skilled, struggling a lot at first. Maybe she wasn't 100% dead and brought back to life with superpowers by magical cats after all, but just had a personality shift via head injury like Phineas Gage. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | I have not watched *Batman Returns* but if it is like *Catwoman*; Patience (the Catwoman incarnation of this movie) died and cats make her alive again.
It is told by the old woman (who is slightly implied to be Selena Kyle) that cats have magical powers and revived her from the dead and gave her abilities. | She doesn't die in Batman Returns. Nothing in the film expresses her death, which would have been a plot hole in and of itself seeing as there are no other cat magic resurrections happening anywhere else in the entire history of DC characters. Nothing about the entire movie is Paranormal in any sort of way. Hokey and unrealistic, yes, but not paranormal.
The cats play the same role for her as batman's bats did. Just the thing they needed at the time they decided to become vigilantes. An icon to fear and or respect. |
2,033 | During her escape from the research facility, Selene jumps onto a driving truck.
The truck driver notices her, makes a full stop and she flies over the vehicle. The driver then steps out with a gun in hand, walks up to her lying on the ground and without blinking an eye, shoots her straight in the face.
That was the point where I was completely baffled. What the hell is wrong with this guy?
Maybe he had a bad day, ok. We all know those, but shooting someone cold blooded without even asking why she used his truck as a taxi?
You could argue that he is living in a pretty bad world with vampires and werewolves and you can never be too careful, but:
* There haven't been any werewolf or vampire sightings in years apparently, so he has no good reason to believe she is one of both.
* A normal gun wouldn't help him in this case anyway.
So why is he acting this way? Am I missing something? | 2012/04/19 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2033",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | Of course cats have magic!
It's funny, I saw Catwoman before this one and thought the 'licked back to life by magic cats' thing was the stupidest thing in a hilariously bad movie. Turns out *that* was the one thing she had in common with the actual Catwoman from the Batman movies? Mind: blown! XD
However, someone (I can't find it now) pointed out that Selina hit several things on the way down and so never fell constantly for an unsurvivable distance, and that she wasn't immediately skilled, struggling a lot at first. Maybe she wasn't 100% dead and brought back to life with superpowers by magical cats after all, but just had a personality shift via head injury like Phineas Gage. | She doesn't die in Batman Returns. Nothing in the film expresses her death, which would have been a plot hole in and of itself seeing as there are no other cat magic resurrections happening anywhere else in the entire history of DC characters. Nothing about the entire movie is Paranormal in any sort of way. Hokey and unrealistic, yes, but not paranormal.
The cats play the same role for her as batman's bats did. Just the thing they needed at the time they decided to become vigilantes. An icon to fear and or respect. |
35,599 | A few weeks ago I had hummus at the famous Abu-Hassan/Ali-Caravan place in Jaffa, Tel Aviv. When you order hummus there you also get a small bowl of lemony chilli liquid on the side. The liquid is hot and really bitter.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jVecq.jpg)
The idea is to mix the chilli liquid in with the hummus to get it as hot as you like. It's really delicious!
Does anyone have any creative ideas about how I could make this kind of liquid at home? I have dried chilli flakes, and as a first pass I can fry them in some olive oil, drain and mix in lemon juice. I wonder though if anyone created this kind of thing before and is in a position to give some advice.
Thank you! | 2013/07/26 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/35599",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/18091/"
] | In Israel I have often seen hummus/falafel/thina served with a hot sauce called [*skhug*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skhug), I have mostly seen the green variety (*skhug yarok*), which is a sauce made of [fresh herbs, garlic, chili, lemon juice, garlic, olive oil, and some spices](http://livelonger.hubpages.com/hub/Zhug-Skhug-Recipe).
Hummus is often just served with thina on the side and with olive oil, but there is a lot of variety ... I have seen sauces based on olive oil and lemon juice, similar to what you describe (although not biter ... but the [bitterness could also come from blending the olive oil](http://summertomato.com/the-bitter-truth-about-olive-oil/)). But I never saw it being prepared in front of me or it being called a particular name, but it looked a little like a thin *vinaigrette*.
Using my extremely limited hebrew knowledge and google I found [this recipe](http://web.archive.org/web/20160727192558/http://www.mother-earth.co.il/211428/%D7%A8%D7%95%D7%98%D7%91-%D7%9C%D7%99%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%9F-%D7%97%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%A3-%D7%9C%D7%97%D7%95%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%A1).
The ingredients translate to:
>
> 2 hot chilies
>
>
> 3-4 cloves of garlic
>
>
> 3 tbsp olive oil
>
>
> juice of half a lemon
>
>
> salt
>
>
> *additional recomendation:*
>
>
> 1 tsp cumin
>
>
> sugar
>
>
> **Preparation:** Put all ingredients into the food processor and turn into the sauce. Taste and adjust spices/oil/lemon juice to taste. And add sugar if too sour to balance the flavor.
>
>
>
You can let sit a little for the flavors to combine ... and strain out remaining bits if desired.
I am not sure if this is the sauce that you had ... but it could be very similar. Anyway ... it sounds tasty. | Capsaicin dissolves easily in oils (and alcohol).
Steeping or gently heating chili peppers in oil will easily produce a spicy oil. You could use crushed red peppers but you might get more interesting flavors by using a fresh pepper. A single habanero would give you an interesting fruitiness and all the heat you could ever want.
As for the lemon-
Lemon juice is obviously not going to mix with olive oil. You should use lemon zest instead to take advantage of the fruit's essential oils.
I would warm some olive oil and steep minced habanero and lemon zest in it for a while. Strain out the fruits when you get to the heat level that you want. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | The Nylanders are not a part of Nyarlathotep, they are just carrying a part of him. In fact, they are just humans with some special powers given to them by a fragment of the deity within them. They grew up with this fragment and are used to it. Absorbing someones fragment is not that special. But absorbing someone elses psyche is somehing absolutely different. The human mind is not made for fusing two psyches to one. Different memories collide with each other, different attitudes contradict each other... It would break the human part of the Nylander, make him weaker and weaker with every victory. The last few surviving Nylanders would be babbling madmans, not even able to find each other... So Nyarlathotep would never be reborn. | Somewhat similarly to the other answer, make a crucial part of gaining power be childhood development, whether before and/or after birth. You could perhaps say that the implanted piece of Nyarlathotep bonds to the new soul, or makes change to their developing mind, or even physical changes during embryonic development. Or some mix of all that. So people who have grown from conception/before-birth to adulthood in this situation are in some way considerably different than a normal grown human.
But acquiring a new piece of Nyarlathotep long after childhood development doesn't add to the development that has already been done - because an adult isn't going to suddenly re-experience embryonic development or childhood growth. So ones who acquire additional pieces don't directly benefit from them but can be carriers of them. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | The Nylanders are not a part of Nyarlathotep, they are just carrying a part of him. In fact, they are just humans with some special powers given to them by a fragment of the deity within them. They grew up with this fragment and are used to it. Absorbing someones fragment is not that special. But absorbing someone elses psyche is somehing absolutely different. The human mind is not made for fusing two psyches to one. Different memories collide with each other, different attitudes contradict each other... It would break the human part of the Nylander, make him weaker and weaker with every victory. The last few surviving Nylanders would be babbling madmans, not even able to find each other... So Nyarlathotep would never be reborn. | Perhaps It Has Something to Do With How the Barrier is Bypassed
---------------------------------------------------------------
Could be the Nylanders' avatar spirits are like enriched uranium to a fission core, or helium to a fusing star -- there's a certain critical amount (in this case 100%) that is required for the avatar material to fuse (or fission) into the deity. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | The Nylanders are not a part of Nyarlathotep, they are just carrying a part of him. In fact, they are just humans with some special powers given to them by a fragment of the deity within them. They grew up with this fragment and are used to it. Absorbing someones fragment is not that special. But absorbing someone elses psyche is somehing absolutely different. The human mind is not made for fusing two psyches to one. Different memories collide with each other, different attitudes contradict each other... It would break the human part of the Nylander, make him weaker and weaker with every victory. The last few surviving Nylanders would be babbling madmans, not even able to find each other... So Nyarlathotep would never be reborn. | They absorb the Power and Soul, but *not* the connection to it. In other words, they gain **capacity**, but not [**flux**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flux).
This means that the only benefit they gain is being able to use their powers *longer*, rather than *stronger* — they gain their victim's 'water tank', but not their 'hose', so their output remains unchanged.
Of course, with the limits on how much power each mortal can channel at a time, versus how fast they 'recharge', this may eventually hit a point of diminishing returns; if you are unable to use up your entire 'capacity' before you would keep over from exhaustion and lack of sleep, increasing it further has little meaningful benefit . |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | Somewhat similarly to the other answer, make a crucial part of gaining power be childhood development, whether before and/or after birth. You could perhaps say that the implanted piece of Nyarlathotep bonds to the new soul, or makes change to their developing mind, or even physical changes during embryonic development. Or some mix of all that. So people who have grown from conception/before-birth to adulthood in this situation are in some way considerably different than a normal grown human.
But acquiring a new piece of Nyarlathotep long after childhood development doesn't add to the development that has already been done - because an adult isn't going to suddenly re-experience embryonic development or childhood growth. So ones who acquire additional pieces don't directly benefit from them but can be carriers of them. | Perhaps It Has Something to Do With How the Barrier is Bypassed
---------------------------------------------------------------
Could be the Nylanders' avatar spirits are like enriched uranium to a fission core, or helium to a fusing star -- there's a certain critical amount (in this case 100%) that is required for the avatar material to fuse (or fission) into the deity. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | As each child is killed/destroyed, the deity's powers are absorbed, but since all these children are of the same soul, they gain that power equally. There is no benefit to being the one who made the kill. So each child does gain in power, but equally, so there is no shift in power balance. A benefit of this is a child could be killed in any manner, not just by a Nylander, and no power would be lost.
A side effect would be that as children are killed, the rate of power absorption would increase each time. This might be an interesting thread, and it would give the remaining children an indication of the state of the game. The final two would know they are the final two, the drama escalates every kill for all.
Then at the final duel, each participant is at 50% (still equal). Then there will be "only one" at 100%.
You can use this gradual increasing of powers to add random elements. Each child could respond equally, or maybe different children have variant reactions? Equal in power, but different in expression? | Somewhat similarly to the other answer, make a crucial part of gaining power be childhood development, whether before and/or after birth. You could perhaps say that the implanted piece of Nyarlathotep bonds to the new soul, or makes change to their developing mind, or even physical changes during embryonic development. Or some mix of all that. So people who have grown from conception/before-birth to adulthood in this situation are in some way considerably different than a normal grown human.
But acquiring a new piece of Nyarlathotep long after childhood development doesn't add to the development that has already been done - because an adult isn't going to suddenly re-experience embryonic development or childhood growth. So ones who acquire additional pieces don't directly benefit from them but can be carriers of them. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | Somewhat similarly to the other answer, make a crucial part of gaining power be childhood development, whether before and/or after birth. You could perhaps say that the implanted piece of Nyarlathotep bonds to the new soul, or makes change to their developing mind, or even physical changes during embryonic development. Or some mix of all that. So people who have grown from conception/before-birth to adulthood in this situation are in some way considerably different than a normal grown human.
But acquiring a new piece of Nyarlathotep long after childhood development doesn't add to the development that has already been done - because an adult isn't going to suddenly re-experience embryonic development or childhood growth. So ones who acquire additional pieces don't directly benefit from them but can be carriers of them. | They absorb the Power and Soul, but *not* the connection to it. In other words, they gain **capacity**, but not [**flux**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flux).
This means that the only benefit they gain is being able to use their powers *longer*, rather than *stronger* — they gain their victim's 'water tank', but not their 'hose', so their output remains unchanged.
Of course, with the limits on how much power each mortal can channel at a time, versus how fast they 'recharge', this may eventually hit a point of diminishing returns; if you are unable to use up your entire 'capacity' before you would keep over from exhaustion and lack of sleep, increasing it further has little meaningful benefit . |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | As each child is killed/destroyed, the deity's powers are absorbed, but since all these children are of the same soul, they gain that power equally. There is no benefit to being the one who made the kill. So each child does gain in power, but equally, so there is no shift in power balance. A benefit of this is a child could be killed in any manner, not just by a Nylander, and no power would be lost.
A side effect would be that as children are killed, the rate of power absorption would increase each time. This might be an interesting thread, and it would give the remaining children an indication of the state of the game. The final two would know they are the final two, the drama escalates every kill for all.
Then at the final duel, each participant is at 50% (still equal). Then there will be "only one" at 100%.
You can use this gradual increasing of powers to add random elements. Each child could respond equally, or maybe different children have variant reactions? Equal in power, but different in expression? | Perhaps It Has Something to Do With How the Barrier is Bypassed
---------------------------------------------------------------
Could be the Nylanders' avatar spirits are like enriched uranium to a fission core, or helium to a fusing star -- there's a certain critical amount (in this case 100%) that is required for the avatar material to fuse (or fission) into the deity. |
188,741 | nyarlathotep, the Black Pharaoh, seeks to enter the realm of Earth to rule over mankind. Unfortunately, he is prevented from doing so by a barrier that blocks eldritch deities from crossing over. To get around this, he breaks his soul up into thousands of pieces and seeds them into thousands unborn children. These kids become immortal avatars of Nyarlathotep called Nylanders, who do battle with each other over the centuries through one-on-one engagements to the death. When one is killed, the other "eats" the loser and gains their power and memories, absorbing them into themselves. When all pieces of the deity have joined, Nyarlathotep will become whole within one body and would be reborn on the mortal plane. In the end, there can be only one.
However, even though a Nylander can kill another of his kind and take his soul, he doesn't benefit personally. While he has gained the power and memories of the fallen, he is unable to gain access to any of it. The winner remains completely unchanged, making everyone on an even level when they do battle. This slows down the assembly process, stretching it out to centuries instead of a short period of time, and making it more difficult for the deity to unite its pieces.
What would be preventing these warriors from gaining the abilities of others after defeating them? | 2020/10/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188741",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/52361/"
] | As each child is killed/destroyed, the deity's powers are absorbed, but since all these children are of the same soul, they gain that power equally. There is no benefit to being the one who made the kill. So each child does gain in power, but equally, so there is no shift in power balance. A benefit of this is a child could be killed in any manner, not just by a Nylander, and no power would be lost.
A side effect would be that as children are killed, the rate of power absorption would increase each time. This might be an interesting thread, and it would give the remaining children an indication of the state of the game. The final two would know they are the final two, the drama escalates every kill for all.
Then at the final duel, each participant is at 50% (still equal). Then there will be "only one" at 100%.
You can use this gradual increasing of powers to add random elements. Each child could respond equally, or maybe different children have variant reactions? Equal in power, but different in expression? | They absorb the Power and Soul, but *not* the connection to it. In other words, they gain **capacity**, but not [**flux**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flux).
This means that the only benefit they gain is being able to use their powers *longer*, rather than *stronger* — they gain their victim's 'water tank', but not their 'hose', so their output remains unchanged.
Of course, with the limits on how much power each mortal can channel at a time, versus how fast they 'recharge', this may eventually hit a point of diminishing returns; if you are unable to use up your entire 'capacity' before you would keep over from exhaustion and lack of sleep, increasing it further has little meaningful benefit . |
1,369,119 | When it comes to how long SSD's and HDD's will last half of the people say it usually stays healthy for 3-5 years before they die, while the other half say "Even if you write 20 GB every day you can use it for a hundred years"
Who am I supposed to believe? They're completely opposites, it's almost as if one or the other is speaking fairy tales.
I recently bought a 2TB modern SSD and am worried if it'll fail three years from now, as I bought it based on price. I download 35GB a month on average (unless for some reason web browsing use should be included). | 2018/10/23 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1369119",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/956557/"
] | In real life, the truth is somewhere in between, but those saying 20 gig / day for 100 years are closer to the mark.
The Tech Report did a fairly [comprehensive study on SSD](https://techreport.com/review/27909/the-ssd-endurance-experiment-theyre-all-dead) longevity and found that for 240 GB disks, most failed after 1000 TB of data had been written (in the best case 2400 TB) - this is not to say the performance did not degrade. By my calculations, if the drive can perform 1000 TB of writes at 20 gigs / day, it will last almost 137 years. I do not believe this 137 years is realistic (and I've had some SSDs die on me, so this is a little more then just guessing)
But that's not the full picture - SSDs certainly slow down over time, and the larger the drive the more over provisioned it can be, so the more writes can be spread.
When I researched this before moving enterprise loads onto SSD, I concluded that -
* SSDs can handle lots of writes.
* SSDs have about 10x the reliability and 10x the performance of HDDs
* *When SSDs fail* they tend to do so without warning.
* I would expect an SSD to last more then 5 years - which is how long I would expect a computer to last.
Also worth mentioning, if you take an SSD and stick it in a closet (ie no power), it will eventually (after months or a few years) start loosing data.
Also, its not uncommon for SSDs to come with a [5 year warranty](https://www.samsung.com/semiconductor/minisite/ssd/support/warranty/). Enterprise drives often come with a 10 year warranty.
With respect of HDDs -
They are not as reliable as SSDs. Their failure rates are better understood as they have been around a lot longer. Consumer drives will likely last 3 years, with about a 20% per year chance of failing after that. A lot of this comes down to exact make and model and luck.
Enterprises consider HDDs as consumables and this is why RAID is fairly standard on servers and workstations. A company called BackBlaze publishes [annual reports](https://www.backblaze.com/blog/2018-hard-drive-failire-rates/) on their HDD experiences, which makes interesting reading. Last I read (which was long ago) Hitachi drives - now owned by Western Digital were reliable - every other brand was hit and miss - depending on model. Backup Blaze gave Seagate a reliability edge over WD - although my experiences in NZ are very different (but my sample size is statistically to small) | The oldest disks in existence are less than hundred years, so nobody could know whether a disk will last that long. It may be true given the guaranteed write amount or a SSD divided by 20GB/day usage, but there are other components that will probably fail sooner.
For HDDs, there is also mechanical wear to consider.
In general, you should assume that any drive, new or old, will fail at some point and keep a backup of your important data. |
63,632,380 | I have 2 segments on a lan (one for home stuff, the other for work), using 2 routers like this:
The line comes in to a BT-Business Smart Hub Type A which supplies a wireless lan of 10.1.0.\*
That's the first segment. IPv6 works fine on that.
The 2nd segment is made by connecting a second router at a lan port (on the BT router) with a static address of 10.1.0.253. This is a Netgear D6400 and it receives that line on its wan port. Its lan side address is 10.1.1.254 and it serves a work segment of 10.1.1.0/24.
All works well with IPv4 but I can't get it to deal with IPv6.
I have tried auto-config, passthrough, 6to4tunnel etc. but to no avail. Without going into ipv6 addresses, can this be answered simply?
Some reading on the web suggests that it is due to prefix delegation or lack of it on the BT Hub.
Is my IPv6 problem due to using a BT router, is it ever going to be possible, have I missed something?
Is the simplest answer to replace them both with a decent Draytek that can handle multiple vlans - that way I get my 2 segments, each with IPv6. But could that work the BT Aspire dongle that (theoretically) kicks in with a 4g connection if the line goes down? | 2020/08/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/63632380",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6311673/"
] | On my network I've solved this question with manual prefix on 2nd router, using DHCPv6 to stateful connection. I do a limit to range of modem/router without change the prefix (this device not support more then /64 to use DHCPv6), while on 2nd router I use the manually the same of prefix delegation to modem LAN and I've configurated DHCPv6 to stateful with limited range out of modem range.
After DHCPv6 finished, I set on modem a static route to my 2nd DHCPv6 prefix/124 and finish.
Example 1:
Modem IPv6 from ISP: 2001::1;
On modem:
* Prefix delegation (DHCP-PD) to LAN modem: 2001:1::/64;
* Set modem LAN address to ::1:1;
* Set DHCP stateful range between ::1:2 and :1:ff;
* Set IPv6 static route to 2nd router LAN range (ex: 2001:1::/124) and
gateway equal to 2nd router WAN IPv6 address;
On 2nd router:
* Disable DHCP-PD and set manually equal of modem LAN (if possible,
change the subnet value for above then /64 [ex: /124 used on static
route]);
* Set modem LAN address to ::1;
* Set DHCPv6 stateful range between ::2 and ::ff;
Finished.
Example 2:
* If supported by 2nd router, enable a NATv6 and use as IPv4.
I hope helped you. (Sorry by English) | I think you need a bigger block or more than /64 for multiple routers. You need to request /56 from your ISP and then you can have 256 Vlans. |
12,258 | We run a job tracking service as part of the company software. Reports are generated by SQL Server (Standard) Reporting Services usually daily but often as and when needed before meetings etc.
As the jobs progress their status changes and the details of the reports change. Due to the legacy of the front end application and the database we do not store as many milestones as needed for managers to look back at historical reports.
Managers quite often ask “Can we see where XYZ was last week?” or things like “Let’s have a look how Project1 was performing last June?” but running the reports on the Project1 database backup all show 100% complete as it is now finished.
What is the best way to enable historical reporting at a daily level with SQL Server Standard?
Ideally we’d like to keep 3 months of 5 different reports stored daily if possible? | 2012/02/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/12258",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/5687/"
] | If you have lost the historical data (i.e. it gets overwritten rather than stored as a transaction history) then you can't reconstruct the historical state - full stop. However, there are a few approaches to dealing with this.
1. Build an automated process that queries the system through SSRS or some other mechanism and saves the historical reports to an archive somewhere. SSRS exports a web service API that lets you run reports (paramaterised if necessary) and then save the output to a file. This can be operated by anything capable of consuming it.
2. Build an ETL process that takes a snapshot of the data and compares it with the previous snapshot position. Where changes are detected they can be written out to a historical table. If you have the option of putting triggers on the source database then you can make triggers that write out the audit logging information instead.
3. If you need something more elaborate then you could build a data mart - do a google search on 'type 2 slowly changing dimensions' for some ideas on how to implement this. You can use a change capture mechanism like that described in (2) to source the data as necessary. Either you can store the transaction history and reconstruct the status in the reports, or you can make a periodic snapshot of the data with its status at that point.
Note that Standard Edition doesn't support changed data capture. | If you only want the reports stored daily (and not the data itself), you can create your five reports and setup a daily subscription to be delivered to a file share. See [File Share Delivery in Reporting Services](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms159264%28v=sql.90%29.aspx "File Share Delivery in Reporting Services"). |
12,258 | We run a job tracking service as part of the company software. Reports are generated by SQL Server (Standard) Reporting Services usually daily but often as and when needed before meetings etc.
As the jobs progress their status changes and the details of the reports change. Due to the legacy of the front end application and the database we do not store as many milestones as needed for managers to look back at historical reports.
Managers quite often ask “Can we see where XYZ was last week?” or things like “Let’s have a look how Project1 was performing last June?” but running the reports on the Project1 database backup all show 100% complete as it is now finished.
What is the best way to enable historical reporting at a daily level with SQL Server Standard?
Ideally we’d like to keep 3 months of 5 different reports stored daily if possible? | 2012/02/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/12258",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/5687/"
] | If you have lost the historical data (i.e. it gets overwritten rather than stored as a transaction history) then you can't reconstruct the historical state - full stop. However, there are a few approaches to dealing with this.
1. Build an automated process that queries the system through SSRS or some other mechanism and saves the historical reports to an archive somewhere. SSRS exports a web service API that lets you run reports (paramaterised if necessary) and then save the output to a file. This can be operated by anything capable of consuming it.
2. Build an ETL process that takes a snapshot of the data and compares it with the previous snapshot position. Where changes are detected they can be written out to a historical table. If you have the option of putting triggers on the source database then you can make triggers that write out the audit logging information instead.
3. If you need something more elaborate then you could build a data mart - do a google search on 'type 2 slowly changing dimensions' for some ideas on how to implement this. You can use a change capture mechanism like that described in (2) to source the data as necessary. Either you can store the transaction history and reconstruct the status in the reports, or you can make a periodic snapshot of the data with its status at that point.
Note that Standard Edition doesn't support changed data capture. | I believe that you need parametrized reports in SSRS - with a date parameter for your report.
You will find the theoretical and practical details and some step by step tutorials about parameters in SSRS reports in the following articles:
* [Adding Parameters to Your Report](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms155917%28v=sql.100%29.aspx) on MSDN
* [Tutorial: Adding Parameters to a Report (SSRS)](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337432.aspx) on MSDN - here more specifically for your need would be the article ["Lesson 1: Adding Parameters to Filter Reports by Date (SSRS)"](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337401.aspx)
* [Using Report Parameters in SQL Server Reporting Services](http://www.sql-server-performance.com/2007/report-parameters/) - on www.sql-server-performance.com
* [Intro to Parameters and Parameterized Reports in SSRS](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vB9iDurRtRM) - video training from LearnItFirst.com. |
31,211 | In other words, it would be a site where you can "subscribe" to certain locations and then have the service email you if the weather forecast matches the kind of weather conditions you are looking for.
I believe a site like this would serve as a valuable tool for many types of photography, specifically in planning photo shoots and trips.
Sure, there might be value in just being out there and shooting even if the weather is not ideal. Indeed, often we are forced to make do with the conditions we are given. With that said, however, wouldn't it be great if you could expect with reasonable certainty your ideal weather conditions, and have it be sent to your inbox?
Just some examples I thought of where this would be useful:
* **Astrophotography**: When is the next weekend night there will be a *new moon*, on a *clear night*, at [certain location]?
* **Sunrise/Sunset**: When will it be *partly cloudy* at *golden hour* at [certain location]?
* **Outdoor Portrait**: When will it be *overcast*, *not windy*, and *not too cold* at [certain location]?
* **Seasonal photography**: How long do I have until the next storm comes in and wipes out the spring flowers (or autumn leaves)?
* (Many more examples, I'm sure!)
So, does anyone know of a site like this? :D | 2013/01/06 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/31211",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/11882/"
] | Look at the channel for weather here. I get an email to my phone for various weather presets I made.
<https://ifttt.com> | For extreme weather conditions (rain, really hot, really cold, snow) you can set up weather.com to send you text messages about it.
<http://www.weather.com/mobile/customtextmessaging.html> |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | I realized my comments were better suited as their own answer.
You are absolutely correct that a hooded lantern would be visible in the dark from any distance. *Assuming you had direct line of sight on the lantern.*
So if you are in an open empty field, or a very large open cavern, then you are right...there's no point to a hooded lantern.
However, you can only see light if you have line of sight on it. And, when seeing 'light' there are two things you may be seeing. You may either be seeing the source of the light (the lantern) or you may be seeing the area illuminated by the light.
So, where this becomes useful is in areas that do not have clear, long-distance visibility. Such as in a building, or a cave, or a forest, or city streets, or literally anywhere that is not an open field.
The way this works is this: If you have a hooded lantern and you have the hood up, you are casting a Sphere 60' aura of light around you. In an area with corners, doors, or any other obstruction that blocks line of sight, this means any creature that can see any part of that 60' radius aura of light...can see your light.
However, if you hood the lantern, that drops it to throwing off a radius 5' aura of light. Bearing in mind that spheres include their origin as part of the radius...this means that only the single square that the lantern is sitting in is illuminated, with a bit of bleed-over into the neighboring squares. This means that unless a creature gets line of sight on the squares immediately around the one the lantern is in, they cannot see the light.
There are several practical uses for this. While dungeoneering, the party can dim the lanterns to sneak up to a corner. If each party member carries a lantern, they can each see where the other is, and see the ground under their feet so they don't trip or anything...but no one around that corner can see them coming, because none of the light created by the lantern reaches around the corner to become visible. Then the elf sticks their head around the corner, using their Darkvision to see what's there...all without ever showing any light to the creatures around that corner.
On the other hand, if you wanted to try the same trick with a non-hooded lantern, the party members that can't see in the dark would have to stay 60' away from the corner, so that the light created by their lanterns didn't go past it and reveal their presence.
So, in summary...
Yes, a light is visible from a tremendous distance, IF you have line of sight on the light source, or anything the light source is illuminating. In an open field, this means dimming your light doesn't help much. But in an area with obstructions, dimming your lantern means you reduce the aura that is visible in the dark from a 60' sphere, to a 5' sphere. And given that this aura can shine past corners, under doors, through windows, and so on....reducing your light aura is very useful in areas with obstructed vision. | What makes a light visible to the eye? It's not the intensity of the light, it's your ability to pick it out from its surroundings.
Imagine a someone shining a flashlight against a white wall in direct sunlight on a bright, sunny day. That reflected flashlight beam will not be visible from very far away. Or imagine a street light that's lit, but directly between you and the sun. You may not even be able to tell it's lit.
Now imagine standing watch on a cloudy, moonless night. You will see someone taking a drag from their cigarette from a very great distance.
Those two examples show it's not about the light receptors in the eye, it's about the ability of the brain to spot variances in the visual field. Camouflage works by the same principle.
In World War II, car headlights were equipped with [hooded covers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Headlight_covers#Wartime_Origins_of_Headlight_Covers), very much the same as hooded lanterns. The covers prevented direct line of sight to the headlight from the air while still casting light on the road surface. This was so enemy aircraft would have a hard time identifying roads by watching the headlights travel down them.
The same concept logically holds for hooded lanterns. Hooding it denies you direct line of sight to the light source - all you have a chance to see is the (very dim) reflected light from the area of the light. Because the difference between the dark background and this reflected light is very small, the eye will have a hard time picking it out.
In my games I try to take all this into consideration. Assuming the players are in a pitch-black environment, my rough rule of thumb is that their light is visible at 10 times its farthest range. So if a lamp casts dim light to 60 feet, it can be spotted from 600. A hooded lantern in my game could be spotted within 50 feet. That number changes considerably in the players' favor if there's ambient light around them. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | What makes a light visible to the eye? It's not the intensity of the light, it's your ability to pick it out from its surroundings.
Imagine a someone shining a flashlight against a white wall in direct sunlight on a bright, sunny day. That reflected flashlight beam will not be visible from very far away. Or imagine a street light that's lit, but directly between you and the sun. You may not even be able to tell it's lit.
Now imagine standing watch on a cloudy, moonless night. You will see someone taking a drag from their cigarette from a very great distance.
Those two examples show it's not about the light receptors in the eye, it's about the ability of the brain to spot variances in the visual field. Camouflage works by the same principle.
In World War II, car headlights were equipped with [hooded covers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Headlight_covers#Wartime_Origins_of_Headlight_Covers), very much the same as hooded lanterns. The covers prevented direct line of sight to the headlight from the air while still casting light on the road surface. This was so enemy aircraft would have a hard time identifying roads by watching the headlights travel down them.
The same concept logically holds for hooded lanterns. Hooding it denies you direct line of sight to the light source - all you have a chance to see is the (very dim) reflected light from the area of the light. Because the difference between the dark background and this reflected light is very small, the eye will have a hard time picking it out.
In my games I try to take all this into consideration. Assuming the players are in a pitch-black environment, my rough rule of thumb is that their light is visible at 10 times its farthest range. So if a lamp casts dim light to 60 feet, it can be spotted from 600. A hooded lantern in my game could be spotted within 50 feet. That number changes considerably in the players' favor if there's ambient light around them. | It is pretty basic. A hooded lantern, when compared to a lamp, casts bright light in a 30' radius (versus 15' for a lamp) and dim light to 60' (versus 45' for a lamp). It can also be hooded (obviously). So it is a brighter omnidirectional light source and can be dimmed quickly, differentiating it from a lamp or a torch.
A BULLSEYE lantern is directional light, so obviously is more practical for adventuring (it may only announce your presence to anyone within eyesight who is also in the cone of light projected from the lamp). But it is more expensive and would be less practical for illuminating a room.
Depending on how rigid your DM is on the light rules, a bullseye lantern may not illuminate an area very well for combat purposes since it technically only illuminates a specific cone area, not a 360 degree sphere. So you NEED a hooded lantern (or lamp or torch) in order to light an area well enough for non-darkvision characters to be able to act normally. Hooding it could shroud an area in darkness (except for the dim light around the lantern), hampering enemies and allowing darkvision characters to have an advantage.
How light is detected within a dungeon is sorta vague in the rules, but I imagine most DMs would allow the hooded lantern (5' of dim light) to be more stealthy than the unhooded lantern, lamp, or torch.
Playing a virtual table top like roll20 that has light sources and shadows will quickly illustrate the differences between light sources and how critical they can be. When in a room the hooded lantern is far superior for allowing non-darkvision characters to act unimpeded, and the fact that it can be hooded when stealth is necessary and unhooded for combat or investigations is a fine quality versus the lamp, torch, or light cantrip. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | What makes a light visible to the eye? It's not the intensity of the light, it's your ability to pick it out from its surroundings.
Imagine a someone shining a flashlight against a white wall in direct sunlight on a bright, sunny day. That reflected flashlight beam will not be visible from very far away. Or imagine a street light that's lit, but directly between you and the sun. You may not even be able to tell it's lit.
Now imagine standing watch on a cloudy, moonless night. You will see someone taking a drag from their cigarette from a very great distance.
Those two examples show it's not about the light receptors in the eye, it's about the ability of the brain to spot variances in the visual field. Camouflage works by the same principle.
In World War II, car headlights were equipped with [hooded covers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Headlight_covers#Wartime_Origins_of_Headlight_Covers), very much the same as hooded lanterns. The covers prevented direct line of sight to the headlight from the air while still casting light on the road surface. This was so enemy aircraft would have a hard time identifying roads by watching the headlights travel down them.
The same concept logically holds for hooded lanterns. Hooding it denies you direct line of sight to the light source - all you have a chance to see is the (very dim) reflected light from the area of the light. Because the difference between the dark background and this reflected light is very small, the eye will have a hard time picking it out.
In my games I try to take all this into consideration. Assuming the players are in a pitch-black environment, my rough rule of thumb is that their light is visible at 10 times its farthest range. So if a lamp casts dim light to 60 feet, it can be spotted from 600. A hooded lantern in my game could be spotted within 50 feet. That number changes considerably in the players' favor if there's ambient light around them. | if your playing a way of shadow monk (and are trying to save ki by not self casting darkvision) you can hood your lantern allowing you to shadow step since in it's open state you in bright light where you can't step but hooded your in dim where you can this also applies to warlocks with the one with the shadows invocation or a rogue without darkvision trying to sneak (perception checks (that rely on sight) are made at disadvantage in dim light) |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | There's very little point in an open field, but in a dungeon reducing the light radius to 5ft can easily be enough to make sure it doesn't shine across the next corner. | It is pretty basic. A hooded lantern, when compared to a lamp, casts bright light in a 30' radius (versus 15' for a lamp) and dim light to 60' (versus 45' for a lamp). It can also be hooded (obviously). So it is a brighter omnidirectional light source and can be dimmed quickly, differentiating it from a lamp or a torch.
A BULLSEYE lantern is directional light, so obviously is more practical for adventuring (it may only announce your presence to anyone within eyesight who is also in the cone of light projected from the lamp). But it is more expensive and would be less practical for illuminating a room.
Depending on how rigid your DM is on the light rules, a bullseye lantern may not illuminate an area very well for combat purposes since it technically only illuminates a specific cone area, not a 360 degree sphere. So you NEED a hooded lantern (or lamp or torch) in order to light an area well enough for non-darkvision characters to be able to act normally. Hooding it could shroud an area in darkness (except for the dim light around the lantern), hampering enemies and allowing darkvision characters to have an advantage.
How light is detected within a dungeon is sorta vague in the rules, but I imagine most DMs would allow the hooded lantern (5' of dim light) to be more stealthy than the unhooded lantern, lamp, or torch.
Playing a virtual table top like roll20 that has light sources and shadows will quickly illustrate the differences between light sources and how critical they can be. When in a room the hooded lantern is far superior for allowing non-darkvision characters to act unimpeded, and the fact that it can be hooded when stealth is necessary and unhooded for combat or investigations is a fine quality versus the lamp, torch, or light cantrip. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | The point is to give your opponents disadvantage to passively perceive you.
If they are looking for you, yes, they will see the light, but do they happen to look your direction...i.e. Wisdom (Perception) check, the DM rolls at disadvantage for the creatures to notice the party by sight when approaching them.
Changing your light to dim (assuming no other light sources), places you in Dim light "also called shadows, creates a lightly obscured area." p183Phb
This gives you disadvantage on Wisdom (Perception) checks that rely on sight.
It should also give others disadvantage on their passive ability check to notice you in a lightly obscured area.
This would allow a wood elf to hide based on their race feature.
It also makes it more difficult to notice you when you sneak up on a group of creatures you can see (imagine a group by a campfire at night). You might get close enough to attack at range or surprise them. | The lantern is more than just a point of light. It illuminates everything in a specified area. The errata helps slightly to clarify the intent of the rules, namely that the visibility/obscurity of an object is dependent on the lighting condition of the object, not the observer. You are not actually blinded, but *effectively* blinded with regards to a heavily obscured object *when trying to see that object.* When can infer from that errata that the conditions for dim and bright light apply to objects when trying to see them as well.
If you have direct line on sight on the lantern, hooding it won't hide it - it's not useful in an open field, for example. On the other hand, if you're in a dungeon and you're carrying an unhooded lantern, everything within 60 feet will be lit with either bright or dim light. That includes walls and floors. You'll see the wall of an upcoming corner from 60 feet, but that also means that someone around the corner will be able to see that those surfaces are illuminated and will know that someone or something with a light source is around the corner. Hooding the lantern lets you move about and control what you reveal to things hiding in the dark. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | A hooded lamp's light is easier to cover than a standard lamp. It allows for quicker dousing of light without actually dousing the lamp.
Imagine you're carrying a torch in a dungeon. You hear a commotion up ahead. You don't want to be spotted. You douse your torch. You're seen anyways. You have no light.
Now with a hooded lamp.
Imagine you're carrying a hooded lamp in a dungeon. You hear a commotion up ahead. You don't want to be spotted. You hood your lamp. You're seen anyways. You unhood your lamp. You have light. | It is pretty basic. A hooded lantern, when compared to a lamp, casts bright light in a 30' radius (versus 15' for a lamp) and dim light to 60' (versus 45' for a lamp). It can also be hooded (obviously). So it is a brighter omnidirectional light source and can be dimmed quickly, differentiating it from a lamp or a torch.
A BULLSEYE lantern is directional light, so obviously is more practical for adventuring (it may only announce your presence to anyone within eyesight who is also in the cone of light projected from the lamp). But it is more expensive and would be less practical for illuminating a room.
Depending on how rigid your DM is on the light rules, a bullseye lantern may not illuminate an area very well for combat purposes since it technically only illuminates a specific cone area, not a 360 degree sphere. So you NEED a hooded lantern (or lamp or torch) in order to light an area well enough for non-darkvision characters to be able to act normally. Hooding it could shroud an area in darkness (except for the dim light around the lantern), hampering enemies and allowing darkvision characters to have an advantage.
How light is detected within a dungeon is sorta vague in the rules, but I imagine most DMs would allow the hooded lantern (5' of dim light) to be more stealthy than the unhooded lantern, lamp, or torch.
Playing a virtual table top like roll20 that has light sources and shadows will quickly illustrate the differences between light sources and how critical they can be. When in a room the hooded lantern is far superior for allowing non-darkvision characters to act unimpeded, and the fact that it can be hooded when stealth is necessary and unhooded for combat or investigations is a fine quality versus the lamp, torch, or light cantrip. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | I realized my comments were better suited as their own answer.
You are absolutely correct that a hooded lantern would be visible in the dark from any distance. *Assuming you had direct line of sight on the lantern.*
So if you are in an open empty field, or a very large open cavern, then you are right...there's no point to a hooded lantern.
However, you can only see light if you have line of sight on it. And, when seeing 'light' there are two things you may be seeing. You may either be seeing the source of the light (the lantern) or you may be seeing the area illuminated by the light.
So, where this becomes useful is in areas that do not have clear, long-distance visibility. Such as in a building, or a cave, or a forest, or city streets, or literally anywhere that is not an open field.
The way this works is this: If you have a hooded lantern and you have the hood up, you are casting a Sphere 60' aura of light around you. In an area with corners, doors, or any other obstruction that blocks line of sight, this means any creature that can see any part of that 60' radius aura of light...can see your light.
However, if you hood the lantern, that drops it to throwing off a radius 5' aura of light. Bearing in mind that spheres include their origin as part of the radius...this means that only the single square that the lantern is sitting in is illuminated, with a bit of bleed-over into the neighboring squares. This means that unless a creature gets line of sight on the squares immediately around the one the lantern is in, they cannot see the light.
There are several practical uses for this. While dungeoneering, the party can dim the lanterns to sneak up to a corner. If each party member carries a lantern, they can each see where the other is, and see the ground under their feet so they don't trip or anything...but no one around that corner can see them coming, because none of the light created by the lantern reaches around the corner to become visible. Then the elf sticks their head around the corner, using their Darkvision to see what's there...all without ever showing any light to the creatures around that corner.
On the other hand, if you wanted to try the same trick with a non-hooded lantern, the party members that can't see in the dark would have to stay 60' away from the corner, so that the light created by their lanterns didn't go past it and reveal their presence.
So, in summary...
Yes, a light is visible from a tremendous distance, IF you have line of sight on the light source, or anything the light source is illuminating. In an open field, this means dimming your light doesn't help much. But in an area with obstructions, dimming your lantern means you reduce the aura that is visible in the dark from a 60' sphere, to a 5' sphere. And given that this aura can shine past corners, under doors, through windows, and so on....reducing your light aura is very useful in areas with obstructed vision. | It is pretty basic. A hooded lantern, when compared to a lamp, casts bright light in a 30' radius (versus 15' for a lamp) and dim light to 60' (versus 45' for a lamp). It can also be hooded (obviously). So it is a brighter omnidirectional light source and can be dimmed quickly, differentiating it from a lamp or a torch.
A BULLSEYE lantern is directional light, so obviously is more practical for adventuring (it may only announce your presence to anyone within eyesight who is also in the cone of light projected from the lamp). But it is more expensive and would be less practical for illuminating a room.
Depending on how rigid your DM is on the light rules, a bullseye lantern may not illuminate an area very well for combat purposes since it technically only illuminates a specific cone area, not a 360 degree sphere. So you NEED a hooded lantern (or lamp or torch) in order to light an area well enough for non-darkvision characters to be able to act normally. Hooding it could shroud an area in darkness (except for the dim light around the lantern), hampering enemies and allowing darkvision characters to have an advantage.
How light is detected within a dungeon is sorta vague in the rules, but I imagine most DMs would allow the hooded lantern (5' of dim light) to be more stealthy than the unhooded lantern, lamp, or torch.
Playing a virtual table top like roll20 that has light sources and shadows will quickly illustrate the differences between light sources and how critical they can be. When in a room the hooded lantern is far superior for allowing non-darkvision characters to act unimpeded, and the fact that it can be hooded when stealth is necessary and unhooded for combat or investigations is a fine quality versus the lamp, torch, or light cantrip. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | Another factor: When the light is bright it illuminates everyone in range of it--letting them be targeted by foes in the darkness. Dimmed it illuminates only the lantern carrier, denying the enemy any knowledge of the rest of the party even if they see the lantern. | It is pretty basic. A hooded lantern, when compared to a lamp, casts bright light in a 30' radius (versus 15' for a lamp) and dim light to 60' (versus 45' for a lamp). It can also be hooded (obviously). So it is a brighter omnidirectional light source and can be dimmed quickly, differentiating it from a lamp or a torch.
A BULLSEYE lantern is directional light, so obviously is more practical for adventuring (it may only announce your presence to anyone within eyesight who is also in the cone of light projected from the lamp). But it is more expensive and would be less practical for illuminating a room.
Depending on how rigid your DM is on the light rules, a bullseye lantern may not illuminate an area very well for combat purposes since it technically only illuminates a specific cone area, not a 360 degree sphere. So you NEED a hooded lantern (or lamp or torch) in order to light an area well enough for non-darkvision characters to be able to act normally. Hooding it could shroud an area in darkness (except for the dim light around the lantern), hampering enemies and allowing darkvision characters to have an advantage.
How light is detected within a dungeon is sorta vague in the rules, but I imagine most DMs would allow the hooded lantern (5' of dim light) to be more stealthy than the unhooded lantern, lamp, or torch.
Playing a virtual table top like roll20 that has light sources and shadows will quickly illustrate the differences between light sources and how critical they can be. When in a room the hooded lantern is far superior for allowing non-darkvision characters to act unimpeded, and the fact that it can be hooded when stealth is necessary and unhooded for combat or investigations is a fine quality versus the lamp, torch, or light cantrip. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | There's very little point in an open field, but in a dungeon reducing the light radius to 5ft can easily be enough to make sure it doesn't shine across the next corner. | The lantern is more than just a point of light. It illuminates everything in a specified area. The errata helps slightly to clarify the intent of the rules, namely that the visibility/obscurity of an object is dependent on the lighting condition of the object, not the observer. You are not actually blinded, but *effectively* blinded with regards to a heavily obscured object *when trying to see that object.* When can infer from that errata that the conditions for dim and bright light apply to objects when trying to see them as well.
If you have direct line on sight on the lantern, hooding it won't hide it - it's not useful in an open field, for example. On the other hand, if you're in a dungeon and you're carrying an unhooded lantern, everything within 60 feet will be lit with either bright or dim light. That includes walls and floors. You'll see the wall of an upcoming corner from 60 feet, but that also means that someone around the corner will be able to see that those surfaces are illuminated and will know that someone or something with a light source is around the corner. Hooding the lantern lets you move about and control what you reveal to things hiding in the dark. |
93,857 | From the PHB, p. 152:
>
> [**Lantern, Hooded.**](https://www.dndbeyond.com/equipment/lantern-hooded) A hooded lantern casts bright light
> in a 30-foot radius and dim light for an additional 30
> feet. Once lit, it burns for 6 hours on a flask (1 pint) of
> oil. As an action, you can lower the hood, reducing the
> light to dim light in a 5-foot radius.
>
>
>
[PHB errata](https://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/PH-Errata-V1.pdf) says that you are not supposed to be "blinded by darkness", but can't see anything that is concealed by the darkness:
>
> **Vision and Light (p. 183).** A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.
>
>
>
But when you are in the darkness yourself, you can see things that are not. That means that a hooded lamp will be visible, since it still creates a lit area around.
Assuming that your foes [will see the light at any range](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/62785/27377) regardless, what is the point of reducing the lit area? | 2017/01/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93857",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/27377/"
] | There's very little point in an open field, but in a dungeon reducing the light radius to 5ft can easily be enough to make sure it doesn't shine across the next corner. | The point is to give your opponents disadvantage to passively perceive you.
If they are looking for you, yes, they will see the light, but do they happen to look your direction...i.e. Wisdom (Perception) check, the DM rolls at disadvantage for the creatures to notice the party by sight when approaching them.
Changing your light to dim (assuming no other light sources), places you in Dim light "also called shadows, creates a lightly obscured area." p183Phb
This gives you disadvantage on Wisdom (Perception) checks that rely on sight.
It should also give others disadvantage on their passive ability check to notice you in a lightly obscured area.
This would allow a wood elf to hide based on their race feature.
It also makes it more difficult to notice you when you sneak up on a group of creatures you can see (imagine a group by a campfire at night). You might get close enough to attack at range or surprise them. |
31,667 | I used masking for breaking an image into the below pattern. Now that it's broken into different pieces I need to make a rectangle of each piece. I need to drag the broken pieces and adjust to the correct position so I can reconstruct the image. To drag and put at the right position I need to make the pieces rectangles but I am not getting the idea of how to make rectangles out of these irregular shapes. How can I make rectangles for manipulating these pieces?
This is a follow up to my [previous question](https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/27650/how-do-i-break-an-image-into-6-or-8-pieces-of-different-shapes).
 | 2012/07/05 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/31667",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/13142/"
] | Since you're using static patterns for breaking the image up, you can use static defined rectangles too. Simply pre-define the bounds for each rectangle by manually checking the placement for each. As shown in the image I gave you before, the rectangles should just be the minimum size required to enclose each shape. | I also recommend using predefined rectangles as byte56 recommended; but if you insist to dynamically create those rectangles, you can easily check what are the most left, most right, most up and most bottom pixel in your pattern. their coordinates will define edges of your rectangle. |
11,037,062 | I am looking to develop a website which features a chat facility between a website visitor and the website administrator.
I know the best way to do this would be using XMPP, however I have no experience using it. I am looking to implement this using PHP.
I've downloaded XMPPHP and I edited an example to send a message to my Google Chat client in GMail, but when I reply Google tells me the other end didn't get the message.
So far, the most informative tutorial is <http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/tutorials/x-realtimeXMPPtut/> but I don't understand why I need to install 'Openfire' nor do I want to build the website on my local machine.
Can somebody please tell me what I need (and more importantly, why) to set up this project so I can start to build the code for it? | 2012/06/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11037062",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1187252/"
] | Judging from comments to other answers I am going tell you why, and a little what, but not give you a solution because I see a ton of solutions in the "Related" sidebar. You will have to pick the right one and by knowing "the why" you will be able to make an educated decision.
For chat to feel right, there has to be some immediacy to the responses. A one second lag in time will be noticeable to users over time and give a sense of untimeliness. To make immediate or "real time" responses work in a browser requires a persistent connection so that when new information comes in, it immediately shows up.
Persistent connections in browsers are difficult due to the request/response specifications of HTTP. There are specifications in work to bring persistent connections to browsers but those browsers are not ubiquitous. In the future persistent connections will be supplied by [WebSockets](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/WebSocket) and [SPDY](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SPDY), both of which are available in the latest versions of Chrome, Safari and FireFox with IE lagging a bit.
Another option for persistent connections is [XMPP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/XMPP). XMPP is the protocol used for the Jabber chat client. Since it is an open source implementation it has been ported to many other uses. JavaScript libraries exist that allow you to connect a browser to an XMPP socket and listen for new messages. The method I have seen in the past is to send the messages to the web server, and then have the web server tell the XMPP server about the new message which then broadcasts the new message out to all of the users. However, this requires an XMPP server which raises the complexity of system.
Most users are not on the bleeding edge of browser versions so you will need to be able to handle older browsers. Most of the alternatives involve opening a long running connection to the server which responds whenever new data arrives. Here is a list of methods for simulating a persistent connection in older browsers:
* Adobe Flash Socket
* ActiveX HTMLFile (IE)
* Server-Sent Events (Opera)
* XHR with multipart encoding
* XHR with long-polling
These older methods, and WebSockets, are supported by a library called [Juggernaut](https://github.com/maccman/juggernaut).
***UPDATE*** [Juggernaut has been deprecated by the maintainer](http://blog.alexmaccaw.com/killing-a-library), for good reason: modern browsers support persistent connections out of the box (with the exception of IE of course) through a specification called Server-Sent Events (SSE). Backwards compatibility is now handled by polyfills ([What is a polyfill?](http://remysharp.com/2010/10/08/what-is-a-polyfill/)) and as the deprecation post notes, there are a couple of good ones to bring SSE to legacy browsers. | There are loads of resources out there which can help you with this. A quick Google search brings up the following:
<http://sixrevisions.com/tools/10-free-website-chat-widgets-to-make-your-site-interactive/>
<http://www.phpfreechat.net/>
<http://net.tutsplus.com/tutorials/javascript-ajax/how-to-create-a-simple-web-based-chat-application/> |
11,037,062 | I am looking to develop a website which features a chat facility between a website visitor and the website administrator.
I know the best way to do this would be using XMPP, however I have no experience using it. I am looking to implement this using PHP.
I've downloaded XMPPHP and I edited an example to send a message to my Google Chat client in GMail, but when I reply Google tells me the other end didn't get the message.
So far, the most informative tutorial is <http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/tutorials/x-realtimeXMPPtut/> but I don't understand why I need to install 'Openfire' nor do I want to build the website on my local machine.
Can somebody please tell me what I need (and more importantly, why) to set up this project so I can start to build the code for it? | 2012/06/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11037062",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1187252/"
] | Judging from comments to other answers I am going tell you why, and a little what, but not give you a solution because I see a ton of solutions in the "Related" sidebar. You will have to pick the right one and by knowing "the why" you will be able to make an educated decision.
For chat to feel right, there has to be some immediacy to the responses. A one second lag in time will be noticeable to users over time and give a sense of untimeliness. To make immediate or "real time" responses work in a browser requires a persistent connection so that when new information comes in, it immediately shows up.
Persistent connections in browsers are difficult due to the request/response specifications of HTTP. There are specifications in work to bring persistent connections to browsers but those browsers are not ubiquitous. In the future persistent connections will be supplied by [WebSockets](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/WebSocket) and [SPDY](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SPDY), both of which are available in the latest versions of Chrome, Safari and FireFox with IE lagging a bit.
Another option for persistent connections is [XMPP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/XMPP). XMPP is the protocol used for the Jabber chat client. Since it is an open source implementation it has been ported to many other uses. JavaScript libraries exist that allow you to connect a browser to an XMPP socket and listen for new messages. The method I have seen in the past is to send the messages to the web server, and then have the web server tell the XMPP server about the new message which then broadcasts the new message out to all of the users. However, this requires an XMPP server which raises the complexity of system.
Most users are not on the bleeding edge of browser versions so you will need to be able to handle older browsers. Most of the alternatives involve opening a long running connection to the server which responds whenever new data arrives. Here is a list of methods for simulating a persistent connection in older browsers:
* Adobe Flash Socket
* ActiveX HTMLFile (IE)
* Server-Sent Events (Opera)
* XHR with multipart encoding
* XHR with long-polling
These older methods, and WebSockets, are supported by a library called [Juggernaut](https://github.com/maccman/juggernaut).
***UPDATE*** [Juggernaut has been deprecated by the maintainer](http://blog.alexmaccaw.com/killing-a-library), for good reason: modern browsers support persistent connections out of the box (with the exception of IE of course) through a specification called Server-Sent Events (SSE). Backwards compatibility is now handled by polyfills ([What is a polyfill?](http://remysharp.com/2010/10/08/what-is-a-polyfill/)) and as the deprecation post notes, there are a couple of good ones to bring SSE to legacy browsers. | Instant Messaging apps are supposed to be real time. A website works on HTTP protocol which uses request/response method. One way to do it is POLLING. send a request for new pending messages for the user to the server. The server should be able to differentiate between the messages which has been sent and the ones which are yet to be delivered. this method is called Polling. Your browser is constantly asking the server to send any pending messages.
But this may waste bandwidth and also drain battery ( in case the website is accessed using a smartphone ). Better option is to still use the XMPP server. |
5,268,372 | I am creating a web page in which users can click on a + button to add a new text box, enter some text and choose to reorder textboxes (I plan on using JQuery sortable). They can also delete textboxes as and when they please.
My question is should I be persisting the changes they are making as and when they make a change (by doing a ajax call) or should I have a Save button that the user would click to save the changes they have made. In the latter approach, I need to maintain all the changes on the client side and persist the state when they click on Save (and I feel this approach is more performant)
Any thoughts on what approach to use? | 2011/03/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5268372",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/62245/"
] | It depends on if the UI leads the user to believe their changes will or will not be lost. Meaning, if they perform the sorts, deletes...etc and close the browser or loose connectivity for whatever reason, will they be upset about losing those changes? If yes, then AJAX and persist all changes. | I would save the changes on the client and possibly have some form of 'save draft' function that periodically saved the data to a temporary location on the server so the user doesn't loose all their data if something goes wrong. Alternatively, cookies could be used as another temporary storage area. |
5,268,372 | I am creating a web page in which users can click on a + button to add a new text box, enter some text and choose to reorder textboxes (I plan on using JQuery sortable). They can also delete textboxes as and when they please.
My question is should I be persisting the changes they are making as and when they make a change (by doing a ajax call) or should I have a Save button that the user would click to save the changes they have made. In the latter approach, I need to maintain all the changes on the client side and persist the state when they click on Save (and I feel this approach is more performant)
Any thoughts on what approach to use? | 2011/03/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5268372",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/62245/"
] | It depends on if the UI leads the user to believe their changes will or will not be lost. Meaning, if they perform the sorts, deletes...etc and close the browser or loose connectivity for whatever reason, will they be upset about losing those changes? If yes, then AJAX and persist all changes. | *This issue actually has nothing to do with jQuery - it is a usability design issue.*
From a user perspective, I like how Google Docs saves my progress as I go along. As a developer, I know that is more complicated to code.
You ultimately have to think about how the user will be using this table - are they using it as a scratchpad and want the control of saving? Or do they need up-to-the-second saves done for them? |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | The thing is, in Israel everyone has an accent, and we laugh at each other, it's nothing personal, it's like a national sport. Or yo momma yokes.
The high school I was in had Russian, Hungarian, Ethiopian (Amharic), English, Persian etc. accents and we teased each other about it all the time. And there were the tzabars (the natives, heh) but they also had accents - sefardi vs ashkenazi pronounciation and so on.
We had a lot of fun teasing each other with accents, stereotypical jokes and stuff like that. As long as it isn't done maliciously, don't fret about it, and no need to be self-concious about it. You're making efforts to learn the language instead of speaking English with everyone - it is usually appreciated.
About getting rid of the accent - from personal experience, learning a few languages at the same time helps, if in your HC they teach Arabic or French, (usually those are the choices in addition to the English) then go for it, it'll help a lot. | **Laughter** isn't [necessarily] bad. This varies by culture, by context and by individual, and it's very easy to assume that non-verbal communication (as well as paralanguage) mean the same for others as it does for you. Ideally you can train yourself to first assume the best and maybe even laugh with them, or back at them. Another option is to engage a few "laughers" in a short polite conversation. Yet another to ask a more "rooted" friend to interpret a few situations and responses for you.
If it were a work place, the canonical suggestion is to talk to those individuals one-to-one, where you learn that individual's background/context and way of thinking, as he or she does yours. It may very well happen that those kids will be **looking up to you** soon :)
Other strategies include:
* get ahead (give a presentation, then everyone knows your background)
* moral high ground (speak English to them)
* deflection (laugh about anything with your friends)
* peer pressure (conspire with others / m.o.s.)
* confusion (just smile)
* confusion prime (talk to them as if they are your friends) |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | I just want to raise a perspective that wasn't necessarily brought up by Edlothiad.
For many of these kids, hearing someone with an accent in their language is very different. They may be looking at the pronunciation of your words, your grammar and so on.
They're not doing it to be mean, it's because they genuinely think that it's funny. Behaviours like this are completely natural - it's a difference to them, and it's a learning curve for you. The laugh doesn't mean "Oh haha! You're so bad." It's a way of teaching you that is fun and appreciative of your efforts. As someone who fluently speaks two languages, and who is learning more, I can almost guarantee that this is the case.
If it starts bothering you to the point you are getting annoyed, feel free to speak up. Depending on your personality, something like "Hey! Quit it!" would do. If you bump into them fairly infrequently, it's probably not a big deal.
Otherwise, take it in a positive light. You're there to learn. And as Edlothiad said in his answer, use this as a motivator to improve your proficiency in the language you are learning. | The thing is, in Israel everyone has an accent, and we laugh at each other, it's nothing personal, it's like a national sport. Or yo momma yokes.
The high school I was in had Russian, Hungarian, Ethiopian (Amharic), English, Persian etc. accents and we teased each other about it all the time. And there were the tzabars (the natives, heh) but they also had accents - sefardi vs ashkenazi pronounciation and so on.
We had a lot of fun teasing each other with accents, stereotypical jokes and stuff like that. As long as it isn't done maliciously, don't fret about it, and no need to be self-concious about it. You're making efforts to learn the language instead of speaking English with everyone - it is usually appreciated.
About getting rid of the accent - from personal experience, learning a few languages at the same time helps, if in your HC they teach Arabic or French, (usually those are the choices in addition to the English) then go for it, it'll help a lot. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | I just want to raise a perspective that wasn't necessarily brought up by Edlothiad.
For many of these kids, hearing someone with an accent in their language is very different. They may be looking at the pronunciation of your words, your grammar and so on.
They're not doing it to be mean, it's because they genuinely think that it's funny. Behaviours like this are completely natural - it's a difference to them, and it's a learning curve for you. The laugh doesn't mean "Oh haha! You're so bad." It's a way of teaching you that is fun and appreciative of your efforts. As someone who fluently speaks two languages, and who is learning more, I can almost guarantee that this is the case.
If it starts bothering you to the point you are getting annoyed, feel free to speak up. Depending on your personality, something like "Hey! Quit it!" would do. If you bump into them fairly infrequently, it's probably not a big deal.
Otherwise, take it in a positive light. You're there to learn. And as Edlothiad said in his answer, use this as a motivator to improve your proficiency in the language you are learning. | **Laughter** isn't [necessarily] bad. This varies by culture, by context and by individual, and it's very easy to assume that non-verbal communication (as well as paralanguage) mean the same for others as it does for you. Ideally you can train yourself to first assume the best and maybe even laugh with them, or back at them. Another option is to engage a few "laughers" in a short polite conversation. Yet another to ask a more "rooted" friend to interpret a few situations and responses for you.
If it were a work place, the canonical suggestion is to talk to those individuals one-to-one, where you learn that individual's background/context and way of thinking, as he or she does yours. It may very well happen that those kids will be **looking up to you** soon :)
Other strategies include:
* get ahead (give a presentation, then everyone knows your background)
* moral high ground (speak English to them)
* deflection (laugh about anything with your friends)
* peer pressure (conspire with others / m.o.s.)
* confusion (just smile)
* confusion prime (talk to them as if they are your friends) |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | ### Kids laugh at almost anything they find unusual.
Your accent is just that. Unusual. Perhaps like the others said, it'll be an indication for you that you've improved your accent when they stop laughing. Take it as a positive thing. It's not like they're bullying you for this.
I've seen people laugh at Indians' accents when they speak English. But it's not because it's terrible. It's just a sort of automatic response to hearing something unusual.
I for one grew up in the Middle East (Dubai, currently) and I've met people of all sorts of accents speak English here. It'll take time to get used to hearing new accents. Let this not worry you much.
If people were intentionally harassing you, that would have been something requiring more careful consideration. This now is just kids being kids, and they're not doing this to hurt you intentionally. | The thing is, in Israel everyone has an accent, and we laugh at each other, it's nothing personal, it's like a national sport. Or yo momma yokes.
The high school I was in had Russian, Hungarian, Ethiopian (Amharic), English, Persian etc. accents and we teased each other about it all the time. And there were the tzabars (the natives, heh) but they also had accents - sefardi vs ashkenazi pronounciation and so on.
We had a lot of fun teasing each other with accents, stereotypical jokes and stuff like that. As long as it isn't done maliciously, don't fret about it, and no need to be self-concious about it. You're making efforts to learn the language instead of speaking English with everyone - it is usually appreciated.
About getting rid of the accent - from personal experience, learning a few languages at the same time helps, if in your HC they teach Arabic or French, (usually those are the choices in addition to the English) then go for it, it'll help a lot. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | In Switzerland,we have the same thing with different dialects of swiss german. Everyone laughs about everyone (especially about the guys from zurich and st. gallen). As I moved to a different region, I had to hear a lot of silly comments about my dialect too. On the other hand, I myself laugh and crack jokes about other swiss dialects. It's just something pretty much everyone does. Taking stuff like this serious is definitely the wrong approach. Just learn to laugh about it too. After that you don't really notice it/ care anymore. | **Laughter** isn't [necessarily] bad. This varies by culture, by context and by individual, and it's very easy to assume that non-verbal communication (as well as paralanguage) mean the same for others as it does for you. Ideally you can train yourself to first assume the best and maybe even laugh with them, or back at them. Another option is to engage a few "laughers" in a short polite conversation. Yet another to ask a more "rooted" friend to interpret a few situations and responses for you.
If it were a work place, the canonical suggestion is to talk to those individuals one-to-one, where you learn that individual's background/context and way of thinking, as he or she does yours. It may very well happen that those kids will be **looking up to you** soon :)
Other strategies include:
* get ahead (give a presentation, then everyone knows your background)
* moral high ground (speak English to them)
* deflection (laugh about anything with your friends)
* peer pressure (conspire with others / m.o.s.)
* confusion (just smile)
* confusion prime (talk to them as if they are your friends) |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | I just want to raise a perspective that wasn't necessarily brought up by Edlothiad.
For many of these kids, hearing someone with an accent in their language is very different. They may be looking at the pronunciation of your words, your grammar and so on.
They're not doing it to be mean, it's because they genuinely think that it's funny. Behaviours like this are completely natural - it's a difference to them, and it's a learning curve for you. The laugh doesn't mean "Oh haha! You're so bad." It's a way of teaching you that is fun and appreciative of your efforts. As someone who fluently speaks two languages, and who is learning more, I can almost guarantee that this is the case.
If it starts bothering you to the point you are getting annoyed, feel free to speak up. Depending on your personality, something like "Hey! Quit it!" would do. If you bump into them fairly infrequently, it's probably not a big deal.
Otherwise, take it in a positive light. You're there to learn. And as Edlothiad said in his answer, use this as a motivator to improve your proficiency in the language you are learning. | In Switzerland,we have the same thing with different dialects of swiss german. Everyone laughs about everyone (especially about the guys from zurich and st. gallen). As I moved to a different region, I had to hear a lot of silly comments about my dialect too. On the other hand, I myself laugh and crack jokes about other swiss dialects. It's just something pretty much everyone does. Taking stuff like this serious is definitely the wrong approach. Just learn to laugh about it too. After that you don't really notice it/ care anymore. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | ### Kids laugh at almost anything they find unusual.
Your accent is just that. Unusual. Perhaps like the others said, it'll be an indication for you that you've improved your accent when they stop laughing. Take it as a positive thing. It's not like they're bullying you for this.
I've seen people laugh at Indians' accents when they speak English. But it's not because it's terrible. It's just a sort of automatic response to hearing something unusual.
I for one grew up in the Middle East (Dubai, currently) and I've met people of all sorts of accents speak English here. It'll take time to get used to hearing new accents. Let this not worry you much.
If people were intentionally harassing you, that would have been something requiring more careful consideration. This now is just kids being kids, and they're not doing this to hurt you intentionally. | Work on your speech but realize that you will always have an accent. Since you're young, the better chances you will speak more like those around you the more you talk to them. So don't respond by speaking to them less or your accent won't improve as much. Every region has a different accent, especially here in the U.S. and in the Southern U.S. where I'm at, there are many different southern accents. It seems like everyone has a different amount of "southern draw". People with a lot of "draw" even sound funny to me and I've lived here all my life. You may always sound funny to some people if the accents there are varied much. Try not to take the teasing seriously or personal. Many people do impressions of accents for fun. I like trying to speak in a British accent. Maybe you should have fun with it and respond by trying to speak in a thicker accent or a foreign accent. That way you show them that it doesn't bother you and you can laugh at yourself. Accents should be a matter of pride unless you're from the Southern U.S. lol jk. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | Just be proud of the fact you're putting in the effort to try and improve your accent. If anything it'll be a great way for you to know when you've successfully gotten rid of your accent.
Having been in the same situation as you in a country where no one spoke my mother-tongue. When anyone thought to laugh I let them. I sometimes do the same when I hear someone with a strong accent speaking English. It's amusing because it's different.
As long as they don't do it maliciously take it on the chin. You're doing your best to learn another language and you should be proud of the fact that you are.
Note: This applies to any skill you're trying to learn. Be it learning the piano or working out in the gym. People are going to see you're not as good as them and laugh. Use it as motivation to get better and prove them wrong. | In Switzerland,we have the same thing with different dialects of swiss german. Everyone laughs about everyone (especially about the guys from zurich and st. gallen). As I moved to a different region, I had to hear a lot of silly comments about my dialect too. On the other hand, I myself laugh and crack jokes about other swiss dialects. It's just something pretty much everyone does. Taking stuff like this serious is definitely the wrong approach. Just learn to laugh about it too. After that you don't really notice it/ care anymore. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | ### Kids laugh at almost anything they find unusual.
Your accent is just that. Unusual. Perhaps like the others said, it'll be an indication for you that you've improved your accent when they stop laughing. Take it as a positive thing. It's not like they're bullying you for this.
I've seen people laugh at Indians' accents when they speak English. But it's not because it's terrible. It's just a sort of automatic response to hearing something unusual.
I for one grew up in the Middle East (Dubai, currently) and I've met people of all sorts of accents speak English here. It'll take time to get used to hearing new accents. Let this not worry you much.
If people were intentionally harassing you, that would have been something requiring more careful consideration. This now is just kids being kids, and they're not doing this to hurt you intentionally. | In Switzerland,we have the same thing with different dialects of swiss german. Everyone laughs about everyone (especially about the guys from zurich and st. gallen). As I moved to a different region, I had to hear a lot of silly comments about my dialect too. On the other hand, I myself laugh and crack jokes about other swiss dialects. It's just something pretty much everyone does. Taking stuff like this serious is definitely the wrong approach. Just learn to laugh about it too. After that you don't really notice it/ care anymore. |
766 | I'm an American. I moved to Israel. My Hebrew is OK, but I don't speak it perfectly. I also have... quite a strong accent. I'm trying to work on it, but it's there and fairly noticeable.
Sometimes I'm talking - in a public space - to some kids my age (15), and some kids a few years younger than me (13/14 - not like a kindergartener) walk past. They pass by, and then they start laughing at my accent. Not *too* much - just for a minute, and not *really* in a mean way.
I don't think it was meant maliciously (they aren't bad kids), it was just like a social thing. These aren't kids that I interact with frequently, either - say around twice a month we bump into each other.
**How do I respond in a way that will both express that I don't appreciate the laughter as well as not escalating the situation?**
What do I keep in mind? What is a good general approach in this type of situation? | 2017/07/22 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/766",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/31/"
] | Just be proud of the fact you're putting in the effort to try and improve your accent. If anything it'll be a great way for you to know when you've successfully gotten rid of your accent.
Having been in the same situation as you in a country where no one spoke my mother-tongue. When anyone thought to laugh I let them. I sometimes do the same when I hear someone with a strong accent speaking English. It's amusing because it's different.
As long as they don't do it maliciously take it on the chin. You're doing your best to learn another language and you should be proud of the fact that you are.
Note: This applies to any skill you're trying to learn. Be it learning the piano or working out in the gym. People are going to see you're not as good as them and laugh. Use it as motivation to get better and prove them wrong. | The thing is, in Israel everyone has an accent, and we laugh at each other, it's nothing personal, it's like a national sport. Or yo momma yokes.
The high school I was in had Russian, Hungarian, Ethiopian (Amharic), English, Persian etc. accents and we teased each other about it all the time. And there were the tzabars (the natives, heh) but they also had accents - sefardi vs ashkenazi pronounciation and so on.
We had a lot of fun teasing each other with accents, stereotypical jokes and stuff like that. As long as it isn't done maliciously, don't fret about it, and no need to be self-concious about it. You're making efforts to learn the language instead of speaking English with everyone - it is usually appreciated.
About getting rid of the accent - from personal experience, learning a few languages at the same time helps, if in your HC they teach Arabic or French, (usually those are the choices in addition to the English) then go for it, it'll help a lot. |
51,852 | >
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tF9SF.png)
>
>
>
I'd like to know if the claims about murders are accurate.
The "3rd in murders" is clearly referring to absolute deaths by murder, as it can be seen [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate), USA holds the 96th position for rate of intentional homicide.
So if the murders from these cities were removed from statistics, would the USA change its position from being the 3rd to being the 189th of 193 countries (as countries we consider the 193 members states of the UN)? | 2021/06/09 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/51852",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/26319/"
] | **This is false** no matter what way you try to frame it.
Using the 2019 crime stats:
**Murders**
* US: 15020 [[1](https://ucr.fbi.gov/crime-in-the-u.s/2019/crime-in-the-u.s.-2019/tables/table-12)]
* Chicago: 491 [[2](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline)]
* Detroit: 273 [[3](https://apnews.com/article/c43536132a0996ba53d763cae281c084)]
* New Orleans: 120 [[4](https://www.wdsu.com/article/new-orleans-murders-in-2019-what-the-data-tells-us/30899265)]
* St. Louis: 194 [[5](https://www.stltoday.com/news/local/crime-and-courts/2019-homicide-total-is-second-highest-of-decade-for-st-louis/article_c1b0d1e9-8ae8-5025-8130-df8e8e539af6.html)]
* Washington DC: 166 [[6](https://mpdc.dc.gov/page/district-crime-data-glance)]
These cities have a combined census population of 4.67m (out of 308.75m for the USA), which is ~1.5% of the total US population [[7](https://www.census.gov/quickfacts/fact/table/detroitcitymichigan,neworleanscitylouisiana,washingtoncitydistrictofcolumbia,stlouiscitymissouri,chicagocityillinois,US/POP010220)]
Removing those 5 cities brings the murder total from 15,020 to 13,776 - an 8% drop (the total murder rate goes from 4.9 per 100,000 to 4.5 per 100,000).
Based on the link in the original question [[8](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate)], the ranking of the US wouldn't change in absolute numbers:
* Nigeria 17,843
* United States 16,214
* Colombia Americas 12,586
But would probably drop several positions in rate:
* United States 4.96
* Kenya 4.93
* Angola 4.85
* Micronesia 4.67
* Lithuania 4.57
* Niger 4.44 | This is not possible based on the information given. The link you provided has the US at 6th with 16,214 murders and 189th place is a 3 way tie with 9 murders each.
Using this data that would require that those 6 cities accounted for all but 9 murders in the country.
If you look at the overall stats for the country you will find this is impossible.
<https://www.cbsnews.com/pictures/murder-map-deadliest-u-s-cities/2/>
>
> The murder rate in Baltimore is 58.27 per 100,000.
>
>
> |
51,852 | >
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tF9SF.png)
>
>
>
I'd like to know if the claims about murders are accurate.
The "3rd in murders" is clearly referring to absolute deaths by murder, as it can be seen [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate), USA holds the 96th position for rate of intentional homicide.
So if the murders from these cities were removed from statistics, would the USA change its position from being the 3rd to being the 189th of 193 countries (as countries we consider the 193 members states of the UN)? | 2021/06/09 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/51852",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/26319/"
] | **This is false** no matter what way you try to frame it.
Using the 2019 crime stats:
**Murders**
* US: 15020 [[1](https://ucr.fbi.gov/crime-in-the-u.s/2019/crime-in-the-u.s.-2019/tables/table-12)]
* Chicago: 491 [[2](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline)]
* Detroit: 273 [[3](https://apnews.com/article/c43536132a0996ba53d763cae281c084)]
* New Orleans: 120 [[4](https://www.wdsu.com/article/new-orleans-murders-in-2019-what-the-data-tells-us/30899265)]
* St. Louis: 194 [[5](https://www.stltoday.com/news/local/crime-and-courts/2019-homicide-total-is-second-highest-of-decade-for-st-louis/article_c1b0d1e9-8ae8-5025-8130-df8e8e539af6.html)]
* Washington DC: 166 [[6](https://mpdc.dc.gov/page/district-crime-data-glance)]
These cities have a combined census population of 4.67m (out of 308.75m for the USA), which is ~1.5% of the total US population [[7](https://www.census.gov/quickfacts/fact/table/detroitcitymichigan,neworleanscitylouisiana,washingtoncitydistrictofcolumbia,stlouiscitymissouri,chicagocityillinois,US/POP010220)]
Removing those 5 cities brings the murder total from 15,020 to 13,776 - an 8% drop (the total murder rate goes from 4.9 per 100,000 to 4.5 per 100,000).
Based on the link in the original question [[8](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate)], the ranking of the US wouldn't change in absolute numbers:
* Nigeria 17,843
* United States 16,214
* Colombia Americas 12,586
But would probably drop several positions in rate:
* United States 4.96
* Kenya 4.93
* Angola 4.85
* Micronesia 4.67
* Lithuania 4.57
* Niger 4.44 | The meme is unclear
-------------------
It is not clear whether the meme is talking about absolute numbers or per capita murder rates. I'll talk about both.
The meme does not distinguish murder vs homicide
------------------------------------------------
The first thing to note is that murder is a legal term, not equivalent to homicide. Murder does not include accidents or various manslaughter that led to homicide without malicious intent. In short, murder ⊂ homicide. The distinction isn't made in the meme.
For simplicity, I'll focus on murders only.
The intentions of the meme creator is politically-driven and fallacious
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
People who made the meme and who are spreading it are attempting to impress the concept that liberal-run cities with strict gun laws actually result in higher than average murder rates without providing additional substantive context, and thus committing a correlation fallacy, *non causa pro causa*.
Their point is that gun laws don't stop violent crime, as a means to maintain popular support for ownership of firearms, but they don't bother to analyze what percentage of the crime is committed with a gun, nor do they simulate what the violent crime rates would be if those laws were not in place.
The data do not support the meme
--------------------------------
Putting this aside, the statistics simply don't support the assertion.
| City/Country | Murders | Population | Murder Rate |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| 1. Chicago | 491 [[2019]](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline) | 2,694,000 | ~ 18.23 per 100,000 [[2019]](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline) |
| 2. Detroit | 272 | 674,841 | ~ 40.31 per 100,000 |
| 3. D.C. | 166 [[2019]](https://www.disastercenter.com/crime/dccrime.htm) | 692,683 | ~ 23.96 per 100,000 [[2019]](https://www.disastercenter.com/crime/dccrime.htm) |
| 4. St. Louis | ≤ 194 [[2019]](https://www.riverfronttimes.com/newsblog/2020/12/29/reckoning-with-st-louis-historic-year-of-homicides) | 308,174 | ~ 62.95 per 100,000 |
| 5. New Orleans | 121 | 390,845 | ~ 30.95 per 100,000 |
| City/Country | Murders | Population | Murder Rate |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| U.S. (all) | 16,425 [[2019, FBI]](https://ucr.fbi.gov/crime-in-the-u.s/2019/crime-in-the-u.s.-2019/topic-pages/murder) | 328,240,000 [[2019, World Bank]](https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SP.POP.TOTL?locations=US) | ~ 5.005 per 100,000 |
| U.S. ( – 5 cities) | 15,181 | ~ 323,479,500 | ~ 4.693 per 100,000 |
So removing those 5 cities does impact the murder rate nationwide, but not as significantly as the meme framers are professing.
In the fairyland tale where the U.S. doesn't have the five cities, it might be better than Kenya or Angola, but other than that, there is no noticeable improvement in terms of world rankings or whatever:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qgLux.png) |
51,852 | >
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tF9SF.png)
>
>
>
I'd like to know if the claims about murders are accurate.
The "3rd in murders" is clearly referring to absolute deaths by murder, as it can be seen [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intentional_homicide_rate), USA holds the 96th position for rate of intentional homicide.
So if the murders from these cities were removed from statistics, would the USA change its position from being the 3rd to being the 189th of 193 countries (as countries we consider the 193 members states of the UN)? | 2021/06/09 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/51852",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/26319/"
] | This is not possible based on the information given. The link you provided has the US at 6th with 16,214 murders and 189th place is a 3 way tie with 9 murders each.
Using this data that would require that those 6 cities accounted for all but 9 murders in the country.
If you look at the overall stats for the country you will find this is impossible.
<https://www.cbsnews.com/pictures/murder-map-deadliest-u-s-cities/2/>
>
> The murder rate in Baltimore is 58.27 per 100,000.
>
>
> | The meme is unclear
-------------------
It is not clear whether the meme is talking about absolute numbers or per capita murder rates. I'll talk about both.
The meme does not distinguish murder vs homicide
------------------------------------------------
The first thing to note is that murder is a legal term, not equivalent to homicide. Murder does not include accidents or various manslaughter that led to homicide without malicious intent. In short, murder ⊂ homicide. The distinction isn't made in the meme.
For simplicity, I'll focus on murders only.
The intentions of the meme creator is politically-driven and fallacious
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
People who made the meme and who are spreading it are attempting to impress the concept that liberal-run cities with strict gun laws actually result in higher than average murder rates without providing additional substantive context, and thus committing a correlation fallacy, *non causa pro causa*.
Their point is that gun laws don't stop violent crime, as a means to maintain popular support for ownership of firearms, but they don't bother to analyze what percentage of the crime is committed with a gun, nor do they simulate what the violent crime rates would be if those laws were not in place.
The data do not support the meme
--------------------------------
Putting this aside, the statistics simply don't support the assertion.
| City/Country | Murders | Population | Murder Rate |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| 1. Chicago | 491 [[2019]](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline) | 2,694,000 | ~ 18.23 per 100,000 [[2019]](https://chicago.suntimes.com/crime/2019/12/30/21043526/chicago-homicides-murders-2019-decline) |
| 2. Detroit | 272 | 674,841 | ~ 40.31 per 100,000 |
| 3. D.C. | 166 [[2019]](https://www.disastercenter.com/crime/dccrime.htm) | 692,683 | ~ 23.96 per 100,000 [[2019]](https://www.disastercenter.com/crime/dccrime.htm) |
| 4. St. Louis | ≤ 194 [[2019]](https://www.riverfronttimes.com/newsblog/2020/12/29/reckoning-with-st-louis-historic-year-of-homicides) | 308,174 | ~ 62.95 per 100,000 |
| 5. New Orleans | 121 | 390,845 | ~ 30.95 per 100,000 |
| City/Country | Murders | Population | Murder Rate |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| U.S. (all) | 16,425 [[2019, FBI]](https://ucr.fbi.gov/crime-in-the-u.s/2019/crime-in-the-u.s.-2019/topic-pages/murder) | 328,240,000 [[2019, World Bank]](https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SP.POP.TOTL?locations=US) | ~ 5.005 per 100,000 |
| U.S. ( – 5 cities) | 15,181 | ~ 323,479,500 | ~ 4.693 per 100,000 |
So removing those 5 cities does impact the murder rate nationwide, but not as significantly as the meme framers are professing.
In the fairyland tale where the U.S. doesn't have the five cities, it might be better than Kenya or Angola, but other than that, there is no noticeable improvement in terms of world rankings or whatever:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qgLux.png) |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | You need the "from"; without it, you might be implying that you yourself were broken into pieces!
The grammar rules are: "*Separate*", as a standalone verb, speaks of one united thing being divided. This is true whether it's transitive ("I separated the bread into slices") or intransitive ("The cell separated, forming two new cells"). The verb "*separate*" can also be used as you're doing here, to talk about segregating or parting two or more things that are already distinct; this use is a [prepositional verb](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/grammar/british-grammar/phrasal-verbs-and-multi-word-verbs) and requires "*from*": "I separated the pebbles from the beans." "The car's engine has been separated from the frame."
By the way, I hope you intend a poetic and unusual word order; a normal syntax might be "I will return to the place I was once separated from." The inverted syntax is perfectly acceptable under poetic license, as long as you want a lofty or poetic tone. | It is really, **really**, like dude, **REALLY** tricky to make this sound natural and native.
The trouble is this:
In English, it's relatively common to **"adopt" an "archaic, formal" poise**.
It sits in a place between **plain humor**, and a certain soul-felt seriousness.
You sometimes do it to emphasize the importance, quality, of what you're saying; other times more for humor.
In the phrase in question, you have definitely done that.
You're trying to be "a native English speaker, adopting a more formal, traditional, " ' Shakespearean ' " tone ...
Maybe something like:
>
> To the place from which I was separated, I will one day return.
>
>
>
or what about
>
> I have been separated from a place. But I tell you this, one day I will return to that place.
>
>
>
or maybe
>
> I'll return one day, to that place, they took me from.
>
>
>
Just one huge problem you face: many phrases in English are ***incredibly***, like ***spectacularly***, overloaded with, let's say, social-historical meaning.
It's utterly impossible in English to utter or write "Get Back" without invoking the Beatles song. And you can't utter or write "I will return" without invoking the McArthur thing (google if necessary). Which would seem to have absolutely no stylistic connection to your writing piece, so, it's tricky.
This is a really, really difficult issue in English. No native contemporary writer would ever, ever, type "I will return" without considering the military/socio-historic milieu. It's tough! |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | You need the "from"; without it, you might be implying that you yourself were broken into pieces!
The grammar rules are: "*Separate*", as a standalone verb, speaks of one united thing being divided. This is true whether it's transitive ("I separated the bread into slices") or intransitive ("The cell separated, forming two new cells"). The verb "*separate*" can also be used as you're doing here, to talk about segregating or parting two or more things that are already distinct; this use is a [prepositional verb](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/grammar/british-grammar/phrasal-verbs-and-multi-word-verbs) and requires "*from*": "I separated the pebbles from the beans." "The car's engine has been separated from the frame."
By the way, I hope you intend a poetic and unusual word order; a normal syntax might be "I will return to the place I was once separated from." The inverted syntax is perfectly acceptable under poetic license, as long as you want a lofty or poetic tone. | If you want a nice archaic sound, try "the place whence I was separated" ("From whence" is redundant. Miss Adelaide (in "Guys and Dolls") famously used it -- but so did Shakespeare and Jane Austen.) Or maybe "taken," or even "reft"? |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | You need the "from"; without it, you might be implying that you yourself were broken into pieces!
The grammar rules are: "*Separate*", as a standalone verb, speaks of one united thing being divided. This is true whether it's transitive ("I separated the bread into slices") or intransitive ("The cell separated, forming two new cells"). The verb "*separate*" can also be used as you're doing here, to talk about segregating or parting two or more things that are already distinct; this use is a [prepositional verb](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/grammar/british-grammar/phrasal-verbs-and-multi-word-verbs) and requires "*from*": "I separated the pebbles from the beans." "The car's engine has been separated from the frame."
By the way, I hope you intend a poetic and unusual word order; a normal syntax might be "I will return to the place I was once separated from." The inverted syntax is perfectly acceptable under poetic license, as long as you want a lofty or poetic tone. | to the place I was once separated, I will return.
Poetic rewrite version:
To the place from which or from where I was once separated, I will return.
Regular rewrite version:
I will return to the place from which or from where I was once separated.
to be separated **from a place**. |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | If you want a nice archaic sound, try "the place whence I was separated" ("From whence" is redundant. Miss Adelaide (in "Guys and Dolls") famously used it -- but so did Shakespeare and Jane Austen.) Or maybe "taken," or even "reft"? | It is really, **really**, like dude, **REALLY** tricky to make this sound natural and native.
The trouble is this:
In English, it's relatively common to **"adopt" an "archaic, formal" poise**.
It sits in a place between **plain humor**, and a certain soul-felt seriousness.
You sometimes do it to emphasize the importance, quality, of what you're saying; other times more for humor.
In the phrase in question, you have definitely done that.
You're trying to be "a native English speaker, adopting a more formal, traditional, " ' Shakespearean ' " tone ...
Maybe something like:
>
> To the place from which I was separated, I will one day return.
>
>
>
or what about
>
> I have been separated from a place. But I tell you this, one day I will return to that place.
>
>
>
or maybe
>
> I'll return one day, to that place, they took me from.
>
>
>
Just one huge problem you face: many phrases in English are ***incredibly***, like ***spectacularly***, overloaded with, let's say, social-historical meaning.
It's utterly impossible in English to utter or write "Get Back" without invoking the Beatles song. And you can't utter or write "I will return" without invoking the McArthur thing (google if necessary). Which would seem to have absolutely no stylistic connection to your writing piece, so, it's tricky.
This is a really, really difficult issue in English. No native contemporary writer would ever, ever, type "I will return" without considering the military/socio-historic milieu. It's tough! |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | to the place I was once separated, I will return.
Poetic rewrite version:
To the place from which or from where I was once separated, I will return.
Regular rewrite version:
I will return to the place from which or from where I was once separated.
to be separated **from a place**. | It is really, **really**, like dude, **REALLY** tricky to make this sound natural and native.
The trouble is this:
In English, it's relatively common to **"adopt" an "archaic, formal" poise**.
It sits in a place between **plain humor**, and a certain soul-felt seriousness.
You sometimes do it to emphasize the importance, quality, of what you're saying; other times more for humor.
In the phrase in question, you have definitely done that.
You're trying to be "a native English speaker, adopting a more formal, traditional, " ' Shakespearean ' " tone ...
Maybe something like:
>
> To the place from which I was separated, I will one day return.
>
>
>
or what about
>
> I have been separated from a place. But I tell you this, one day I will return to that place.
>
>
>
or maybe
>
> I'll return one day, to that place, they took me from.
>
>
>
Just one huge problem you face: many phrases in English are ***incredibly***, like ***spectacularly***, overloaded with, let's say, social-historical meaning.
It's utterly impossible in English to utter or write "Get Back" without invoking the Beatles song. And you can't utter or write "I will return" without invoking the McArthur thing (google if necessary). Which would seem to have absolutely no stylistic connection to your writing piece, so, it's tricky.
This is a really, really difficult issue in English. No native contemporary writer would ever, ever, type "I will return" without considering the military/socio-historic milieu. It's tough! |
298,882 | I'm writing a story and I want to use the line
>
> to the place I was once separated, I will return.
>
>
>
Now my question is, do I have to use "separated *from*" or can I simply keep it as "separated." | 2021/09/29 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/298882",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144124/"
] | If you want a nice archaic sound, try "the place whence I was separated" ("From whence" is redundant. Miss Adelaide (in "Guys and Dolls") famously used it -- but so did Shakespeare and Jane Austen.) Or maybe "taken," or even "reft"? | to the place I was once separated, I will return.
Poetic rewrite version:
To the place from which or from where I was once separated, I will return.
Regular rewrite version:
I will return to the place from which or from where I was once separated.
to be separated **from a place**. |
3,113 | I am using XeTeX to encode Opentype fonts. One of the feature of opentype font is availability of Private Use Area.
*Generally, Private Use Area in most cases contains different variants of same characters and different ligatures. It also contains characters that has not been defined by Unicode.
This Private Use Area comes in great application when encoding many Indic Texts(Sanskrit and others), which have many variants of same text and many more text left to be encoded by Unicode. So, font provider supply those characters in Private Use Area.*
**Question**: How do I access Private Use Area by using fontspec in XeTeX ?
Yes! I check the manual of fontspec but didn't seem to find this ?
Any help would be appreciated. | 2010/09/15 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/3113",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/1036/"
] | It has nothing to do with macro expansion but with grouping: Cells in a tabular build a group. You are starting an environment in one group and close it in the next. Use better a command \production. | I suppose having separate *prod1* and *prodn* production commands would allow \\ to be automatically inserted: make *prodn* prepend \\. |
51,924,233 | We have an old repair database that has alot of relational tables and it works as it should but i need to update it to be able to handle different clients ( areas ) - currenty this is done as a single client only.
So i need to extend the tables and the sql statements so ex i can login as user A and he will see his own system only and user B will have his own system too.
Is it correctly understood that you wouldnt create new tables for each client but just add a clientID to every record in every ( base ) table and then just filter with a clientid in all sql statements to be able to achieve multiple clients ?
Is this also something that would work ( how is it done ) on hosted solutions ? Am worried about performance if thats an issue lets say i had 500 clients ( i wont but from a theoretic viewpoint ) ? | 2018/08/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/51924233",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7868246/"
] | The normal situation is to add a client key to each table where appropriate. Many tables don't need them -- such as reference tables.
This is preferred for many reasons:
* You have the data for all clients in one place, so you can readily answers a question such as "what is the average X for each client".
* If you change the data structure, then it affects all clients at the same time.
* Your backup and restore strategy is only implemented once.
* Your optimization is only implemented once.
This is not always the best solution. You might have requirements that specify that data must be separated -- in which case, each client should be in a separate database. However, indexes on the additional keys are probably a minor consideration and you shouldn't worry about it. | This question has been asked before. The problem with adding the key to every table is that you say you have a working system, and this means every query needs to be updated.
Probably the easiest is to create a new database for each client, so that the only thing you need to change is the connection string. This also means you can get automated query tools for example to work without worrying about cross-client data leakage.
And it also allows you to backup, transfer, delete a single client easily as well.
There are of course pros and cons to this approach, but it will simplify the development effort. Also remember that if you plan to spin it up in a cloud environment then spinning up databases like this is also very easy. |
227,554 | I am doing some remodeling, and I got an old ugly GFCI outlet with a switch in the middle of the wall. The outlet was next to a sink, but now even the sink is gone and not coming back. I don't need that outlet there, and I just want to remove it, isolate wires, and patch the hole. Is it safe to do? Here is how it is now:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hteiL.jpg)
And this is what I want to do before I patch that hole:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tNs7a.jpg) | 2021/06/19 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/227554",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/116367/"
] | You cannot sheetrock or otherwise cover over the electrical box, but you can remove the outlet and put a cover plate over the box. You can paint the cover plate.
But per electric code in the US, you cannot hide a junction box in the wall. It has to have an accessible plate. You could hang a picture over it, I guess.
If you are able to trace the wires back to their source and pull them out of the box altogether, so the box is empty, then you can leave the box in the wall and hide it (since it has no wires in it). | It is ok to remove the GFCI outlet because the kitchen counter is no longer there. You also need to make sure that that outlet was not feeding and protecting another outlet. Since there were only two wires attached to it, it was not feeding another outlet.
If you have removed the counter and created a new wall space, you need to be sure that an outlet is not required in that wall space. If a wall space is more than 2 feet wide, every point along the wall must be within 6 feet of an outlet. You might need to install an outlet near the floor below the one that you removed. |
81,263 | Is inline edit good UX? Which is a better way to edit a grid, providing an inline edit option or providing a view below the grid, (display additional details and provide editable fields)? | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/81263",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/43186/"
] | There's 2 factors to think about when deciding which type of editing format to use: Speed of Update and Complexity/Dependency within the data.
---
Speedy entry of simple independent data: use Inline Edit
--------------------------------------------------------
If speed of updating *individual* pieces of information is important, then inline editing hands down beats editing sections. User can click into the section and directly edit a cell. Whereas with section edit, the user needs to reorientate themselves to find the field of interest before they can edit it.
Editing of more complex dataset with dependencies: use Section Edit
-------------------------------------------------------------------
However, if the data you're dealing with is tightly coupled to other data fields and/or user tend to edit the info together as a whole, then section edit may be a better choice. Showing data as a group makes it easier to present dependencies (e.g. the data in one field affects valid values of another field) to the user and allowing them to better edit a set of fields as a group. | I think:
In systems where forms or data grids are used by Account Managers or data entry personnel, Inline Edit is very useful. Opening a Modal or a an expanded view creates multiple clicks for the user and is considered time consuming.
When the same information is presented to the End user, a view or modal may be the right thing to do.
Also it totally depends on the number of editable fields. |
1,851,520 | Is there an easy way to determine what a file is by its extension in C#? For example if I pass a file extension of ".txt" then it will return "Text Document" or if I pass it ".pdf" it will return "Adobe Acrobat Reader". I see this behavior built into Windows Explorer, under the "Type" column. Is there a way to mimic this in C#? | 2009/12/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1851520",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/98094/"
] | Use the [Registry class](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/microsoft.win32.registry.aspx) to query the HKCR hive. | Check the registry; you can get that data from there |
1,851,520 | Is there an easy way to determine what a file is by its extension in C#? For example if I pass a file extension of ".txt" then it will return "Text Document" or if I pass it ".pdf" it will return "Adobe Acrobat Reader". I see this behavior built into Windows Explorer, under the "Type" column. Is there a way to mimic this in C#? | 2009/12/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1851520",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/98094/"
] | Have a look at this class
[C# FileAssociation Class](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/AF_FileAssociation.aspx) | Check the registry; you can get that data from there |
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