qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | **There is no information as to a meaning to C.C. or V.V other than to hide their real names.**
There is some information about the planning stages of Code Geass having C2 name as Cera or Sera but I never saw any official information to back that up other than random websites.
In regards C2:
Well if you want the reference from the anime alone, I don't think it was ever revealed, there was a scene where she does say her name involuntarily in her sleep at episode 11 around 18 minutes of the first season, but the name it self is never revealed to us and is covered with droplet of water sound instead.
She whispers her name
She confirms it was her name
Further in he also calls her name right after saying "I learned something interesting because of that" in reference of staying/saving her which was not necessary. And again her name is censored.
Further in she also asks him to call her name again which he does however again its muted/censored.
So to this point the name is only known to Lelouch!
---
In regards V2:
On episode 21 of the second season around 5 minutes and 20 seconds Lelouch's mother tell a set of events of the past along with Charles however V2 name is again never revealed.
 | With the release of chapter 40 of the manga "Code Geass: Renya of Darkness", we now know that these names had no relation to the original names, but instead followed an alphabetical naming sequence. This is shown when C.C. says that the successor or "U.U." would be called V.V.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XilWh.png) |
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | **There is no information as to a meaning to C.C. or V.V other than to hide their real names.**
There is some information about the planning stages of Code Geass having C2 name as Cera or Sera but I never saw any official information to back that up other than random websites.
In regards C2:
Well if you want the reference from the anime alone, I don't think it was ever revealed, there was a scene where she does say her name involuntarily in her sleep at episode 11 around 18 minutes of the first season, but the name it self is never revealed to us and is covered with droplet of water sound instead.
She whispers her name
She confirms it was her name
Further in he also calls her name right after saying "I learned something interesting because of that" in reference of staying/saving her which was not necessary. And again her name is censored.
Further in she also asks him to call her name again which he does however again its muted/censored.
So to this point the name is only known to Lelouch!
---
In regards V2:
On episode 21 of the second season around 5 minutes and 20 seconds Lelouch's mother tell a set of events of the past along with Charles however V2 name is again never revealed.
 | Spoilers Code Geass movies and series
>
> In the 2019 movie Code Geass Lelouch of the Re;surrection (Re;surrection), Lelouch takes on the name L.L. This suggests C.C. and V.V. are based on real names that begin with, resp, C and V.
>
>
> |
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | **There is no information as to a meaning to C.C. or V.V other than to hide their real names.**
There is some information about the planning stages of Code Geass having C2 name as Cera or Sera but I never saw any official information to back that up other than random websites.
In regards C2:
Well if you want the reference from the anime alone, I don't think it was ever revealed, there was a scene where she does say her name involuntarily in her sleep at episode 11 around 18 minutes of the first season, but the name it self is never revealed to us and is covered with droplet of water sound instead.
She whispers her name
She confirms it was her name
Further in he also calls her name right after saying "I learned something interesting because of that" in reference of staying/saving her which was not necessary. And again her name is censored.
Further in she also asks him to call her name again which he does however again its muted/censored.
So to this point the name is only known to Lelouch!
---
In regards V2:
On episode 21 of the second season around 5 minutes and 20 seconds Lelouch's mother tell a set of events of the past along with Charles however V2 name is again never revealed.
 | If you can read lips, at some point Lelouch correctly guesses the name of C.C:
 |
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | With the release of chapter 40 of the manga "Code Geass: Renya of Darkness", we now know that these names had no relation to the original names, but instead followed an alphabetical naming sequence. This is shown when C.C. says that the successor or "U.U." would be called V.V.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XilWh.png) | Spoilers Code Geass movies and series
>
> In the 2019 movie Code Geass Lelouch of the Re;surrection (Re;surrection), Lelouch takes on the name L.L. This suggests C.C. and V.V. are based on real names that begin with, resp, C and V.
>
>
> |
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | With the release of chapter 40 of the manga "Code Geass: Renya of Darkness", we now know that these names had no relation to the original names, but instead followed an alphabetical naming sequence. This is shown when C.C. says that the successor or "U.U." would be called V.V.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XilWh.png) | If you can read lips, at some point Lelouch correctly guesses the name of C.C:
 |
13,157 | *Disclaimer: I am not asking about speculation on C.C's (or V.V's) real names*
In Code Geass, C.C implies that she abandoned her real name and has since forgotten it
>
> Lelouch, do you know why Snow is white? it's because it has forgotten it's name
>
>
>
When talking to Lelouch about if she was human she says that if she wanted to be seen as human she would have **a more human name**, as if she hinting that her name C.C was something she chose. V.V also shares the same kind of name but nothing is ever said about it.
in Etrian Odyssey Untold, the AI in charge for firing Gungnir and Ricky's friend is named Mike however is spelled as M.I.K.E which stands for **M**emetic **I**nstallation **K**eeper **E**ngine.
So i am wondering, does C.C and V.V stand for anything? | 2014/07/29 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13157",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/1587/"
] | If you can read lips, at some point Lelouch correctly guesses the name of C.C:
 | Spoilers Code Geass movies and series
>
> In the 2019 movie Code Geass Lelouch of the Re;surrection (Re;surrection), Lelouch takes on the name L.L. This suggests C.C. and V.V. are based on real names that begin with, resp, C and V.
>
>
> |
1,057,450 | I'm a heavy speech recognition user, due to issues with my hands causing much pain. I've been trying to get a command written for Dragon that will launch the Command Prompt in the currently active Windows Explorer window, but can't seem to get it right.
I own the v14 Pro version of Dragon, I also have Vocola / Natlink, and Unimacro installed.
What I have tried so far is creating a custom step by step command that launches command prompt with the start location set to %~dp0
However, that seems to merely launch the cmd with my desktop directory, I'm not sure what's going on there.
I'm not very knowledgeable in the realms of VBScripting, so I've not tried that, now am I certain how to accomplish it with Vocola. I'll continue doing research on this, but in hoping someone here may be able to shorten my search. | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1057450",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/575321/"
] | Not exactly. According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wi-Fi#Wi-Fi_radio_spectrum), some countries allow more bands than the USA's 1 - 11. Australia, specifically, adds two more channels. So if you use a US-licensed WiFi device, you may not be able to connect to a few networks in Australia. | I think that wifi is wifi, and the signal for that should remain the same no matter where you are. So, yes, I think you can use a wifi dongle in any country. I think that's what you were asking anyways. |
1,057,450 | I'm a heavy speech recognition user, due to issues with my hands causing much pain. I've been trying to get a command written for Dragon that will launch the Command Prompt in the currently active Windows Explorer window, but can't seem to get it right.
I own the v14 Pro version of Dragon, I also have Vocola / Natlink, and Unimacro installed.
What I have tried so far is creating a custom step by step command that launches command prompt with the start location set to %~dp0
However, that seems to merely launch the cmd with my desktop directory, I'm not sure what's going on there.
I'm not very knowledgeable in the realms of VBScripting, so I've not tried that, now am I certain how to accomplish it with Vocola. I'll continue doing research on this, but in hoping someone here may be able to shorten my search. | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1057450",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/575321/"
] | It really depends on the drivers and how the OS handles it. Apple for example uses wifi devices that can access all 802.11b/g/n channels, but limits it to US channels when in the US, UK channels in the UK, Japanese Channels in Japan. I Cannot access channel 14 when my location is set to US, as the US does not allow channel 14. It physically **can** work, but won't due to a user selectable setting.
Your device should be fine though. Windows doesn't discriminate like OS X does. Apple goes beyond the necessary all the time. If anything, the device will not accept, connect to, or show the channels beyond the default US ones, which may be inconvenient if you move around a lot, but easily fixed on a home router.
I will update on the Australia vs US differences later, if any. | I think that wifi is wifi, and the signal for that should remain the same no matter where you are. So, yes, I think you can use a wifi dongle in any country. I think that's what you were asking anyways. |
118,166 | Are there any differences between "ascribe" and "attribute" when used as "because of"?
The following two sentences, which one sounds more natural?
>
> The fall in the number of deaths from heart disease is generally
> attributed to improvements in diet.
>
>
> The fall in the number of deaths from heart disease is generally
> ascribed to improvements in diet.
>
>
>
Thanks. | 2013/07/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/118166",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2581/"
] | Whether they mean the same or not is easily ascertained:
>
> [ODO]
>
>
> **[ascribe](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/ascribe?q=ascribe)** *verb* [*with object*] (**ascribe something to**)
>
> regard something as being due to (a cause):
>
> *he ascribed Jane’s short temper to her upset stomach*
>
>
> **[attribute](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/attribute?q=attribute)** *verb* [*with object*] (**attribute something to**)
>
> regard something as being caused by:
>
> *he attributed the firm’s success to the efforts of the managing director*
>
> *his resignation was attributed to stress*
>
>
>
Which "sounds more natural" is a subjective question, but [Ngrams](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=ascribed+to%2C+attributed+to&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=18&smoothing=3&share=) can provide some objective data. In your sentences ***I*** would use *attributed to*, which happens to match Google's data, but others may disagree.
 | My subjective view is that ascribe has a negative connotation, where as attribute has a positive one.
he ascribed Jane’s short temper to her upset stomach. Short temper here, a negative trait.
he attributed the firm’s success to the efforts of the managing director. Success, sth positive. |
11,331,578 | I don't have any programming knowledge, but I have installed Eclipse, and android SDK. I want to package some wallpapers into an apk and publish them in the android market. Can someone show me a tutorial or explain how to do it?
Thanks | 2012/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11331578",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1501918/"
] | Files placed in your res folder when you build your application are placed inside the apk.
Though they will not be avaliable for external use other than your own application. Aka, you will not be able select them via the built in wallpaper picker options.
You would have to have the apk copy the resource files to the SDCard when it is run.
Actually here is another question asking the same thing:
[How to put a wallpaper inside an apk file?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/3717752/how-to-put-a-wallpaper-inside-an-apk-file)
Its relatively straight forward but requires some basic android and programming skills.
1. Store all your wallpapers in your res folder (apk).
2. WHen the application launches, one by one, save the resource file to the SDCard. (Check if they already exist first).
3. The user can now navigate his/her photos and see your wallpapers. - And hence able to set them as wallpapers. | If you don't have any programming knowledge, it doesn't matter. Here is an android wallpaper app example code, you can easily replace your image url (which should be on internet) inside.
[Android Wallpaper App Tutorial (1-4)](http://jmsliu.com/1879/android-gridview-example-in-real-wallpaper-app.html) |
242 | In the pick-up artist community, there is much advertising and hype around "game" systems. These are systems which, as far as I understand, consist of sets of guidelines, advice, strategies, behaviours and exercises aimed at helping men become more successful in their attempts to seduce women.
Many of the advertisers for "game" systems claim that their system has been tested "in the field", that they bring subjective benefits to the practitioners, and that it is scientific fact that the systems work - that the men who learn about them become more successful at seducing women. In this context, I'm wondering:
>
> Is there any evidence that "game"
> systems advertised and promoted by
> pickup artists are at all effective?
>
>
>
I'm specifically looking for proof that any one single system (or, failing that, subset of a system) proves subjectively beneficial to its practitioners, or, alternatively, that, in general, such systems are not likely to provide any benefit
For further reference:
"Game" is a specific term, the book [The Game](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Game%3a_Penetrating_the_Secret_Society_of_Pickup_Artists) seems to be the first public use it, though I assume it's been around for a while longer.
There are thousands of online resources for pick-up artists, the [top google search](http://www.pick-up-artist-forum.com/) result seems a good place to start to learn about the topic. | 2011/02/28 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/242",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/116/"
] | Alright, as I referred to in comments earlier, Richard Wiseman has reviewed the scientific literature on attraction in his book [*59 Seconds*](http://www.amazon.co.uk/59-Seconds-Think-little-change/dp/0330511602).
One of the bigger things he mentions is a mechanism that seems to me quite like that of conditioning, or mirror neurons, or something weird merge between the two :) Namely this: we are exceptionally good at connecting things, and it turns out that once we've established a connection, it often goes both ways.
Since it has been shown, then, that your pulse races when you're with someone you're attracted to, some researches tested whether or not there's a mental (subconscious, perchance?) link between high pulse and attraction. So they set out to test whether or not *completely other* things that caused high pulse, could still trigger that same conditioned connection, and it turned out there was some evidence for that: people who went for a horror film during a date, for instance, tended to rate their date as more attractive than those who had went to a romantic comedy.
On a similar note, it seems that if you can get people to tell you really personal things (here, experimenters set up "sharing games" for the test persons to play during their dates, in which they were encouraged to share increasingly personal information, of the kind you might not otherwise share with a somewhat stranger). Turns out that you're more likely to be attracted to people you've shared very personal information with, and the researchers interpret this as being because you *otherwise* only share that kind of information with people you're very close to, so since you did, that means you must be close to this person, hey?
In speed dating (which would probably transfer to any dating circumstances where you have a limited time to make an impression, such as pub pickup or such), techniques that seemed particularly useful were to mimic (within reason) the other person's body language and expressions, and to get them to talk as much as possible about themselves.
So what have these got to do with The Game? Well, I don't know what the game asserts. If any of the above are mentioned in The Game, then yes, they seem to be vindicated: if not, well, Wiseman is on to some pretty peripheral effects here, and it seems unlikely that he'd miss out on these techniques if there was scientific support for them. For whatever that's worth :) | There is a lot of (anedoctical) empirical evidence that the systems as a whole work. But there is no research among users of the method.
On the other hand if you pick the single parts of which the methods are composed, there has been a lot of research in this respect.
Let’s assume the methods would work if the single parts work, then yes, there is evidence that the system work.
As you can read in [The Dating Mind: Evolutionary Psychology and the Emerging Science of Human Courtship](http://www.epjournal.net/wp-content/uploads/EP10899909.pdf)
>
> it would seem clear that there is in fact a substantive degree of
> psychological research to support many claims made by the Community.
>
>
> |
8,207 | A neurotropic virus is a virus which capable of infecting nerve cells.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) has low neuroinvasivesess and high neurovirulence. HSV is transmitted in vesicle fluid, saliva and vaginal secretions. So the site of infection determines the disease - "mixing and matching of mucous membranes".
Source: Murray 2013, Medical Microbiology.
**Why is herpes virus neurotropic?** | 2013/05/06 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/8207",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/86/"
] | Simply because it has neurotropic receptors. Why did acquiring these receptors seem evolutionarily advantageous? Well the immune system doesn't target nerve cells for destruction as well. There are few if any white blood cells in the CSF within which the neurones are bathed. The immune system is about protecting against damage, it doesn't care as much if a virus doesn't cause damage as it isn't geared to respond as well if that's the case. | 1/How Herpes does it:
Quote: << HSV... can enter the *Peripheral Nervous System* by binding to receptors on axon termini of sensory and autonomic neurons, which respectively convey sensory and visceral information. Most alpha herpesviruses use this route to enter the PNS and establish a life-long persistent infection [3].
Human alpha herpesviruses include herpes simplex type-1 (HSV-1), HSV-2. Well-studied animal alpha herpesviruses include pseudorabies virus (PRV) and bovine herpes virus (BHV). The cellular adhesion molecule, Nectin-1, is a major neuronal receptor for these viruses. Alpha herpesvirus particles enter sensory nerve endings by membrane fusion, and engage dynein motors for retrograde transport to the neuronal cell body or soma [4]. **The capsids then dock at the nuclear pore and the viral DNA is instilled in the nucleus where an acute or a quiescent, latent infection is established.** These viruses are unique in maintaining quiescent infections in the PNS neurons of their hosts. This quiescent state can be reversed by certain stress stimuli, which results in the production of large numbers of progeny in a relatively short period of time (1–2 days) [5]. Despite the direct synaptic connection of PNS neurons to the CNS, spread of alpha herpesvirus infection to the CNS is rare, but debilitating, in natural hosts [3]. Alpha herpesvirus trafficking, latency and reactivation is further reviewed in the following sections. Quite complex paper that outlines the nerve invasion strategies of majore nervous system virii, even rabies, polio, smallpox: <https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3647473/> >> end quote
2/Why Herpes has a particular advantage:
HSV has a statistically efficient infection and dormancy habit(near 100% of adults, 60% of them have HSV-1) It has the particular ability to achieve suspended animation, blocking the nerve immune response with special RNA strands, even if is detected there, inside nerves, it stays very benign/docile, it can stay latent in a host for very many years...
The last thing a virus needs is a dead end host, it's main objective is to spread and maintan as widespread a host population as it can. When we’re healthy, HSV-1 snoozes inside our neurons, secluded from drugs and the immune system. the latency is controlled by dissemination RNA strands that control the host nerve cells ability at apoptosis, or programmed cell death due to infection, so it can live as a reservoir of virii inside a cell for many years.
Herpesviruses have been infecting and codiverging with their vertebrate hosts for hundreds of millions of years. The primate simplex viruses exemplify this pattern of virus-host codivergence, at a minimum, as far back as the most recent common ancestor of New World monkeys, Old World monkeys, and apes. Humans are the only primate species known to be infected with two distinct herpes simplex viruses: HSV-1 and HSV-2. <https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24916030>
Red blood cells and other cells don't live as long as nerve cells: Most neurons are formed before birth and survive for the lifetime of the individual, so their lifespan is the same as that of the body. (for peripheral nervous cells the figure is also impressive, they can even grow back when damaged).
When it breaks out, it has an efficient vector of transmission which more controlled and less alarming than smallpox or more virulent virii, and enable the hosts to stay associated with is group during and outbreak, rather than causing the host to become an outcast. Animals instinctively take fright of pathogen symptoms and can distance themselves from shared foods, objects, and periphery of a symptomatic host. Herpes only causes very minor symptoms.
The transfer of viral particles between individuals, as the production of viral particles does not necessarily require any noticeable damage to the host.
HSV achieves this using a very fine tuned balance of latency or lyse/cell outbreak, which is when it explodes host cells and causes an immune response that sheds the virii at the surface.
The RNA latency control mechanism is highly evolved and fine tuned to control the nerve cell, there has been recent research about it, it's here: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HHV_Latency_Associated_Transcript>
this means that nearly 100% of the adult population is infected with the herpesviridae family of virii: <https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3809354/>
Other virii have different survival strategies, like cold and flue virii, which flee to the epithelial cells of the host in order to not decimate the host population, as if to flee the host by going to the surface of the host, because they don't have much control over their own virulence in through other methods, they don't know if they are being virulent or not.
...
Other than that, HSV automatically explodes epithelial cells, and it's ability to enter and hide inside nerve cells is it's strength. it's very complex how it does that, HSV is a very adapted, sleek, efficient virus.
I can't prove this theory, but it's possible that this HSV can confer added robustness to the host population, by keeping it's nerve immune response tip-top through the generations, and make it more able to combat other nerve virii like H1N1. Sometimes it's difficult to think that a virus that has been with use for millions of years is not part of of the body itself. |
46,648 | I'm trying to subscribe to a podcast in Windows Media Player 10, but I did not find any options to do that. If Windows Media Player does not provide that option please suggest any other players (iTunes on Windows sucks). | 2009/09/25 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/46648",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5506/"
] | It isn't possible. Media player doesn't support podcasts. Get the [Zune](http://www.zune.net) player instead. It has great podcast support. You don't need a Zune to use it either. | I use [**Juice**](http://juicereceiver.sourceforge.net/) personally, works well on Windows and other platforms. FOSS. |
46,648 | I'm trying to subscribe to a podcast in Windows Media Player 10, but I did not find any options to do that. If Windows Media Player does not provide that option please suggest any other players (iTunes on Windows sucks). | 2009/09/25 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/46648",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5506/"
] | It isn't possible. Media player doesn't support podcasts. Get the [Zune](http://www.zune.net) player instead. It has great podcast support. You don't need a Zune to use it either. | [](https://web.archive.org/web/20090928090716/http://images.apple.com/itunes/images/product_title20090909.png)
I use [iTunes](http://www.apple.com/itunes/overview/) personally, works well on Windows and OS X.
---
I know you stated that you dislike iTunes on Windows, but I like it, regardless of platform.
You should just give it a go, especially if you have not used it recently. iTunes for Windows has really been polished up to make it harder, better, faster, stronger.
iTunes also has a massive repository of [Podcasts](http://www.apple.com/itunes/podcasts/) in it's iTunes Online Music Store. I suggest you give it a look.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vg7YK.jpg) |
46,648 | I'm trying to subscribe to a podcast in Windows Media Player 10, but I did not find any options to do that. If Windows Media Player does not provide that option please suggest any other players (iTunes on Windows sucks). | 2009/09/25 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/46648",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5506/"
] | [](https://web.archive.org/web/20090928090716/http://images.apple.com/itunes/images/product_title20090909.png)
I use [iTunes](http://www.apple.com/itunes/overview/) personally, works well on Windows and OS X.
---
I know you stated that you dislike iTunes on Windows, but I like it, regardless of platform.
You should just give it a go, especially if you have not used it recently. iTunes for Windows has really been polished up to make it harder, better, faster, stronger.
iTunes also has a massive repository of [Podcasts](http://www.apple.com/itunes/podcasts/) in it's iTunes Online Music Store. I suggest you give it a look.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vg7YK.jpg) | I use [**Juice**](http://juicereceiver.sourceforge.net/) personally, works well on Windows and other platforms. FOSS. |
72,556 | I have a very basic understanding of GIS through some basic work with openlayers in Drupal CMS. I am trying to understand what is the best approach to display a chart on a map (like the one below)? I want the users to be able to at least control/change the numbers of the charts in the map. I understand that the layer itself and the associated legend can be served through a WMS. But what about the statistics that appear above the city. What would be the best "framework" to manage and display such a data?
 | 2013/09/26 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/72556",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/18068/"
] | Another approach is to use something like [Google Charts API](https://developers.google.com/chart/) to generate your symbols on the server side (I think this is possible with GeoServer and SLD) or on the client as image symbols. A colleague did that on a project and worked pretty well with gauge charts. At the end they are just parametrized image urls. | I think one possibility is to use d3.js. Its about visualize statistics as svg graphics. It has some map features too. But more imporatnt is the posiibility to use the d3.js svg layers as overlays in Openlayer maps. |
72,556 | I have a very basic understanding of GIS through some basic work with openlayers in Drupal CMS. I am trying to understand what is the best approach to display a chart on a map (like the one below)? I want the users to be able to at least control/change the numbers of the charts in the map. I understand that the layer itself and the associated legend can be served through a WMS. But what about the statistics that appear above the city. What would be the best "framework" to manage and display such a data?
 | 2013/09/26 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/72556",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/18068/"
] | Another approach is to use something like [Google Charts API](https://developers.google.com/chart/) to generate your symbols on the server side (I think this is possible with GeoServer and SLD) or on the client as image symbols. A colleague did that on a project and worked pretty well with gauge charts. At the end they are just parametrized image urls. | With MapServer you can create [dynamic charts layers](http://www.mapserver.org/output/dynamic_charting.html). This is all server side though, all the user can do is display the layer. |
263,945 | If LASSO treats collinearity than why use PCA?
I did not understand the question properly and the interviewer was not ready to give any hints | 2017/02/25 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/263945",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/149881/"
] | LASSO is not really a treatment for collinearity; it is a method of variable selection and model building. PCA does help with collinearity and does other things besides - it is a dimension reduction technique.
The proper treatment of collinearity depends on your goals. It could be ridge regression, PCA, dropping variables on substantive grounds, getting more data, elastic net or perhaps some other methods that I am forgetting. | When features are colinear, it not only contains redundant information, but also make solutions unstable.
Lasso (minimizing L1) is a feature selection method that select a small set of features that best completes the task on hand. In this sense, it is filtering extra information and treating colinearity. It is a feature selection method, in which we drop some features.
PCA is SVD on sample covariance matrix, which achieve reduction of dimension. The components are latent, each can be a combination of all features. In this case we can possibly be using information from all features, but the components are not colinear.
By the way, minimizing L1 doesn't really mean feature selection, since it is possible to have a solution that has small values in all entries. But in practice usually some features contain more signal than others, so in many cases L1 minimizer can select the better features by zeroing out contribution from worse features before the better ones. |
17,926 | So I announce the end of my turn.
My opponent responds with a [lightning bolt](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=lightning%20bolt) to my head. It resolves so I take 3.
Do I still have priority to do something else, eg to play instants that says do this when you take this much damage etc~? | 2014/06/15 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/17926",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2061/"
] | In your case, **you do have priority and you can cast the instant in question**. However, an instant that says "When you take [some amount of] damage, [do something]" won't really do much because the damage has already been done, so to speak. However, if you had *responded* to the lightning bolt with your instant, then it would have worked as intended.
You ask specifically about the end of the turn and responding to damage, but you also seem to not completely understand the priority system in general. There are several points during a turn (upkeep, end of draw step, main phase, beginning of combat, attack step, block step, end of combat step, end step) when the active player (the player taking the turn) gains priority. Whenever a player has priority, they can either do something (play a spell, activate an ability) or they can pass priority. Spells and abilities don't resolve and steps don't end until every player has passed priority. Usually, people take the shortcut that if somebody doesn't say anything, they are assumed to be passing priority.
The important thing is that every player gets priority every step (as long as someone gets it) and before anything resolves (so you always get an opportunity to respond). You can read [the comprehensive rules entry about timing and priority](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Timing_and_Priority) for more information.
In your specific case, when you say "I end my turn", it really means "I propose a shortcut that we skip to my end step" (there is also a comprehensive rules entry about [Shortcuts](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Shortcut) and when your opponent cast the spell, they were implicitly accepting your shortcut, casting the spell during your end step, and then passing priority to you. | This answer assumes that you are playing with Competitive or Regular REL, which includes your typical Friday Night Magic. I explicitly mention tournament rules when they apply, so just know that they do not apply in a non-tournament setting.
---
Your opponent did not specify when he was casting Lightning Bolt, and so he is assumed to be acting during your end step because of the following tournament rule:
>
> The statement "Go" (and equivalents such as "Your turn" and "Done") offers to keep passing priority until an opponent has priority in the end step. Opponents are assumed to be acting then unless they specify otherwise
>
>
>
The game moves forward to your end step, with a Lightning Bolt on the stack, and you have priority because of yet another tournament rule:
>
> Whenever a player adds an object to the stack, he or she is assumed to be passing priority unless he or she explicitly announces that he or she intends to retain it.
>
>
>
The game continues normally from that exact point. You have a few options:
* **Pass priority.** Lightning Bolt will resolve, and then you will get priority again because you are the active player.
>
> 116.4. If all players pass in succession, the spell or ability on top of the stack resolves
>
>
>
* **Cast an instant spell.** The spell would resolve before Lightning Bolt resolves.
>
> 116.1a A player may cast an instant spell any time he or she has priority.
>
>
>
* **Activate an activated ability.** The ability would resolve before Lightning Bolt resolves.
>
> 116.1b A player may activate an activated ability any time he or she has priority.
>
>
>
In short, the game can only progress when all players pass in succession. Your opponent decided to cast Lightning Strike in your End Step, and you get the option to respond. |
17,926 | So I announce the end of my turn.
My opponent responds with a [lightning bolt](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=lightning%20bolt) to my head. It resolves so I take 3.
Do I still have priority to do something else, eg to play instants that says do this when you take this much damage etc~? | 2014/06/15 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/17926",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2061/"
] | In your case, **you do have priority and you can cast the instant in question**. However, an instant that says "When you take [some amount of] damage, [do something]" won't really do much because the damage has already been done, so to speak. However, if you had *responded* to the lightning bolt with your instant, then it would have worked as intended.
You ask specifically about the end of the turn and responding to damage, but you also seem to not completely understand the priority system in general. There are several points during a turn (upkeep, end of draw step, main phase, beginning of combat, attack step, block step, end of combat step, end step) when the active player (the player taking the turn) gains priority. Whenever a player has priority, they can either do something (play a spell, activate an ability) or they can pass priority. Spells and abilities don't resolve and steps don't end until every player has passed priority. Usually, people take the shortcut that if somebody doesn't say anything, they are assumed to be passing priority.
The important thing is that every player gets priority every step (as long as someone gets it) and before anything resolves (so you always get an opportunity to respond). You can read [the comprehensive rules entry about timing and priority](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Timing_and_Priority) for more information.
In your specific case, when you say "I end my turn", it really means "I propose a shortcut that we skip to my end step" (there is also a comprehensive rules entry about [Shortcuts](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Shortcut) and when your opponent cast the spell, they were implicitly accepting your shortcut, casting the spell during your end step, and then passing priority to you. | No, it is so much simpler than the complex responses we give for the stack and priority. Every time you cast a spell it goes up above the table in your hand, you reveal it so the person can read the card and then imagine a small timer going off where you can choose to stop it and interact with the spell being played or "allow it."
Simplest and easiest way. When the spell is in the air (or action of any tapped ability or paid for ability other than mana) and the player is casting it, this is when the opposing player has "priority," which is really just your ability to respond. A sorcery can only be played on one of the two main phases, so the only way to respond is with mana abilities (which cannot be stopped if they are activated and is the one exception to this general rule unless stated on a card.) What the mana pays into (instant spells, abilities of creatures, enchantments, lands, -permanents or what you cast from your hand or activate through abilities of pernaments.
Here is your scenario.
"Pass turn." -you
Opponent receives "priority" because like everything in magic and responds with lightening bolt.
You now have priority again, and can respond to his lightening bolt which actually would go on top of his spell (the stack) in the air and would go first) but because you moved your life counter down, it is assumed the spell resolved and the turn was over as you had moved intentions over to ending the turn. |
17,926 | So I announce the end of my turn.
My opponent responds with a [lightning bolt](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=lightning%20bolt) to my head. It resolves so I take 3.
Do I still have priority to do something else, eg to play instants that says do this when you take this much damage etc~? | 2014/06/15 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/17926",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2061/"
] | This answer assumes that you are playing with Competitive or Regular REL, which includes your typical Friday Night Magic. I explicitly mention tournament rules when they apply, so just know that they do not apply in a non-tournament setting.
---
Your opponent did not specify when he was casting Lightning Bolt, and so he is assumed to be acting during your end step because of the following tournament rule:
>
> The statement "Go" (and equivalents such as "Your turn" and "Done") offers to keep passing priority until an opponent has priority in the end step. Opponents are assumed to be acting then unless they specify otherwise
>
>
>
The game moves forward to your end step, with a Lightning Bolt on the stack, and you have priority because of yet another tournament rule:
>
> Whenever a player adds an object to the stack, he or she is assumed to be passing priority unless he or she explicitly announces that he or she intends to retain it.
>
>
>
The game continues normally from that exact point. You have a few options:
* **Pass priority.** Lightning Bolt will resolve, and then you will get priority again because you are the active player.
>
> 116.4. If all players pass in succession, the spell or ability on top of the stack resolves
>
>
>
* **Cast an instant spell.** The spell would resolve before Lightning Bolt resolves.
>
> 116.1a A player may cast an instant spell any time he or she has priority.
>
>
>
* **Activate an activated ability.** The ability would resolve before Lightning Bolt resolves.
>
> 116.1b A player may activate an activated ability any time he or she has priority.
>
>
>
In short, the game can only progress when all players pass in succession. Your opponent decided to cast Lightning Strike in your End Step, and you get the option to respond. | No, it is so much simpler than the complex responses we give for the stack and priority. Every time you cast a spell it goes up above the table in your hand, you reveal it so the person can read the card and then imagine a small timer going off where you can choose to stop it and interact with the spell being played or "allow it."
Simplest and easiest way. When the spell is in the air (or action of any tapped ability or paid for ability other than mana) and the player is casting it, this is when the opposing player has "priority," which is really just your ability to respond. A sorcery can only be played on one of the two main phases, so the only way to respond is with mana abilities (which cannot be stopped if they are activated and is the one exception to this general rule unless stated on a card.) What the mana pays into (instant spells, abilities of creatures, enchantments, lands, -permanents or what you cast from your hand or activate through abilities of pernaments.
Here is your scenario.
"Pass turn." -you
Opponent receives "priority" because like everything in magic and responds with lightening bolt.
You now have priority again, and can respond to his lightening bolt which actually would go on top of his spell (the stack) in the air and would go first) but because you moved your life counter down, it is assumed the spell resolved and the turn was over as you had moved intentions over to ending the turn. |
31,646 | I've noticed over the years that when pracitcing my scales (or just playing in very high registers) that it is noticeably more difficult to play at the very high or very low registers of the piano. I feel like this is due to having to rock your body so far to the left or right that you sort of lose balance (or, if you don't move your body, then your arms are strained and "winged" out).
Does anyone else experience this? If so, what have you done to correct it or deal with it?
Thanks. | 2015/04/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/31646",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/19832/"
] | Sliding as Tim suggests is definitely a possibility, but my teachers always discouraged it. As you noted in the comments it can be difficult to move while pedalling, and it is generally a somewhat awkward and inaccurate movement regardless (especially if the bench is leather or something and you must lift off it to slide down).
I think a combination of leaning and "winging out" as you put it is the best method, so that you don't have to lean too far. As long as you're pushing out your elbows enough, this shouldn't strain you — that comes from twisting your wrists to compensate instead. It may be more tiring to hold your arms out, but I think building up the strength and endurance to do that is important.
Anecdotally, this is the method that Volodos (arguably the best living pianist) uses when he plays: | The simplest is to slide along the seat so that there isn't a great reach any more. With scales, unless they're contrary, make sure your body is central to the central part of whichever scale you play. You may need to start an octave lower, or higher, to compensate. Most people will be able to play to 5 octaves apart, but not very often will the need to stretch more happen.
Given that an 88 note piano measures about 4 ft., and a normal finger span is maybe 5'7" or more, there has to be an angle of around 45 degrees with each hand to the keys. Can't be helped... |
31,646 | I've noticed over the years that when pracitcing my scales (or just playing in very high registers) that it is noticeably more difficult to play at the very high or very low registers of the piano. I feel like this is due to having to rock your body so far to the left or right that you sort of lose balance (or, if you don't move your body, then your arms are strained and "winged" out).
Does anyone else experience this? If so, what have you done to correct it or deal with it?
Thanks. | 2015/04/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/31646",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/19832/"
] | The simplest is to slide along the seat so that there isn't a great reach any more. With scales, unless they're contrary, make sure your body is central to the central part of whichever scale you play. You may need to start an octave lower, or higher, to compensate. Most people will be able to play to 5 octaves apart, but not very often will the need to stretch more happen.
Given that an 88 note piano measures about 4 ft., and a normal finger span is maybe 5'7" or more, there has to be an angle of around 45 degrees with each hand to the keys. Can't be helped... | My teachers have likewise discouraged sliding on the bench. You should stay in the same position on the bench and shift your hip position (you'll be primarily leaning on one side) so that your back is still perpendicular to the bench, BUT you will be able to reach further up/down the keyboard. It requires some practice to get the balance right.
It seems like a pain now, but when you're playing really fast passages that require using most of the keyboard, you don't have time to physically slide up and down the piano bench. I've not seen any concert pianist who actually slides. Even for instruments like organ and carillon, which have a lot of footwork and it's more natural to move up-and-down the bench, it's still highly encouraged to pivot your hips/feet and stretch instead. It's hard to reorient yourself and establish an accurate center if you're always shifting. |
31,646 | I've noticed over the years that when pracitcing my scales (or just playing in very high registers) that it is noticeably more difficult to play at the very high or very low registers of the piano. I feel like this is due to having to rock your body so far to the left or right that you sort of lose balance (or, if you don't move your body, then your arms are strained and "winged" out).
Does anyone else experience this? If so, what have you done to correct it or deal with it?
Thanks. | 2015/04/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/31646",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/19832/"
] | Sliding as Tim suggests is definitely a possibility, but my teachers always discouraged it. As you noted in the comments it can be difficult to move while pedalling, and it is generally a somewhat awkward and inaccurate movement regardless (especially if the bench is leather or something and you must lift off it to slide down).
I think a combination of leaning and "winging out" as you put it is the best method, so that you don't have to lean too far. As long as you're pushing out your elbows enough, this shouldn't strain you — that comes from twisting your wrists to compensate instead. It may be more tiring to hold your arms out, but I think building up the strength and endurance to do that is important.
Anecdotally, this is the method that Volodos (arguably the best living pianist) uses when he plays: | My teachers have likewise discouraged sliding on the bench. You should stay in the same position on the bench and shift your hip position (you'll be primarily leaning on one side) so that your back is still perpendicular to the bench, BUT you will be able to reach further up/down the keyboard. It requires some practice to get the balance right.
It seems like a pain now, but when you're playing really fast passages that require using most of the keyboard, you don't have time to physically slide up and down the piano bench. I've not seen any concert pianist who actually slides. Even for instruments like organ and carillon, which have a lot of footwork and it's more natural to move up-and-down the bench, it's still highly encouraged to pivot your hips/feet and stretch instead. It's hard to reorient yourself and establish an accurate center if you're always shifting. |
4,658,807 | Is there any tutorial on web for developing a simple web service(Spring framework)from scratch in ibm rad 7.5? | 2011/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4658807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/298870/"
] | See [Which framework is better CXF or Spring-WS?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/297033/which-framework-is-better-cxf-or-spring-ws)
Tutorials:
[Spring WS](http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/tutorial.html)
[Apache CFX](https://cwiki.apache.org/CXF20DOC/writing-a-service-with-spring.html) | There are a lot of tutorials on the Spring site for Spring Web Services, especially since they just came out with v 2.0 today. I'm not aware of any that deal with a specific IDE environment, unless its maybe the new Spring flavor of Eclipse they've released, STS. One thing to keep in mind is that Spring web services are "contract first", so you have to create all your XML schemas for your service data structures, vs the code first that a lot of us are used to using Jax-WS, though there are many that say that contract first is THE way to go, for a lot of reasons.
YMMV |
11,867 | I downloaded the .iso of Windows 7 and would now like to install it as my main OS. However I can't because I don't have a DVD Burner, a 2+ GB USB Drive, or a external HDD (or extra HDD). So how can I install Windows 7? | 2009/05/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/11867",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1650/"
] | Is the system running an existing version of Windows? Then you should just be able to extract the contents of the iso (say with winrar or virtual clone drive) to another partition and run the setup.exe. Here's [a guide](http://www.sevenforums.com/tutorials/10280-install-windows-7-without-using-any-external-device.html). | You can install it on a virtual machine by mounting the .iso file as a DVD drive. I don't know if that's an option, but I always do it this way. |
11,867 | I downloaded the .iso of Windows 7 and would now like to install it as my main OS. However I can't because I don't have a DVD Burner, a 2+ GB USB Drive, or a external HDD (or extra HDD). So how can I install Windows 7? | 2009/05/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/11867",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1650/"
] | Spend the $10 on a 4gb Thumb Drive. there is a point where common sense needs to kick in. Alternatively, iirc VMWare has an unsupported option to mount a physical drive, you can install to that, then change your boot drive in the bios. | You can install it on a virtual machine by mounting the .iso file as a DVD drive. I don't know if that's an option, but I always do it this way. |
11,867 | I downloaded the .iso of Windows 7 and would now like to install it as my main OS. However I can't because I don't have a DVD Burner, a 2+ GB USB Drive, or a external HDD (or extra HDD). So how can I install Windows 7? | 2009/05/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/11867",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1650/"
] | You could do it via PXE booting, but that requires at least one other computer on your network. It would also take you several hours to set it up.
USB sticks are cheap; you should be able to get a 4GB or 8GB stick for just a few euros. Much cheaper than spending all your time trying to set up a PXE boot environment for a single installation. | You can install it on a virtual machine by mounting the .iso file as a DVD drive. I don't know if that's an option, but I always do it this way. |
11,867 | I downloaded the .iso of Windows 7 and would now like to install it as my main OS. However I can't because I don't have a DVD Burner, a 2+ GB USB Drive, or a external HDD (or extra HDD). So how can I install Windows 7? | 2009/05/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/11867",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1650/"
] | Is the system running an existing version of Windows? Then you should just be able to extract the contents of the iso (say with winrar or virtual clone drive) to another partition and run the setup.exe. Here's [a guide](http://www.sevenforums.com/tutorials/10280-install-windows-7-without-using-any-external-device.html). | Spend the $10 on a 4gb Thumb Drive. there is a point where common sense needs to kick in. Alternatively, iirc VMWare has an unsupported option to mount a physical drive, you can install to that, then change your boot drive in the bios. |
11,867 | I downloaded the .iso of Windows 7 and would now like to install it as my main OS. However I can't because I don't have a DVD Burner, a 2+ GB USB Drive, or a external HDD (or extra HDD). So how can I install Windows 7? | 2009/05/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/11867",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1650/"
] | Is the system running an existing version of Windows? Then you should just be able to extract the contents of the iso (say with winrar or virtual clone drive) to another partition and run the setup.exe. Here's [a guide](http://www.sevenforums.com/tutorials/10280-install-windows-7-without-using-any-external-device.html). | You could do it via PXE booting, but that requires at least one other computer on your network. It would also take you several hours to set it up.
USB sticks are cheap; you should be able to get a 4GB or 8GB stick for just a few euros. Much cheaper than spending all your time trying to set up a PXE boot environment for a single installation. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | Without an official and stable modding api, much effort for similar goals is wasted on reverse engineering and clearing up the messy architecture. [Golem](https://github.com/aniero/golem) was an attempt at creating such automation but it is broken because Notch changes stuff. Things will be much better if Notch releases his modding api. | The (somewhat unimaginatively named) "[Macro / Keybind Mod](http://www.minecraftforum.net/topic/467504-164-macro-keybind-mod-0911/)" is a client side mod that makes it possible to write relatively complex scripts which you can execute on any server (eg. vanilla).
It's currently awaiting an update to Minecraft 1.7 though (however it is normally only a few weeks behind when new versions come out).
I have used it to write tree-farming and wheat-farming scripts. Some people have written automatic miners too.
My most complex script got bones from a skeleton drop farm, crafted them into bonemeal, used the bonemeal to make wheat, and then traded the wheat with a villager for emerald. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | The only possibility I know of would by Scripting via the mod [WorldEdit](http://wiki.sk89q.com/wiki/WorldEdit/Scripting/Development) (available both SSP and SMP via [bukkit](http://www.bukkit.org)). It's using JavaScript for [Scripts](http://wiki.sk89q.com/wiki/WorldEdit/Scripting/Development).
You can of course also figure out modding itself, using Java, which allows you to do *anything*. But be aware that Notch apparently re-obfuscates the code from version to version... | You can run a local server, install Bukkit, and code in Java against that.
Bukkit's a fairly flexible platform, but anything written against it will be a server-side plugin not client-side. The distinction's a bit blurry when you're playing alone, so this might not give you everything you want to be able to do. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | In terms of automation, I've found quite a few interesting articles concerning using [Autohotkey](http://www.autohotkey.com) with Minecraft. [Here's a nice forum thread for example](http://www.minecraftforum.net/topic/56199-autohotkey-scripts-new-worldedit-script/). Obviously this isn't enough to react to what's happening in the game, the only way to do that is via a mod (I can't find any scripting mods), but it'll still allow for longer Minecraft sessions before the RSI kicks in. | Not really. You could try making a mod that adds a scripting interface, but I'm pretty sure it would require enough code that it would make more sense to just do the stuff yourself. You might want to check out the MineColony mod if you just want resources gathered. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | There is no scripting interface for Minecraft, however [Notch mentioned he plans to add support for official mods](http://notch.tumblr.com/post/4955141617/the-plan-for-mods) which then you can make Minecraft do whatever you want, even to the point of writing your own scripting engine. | Not really. You could try making a mod that adds a scripting interface, but I'm pretty sure it would require enough code that it would make more sense to just do the stuff yourself. You might want to check out the MineColony mod if you just want resources gathered. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | In terms of automation, I've found quite a few interesting articles concerning using [Autohotkey](http://www.autohotkey.com) with Minecraft. [Here's a nice forum thread for example](http://www.minecraftforum.net/topic/56199-autohotkey-scripts-new-worldedit-script/). Obviously this isn't enough to react to what's happening in the game, the only way to do that is via a mod (I can't find any scripting mods), but it'll still allow for longer Minecraft sessions before the RSI kicks in. | The only possibility I know of would by Scripting via the mod [WorldEdit](http://wiki.sk89q.com/wiki/WorldEdit/Scripting/Development) (available both SSP and SMP via [bukkit](http://www.bukkit.org)). It's using JavaScript for [Scripts](http://wiki.sk89q.com/wiki/WorldEdit/Scripting/Development).
You can of course also figure out modding itself, using Java, which allows you to do *anything*. But be aware that Notch apparently re-obfuscates the code from version to version... |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | There is no scripting interface for Minecraft, however [Notch mentioned he plans to add support for official mods](http://notch.tumblr.com/post/4955141617/the-plan-for-mods) which then you can make Minecraft do whatever you want, even to the point of writing your own scripting engine. | Without an official and stable modding api, much effort for similar goals is wasted on reverse engineering and clearing up the messy architecture. [Golem](https://github.com/aniero/golem) was an attempt at creating such automation but it is broken because Notch changes stuff. Things will be much better if Notch releases his modding api. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | There is no scripting interface for Minecraft, however [Notch mentioned he plans to add support for official mods](http://notch.tumblr.com/post/4955141617/the-plan-for-mods) which then you can make Minecraft do whatever you want, even to the point of writing your own scripting engine. | You can run a local server, install Bukkit, and code in Java against that.
Bukkit's a fairly flexible platform, but anything written against it will be a server-side plugin not client-side. The distinction's a bit blurry when you're playing alone, so this might not give you everything you want to be able to do. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | Absolutely!
Look into ComputerCraft or OpenComputers. They are mods available for Minecraft. Both require the Forge Modloader. All three are free.
ComputerCraft allows you to automate almost anything imaginable using Lua-scripted robots that you make and program in-game. OpenComputers is pretty much the same but is thought to be more balanced and uses Scala instead of Lua.
ComputerCraft offers ways to connect stationary computers, to copy files on disks that act as in-game items, even ways to create wired and wireless in-game networks.
They are absolutely great tools for teaching kids programming. The Lua API for ComputerCraft is simple and robust. Buckets, shears, you name it, ComputerCraft can handle it.
Enjoy! | The (somewhat unimaginatively named) "[Macro / Keybind Mod](http://www.minecraftforum.net/topic/467504-164-macro-keybind-mod-0911/)" is a client side mod that makes it possible to write relatively complex scripts which you can execute on any server (eg. vanilla).
It's currently awaiting an update to Minecraft 1.7 though (however it is normally only a few weeks behind when new versions come out).
I have used it to write tree-farming and wheat-farming scripts. Some people have written automatic miners too.
My most complex script got bones from a skeleton drop farm, crafted them into bonemeal, used the bonemeal to make wheat, and then traded the wheat with a villager for emerald. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | There is no scripting interface for Minecraft, however [Notch mentioned he plans to add support for official mods](http://notch.tumblr.com/post/4955141617/the-plan-for-mods) which then you can make Minecraft do whatever you want, even to the point of writing your own scripting engine. | This is not a direct answer to your question, but it's an example of scripting in Minecraft.
If you haven't heard about the **Baritone Project** I'll leave a link here: <https://github.com/cabaletta/baritone>
This is more or less like a program that can control your character inside the game to do various tasks. I haven't really used it but I've seen various videos of people using it on Youtube, for example, here I leave a link about a youtube that plays in the 2B2T server and talks about the **Baritone Project** as a way to use it in the server:
There are more related videos over the platform, and the first link I put has the code of the program, maybe there you could see what the people did in order to use scripts in Minecraft. |
23,584 | Being a programmer doing tedious tasks always make me want to script it.
Is there a way to intelligently script Minecraft, reacting to the surroundings.
Something like do this sequence of digging until something interesting happens? | 2011/05/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/23584",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | In terms of automation, I've found quite a few interesting articles concerning using [Autohotkey](http://www.autohotkey.com) with Minecraft. [Here's a nice forum thread for example](http://www.minecraftforum.net/topic/56199-autohotkey-scripts-new-worldedit-script/). Obviously this isn't enough to react to what's happening in the game, the only way to do that is via a mod (I can't find any scripting mods), but it'll still allow for longer Minecraft sessions before the RSI kicks in. | Without an official and stable modding api, much effort for similar goals is wasted on reverse engineering and clearing up the messy architecture. [Golem](https://github.com/aniero/golem) was an attempt at creating such automation but it is broken because Notch changes stuff. Things will be much better if Notch releases his modding api. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | Sh (bourne shell), grep, awk and sed is always a good thing to get to grips again.
Perl is excellent if you wan't a lot of text regexing and maintainability is not that important (not saying that it is not possible).
Python; if readability is important to you.
My preference is Python but all these tools are good for most thing you throw at it.
You might want to reconsider you c/c++ syntax requirement, keeping stuck on it won't help you in the long run. | If you are looking to learn something from scratch, it's probably best to (re-)learn bash.
Beyond that, perl and python are popular these days; I'm partial to perl, but my perl scripting style hasn't changed much since Perl 4 was out.
I'm not aware of any "c-syntax-like" scripting languages. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | * Ruby
* Python
* Go - a cross-platform language, scripting is mentioned as [one of Go's strengths](http://www.javaworld.com/article/2929811/scripting-jvm-languages/whats-the-go-language-really-good-for.html).
* Node.js - see Grunt.js, Gulp.js. Many projects are now using Node.js as a shell automation tool.
* Perl | You should be using a combination of all of those where it is appropriate. I really dislike perl ( readability ), but it's good for a lot of things. Python on the other hand was something new to me in terms of system administration, until i had to manage ( and still have to ) a few KVM machines. Starting, stoping, saving, loading, migrating all those machines via script became reality after 1 hour of messing around with libvirt's python bindings.
Last but not least i wouldn't use perl or python if i have to , let's say, dump all databases from a mysql server every night ( each database in it's own dump file ), tar them and rsync that to some other server. Why ? Because it's faster and easier to write it in bash :)
In the end, you should use whatever language fits your current task best and don't use only a given scripting language just because you like it most. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | Sh (bourne shell), grep, awk and sed is always a good thing to get to grips again.
Perl is excellent if you wan't a lot of text regexing and maintainability is not that important (not saying that it is not possible).
Python; if readability is important to you.
My preference is Python but all these tools are good for most thing you throw at it.
You might want to reconsider you c/c++ syntax requirement, keeping stuck on it won't help you in the long run. | You should be using a combination of all of those where it is appropriate. I really dislike perl ( readability ), but it's good for a lot of things. Python on the other hand was something new to me in terms of system administration, until i had to manage ( and still have to ) a few KVM machines. Starting, stoping, saving, loading, migrating all those machines via script became reality after 1 hour of messing around with libvirt's python bindings.
Last but not least i wouldn't use perl or python if i have to , let's say, dump all databases from a mysql server every night ( each database in it's own dump file ), tar them and rsync that to some other server. Why ? Because it's faster and easier to write it in bash :)
In the end, you should use whatever language fits your current task best and don't use only a given scripting language just because you like it most. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | * Ruby
* Python
* Go - a cross-platform language, scripting is mentioned as [one of Go's strengths](http://www.javaworld.com/article/2929811/scripting-jvm-languages/whats-the-go-language-really-good-for.html).
* Node.js - see Grunt.js, Gulp.js. Many projects are now using Node.js as a shell automation tool.
* Perl | I would say that perl and python are probably the two best alternatives. You can do a lot with sed and awk as well. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | * Ruby
* Python
* Go - a cross-platform language, scripting is mentioned as [one of Go's strengths](http://www.javaworld.com/article/2929811/scripting-jvm-languages/whats-the-go-language-really-good-for.html).
* Node.js - see Grunt.js, Gulp.js. Many projects are now using Node.js as a shell automation tool.
* Perl | If you are looking to learn something from scratch, it's probably best to (re-)learn bash.
Beyond that, perl and python are popular these days; I'm partial to perl, but my perl scripting style hasn't changed much since Perl 4 was out.
I'm not aware of any "c-syntax-like" scripting languages. |
62,481 | I have just migrated to a UNIX workstation. My memory of Bash shell scripts has faded since school and I find the syntax to be highly confusing. I am wondering what other scripting languages are used to automate tasks. The two most popular ones that I have heard of are Perl and Python.
1. Which scripting language is most widely used by real world shops ?
2. Which scripting language most closely resembles C/C++ syntax ?
3. Is there another scripting language that I am not aware of ? | 2009/09/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/62481",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/19414/"
] | To some degree it's a matter of personal preference. Perl and Python are definitely up there in terms of popularity.
To answer two of your three questions, though:
1. I would guess that bash is most widely used, probably followed by perl. Just guessing though, dunno if anyone has done a survey. :)
2. There are bazillions of scripting languages out there. :)
My recommendation is Python though. It's easy to read and write, immensely powerful, and there are tons of useful resources on the web for learning it, not to mention code that you can copy and re-purpose. | If you are looking to learn something from scratch, it's probably best to (re-)learn bash.
Beyond that, perl and python are popular these days; I'm partial to perl, but my perl scripting style hasn't changed much since Perl 4 was out.
I'm not aware of any "c-syntax-like" scripting languages. |
25,348 | Is it possible to prove that a bunch of individuals were (or could be) convinced to be good at something (even really difficult), but it was in fact their illusion of knowledge?
Here's a bit more detail: let's take an average class at school. Let's give them a math teacher, whose way of teaching math is extremely mnemonic, still facing hard subjects. They'll be asked exactly what they were told at lesson, without any reworking demanded. The teacher will assign the highest marks to those students who are able to repeat the better. Will some of them eventually get to believe they are good at math, when in fact they can scarcely ever apply what they're studying or explain the ideas behind?
I did not find what I was looking for in the Wikipedia [persuasion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Persuasion) though. | 2020/05/17 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/25348",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/26017/"
] | Your question relates a bit to the [self-efficacy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self-efficacy) literature.
Underlying ability is one cause of self-efficacy. And presumably, there are many mechanisms by which people can form an accurate opinion of their ability.
That said, there are various known ways of increasing or decreasing self-efficacy without changing actual efficacy.
For example, there is the [big-fish-little-pond effect](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big-fish%E2%80%93little-pond_effect). Basically, you can increase self-efficacy by putting people in an environment with others who are less capable.
Similarly, giving people feedback that they are good or giving people tasks suited to their ability will increase a sense of self-efficacy.
Some of these strategies are considered effective teaching especially if it helps overcome obstacles related to students even trying. But it can also be problematic if people allocate resources based on an inaccurate belief about their strengths and weaknesses. | I would say this is a matter of [authority](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Persuasion#Authority):
>
> We have the tendency to believe that if an expert says something, then it must be true. People like to listen to those who are knowledgeable and trustworthy, so if you can be those two things, then you are already on your way to getting people to believe and listen to you.
>
>
> |
53,324 | I have searched but didn't get any exact hadiths related to it that more than one prayer can be offer in one ablution or we have to perform a separate ablution for every prayer. | 2019/03/23 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/53324",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/32241/"
] | Yes, praying with the same wudhu is valid. Although, it is Sunnah to perform ablution for every prayer as the Prophet (ﷺ) used to do so.
>
> Narrated 'Amr bin 'Amir:
>
>
> Anas said, "The Prophet (ﷺ) used to perform ablution for every
> prayer." I asked Anas, "What did you used to do?' Anas replied, **"We
> used to pray with the same ablution until we break it with Hadath."**
>
>
> [Sahih al-Bukhari 214](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/4/80)
>
>
> | if you already have wudu then it's not necessary to make another wudu, but it is recommended. As far as you don't make any thing that destroys your wudu. you can offer separate salah with single wudu. |
53,324 | I have searched but didn't get any exact hadiths related to it that more than one prayer can be offer in one ablution or we have to perform a separate ablution for every prayer. | 2019/03/23 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/53324",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/32241/"
] | No it is not necessary to perform a separate ablution before every prayer.But if you do separate ablution for every prayer it is more good. | if you already have wudu then it's not necessary to make another wudu, but it is recommended. As far as you don't make any thing that destroys your wudu. you can offer separate salah with single wudu. |
53,324 | I have searched but didn't get any exact hadiths related to it that more than one prayer can be offer in one ablution or we have to perform a separate ablution for every prayer. | 2019/03/23 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/53324",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/32241/"
] | Yes, praying with the same wudhu is valid. Although, it is Sunnah to perform ablution for every prayer as the Prophet (ﷺ) used to do so.
>
> Narrated 'Amr bin 'Amir:
>
>
> Anas said, "The Prophet (ﷺ) used to perform ablution for every
> prayer." I asked Anas, "What did you used to do?' Anas replied, **"We
> used to pray with the same ablution until we break it with Hadath."**
>
>
> [Sahih al-Bukhari 214](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/4/80)
>
>
> | Ablution is sunnah we are blessed with this before every prayer. But it's not necessary to perform ablution before every prayer if you already have it. But it's good to perform ablution before every prayer if you are on road and any other place where water is not available you can pray with your last performed wadu if it is still you have.
And the other side is that if you are at home and a place where you can easily perform ablution than do it. |
53,324 | I have searched but didn't get any exact hadiths related to it that more than one prayer can be offer in one ablution or we have to perform a separate ablution for every prayer. | 2019/03/23 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/53324",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/32241/"
] | Yes, praying with the same wudhu is valid. Although, it is Sunnah to perform ablution for every prayer as the Prophet (ﷺ) used to do so.
>
> Narrated 'Amr bin 'Amir:
>
>
> Anas said, "The Prophet (ﷺ) used to perform ablution for every
> prayer." I asked Anas, "What did you used to do?' Anas replied, **"We
> used to pray with the same ablution until we break it with Hadath."**
>
>
> [Sahih al-Bukhari 214](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/4/80)
>
>
> | No it is not necessary to perform a separate ablution before every prayer.But if you do separate ablution for every prayer it is more good. |
53,324 | I have searched but didn't get any exact hadiths related to it that more than one prayer can be offer in one ablution or we have to perform a separate ablution for every prayer. | 2019/03/23 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/53324",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/32241/"
] | No it is not necessary to perform a separate ablution before every prayer.But if you do separate ablution for every prayer it is more good. | Ablution is sunnah we are blessed with this before every prayer. But it's not necessary to perform ablution before every prayer if you already have it. But it's good to perform ablution before every prayer if you are on road and any other place where water is not available you can pray with your last performed wadu if it is still you have.
And the other side is that if you are at home and a place where you can easily perform ablution than do it. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | Don't lie - why would you even want to lie about it? Your new employer is not your mother - you don't need to worry about hurting his feelings... business is business. If you don't tell them why you're leaving after such a short time, they aren't going to realize that they may be giving the wrong impression about what the job responsibilities are. Also, they may be able to alter your job duties to make the job more suitable for you.
But you should think long and hard about whether or not the old company is someplace you want to go back to - if they ignored and didn't value you when you worked for them, are you sure they will treat you better now that they are paying you more money and giving you extra benefits? Or are they using you to fill in the gap that was left when you leave to give them time to fill in the gaps using existing employees, then they'll start treating you the same (or just outright fire you). | So by telling the truth you'd be establishing that you were overqualified and they can search less hard and pay the next guy less? Sure it's a bit of a setback to have to search twice but I suspect unless your boss is crazy, s/he's going to appreciate the honesty or be a bit cold/stiff and then most likely appreciate the honesty later. If their response is shrieking bat!@#$ crazy, you get a new story to tell that would leave anybody sympathetic and amused. The end.
The only thing I'd be worried about is whether you've properly assessed the experience at your previous job and your perception of what's actually changed. Feeling undervalued and ignored is typically a culture mismatch thing and I doubt you'll find that's changed when you go back. They might like what you can do for them but for whatever reason, they didn't care what you had to say about it. Will you be one of the cool kids when you go back? I doubt it. If you really, really love telecommute + more money to the point where that trumps the old problem, go for it but don't assume the old problem fixed itself. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | OK, if you're set on leaving and nothing will change your mind - then I guess my best guidance is "Don't lie!". Lies have an unpleasant way of catching up with a person and if you are intent on being a valued member of a challenging profession, I can almost guarantee you that you'll meet up again with former collegues in a future position. The world is a lot smaller than it seems. You don't want to have to try to remember this lie forever. If you really don't feel comfortable saying "this work isn't what I hired on for, I'm so bored I'm going back to my old position", then be vague and just say you've found a better option.
I think it's worth taking a second to ponder, though, why you are reluctant to tell the truth in this case. Leaving after a month is a pretty short span of time in a position in which you were hoping for a challenge. Not many jobs will throw you immediately into a realm of work that is so complicated you could fail at it, so often the first month is a proving ground where you're not challenged, but you're expected to learn and challenge yourself to the point where you can be more useful later on. Leaving because the company was cautious in assigning you complicated work in your first month is pretty abrupt. Have you talked to your manager about your boredom and dissatisfaction?
I'm pointing this out, because it seems like a disconnection with management is a key aspect to both of your job transitions. In the first job you mention feeling undervalued and ignored. In the second job you mention being bored, and the fact that you're leaving suggests that you don't anticipate that problem ever changing. Then you also mention symptoms of what I'd call "management disconnect" - you're leaving after a month, you don't want to tell your employer the real reason why, and the old job is hiring you back with a better offer (so I'm betting they have always valued you - whether you realized it or not). It sounds like in all these cases, there's a pattern where you aren't so clear with your management about what you really want. Managers are not mind readers - so if you haven't directly expressed dissatisfaction with either job, it's unreasonable to expect that they will know it.
My point here is that the trend of feeling underchallenged, undervalued, and ignored is going to continue in any job if you don't have a way of expressing these concerns to your management. If the old job is just a better balance for you overall, then go for it, but realize that no matter where you land, it sounds like there's got to be a better way of expressing your needs that doesn't involve changing jobs. | If you didn't like the work in your previous company, were feeling ignored or under valued then I don't think any of these things change with teleworking or a salary increase.
Salary increases bring temporary happiness, they won't keep you in the job if you didn't want to be there in the first place. Teleworking is likely to leave you even more isolated.
As for lying, don't do that - don't tell them where you're going if you don't want to but just say "it's not working out for me, I'm feeling very under utilised" and leave it at that.
The question I'd ask myself if I was you:
If your new company wasn't boring you, would you consider going back? If the answer is No (and I suspect it is) then going back is a convenience, it's not what you want to do and it's almost certainly a bad idea. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | If you didn't like the work in your previous company, were feeling ignored or under valued then I don't think any of these things change with teleworking or a salary increase.
Salary increases bring temporary happiness, they won't keep you in the job if you didn't want to be there in the first place. Teleworking is likely to leave you even more isolated.
As for lying, don't do that - don't tell them where you're going if you don't want to but just say "it's not working out for me, I'm feeling very under utilised" and leave it at that.
The question I'd ask myself if I was you:
If your new company wasn't boring you, would you consider going back? If the answer is No (and I suspect it is) then going back is a convenience, it's not what you want to do and it's almost certainly a bad idea. | First, I would not lie about going home to look after your "Sick Mum." There is no reason to do so and it will just make you look immature and unprofessional.
I would simply explain to your employer that that tasks that you are being assigned are not challenging or interesting. You had the expectation that you would be provided with challenging work so that you could grow professionally. Since you are not able to get that in the position you are in you are going to move on.
I would not tell your current employer anything about your plans for the future. Simply thank them for the opportunity and apologize for it not working out. Most positions have a 30-90 day probation period anyway. That is a two way street. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | If you didn't like the work in your previous company, were feeling ignored or under valued then I don't think any of these things change with teleworking or a salary increase.
Salary increases bring temporary happiness, they won't keep you in the job if you didn't want to be there in the first place. Teleworking is likely to leave you even more isolated.
As for lying, don't do that - don't tell them where you're going if you don't want to but just say "it's not working out for me, I'm feeling very under utilised" and leave it at that.
The question I'd ask myself if I was you:
If your new company wasn't boring you, would you consider going back? If the answer is No (and I suspect it is) then going back is a convenience, it's not what you want to do and it's almost certainly a bad idea. | Others have already said that an old employer who didn't make you happy previously is not likely to make you happy upon returning... at least if the job is essentially the same, so I won't go any further on that point.
A point I will make is that one month isn't a long time in a new job. For differing reasons (in one case waiting for a background check to get transferred) I've been in a couple jobs that long before I was even assigned real work; one of those cases eventually turned out to be one of the most challenging, but also most rewarding, jobs I've had. I've known some people who've waited over a year to have an extensive background check completed before actually being allowed to do the work for which they were hired.
That said, if you are really set on leaving, I recommend you tell the truth, but how much is up to what impression you want to leave. I'd say your options are to tell them some combination of:
1. You've decided to leave.
2. You're unhappy with your work assignments.
3. Your old employer wants you back and you are going back to them.
If you're really going to leave, #1 is mandatory. #2 will explain why you're leaving after such a short time and *may* help them in the future; however, it could also make them wonder why you didn't say anything about being under utilized thus leaving a poor impression of you. #3 is more explanatory about what you're going to do, but also bears the risk of leaving the impression that you just used them to squeeze your old employer for a raise and better working condtions. You'll have to decide if those risks are a problem and what you might want from this employer in the future. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | First, I would not lie about going home to look after your "Sick Mum." There is no reason to do so and it will just make you look immature and unprofessional.
I would simply explain to your employer that that tasks that you are being assigned are not challenging or interesting. You had the expectation that you would be provided with challenging work so that you could grow professionally. Since you are not able to get that in the position you are in you are going to move on.
I would not tell your current employer anything about your plans for the future. Simply thank them for the opportunity and apologize for it not working out. Most positions have a 30-90 day probation period anyway. That is a two way street. | Your situation is similar to [Get a raise to match another job offer](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/4224/get-a-raise-to-match-another-job-offer). In that question, the OP has an offer in hand, and wants to know what to do. In your case the original company is trying to convince you to come back.
You face the same problems: you were unhappy before, and now they are offering you something that they promise will solve the problems. There are risks: they can lie, they will treat you like somebody that can't be trusted.
You are giving up on a new company after a month. That will have to be something to explain on your resume. That will show you have no patience.
If you are telling a lie to the new company, you are by definition not leaving with your head held high. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | OK, if you're set on leaving and nothing will change your mind - then I guess my best guidance is "Don't lie!". Lies have an unpleasant way of catching up with a person and if you are intent on being a valued member of a challenging profession, I can almost guarantee you that you'll meet up again with former collegues in a future position. The world is a lot smaller than it seems. You don't want to have to try to remember this lie forever. If you really don't feel comfortable saying "this work isn't what I hired on for, I'm so bored I'm going back to my old position", then be vague and just say you've found a better option.
I think it's worth taking a second to ponder, though, why you are reluctant to tell the truth in this case. Leaving after a month is a pretty short span of time in a position in which you were hoping for a challenge. Not many jobs will throw you immediately into a realm of work that is so complicated you could fail at it, so often the first month is a proving ground where you're not challenged, but you're expected to learn and challenge yourself to the point where you can be more useful later on. Leaving because the company was cautious in assigning you complicated work in your first month is pretty abrupt. Have you talked to your manager about your boredom and dissatisfaction?
I'm pointing this out, because it seems like a disconnection with management is a key aspect to both of your job transitions. In the first job you mention feeling undervalued and ignored. In the second job you mention being bored, and the fact that you're leaving suggests that you don't anticipate that problem ever changing. Then you also mention symptoms of what I'd call "management disconnect" - you're leaving after a month, you don't want to tell your employer the real reason why, and the old job is hiring you back with a better offer (so I'm betting they have always valued you - whether you realized it or not). It sounds like in all these cases, there's a pattern where you aren't so clear with your management about what you really want. Managers are not mind readers - so if you haven't directly expressed dissatisfaction with either job, it's unreasonable to expect that they will know it.
My point here is that the trend of feeling underchallenged, undervalued, and ignored is going to continue in any job if you don't have a way of expressing these concerns to your management. If the old job is just a better balance for you overall, then go for it, but realize that no matter where you land, it sounds like there's got to be a better way of expressing your needs that doesn't involve changing jobs. | So by telling the truth you'd be establishing that you were overqualified and they can search less hard and pay the next guy less? Sure it's a bit of a setback to have to search twice but I suspect unless your boss is crazy, s/he's going to appreciate the honesty or be a bit cold/stiff and then most likely appreciate the honesty later. If their response is shrieking bat!@#$ crazy, you get a new story to tell that would leave anybody sympathetic and amused. The end.
The only thing I'd be worried about is whether you've properly assessed the experience at your previous job and your perception of what's actually changed. Feeling undervalued and ignored is typically a culture mismatch thing and I doubt you'll find that's changed when you go back. They might like what you can do for them but for whatever reason, they didn't care what you had to say about it. Will you be one of the cool kids when you go back? I doubt it. If you really, really love telecommute + more money to the point where that trumps the old problem, go for it but don't assume the old problem fixed itself. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | If you didn't like the work in your previous company, were feeling ignored or under valued then I don't think any of these things change with teleworking or a salary increase.
Salary increases bring temporary happiness, they won't keep you in the job if you didn't want to be there in the first place. Teleworking is likely to leave you even more isolated.
As for lying, don't do that - don't tell them where you're going if you don't want to but just say "it's not working out for me, I'm feeling very under utilised" and leave it at that.
The question I'd ask myself if I was you:
If your new company wasn't boring you, would you consider going back? If the answer is No (and I suspect it is) then going back is a convenience, it's not what you want to do and it's almost certainly a bad idea. | One of the things I've learned in my many travels throughout the corporate world is that people will do anything or say anything to get what they want or to get you to do what they want.
Let's start with your ex-employer. Why didn't they offer you those things while you were working for them? It would have been far less expensive for them to give you the added benefits and options while you were still their employee than to have to go through the trouble of letting you leave and then bring you back under this "new arrangement". We won't even factor in the added cost of trying to find someone to replace you, plus the likelihood that your replacement will require a higher salary than the one you ended with. We also need to include the time it will take for a new employee to learn the business, which is mostly unproductive until they come up to speed. So, in a nutshell, it is far cheaper for them to bring you back by telling you exactly what you want to hear than to bring someone in brand new. Unfortunately, it will be more costly for you in the long run. Once you tell your current employer you are leaving, you are basically locked into making it work with your ex-employer. But, your ex-employer knows you very well, and knows which buttons to push to get you to do what they want, much like an ex-spouse or ex-significant-other.
If you don't have projects of your own which can supplement the need for challenge that you seek, why not have the conversation with your current employer about the lack of challenge you're experiencing? I find it difficult to believe that any employer would not relish the opportunity to give someone more work without having to directly compensate them for it. After you have that conversation, if you really don't feel that this company is a good fit for you, continue the job search and try to find something more compatible. This time, however, spend a little more time crafting **your** interview questions for your potential employer so you can find a more compatible fit. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | If you didn't like the work in your previous company, were feeling ignored or under valued then I don't think any of these things change with teleworking or a salary increase.
Salary increases bring temporary happiness, they won't keep you in the job if you didn't want to be there in the first place. Teleworking is likely to leave you even more isolated.
As for lying, don't do that - don't tell them where you're going if you don't want to but just say "it's not working out for me, I'm feeling very under utilised" and leave it at that.
The question I'd ask myself if I was you:
If your new company wasn't boring you, would you consider going back? If the answer is No (and I suspect it is) then going back is a convenience, it's not what you want to do and it's almost certainly a bad idea. | I don't expect much support for either of the following ideas, given the prevailing answers, but going to toss them out here nonetheless, because it gives the OP something else to consider:
First, what is the term of committment to the current employer? Is it a contract position, and if so, is it short term? If it is a short-term contract, finish it, and communicate that to your old boss. While it puts him in a temporary bind by having a vacant spot, it leaves an opportunity to return to the old job while still fulfilling your committment to the current employer. In this way, you will probably gain respect at both places, regardless of what you decide to do after the contract is up.
Second, depending on what stage of your career you are in, I might suggest that you keep it simple, and follow the money, especially if neither job is noticibly more fulfilling than the other. If the job isn't rewarding from a personal growth or inpirational level, find a hobby that is. It is great when you can find work that is personally gratifying, but its not easy; and a personally gratifying job is often one that makes it harder to pay the bills or support a lifestyle outside of work that you would otherwise enjoy. The jobs that give both are out there, but that doesnt mean you can just drop whatever you are doing and go get them tommorow. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | First, I would not lie about going home to look after your "Sick Mum." There is no reason to do so and it will just make you look immature and unprofessional.
I would simply explain to your employer that that tasks that you are being assigned are not challenging or interesting. You had the expectation that you would be provided with challenging work so that you could grow professionally. Since you are not able to get that in the position you are in you are going to move on.
I would not tell your current employer anything about your plans for the future. Simply thank them for the opportunity and apologize for it not working out. Most positions have a 30-90 day probation period anyway. That is a two way street. | So by telling the truth you'd be establishing that you were overqualified and they can search less hard and pay the next guy less? Sure it's a bit of a setback to have to search twice but I suspect unless your boss is crazy, s/he's going to appreciate the honesty or be a bit cold/stiff and then most likely appreciate the honesty later. If their response is shrieking bat!@#$ crazy, you get a new story to tell that would leave anybody sympathetic and amused. The end.
The only thing I'd be worried about is whether you've properly assessed the experience at your previous job and your perception of what's actually changed. Feeling undervalued and ignored is typically a culture mismatch thing and I doubt you'll find that's changed when you go back. They might like what you can do for them but for whatever reason, they didn't care what you had to say about it. Will you be one of the cool kids when you go back? I doubt it. If you really, really love telecommute + more money to the point where that trumps the old problem, go for it but don't assume the old problem fixed itself. |
6,393 | I have started a new job in a new company. I left my previous job because I felt I was being ignored and quite frankly I did not feel valued.
I have been in this new Job just under a month and I have found that the work is not what I expected. It's very very simple and I like working hard so I am very bored.
My Ex-Employer asked me to come back and work for him and in turn I am going to be getting additional Benefits (Teleworking) + Salary Increase.
So what do I tell my current employer? I came to this employer because of all the reasons I mentioned above and they knew that I was being treated like crap. But I feel its rather unprofessional to run back to the other company.
So I am intending on just saying I am going to look after my 'Sick' Mum and that I will start looking into working some freelance. (I did not say my mother was not sick? She has had 2 falls and several collapsed lungs among other problems)
Do you think this is a valid excuse. How else can I leave here with my head held high?
The reason I am going back as many have asked is because I am starting a life and I have a new girlfriend and family issues. And to be honest although I did not feel valued at least I could tell my boss of my annoyance and hate rather than bottle it up.
As a wise friend once said (Take the Money) | 2012/11/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/6393",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/4767/"
] | OK, if you're set on leaving and nothing will change your mind - then I guess my best guidance is "Don't lie!". Lies have an unpleasant way of catching up with a person and if you are intent on being a valued member of a challenging profession, I can almost guarantee you that you'll meet up again with former collegues in a future position. The world is a lot smaller than it seems. You don't want to have to try to remember this lie forever. If you really don't feel comfortable saying "this work isn't what I hired on for, I'm so bored I'm going back to my old position", then be vague and just say you've found a better option.
I think it's worth taking a second to ponder, though, why you are reluctant to tell the truth in this case. Leaving after a month is a pretty short span of time in a position in which you were hoping for a challenge. Not many jobs will throw you immediately into a realm of work that is so complicated you could fail at it, so often the first month is a proving ground where you're not challenged, but you're expected to learn and challenge yourself to the point where you can be more useful later on. Leaving because the company was cautious in assigning you complicated work in your first month is pretty abrupt. Have you talked to your manager about your boredom and dissatisfaction?
I'm pointing this out, because it seems like a disconnection with management is a key aspect to both of your job transitions. In the first job you mention feeling undervalued and ignored. In the second job you mention being bored, and the fact that you're leaving suggests that you don't anticipate that problem ever changing. Then you also mention symptoms of what I'd call "management disconnect" - you're leaving after a month, you don't want to tell your employer the real reason why, and the old job is hiring you back with a better offer (so I'm betting they have always valued you - whether you realized it or not). It sounds like in all these cases, there's a pattern where you aren't so clear with your management about what you really want. Managers are not mind readers - so if you haven't directly expressed dissatisfaction with either job, it's unreasonable to expect that they will know it.
My point here is that the trend of feeling underchallenged, undervalued, and ignored is going to continue in any job if you don't have a way of expressing these concerns to your management. If the old job is just a better balance for you overall, then go for it, but realize that no matter where you land, it sounds like there's got to be a better way of expressing your needs that doesn't involve changing jobs. | Your situation is similar to [Get a raise to match another job offer](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/4224/get-a-raise-to-match-another-job-offer). In that question, the OP has an offer in hand, and wants to know what to do. In your case the original company is trying to convince you to come back.
You face the same problems: you were unhappy before, and now they are offering you something that they promise will solve the problems. There are risks: they can lie, they will treat you like somebody that can't be trusted.
You are giving up on a new company after a month. That will have to be something to explain on your resume. That will show you have no patience.
If you are telling a lie to the new company, you are by definition not leaving with your head held high. |
76,949 | I am using the 2014 version of Martin Evening's *Adobe Photoshop CC for Photographers.* In the section on the clone stamp and healing brush, he refers to the "aligned" option on the option bar. Obviously (from the illustrations contained in the book), the options bar has changed, and I do not see such an option. What, if anything, has taken its place within the option bar? | 2016/04/27 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/76949",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/35150/"
] | Are you sure you've got the Clone Stamp tool selected?
The below screenshot is from Photoshop CC 2015 I've circled the selected tool, and the 'Aligned' button is there. The keyboard shortcut to get to the clone stamp in Photoshop is 'S'. You can press that to get to the clone stamp tool. Make sure that it's just the Clone stamp and not the Pattern stamp (the Pattern stamp has an additional little black and white grid in its icon).
If you don't see the options bar similar to the below, then maybe the Options Bar is hidden. You can reset Photoshop's toolbar layouts by going to Window > Workspace > Reset.
If this doesn't work, can you edit your question with a screenshot?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1AOhy.png) | I found out I had narrow options bar selected in the Photoshop preferences. A few of the options then have graphical representations instead of as presented in the normal options bar. |
319,191 | In my Wordpress install, thumbnail images are not showing in the media library, when in grid view. They are showing when in list view.
In addition, if I once request a thumbnail directly, in the browser, by copy/paste of the image URL, the image afterwards shows up in the grid view, too. For all users, anywhere.
The console shows errors like this, for each failed image:
>
> [Error] Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of
> 404 () (filename.jpg, line 0)
>
>
>
But, requesting each image directly shows the image and then, reloading the grid, shows the image in the grid.
(However, a script that lists all images in the relevant upload folder, then displays them with an image tag, or inside an iframe does *not* have the same effect.)
This started happening after moving my site to a new hosting provider.
Newly uploaded images display the same behaviour.
What is causing this? How to fix this?
Edit:
Turning on Wordpress' debug mode, showed the file "advanced-cache.php" was faulty. Replacing that with a backed up copy resulted in a complaint related to the "WP Super cache" plugin, even though that plugin was deactivated. Deleting the plugin saw that error message also disappear.
However, in the console, a section now showed up with the heading "PHP Errors in Ajax Response", and errors referencing the plugin "display-all-image-sizes". Disabling then deleting this plugin resulted in the errors going away, but the images still not showing in the image grid.
Also, the file "advanced-cache.php" disappears on its own accord. Some digging made me understand that some caching plugin was responsible for this, even though no caching plugin was active. However, turns out that wp-config still had a hardcoded caching reference:
>
> define('WP\_CACHE', true);
>
>
>
I changed that to 'false'. This saw the errors go away, but the images still not showing. | 2018/11/14 | [
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/questions/319191",
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com",
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/users/43252/"
] | Please, enable the debug mode in WordPress maybe there will be answer. To enable it, open your wp-config.php file and look for define(‘WP\_DEBUG’, false);. Change it to:
'define('WP\_DEBUG', true);'
In order to enable the error logging to a file on the server you need to add yet one more similar line:
'define( 'WP\_DEBUG\_LOG', true );'
In this case the errors will be saved to a debug.log log file inside the /wp-content/directory.
Depending on whether you want your errors to be only logged or also displayed on the screen you should also have this line there, immediately after the line mentioned above:
'define( 'WP\_DEBUG\_DISPLAY', true );'
The wp-config.php is located in your WordPress root directory. It’s the same file where the database configuration settings are. You will have to access it by FTP or SFTP in order to edit it. | The site was running on NGINX with the old hosting provider and on Apache with the new hosting provider.
The uploads folder had a .htaccess file (which NGINX doesn't read) which was preventing requests from referrers that were not the http version of the site. Perhaps a leftover from some Wordpress upgrade, or perhaps added by hand over the 8 years the site has been live. This meant that, now that the site was running on Apache, direct requests (with no referrer) were fine, and cached versions served via Jetpack were also fine.
I still don't understand how, then, images in the list view were showing, as they do not seem to be served by Jetpack's CDN, but so be it. |
241,707 | The elevation of that (project) particular landform cannot be negative (I think). Does this mean the DEM data is wrong? | 2017/05/25 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/241707",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/97448/"
] | The datum for most elevation is set at sea level. If you have a negative number in a DEM this usually refers to below sea level. An example of this would be Florida. Let me know if this helps | What area does this DEM cover? Is this a combined surface model and bathymetric data set? Is this data from someplace like Death Valley California or near the Dead Sea? If so you should expect some negative values. If not you should question the integrity of those data. The values of your DEM show the Z values above or below the origin of some vertical datum. These data might be expressed in any number of tidal datums (heights above or below mean lower low water, above or below mean sea level, mean higher high water, etc.) or any number of orthometric datums (height above a geoid). The difference between the tidal datums and the orthometic datums in my part of the world is about 12 feet so even if I do not know the vertical datum of a DEM I can assume a <=12 foot error.
What is the unit of measure of these data? If the unit of measure is centimeters and you are near a shoreline then the values seem quite reasonable. |
241,707 | The elevation of that (project) particular landform cannot be negative (I think). Does this mean the DEM data is wrong? | 2017/05/25 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/241707",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/97448/"
] | The datum for most elevation is set at sea level. If you have a negative number in a DEM this usually refers to below sea level. An example of this would be Florida. Let me know if this helps | You could use RASTER CALCULATOR to identify cell(s) containing suspicious values. You could end up realizing that odd value(s) are not that odd after all. For instance, I happen to deal with an area in which a deep quarry was captured by the DEM, and that accounted for negative values. But, in order for you to get an exact idea of those values, you may want to pinpoint them first (using what I have suggested above). I will give you further guidelines in case you wish to proceed in that way, or you can follow the procedure (using ArcGIS) showed in this video I found on Youtube (<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MvepuPiSoJk>). |
37,268,963 | I'm partially color blind and this causes some usability issues when I'm interacting with software, in this case Android Studio and Intellij. The [Color Themes for Intellij](https://github.com/sdvoynikov/color-themes) website has helped me a lot for customizing the text editor, but there's still one issue.
The right scrollbar on the text editor shows color coded information about the location of errors, warnings and other context aware information.
It's very difficult for me to differentiate the elements of current color scheme for that bar.
**Is there a way to customize it?**
It seems that changing the Theme of the software doesn't affect said color scheme. | 2016/05/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37268963",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3128369/"
] | You need to check
>
> **Navigate through Setting --> Editor --> colors & Fonts --> General --> Errors and Warnings--> Error --> check Error Stripe mark (choose color you want) to show color code in right scroll**
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1krqC.jpg)
another way that might help you ,
>
> **Navigate to setting --> appearance --> check Adjust color of red-green deficiency (under theme)**
>
>
> | You might want to try this theme
>
> <https://github.com/oizo/intellij-colorblind-scheme>
>
>
>
Also in intelliJ idea, there is an option to enable color-blind mode:
>
> Settings → Appearance & Behavior → Appearance → Adjust colors for red-green vision deficiency
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/S3sfm.png) |
10,686,616 | Well I had lots of scripts so what I did is that I combined all of them into one script file, which contains files like Jquery library too.
But now the problem is that it has stopped working, I don't know why did this happen.
What I did is that I took every script copied and pasted it and then I gave some space under it by pressing enter a few times and then I used to paste other script, I was told this was the method to combine scripts but now the scripts don't work.
Here is the link to combined scripts <http://files.cryoffalcon.com/bloghuts/uncompressed/BlogHuts%20UNCOMPRESSED.js>
And the link to a live example is <http://bloghutsbeta.blogspot.com/>
ANSWER/SOLUTION:
Earlier I was using an older version of Jquery I think 1.5 now I changed it to latest 1.7 and that was the reason that everything stopped working. It had nothing to do with combination. I am using all scripts combined and everything is working fine But why is older version better than New that is a new question for me | 2012/05/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10686616",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1390153/"
] | First, I'd suggest you move the jquery library links out to the main page. Have one file for all of your javascript, and include the other stuff on separate lines.
Whether or not you do that, though, your problem is almost certainly some sort of unclosed bracket or semicolon missing or something similar. Javascript often reacts to stuf like that by throwing its hands up in the air and giving up. The way to fix it is to go through your file and pick a function that is not currently working, but that is easy to test for functionality. Then comment out everything else, and test to see if the function works. If not, fix the function until it does work. Then, one piece at a time, uncomment each of the other blocks, again testing to see if the initial function works. If uncommenting a block causes the thing to stop working, then that's the block that you need to fix. Depending on how long your blocks are, you may need to do this in tiers | First, don't do that with jQuery, ever. You're almost always better off pointing your script src to a [public CDN](http://docs.jquery.com/Downloading_jQuery#CDN_Hosted_jQuery) somewhere.
Second, what you're trying to do is very brittle, and probably not worth troubleshooting. If you have that many JS files, you really need to use a module library (I like [require.js](http://requirejs.org/)) to give your project some structure and make it more manageable. Most libraries like this will include some sort of utility to combine and minifi your scripts safely.
This will take some work on your part to get things setup, but it should prove well worth it in the long run! |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | It is indeed a rule that comes from film cameras.
On point 4 the answer is simple:
Multiply the focal length with the crop factor of your sensor. Because the sensor is smaller than a full frame sensor, it will not cover the full image circle, cropping out a smaller image. This has the effect of looking like a longer focal length.
E.g. on Canon, a 50mm lens from full frame has a rule of thumb of 1/50s.
On a Canon crop sensor, with a crop factor of 1.6, this reduces to 50\*1.6 = 80 hence a recommended shutterspeed of 1/80s.
Point 3 is bit more tricky:
I hope you are familiar with the concept of stops. Double or half the exposure = a difference in one stop. IS is described in stops. e.g. IS that gives you two stops should allow you to handhold your lens for an amount of time 4 times as long as without IS. Of course it requires you to be reasonably steady, as IS can only do "so much".
Point 2:
Yes, but you shouldn't aim for blurry photos anyway.
Point 1:
Yes and no. A higher resolution sensor will resolve the blur more clearly, but it isn't blurred more. More pixels cover the same area, hence, when viewing an image at 100%, you will get the impression of more blur, though the blur is identical. The resolution of the "other sensor" was just too low to resolve it.
To give you an absurd example:
If you had a camera with 1 pixel, it would never show any blur - because it cannot resolve it. | The 1/shutter speed rule is intended as a guideline or rule of thumb, and shouldn't be taken as a perfectly precise number. Likewise, the transition from "sharp" to "not sharp" isn't absolute and sudden; the sharpness will degrade gradually as you go to longer exposure times. Also, different people of different ages holding different cameras and lenses at different times, with different levels of fatigue and strength will all vary in their ability to hold a camera steady.
The intent of the rule is to give you an image that's "acceptably sharp." That doesn't mean perfectly sharp. A photograph taken at a 1/FL shutter speed will almost certainly be less sharp, to a visible degree, than a photograph taken on a tripod, or at a much faster shutter speed.
And you are certainly correct that the rule predates digital photography. I learned it as a child from my father.
So with those expectations set, let's look at your concerns:
1. This would be a big concern if the rule were intended to produce perfectly sharp images. But you need very careful technique to produce images that are sharp enough to show the difference between 10 Mp and 24 Mp. Shooting hand-held at 1/FL is not "careful technique." My expectation is that at 1/FL, there will be blur due to shake of well over 1 pixel on either sensor.
2. This is true, you can tolerate less sharpness in a photograph that will be printed small. If I had to guess, I would expect a rule of thumb to target "acceptably sharp" at something like 8x10. But, again, that's "acceptably sharp," which is a vague notion, and falls short of "perfectly sharp."
3. This is absolutely true, and is of course the whole reason for image stabilization. Usually the manufacturers will claim a handholding improvement as a certain number of stops. So if the rule-of-thumb (or your experience) tells you that you can take a certain shot at 1/250 of a second with acceptable sharpness without stabilization, and your stabilization system is supposed to give 3 stops of improvement, then you should expect to get similar quality with a 1/30 second exposure and stabilization active.
4. Yes, assuming that you're enlarging the photographs to the same degree as full frame, this is correct. Thus I've often seen the recommendation to use the "35mm equivalent focal length" in the rule of thumb, instead of the actual focal length.
Over and above all, it's probably best to learn how well you can handhold your equipment, taking into account your innate ability to hold steady, the ergonomics of your gear, and the effectiveness of its stabilization. The rule of thumb, with adjustments for stabilization and sensor size, is a good starting point, but it's only a starting point. And if you need absolute sharpness, either aim for at least a couple of stops faster than the rule says, or use a tripod! |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | the 1/focal length rule is based on the idea that degree to which detail is spread over the film plane is proportional to the focal length (when the focal length doubles, the blur doubles, any camera motion is effectively magnified), and also proportional to the shutter time (when the time the shutter is open is doulbed, the blur doubles, as twice much camera motion takes place during the exposure). Setting the shutter speed to the inverse (one over) of the focal length causes both effects to cancel out [in theory] and thus delivers a constant amount of blur.
Now like the depth of field formulas, this formulation relies on the final output size being held constant. When viewing images at 100% the rule falls down as the appearance of motion blur is then dependant on pixel size, not just the absolute size of the blur on the sensor (if the blur distance is smaller than a pixel the blur wont be visible).
IMO everything should be compared at the same final output size so the pixel density issue is not that important but it's worth knowing that if you apply the rule blindly you might not get any advantage of your extra pixels, but you wont lose quality compared to a camera with lower pixel density. | The 1/shutter speed rule is intended as a guideline or rule of thumb, and shouldn't be taken as a perfectly precise number. Likewise, the transition from "sharp" to "not sharp" isn't absolute and sudden; the sharpness will degrade gradually as you go to longer exposure times. Also, different people of different ages holding different cameras and lenses at different times, with different levels of fatigue and strength will all vary in their ability to hold a camera steady.
The intent of the rule is to give you an image that's "acceptably sharp." That doesn't mean perfectly sharp. A photograph taken at a 1/FL shutter speed will almost certainly be less sharp, to a visible degree, than a photograph taken on a tripod, or at a much faster shutter speed.
And you are certainly correct that the rule predates digital photography. I learned it as a child from my father.
So with those expectations set, let's look at your concerns:
1. This would be a big concern if the rule were intended to produce perfectly sharp images. But you need very careful technique to produce images that are sharp enough to show the difference between 10 Mp and 24 Mp. Shooting hand-held at 1/FL is not "careful technique." My expectation is that at 1/FL, there will be blur due to shake of well over 1 pixel on either sensor.
2. This is true, you can tolerate less sharpness in a photograph that will be printed small. If I had to guess, I would expect a rule of thumb to target "acceptably sharp" at something like 8x10. But, again, that's "acceptably sharp," which is a vague notion, and falls short of "perfectly sharp."
3. This is absolutely true, and is of course the whole reason for image stabilization. Usually the manufacturers will claim a handholding improvement as a certain number of stops. So if the rule-of-thumb (or your experience) tells you that you can take a certain shot at 1/250 of a second with acceptable sharpness without stabilization, and your stabilization system is supposed to give 3 stops of improvement, then you should expect to get similar quality with a 1/30 second exposure and stabilization active.
4. Yes, assuming that you're enlarging the photographs to the same degree as full frame, this is correct. Thus I've often seen the recommendation to use the "35mm equivalent focal length" in the rule of thumb, instead of the actual focal length.
Over and above all, it's probably best to learn how well you can handhold your equipment, taking into account your innate ability to hold steady, the ergonomics of your gear, and the effectiveness of its stabilization. The rule of thumb, with adjustments for stabilization and sensor size, is a good starting point, but it's only a starting point. And if you need absolute sharpness, either aim for at least a couple of stops faster than the rule says, or use a tripod! |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | I did some quick Google Books searches, and while I can't pinpoint the origin, there are a number of references to it as a rule of thumb or general guideline in the early 1970s, and none that I can find before that. There are plenty of earlier [references to the *idea* that a longer focal length requires a faster shutter](http://books.google.com/books?id=CjwOAQAAIAAJ&q=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&dq=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&hl=en&sa=X&ei=fRoPT_O7G6Tz0gHQ4MnLAw&ved=0CFIQ6AEwBDgK) but they're all general advice.
The first reference I find is [from Popular Photography in 1972](http://books.google.com/books?ei=KDoPT4rmKeXK0AHrzemaAw&id=lKXjAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20speed%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20that%20will%20help%20you%20determine%20the%20slowest%20hand-held%20shutter%20speed%20to%20use%20is:%20place%20the%20number%20one%20over%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%20%28in%20millimeters%29.%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule that will help you determine the slowest hand-held shutter speed to use is: place the number one over the focal length of the lens (in millimeters). For example, with a 100-mm lens, one over 100 is ¹⁄₁₀₀ (¹⁄₁₂₅ would be the closest speed to set); with a 250-mm lens, the rule gives ¹⁄₂₅₀ sec. Use this rule as a guide. You may be able to hold for somewhat slower speeds if you're steady and your camera holding technique is good. If you're shaky, you may have to shoot at a faster speed than the rule indicates. Experience will tell this. If in doubt, use a tripod or other firm support and a cable release, when possible.
>
>
>
A year or so later, I found [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=YgbvAAAAIAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22for%20hand-held%20shooting,%20don%27t%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20any%20slower%20than%22#search_anchor)
>
> You can minimize or completely eliminate camera movement if you remember this rule: For hand-held shooting, don't use a shutter speed any slower than the focal length of the lens. The normal lens on a 35mm camera is is 50 to 55mm. When using this lens, set the shutter at ¹⁄₆₀th second. ...
> — Walter Chandoha, *How to Photograph Cats, Dogs, and Other Animals*, Crown Publishers, 1973
>
>
>
I doubt that either of these is the first occurance, though. There's a whole bunch of examples from around the same time, like [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=ZKHyAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20of%20thumb%20is%20to%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20at%20least%20as%20high%20as%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule of thumb is to use a shutter speed at least as high as the focal length of the lens: a 60th for the 50mm, 125th for the 105mm, 250th for the 200mm, and so on. But experience may show you are steadier or shakier than this rule assumes. — Robert Foothorap and Vickie Golden, *Independent Photography: a biased guide to 35mm technique and equipment for the beginner, the student, and the artist*, Simon and Schuster, 1975
>
>
>
So, I don't know exactly where it came from, but it's definitely an idea for 35mm film, and it's clear that in its early form, it was seen as a *general guide*, not a law. | The 1/shutter speed rule is intended as a guideline or rule of thumb, and shouldn't be taken as a perfectly precise number. Likewise, the transition from "sharp" to "not sharp" isn't absolute and sudden; the sharpness will degrade gradually as you go to longer exposure times. Also, different people of different ages holding different cameras and lenses at different times, with different levels of fatigue and strength will all vary in their ability to hold a camera steady.
The intent of the rule is to give you an image that's "acceptably sharp." That doesn't mean perfectly sharp. A photograph taken at a 1/FL shutter speed will almost certainly be less sharp, to a visible degree, than a photograph taken on a tripod, or at a much faster shutter speed.
And you are certainly correct that the rule predates digital photography. I learned it as a child from my father.
So with those expectations set, let's look at your concerns:
1. This would be a big concern if the rule were intended to produce perfectly sharp images. But you need very careful technique to produce images that are sharp enough to show the difference between 10 Mp and 24 Mp. Shooting hand-held at 1/FL is not "careful technique." My expectation is that at 1/FL, there will be blur due to shake of well over 1 pixel on either sensor.
2. This is true, you can tolerate less sharpness in a photograph that will be printed small. If I had to guess, I would expect a rule of thumb to target "acceptably sharp" at something like 8x10. But, again, that's "acceptably sharp," which is a vague notion, and falls short of "perfectly sharp."
3. This is absolutely true, and is of course the whole reason for image stabilization. Usually the manufacturers will claim a handholding improvement as a certain number of stops. So if the rule-of-thumb (or your experience) tells you that you can take a certain shot at 1/250 of a second with acceptable sharpness without stabilization, and your stabilization system is supposed to give 3 stops of improvement, then you should expect to get similar quality with a 1/30 second exposure and stabilization active.
4. Yes, assuming that you're enlarging the photographs to the same degree as full frame, this is correct. Thus I've often seen the recommendation to use the "35mm equivalent focal length" in the rule of thumb, instead of the actual focal length.
Over and above all, it's probably best to learn how well you can handhold your equipment, taking into account your innate ability to hold steady, the ergonomics of your gear, and the effectiveness of its stabilization. The rule of thumb, with adjustments for stabilization and sensor size, is a good starting point, but it's only a starting point. And if you need absolute sharpness, either aim for at least a couple of stops faster than the rule says, or use a tripod! |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | There's lots of good information in the other answers which we'll not repeat here, but one important thing that has been hinted at hasn't been explicitly mentioned: **Pretty much all of the "rules of thumb" from the film era are based upon a presumption that the image will be printed no larger than 8x10 inches and viewed from a distance of about 10-12 inches by a person with 20/20 vision.**
If one is concerned about perceptible blur when viewing a high resolution digital image on a large monitor, *all* of those rules of thumb that are affected by magnification go out the window. This would include any depth of field calculations based on the 8x10 assumption as well as any expectation of the impact of motion blur on a photograph.
Why? *Because when you magnify an image more, you also magnify the blur in that image.* This also applies to different sensor sizes when the results from them are viewed at the same display size. An image from an APS-C sensor must be magnified 1.5-1.6 times more than an image from a full frame camera or 36x24mm 135 film negative. An image from a µ4/3 camera must be magnified 2X that of an image from a 35mm camera to view at the same size.
If one is viewing a 24MP image at 100% (one pixel in the image = one RGB pixel group on the monitor) on a 23" HD (1920x1080) monitor, one is looking at a portion of the equivalent of a 60x40 inch print! Of course rules of thumb about shutter speed/camera motion and DoF calculations intended for much lower magnification will not be correct in such a situation. | The 1/shutter speed rule is intended as a guideline or rule of thumb, and shouldn't be taken as a perfectly precise number. Likewise, the transition from "sharp" to "not sharp" isn't absolute and sudden; the sharpness will degrade gradually as you go to longer exposure times. Also, different people of different ages holding different cameras and lenses at different times, with different levels of fatigue and strength will all vary in their ability to hold a camera steady.
The intent of the rule is to give you an image that's "acceptably sharp." That doesn't mean perfectly sharp. A photograph taken at a 1/FL shutter speed will almost certainly be less sharp, to a visible degree, than a photograph taken on a tripod, or at a much faster shutter speed.
And you are certainly correct that the rule predates digital photography. I learned it as a child from my father.
So with those expectations set, let's look at your concerns:
1. This would be a big concern if the rule were intended to produce perfectly sharp images. But you need very careful technique to produce images that are sharp enough to show the difference between 10 Mp and 24 Mp. Shooting hand-held at 1/FL is not "careful technique." My expectation is that at 1/FL, there will be blur due to shake of well over 1 pixel on either sensor.
2. This is true, you can tolerate less sharpness in a photograph that will be printed small. If I had to guess, I would expect a rule of thumb to target "acceptably sharp" at something like 8x10. But, again, that's "acceptably sharp," which is a vague notion, and falls short of "perfectly sharp."
3. This is absolutely true, and is of course the whole reason for image stabilization. Usually the manufacturers will claim a handholding improvement as a certain number of stops. So if the rule-of-thumb (or your experience) tells you that you can take a certain shot at 1/250 of a second with acceptable sharpness without stabilization, and your stabilization system is supposed to give 3 stops of improvement, then you should expect to get similar quality with a 1/30 second exposure and stabilization active.
4. Yes, assuming that you're enlarging the photographs to the same degree as full frame, this is correct. Thus I've often seen the recommendation to use the "35mm equivalent focal length" in the rule of thumb, instead of the actual focal length.
Over and above all, it's probably best to learn how well you can handhold your equipment, taking into account your innate ability to hold steady, the ergonomics of your gear, and the effectiveness of its stabilization. The rule of thumb, with adjustments for stabilization and sensor size, is a good starting point, but it's only a starting point. And if you need absolute sharpness, either aim for at least a couple of stops faster than the rule says, or use a tripod! |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | It is indeed a rule that comes from film cameras.
On point 4 the answer is simple:
Multiply the focal length with the crop factor of your sensor. Because the sensor is smaller than a full frame sensor, it will not cover the full image circle, cropping out a smaller image. This has the effect of looking like a longer focal length.
E.g. on Canon, a 50mm lens from full frame has a rule of thumb of 1/50s.
On a Canon crop sensor, with a crop factor of 1.6, this reduces to 50\*1.6 = 80 hence a recommended shutterspeed of 1/80s.
Point 3 is bit more tricky:
I hope you are familiar with the concept of stops. Double or half the exposure = a difference in one stop. IS is described in stops. e.g. IS that gives you two stops should allow you to handhold your lens for an amount of time 4 times as long as without IS. Of course it requires you to be reasonably steady, as IS can only do "so much".
Point 2:
Yes, but you shouldn't aim for blurry photos anyway.
Point 1:
Yes and no. A higher resolution sensor will resolve the blur more clearly, but it isn't blurred more. More pixels cover the same area, hence, when viewing an image at 100%, you will get the impression of more blur, though the blur is identical. The resolution of the "other sensor" was just too low to resolve it.
To give you an absurd example:
If you had a camera with 1 pixel, it would never show any blur - because it cannot resolve it. | the 1/focal length rule is based on the idea that degree to which detail is spread over the film plane is proportional to the focal length (when the focal length doubles, the blur doubles, any camera motion is effectively magnified), and also proportional to the shutter time (when the time the shutter is open is doulbed, the blur doubles, as twice much camera motion takes place during the exposure). Setting the shutter speed to the inverse (one over) of the focal length causes both effects to cancel out [in theory] and thus delivers a constant amount of blur.
Now like the depth of field formulas, this formulation relies on the final output size being held constant. When viewing images at 100% the rule falls down as the appearance of motion blur is then dependant on pixel size, not just the absolute size of the blur on the sensor (if the blur distance is smaller than a pixel the blur wont be visible).
IMO everything should be compared at the same final output size so the pixel density issue is not that important but it's worth knowing that if you apply the rule blindly you might not get any advantage of your extra pixels, but you wont lose quality compared to a camera with lower pixel density. |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | I did some quick Google Books searches, and while I can't pinpoint the origin, there are a number of references to it as a rule of thumb or general guideline in the early 1970s, and none that I can find before that. There are plenty of earlier [references to the *idea* that a longer focal length requires a faster shutter](http://books.google.com/books?id=CjwOAQAAIAAJ&q=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&dq=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&hl=en&sa=X&ei=fRoPT_O7G6Tz0gHQ4MnLAw&ved=0CFIQ6AEwBDgK) but they're all general advice.
The first reference I find is [from Popular Photography in 1972](http://books.google.com/books?ei=KDoPT4rmKeXK0AHrzemaAw&id=lKXjAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20speed%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20that%20will%20help%20you%20determine%20the%20slowest%20hand-held%20shutter%20speed%20to%20use%20is:%20place%20the%20number%20one%20over%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%20%28in%20millimeters%29.%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule that will help you determine the slowest hand-held shutter speed to use is: place the number one over the focal length of the lens (in millimeters). For example, with a 100-mm lens, one over 100 is ¹⁄₁₀₀ (¹⁄₁₂₅ would be the closest speed to set); with a 250-mm lens, the rule gives ¹⁄₂₅₀ sec. Use this rule as a guide. You may be able to hold for somewhat slower speeds if you're steady and your camera holding technique is good. If you're shaky, you may have to shoot at a faster speed than the rule indicates. Experience will tell this. If in doubt, use a tripod or other firm support and a cable release, when possible.
>
>
>
A year or so later, I found [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=YgbvAAAAIAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22for%20hand-held%20shooting,%20don%27t%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20any%20slower%20than%22#search_anchor)
>
> You can minimize or completely eliminate camera movement if you remember this rule: For hand-held shooting, don't use a shutter speed any slower than the focal length of the lens. The normal lens on a 35mm camera is is 50 to 55mm. When using this lens, set the shutter at ¹⁄₆₀th second. ...
> — Walter Chandoha, *How to Photograph Cats, Dogs, and Other Animals*, Crown Publishers, 1973
>
>
>
I doubt that either of these is the first occurance, though. There's a whole bunch of examples from around the same time, like [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=ZKHyAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20of%20thumb%20is%20to%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20at%20least%20as%20high%20as%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule of thumb is to use a shutter speed at least as high as the focal length of the lens: a 60th for the 50mm, 125th for the 105mm, 250th for the 200mm, and so on. But experience may show you are steadier or shakier than this rule assumes. — Robert Foothorap and Vickie Golden, *Independent Photography: a biased guide to 35mm technique and equipment for the beginner, the student, and the artist*, Simon and Schuster, 1975
>
>
>
So, I don't know exactly where it came from, but it's definitely an idea for 35mm film, and it's clear that in its early form, it was seen as a *general guide*, not a law. | It is indeed a rule that comes from film cameras.
On point 4 the answer is simple:
Multiply the focal length with the crop factor of your sensor. Because the sensor is smaller than a full frame sensor, it will not cover the full image circle, cropping out a smaller image. This has the effect of looking like a longer focal length.
E.g. on Canon, a 50mm lens from full frame has a rule of thumb of 1/50s.
On a Canon crop sensor, with a crop factor of 1.6, this reduces to 50\*1.6 = 80 hence a recommended shutterspeed of 1/80s.
Point 3 is bit more tricky:
I hope you are familiar with the concept of stops. Double or half the exposure = a difference in one stop. IS is described in stops. e.g. IS that gives you two stops should allow you to handhold your lens for an amount of time 4 times as long as without IS. Of course it requires you to be reasonably steady, as IS can only do "so much".
Point 2:
Yes, but you shouldn't aim for blurry photos anyway.
Point 1:
Yes and no. A higher resolution sensor will resolve the blur more clearly, but it isn't blurred more. More pixels cover the same area, hence, when viewing an image at 100%, you will get the impression of more blur, though the blur is identical. The resolution of the "other sensor" was just too low to resolve it.
To give you an absurd example:
If you had a camera with 1 pixel, it would never show any blur - because it cannot resolve it. |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | It is indeed a rule that comes from film cameras.
On point 4 the answer is simple:
Multiply the focal length with the crop factor of your sensor. Because the sensor is smaller than a full frame sensor, it will not cover the full image circle, cropping out a smaller image. This has the effect of looking like a longer focal length.
E.g. on Canon, a 50mm lens from full frame has a rule of thumb of 1/50s.
On a Canon crop sensor, with a crop factor of 1.6, this reduces to 50\*1.6 = 80 hence a recommended shutterspeed of 1/80s.
Point 3 is bit more tricky:
I hope you are familiar with the concept of stops. Double or half the exposure = a difference in one stop. IS is described in stops. e.g. IS that gives you two stops should allow you to handhold your lens for an amount of time 4 times as long as without IS. Of course it requires you to be reasonably steady, as IS can only do "so much".
Point 2:
Yes, but you shouldn't aim for blurry photos anyway.
Point 1:
Yes and no. A higher resolution sensor will resolve the blur more clearly, but it isn't blurred more. More pixels cover the same area, hence, when viewing an image at 100%, you will get the impression of more blur, though the blur is identical. The resolution of the "other sensor" was just too low to resolve it.
To give you an absurd example:
If you had a camera with 1 pixel, it would never show any blur - because it cannot resolve it. | There's lots of good information in the other answers which we'll not repeat here, but one important thing that has been hinted at hasn't been explicitly mentioned: **Pretty much all of the "rules of thumb" from the film era are based upon a presumption that the image will be printed no larger than 8x10 inches and viewed from a distance of about 10-12 inches by a person with 20/20 vision.**
If one is concerned about perceptible blur when viewing a high resolution digital image on a large monitor, *all* of those rules of thumb that are affected by magnification go out the window. This would include any depth of field calculations based on the 8x10 assumption as well as any expectation of the impact of motion blur on a photograph.
Why? *Because when you magnify an image more, you also magnify the blur in that image.* This also applies to different sensor sizes when the results from them are viewed at the same display size. An image from an APS-C sensor must be magnified 1.5-1.6 times more than an image from a full frame camera or 36x24mm 135 film negative. An image from a µ4/3 camera must be magnified 2X that of an image from a 35mm camera to view at the same size.
If one is viewing a 24MP image at 100% (one pixel in the image = one RGB pixel group on the monitor) on a 23" HD (1920x1080) monitor, one is looking at a portion of the equivalent of a 60x40 inch print! Of course rules of thumb about shutter speed/camera motion and DoF calculations intended for much lower magnification will not be correct in such a situation. |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | I did some quick Google Books searches, and while I can't pinpoint the origin, there are a number of references to it as a rule of thumb or general guideline in the early 1970s, and none that I can find before that. There are plenty of earlier [references to the *idea* that a longer focal length requires a faster shutter](http://books.google.com/books?id=CjwOAQAAIAAJ&q=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&dq=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&hl=en&sa=X&ei=fRoPT_O7G6Tz0gHQ4MnLAw&ved=0CFIQ6AEwBDgK) but they're all general advice.
The first reference I find is [from Popular Photography in 1972](http://books.google.com/books?ei=KDoPT4rmKeXK0AHrzemaAw&id=lKXjAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20speed%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20that%20will%20help%20you%20determine%20the%20slowest%20hand-held%20shutter%20speed%20to%20use%20is:%20place%20the%20number%20one%20over%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%20%28in%20millimeters%29.%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule that will help you determine the slowest hand-held shutter speed to use is: place the number one over the focal length of the lens (in millimeters). For example, with a 100-mm lens, one over 100 is ¹⁄₁₀₀ (¹⁄₁₂₅ would be the closest speed to set); with a 250-mm lens, the rule gives ¹⁄₂₅₀ sec. Use this rule as a guide. You may be able to hold for somewhat slower speeds if you're steady and your camera holding technique is good. If you're shaky, you may have to shoot at a faster speed than the rule indicates. Experience will tell this. If in doubt, use a tripod or other firm support and a cable release, when possible.
>
>
>
A year or so later, I found [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=YgbvAAAAIAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22for%20hand-held%20shooting,%20don%27t%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20any%20slower%20than%22#search_anchor)
>
> You can minimize or completely eliminate camera movement if you remember this rule: For hand-held shooting, don't use a shutter speed any slower than the focal length of the lens. The normal lens on a 35mm camera is is 50 to 55mm. When using this lens, set the shutter at ¹⁄₆₀th second. ...
> — Walter Chandoha, *How to Photograph Cats, Dogs, and Other Animals*, Crown Publishers, 1973
>
>
>
I doubt that either of these is the first occurance, though. There's a whole bunch of examples from around the same time, like [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=ZKHyAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20of%20thumb%20is%20to%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20at%20least%20as%20high%20as%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule of thumb is to use a shutter speed at least as high as the focal length of the lens: a 60th for the 50mm, 125th for the 105mm, 250th for the 200mm, and so on. But experience may show you are steadier or shakier than this rule assumes. — Robert Foothorap and Vickie Golden, *Independent Photography: a biased guide to 35mm technique and equipment for the beginner, the student, and the artist*, Simon and Schuster, 1975
>
>
>
So, I don't know exactly where it came from, but it's definitely an idea for 35mm film, and it's clear that in its early form, it was seen as a *general guide*, not a law. | the 1/focal length rule is based on the idea that degree to which detail is spread over the film plane is proportional to the focal length (when the focal length doubles, the blur doubles, any camera motion is effectively magnified), and also proportional to the shutter time (when the time the shutter is open is doulbed, the blur doubles, as twice much camera motion takes place during the exposure). Setting the shutter speed to the inverse (one over) of the focal length causes both effects to cancel out [in theory] and thus delivers a constant amount of blur.
Now like the depth of field formulas, this formulation relies on the final output size being held constant. When viewing images at 100% the rule falls down as the appearance of motion blur is then dependant on pixel size, not just the absolute size of the blur on the sensor (if the blur distance is smaller than a pixel the blur wont be visible).
IMO everything should be compared at the same final output size so the pixel density issue is not that important but it's worth knowing that if you apply the rule blindly you might not get any advantage of your extra pixels, but you wont lose quality compared to a camera with lower pixel density. |
19,102 | The generally accepted rule of thumb is that the shutter speed must be the same or larger than the inverse of the focal length.
As is, it seems that it makes [no sense as is](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/1733/how-can-i-determine-the-minimum-shutter-speed-to-avoid-blur-from-camera-shake):
1. On a 24 Mpixels full-frame camera, at 100%, the blur from camera movement will be more visible than on a 10 Mpixels full-frame camera.
2. A photo intended to be printed small can have slight blur at 100%: nobody will see it when scaled down for printing. When doing a high-quality large print, even a small blur will be noticeable.
3. Image stabilization (vibration reduction) affects the blur when shooting handheld.
4. The blur will not be the same on a cropped vs. full-frame sensor.
I imagine that the rule of thumb appeared first when there was no DSLRs yet, and photographers were talking about SLRs with 35mm film. Is this that fact that makes the three of four points irrelevant? If yes, what about the second point? If not, what is the origin of this rule? | 2012/01/12 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/19102",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2236/"
] | I did some quick Google Books searches, and while I can't pinpoint the origin, there are a number of references to it as a rule of thumb or general guideline in the early 1970s, and none that I can find before that. There are plenty of earlier [references to the *idea* that a longer focal length requires a faster shutter](http://books.google.com/books?id=CjwOAQAAIAAJ&q=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&dq=shutter+focal+length+blur+handheld&hl=en&sa=X&ei=fRoPT_O7G6Tz0gHQ4MnLAw&ved=0CFIQ6AEwBDgK) but they're all general advice.
The first reference I find is [from Popular Photography in 1972](http://books.google.com/books?ei=KDoPT4rmKeXK0AHrzemaAw&id=lKXjAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20speed%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20that%20will%20help%20you%20determine%20the%20slowest%20hand-held%20shutter%20speed%20to%20use%20is:%20place%20the%20number%20one%20over%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%20%28in%20millimeters%29.%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule that will help you determine the slowest hand-held shutter speed to use is: place the number one over the focal length of the lens (in millimeters). For example, with a 100-mm lens, one over 100 is ¹⁄₁₀₀ (¹⁄₁₂₅ would be the closest speed to set); with a 250-mm lens, the rule gives ¹⁄₂₅₀ sec. Use this rule as a guide. You may be able to hold for somewhat slower speeds if you're steady and your camera holding technique is good. If you're shaky, you may have to shoot at a faster speed than the rule indicates. Experience will tell this. If in doubt, use a tripod or other firm support and a cable release, when possible.
>
>
>
A year or so later, I found [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=YgbvAAAAIAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22for%20hand-held%20shooting,%20don%27t%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20any%20slower%20than%22#search_anchor)
>
> You can minimize or completely eliminate camera movement if you remember this rule: For hand-held shooting, don't use a shutter speed any slower than the focal length of the lens. The normal lens on a 35mm camera is is 50 to 55mm. When using this lens, set the shutter at ¹⁄₆₀th second. ...
> — Walter Chandoha, *How to Photograph Cats, Dogs, and Other Animals*, Crown Publishers, 1973
>
>
>
I doubt that either of these is the first occurance, though. There's a whole bunch of examples from around the same time, like [this](http://books.google.com/books?ei=RxsPT6XlKuef0AGz0ozPAw&id=ZKHyAAAAMAAJ&dq=shutter%20focal%20length%20blur%20handheld&q=%22A%20rule%20of%20thumb%20is%20to%20use%20a%20shutter%20speed%20at%20least%20as%20high%20as%20the%20focal%20length%20of%20the%20lens%22#search_anchor):
>
> A rule of thumb is to use a shutter speed at least as high as the focal length of the lens: a 60th for the 50mm, 125th for the 105mm, 250th for the 200mm, and so on. But experience may show you are steadier or shakier than this rule assumes. — Robert Foothorap and Vickie Golden, *Independent Photography: a biased guide to 35mm technique and equipment for the beginner, the student, and the artist*, Simon and Schuster, 1975
>
>
>
So, I don't know exactly where it came from, but it's definitely an idea for 35mm film, and it's clear that in its early form, it was seen as a *general guide*, not a law. | There's lots of good information in the other answers which we'll not repeat here, but one important thing that has been hinted at hasn't been explicitly mentioned: **Pretty much all of the "rules of thumb" from the film era are based upon a presumption that the image will be printed no larger than 8x10 inches and viewed from a distance of about 10-12 inches by a person with 20/20 vision.**
If one is concerned about perceptible blur when viewing a high resolution digital image on a large monitor, *all* of those rules of thumb that are affected by magnification go out the window. This would include any depth of field calculations based on the 8x10 assumption as well as any expectation of the impact of motion blur on a photograph.
Why? *Because when you magnify an image more, you also magnify the blur in that image.* This also applies to different sensor sizes when the results from them are viewed at the same display size. An image from an APS-C sensor must be magnified 1.5-1.6 times more than an image from a full frame camera or 36x24mm 135 film negative. An image from a µ4/3 camera must be magnified 2X that of an image from a 35mm camera to view at the same size.
If one is viewing a 24MP image at 100% (one pixel in the image = one RGB pixel group on the monitor) on a 23" HD (1920x1080) monitor, one is looking at a portion of the equivalent of a 60x40 inch print! Of course rules of thumb about shutter speed/camera motion and DoF calculations intended for much lower magnification will not be correct in such a situation. |
9,987 | I'm learning to play the piano and I'm slightly confused after reading this:
<http://pianoscale.org/scales/root/c/major/>
Is the 1st note in the treble clef the same as the 8th notes in the bass clef? And if so, is that considered to be "middle C" on a piano?
Also, wouldn't there typically be more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef? Why are they missing in this case? If they normally show up, then where is "middle C" on such a scale? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/9987",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/5901/"
] | Here are two pictures that should explain everything.
To your question, "Also, wouldn't there typically be more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef? Why are they missing in this case?" I should explain that in typesetting sheet music, the amount of space between the treble and bass clef of the piano is variable, but the number of notes between them are not. More or less space can be put between the staves to allow for slurs or ties or other musical symbols or text, and to allow for the peculiarities of cross-staff notes and cross-staff beaming. Regardless of the visual appearance, technically there is only one ledger line between the staves, and on that line goes only the pitch C (or C# or Cb).
It should also be noted that the two staves are traditionally set up to separate the part played by the left hand from the part played by the right hand; the lower staff is for the left hand, the upper for the right. When the music requires both hands to be in the bass register, or both hands to be in the treble register, the two staves can use different clef signs (for instance two staves with treble clefs or two staves with bass clefs) or the notation "8va" or "8vb" can be put over certain notes to indicate that they are to be played an octave higher or lower than they appear on the staff.
When you see notes like the example below on the left, this is to indicate that the note below the treble staff is to be played with the right hand. The example on the right notates exactly the same thing, with exactly the same pitches, but using cross-staff beaming.
Here is an example from a Bach harpsichord concerto.
The two musical lines can cross from one staff to the other, but because of the cross-staff beaming and stem direction, and the lack of rests in the second measure in the bass staff, it's obvious that there are two lines played by two hands. | Yes, the first note on the upper staff is the middle C, as is the 8th note on the lower staff. The hands play one octave apart.
I'm not sure what you mean by "more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef", but what's written on the web page is standard. The middle C is always one line below the lowest line in treble clef, and one line above the highest line in bass clef. This can only be modified by using special notation such as an "8" above or below the clef symbol or on "8va" or "8vb" line above or below (respectively) the modified passage. |
9,987 | I'm learning to play the piano and I'm slightly confused after reading this:
<http://pianoscale.org/scales/root/c/major/>
Is the 1st note in the treble clef the same as the 8th notes in the bass clef? And if so, is that considered to be "middle C" on a piano?
Also, wouldn't there typically be more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef? Why are they missing in this case? If they normally show up, then where is "middle C" on such a scale? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/9987",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/5901/"
] | Yes, the first note on the upper staff is the middle C, as is the 8th note on the lower staff. The hands play one octave apart.
I'm not sure what you mean by "more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef", but what's written on the web page is standard. The middle C is always one line below the lowest line in treble clef, and one line above the highest line in bass clef. This can only be modified by using special notation such as an "8" above or below the clef symbol or on "8va" or "8vb" line above or below (respectively) the modified passage. | I explain it thus : originally music was written on 11 lines, with spaces (obviously) between. This roughly approximated the range of monks etc. voices.Trouble is, it wasn't easy to read notes written near the middle , so the lines were split into 2 lots of 5. This left the notes which lived in the middle line (C) without a line of their own.It didn't matter too much - middle C was not used any more than other notes, so when it did need to be written, it was given a little line of its own - a ledger line. Then, if playing keyboard type instruments in particular, any notes in the treble clef lower than middle C would have to have extra ledger lines, which actually doubled up the lines on the stave, but denoted them to be played with the right hand.And vice versa for left hand played notes that were higher than middle C.Hope this puts it all into place, Ein Doofus. |
9,987 | I'm learning to play the piano and I'm slightly confused after reading this:
<http://pianoscale.org/scales/root/c/major/>
Is the 1st note in the treble clef the same as the 8th notes in the bass clef? And if so, is that considered to be "middle C" on a piano?
Also, wouldn't there typically be more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef? Why are they missing in this case? If they normally show up, then where is "middle C" on such a scale? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/9987",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/5901/"
] | Here are two pictures that should explain everything.
To your question, "Also, wouldn't there typically be more notes in between the bass clef and treble clef? Why are they missing in this case?" I should explain that in typesetting sheet music, the amount of space between the treble and bass clef of the piano is variable, but the number of notes between them are not. More or less space can be put between the staves to allow for slurs or ties or other musical symbols or text, and to allow for the peculiarities of cross-staff notes and cross-staff beaming. Regardless of the visual appearance, technically there is only one ledger line between the staves, and on that line goes only the pitch C (or C# or Cb).
It should also be noted that the two staves are traditionally set up to separate the part played by the left hand from the part played by the right hand; the lower staff is for the left hand, the upper for the right. When the music requires both hands to be in the bass register, or both hands to be in the treble register, the two staves can use different clef signs (for instance two staves with treble clefs or two staves with bass clefs) or the notation "8va" or "8vb" can be put over certain notes to indicate that they are to be played an octave higher or lower than they appear on the staff.
When you see notes like the example below on the left, this is to indicate that the note below the treble staff is to be played with the right hand. The example on the right notates exactly the same thing, with exactly the same pitches, but using cross-staff beaming.
Here is an example from a Bach harpsichord concerto.
The two musical lines can cross from one staff to the other, but because of the cross-staff beaming and stem direction, and the lack of rests in the second measure in the bass staff, it's obvious that there are two lines played by two hands. | I explain it thus : originally music was written on 11 lines, with spaces (obviously) between. This roughly approximated the range of monks etc. voices.Trouble is, it wasn't easy to read notes written near the middle , so the lines were split into 2 lots of 5. This left the notes which lived in the middle line (C) without a line of their own.It didn't matter too much - middle C was not used any more than other notes, so when it did need to be written, it was given a little line of its own - a ledger line. Then, if playing keyboard type instruments in particular, any notes in the treble clef lower than middle C would have to have extra ledger lines, which actually doubled up the lines on the stave, but denoted them to be played with the right hand.And vice versa for left hand played notes that were higher than middle C.Hope this puts it all into place, Ein Doofus. |
1,605,150 | Did Codigniter have inbuilt javascript lib?
else what javascript framework best for Codigniter | 2009/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1605150",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/82457/"
] | * CodeIgniter 1.7.2 contains 0 .js files
* I would recommend jQuery for general browser Javascript usage. | Hope these tutorials may help.
<http://geekhut.org/2009/06/how-to-codeigniter-jquery-json/>
<http://www.mrforbes.com/thoughts/2009/01/28/a-quick-code-igniter-and-jquery-ajax-tutorial/>
<http://codeigniter.com/forums/viewthread/79844/>
Try google and codeigniter forums for the rest... |
37,842 | This is a pretty basic question, but I'm new to electronics, and I'm a little confused: if you have a component that say it runs at 12V, it still needs a certain amount of current to run, right? If you add too much resistance, even if you supply a 12V difference across it, the component will not function correctly, right?
That being said, if you don't have the proper voltage (say you only have an 8V difference), but you have a low enough resistance such that the current through the component would be sufficient to power it if the voltage difference were 12V, will the compoennt still run?
I'm asking because I have a [windshield wiper pump](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B000CB69ZW) that's rated at 12V, but isn't running when I power it with an 8V, 1A power supply, even if I don't have any resistance on it (i tried this for less than a second, when 10Ω resistance didn't work). Is this because the current isn't high enough? Or the voltage? Or both?
Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! | 2012/08/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/37842",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/10146/"
] | I'm new to electronics too but I'm going to try my hand. Essentially, the amount of resistance in the proposed circuit will control both current through and voltage across the pump. When a component says it **needs** a certain voltage, I.E 12V, it mean's what it says, so the wiper pump was well within it's right's not to work.
Recall that **I = V / R**. Assuming you directly connected the battery to the pump, V = 12. The resistance of the pump will dynamically change as it functions, for instance, it would change if you suddenly forcibly physically stopped it(you'd likely get extremely high currents if you did that). In the worst possible case (impossible without a superconducting pump), R = 0 hence I = infinity. The current draw increases as the pump requires more power, simply.
Finally, It is difficult to say exactly what you should aim to supply to your pump because ultimately assuming you have the correct voltage, the current will effectively control the 'power' of the pump (**P = VI**). The 'load' pump will draw the current that it wants to and this can be a problem - It can draw more then the power supply is specified to handle. **So you just need a power supply that supplies 12V @ the maximum expected current draw(I.E the pump's maximum current specification)**. You can go further by adding in a replaceable fuse.
(My first attempt at an answer, feel free to correct me anyone reading - OP, take this with a grain of salt)
Edit: Kellenjb has provided an excellent link which supersedes my pitiful attempt.
---
**Edit2:**
Regarding your parallel resistors: There's no particular reason to put them in parallel with each other unless you're trying to reach a particular resistance with the parts on hand. As long as they are in series with the pump as a unit though, there is no problem. Here's a few diagrams to clear up any confusion:
Above: Fine, the resistors are all in series, limiting current.
Above: Perfectly fine, the parallel resistors are in series with the pump, limiting current.
Above: **Not okay**, the resistors are NOT limiting current to the pump]
---
**You asked whether you could damage your pump if it receives too much current** - yes you could. But it's important to remember that the pump itself 'asks' for the current. The **only** function of the resistors is to **limit** current draw.
**Consider if the resistance of the pump, as the sole load in the circuit, dropped to 0, or near to it. You'd get extremely high currents. The point of the resistors is to prevent this from happening or at least reduce the severity when it does.** That is also why they are added in series with the pump, otherwise the pump could just draw whatever it wants.
The downside is that you have wasted power. Like I said, **check the pump specification**, we won't be able to give you an answer on what is and isn't enough current otherwise.
**Also to note**: I only know this because I'm a computer enthusiast, but pumps can be permanently damaged if you simply provide them power without giving them anything to 'pump' so to speak(so don't 'dry' run it).
We absolutely cannot give you any-more help until we see the pump specifications. Otherwise you really will just be conducting an experiment so to speak. | >
> if you have a component that say it runs at 12V, it still needs a certain amount of current to run, right?
>
>
>
The component, when connected to a 12V supply, will draw as much current as it needs to operate. If the power supply being used cannot deliver that amount of current, it may shut down, or the voltage may sag. The voltage sag may prevent the device from running - it all depends on the device.
>
> If you add too much resistance, even if you supply a 12V difference across it, the component will not function correctly, right?
>
>
>
It depends by what you mean by 'adding resistance'.
If you add series resistance, the component will still try to draw current, but the current will generate a voltage drop across the series resistance and reduce the voltage seen by the component. (The total voltage across the resistor and across the component must equal the supply voltage.)
If you add parallel resistance, it will draw current along with your load. This current is wasted as it doesn't help your component whatsoever.
>
> That being said, if you don't have the proper voltage (say you only have an 8V difference), but you have a low enough resistance such that the current through the component would be sufficient to power it if the voltage difference were 12V, will the component still run?
>
>
>
No guarantees. If the component needs 12V to run, don't expect it to work properly at 8V. It may, or may not - it depends on the component's characteristics. There's no general answer.
>
> I'm asking because I have a windshield wiper pump that's rated at 12V, but isn't running when I power it with an 8V, 1A power supply, even if I don't have any resistance on it (i tried this for less than a second, when 10Ω resistance didn't work). Is this because the current isn't high enough? Or the voltage? Or both?
>
>
>
Your major problem is the voltage. If the correct voltage isn't applied, there's no guarantee that the pump will draw any current at all. You're playing with a 12V motor - you *really* need to start with a 12V supply.
If you apply 12V and the motor drags the supply voltage down to 8V, that's an indication that the supply can't deliver enough current - get a stiffer power supply and try again. |
122,765 | I've been looking at some "not a real question" posts and they all seem be fairly generic to one or two scenarios. Either it's just not a question (which might actually be off-topic), or they haven't tried hard enough to make a post that lets us help them.
The FAQ identifies it as:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
The asker still has a problem but the question is useless until they address problems. I was wondering if we could get a generic list of questions we can ask ourselves to see if it's a helpful question (rather than or in addition to simply having close/open votes).
I'm not sure what the questions would be, but something along the lines of:
1. Did you include code that demonstrates your problem?
2. If applicable did you include a screenshot?
3. Are you rambling?
4. What did you try?
5. etc...
I'm just wondering if this might be a useful approach to fit in somewhere for those questions that are not real questions, and see what others think. | 2012/02/18 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/122765",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/142287/"
] | The most obvious resource is this post entitled [How to Ask Great Questions](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8072/how-to-ask-great-questions).
There are plenty of other information including the [How to Ask](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/how-to-ask) page every new user has to go through to ask their first question, so you can see that this information is already presented to users.
There is also a blog post written by [Jon Skeet](https://stackoverflow.com/users/22656/jon-skeet) called [Writing the Perfect Question](https://msmvps.com/blogs/jon_skeet/archive/2010/08/29/writing-the-perfect-question.aspx)
(I acknowledge that this is a links only answer but two of the links are to other content within Stack Overflow). | 1. **Is the author's problem described clearly and effectively?**
* A lot of times, users describe the stuff leading up to the problem and forget to include the problem itself. This is a situation where a downvote or comment would be appropriate to remind them, and if the user doesn't deal with it, a close vote.
2. **If necessary, is relevant code displayed to demonstrate the problem?**
* I find the best way when it comes to posting code is to try to replicate your problem on a smaller scale rather than giving us an entire page of code. This is a mistake a lot of users make when the problem ends up being just one line.
3. **Has the author made efforts to solve the problem themselves?**
* Users should show that they've made the effort to research the problem on their own time. It is better and easier for us to answer questions when we have something else to build off of, not just their code and what they *think* the problem might be. If they show they've done some research and looked into the problem beforehand, we can use the progress they've made to our advantage in answering the question. Also, beyond what they've looked up, it helps to know what they've already tried so we can go from there too.
4. **Can users appropriately and fully answer the question?**
* We close very broad questions (one I saw recently was "What's the difference between server-side and client-side?" which comes up so often) because they simply cannot be answered completely and to the full extent. If the full-fledged and correct answer would require a lot of explanation, backstory, and detail, then it's most likely too broad for these sites.
This is my criteria for a "real question." It could definitely be added to (if you think you have something, let me know in the comments).
**EDIT:** I skimmed the last part of the post, so this list is written in the third person. :P My mistake, I'll fix it later, but you guys get the point for now. |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | It sounds to me like
>
> Three living men carried three dead men in to a funeral parlour. The police officer had a very close relationship with the three dead men and spent the night wandering the halls in grief.
>
>
>
This doesn't really address specifics of the lines of the riddle, though. So, probably not right? | Are you at a
>
> Soap opera?
>
>
>
Reasoning:
>
> The first letter of each line spell Soap Operas
> The officer is crying because it is a soap opera
> I still don't know how six people entered but only three exited
>
>
> |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | What happened was a
>
> hostage taking
>
>
>
Six men enter a building,
Only three leave living,
>
> 3 criminals took 3 person hostage, but they released the hostages
>
>
>
A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
> because the police officer was a negociator and exchanged the 3 hostages for himself
>
>
>
Obiously distraught, our officer waits,
Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
> while waiting with the criminals, he hopes not to get killed
>
>
>
Eternity passes, the night rages on,
Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
> in that situation every second feels like an hour, but he manages to escape the criminals, running through the corridor he tells the SWAT to intervene
>
>
>
As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
> unfortunatly, during the SWAT's assalut, one of them died, filling the officer with grief
>
>
> | It sounds to me like
>
> Three living men carried three dead men in to a funeral parlour. The police officer had a very close relationship with the three dead men and spent the night wandering the halls in grief.
>
>
>
This doesn't really address specifics of the lines of the riddle, though. So, probably not right? |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | Were they in a
>
> Hospital?
>
>
>
The initial lines of the puzzle do indicate
>
> A Soap Opera
>
>
>
Amongst the most famous ones is
>
> General Hospital
>
>
>
In general, some people taken to these types of facilities don't always survive.
>
> Since he was in a hospital, he would not carry his firearm while wanting to speak to these folks.
>
>
>
About the situation they are in:
>
> Given the amount of grief the officer appears to be in, I would say the three fallen members were part of his police team. They may have taken a bullet in the line of fire and died overnight, not surviving the surgery meant to save their lives.
>
>
> | It sounds to me like
>
> Three living men carried three dead men in to a funeral parlour. The police officer had a very close relationship with the three dead men and spent the night wandering the halls in grief.
>
>
>
This doesn't really address specifics of the lines of the riddle, though. So, probably not right? |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | What happened was a
>
> hostage taking
>
>
>
Six men enter a building,
Only three leave living,
>
> 3 criminals took 3 person hostage, but they released the hostages
>
>
>
A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
> because the police officer was a negociator and exchanged the 3 hostages for himself
>
>
>
Obiously distraught, our officer waits,
Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
> while waiting with the criminals, he hopes not to get killed
>
>
>
Eternity passes, the night rages on,
Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
> in that situation every second feels like an hour, but he manages to escape the criminals, running through the corridor he tells the SWAT to intervene
>
>
>
As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
> unfortunatly, during the SWAT's assalut, one of them died, filling the officer with grief
>
>
> | Are you at a
>
> Soap opera?
>
>
>
Reasoning:
>
> The first letter of each line spell Soap Operas
> The officer is crying because it is a soap opera
> I still don't know how six people entered but only three exited
>
>
> |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | Were they in a
>
> Hospital?
>
>
>
The initial lines of the puzzle do indicate
>
> A Soap Opera
>
>
>
Amongst the most famous ones is
>
> General Hospital
>
>
>
In general, some people taken to these types of facilities don't always survive.
>
> Since he was in a hospital, he would not carry his firearm while wanting to speak to these folks.
>
>
>
About the situation they are in:
>
> Given the amount of grief the officer appears to be in, I would say the three fallen members were part of his police team. They may have taken a bullet in the line of fire and died overnight, not surviving the surgery meant to save their lives.
>
>
> | Are you at a
>
> Soap opera?
>
>
>
Reasoning:
>
> The first letter of each line spell Soap Operas
> The officer is crying because it is a soap opera
> I still don't know how six people entered but only three exited
>
>
> |
67,206 | >
> Six men enter a building,
>
> Only three leave living,
>
>
> A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
>
> Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
>
> Obviously distraught, our officer waits,
>
> Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
>
> Eternity passes, the night rages on,
>
> Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
>
> As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
>
> Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
>
>
Where are these people at and what is going on? | 2018/06/14 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/67206",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/48593/"
] | Were they in a
>
> Hospital?
>
>
>
The initial lines of the puzzle do indicate
>
> A Soap Opera
>
>
>
Amongst the most famous ones is
>
> General Hospital
>
>
>
In general, some people taken to these types of facilities don't always survive.
>
> Since he was in a hospital, he would not carry his firearm while wanting to speak to these folks.
>
>
>
About the situation they are in:
>
> Given the amount of grief the officer appears to be in, I would say the three fallen members were part of his police team. They may have taken a bullet in the line of fire and died overnight, not surviving the surgery meant to save their lives.
>
>
> | What happened was a
>
> hostage taking
>
>
>
Six men enter a building,
Only three leave living,
>
> 3 criminals took 3 person hostage, but they released the hostages
>
>
>
A police officer comes by and arrests no one,
Pacing through the building without his gun.
>
> because the police officer was a negociator and exchanged the 3 hostages for himself
>
>
>
Obiously distraught, our officer waits,
Pleading with heaven, he cries to the fates.
>
> while waiting with the criminals, he hopes not to get killed
>
>
>
Eternity passes, the night rages on,
Running through the building, he says, "Come on."
>
> in that situation every second feels like an hour, but he manages to escape the criminals, running through the corridor he tells the SWAT to intervene
>
>
>
As daylight breaks, the officer droops his head in sorrow,
Sadness in his eyes, the good man leaves, it is the morrow.
>
> unfortunatly, during the SWAT's assalut, one of them died, filling the officer with grief
>
>
> |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | I think it depends on two primary elements:
1. Are your testers embedded on your software engineering teams.
2. Is the output of your tests intelligible and useful to engineers.
Obviously it's folly to think that engineers could run tests from some other shadowy team that they have no rapport with. However, if you do have engineers and testers embedded on the same teams than it's more likely that you could have testers and engineers running each others tests.
More importantly than the tests themselves is the output. If the output isn't useful to an engineer then you might not be getting great value from an engineer running your tests. One thing that I've done to help bridge the gap is to tag tests into suites that are going to be useful to engineers. This way they can run a slice of tests that pertain to their specific work without having to run everything. | Yes It would help to identify bugs at early stage of testing
Development Team handles Design, Development and Unit Testing of Code. With SCRUM/TDD I am afraid if they have enough bandwidth to execute Integration/functional test scenarios
If Developers run QA Automation code, We could identify
- obvious bugs which are part of functionality
- cross browser failure issues in case of UI testing
- Any edge cases failing in certain conditions
One option is both developer and tester can sit together and do a round of functional testing at the end of development phase. Earlier the bugs are detected lesser the cost required to fix it
This is more of a mindshift change than identifying/setting boundarines between development and test teams |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | >
> Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests?
>
>
>
Yes, but I'd also suggest that if the programmers don't seem to, it's probably more productive to find out *why* before pushing harder. What's preventing them? Access to proprietary test tools? Difficult to setup easily on dev environment? Results not meaningful or easy to read? Too slow to run? Too brittle?
>
> Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before
> checking in?
>
>
>
That might be nice, but if the test suite takes 15 hours to run, a bit of a non-starter.
>
> Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated
> tests?
>
>
>
Yes. | Many companies will have QA's developing full functionality automation suits with tools like selenium. Those can be used as automated smoke tests and used with Build integration tools like Hudson and maven . Each time when the developers add something new to the application, they can just trigger the suit and see the applications functionality . This works great for regression testing. So as the previous posts suggest , if the QA developed site is functionally sound they developers can benefit a lot from it |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | If the QA team is not embedded in the development team I don't think the whole process will run smoothly.
Development should always write unit tests, not the QA team. This is because development has more insight in the code. I would let the QA team write more functional test scripts. | Many companies will have QA's developing full functionality automation suits with tools like selenium. Those can be used as automated smoke tests and used with Build integration tools like Hudson and maven . Each time when the developers add something new to the application, they can just trigger the suit and see the applications functionality . This works great for regression testing. So as the previous posts suggest , if the QA developed site is functionally sound they developers can benefit a lot from it |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | Many companies will have QA's developing full functionality automation suits with tools like selenium. Those can be used as automated smoke tests and used with Build integration tools like Hudson and maven . Each time when the developers add something new to the application, they can just trigger the suit and see the applications functionality . This works great for regression testing. So as the previous posts suggest , if the QA developed site is functionally sound they developers can benefit a lot from it | Yes It would help to identify bugs at early stage of testing
Development Team handles Design, Development and Unit Testing of Code. With SCRUM/TDD I am afraid if they have enough bandwidth to execute Integration/functional test scenarios
If Developers run QA Automation code, We could identify
- obvious bugs which are part of functionality
- cross browser failure issues in case of UI testing
- Any edge cases failing in certain conditions
One option is both developer and tester can sit together and do a round of functional testing at the end of development phase. Earlier the bugs are detected lesser the cost required to fix it
This is more of a mindshift change than identifying/setting boundarines between development and test teams |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | >
> Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests?
>
>
>
Yes, but I'd also suggest that if the programmers don't seem to, it's probably more productive to find out *why* before pushing harder. What's preventing them? Access to proprietary test tools? Difficult to setup easily on dev environment? Results not meaningful or easy to read? Too slow to run? Too brittle?
>
> Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before
> checking in?
>
>
>
That might be nice, but if the test suite takes 15 hours to run, a bit of a non-starter.
>
> Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated
> tests?
>
>
>
Yes. | If the QA team is not embedded in the development team I don't think the whole process will run smoothly.
Development should always write unit tests, not the QA team. This is because development has more insight in the code. I would let the QA team write more functional test scripts. |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | This depends on the organization. Where I have worked, QA teams tended to prioritize breadth over runtime or simplicity of setup. The "QA environment" may require some special settings and configuration for mock objects, fake data, and so on. Developers, on the other hand, prefer tests that run quickly so that they can be integrated into their edit/build/run cycle.
I think a better division of labor is for QA to run the tests frequently (e.g. after every build or daily) and make the results available to developers. | Automated Tests are mostly written and used for existing functionalities or when a new functionality is developed and handed for testing which has been thoroughly tested for many time manually before the actual automation testing starts. I.e Mostly written for regression test suites. Such automated tests can be used by developer during their unit test to ensure new development has not disturbed the existing features/functionalities
However on the other end, Automation suites will cover testing of the overall feature of Product/Application and it consume reasonable execution time, which can be accepted for Testing Phase. And so, when it is used by developer it will result in increased completion time in development phase. Hence, I would suggest the developers to use QA written automated test suites for the following situations
a. Development of complex feature where resultant development is suspected to impact core feature of application
b. [QA Automated Test](http://www.ivesia.com/technology/services/software-testing/automation-testing) Suite is available and it contains limited (not very detailed) but yet covering major functional areas covered |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | If the QA team is not embedded in the development team I don't think the whole process will run smoothly.
Development should always write unit tests, not the QA team. This is because development has more insight in the code. I would let the QA team write more functional test scripts. | I would make it automatic post-commit (via a trigger, or preferably a build system) that some kind of test is run.
If the test is too extensive, then scale the post-commit test back to run in a reasonable amount of time (so the dev gets feedback quickly.)
If the longform test (because longform makes it better, right?) takes X hours to run, I would recommend running it every X/2 or X/3 hours on 2 or 3 different build systems. This will give you feedback consistently throughout the day.
The ability to single out those individual tests would be very very useful. You run the longform test, and you find tests 15 and 29 fail. Now, you can run just against 15 and 29 before you commit. Get them running, pass the simple tests, commit and let it run. Sure it's possible you broke other tests. *Usually* you don't.
I certainly would never discourage the developers from running automated tests, or even manual tests. Honestly, if they can stop a bug before it gets to the testers, that's awesome. That saves the company up to 2 hours worth of time for even a simple fix, when you factor in how long it takes the developer to pick up where he left off when the report finally comes back from QA. |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | I'd like to pipe in with one smaller piece here for shops where there is not a mature test automation framework, or the test automation takes too long to realistically run every night, or requires manual setup.
I'm not sure about other shops, but my test automation for enhancements and bug fixes is normally done before the application code is ready with the exception of having to add values to a few variables.
Even having the developer run only the tests for the functionality that is being modified intentionally is already a boon, and I don't know many developers who wouldn't be willing to run this before they ever ask to promote to a test environment. | Yes It would help to identify bugs at early stage of testing
Development Team handles Design, Development and Unit Testing of Code. With SCRUM/TDD I am afraid if they have enough bandwidth to execute Integration/functional test scenarios
If Developers run QA Automation code, We could identify
- obvious bugs which are part of functionality
- cross browser failure issues in case of UI testing
- Any edge cases failing in certain conditions
One option is both developer and tester can sit together and do a round of functional testing at the end of development phase. Earlier the bugs are detected lesser the cost required to fix it
This is more of a mindshift change than identifying/setting boundarines between development and test teams |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | >
> *Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in?*
>
>
>
At my last employer, the QA test suite involved multiple operating systems (and several different service packs of each), so it would not have been possible for devs to run those tests as part of the smoke/tdd tests. Some of the other tests could not be automated as they required additional software to simulate things like "out of memory" or "disk full, try again" scenarios.
>
> *Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?*
>
>
>
That would make sense. | Yes It would help to identify bugs at early stage of testing
Development Team handles Design, Development and Unit Testing of Code. With SCRUM/TDD I am afraid if they have enough bandwidth to execute Integration/functional test scenarios
If Developers run QA Automation code, We could identify
- obvious bugs which are part of functionality
- cross browser failure issues in case of UI testing
- Any edge cases failing in certain conditions
One option is both developer and tester can sit together and do a round of functional testing at the end of development phase. Earlier the bugs are detected lesser the cost required to fix it
This is more of a mindshift change than identifying/setting boundarines between development and test teams |
56 | Perhaps programmers have their own unit tests, perhaps as the result of doing Test-Driven Development. They run these tests very often; perhaps every few minutes, but at least a few times each day.
In my experience, QA's automated tests tend to go after bigger chunks of functionality and are therefore slower and usually less reliable than programmer's unit tests. Still, there is a lot of value in getting the results of these tests in programmer's hands as soon as possible.
Should QA push for programmers running QA's automated tests? Should QA insist that all of their automated tests pass before checking in? Should the nightly build process include a run of QA's automated tests?
(I wrote **nightly build** but that only makes sense if you have a nightly build. I suspect that many shops don't have this. I suspect that how QA is done varies very widely, and that awareness of other ways of doing things is very limited.) | 2011/05/04 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/56",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/95/"
] | I would make it automatic post-commit (via a trigger, or preferably a build system) that some kind of test is run.
If the test is too extensive, then scale the post-commit test back to run in a reasonable amount of time (so the dev gets feedback quickly.)
If the longform test (because longform makes it better, right?) takes X hours to run, I would recommend running it every X/2 or X/3 hours on 2 or 3 different build systems. This will give you feedback consistently throughout the day.
The ability to single out those individual tests would be very very useful. You run the longform test, and you find tests 15 and 29 fail. Now, you can run just against 15 and 29 before you commit. Get them running, pass the simple tests, commit and let it run. Sure it's possible you broke other tests. *Usually* you don't.
I certainly would never discourage the developers from running automated tests, or even manual tests. Honestly, if they can stop a bug before it gets to the testers, that's awesome. That saves the company up to 2 hours worth of time for even a simple fix, when you factor in how long it takes the developer to pick up where he left off when the report finally comes back from QA. | Yes It would help to identify bugs at early stage of testing
Development Team handles Design, Development and Unit Testing of Code. With SCRUM/TDD I am afraid if they have enough bandwidth to execute Integration/functional test scenarios
If Developers run QA Automation code, We could identify
- obvious bugs which are part of functionality
- cross browser failure issues in case of UI testing
- Any edge cases failing in certain conditions
One option is both developer and tester can sit together and do a round of functional testing at the end of development phase. Earlier the bugs are detected lesser the cost required to fix it
This is more of a mindshift change than identifying/setting boundarines between development and test teams |
179,286 | 1. Superficial differences between the special problems and techniques of the **physical sciences** and those of the **biological sciences** are sometimes cited as evidence for the autonomy of biology and for the claim that the methods of physics are therefore not adequate to biological inquiry.
2. Superficial differences between the special problems and techniques of the **physical science** and those of the **biological science** are sometimes cited as evidence for the autonomy of biology and for the claim that the methods of physics are therefore not adequate to biological inquiry.
Which is the correct form of science, singular or plural? | 2018/09/10 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/179286",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You can use either 'this' or 'that' in this sentence, depending on how close you feel to the situation.
We usually use 'this' when we are talking about something that is near to us, and 'that' when we are talking about something that is further away from us. However, there is no rule as to how close something must be to be referred to as 'this', or how far away something must be to be referred to as 'that'. In fact, the distance is best described as being relative distance.
For the purpose of knowing whether to use 'this' or 'that', distance does not have to be measured as 'physical distance' (i.e., the number of metres or feet), but we can also consider 'emotional or psychological distance' (i.e., how strong our feelings are to a person or thing, regardless of its physical distance from us).
In the case of the situation presented by the OP, emotional or psychological distance is more important a determiner of using 'this' or 'that' than would physical distance. If the speaker was William's mother, then she may use 'this' rather than 'that'. Her son's condition is something that she faces every day, and so she may feel that his situation is never far from her. If the speaker was William's teacher, then he/she may use 'that' rather than 'this'. William could be only one of several dozen pupils that he/she deals with in the course of a week, and she/he does not have to deal with the situation in the same way as William's mother. | I think the overwhelming majority of native speakers would find **by that** more idiomatic than **by this** here:
>
> William has a certain psychological condition that prevents him from
> talking. He can listen and understand, but he talks only if he really
> wants to. So my interaction with William is very much limited **by that**.
>
>
>
But "This" would win out here by a wide margin *in writing*, yet not in speech, where "That" would win handily, I think:
>
> William has a certain psychological condition that prevents him from
> talking. He can listen and understand, but he talks only if he really
> wants to. **This|That** makes interaction with William very limited.
>
>
>
A grammatical subject is perceived as "close" by writers, or at least it is treated as "close". |
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