qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
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36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | A class D amplifier *is* a switching power supply. Those are more common these days and can have quite good specs. Audiophools may wrinkle their noses when they are *told* a amplifier is class D or has a switching power supply inside, but such a thing is harder to detect in a proper double blind test. In the audio world, it can be difficult to separate the science and measurable results from religious belief. | Switching power supplies are being used to an increasing extent in many applications. Certainly wall-wart-sized audio applications are using switchers as often as not. I think a major factor limiting the adoption of switching supplies historically has been the fact that while most audio systems do not pass through very high (e.g. over 100KHz) frequencies in anything resembling a useful fashion, the presence of such frequencies at the input to an audio stage may cause distortion in the output. Especially in feedback-amplifier configurations, power-supply noise rejection is better at low frequencies than high frequencies. Consequently, it's easy for high-frequency noise on the supply of one audio stage to cause distortion in a following audio stage. Although 60Hz noise by itself would be far more audible than 100KHz, the effects of 60Hz power-supply ripple may be less severe than the effects of 100KHz power-supply ripple.
I'm sure that with time switchers will become more prevalent in audio gear, though marketing inertia may prevent it from happening as quickly as would be ideal from a purely-technical standpoint. If customers associate big clunky transformers with quality audio gear, and see the more-cost-sensitive manufacturers using switchers, they may perceive switchers as "cheap", especially given that some devices which sound fine with 60Hz-transformer-based wall-warts sound crummy when powered by cheap switched-mode wall warts that have the same nominal specs. |
36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | Let me give you a little background on myself... I've been working professionally in the audio industry for more than 14 years. I've designed circuits for most of the major pro-audio companies, one audiophile company, and several consumer audio companies. The point is, I've been around and know a lot about how audio is done!
SMPS can and are used for audio circuits! I've used them from sensitive microphone preamps to huge power amplifiers. In fact, for the larger power amplifiers they are mandatory. Once an amplifier gets over a couple of hundred watts then the power supply needs to be super efficient. Imagine the heat produced by a 1000 watt amp if it's power supply was only 50% efficient!
But even on a smaller scale, the efficiency of a SMPS often makes a lot of sense. If the analog circuitry is properly designed then the noise from the power supply gets rejected by the analog circuitry and doesn't impact the audio noise (very much).
For those super-noise-sensitive applications you can do a hybrid approach. Let's say that you have an ADC that requires +5v. You can use a SMPS to generate +6v, then a super-low-noise linear regulator to bring that down to +5v. You get most of the benefit of the SMPS, but the low-noise of the linear regulator. It is not as efficient as just a SMPS, but those are the trade-offs.
But one thing to keep in mind... A SMPS for audio applications needs to be designed with audio in mind. Of course you'll need better filtering on the output. But you will also need to keep other details in mind. For example, at very low current the SMPS might go into something called "burst mode" or "discontinuous mode". Normally a SMPS will switch at a fixed frequency, but in one of these modes the switching will become somewhat erratic. That erratic behavior might push the output noise into the audio frequency band where it becomes more difficult to filter out. Even if the SMPS is normally switching at 1 MHz, when in one of these modes you could get 10 KHz noise. Controlling how this happens depends on the design of the chip that the power supply uses. In some cases, you can't control it. In that case you have no choice but to use a different chip or use a hybrid approach.
Some people advocate using only linear power supplies for audio. While linear supplies are less noisy, they have lots of other issues. Heat, efficiency, and weight being the biggest ones. In my opinion, most of the people who preach linear supplies only are either misinformed or lazy. Misinformed because they don't know how to handle switching supplies or lazy because they don't care to learn how to design robust circuits. I've designed enough audio gear with SMPS to prove that it can be done without too much pain. | Short:
* SMPS are much used in many audio systems.
* In very top-end enthusiast targeted systems an iron cored transformer based supply may be preferred because of nuances in effect which are so fine that they can only be detected or claimed to be detected by true aficionados.
---
SMPS are regularly used to power audio circuits in many applications.
Most domestic audio equipment probably uses SMPS.
Top end systems for audiophiles may use "iron transformers" because of actual and or perceived benefits. Noise elimination for 50 Hz transformer based supplies is well understood, most of the noise energy is at low frequencies which are a multiple of the main frequency which makes it able to be rejected by notch filter techniques if astoundingly high levels of rejection are desired. The main exception is probably diode switching noise caused by current peaks when the diodes conduct at the peak of the AC waveform, and this can be greatly reduced by spreading resistors and generally good design.
SMPS typically use switching frequencies in the 50 kHz to about 2 MHz range and usually in the few hundred kiloHertz range. These **SHOULD** be even more readily filtered out that than low frequency noise, but rejection levels of amplifier circuitry decrease with increasing frequency and will often be far worse at above 100 kHz compared with at say 10 kHz.
Whether a well designed SMPS supply is any more liable to significantly affect the quality of a top end audio system is open to debate - and much debate has occurred on this subject. BUT if users THINK that SMPS MAY be worse than a traditional supply and/or if suppliers state that they are or may be, or that listening tests have confirmed that they are, then "modern stuff" is liable to be the loser when compared to iron cored supplies - regardless of what the reality may be. |
36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | Let me give you a little background on myself... I've been working professionally in the audio industry for more than 14 years. I've designed circuits for most of the major pro-audio companies, one audiophile company, and several consumer audio companies. The point is, I've been around and know a lot about how audio is done!
SMPS can and are used for audio circuits! I've used them from sensitive microphone preamps to huge power amplifiers. In fact, for the larger power amplifiers they are mandatory. Once an amplifier gets over a couple of hundred watts then the power supply needs to be super efficient. Imagine the heat produced by a 1000 watt amp if it's power supply was only 50% efficient!
But even on a smaller scale, the efficiency of a SMPS often makes a lot of sense. If the analog circuitry is properly designed then the noise from the power supply gets rejected by the analog circuitry and doesn't impact the audio noise (very much).
For those super-noise-sensitive applications you can do a hybrid approach. Let's say that you have an ADC that requires +5v. You can use a SMPS to generate +6v, then a super-low-noise linear regulator to bring that down to +5v. You get most of the benefit of the SMPS, but the low-noise of the linear regulator. It is not as efficient as just a SMPS, but those are the trade-offs.
But one thing to keep in mind... A SMPS for audio applications needs to be designed with audio in mind. Of course you'll need better filtering on the output. But you will also need to keep other details in mind. For example, at very low current the SMPS might go into something called "burst mode" or "discontinuous mode". Normally a SMPS will switch at a fixed frequency, but in one of these modes the switching will become somewhat erratic. That erratic behavior might push the output noise into the audio frequency band where it becomes more difficult to filter out. Even if the SMPS is normally switching at 1 MHz, when in one of these modes you could get 10 KHz noise. Controlling how this happens depends on the design of the chip that the power supply uses. In some cases, you can't control it. In that case you have no choice but to use a different chip or use a hybrid approach.
Some people advocate using only linear power supplies for audio. While linear supplies are less noisy, they have lots of other issues. Heat, efficiency, and weight being the biggest ones. In my opinion, most of the people who preach linear supplies only are either misinformed or lazy. Misinformed because they don't know how to handle switching supplies or lazy because they don't care to learn how to design robust circuits. I've designed enough audio gear with SMPS to prove that it can be done without too much pain. | A class D amplifier *is* a switching power supply. Those are more common these days and can have quite good specs. Audiophools may wrinkle their noses when they are *told* a amplifier is class D or has a switching power supply inside, but such a thing is harder to detect in a proper double blind test. In the audio world, it can be difficult to separate the science and measurable results from religious belief. |
36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | Let me give you a little background on myself... I've been working professionally in the audio industry for more than 14 years. I've designed circuits for most of the major pro-audio companies, one audiophile company, and several consumer audio companies. The point is, I've been around and know a lot about how audio is done!
SMPS can and are used for audio circuits! I've used them from sensitive microphone preamps to huge power amplifiers. In fact, for the larger power amplifiers they are mandatory. Once an amplifier gets over a couple of hundred watts then the power supply needs to be super efficient. Imagine the heat produced by a 1000 watt amp if it's power supply was only 50% efficient!
But even on a smaller scale, the efficiency of a SMPS often makes a lot of sense. If the analog circuitry is properly designed then the noise from the power supply gets rejected by the analog circuitry and doesn't impact the audio noise (very much).
For those super-noise-sensitive applications you can do a hybrid approach. Let's say that you have an ADC that requires +5v. You can use a SMPS to generate +6v, then a super-low-noise linear regulator to bring that down to +5v. You get most of the benefit of the SMPS, but the low-noise of the linear regulator. It is not as efficient as just a SMPS, but those are the trade-offs.
But one thing to keep in mind... A SMPS for audio applications needs to be designed with audio in mind. Of course you'll need better filtering on the output. But you will also need to keep other details in mind. For example, at very low current the SMPS might go into something called "burst mode" or "discontinuous mode". Normally a SMPS will switch at a fixed frequency, but in one of these modes the switching will become somewhat erratic. That erratic behavior might push the output noise into the audio frequency band where it becomes more difficult to filter out. Even if the SMPS is normally switching at 1 MHz, when in one of these modes you could get 10 KHz noise. Controlling how this happens depends on the design of the chip that the power supply uses. In some cases, you can't control it. In that case you have no choice but to use a different chip or use a hybrid approach.
Some people advocate using only linear power supplies for audio. While linear supplies are less noisy, they have lots of other issues. Heat, efficiency, and weight being the biggest ones. In my opinion, most of the people who preach linear supplies only are either misinformed or lazy. Misinformed because they don't know how to handle switching supplies or lazy because they don't care to learn how to design robust circuits. I've designed enough audio gear with SMPS to prove that it can be done without too much pain. | Switching power supplies are being used to an increasing extent in many applications. Certainly wall-wart-sized audio applications are using switchers as often as not. I think a major factor limiting the adoption of switching supplies historically has been the fact that while most audio systems do not pass through very high (e.g. over 100KHz) frequencies in anything resembling a useful fashion, the presence of such frequencies at the input to an audio stage may cause distortion in the output. Especially in feedback-amplifier configurations, power-supply noise rejection is better at low frequencies than high frequencies. Consequently, it's easy for high-frequency noise on the supply of one audio stage to cause distortion in a following audio stage. Although 60Hz noise by itself would be far more audible than 100KHz, the effects of 60Hz power-supply ripple may be less severe than the effects of 100KHz power-supply ripple.
I'm sure that with time switchers will become more prevalent in audio gear, though marketing inertia may prevent it from happening as quickly as would be ideal from a purely-technical standpoint. If customers associate big clunky transformers with quality audio gear, and see the more-cost-sensitive manufacturers using switchers, they may perceive switchers as "cheap", especially given that some devices which sound fine with 60Hz-transformer-based wall-warts sound crummy when powered by cheap switched-mode wall warts that have the same nominal specs. |
36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | Switching power supplies are being used to an increasing extent in many applications. Certainly wall-wart-sized audio applications are using switchers as often as not. I think a major factor limiting the adoption of switching supplies historically has been the fact that while most audio systems do not pass through very high (e.g. over 100KHz) frequencies in anything resembling a useful fashion, the presence of such frequencies at the input to an audio stage may cause distortion in the output. Especially in feedback-amplifier configurations, power-supply noise rejection is better at low frequencies than high frequencies. Consequently, it's easy for high-frequency noise on the supply of one audio stage to cause distortion in a following audio stage. Although 60Hz noise by itself would be far more audible than 100KHz, the effects of 60Hz power-supply ripple may be less severe than the effects of 100KHz power-supply ripple.
I'm sure that with time switchers will become more prevalent in audio gear, though marketing inertia may prevent it from happening as quickly as would be ideal from a purely-technical standpoint. If customers associate big clunky transformers with quality audio gear, and see the more-cost-sensitive manufacturers using switchers, they may perceive switchers as "cheap", especially given that some devices which sound fine with 60Hz-transformer-based wall-warts sound crummy when powered by cheap switched-mode wall warts that have the same nominal specs. | Many high band audio companies now use SMPS for various reasons, not all but mostly because of
* (A) Weight of iron core/copper winding transformers
* (B) Efficiency of coupling between windings {ie power loss}
* (C) Actual cost of copper these days
Anyone who has ever worked with high power PA systems will know that the bigger the amplifier (600W to 1Kw and above now are common) are heavy and large in size to fit into your standard rack mount road cases.
Standard linear power supplies deliver anything from plus and minus rail voltages of 75 and over 'Fixed". Any 'power' from the supply that is not being used is "dropped" into the heatsink.
For example, a 1 kilowatt amplifier running at only 10% will lose more energy as heat than the same amplifier running at 90%.
Some few audio manufacturers have taken advantage of this and use input detecting circuitry to vary the output voltage of the power supply to only provide the necessary level of supply rails as required. Switching at between 4 and 10 times the audio frequency, (any HF artifacts can be easily filtered filtered out of the DC supply)
This fast switching varies the output voltage from, say, plus and minus 30V for low level signals, to plus and minus 90V (or above, depending on the FET/Transistor design). Because of the efficiency of SMPS, this greatly reduces the cost and weight of the amplifier as there are no longer any great lumps of steel and copper to lug around, but also no huge aluminum heatsinks to dissipate the great power losses, or those large fans required to shift enough air around them.
Unless poorly filtered, no "power supply" should impact on the audio quality of any amplifier be it linear or digital. A voltage is a voltage; flat and ripple free of any sort: after that it is the design of the amplifier that determines noise and distortion |
36,674 | Most audio circuits are powered with large, heavy transformers and a small ripple after smoothing. SMPS are smaller and more efficient. EMI can be shielded by a metal enclosure and the output filtered for noise suppression.
Especially where the power is going to be further regulated. Why aren't switched-mode power supplies used in audio circuits, eg. power amplifiers, and what improvements can be done to make a SMPS suit an audio circuit? | 2012/07/27 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/36674",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1380/"
] | Short:
* SMPS are much used in many audio systems.
* In very top-end enthusiast targeted systems an iron cored transformer based supply may be preferred because of nuances in effect which are so fine that they can only be detected or claimed to be detected by true aficionados.
---
SMPS are regularly used to power audio circuits in many applications.
Most domestic audio equipment probably uses SMPS.
Top end systems for audiophiles may use "iron transformers" because of actual and or perceived benefits. Noise elimination for 50 Hz transformer based supplies is well understood, most of the noise energy is at low frequencies which are a multiple of the main frequency which makes it able to be rejected by notch filter techniques if astoundingly high levels of rejection are desired. The main exception is probably diode switching noise caused by current peaks when the diodes conduct at the peak of the AC waveform, and this can be greatly reduced by spreading resistors and generally good design.
SMPS typically use switching frequencies in the 50 kHz to about 2 MHz range and usually in the few hundred kiloHertz range. These **SHOULD** be even more readily filtered out that than low frequency noise, but rejection levels of amplifier circuitry decrease with increasing frequency and will often be far worse at above 100 kHz compared with at say 10 kHz.
Whether a well designed SMPS supply is any more liable to significantly affect the quality of a top end audio system is open to debate - and much debate has occurred on this subject. BUT if users THINK that SMPS MAY be worse than a traditional supply and/or if suppliers state that they are or may be, or that listening tests have confirmed that they are, then "modern stuff" is liable to be the loser when compared to iron cored supplies - regardless of what the reality may be. | Many high band audio companies now use SMPS for various reasons, not all but mostly because of
* (A) Weight of iron core/copper winding transformers
* (B) Efficiency of coupling between windings {ie power loss}
* (C) Actual cost of copper these days
Anyone who has ever worked with high power PA systems will know that the bigger the amplifier (600W to 1Kw and above now are common) are heavy and large in size to fit into your standard rack mount road cases.
Standard linear power supplies deliver anything from plus and minus rail voltages of 75 and over 'Fixed". Any 'power' from the supply that is not being used is "dropped" into the heatsink.
For example, a 1 kilowatt amplifier running at only 10% will lose more energy as heat than the same amplifier running at 90%.
Some few audio manufacturers have taken advantage of this and use input detecting circuitry to vary the output voltage of the power supply to only provide the necessary level of supply rails as required. Switching at between 4 and 10 times the audio frequency, (any HF artifacts can be easily filtered filtered out of the DC supply)
This fast switching varies the output voltage from, say, plus and minus 30V for low level signals, to plus and minus 90V (or above, depending on the FET/Transistor design). Because of the efficiency of SMPS, this greatly reduces the cost and weight of the amplifier as there are no longer any great lumps of steel and copper to lug around, but also no huge aluminum heatsinks to dissipate the great power losses, or those large fans required to shift enough air around them.
Unless poorly filtered, no "power supply" should impact on the audio quality of any amplifier be it linear or digital. A voltage is a voltage; flat and ripple free of any sort: after that it is the design of the amplifier that determines noise and distortion |
161,579 | The son of a friend wants to read *The Witcher* books. We both know the game and there are some moments where Geralt collects the Ladies "business cards" and this might not be appropriate for children.
Are these moments only implied or graphicly detailed (like in *A Song of Ice and Fire*)?
I also wonder if the violence is too gore for children. I know Geralt is supposed to kill monsters but I want to be sure there is not too much described violence. | 2017/06/13 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/161579",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/73606/"
] | There are often descriptions of female nudity , but they're limited to upper torso. Female breasts are mention fairly often, but that's pretty much it (i.e. certainly not on the level of the cards from the first game). Assuming the child follows [this order](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/125046/70236) (starting with the short stories), there isn't much to be called explicit.
I'll try to provide some examples of what you'll face when reading, and leave the consideration to you, since I'm no expert on age ratings.
---
The only "sex"-like scene from the first book (*The Last Wish*) I can remember right now is this (from "The Voice of Reason I"):
>
> The girl carefully climbed onto the bedclothes, and onto him, wrapping her thighs around him. Leaning forward on straining arms, she brushed his face with hair which smelt of chamomile. Determined, and as if impatient, she leant over and touched his eyelids, cheeks, lips with the tips of her breasts.
>
>
>
There's an implied sex scene in "The Last Wish", and an implied sex scene in "The Lesser Evil":
>
> She put her legs on his knees. ‘Pull my boots off. A high boot is the best place to hide a knife.’
>
>
> Barefoot, she got up, tore at the buckle of her belt. ‘I’m not hiding anything here, either. Or here, as you can see. Put that bloody candle out.’
>
>
> Outside, in the darkness, a cat yawled.
>
>
> ‘Renfri?’
>
>
> ‘What?’
>
>
> ‘Is this cambric?’
>
>
> ‘Of course it is, dammit. Am I a princess or not?’
>
>
>
And that's it for the first book. There's not much in the second book (*The Sword of Destiny*), either, except maybe this part which I'm not sure what to classify as (from "A Shard of Ice"):
>
> Angry at the cold and congealed scrambled eggs which the innkeeper, distracted from feeling up the girl who worked in the kitchen, served him. Particularly annoyed that the girl was barely twelve years old and tears stood in her eyes.
>
>
>
And this scene:
>
> She nestled against him then wriggled around so that she could remove her nightgown more easily. Delighting in her nakedness, as usual Geralt felt a shiver go down his spine and a tingling in his fingers as they came into contact with Yennefer's bare skin. His lips lightly touched her breasts, rounded and delicate with nipples so pale they were only apparent by their prominence. His hands got lost in the tangle of her hair, sweet with the fragrance of lilac and gooseberries.
>
>
>
There's this "sex scene", but that's the entire description (from "Something More":
>
> She slid back on the cloak arranged over the moss. Geralt kissed her breasts. He felt the nipples harden and rise up under the fine fabric of her blouse. Yennefer was breathing raggedly.
>
>
>
Then there's this "failed sex" scene from a later book (*The Tower of the Swallow*):
>
> The contact of fingers was followed by the contact of lips. [Ciri] was on the verge of forgetting the whole world, when [. . .] suddenly stopped moving. For a while, she lay patiently, reminding herself that he was wounded and the wound was probably bothering him. But he took too long. His saliva began to dry on her nipples.
>
>
>
And this one from the last book (*The Lady of the Lake*):
>
> They fell in a pile of parchment that scattered everywhere under their weight. Geralt stuck his nose into Fringilla’s neckline. He hugged her and grabbed her knee. He rolled up her skirt to her waist knocking over several books, including Lives of the Prophets, full of mysterious illustrations, as well as De Haemorrhoidibus, an interesting, though controversial medical treatise. The witcher pushed aside volumes and pulled at the dress impatiently. Fringilla eagerly raised her hips.
>
>
> Something pushed against her shoulder. She turned her head. Learning the Art of Midwifery. Quickly, so as not to tempt the devil, she looked in the other direction. The Sulphurous Hot Springs. In fact it was getting warmer. From the corner of her eye she saw an open book which rested by her head. Reflections on Inevitable Death. Even better, she thought.
> The witcher struggled with her panties. She raised her hips, but this time only slightly, so that it looked like a random movement and not defiant help. She did not know him and did not know to respond. Whether he prefers that a woman knows what she wants, or does he like a woman who pretends she doesn’t know. And if he would be discouraged by panties that offered resistance.
>
>
> The witcher, however, seemed to show no signs of discouragement. You could say the contrary. Seeing that it was time, Fringilla eagerly spread her legs, bringing down books and pamphlets stacked in piles, which poured over them like an avalanche. A heavy, leather bound copy of Mortgage Law painfully struck her in the ribs and the Codex Diphmaticus, adorned with brass fittings, fell on Geralt’s wrist. Geralt assessed and took advantage of the situation – placing the large tome where it was necessary. Fringilla squeaked because the fittings were cold. But only for a moment.
>
>
>
I think this is enough so that one can see the general tone in which the sex scenes are written (in fact, I can't think of any other scenes from the books, so sorry for spoilers :D).
---
As for gore - I could call it graphic, but I think it's more accurate to call it surgeon-like. Characters do cut each other's hands and other limbs off, and there are occasional spatters of blood, but I wouldn't call them shocking. There are some scenes with *implied past* gore, e.g. blood on the walls and witnesses' testimonies, but I don't know if those are graphic.
Those quotes are harder to find than the sex scenes, so it'll take me some time.
---
**My verdict**: I'd say +14 years is fine - they see smuttier things on the Internet, and if it's going to be adult-oriented, then it'd better be *The Witcher*. However, I would also advise trying one of the comics, preferably [*Fox Children*](https://www.darkhorse.com/Comics/25-914/The-Witcher-Fox-Children-1) - that one should be reasonably gore- and sexuality-free, and it's a faithful adaptation of one of the stories from the latest published book, *Season of Storms*. | I know I'm nearly 4 years late, but I notice that most of these answers are wrong, or at least don't go into full depth. The books are FAR worse than the games, besides the fact that you can't SEE it happen. But I'll list you some examples of why they are less child-friendly:
* In *Baptism of Fire*, Ciri and Mistle, both minors, have sex multiple times (the author even details that their relationship is so strong because of sexual abuse).
* Geralt has sex a LOT, especially in *The Lady of The Lake*, while Ciri is nearly raped in this same book.
* People are raped a lot in this series, although you don't read about what exactly happens, it's fairly often that Geralt will ride by a corpse that was raped before death.
* The author is also a bit sexist, considering every female is described by their appearance, and their hot looks are usually their highlighted power (For example, Fringilla has sex with Geralt over and over again to keep him from leaving an area so the rest of her friends can find Ciri before he does).
So yeah, I'd say the books are a lot worse, but I also realize that your kid has probably already read the books, so uh... sorry. |
16,455,560 | I would like to develop a application that when used between two phone we can send exchange data(like e-visiting card). I intend to develop it for all smart phones even those without NFC. I am just a budding developer and would like to have some references about the possibilities of such an app. i have seen BUMP but i do not intend to maintain any server and would like to create a temporary network between the two phones and terminate it after the transfer. So is there any possibility in developing such an app?
Thanks in advance | 2013/05/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16455560",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1798981/"
] | Depends on the size of the data, but one possibility that comes to mind is the use of QR codes.
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/QR_code>
You could try using a library like zxing (<https://code.google.com/p/zxing/>) to generate the qr codes.
Basically the phone wanting to send the data generates a qr code representation than the phone wanting to read the data reads the qr code with its camera and translates back to the original data. | I think you should try to use bluetoolth or local area network.
I pefer LAN.
In your app , you can set one app as server, another app as client.
make a socket connection and send your data. |
16,883,216 | In advance thanks for help. I was searching a lot but didn't find answer.
So I have several Lotus Notes .NSF databases and I need to transfer all the documents into DB2 data warehouse using Lotus Notes Agent. I also have LOG.NSF file.
Now how do I figure exactly what tables do I need to create in the DB2, I mean how do I see clear structure of those .NSF files so I can then configure Agent?
Also, I was told I need to separate elements myself, which are in format xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx, etc. Where do I find this path with "/"? Is It in LOG.NSF?
Thanks again. | 2013/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16883216",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1880405/"
] | Lotus Notes documents store unstructured data, so there is no schema to see. Every document legally could have different "columns" of data.
Views will be your biggest ally. You can create views to display the data in the documents and gain an understanding of what items (re: columns) exist and what data each contains. | If you're simply looking to migrate the attachments out to a single-instance warehouse, it's already part of Domino. It's called DOLS, Domino Off-Line Storage. I haven't the foggiest idea how it works, as I don't have DB2, and its function doesn't match what my firm wishes to accomplish. |
16,883,216 | In advance thanks for help. I was searching a lot but didn't find answer.
So I have several Lotus Notes .NSF databases and I need to transfer all the documents into DB2 data warehouse using Lotus Notes Agent. I also have LOG.NSF file.
Now how do I figure exactly what tables do I need to create in the DB2, I mean how do I see clear structure of those .NSF files so I can then configure Agent?
Also, I was told I need to separate elements myself, which are in format xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx, etc. Where do I find this path with "/"? Is It in LOG.NSF?
Thanks again. | 2013/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16883216",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1880405/"
] | You can use Lotus Notes, Domino Designer, and NotesPeek to explore the physical structure and contents of the NSF files. But moving data from Notes to an RDBMS system requires understanding the logical structure of the data. That's not something that people who have never seen the application can really help you with. Notes is an incredibly powerful tool. There is no concept of 'elements in the format xxx/xxx/xxx/xxx' in Notes, but there are loads of ways a developer could use Notes features to put that concept into an application. | If you're simply looking to migrate the attachments out to a single-instance warehouse, it's already part of Domino. It's called DOLS, Domino Off-Line Storage. I haven't the foggiest idea how it works, as I don't have DB2, and its function doesn't match what my firm wishes to accomplish. |
16,883,216 | In advance thanks for help. I was searching a lot but didn't find answer.
So I have several Lotus Notes .NSF databases and I need to transfer all the documents into DB2 data warehouse using Lotus Notes Agent. I also have LOG.NSF file.
Now how do I figure exactly what tables do I need to create in the DB2, I mean how do I see clear structure of those .NSF files so I can then configure Agent?
Also, I was told I need to separate elements myself, which are in format xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx, etc. Where do I find this path with "/"? Is It in LOG.NSF?
Thanks again. | 2013/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16883216",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1880405/"
] | As others already have said, you need to understand the particular application(s) you want to export the data for. Also, since it sounds like you are very new to Notes (i.e. the talk about "element in the format xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx/xxxxx" and not understanding that log.nsf is just another database, logging server activity), I don't think you should attempt to write an agent to export the data.
However, there is no need for that, as there already are tools that will let you export Notes data into other formats, for example XML.
I have written one myself, you can find it here:
<http://www.texasswede.com/home.nsf/Page/Notes%20XML%20Exporter>
That tool does not tell you anything about the business logic of the application, something you should understand before exporting any data.
Oh, and it would also be nice if you updated your profile with a real name, your location and perhaps a presentation where you tell about your skills, etc. That latter makes it much easier to answer questions, when we know your skill level. | If you're simply looking to migrate the attachments out to a single-instance warehouse, it's already part of Domino. It's called DOLS, Domino Off-Line Storage. I haven't the foggiest idea how it works, as I don't have DB2, and its function doesn't match what my firm wishes to accomplish. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | As already noted, you are using a 64-bit OS already. There are two advantages of switching to a 64-bit version of SQL Server and one disadvantage.
The sole disadvantage is that the 64-bit version of SQL Server will use 64-bit pointers. This means pointers will occupy twice as much memory, consume twice as much memory bandwidth, and so on. This is likely fairly negligible, but it is a disadvantage. It's partially compensated by the fact that switching to a 64-bit application will allow you to ditch the overhead of the compatibility layer 32-bit apps have to use to access a 64-bit OS's functions.
The major advantage is that numerous significant improvements were made in the CPU instruction set over time. Some of them were made along with the change to 64-bits and some of them were made previously.
But even for the ones made previously, the 32-bit build has to handle CPUs that don't have those features and to avoid the hassle of detection and switching between multiple instances, just doesn't use them even where they're present. For example, 64-bit CPUs must have SSE2, but 32-bit CPUs might not. So most 32-bit code just doesn't bother checking and assumes no SSE2. 64-bit code is assured SSE2 instructions are present and so will use it if it's the best option.
The biggest one is the increase in the number of named, general-purpose registers from 8 to 16. The number of 128-bit XMM registers was also doubled, from 8 to 16.
In addition, a 64-bit process can make use of large amounts of virtual memory. This is especially important with processes that access large amounts of structured data on disk. And, of course, they can use 64-bit integer operations which tend to improve the performance of encryption, compression, and even some filesystem operations on large filesystems. | **Performance!**
There are several technical answers here already, but without getting too technical, and depending on your application, you should see a performance upgrade.
The main pieces are:
>
> **Large memory addressing:** The 64-bit architecture offers a larger
> directly-addressable memory space. SQL Server 2005 (64-bit) is not
> bound by the 4 GB memory limit of 32-bit systems. Therefore, more
> memory is available for performing complex queries and supporting
> essential database operations. This greater processing capacity
> reduces the penalties of I/O latency by utilizing more memory than
> traditional 32-bit systems.
>
>
> **Enhanced parallelism:** The 64-bit architecture provides advanced
> parallelism and threading. Improvements in parallel processing and bus
> architectures enable 64-bit platforms to support larger numbers of
> processors (up to 64) while providing close to linear scalability with
> each additional processor. With a larger number of processors, SQL
> Server can support more processes, applications, and users in a single
> system.
>
>
>
<https://teratrax.com/sql-server-64-bit/>
The most dramatic results I saw on going from 32-bit to 64-bit SQL Server (this was SQL Server 2005) was about a 40% speed boost on a client's major application. All we did was install the 64-bit SQL Server, everything else was the same! That was a major performance boost in the real world. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Strongly related: [Good reasons to keep 32-bit Microsoft Windows desktop OSes](https://serverfault.com/questions/429299/good-reasons-to-keep-32-bit-microsoft-windows-desktop-oses?rq=1)
You **are** using a 64 bit OS. Server 2008 R2 was the first to only support 64 bit CPUs.
"Newer" versions of Windows aren't even designed for 32 bit. You maybe won't take advantage of anything, but there should neither be any disadvantages. That being said: Upgrade anyway, as Server 2008 R2 SP1 (which I hope you are using) [will be EOL from 2020-01-14](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/lifecycle/search?alpha=server%202008%20R2,Windows%20Server%202008%20R2%20Service%20Pack%201).
As for SQL Server 32 bit/64 bit: Your understanding is correct, if you won't ever need > ~3,75 GB of RAM (or >2 GB per process), you can use the 32 bit version without problems. But for newer versions there won't be any 32 bit version to install, as Microsoft switched to 64 bit only. | Potential issue: DLL libraries of CLR user-defined functions (UDFs) will require their 64-bit versions.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you are using a library of [CLR User-Defined Functions](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/clr-integration-database-objects-user-defined-functions/clr-user-defined-functions?view=sql-server-2017), it will become bit-incompatible. 32-bit DLLs cannot be generally used in 64-bit software and vice versa. If you cannot get 64-bit version of some UDF library you use, you will lose that specific extension.
Basically it is the same issue as upgrading any 32-bit software with its add-ons to its 64-bit version. You also need to switch all add-ons to their 64-bit versions. Generally it is easy, but the problem are discontinued ones where replacements are not available. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | As already noted, you are using a 64-bit OS already. There are two advantages of switching to a 64-bit version of SQL Server and one disadvantage.
The sole disadvantage is that the 64-bit version of SQL Server will use 64-bit pointers. This means pointers will occupy twice as much memory, consume twice as much memory bandwidth, and so on. This is likely fairly negligible, but it is a disadvantage. It's partially compensated by the fact that switching to a 64-bit application will allow you to ditch the overhead of the compatibility layer 32-bit apps have to use to access a 64-bit OS's functions.
The major advantage is that numerous significant improvements were made in the CPU instruction set over time. Some of them were made along with the change to 64-bits and some of them were made previously.
But even for the ones made previously, the 32-bit build has to handle CPUs that don't have those features and to avoid the hassle of detection and switching between multiple instances, just doesn't use them even where they're present. For example, 64-bit CPUs must have SSE2, but 32-bit CPUs might not. So most 32-bit code just doesn't bother checking and assumes no SSE2. 64-bit code is assured SSE2 instructions are present and so will use it if it's the best option.
The biggest one is the increase in the number of named, general-purpose registers from 8 to 16. The number of 128-bit XMM registers was also doubled, from 8 to 16.
In addition, a 64-bit process can make use of large amounts of virtual memory. This is especially important with processes that access large amounts of structured data on disk. And, of course, they can use 64-bit integer operations which tend to improve the performance of encryption, compression, and even some filesystem operations on large filesystems. | Potential issue: DLL libraries of CLR user-defined functions (UDFs) will require their 64-bit versions.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you are using a library of [CLR User-Defined Functions](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/clr-integration-database-objects-user-defined-functions/clr-user-defined-functions?view=sql-server-2017), it will become bit-incompatible. 32-bit DLLs cannot be generally used in 64-bit software and vice versa. If you cannot get 64-bit version of some UDF library you use, you will lose that specific extension.
Basically it is the same issue as upgrading any 32-bit software with its add-ons to its 64-bit version. You also need to switch all add-ons to their 64-bit versions. Generally it is easy, but the problem are discontinued ones where replacements are not available. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Fundamentally: Yes. Assuming you never make updates that are then 4 bit only - not sure there even IS a 32 bit SQL Server more recent than 2008.
Issues with your question: "The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM," - make that 3gb ;) not 4. 1gb is always reserved. | You can have better multitasking performance especially with programs that have heavy multithreading built in. Moreover u can install more ram with 64-bit os. But do this only if the processor supports 64-bit instructions. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Fundamentally: Yes. Assuming you never make updates that are then 4 bit only - not sure there even IS a 32 bit SQL Server more recent than 2008.
Issues with your question: "The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM," - make that 3gb ;) not 4. 1gb is always reserved. | **Performance!**
There are several technical answers here already, but without getting too technical, and depending on your application, you should see a performance upgrade.
The main pieces are:
>
> **Large memory addressing:** The 64-bit architecture offers a larger
> directly-addressable memory space. SQL Server 2005 (64-bit) is not
> bound by the 4 GB memory limit of 32-bit systems. Therefore, more
> memory is available for performing complex queries and supporting
> essential database operations. This greater processing capacity
> reduces the penalties of I/O latency by utilizing more memory than
> traditional 32-bit systems.
>
>
> **Enhanced parallelism:** The 64-bit architecture provides advanced
> parallelism and threading. Improvements in parallel processing and bus
> architectures enable 64-bit platforms to support larger numbers of
> processors (up to 64) while providing close to linear scalability with
> each additional processor. With a larger number of processors, SQL
> Server can support more processes, applications, and users in a single
> system.
>
>
>
<https://teratrax.com/sql-server-64-bit/>
The most dramatic results I saw on going from 32-bit to 64-bit SQL Server (this was SQL Server 2005) was about a 40% speed boost on a client's major application. All we did was install the 64-bit SQL Server, everything else was the same! That was a major performance boost in the real world. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Strongly related: [Good reasons to keep 32-bit Microsoft Windows desktop OSes](https://serverfault.com/questions/429299/good-reasons-to-keep-32-bit-microsoft-windows-desktop-oses?rq=1)
You **are** using a 64 bit OS. Server 2008 R2 was the first to only support 64 bit CPUs.
"Newer" versions of Windows aren't even designed for 32 bit. You maybe won't take advantage of anything, but there should neither be any disadvantages. That being said: Upgrade anyway, as Server 2008 R2 SP1 (which I hope you are using) [will be EOL from 2020-01-14](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/lifecycle/search?alpha=server%202008%20R2,Windows%20Server%202008%20R2%20Service%20Pack%201).
As for SQL Server 32 bit/64 bit: Your understanding is correct, if you won't ever need > ~3,75 GB of RAM (or >2 GB per process), you can use the 32 bit version without problems. But for newer versions there won't be any 32 bit version to install, as Microsoft switched to 64 bit only. | You can have better multitasking performance especially with programs that have heavy multithreading built in. Moreover u can install more ram with 64-bit os. But do this only if the processor supports 64-bit instructions. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Strongly related: [Good reasons to keep 32-bit Microsoft Windows desktop OSes](https://serverfault.com/questions/429299/good-reasons-to-keep-32-bit-microsoft-windows-desktop-oses?rq=1)
You **are** using a 64 bit OS. Server 2008 R2 was the first to only support 64 bit CPUs.
"Newer" versions of Windows aren't even designed for 32 bit. You maybe won't take advantage of anything, but there should neither be any disadvantages. That being said: Upgrade anyway, as Server 2008 R2 SP1 (which I hope you are using) [will be EOL from 2020-01-14](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/lifecycle/search?alpha=server%202008%20R2,Windows%20Server%202008%20R2%20Service%20Pack%201).
As for SQL Server 32 bit/64 bit: Your understanding is correct, if you won't ever need > ~3,75 GB of RAM (or >2 GB per process), you can use the 32 bit version without problems. But for newer versions there won't be any 32 bit version to install, as Microsoft switched to 64 bit only. | **Performance!**
There are several technical answers here already, but without getting too technical, and depending on your application, you should see a performance upgrade.
The main pieces are:
>
> **Large memory addressing:** The 64-bit architecture offers a larger
> directly-addressable memory space. SQL Server 2005 (64-bit) is not
> bound by the 4 GB memory limit of 32-bit systems. Therefore, more
> memory is available for performing complex queries and supporting
> essential database operations. This greater processing capacity
> reduces the penalties of I/O latency by utilizing more memory than
> traditional 32-bit systems.
>
>
> **Enhanced parallelism:** The 64-bit architecture provides advanced
> parallelism and threading. Improvements in parallel processing and bus
> architectures enable 64-bit platforms to support larger numbers of
> processors (up to 64) while providing close to linear scalability with
> each additional processor. With a larger number of processors, SQL
> Server can support more processes, applications, and users in a single
> system.
>
>
>
<https://teratrax.com/sql-server-64-bit/>
The most dramatic results I saw on going from 32-bit to 64-bit SQL Server (this was SQL Server 2005) was about a 40% speed boost on a client's major application. All we did was install the 64-bit SQL Server, everything else was the same! That was a major performance boost in the real world. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Potential issue: DLL libraries of CLR user-defined functions (UDFs) will require their 64-bit versions.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you are using a library of [CLR User-Defined Functions](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/clr-integration-database-objects-user-defined-functions/clr-user-defined-functions?view=sql-server-2017), it will become bit-incompatible. 32-bit DLLs cannot be generally used in 64-bit software and vice versa. If you cannot get 64-bit version of some UDF library you use, you will lose that specific extension.
Basically it is the same issue as upgrading any 32-bit software with its add-ons to its 64-bit version. You also need to switch all add-ons to their 64-bit versions. Generally it is easy, but the problem are discontinued ones where replacements are not available. | **Performance!**
There are several technical answers here already, but without getting too technical, and depending on your application, you should see a performance upgrade.
The main pieces are:
>
> **Large memory addressing:** The 64-bit architecture offers a larger
> directly-addressable memory space. SQL Server 2005 (64-bit) is not
> bound by the 4 GB memory limit of 32-bit systems. Therefore, more
> memory is available for performing complex queries and supporting
> essential database operations. This greater processing capacity
> reduces the penalties of I/O latency by utilizing more memory than
> traditional 32-bit systems.
>
>
> **Enhanced parallelism:** The 64-bit architecture provides advanced
> parallelism and threading. Improvements in parallel processing and bus
> architectures enable 64-bit platforms to support larger numbers of
> processors (up to 64) while providing close to linear scalability with
> each additional processor. With a larger number of processors, SQL
> Server can support more processes, applications, and users in a single
> system.
>
>
>
<https://teratrax.com/sql-server-64-bit/>
The most dramatic results I saw on going from 32-bit to 64-bit SQL Server (this was SQL Server 2005) was about a 40% speed boost on a client's major application. All we did was install the 64-bit SQL Server, everything else was the same! That was a major performance boost in the real world. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | Potential issue: DLL libraries of CLR user-defined functions (UDFs) will require their 64-bit versions.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you are using a library of [CLR User-Defined Functions](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/clr-integration-database-objects-user-defined-functions/clr-user-defined-functions?view=sql-server-2017), it will become bit-incompatible. 32-bit DLLs cannot be generally used in 64-bit software and vice versa. If you cannot get 64-bit version of some UDF library you use, you will lose that specific extension.
Basically it is the same issue as upgrading any 32-bit software with its add-ons to its 64-bit version. You also need to switch all add-ons to their 64-bit versions. Generally it is easy, but the problem are discontinued ones where replacements are not available. | You can have better multitasking performance especially with programs that have heavy multithreading built in. Moreover u can install more ram with 64-bit os. But do this only if the processor supports 64-bit instructions. |
949,303 | Suppose that I have a 32 bit Windows Server box that operates several server applications along with an SQL Server, with a RAM usage of about 2 GB at peak times.
What would be the advantages of upgrading the Windows Server OS and SQL Server to the corresponding 64 bit versions, with the server applications remaining as 32 bit? The 64 bit versions allow access to more than 4 GB of RAM, but since 4 GB is not being fully utilized would that render the upgrade moot?
Versions: Windows Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition
Thanks | 2019/01/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/949303",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/505526/"
] | As already noted, you are using a 64-bit OS already. There are two advantages of switching to a 64-bit version of SQL Server and one disadvantage.
The sole disadvantage is that the 64-bit version of SQL Server will use 64-bit pointers. This means pointers will occupy twice as much memory, consume twice as much memory bandwidth, and so on. This is likely fairly negligible, but it is a disadvantage. It's partially compensated by the fact that switching to a 64-bit application will allow you to ditch the overhead of the compatibility layer 32-bit apps have to use to access a 64-bit OS's functions.
The major advantage is that numerous significant improvements were made in the CPU instruction set over time. Some of them were made along with the change to 64-bits and some of them were made previously.
But even for the ones made previously, the 32-bit build has to handle CPUs that don't have those features and to avoid the hassle of detection and switching between multiple instances, just doesn't use them even where they're present. For example, 64-bit CPUs must have SSE2, but 32-bit CPUs might not. So most 32-bit code just doesn't bother checking and assumes no SSE2. 64-bit code is assured SSE2 instructions are present and so will use it if it's the best option.
The biggest one is the increase in the number of named, general-purpose registers from 8 to 16. The number of 128-bit XMM registers was also doubled, from 8 to 16.
In addition, a 64-bit process can make use of large amounts of virtual memory. This is especially important with processes that access large amounts of structured data on disk. And, of course, they can use 64-bit integer operations which tend to improve the performance of encryption, compression, and even some filesystem operations on large filesystems. | You can have better multitasking performance especially with programs that have heavy multithreading built in. Moreover u can install more ram with 64-bit os. But do this only if the processor supports 64-bit instructions. |
15,370 | What technological leaps would be necessary to capture the absolute state of the brain? This would need to include:
* a representation of each neuron
* a representation of each neural connection
* the chemical balances of the dendral connections between each neuron
And maybe we would also need to capture:
* the current synaptic activity of each neuron
I'm not sure if we need that, perhaps if you lose the flow of synapses, you break the mind, or perhaps the state of the neurons will continue to work properly the next time synaptic input is introduced and the mind will "wake up".
Either way, that's an incredible amount of detail, especially chemical information, that would have to be captured so we could convert it into a virtual simulation of the functional aspects of each neuron making up that brain.
**What are the major technological gaps that we would need to overcome in order to scan the brain with that level of detail?** I'm interested in the specific aspects of scanning technology that would have to be invented beyond our current brain scanning technology. | 2016/06/30 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15370",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/9361/"
] | Your question can be reduced to "What level of detail do we need to know about a brain to be able to simulate it?"
The answer to this question is *we have no idea*. The Blue Brain project has bet on the synaptic level, but they haven't been able to scale up to behaviour yet. But why stop at the synaptic level? Why not go down to molecules or atoms? Sure the computational power required goes up, but then we get a better model! And computers are getting faster and lower power all the time, right?
Actually, [traditional processors have hit a wall in terms of power efficiency](https://medium.com/@seanaubin/a-way-around-the-coming-performance-walls-neuromorphic-hardware-with-spiking-neurons-facd4291b201#.tyw2omfo7) [1]. So you do end up needing to choose a reasonable level of detail for what you're choosing to model, since [detail for detail's sake isn't going to get you anywhere](http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S095943881300189X) [2]. Once we can understand the basic functions the brain is computing and how it's computing them, we can start looking for that level of detail in the human brain for simulation.
In conclusion, rather than a simple technological advancement, we need a theoretical advancement in understanding *what the brain is even doing in the first place* before we can use the data meaningfully.
---
[1] "Finding a roadmap to achieve large neuromorphic hardware systems" by Jennifer Hasler and Bo Marr. Specifically, Figure 17 shows the "power efficiency wall".
[2] "The use and abuse of large-scale brain models" by Chris Eliasmith and Oliver Trujillo | >
> What leaps in technology would be needed to scan the total state of
> the human brain?
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rl7Aa.jpg)
**Preface**
In 2016, the "Small Mammal BPF Prize" was won, see: <http://www.brainpreservation.org/small-mammal-announcement/>. It's the first of two stages of competition for brain preservation (BP) achievements. This competition is doing for BP what XPRIZE is doing for space innovation with competitions like the Ansari X Prize.
>
> Researchers from 21st Century Medicine have developed a new technique
> to allow long term storage of a near-perfect mammalian brain. It’s a
> breakthrough that could have serious implications for cryonics, and
> the futuristic prospect of bringing the frozen dead back to life.
>
>
> By using a chemical compound to turn a rabbit’s brain into a near
> glass-like state, and then cooling it to -211 degrees Fahrenheit (-135
> degrees Celsius), a research team from California-based 21st Century
> Medicine (21CM) showed that it’s possible to enable near-perfect,
> long-term structural preservation of an intact mammalian brain. The
> achievement has earned not just accolades from the scientific
> community, but a prestigious award as well; the 21CM researchers are
> today being awarded the $26,735 Small Mammal Brain Preservation Prize,
> which is run by the Brain Preservation Foundation (BPF). — <http://gizmodo.com/brain-preservation-breakthrough-could-usher-in-a-new-er-1758022181>
>
>
>
---
**Answer**
If you consider focused ion beam scanning electron microscopy (FIBSEM)-level scanning to be adequate, than the technology is already available:
>
> In the types of electron microscopy neuroscientists commonly use
> (FIBSEM, etc.), preserved neural tissue can be visualized down to
> about a 6 nanometer resolution. This allows them to directly see each
> neuron’s synapses and dendrites (connections to other neurons). This
> level of detail also includes the ability to image, directly and
> indirectly (via molecular probes), many elements of the “synaptome,”
> the number and types of special proteins (vesicles, signaling
> proteins, cytoskeleton), receptors (Glutamate, etc.), and
> neurotransmitters (at least six types in human neurons) that are known
> to be involved in long-term learning and memory at each synapse in the
> brain, and elements of the “epigenome” (learning-based DNA methylation
> and histone modifications) in the nucleus of each neuron.
> — <http://www.brainpreservation.org/tech-prize>
>
>
>
If you don't consider FIBSEM-level scanning to be adequate, then the *leaps in technology* needed for this feat are on the horizon:
>
> Our ability to scan and verify is also rapidly improving. New types of
> electron microscopy, such as Cryo-TEM, can image at an amazing 3
> angstrom resolution, 50 times greater magnification than FIBSEM, a
> scale where *brain proteins and even individual atoms can be directly
> seen.*
> — <http://www.brainpreservation.org/tech-prize/>
>
>
>
In conclusion, the scanning technology is either currently adequate or will be in the near future. The major leap, will be the actual preservation of a large mammalian brain: BPF Prize Stage 2.
---
**Related Topic**
>
> perhaps the state of the neurons will continue to work properly the
> next time synaptic input is introduced and the mind will "wake up".
>
>
>
In regard to the "wake up" part, (IMO) once mapping the brain's connectome is achievable, the next step is virtualization including a "runtime" [wikipedia.org/wiki/Run\_time\_(program\_lifecycle\_phase)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Run_time_(program_lifecycle_phase)) by applying what's already known from scientific research:
>
> … self-emerged oscillatory timing is the brain's fundamental organizer
> of neuronal information. The small-world-like connectivity of the
> cerebral cortex allows for global computation on multiple spatial and
> temporal scales. The perpetual interactions among the multiple network
> oscillators keep cortical systems in a highly sensitive "metastable"
> state and provide energy-efficient synchronizing mechanisms via weak links. — <https://global.oup.com/academic/product/rhythms-of-the-brain-9780199828234>
>
>
>
John Smart, VP of the BPF, via io9's article, "How to Live Forever By Turning Your Brain Into Plastic":
>
> "We appear to be our special, complex patterns," Smart told io9, "not
> our matter, or even our type of matter." He notes that each of the
> 250,000 or so people who have had cochlear implants has had one small
> nervous system pattern replaced, or "uploaded", into technology.
> Retinal implants are coming next. It's the pattern replication that we
> care about, not the matter, or "substrate."
>
>
> Patternism, in conjunction with connectomics, may eventually reveal
> our neural correlates of identity — and allow us to preserve
> capacities like memories, thoughts, emotions, even consciousness.
> "Consciousness is transitory, it's like a pattern in a stream," said
> Smart, "and it's also overrated. You don't have it when you sleep, and
> it's rebooted, at a later time, from much more durable cellular and
> molecular patterns when you are knocked unconscious, given anesthesia,
> drowned for an hour in cold water with no EEG, and so on."
>
>
> Identity, argues Smart, is what really matters — those patterns that
> are stored in our neural architectures. — <http://io9.gizmodo.com/5943304/how-to-preserve-your-brain-by-turning-it-into-plastic>
>
>
> |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | Had the same problem with my generator and gas furnace. When powered by generator (through a transfer switch) the fan kept cycling when no heat was called for. I was quite puzzled. Did some research and discovered the bonded neutral in the generator was causing stray current flows. (Neutral and ground are already bonded in the house panel) Unbonded the generator neutral and the furnace worked fine. I fixed up a dummy 3 prong plug with the neutral and ground connected to make the generator bonded neutral again when not connected to the transfer switch. | Was looking at another forum with similar issues. From what I can make out of it, when Furnace is wired to breaker panel (normal configuration), the board is looking for the neutral to be bonded with the ground in the main panel.
If a generators three wires (hot, neutral, grnd) are connected to the furnace, the board does not 'see' the neutral bonded at the panel along with ground.
One suggestion was to make up your standard 3 prong plug from furnace to a receptacle going to the panel for normal operations. When running generator, run a neutral jumper wire from the primary receptacles neutral and share with gen neutral. Then when the plug is put in generator receptacle the neutral wire is seeing the gen AND the panel neutral. No harm, no foul, right?
If not done like that, the furnace's board doesn't 'see' that ground and neutral are actually bonded, .... as it would if coming from the main panel.
I shall contact my HVAC company for clarification. During the Texas Winter Blackout, I came very close to just wiring 12/2 from gen to furnace and just use wire nuts on panel/feed side, but something at the last minute made me not do it as I was more concerned about damage to the furnace board (not even thinking about it not running). Would have taken a lot longer for HVAC guys to bring a new board than just waiting it out till power restored. At least had double see-thru gas log fireplace and used 8 inch 12v computer fans to push some of the heat out. Was NO fun, but survived 4 days with no power. Did use Generator for inside fridge, coffee maker, WOK and blender for some margarita's :-] |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | I'd consult with the furnace manufacturer regarding whether the furnace electronics will function properly on generator power that might not be pure sine wave. If that's the issue you're just wasting your time. It's also possible that you could damage the electronics running on generator power. There are ways to clean up the generator power, but none that will be convenient for your testing purposes.
I'd look at your generator's instructions carefully with respect to the neutral to ground bond rather than using a plug with neutral and ground bonded. For safety and proper function of the equipment grounding system this needs to be done correctly. I imagine if the generator is used standalone as you are using, rather than with a transfer switch, the neutral to ground bond needs to be in place.
It's possible that your furnace's control wiring in some place uses ground as a return path, and without the neutral to ground bond that path is not available. (If this is the case it's likely a wiring issue that should be corrected, even though the furnace runs.) But if this is the case, and the neutral to ground bond is missing, it's possible this could correct your issue.
Connecting the generator's ground lug to your existing ground rod may or may not correct the issue but again I'd defer to the generator manufacturer's instructions. The furnace is probably always connected to ground by it's plumbing so bonding the generator's ground lug may keep everything at the same reference.
I keep referring back to the manufacturer's instructions for safety, I'd not get creative, you could wind up with damaged electronics or a serious safety issue. | I had the same problem and fixed it by grounding my generator. Here are the instructions from my manual (my generator has a grounding nut):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OU7F9.jpg) |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | Many flame presence detectors use the relationship between Earth and one side of the Mains to sense a small current passing through the flame. If the voltage is not as expected, the flame presence / failure detection may not work.
So again, establishing the proper relationship between Mains and Earth is critical for proper operation. | Was looking at another forum with similar issues. From what I can make out of it, when Furnace is wired to breaker panel (normal configuration), the board is looking for the neutral to be bonded with the ground in the main panel.
If a generators three wires (hot, neutral, grnd) are connected to the furnace, the board does not 'see' the neutral bonded at the panel along with ground.
One suggestion was to make up your standard 3 prong plug from furnace to a receptacle going to the panel for normal operations. When running generator, run a neutral jumper wire from the primary receptacles neutral and share with gen neutral. Then when the plug is put in generator receptacle the neutral wire is seeing the gen AND the panel neutral. No harm, no foul, right?
If not done like that, the furnace's board doesn't 'see' that ground and neutral are actually bonded, .... as it would if coming from the main panel.
I shall contact my HVAC company for clarification. During the Texas Winter Blackout, I came very close to just wiring 12/2 from gen to furnace and just use wire nuts on panel/feed side, but something at the last minute made me not do it as I was more concerned about damage to the furnace board (not even thinking about it not running). Would have taken a lot longer for HVAC guys to bring a new board than just waiting it out till power restored. At least had double see-thru gas log fireplace and used 8 inch 12v computer fans to push some of the heat out. Was NO fun, but survived 4 days with no power. Did use Generator for inside fridge, coffee maker, WOK and blender for some margarita's :-] |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | I too suspect the (lack of) ground-neutral bond. So far as I'm aware there isn't any industry standard for ground bonding in portable generators: it's almost universal that portables in the US have a 3-prong outlet, and in many units the ground prong connects only to the generator chassis, leaving the hot and neutral to float.
My favorite remedy for ground-neutral bonding in portable generators I learned from Mike Sokol (<http://noshockzone.org/>). Get a regular 3-prong male cord end and put a jumper wire between the neutral and ground terminals. Reassemble the cord end and label it as a ground bond jumper. Plug it to an unused socket on the generator and test the furnace again.
A 20-year old furnace is likely to have a single LED which lights solid when all is well, or gives a series of flashes when there's some error. The control board is likely to be mounted in the blower compartment, and usually there would be a small window through which the LED would be visible -- though it may be dim, and it may be visible only when viewed on exactly the right axis. It could be easier to see if you remove the blower compartment door, keep all hands, long hair, clothing, etc clear of being drawn into the blower, and hold the blower door safety switch so that the control board can power on.
Supposing an indicator LED is found, it'll need to be decoded. Often there's a wiring diagram on a label fixed to the inside of the blower compartment door; the "magic decoder ring" for translating flash count to a meaningful trouble cause might be as simple (inconspicuous) as a footnote on that schematic. | Was looking at another forum with similar issues. From what I can make out of it, when Furnace is wired to breaker panel (normal configuration), the board is looking for the neutral to be bonded with the ground in the main panel.
If a generators three wires (hot, neutral, grnd) are connected to the furnace, the board does not 'see' the neutral bonded at the panel along with ground.
One suggestion was to make up your standard 3 prong plug from furnace to a receptacle going to the panel for normal operations. When running generator, run a neutral jumper wire from the primary receptacles neutral and share with gen neutral. Then when the plug is put in generator receptacle the neutral wire is seeing the gen AND the panel neutral. No harm, no foul, right?
If not done like that, the furnace's board doesn't 'see' that ground and neutral are actually bonded, .... as it would if coming from the main panel.
I shall contact my HVAC company for clarification. During the Texas Winter Blackout, I came very close to just wiring 12/2 from gen to furnace and just use wire nuts on panel/feed side, but something at the last minute made me not do it as I was more concerned about damage to the furnace board (not even thinking about it not running). Would have taken a lot longer for HVAC guys to bring a new board than just waiting it out till power restored. At least had double see-thru gas log fireplace and used 8 inch 12v computer fans to push some of the heat out. Was NO fun, but survived 4 days with no power. Did use Generator for inside fridge, coffee maker, WOK and blender for some margarita's :-] |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | I too suspect the (lack of) ground-neutral bond. So far as I'm aware there isn't any industry standard for ground bonding in portable generators: it's almost universal that portables in the US have a 3-prong outlet, and in many units the ground prong connects only to the generator chassis, leaving the hot and neutral to float.
My favorite remedy for ground-neutral bonding in portable generators I learned from Mike Sokol (<http://noshockzone.org/>). Get a regular 3-prong male cord end and put a jumper wire between the neutral and ground terminals. Reassemble the cord end and label it as a ground bond jumper. Plug it to an unused socket on the generator and test the furnace again.
A 20-year old furnace is likely to have a single LED which lights solid when all is well, or gives a series of flashes when there's some error. The control board is likely to be mounted in the blower compartment, and usually there would be a small window through which the LED would be visible -- though it may be dim, and it may be visible only when viewed on exactly the right axis. It could be easier to see if you remove the blower compartment door, keep all hands, long hair, clothing, etc clear of being drawn into the blower, and hold the blower door safety switch so that the control board can power on.
Supposing an indicator LED is found, it'll need to be decoded. Often there's a wiring diagram on a label fixed to the inside of the blower compartment door; the "magic decoder ring" for translating flash count to a meaningful trouble cause might be as simple (inconspicuous) as a footnote on that schematic. | I'd consult with the furnace manufacturer regarding whether the furnace electronics will function properly on generator power that might not be pure sine wave. If that's the issue you're just wasting your time. It's also possible that you could damage the electronics running on generator power. There are ways to clean up the generator power, but none that will be convenient for your testing purposes.
I'd look at your generator's instructions carefully with respect to the neutral to ground bond rather than using a plug with neutral and ground bonded. For safety and proper function of the equipment grounding system this needs to be done correctly. I imagine if the generator is used standalone as you are using, rather than with a transfer switch, the neutral to ground bond needs to be in place.
It's possible that your furnace's control wiring in some place uses ground as a return path, and without the neutral to ground bond that path is not available. (If this is the case it's likely a wiring issue that should be corrected, even though the furnace runs.) But if this is the case, and the neutral to ground bond is missing, it's possible this could correct your issue.
Connecting the generator's ground lug to your existing ground rod may or may not correct the issue but again I'd defer to the generator manufacturer's instructions. The furnace is probably always connected to ground by it's plumbing so bonding the generator's ground lug may keep everything at the same reference.
I keep referring back to the manufacturer's instructions for safety, I'd not get creative, you could wind up with damaged electronics or a serious safety issue. |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | Had the same problem with my generator and gas furnace. When powered by generator (through a transfer switch) the fan kept cycling when no heat was called for. I was quite puzzled. Did some research and discovered the bonded neutral in the generator was causing stray current flows. (Neutral and ground are already bonded in the house panel) Unbonded the generator neutral and the furnace worked fine. I fixed up a dummy 3 prong plug with the neutral and ground connected to make the generator bonded neutral again when not connected to the transfer switch. | I had the same problem and fixed it by grounding my generator. Here are the instructions from my manual (my generator has a grounding nut):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OU7F9.jpg) |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | Many flame presence detectors use the relationship between Earth and one side of the Mains to sense a small current passing through the flame. If the voltage is not as expected, the flame presence / failure detection may not work.
So again, establishing the proper relationship between Mains and Earth is critical for proper operation. | Had the same problem with my generator and gas furnace. When powered by generator (through a transfer switch) the fan kept cycling when no heat was called for. I was quite puzzled. Did some research and discovered the bonded neutral in the generator was causing stray current flows. (Neutral and ground are already bonded in the house panel) Unbonded the generator neutral and the furnace worked fine. I fixed up a dummy 3 prong plug with the neutral and ground connected to make the generator bonded neutral again when not connected to the transfer switch. |
157,438 | We recently had a power outage that lasted several days and the house was down to 41 degrees and expected power restore was several days in the future.
I purchased a 3500 watt (5250 starting watts) generator with the hopes to heat my house.
I only wanted to power the furnace and did not want to worry about having it connected to the house at all. I purchased a single outlet and a plug and added them into the furnace line. So when I want to plug in the furnace I first have to unplug it from the houses power and then hopefully plug it into my generator.
The Inducer fan kicks on, the ignition element heats up and the flames start. Just before the blower fan kicks on the flames go out and the cycle starts over.
I am assuming I have 1 or 2 problems.
1) Grounding issue.
2) Dirty power
I would like to explore the grounding issue but am unable to find much on the internet that matches my symptoms (actually I am finding too much, but nothing that seems to fit exactly). I do have a ground lead on my generator, where do I connect it to? My house does have a few poles outside where things come in. I do see a few green wires connected to a pole with a clamp. can I connect my ground to that? is there an easier way to test if this is it the problem first? I've seen things about creating a neutral bonded ground plug and plugging it into a spare outlet on the generator but some reason shorting the neutral and ground didn't seem safe, but I am new to this.
If my issue is dirty power due to a cheap generator, am I out of luck? Should I just sell the generator?
edit:
Furnace is about 20 years old.
Generator is not an inverter.
Furnace does not seem to have a method of delivering error codes.
Furnace works fine when I plug it back into the single outlet I added. | 2019/02/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/157438",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/97084/"
] | I too suspect the (lack of) ground-neutral bond. So far as I'm aware there isn't any industry standard for ground bonding in portable generators: it's almost universal that portables in the US have a 3-prong outlet, and in many units the ground prong connects only to the generator chassis, leaving the hot and neutral to float.
My favorite remedy for ground-neutral bonding in portable generators I learned from Mike Sokol (<http://noshockzone.org/>). Get a regular 3-prong male cord end and put a jumper wire between the neutral and ground terminals. Reassemble the cord end and label it as a ground bond jumper. Plug it to an unused socket on the generator and test the furnace again.
A 20-year old furnace is likely to have a single LED which lights solid when all is well, or gives a series of flashes when there's some error. The control board is likely to be mounted in the blower compartment, and usually there would be a small window through which the LED would be visible -- though it may be dim, and it may be visible only when viewed on exactly the right axis. It could be easier to see if you remove the blower compartment door, keep all hands, long hair, clothing, etc clear of being drawn into the blower, and hold the blower door safety switch so that the control board can power on.
Supposing an indicator LED is found, it'll need to be decoded. Often there's a wiring diagram on a label fixed to the inside of the blower compartment door; the "magic decoder ring" for translating flash count to a meaningful trouble cause might be as simple (inconspicuous) as a footnote on that schematic. | I had the same problem and fixed it by grounding my generator. Here are the instructions from my manual (my generator has a grounding nut):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OU7F9.jpg) |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | Scan whatever you may need again at some point so you have an electronic copy. If possible, OCR it so you can search.
This point has been made by others before, but here's what I would do going forward: try to [take as many notes as possible directly in a big txt file](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/51807/4140), so you don't need to scan and OCR it afterwards. You can always search for relevant keywords in your txt later.
And you may want to browse through Personal Productivity, specifically its [note-taking tag](https://productivity.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/note-taking). | This doesn't help for the past, but in the future write your notes in a [journal](http://kit-shop.de/cosmoshop/default/pix/a/n/K3-510_Notizbuch+kariert+Normalbild.2.jpg). And put them on a shelf when they are full. For important notes, use colorful [page markers](https://media.schaefer-shop.de/is/image/schaefershop/shop120/info-haftstreifen-page-marker-img_SI_162170_A_cut.jpg) so you can find them later. If you no longer feel that a topic is important, just remove the page marker.
I picked up this habit from my husband, who startet doing it during his PhD. I found it very helpful during my masters and I continue to use it at work outside of academia.
edit: When you run out of shelf space, throw out the oldest journal that doesn't have any page markers. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | I left academia some years ago. When I left university, my notes were all neatly stored in folders and then boxed up.
I **never** looked at any of those notes again. Eventually, I just decided that they were pointless clutter and dumped them in the recycling.
These days, if you need to know something, it's easier to look it up (in a book or on-line) than it is to wade through a pile of scribblings you did several years earlier. | In addition to other good answers... and as I intermittently sift through hand-written notes going back 35-40 years... :
Some things will have been truly, clearly superceded. Recycle.
Some things' disposition is less clear. One thing to do is to allocate some regular time to "reconsider/edit" such notes by typing them up (TeX, or whatever). And then you have an economical electronic (searchable!) copy. Then double-check that your typed version captures everything in the hand-written, and recycle.
Another point is that often organization by date, not by purported "topic", may work best. Or at least having things set-up so that it's easy to search by date... since often I realize that temporal proximity is more relevant than what I thought at the time about causality. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | It may help you to understand that [much of the value of those notes has been the very act of writing them](http://www.scientificamerican.com/article/a-learning-secret-don-t-take-notes-with-a-laptop/). As such, you may find that you have less compunction against throwing them out.
Personally, I maintain an "aging pile" for notes, in which I keep them until they stop feeling relevant. For some things, that's a week; for others it was a box in my closet and a decade. You can also remove the physical clutter aspect by scanning and archiving in something with cloud storage: you'll be trading physical clutter for electronic clutter, but I at least find that electronic clutter is much easier to ignore. | You could always scan them and store them electronically if you feel that some of these notes may be beneficial in the future.
I personally kept the notes that I felt would be beneficial. Classes related to my major and classes I had taken an interest in, I would keep. Notes I had that didn't seem useful long-term, I would recycle. I would use this same strategy for your notes for papers. If it could be useful for a future paper, keep it. Otherwise, dispose of it. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | It may help you to understand that [much of the value of those notes has been the very act of writing them](http://www.scientificamerican.com/article/a-learning-secret-don-t-take-notes-with-a-laptop/). As such, you may find that you have less compunction against throwing them out.
Personally, I maintain an "aging pile" for notes, in which I keep them until they stop feeling relevant. For some things, that's a week; for others it was a box in my closet and a decade. You can also remove the physical clutter aspect by scanning and archiving in something with cloud storage: you'll be trading physical clutter for electronic clutter, but I at least find that electronic clutter is much easier to ignore. | I am used to writing notes on different supports: post-its, text files... taken at very different moments (bedside, bus). Although I have a pretty good memory (with respect to most of my colleagues), I am amazed by how "a new thought" had appareared several times before in my notes, sometimes in a slightly different form.
Reading them again both refreshes and strenghtens those silent, unconscious cognitive processeses, described by many scientists, like J. Hadamard's [The Psychology of Invention in the Mathematical Field](http://www.inp.nsk.su/~silagadz/Hadamard_Essay.pdf), or H. Poincaré, that sometimes lead to those rare [eureka or aha! moments](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eureka_effect).
I displine myself to always have something to take note (thoughts do not warn), to decorate my notes with a time and date, descriptions, mood, attitude and sights (was it rainy? what did it smell) to help me revive the moment when I read the note again, in a [synesthetic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synesthesia) manner. And I do my best to reopen old text files, to rebrowse old post-its once in a while, randomly.
I do not know if it is really effective, but I use it as a comforting ritual, for instance when I am not in mood to do real scientific work, and it does work as least like a placebo effect.
At least, I know it worked with dreams: taking notes of dream details in the morning helped me remember them more accurately, and dream them again with even richer details. It helped me getting rid of recurring nightmmares, by somehow completing them progressively, like one finishes a level of a computer game. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | When I make notes on a paper that I've printed, I make them *on* the paper. This means in the margins, on the backs of sheets (single sided printing has its uses). I haven't had to but extra sheets can always be added to the back. Then I can file the paper in some way (normally a disorganised folder on a particular topic).
The equivalent if I'm working electronically (not preferred, but useful on a train) is to maintain a text file (which would proably start as .txt, but if any complicated equations are required, would contain LaTeX and would only need a few lines to be compilable. This would be stored in the same folder as the .pdf and the .bib for the paper. Even though I might be reading the papwer on a tablet and making notes on my laptop, papers are stored on dropbox, so everything is kept together.
I'm naturally disorganised, a piles-of-paper sort of person and this works for me. Sketched-out ideas have to be typed in or photographed for long-term storage or I'll lose them. | In addition to other good answers... and as I intermittently sift through hand-written notes going back 35-40 years... :
Some things will have been truly, clearly superceded. Recycle.
Some things' disposition is less clear. One thing to do is to allocate some regular time to "reconsider/edit" such notes by typing them up (TeX, or whatever). And then you have an economical electronic (searchable!) copy. Then double-check that your typed version captures everything in the hand-written, and recycle.
Another point is that often organization by date, not by purported "topic", may work best. Or at least having things set-up so that it's easy to search by date... since often I realize that temporal proximity is more relevant than what I thought at the time about causality. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | This doesn't help for the past, but in the future write your notes in a [journal](http://kit-shop.de/cosmoshop/default/pix/a/n/K3-510_Notizbuch+kariert+Normalbild.2.jpg). And put them on a shelf when they are full. For important notes, use colorful [page markers](https://media.schaefer-shop.de/is/image/schaefershop/shop120/info-haftstreifen-page-marker-img_SI_162170_A_cut.jpg) so you can find them later. If you no longer feel that a topic is important, just remove the page marker.
I picked up this habit from my husband, who startet doing it during his PhD. I found it very helpful during my masters and I continue to use it at work outside of academia.
edit: When you run out of shelf space, throw out the oldest journal that doesn't have any page markers. | Recycle the lot, now, without grief. The effort of reading / indexing / typing would overwhelm you, and squash whatever creativity you might still have. The act of taking the notes might have helped, but that is long gone. If you need the facts again, consult google / wikipedia / mathworld / whatever.
There is a narrow exception to this: keep unique records of (say) the medical histories of very unusual patients, or tasting notes of very rare wines, or whatever is the equivalent in your field. But if you aren’t Oliver Sacks, this won’t apply. In which case, the recycling calls. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | It may help you to understand that [much of the value of those notes has been the very act of writing them](http://www.scientificamerican.com/article/a-learning-secret-don-t-take-notes-with-a-laptop/). As such, you may find that you have less compunction against throwing them out.
Personally, I maintain an "aging pile" for notes, in which I keep them until they stop feeling relevant. For some things, that's a week; for others it was a box in my closet and a decade. You can also remove the physical clutter aspect by scanning and archiving in something with cloud storage: you'll be trading physical clutter for electronic clutter, but I at least find that electronic clutter is much easier to ignore. | The old papers could be-
1. Scan and convert to PDF, which can then be managed with Zotero or any other reference management software.
2. The PDF could then be annotated with notes, and these could be exported to Markdown.
3. The markdown could be opened in a digital zettelkasten sytem like zettlr or obsidian to retain the notes and to make it resuable in future... |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | This doesn't help for the past, but in the future write your notes in a [journal](http://kit-shop.de/cosmoshop/default/pix/a/n/K3-510_Notizbuch+kariert+Normalbild.2.jpg). And put them on a shelf when they are full. For important notes, use colorful [page markers](https://media.schaefer-shop.de/is/image/schaefershop/shop120/info-haftstreifen-page-marker-img_SI_162170_A_cut.jpg) so you can find them later. If you no longer feel that a topic is important, just remove the page marker.
I picked up this habit from my husband, who startet doing it during his PhD. I found it very helpful during my masters and I continue to use it at work outside of academia.
edit: When you run out of shelf space, throw out the oldest journal that doesn't have any page markers. | There have been some general remarks about scanning things in and digitization, but here is a system that I used when I was taking paper notes.
I had a manilla envelope for each project that I was currently working on - I might have had 2-3 irons in the fire, so to speak. I kept the most recent material to the front of the folder. Eventually the project would wrap up (or I went and got a better job ;)
At the end of the project, I would go through all the screenshots and annotations that I had made. I would have a lot of duplicates and a lot of information that was no longer relevant. This got discarded. Most of the other information I had already digitized (e.g. if I took [Sketchnotes](http://rohdesign.com/sketchnotes/) at a meeting, or added cases to our issue tracker). If I found any information that still needed to be digitized, I'd add it to a Wiki, issue tracker, or email, and then I'd move the folder to a filing cabinet or drawer.
It seems like this (or a similar process) would work for you. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | I think most people here have said what I would say too, scan them.
The rationale behind scanning the notes is that they then are not lost in case you do want to get back to them, however, as others may have indicated, you should consider keeping the notes that you deem important on paper as it makes them a lot easier and more comfortable to read.
The other point people did not mention - when scanning, get a document scanner. Even a small document scanner will be a lot faster than a flatbed which would drive you insane.
I have scanned many of my own notes - without my (Fujitsu) document scanner that would not have happened as not only is it faster than a flatbed, but it can do double sided scans too, effectively, put in a stack of papers, press a button and done. (Unless a problem occurs in which case the scan is interrupted and you are informed of the problem.)
I would advise you to read reviews and compare different models before making a decision.
Some people have mentioned OCR: This is only practical for already a priory typeset and printed material.
I have not seen nor found affordable OCR software that can understand handwriting. It may exist as a research code or maybe as a more expensive code but this is of little use to the more average consumer, plus you cannot be sure it will read notes correctly if they contain mathematical notation or similar (this would also apply for prints though).
Something I didn't do in my scans - but you should consider - is organising these in a coherent manner.
Obviously use multi-page PDFs where content belongs together and possibly use folders/directories in the same way that you would use physical folders to help you find documents later on should you need to seek out any page. | There have been some general remarks about scanning things in and digitization, but here is a system that I used when I was taking paper notes.
I had a manilla envelope for each project that I was currently working on - I might have had 2-3 irons in the fire, so to speak. I kept the most recent material to the front of the folder. Eventually the project would wrap up (or I went and got a better job ;)
At the end of the project, I would go through all the screenshots and annotations that I had made. I would have a lot of duplicates and a lot of information that was no longer relevant. This got discarded. Most of the other information I had already digitized (e.g. if I took [Sketchnotes](http://rohdesign.com/sketchnotes/) at a meeting, or added cases to our issue tracker). If I found any information that still needed to be digitized, I'd add it to a Wiki, issue tracker, or email, and then I'd move the folder to a filing cabinet or drawer.
It seems like this (or a similar process) would work for you. |
60,482 | Many a times, I study some topic or research paper and make my own notes (it could be figuring out the math in paper, or something else). But after say 7-8 months, these notes just pile up on table and when I look at them I don't think I will be using them for any future work. But I also feel like I'm trashing my study, and the effort was pointless if I dispose of it. Is it okay to dispose of them? What strategy do you have about disposing of written notes? | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60482",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/2643/"
] | When I make notes on a paper that I've printed, I make them *on* the paper. This means in the margins, on the backs of sheets (single sided printing has its uses). I haven't had to but extra sheets can always be added to the back. Then I can file the paper in some way (normally a disorganised folder on a particular topic).
The equivalent if I'm working electronically (not preferred, but useful on a train) is to maintain a text file (which would proably start as .txt, but if any complicated equations are required, would contain LaTeX and would only need a few lines to be compilable. This would be stored in the same folder as the .pdf and the .bib for the paper. Even though I might be reading the papwer on a tablet and making notes on my laptop, papers are stored on dropbox, so everything is kept together.
I'm naturally disorganised, a piles-of-paper sort of person and this works for me. Sketched-out ideas have to be typed in or photographed for long-term storage or I'll lose them. | I am used to writing notes on different supports: post-its, text files... taken at very different moments (bedside, bus). Although I have a pretty good memory (with respect to most of my colleagues), I am amazed by how "a new thought" had appareared several times before in my notes, sometimes in a slightly different form.
Reading them again both refreshes and strenghtens those silent, unconscious cognitive processeses, described by many scientists, like J. Hadamard's [The Psychology of Invention in the Mathematical Field](http://www.inp.nsk.su/~silagadz/Hadamard_Essay.pdf), or H. Poincaré, that sometimes lead to those rare [eureka or aha! moments](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eureka_effect).
I displine myself to always have something to take note (thoughts do not warn), to decorate my notes with a time and date, descriptions, mood, attitude and sights (was it rainy? what did it smell) to help me revive the moment when I read the note again, in a [synesthetic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synesthesia) manner. And I do my best to reopen old text files, to rebrowse old post-its once in a while, randomly.
I do not know if it is really effective, but I use it as a comforting ritual, for instance when I am not in mood to do real scientific work, and it does work as least like a placebo effect.
At least, I know it worked with dreams: taking notes of dream details in the morning helped me remember them more accurately, and dream them again with even richer details. It helped me getting rid of recurring nightmmares, by somehow completing them progressively, like one finishes a level of a computer game. |
17,091 | Are there rules that require one of the pilots in a large commercial aircraft to have positive physical control of the yoke/joystick at all times?
And the same question for the rudder actuators, if any (pedals)? | 2015/07/21 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/17091",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/2171/"
] | There is nothing I can find in the FARs requiring that a pilot keep their hands and feet on the controls at all times.
Such a requirement would be impractical and dangerous in many situations (such as when writing down a clearance in the air: For most people if you keep your hands on the controls while writing you will have a tendency to push, pull, or twist them, resulting in unintended attitude changes).
---
The most relevant sections of [Part 91](http://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?node=14:2.0.1.3.10) would be 91.3 and 91.13:
14 CFR 91.3 (FAR 91.3) says:
>
> **§91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.**
>
> (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
>
> . . . .
>
>
>
and 14 CFR 91.13 (FAR 91.13) says:
>
> **§91.13 Careless or reckless operation.**
>
> (a) *Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation.*
>
> No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.
>
>
> (b) *Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air navigation.*
>
> No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.
>
>
>
So basically it's perfectly legal for a pilot to fly with their arms crossed and their feet flat on the floor, even without an autopilot, as long as the pilot in command remains able to exercise operational control of the aircraft as required to ensure the flight remains safe and legal, and as long as they are not acting in a "careless or reckless manner" (like letting their altitude wander all over the place while sitting with their arms crossed). | Nope. Sometimes they just let go and yell, "Look Ma! No hands!" into the local traffic channel. Just kidding.
There may be a slight disconnect here in how you think about pilots and the law. The average (non-pilot) person imagines that pilots are robotic servants that must obey all kinds of laws and regulations designed to "protect" passengers and slavishly follow orders from (non-pilot) FAA controllers. That is not how it works.
In the sky, the pilots are the bosses. ATC and the laws are there to help the pilots do their job better, not boss them around and force them to them to do things they don't want to do. |
17,091 | Are there rules that require one of the pilots in a large commercial aircraft to have positive physical control of the yoke/joystick at all times?
And the same question for the rudder actuators, if any (pedals)? | 2015/07/21 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/17091",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/2171/"
] | No. What is required by FAA is that one of the two pilots (the captain or first officer) must be the "pilot flying", and this pilot has primary responsibility for maintaining control of the aircraft at the time. The other pilot, the "pilot not flying", may assist the pilot flying by performing secondary tasks such as communication or navigation, or he/she may use the lav, have a snack/drink, read (the FAA does not prohibit reading materials not directly related to the job, but some companies do), do puzzles (ditto), etc.
Neither of these pilots are required to have hands on stick/yoke/throttle and feet on rudder pedals at all times. First off, it's redundant for most of the flight; when cruising, the plane is on autopilot, which will keep the wings level and the plane on a designated course. Second, airliners (in fact, most civilian fixed-wing aircraft) are much more stable in flight than helicopters, which *do* require someone to have their hands on the cyclic stick at all times to keep the helicopter "on top of" the lift vector of its rotors. So, even if the autopilot is disengaged, in normal, calm conditions the plane will almost fly itself, requiring only small corrections for turbulence. In any case, a "ham-fist" or "lead foot" on the controls is a common student mistake, much like in driving; pilots usually try to heed Han Solo's advice: "fly casual". | Nope. Sometimes they just let go and yell, "Look Ma! No hands!" into the local traffic channel. Just kidding.
There may be a slight disconnect here in how you think about pilots and the law. The average (non-pilot) person imagines that pilots are robotic servants that must obey all kinds of laws and regulations designed to "protect" passengers and slavishly follow orders from (non-pilot) FAA controllers. That is not how it works.
In the sky, the pilots are the bosses. ATC and the laws are there to help the pilots do their job better, not boss them around and force them to them to do things they don't want to do. |
17,091 | Are there rules that require one of the pilots in a large commercial aircraft to have positive physical control of the yoke/joystick at all times?
And the same question for the rudder actuators, if any (pedals)? | 2015/07/21 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/17091",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/2171/"
] | There is nothing I can find in the FARs requiring that a pilot keep their hands and feet on the controls at all times.
Such a requirement would be impractical and dangerous in many situations (such as when writing down a clearance in the air: For most people if you keep your hands on the controls while writing you will have a tendency to push, pull, or twist them, resulting in unintended attitude changes).
---
The most relevant sections of [Part 91](http://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?node=14:2.0.1.3.10) would be 91.3 and 91.13:
14 CFR 91.3 (FAR 91.3) says:
>
> **§91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.**
>
> (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
>
> . . . .
>
>
>
and 14 CFR 91.13 (FAR 91.13) says:
>
> **§91.13 Careless or reckless operation.**
>
> (a) *Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation.*
>
> No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.
>
>
> (b) *Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air navigation.*
>
> No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.
>
>
>
So basically it's perfectly legal for a pilot to fly with their arms crossed and their feet flat on the floor, even without an autopilot, as long as the pilot in command remains able to exercise operational control of the aircraft as required to ensure the flight remains safe and legal, and as long as they are not acting in a "careless or reckless manner" (like letting their altitude wander all over the place while sitting with their arms crossed). | No. What is required by FAA is that one of the two pilots (the captain or first officer) must be the "pilot flying", and this pilot has primary responsibility for maintaining control of the aircraft at the time. The other pilot, the "pilot not flying", may assist the pilot flying by performing secondary tasks such as communication or navigation, or he/she may use the lav, have a snack/drink, read (the FAA does not prohibit reading materials not directly related to the job, but some companies do), do puzzles (ditto), etc.
Neither of these pilots are required to have hands on stick/yoke/throttle and feet on rudder pedals at all times. First off, it's redundant for most of the flight; when cruising, the plane is on autopilot, which will keep the wings level and the plane on a designated course. Second, airliners (in fact, most civilian fixed-wing aircraft) are much more stable in flight than helicopters, which *do* require someone to have their hands on the cyclic stick at all times to keep the helicopter "on top of" the lift vector of its rotors. So, even if the autopilot is disengaged, in normal, calm conditions the plane will almost fly itself, requiring only small corrections for turbulence. In any case, a "ham-fist" or "lead foot" on the controls is a common student mistake, much like in driving; pilots usually try to heed Han Solo's advice: "fly casual". |
5,317,008 | I just heard that a company I do work for may be bringing in the Pyxis Mobile application development system. When I google it most of what I find is from the company's web site and that is not very informative from a geek perspective. Can any one shed some light on what sort of programming environment it is and what programing language is involved (please let there be a text based language). Any additional information would be great.
Note: the company/product changed their name to Verivo in January. | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5317008",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/165031/"
] | Full Disclosure - I work as an engineer at Pyxis Mobile. However, I have been in the mobile space for 7+ years and have evaluated several approaches to mobile so hopefully this is helpful.
Pyxis Mobile provides a set of tools and components to build cross platform mobile applications. Let me outline them first.
**1. Application Studio** - All application development, backend integration, user provisioning and application maintenance/debugging is done w/in this tool. Application Studio (for now) is a Windows based desktop app.
**2. Application Clients** - Pyxis Mobile provides native client runtimes for iPhone, iPad, BlackBerry, and Android devices. These runtimes get branded for the customer through a build service and are primed to point to a specific Application Server URL.
**3. Application Server** - Pyxis Mobile App Server runs on the .NET stack (on IIS). All client communication is proxied via this server. This server is able to connect to varied of backend systems (via the Plugin Framework listed below) and respond to the client in a mobile optimized manner. This server needs a SQL Server (2005 or newer) for configuration access, session management, logging and more.
**4. Plugin Framework** - The Plugin Framework is a backend component that provides system specific pre-built access to several of the enterprise and cloud based systems (Oracle, Siebel, SAP, Salesforce.com, social feeds, REST/SOAP web services, etc.) and also offers an API layer in .NET and Python (using IronPython) to allow even further customization. A plugin is essentially comprised of one or more DLLs or a Python file. These assets are then dynamically loaded to normalize communication between Pyxis Mobile and the customers' backend systems.
**5. Push Services** - This provides a cross-platform push layer that can poll a backend system for change and alert a mobile device via BlackBerry Push, Apple Push Notification Services (APNS) or Android's Cloud to Deice Messaging (C2DM).
**6. OverWatch Analytics** - This is an optional (but included) component to track users/devices and provide integrated analytics on what the users are using and what kind of devices and locales makes up your users.
The application itself is "coded" via configuration that is build in App Studio. Pyxis Mobile abstracts away from the code so that you can work at a higher level without having to worry about the wide array of device variances (GPS, touch screens, camera, accelerometer, push, screen resolution, etc.). You can drag fields onto a from, connect screens via menus or buttons, set up caching rules and more in this graphical utility. This configuration (essentially think of an XML like document) is interpreted by the native client layer to produce a rich application. There is also a scripting layer in Lua that allows to really customize behavior via code.
The real value of Pyxis Mobile comes up when you have change to make. The clients check for new configuration at app startup or if the server forces the client to get new configuration. This gives you great agility. Lets say once your application is deployed you want start using the swipe gesture to go next/prev through a set of records. This change on other platforms would mean writing some platform specific code to trap and interpret the swipe to perform a navigation (you couldn't trap a swipe on a non-touch screen). However, in Pyxis Mobile this is a simple configuration change that can be quickly deployed to the App Server and the clients automatically download and use the new configuration. No compilation, no redeployment or re-download for the end users.
I could keep going, but hope this provides some level of guidance. | Beware of Pyxis Mobile. While many of the things they say do work, there are some serious platform issues (as a geek) which I've experienced.
1) No version control system process. The Application studio can basically only be developed on by one person at a time or you risk having your changes overwritten by a fellow developer. The "principle of last save" is very much in play.
2) No unit test coverage. This isn't the biggest issue for a lot of people, but it's a concern for anyone who wants to work in the Enterprise world.
3) The middleware server gets you some value, but it's also a PITA to work with. There is no concept of "client side storage" unless you consider the middleware server the client side. If your phone goes out of coverage, your app won't work. Again, this might not be an issue for you.
4) The application has no true scripting language to work with. The middleware server allows you to intercept requests and responses and modify what you're doing there, but it's not the most elegant solution considering that a native application can have something as simple as "if this then X else Y." This can be accomplished with Pyxis, but the whole process is convoluted and more complicated than one would think it needs to be.
5) Lack of documentation. There's some training guides and the GUI is easy enough to get around for simple apps; however, when you need to do something with guts, you're left relying on Pyxis professional services. There's really no developer community to pose questions to.
I have more complaints, but they are more opinion oriented than Q/A oriented. |
5,317,008 | I just heard that a company I do work for may be bringing in the Pyxis Mobile application development system. When I google it most of what I find is from the company's web site and that is not very informative from a geek perspective. Can any one shed some light on what sort of programming environment it is and what programing language is involved (please let there be a text based language). Any additional information would be great.
Note: the company/product changed their name to Verivo in January. | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5317008",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/165031/"
] | Full Disclosure - I work as an engineer at Pyxis Mobile. However, I have been in the mobile space for 7+ years and have evaluated several approaches to mobile so hopefully this is helpful.
Pyxis Mobile provides a set of tools and components to build cross platform mobile applications. Let me outline them first.
**1. Application Studio** - All application development, backend integration, user provisioning and application maintenance/debugging is done w/in this tool. Application Studio (for now) is a Windows based desktop app.
**2. Application Clients** - Pyxis Mobile provides native client runtimes for iPhone, iPad, BlackBerry, and Android devices. These runtimes get branded for the customer through a build service and are primed to point to a specific Application Server URL.
**3. Application Server** - Pyxis Mobile App Server runs on the .NET stack (on IIS). All client communication is proxied via this server. This server is able to connect to varied of backend systems (via the Plugin Framework listed below) and respond to the client in a mobile optimized manner. This server needs a SQL Server (2005 or newer) for configuration access, session management, logging and more.
**4. Plugin Framework** - The Plugin Framework is a backend component that provides system specific pre-built access to several of the enterprise and cloud based systems (Oracle, Siebel, SAP, Salesforce.com, social feeds, REST/SOAP web services, etc.) and also offers an API layer in .NET and Python (using IronPython) to allow even further customization. A plugin is essentially comprised of one or more DLLs or a Python file. These assets are then dynamically loaded to normalize communication between Pyxis Mobile and the customers' backend systems.
**5. Push Services** - This provides a cross-platform push layer that can poll a backend system for change and alert a mobile device via BlackBerry Push, Apple Push Notification Services (APNS) or Android's Cloud to Deice Messaging (C2DM).
**6. OverWatch Analytics** - This is an optional (but included) component to track users/devices and provide integrated analytics on what the users are using and what kind of devices and locales makes up your users.
The application itself is "coded" via configuration that is build in App Studio. Pyxis Mobile abstracts away from the code so that you can work at a higher level without having to worry about the wide array of device variances (GPS, touch screens, camera, accelerometer, push, screen resolution, etc.). You can drag fields onto a from, connect screens via menus or buttons, set up caching rules and more in this graphical utility. This configuration (essentially think of an XML like document) is interpreted by the native client layer to produce a rich application. There is also a scripting layer in Lua that allows to really customize behavior via code.
The real value of Pyxis Mobile comes up when you have change to make. The clients check for new configuration at app startup or if the server forces the client to get new configuration. This gives you great agility. Lets say once your application is deployed you want start using the swipe gesture to go next/prev through a set of records. This change on other platforms would mean writing some platform specific code to trap and interpret the swipe to perform a navigation (you couldn't trap a swipe on a non-touch screen). However, in Pyxis Mobile this is a simple configuration change that can be quickly deployed to the App Server and the clients automatically download and use the new configuration. No compilation, no redeployment or re-download for the end users.
I could keep going, but hope this provides some level of guidance. | I just got note about the most recent comments. I don't want to turn this into a thread of back and forth, but did want to throw a couple of quick notes.
Regarding the points on version control and documentation/developer community - no big contest there. We are definitely working on these shortcommings. We have some basic pieces in place, but we have big plans to focus on this.
Regarding unit testing - we provide a very open interface to our middleware and backend components and they can be very easily unit tested with a bit of instrumentation. We run a ton of unit and integration tests internally. However, mobile unit testing is extremely difficult to get right. We'll investigate this further.
Regarding #4 around middleware and offline capabilities - things are a lot different now. With version 7.1, 7.2 and 7.3 our products have increasing become more capabale offline and now features a secure local database if necessary. I can provide more details as necessary, but you can certainly login and operate the app even if you are out of coverage for weeks at a time!
Regarding #5, we've had a scripting engine for over 2 years. Its Lua based and its actually quite powerful and fast. It was BlackBerry only till the most recent release. Given Apple's [change of stance](http://www.appleinsider.com/articles/10/06/11/apple_relaxes_ios_sdk_to_allow_lua_but_block_flash.html) on allowing scripting we now allow scripting on BlackBerry, iPad, iPhone and Android as well now!
@RockMeetHardplace - feel free to reach out to me directly and I'll be happy to give you more detailed live demos of our latest platform. I am at - arunSPAMNOTatpyxismobiledotcom (drop the "SPAMNOT" and replace the at and dot). I happen to be the Director of Software and interested in knowing more about the issues you had. |
5,317,008 | I just heard that a company I do work for may be bringing in the Pyxis Mobile application development system. When I google it most of what I find is from the company's web site and that is not very informative from a geek perspective. Can any one shed some light on what sort of programming environment it is and what programing language is involved (please let there be a text based language). Any additional information would be great.
Note: the company/product changed their name to Verivo in January. | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5317008",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/165031/"
] | Beware of Pyxis Mobile. While many of the things they say do work, there are some serious platform issues (as a geek) which I've experienced.
1) No version control system process. The Application studio can basically only be developed on by one person at a time or you risk having your changes overwritten by a fellow developer. The "principle of last save" is very much in play.
2) No unit test coverage. This isn't the biggest issue for a lot of people, but it's a concern for anyone who wants to work in the Enterprise world.
3) The middleware server gets you some value, but it's also a PITA to work with. There is no concept of "client side storage" unless you consider the middleware server the client side. If your phone goes out of coverage, your app won't work. Again, this might not be an issue for you.
4) The application has no true scripting language to work with. The middleware server allows you to intercept requests and responses and modify what you're doing there, but it's not the most elegant solution considering that a native application can have something as simple as "if this then X else Y." This can be accomplished with Pyxis, but the whole process is convoluted and more complicated than one would think it needs to be.
5) Lack of documentation. There's some training guides and the GUI is easy enough to get around for simple apps; however, when you need to do something with guts, you're left relying on Pyxis professional services. There's really no developer community to pose questions to.
I have more complaints, but they are more opinion oriented than Q/A oriented. | I just got note about the most recent comments. I don't want to turn this into a thread of back and forth, but did want to throw a couple of quick notes.
Regarding the points on version control and documentation/developer community - no big contest there. We are definitely working on these shortcommings. We have some basic pieces in place, but we have big plans to focus on this.
Regarding unit testing - we provide a very open interface to our middleware and backend components and they can be very easily unit tested with a bit of instrumentation. We run a ton of unit and integration tests internally. However, mobile unit testing is extremely difficult to get right. We'll investigate this further.
Regarding #4 around middleware and offline capabilities - things are a lot different now. With version 7.1, 7.2 and 7.3 our products have increasing become more capabale offline and now features a secure local database if necessary. I can provide more details as necessary, but you can certainly login and operate the app even if you are out of coverage for weeks at a time!
Regarding #5, we've had a scripting engine for over 2 years. Its Lua based and its actually quite powerful and fast. It was BlackBerry only till the most recent release. Given Apple's [change of stance](http://www.appleinsider.com/articles/10/06/11/apple_relaxes_ios_sdk_to_allow_lua_but_block_flash.html) on allowing scripting we now allow scripting on BlackBerry, iPad, iPhone and Android as well now!
@RockMeetHardplace - feel free to reach out to me directly and I'll be happy to give you more detailed live demos of our latest platform. I am at - arunSPAMNOTatpyxismobiledotcom (drop the "SPAMNOT" and replace the at and dot). I happen to be the Director of Software and interested in knowing more about the issues you had. |
39,332 | It is really frustrating not being able to run a tight ship with my money. Neither CIBC nor TD shows them immediately. It is certainly possible because I ran across a Visa gift card which showed them. So is there a proper credit card that shows the holds immediately? | 2014/11/04 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/39332",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/9523/"
] | PC MasterCard recently added this as a new feature to their online system. It lets you see "Pending Authorizations" for your card when you log in. Their email said:
>
> Along with your purchases, you'll see a list of every transaction that's been approved, but not yet applied to your balance. You'll be able to identify these with the word “Pending” in the date column.
>
>
>
Here's a link with more information: <http://pcfinancial.ca/pendingauthorization/> | As for PC Mastercard like stated by @nullability, [VISA Desjardins](http://www.desjardins.com/ca/personal/loans-credit/visa-desjardins-credit-cards/) list the "Pending Authorizations" almost instantly (the time it's take to get back home) in AccesD (Their Web portal for managing accounts). |
3,961,513 | I have a asp.net resouce language file in english and I have to translate that resource file into french. how can this be achieved? There are lot of values on the resource file that needs to be translated.
is there any sample available on how this can be done by using google language translation or something? | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3961513",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/529866/"
] | pay a translator, and to edit the resource files there's [Zeta Resource Editor](http://www.zeta-resource-editor.com/index.html) which is pretty usefull | Google Translate will do the job. It has a limit on the number of requests it'll accept within a given period of time.
I've used it to translate a web site from Japanese Kanji to English. It did pretty well. |
3,961,513 | I have a asp.net resouce language file in english and I have to translate that resource file into french. how can this be achieved? There are lot of values on the resource file that needs to be translated.
is there any sample available on how this can be done by using google language translation or something? | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3961513",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/529866/"
] | 1. Copy the entire contents of your resource file to Excel;
2. Copy the entire contents of the second column from Excel to Google Translate;
3. Copy the translated strings back to the second column of Excel;
4. Clear out your resource file;
5. Copy the entire contents from Excel back to your resource file.
Hope this helps. Should be easier than doing this programmatically. | Google Translate will do the job. It has a limit on the number of requests it'll accept within a given period of time.
I've used it to translate a web site from Japanese Kanji to English. It did pretty well. |
3,961,513 | I have a asp.net resouce language file in english and I have to translate that resource file into french. how can this be achieved? There are lot of values on the resource file that needs to be translated.
is there any sample available on how this can be done by using google language translation or something? | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3961513",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/529866/"
] | 1. Copy the entire contents of your resource file to Excel;
2. Copy the entire contents of the second column from Excel to Google Translate;
3. Copy the translated strings back to the second column of Excel;
4. Clear out your resource file;
5. Copy the entire contents from Excel back to your resource file.
Hope this helps. Should be easier than doing this programmatically. | pay a translator, and to edit the resource files there's [Zeta Resource Editor](http://www.zeta-resource-editor.com/index.html) which is pretty usefull |
3,961,513 | I have a asp.net resouce language file in english and I have to translate that resource file into french. how can this be achieved? There are lot of values on the resource file that needs to be translated.
is there any sample available on how this can be done by using google language translation or something? | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3961513",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/529866/"
] | pay a translator, and to edit the resource files there's [Zeta Resource Editor](http://www.zeta-resource-editor.com/index.html) which is pretty usefull | Download MAT (Multilingual App Toolkit) for Visual Studio.
<https://marketplace.visualstudio.com/items?itemName=MultilingualAppToolkit.MultilingualAppToolkit-18308>
This is the way to go to translate your projects in Visual Studio ;-)
<https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/matdev/> |
3,961,513 | I have a asp.net resouce language file in english and I have to translate that resource file into french. how can this be achieved? There are lot of values on the resource file that needs to be translated.
is there any sample available on how this can be done by using google language translation or something? | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3961513",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/529866/"
] | 1. Copy the entire contents of your resource file to Excel;
2. Copy the entire contents of the second column from Excel to Google Translate;
3. Copy the translated strings back to the second column of Excel;
4. Clear out your resource file;
5. Copy the entire contents from Excel back to your resource file.
Hope this helps. Should be easier than doing this programmatically. | Download MAT (Multilingual App Toolkit) for Visual Studio.
<https://marketplace.visualstudio.com/items?itemName=MultilingualAppToolkit.MultilingualAppToolkit-18308>
This is the way to go to translate your projects in Visual Studio ;-)
<https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/matdev/> |
61,882 | Why was Jesus **born** of a Virgin instead of just being **conceived** of a Virgin?
I know the Bible teaches the virgin birth, but why did the Blessed Mother refrain from sex during her pregnancy with Jesus (9 month gestation period)? After all, she was married to St. Joseph.
Do any Catholic theologians deal with this topic? | 2018/01/25 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/61882",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/39688/"
] | An answer from catholic church teaching to satisfy your curiosity regarding
>
> Why was Jesus born of a Virgin instead of just being conceived of a Virgin?
>
>
>
Short answer: she was conforming her will to God's. This short answer is supported by the following points that the Catechism of the Catholic Church does a decent job of explaining.
* It is worth noting that she was fulfilling the prophesy in Isaiah Chapter 7, but that may not directly bear on your question:
>
> 13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for
> you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive,
> and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
>
>
>
[I. CONCEIVED BY THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT](http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0015/__P1K.HTM)
>
> CCC 484 The Annunciation to Mary inaugurates "the fullness of time", the time of the fulfilment of God's promises and preparations. Mary was invited to conceive him in whom the "whole fullness of deity" would dwell "bodily". The divine response to her question, "How can this be, since I know not man?", was given by the power of the Spirit: "The Holy Spirit will come upon you." { ~ As told in Luke, Chapter 1 ~ }
>
>
>
No carnal act was necessary for conception. Since she had not had (per scripture) carnal acts before conception, there's little reason to believe that she'd change her habits and begin to have carnal acts afterwards, particularly when she understands that she's about to become filled with the Holy Spirit1. From Luke 1:38
>
> 38 And Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; may it be done to me *according to your word*.”
>
>
>
I've seen some translations render that as "*according to thy will.*"
### What is God's will in this case?
Remembering that Catholic belief is Trinitarian, the Holy Spirit's acts align with God's will by default.
>
> 485 The mission of the Holy Spirit is always conjoined and ordered to that of the Son. The Holy Spirit, "the Lord, the giver of Life", is sent to sanctify the womb of the Virgin Mary and divinely fecundate it, causing her to conceive the eternal Son of the Father in a humanity drawn from her own.
>
>
>
So far, after conception and before birth, no sin touches the vessel that bears Christ up to the point of birth. Since Mary is aware that something very special is going on, *and she has assented to God's will in this*, it is unreasonable to conclude that she would start having sex once all of the above took place and she had conceived by the Holy Spirit. (That answers *why the Blessed Mother refrained from sex even after the incarnation*).
>
> CCC 507 At once virgin and mother, Mary is the symbol and the most perfect realization of the Church: "the Church indeed. . . by receiving the word of God in faith becomes herself a mother. By preaching and Baptism she {the Church} brings forth sons, who are conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of God, to a new and immortal life.
>
>
>
The above is supported by theological teaching and scripture as follows:
*Lumen Gentium 63; 1 Corinthians 7:34-35; **St. Augustine**, [De Virginante](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1310.htm). 3: PL 40, 398; Lumen Gentium 64;* ***St. Thomas Aquinas***, Summa Theologica III q. 28 a. 2; *Luke Chapter 1.*
Given her commitment to God's will in this, remaining virgin is both a matter of consistency, and a way that Mary fulfills her role as *the model of faith and adherence to will of God* that the Church is to follow.
---
1 Matthew 1: 24-25 shows Mary still being a virgin at the time of birth, and with the marriage not being consummated until afterwards. | Virgin during her pregnancy
===========================
She was a virgin during her pregnancy because prior to the Annunciation [she took a vow of virginity](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP028.html#TPQ28A4THEP1):
>
> Augustine says (*[De Sanct. Virg.](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1310.htm)* iv):
> > Mary answered the announcing angel: "How shall this be done, because I know not\* man?" [[Lk. 1:34](http://drbo.org/x/d?b=drl&bk=49&ch=1&l=34-#x)] She would not have said this unless she had already vowed her virginity to God.
>
>
>
>
>
\*The Greek uses the present tense "ου γινώσκω" ("I do not know") and not the past "I have not known (up to this time)". The present tense shows that she has preserved her virginity and that she also intends to preserve it in the future; it indicates her permanent state of "not knowing man" (i.e., of not having sexual intercourse). See [*Mariology* vol. 2](https://isidore.co/calibre#book_id=6493&panel=book_details), p. 236, by Carol B. Juniper, O.F.M.
Virgin during Jesus's birth
===========================
She was a virgin during Jesus's birth because
>
> 1. this was in keeping with a property of Him whose Birth is in question, for He is the Word of God. For the word is not only conceived in the mind without corruption, but also proceeds from the mind without corruption. Wherefore in order to show that body to be the body of the very Word of God, it was fitting that it should be born of a virgin incorrupt. Whence in the sermon of the [Council of Ephesus](http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05491a.htm) (quoted above) we read:
> > Whosoever brings forth mere flesh, ceases to be a virgin. But since she gave birth to the Word made flesh, God safeguarded her virginity so as to manifest His Word, by which Word He thus manifested Himself: for neither does our word, when brought forth, corrupt the mind; nor does God, the substantial Word, deigning to be born, destroy virginity.
> 2. this is fitting as regards the effect of Christ's Incarnation: since He came for this purpose, that He might take away our corruption. Wherefore it is unfitting that in His Birth He should corrupt His Mother's virginity. Thus Augustine says in a sermon on the Nativity of Our Lord: "It was not right that He who came to heal corruption, should by His advent violate integrity."
> 3. it was fitting that He Who commanded us to honor our father and mother should not in His Birth lessen the honor due to His Mother.
>
>
>
>
> ---
>
> —St. Thomas Aquinas, [*Summa Theologica* III q. 28 a. 2 ("Whether Christ's Mother was a virgin in His birth?")](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP028.html#TPQ28A2THEP1) c.
>
>
>
It is worth noting that the Council of Ephesus was in 431, so this represents an agreed belief of the early Church. |
22,021 | In the following [article](https://bmcbioinformatics.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12859-017-1578-z), one of the statement is as follows:
>
> The K-means algorithm is effective only for spherical datasets
>
>
>
What does spherical dataset mean? | 2017/08/07 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/22021",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/8013/"
] | In this case, a picture is a worth a thousand words. They literally mean data whose distribution on X,Y is roughly a sphere. Different clustering algorithms work better on different distributions. For example, K means does poorly on the arrangement in the first two rows but OK on the last row.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/38eBD.png) | **spherical dataset** is basically a form of **non-linear dataset** in which observational data are modeled by a function which is **a non-linear combination of the model parameters and depends on one or more independent variables**.
If your dataset has **high variance** , you need to reduce the number of features and add more dataset. After that you can then use **non-linear methods** for classification.
Also, Non-linear methods typically involves applying some type of transformation to your input dataset. After the transformation, many techniques can then try to use a linear method for classification. |
380,310 | I have been studying the [Duffing oscillator](http://www.scholarpedia.org/article/Duffing_oscillator) rather intensively lately, mainly based on the theory in of the book by Guckenheimer and Holmes. From all that I have gathered, it seems that most dynamical systems show a period doubling cascade before going into chaos. For example, the logistic map and the driven damped pendulum show this behavior. For instance, this a bifurcation diagram for the pendulum:
However, when I calculate numerical solutions of the Duffing oscillator with Mathematica, I am unable to find such a period doubling and the system goes into chaos right away, as this bifurcation diagram shows:
Now I have tweaked and played with parameters and initial values, calculated some parts in more detail, but whatever I try, I still cannot find any period doubling. I find this very puzzling, since apparently period doubling does take place for the Duffing oscillator, according to Guckenheimer and Holmes. Also, I thought that it was a universal phenomenon for chaotic systems. I could not come up with any reason why I fail to find it other than shortcomings of the numerical method of Mathematica I used (I simply used NDSolve and ParametricNDSolve). Could there be any other reason why a period doubling is absent? | 2013/05/03 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/380310",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/44544/"
] | When drawing bifurcation diagrams, there is a trade-off between speed and resolution. If you iterate more, you get a better picture but it takes longer. In your case, your program iterates too few that you can't get a clear picture about what is happenning. So you should increase your iterations for each parameter value.
Additionally, period doubling is just a bifurcation type. There are other bifurcations leading to chaos. You can check tent map about that. | The plot of logistic function is modified. Some points are removed from diagram ( preperiodic points)
Algorithm for each parameter value along horizontal axis :
1. start with x0
2. make n iterations (now you have xn) and do not draw points
3. make k more iterations from x(n) to x(n+k) and drow these k points
See also [here](https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Fractals/Iterations_of_real_numbers/r_iterations)
HTH |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | We are not the best place to host gaming discussions. Yes, we have experts. But we also have a policy that questions should not be subjective. That very rule explicitly excludes us from being able to be the best place on the Internet for gaming discussions.
We are not just a site of gaming experts; We are a site where gaming experts can provide *solutions*. Any question can be "answered" in the sense that people give a response, but only some questions can actually be "solved". Posts that are subjective do not have an objective conclusion, so they do not make strong questions.
With regards to your specific question, under what judgment would you call the "best" or "most epic" pair of names? Everyone will have their own opinion. And we aren't a model designed around casting opinions. | I, personally, do not outright reject all questions that can be considered subjective to some degree. I just think we need to draw the line somewhere. Many other questions here discuss that - see Grace Note's comment - so I wouldn't go into that here.
However, regarding your specific question - and I am one of those that voted to close - it feels like asking "what's the best name for my character in game X". This is not a problem that needs to be solved, this is not a question that requires a knowledge in any specific game or even genre... this is asking for a very subjective opinion about naming. I would even go and say that this is not only extremely subjective but might also be off-topic; the exact same answers could be given to "is there any cool way to name my pair of dogs" question.
Now, this is just my personal opinion, and I understand if you disagree; but the speed in which 4 others also casted a close vote - less than 15 minutes - is indicative of this being a common opinion in the community. |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | We are not the best place to host gaming discussions. Yes, we have experts. But we also have a policy that questions should not be subjective. That very rule explicitly excludes us from being able to be the best place on the Internet for gaming discussions.
We are not just a site of gaming experts; We are a site where gaming experts can provide *solutions*. Any question can be "answered" in the sense that people give a response, but only some questions can actually be "solved". Posts that are subjective do not have an objective conclusion, so they do not make strong questions.
With regards to your specific question, under what judgment would you call the "best" or "most epic" pair of names? Everyone will have their own opinion. And we aren't a model designed around casting opinions. | It's not a million miles away from some of the more "fun" ServerFault questions, like [The Coolest Server Names](https://serverfault.com/questions/45734/the-coolest-server-names).
In my opinion, some fun, subjective questions could be allowed, kept as CW and policed to make the original question general enough stop there being a million variations, eg
What are the best WoW character names you've seen. - BAD, too specific will start a clone thread for every game
What are the best MMO character names you've seen. - BETTER, should be able to contain character name-type comments all in one thread. |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | We are not the best place to host gaming discussions. Yes, we have experts. But we also have a policy that questions should not be subjective. That very rule explicitly excludes us from being able to be the best place on the Internet for gaming discussions.
We are not just a site of gaming experts; We are a site where gaming experts can provide *solutions*. Any question can be "answered" in the sense that people give a response, but only some questions can actually be "solved". Posts that are subjective do not have an objective conclusion, so they do not make strong questions.
With regards to your specific question, under what judgment would you call the "best" or "most epic" pair of names? Everyone will have their own opinion. And we aren't a model designed around casting opinions. | **We do not aim to be the end-all be-all best definitive ultimate complete reference on everything gaming to ever exist.**
We do not aim to cover everything that is to be said about every game ever.
We are not a site for answers looking for a question.
*We are a site for questions looking for an answer.*
And if I have to compare how other sites like GameFAQs do [question lists](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers) and [question pages](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers?qid=180924) and how we do [question lists](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/starcraft-2) and [question pages](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3674/), I think our Q&A foundation is stronger than other sites.
Because, you know, that's all we do. |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | I, personally, do not outright reject all questions that can be considered subjective to some degree. I just think we need to draw the line somewhere. Many other questions here discuss that - see Grace Note's comment - so I wouldn't go into that here.
However, regarding your specific question - and I am one of those that voted to close - it feels like asking "what's the best name for my character in game X". This is not a problem that needs to be solved, this is not a question that requires a knowledge in any specific game or even genre... this is asking for a very subjective opinion about naming. I would even go and say that this is not only extremely subjective but might also be off-topic; the exact same answers could be given to "is there any cool way to name my pair of dogs" question.
Now, this is just my personal opinion, and I understand if you disagree; but the speed in which 4 others also casted a close vote - less than 15 minutes - is indicative of this being a common opinion in the community. | It's not a million miles away from some of the more "fun" ServerFault questions, like [The Coolest Server Names](https://serverfault.com/questions/45734/the-coolest-server-names).
In my opinion, some fun, subjective questions could be allowed, kept as CW and policed to make the original question general enough stop there being a million variations, eg
What are the best WoW character names you've seen. - BAD, too specific will start a clone thread for every game
What are the best MMO character names you've seen. - BETTER, should be able to contain character name-type comments all in one thread. |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | I, personally, do not outright reject all questions that can be considered subjective to some degree. I just think we need to draw the line somewhere. Many other questions here discuss that - see Grace Note's comment - so I wouldn't go into that here.
However, regarding your specific question - and I am one of those that voted to close - it feels like asking "what's the best name for my character in game X". This is not a problem that needs to be solved, this is not a question that requires a knowledge in any specific game or even genre... this is asking for a very subjective opinion about naming. I would even go and say that this is not only extremely subjective but might also be off-topic; the exact same answers could be given to "is there any cool way to name my pair of dogs" question.
Now, this is just my personal opinion, and I understand if you disagree; but the speed in which 4 others also casted a close vote - less than 15 minutes - is indicative of this being a common opinion in the community. | **We do not aim to be the end-all be-all best definitive ultimate complete reference on everything gaming to ever exist.**
We do not aim to cover everything that is to be said about every game ever.
We are not a site for answers looking for a question.
*We are a site for questions looking for an answer.*
And if I have to compare how other sites like GameFAQs do [question lists](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers) and [question pages](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers?qid=180924) and how we do [question lists](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/starcraft-2) and [question pages](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3674/), I think our Q&A foundation is stronger than other sites.
Because, you know, that's all we do. |
722 | This isn't stackoverflow. The moment we moved away from software development a lot of these topics in area51 are very subjective. By limiting to only non subjective questions we are just reduplicating all the content on on wikipedia and gamefaqs. IE. a useless site.
Look at my question that got closed:
<https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3737/what-is-the-best-pair-of-dual-boxing-names-youve-seen>
I felt while yes it is subjective, this is the best place on the Internet to ask such a question because there is where the experts are.
I think we need to define what is "too subjective" and what is "subjective but answerable"
My question would add content not noise. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/722",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/573/"
] | **We do not aim to be the end-all be-all best definitive ultimate complete reference on everything gaming to ever exist.**
We do not aim to cover everything that is to be said about every game ever.
We are not a site for answers looking for a question.
*We are a site for questions looking for an answer.*
And if I have to compare how other sites like GameFAQs do [question lists](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers) and [question pages](http://www.gamefaqs.com/pc/939643-starcraft-ii-wings-of-liberty/answers?qid=180924) and how we do [question lists](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/starcraft-2) and [question pages](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/3674/), I think our Q&A foundation is stronger than other sites.
Because, you know, that's all we do. | It's not a million miles away from some of the more "fun" ServerFault questions, like [The Coolest Server Names](https://serverfault.com/questions/45734/the-coolest-server-names).
In my opinion, some fun, subjective questions could be allowed, kept as CW and policed to make the original question general enough stop there being a million variations, eg
What are the best WoW character names you've seen. - BAD, too specific will start a clone thread for every game
What are the best MMO character names you've seen. - BETTER, should be able to contain character name-type comments all in one thread. |
361,878 | As you can see in the image below I'm currently in the "top 20% overall" group. A few days ago (may be up to December) it was showing something like 0.053% when my reputation was less than 1500, and it was changing while my reputation was increasing, but I am sure the numbers were like I said, 0.053%, and for the past few days (may be since the start of this year) it has changed to 20%.
So I am not getting clear why the percentage has changed so much though my reputation didn't change such high. What are the reasons behind this?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5kxHq.jpg) | 2018/01/12 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/361878",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/5695953/"
] | I believe it typically shows whatever reputation league you are highest in - if you are higher relative rank in 'overall', it will show that; if you are higher relative rank in 'this week' or 'this quarter', etc., it will show that.
For example, mine says "top 3% overall". For the current "week" league, I am much lower percentage rank, and the same goes for the current "month" and "quarter" league. Therefore, mine shows the overall ranking.
You can view user reputation leagues here: <https://stackexchange.com/leagues/1/week/stackoverflow> | Means that you are in the **top 20% of raked users (by reputation)**. "Overall" means that it is not a yearly, monthly, etc., ranking, but rather the **total reputation count**. |
5,916,827 | I work in a big company and we have the enterprise count. I build a private iPhone program and successful make a enterprise distribution with ad hoc. So I can delivery the program to 100 devices without the app Store.
But someone say to me that I can delivery to a infinite number of iphone without using the app store. Is it possible?
If not, and if my program will be used to more than 100 iPhones, what can i do? What choice I have? | 2011/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5916827",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/632472/"
] | With or without an enterprise account, as an iOS developer you can distribute your app wirelessly via a custom webpage.
Example: <http://paddle-battle.com/install/>
* How to: <http://www.alexcurylo.com/blog/2010/08/27/wireless-ad-hoc-distribution/>
* iOS Developer Library: [http://developer.apple.com](http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#featuredarticles/FA_Wireless_Enterprise_App_Distribution/Introduction/Introduction.html)
The 100 device limit only affects regular developer accounts. | >
> But someone say to me that I can
> delivery to a infinite number of
> iphone without using the app store. Is
> it possible?
>
>
>
Yes. The whole point of the enterprise developer program is that it lets large organizations distribute in-house apps without having to go through the App Store. You're not limited in the number of devices that you can distribute to. However, you should read the enterprise program license carefully -- I believe it contains terms that say, essentially, that you're only allowed to distribute within your organization. That is, you can't get an enterprise license and then start distributing your apps publicly. |
41,484,186 | I need to use AMP technology with specific pages in my Drupal website.
I know that I can use AMP module("AMP can be enabled for any node type. At that point, AMP content becomes available on URLs such as ?amp").
But I can't understand what i should do. Should I use two themes, first for AMP pages and second for non amp, or i need only one theme, that would work for all pages(amp and not amp)? Or I can use my non-AMP theme and just add AMP module for some nodes?
I would like to save my theme and just change some nodes to amp | 2017/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41484186",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5870005/"
] | What you're describing is known as a "Service". The facility in general is sometimes known as Cocoa Services. See the [Services Implementation Guide](https://developer.apple.com/library/content/documentation/Cocoa/Conceptual/SysServices/introduction.html) for details on how to have your app provide a service. | An alternative solution would be to create a **share extension**.
You could read about extensions [here](https://developer.apple.com/library/content/documentation/General/Conceptual/ExtensibilityPG/) and specifically about share extension [here](https://developer.apple.com/library/content/documentation/General/Conceptual/ExtensibilityPG/Share.html). |
1,424,161 | I am running a rails app on Dreamhost.
Today, a strange thing happened.
A page is almost loaded (it seems to be fully loaded but the status is not 'Done') and after that, the app didn't respond on any page.
I checked out the log and even the log was not complete.
How do I know it?
There are 3 missing images on the problem page and the log showed only 2 missing images and stopped there.
So I guess that something happened between the 2nd and the 3rd missing images.
I couldn't even start 'script/console production'.
After 14 minutes, it began to behave normally.
I asked the hosting company and they said that the process was killed due to over-use of memory.
Probably something was running heavily during the period.
The same thing happened one more time.
I had to kill the process to unlock the stucked app.
Passenger version is 2.2.4 and rails version is 2.3.2.
I am afraid that I can't give more specific info.
What do you guess cause such a problem?
Thanks.
Sam | 2009/09/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1424161",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108000/"
] | As theIV stated, look at the last action called. Start this up locally and try to go through what was happening on the server to see if it's reproducable, or if you just get any sort of general hiccups. I've run Rails apps on Dreamhost for a while, and have not experienced this before, so I would guess that it's not Dreamhosts fault, but there is no 100% on that.
Good luck! | This sounds pretty app specific. I would start by looking at what action was last hit before the process started hoggin' and then work backwards from there to see if there are any calls that might be doing something you weren't expecting. Other than that, no clue. :( |
1,424,161 | I am running a rails app on Dreamhost.
Today, a strange thing happened.
A page is almost loaded (it seems to be fully loaded but the status is not 'Done') and after that, the app didn't respond on any page.
I checked out the log and even the log was not complete.
How do I know it?
There are 3 missing images on the problem page and the log showed only 2 missing images and stopped there.
So I guess that something happened between the 2nd and the 3rd missing images.
I couldn't even start 'script/console production'.
After 14 minutes, it began to behave normally.
I asked the hosting company and they said that the process was killed due to over-use of memory.
Probably something was running heavily during the period.
The same thing happened one more time.
I had to kill the process to unlock the stucked app.
Passenger version is 2.2.4 and rails version is 2.3.2.
I am afraid that I can't give more specific info.
What do you guess cause such a problem?
Thanks.
Sam | 2009/09/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1424161",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108000/"
] | As theIV stated, look at the last action called. Start this up locally and try to go through what was happening on the server to see if it's reproducable, or if you just get any sort of general hiccups. I've run Rails apps on Dreamhost for a while, and have not experienced this before, so I would guess that it's not Dreamhosts fault, but there is no 100% on that.
Good luck! | Try using NewRelic RPM or TuneUp Lite to see what process is chunking most of your memory. You can run them locally but it would be better to test it on production. |
113,342 | I have an electric stove model# JBS55DM2WW. A small burner and large burner burnt out. I replaced the larger burner to see if it was salvageable in the first place. It worked but the infinite switch was bad and kept the stove on. So I took the smaller burner's inifinite switch and replaced the large burner's infinite switch. I didn't realize the amps are different. Is this ok to use like this?
I suspect since the amps being drawn by the switch is lower that the larger burner should be able to handle it and it will be ok. Is this alright for long term?
The small burner infinite switch is rated for 5.4-7.0 amps
The larger burner infinite switch is rated for 7.2-9.0 amps
Both switches are 240 volts.
I'm not an electrical guy. I'm getting confused by what is out there about putting a lower amp outlet for a wall socket. For instance a 15a won't run a 20amp appliance. But to me my situation is different since the switch can only provide up to 7.0 amps the burner only gets 7.0 amps and might run cooler but still be ok. Or am I wrong and the larger burner is trying to draw way more amps than the switch can provide and is therefore a hazard?
Thanks in advance!!! | 2017/04/21 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/113342",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/68782/"
] | I spent some time researching these infinite switches because they are failing on our 25-year-old GE range but by a different mode than you have. Ours are losing the lower end. They don't heat at all on low but do work above a certain setting.
The infinite switches are different part numbers for the two different burners and it is not clear to me that it is "safe" to use an infinite switch for a small burner on a large one. The wires and the sensing element in the small infinite switch might not be sized to carry the larger current drawn by the large burner and might overheat or fail somehow.
The current through the switch is determined by the size of the burner. The infinite switch regulates the heat of the burner by square wave time modulation of the current on a time scale of maybe a second. So when the current is on it would be at a higher value (9 A?) on the large burner than on the smaller one. It is questionable in my mind that it is wise to use the infinite switch for the smaller burner on the larger one.
I suggest you get the specified one for the larger burner and get a new heating element for the smaller burner. | I tried it. I put a small burner infinity switch on a large burner (on a Kenmore stove). The large burner (while using the smaller rated infinity switch) heated and would eventually boil water but would not get red hot. So the infinity switch for the small burner worked in a big burner, but didn't pass enough current to get it red. So, the big burner just took longer to boil water. The infinity switch has a mini-heater strip inside it, which bends a little metal piece. As the metal piece gets warm its bending an opens a circuit which stops voltage/current to the burner, the mini-heater in the switch cools, bends back and then reconnects the circuit putting voltage/current back to the burner over and over again. The rotary dial preloads the switch to keep it on for longer or shorter times. I didn't try the other way around with the larger switch on the smaller burner. Suspect the infinity switch designed for a large burner would open longer thus heating the small burner much higher than the dial setting indicates. I recommend using the right type switch designed for the burner. |
38 | What is the difference between the [research](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research "show questions tagged 'research'") and [research-methods](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research-methods "show questions tagged 'research-methods'") tags? Should we merge them? If not, how do we draw a distinction between them? | 2012/10/10 | [
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/38",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I would draw a differentiation between [tag: research] and a new tag research-methodology, using research for e.g. advice on how to locate specific types of records, and research-methodology for discussion of e.g. source citations, evidence analysis and other aspects of the research process. | Maybe go for "research records" and "research process"? I think it's important to differentiate between 'Where can I look for X?' and 'How do I carry out high-quality research?' especially if we want to attract and retain a broad range of expertise.
[Moving a comment into an answer, as suggested by @Jeni.] |
38 | What is the difference between the [research](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research "show questions tagged 'research'") and [research-methods](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research-methods "show questions tagged 'research-methods'") tags? Should we merge them? If not, how do we draw a distinction between them? | 2012/10/10 | [
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/38",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | How about we split the baby. Have 1 tag for "research" and 1 tag for "methodology."
Genealogical research is problem solving in one form or another. Although each problem may have idiosyncrasies, we also engage in more common approaches to problem solving and so methodologies emerge. In my experience, research methodologies are prevalent in genealogy. If you were trying to solve a genealogical problem that involved a post-Civil War African American family in the south, you would use probably seek out expert methodologies that are different than those researching the genealogy of a Revolutionary War patriot in New England. | Maybe go for "research records" and "research process"? I think it's important to differentiate between 'Where can I look for X?' and 'How do I carry out high-quality research?' especially if we want to attract and retain a broad range of expertise.
[Moving a comment into an answer, as suggested by @Jeni.] |
38 | What is the difference between the [research](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research "show questions tagged 'research'") and [research-methods](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research-methods "show questions tagged 'research-methods'") tags? Should we merge them? If not, how do we draw a distinction between them? | 2012/10/10 | [
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/38",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Borrowing from [ColeValleyGirl's idea](https://genealogy.meta.stackexchange.com/a/1193/47), I propose we use the tags [research-methods](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/research-methods "show questions tagged 'research-methods'") and [records-search](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/records-search "show questions tagged 'records-search'"). | Maybe go for "research records" and "research process"? I think it's important to differentiate between 'Where can I look for X?' and 'How do I carry out high-quality research?' especially if we want to attract and retain a broad range of expertise.
[Moving a comment into an answer, as suggested by @Jeni.] |
45,634 | Does *apauruṣeyā* when applied to Vedas just mean 'not of human origin' leaving the possibility that a superhuman being could have authored them?
Or do different schools of Hindu philosophy interpret the word differently?
Did anyone belonging to Nyāya school ever use this expression to indicate the Vedas were authored by God or do they have a different word for it? | 2021/04/05 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/45634",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/2995/"
] | >
> Spiritual impurity like not worshipping God, not being nice to other
> people, always being angry and etc.
>
>
>
If that is what you are referring to as "spiritual impurity" then yes there is such a concept.
People who are wicked, don't perform their religious duties are considered to be "ever impure".
>
> **Perpetual impurity attaches to one** who is always sickly, one who does not perform religious rites, one who is ignorant, one who is
> notoriously henpecked, one who is grossly inclined to vile practices,
> one who is always dependent upon others, and one who abstains from
> Vedic study and the vow of celibacy.
>
>
> *Atri Samhita/Smriti*
>
>
>
Similar verses from Daksha Smriti's Chapter 6 are given below:
>
> Perpetual impurity is spoken of for all of them, who,- without
> bathing, offering oblations to the Fire and making gifts, partake of
> [their] meals'. (8)
>
>
> Perpetual impurity is for a diseased person, a miser, one laden with
> debts, one who does not perform religious rites, an illiterate person,
> and especially for a hen
> -pecked person. (9)
>
>
> Daily impurity is for one who is addicted to gambling, etc., and for a
> dependant. The impurity of a person, who does not perform the
> S'raddhas, ends with his ashes (i.e., death). (10)
>
>
> Temporary impurity is not for them, but a lifelong one. Thus impurity
> according to the differentiation of merits has been spoken of. (11)
>
>
>
So, there are certain persons whose acts are such that scriptures consider them to be "permanently impure" as far as spirituality and religious matters are concerned. | Considering spirituality to be the continuous flow of consciousness [BG-8.3],
>
> The Brahman is the highest indestructible, **adhyātma is explained to be the continuous flow of consciousness**...
>
>
>
Yes, there are elemental impurities (3 in number) which constricts the absolute consciousness to the level of individual limited being,
>
> In consequence of its limitation of Śakti, reality which is all consciousness, becomes a **mala-covered saṃsārin**. Sutra 9, Pratyabhijñāḥṛdyaṃ
>
>
> |
8,694 | This is a feature request to suggest adding a Video Tutorial section on Ask Ubuntu.
Primary target would be including videos to explain most common tasks like Installation, WUBI installation, identifying wireless card....etc
Also; when -for example, I provide an answer on a question. User who asked it may click a button titled "Request illustrated steps"
Then I get a message in my inbox that user has requested a video to detail my steps so that myself -or others, may record an explanation video and post it. | 2014/03/10 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/8694",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/142902/"
] | This is just my own personal opinion and I realize that I am apparently in a minority but I **hate** video tutorials. What's wrong with text and images? You can actually search through text and find the part you care about!
* Video tutorials mean I have to sit through irrelevant introductions like "Hello, my name is Bob and I will explain how to copy files on a Linux system. Ubuntu is a kind of Linux, ain't that just *grand*?" and similar.
* They mean I cannot search for anything. A text answer is searchable!
* They mean that I have to decipher the speaker's accent.
* They mean I have to work around the crappy webcam used to record them.
* They mean I have to work around the crappy webcam microphone used to record them.
* They mean I cannot easily go back just a couple of seconds (unless you propose I download them) but have to jump around to repeat something. Have you ever tried going back 2 seconds in YouTube?
* They mean much slower loading times, that's time between getting my answer and actually understanding it.
* They also mean that users with slow connections (many people in the world are still using dial-up for example) cannot see the answer at all, or they have to wait a few hours for it to load.
* They are *much* harder to edit. If the OP makes a mistake, they have to re-record a video all over again
* They go against the whole idea of the Stack Exchange sites. These sites are supposed to be wikis, the whole idea is that everyone can edit and improve an answer. That cannot be done with a video, or at best, would require me to download it and somehow edit it (a voice over: "WRONG!" perhaps)
YouTube is *full* of examples of this ~~crap~~ kind of tutorial so if someone really wants to produce a video, they are free to do so, upload it to youtube and link to it in their answer. Those people who actually want to slog through a video can do so but I see no benefit in somehow incorporating this into the SE engine. | >
> This is a feature request to suggest adding a Video Tutorial section on Ask Ubuntu.
>
>
>
It's a good idea but users surfing Ask Ubuntu with low internet speed might face difficulties in viewing that kind of videos.
>
> Then I get a message in my inbox that user has requested a video to detail my steps so that myself -or others, may record an explanation video and post it.
>
>
>
It's so difficult to record videos and then explain them for every user who asks for explanation.
Like @Mateo said in his [comment](http://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/8694/video-tutorials-on-ask-ubuntu/8695#comment16309_8694), creating a gif file is better than recording a video. |
422,344 | In my current project, I'm producing weekly releases. I've been using the technique described in [this post](http://jebsoft.blogspot.com/2006/04/consistent-version-numbers-across-all.html) to keep the version numbers of all of the assemblies in my project in sync. (I don't presently have any good reason to track the assemblies' version numbers separately, though I'm sure that day will eventually come.)
When I push out a release, I build a new version of the installer. Unlike all of the assemblies, which can get their version numbers from a shared SolutionInfo.cs file, the version number of the installer isn't, as best I can tell, an assembly property. So my release process includes manually advancing the version number in the setup project.
Or, I should say, *usually* includes doing that. I'd like to turn that into something I can't screw up. I'm finding the documentation of setup and deployment projects to be surprisingly opaque (it was quite a bit harder to find out how to make it possible for the MSI to uninstall properly if the user installed it to a non-default path, which is a pretty freaking common use case to be undocumented) and have no idea if it's even possible to do this.
Any ideas?
**Edit:**
Just to clarify, this is a Visual Studio setup and deployment project I'm talking about. | 2009/01/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/422344",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19403/"
] | CodeProject has a script to set the version number of an MSI file, which you could run in the pre-built step of the setup project. You find it here:
>
> <http://www.codeproject.com/KB/install/NewSetupVersion.aspx>
>
>
>
**More Details**
Be aware that with Windows Installer things are a bit more complicated. MSI files (as the one that you create using a VS Setup and Deployment project) not only have a version number but also a product code which is a GUID value. This product code is used by Windows Installer to uniquely identify your product e.g. in Control Panel -> Add Or Remove programs where you can decide to uninstall or repair a product.
However, when changing you MSI version number, this product code must also be changed in a number of cases. MSI technology is poorly documented but you can find some recommendations when to also change the product code on the following MSDN page: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa367850(VS.85).aspx>.
In my projects I always generate a new product code for every new version. The script on CodeProject will also change the product code for you.
And one more thing: Windows Installer only checks the first three places of the version number afaik, anything in the forth place will be ignored, i.e. 2.3.0.1234 is considered equal to 2.3.0.5678. ([ProductVersion](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa370859%28v=vs.85%29.aspx))
(There is a related article on CodeProject which might also be interesting to you: <http://www.codeproject.com/KB/install/VersionVDProj.aspx>) | Its going to depend on the installer toolkit you are using.
We use TFS Team Build and [WiX v3](http://wix.sourceforge.net/). I have a custom build task that increments the build number in Team build (5.0.0.X for example), then this version number is pushed to the common AssemblyInfo.cs AssemblyFileVersion field. It is also passed by MSBuild to our solutions/projects as a property which is then passed into WiX and used to update the installer version as well.
We probably will need to do better with the assembly versioning someday as well, but right now this has been working pretty well for us. |
499,853 | Multimeter: UNI-T 89XD manual ranging
I received a comment or two that said I will not get an accurate amp reading if I use the 20 amp jack and set the dial to anything other than the 20 amp setting, such as 60 or 600mA.
I have used the 20 amp jack and set the dial to 60mA and **did not get an OL on the screen**. I got mA readings. What is dumber, me or the meter? (Don't answer that!!!)
How true is the admonition that I will not get accurate readings if the 20 amp jack is used with other amp dial settings? | 2020/05/15 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/499853",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/252394/"
] | That is almost certainly a JST XH series. XHP-5 to be precise.
[Digi-Key link.](https://www.digikey.com/product-detail/en/jst-sales-america-inc/XHP-5/455-2268-ND/1125486)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VgcAZ.jpg)
These are quite common and can be found in many places. Just search for "JST XHP-5".
BTW, here are the correct terminals to use: [Digi-Key link](https://www.digikey.com/catalog/en/partgroup/xh-series/9030) | Probably one of these:
Manufacturer Part Number: S5B-XH-A(LF)(SN)
Description: CONN HEADER R/A 5POS 2.5MM
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qCFXc.png)
Source: <https://www.digikey.com/product-detail/en/jst-sales-america-inc/S5B-XH-A-LF-SN/455-2242-ND/1651040> |
44,640 | Is there any hadith from the prophet Mohammad (S.A.W) that any believer or disbeliever feel when their body is being eaten in the grave? If so, what are the effects on the soul and how the soul feels it?
Is there anything the believer can do when he/she is alive to avoid this very thing in the grave? | 2017/11/28 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/44640",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/21929/"
] | What happens in the grave to believers or disbelievers is a matter of *ghaib* (unseen, non-attendance) that we only come to know of through verses of the Qur'an or authenticated hadiths of the Prophet ﷺ, neither of which address any of your questions. We do not know if a buried body feels the decay process of their body; and if it is the case, we do not know of its effects on the soul, or of any special deeds that would ward off such effect. | nope you'll be in a room allah can give the sane body again too don't worry for the believer and good doers there will be a garden of paradise in his grave i think and for the sinner and disbeliever jahannam some of it don't worry allah is wise in power |
44,640 | Is there any hadith from the prophet Mohammad (S.A.W) that any believer or disbeliever feel when their body is being eaten in the grave? If so, what are the effects on the soul and how the soul feels it?
Is there anything the believer can do when he/she is alive to avoid this very thing in the grave? | 2017/11/28 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/44640",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/21929/"
] | What happens in the grave to believers or disbelievers is a matter of *ghaib* (unseen, non-attendance) that we only come to know of through verses of the Qur'an or authenticated hadiths of the Prophet ﷺ, neither of which address any of your questions. We do not know if a buried body feels the decay process of their body; and if it is the case, we do not know of its effects on the soul, or of any special deeds that would ward off such effect. | I think, the the insects are least of your worries. There are much worse torments.
When you are in Grave and if you had been a good person, then you won’t even think about that, because you’ll see your place in Heaven and as for disbeliever, it is worse much torment. And do not worry about your body, because God Almighty Says:
>
> “And the Trumpet will be blown (i.e. the second blowing) and behold! From the graves they will come out quickly to their Lord.” (Quran 36:51)
>
>
>
This means that, your body will be restored after it has been decayed. So don’t for this, just, stay relaxed and fulfill the job that God has given you to do and that’s it. |
254,635 | I recently asked a question that has (as of now) 30 views, 0 comments, and 0 answers. It has not been flagged for anything and, in my opinion, is a [good quality question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/how-to-ask).
My problem is this: I would not like to offer bounty on the question because I don't use Stack Overflow that much so my rep is very low. I then looked at What should I do if no one answers my question? on the Stack Overflow help page, which says, "Edit your question to provide status and progress updates. Document your own continued efforts to answer your question. This will naturally bump your question to the homepage and get more people interested in it." My question is: How effective is this? | 2014/05/13 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/254635",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/2554416/"
] | I don't participate in the android tag, but when I browse my favourite tags and see a question like this, I usually run away as fast as I can:
* On the first line, it says that it is about a tutorial. I personally don't consider tutorial problems "real" problems, and don't want to spend time having to find out what the tutorial is about.
* When I scroll down, my scrolling gets hijacked by the embedded code window which has its own scrolling and seems to contain about half a kilometer of code.
* The large code "snippet" starts out with something that looks like 20 *import* statements. That tells me that you have not done much (any?) editing to help me zoom in on the problem. I basically have to find it myself.
I normally presume that the gist of the question is summarised in the last paragraph of the post - hence the scrolling - but in a case like yours I often don't even reach the end of the post before my pattern matching algorithm tells me to just forget about it. Too much work on my side to help someone who appears to have done too little on their side.
I am sorry if this last impression feels wrong and unjust (could well be, I spend just a few seconds to form it), but with the flow of questions, I am afraid that that is how things often go.
So my advice would be to find out what the core of the problem is, write a small example that reproduces it (ideally about 10 lines of code, but more if needed) and maybe tell people what you have tried so far. [This post](http://ericlippert.com/2014/03/05/how-to-debug-small-programs/) by Eric Lippert also contains some really good advice.
Then I am sure a lot more people will be willing to help. | Whatever the question is about, it's far too long. Shortening it to an SSCCE as recommended by others would be the perfect solution.
Sometimes it's not possible, so leave only the relevant pieces there and post the whole code somewhere else for those who get interested enough to run it ([example](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/21702939)). |
15,090 | Is it possible (read, can I spend a restful night sleeping?) By using a quilt, bivi bag and ground sheet?
Quilt I'm looking at is [here](https://www.ultralightoutdoorgear.co.uk/equipment-c3/sleeping-bags-c21/sleeping-bags-c88/duvet-down-blanket-p3081), the idea being that I can take an ultralight bivi bag and groundsheet in addition to my hammock setup (which includes the quilt) so I'm covered whatever the terrain without having to carry two sleeping bags. | 2017/02/03 | [
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/questions/15090",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com",
"https://outdoors.stackexchange.com/users/9553/"
] | Common Sparrows, which are the [State Bird of Delhi](http://www.natureforever.org/state-bird-of-delhi.html#), and also of Bihar, have indeed been on a massive decline in India in recent years. What you're seeing is not a fluke. It's happening in many urban areas in India, and is a serious problem.
Although many studies have been done over the years, the largest group in your area which is currently involved in the study and preservation of sparrows is [The Nature Forever Society](http://www.natureforever.org/#).
Since 2005, they've been working for the conservation of house sparrows and other common flora and fauna in urban habitats. Their mission is to involve the citizens in the conservation movement of India, especially in urban landscapes. I recommend spending a lot of time on their website. There's a tremendous amount to learn, and things you can do to become involved. For instance, each year on March 20, they sponsor [World Sparrow Day](http://www.worldsparrowday.org/). They also give out [Sparrow Awards](http://www.sparrowawards.natureforever.org/) to regular citizens who are making a real impact in the lives of sparrows.
Their research is the focus of an article published in March of 2016 in the Daily News Analysis, entitled [10 reasons why the sparrow is fast disappearing from Mumbai](http://www.dnaindia.com/mumbai/report-10-reasons-why-the-sparrow-is-fast-disappearing-from-mumbai-2190510).
In the words of the author Shraddha Shirodkar:
>
> While no one can be singled out for the declining sparrow population, it is humans who are collectively responsible for it, explains Mohammed Dilawar, President, Nature Forever Society (NFS), a crusader for the sparrow as well as other common flora and fauna in urban habitats. Through his non-governmental, non-profit organisation, he has been championing the cause of sparrows, by involving citizens in the conservation movement, especially in urban areas.
>
>
>
She compiled a list called "10 reasons why Mumbaikars need to save the sparrow". I removed the tenth because I found conflicting evidence from other sources. The bullet points are hers, but also include information from other sources that said the same thing.
1. Felling of trees
It is common knowledge that more the number of trees, more the number of birds. The spike in the felling of trees in Mumbai is a major reason why sparrows and other birds are facing a loss of habitat, especially their natural nesting spots.
2. Lack of cavity nesting
The ubiquitous glass buildings of Mumbai—the corporate dens—have replaced many older structures that were built with a façade that had nooks and crannies, even bricked roofs, which allow sparrows to nest.
3. Absence of native plants
Native plants such as adulsa, mehndi and many others are outdone by fancy non-native ones like Duranta Erecta, Dumb Cane and others as the trend of modern landscaping catches on. Native plants are the natural habitats of sparrows, providing them insects such as aphids to feed on. Sparrows need a diet of insects in their formative years to grow into healthy adults.
4. Absence of hedgerows
Contemporary landscaping is also doing away with hedges, which are preferred by sparrows for nesting. Thick hedgerows are known to protect nesting birds such as the sparrow from predation.
5. Widespread use of concrete
Sparrows are known to take two types of bath—one with water and one with dust. With the extensive use of concrete in Mumbai, the species is unable to take dust baths.
6. Modern grocery storage
Sparrows are known to feed on tiny grains like bajra, which used to be freely available from pecking at gunny bags stored outside older-style grocery stores. They were able to spill seeds on the ground. Also, grocers and street vendors purposely dropped grain and seeds to encourage the sparrows. Modern grocery stores with air-conditioning and plastic packaging take away any chance of finding food grains to feed on.
7. Chemical fertilisers in agricultural produce
Heavy use of chemical fertilisers leads to agricultural produce being laced by them, hence ruining the food of sparrows.
8. Cell phone radiation
The electromagnetic fields and radiation created by mobile towers are known to affect sparrows. The effects range from damage to the immune and nervous system of sparrows to interference with their navigating sensors. They tend to get confused and leave the area within a week. Since the eggs they've laid nearby need two weeks to incubate, they don't end up hatching. (I found this in many publications, as it's a very common theory at the moment.)
9. High litter index in Mumbai
There is a rise in the population of crows and stray cats due to the high litter index in Mumbai. Simply put, more the garbage, more the predators that prey on sparrows.
Additional sources for interesting information:
[Disappearing Sparrows:Common Bird Goes Uncommon](http://southasia.oneworld.net/news/disappearing-sparrow-common-bird-goes-uncommon#.WKCVKX_m3IV)
[House sparrow listed as endangered species](http://www.deccanherald.com/content/77210/house-sparrow-listed-endangered-species.html)
[Citizen Sparrow](http://citizensparrow.in/index.php?r=site/index). This is an interactive site with opportunities to help keep track of sparrows. It has reports of sparrow sightings all over India, with maps and other fun stuff for sparrow-lovers!
[Sparrows of India](http://www.natureforever.org/sparrows-of-india.html) | At a guess? A change in architecture.
Pigeons favor cliff ledges as nesting sites; they'll happily build nests on window ledges as a substitute for natural cliffs. Sparrows favor cavities: tree hollows, the eaves of roofs, and other somewhat-enclosed areas. If there's been a trend of replacing traditional houses with high-rise apartments, I'd expect a corresponding shift from sparrows to pigeons. |
47,097 | So I'm looking at a 1 meter square object in my digital camera. What size of pixel is considered fine enough that the object is considered to be resolved? Obviously a pixel size of one meter squared will 'notice' the object, but it will likely affect four pixels in varying degrees, so we can hardly call it an image. A pixel size of 10cm will at least let me see that I'm looking at a square, but is that considered fine enough? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/47097",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/43760/"
] | Kepler knew the answer to this one:
The cannon ball follows an elliptic trajectory with the centre of mass of the Earth-cannonball system at the focus of the ellipse.
And Newton was able to do the maths to deduce this from an inverse square law central force.
A modern derivation can be [found for example in this worksheet for Glasgow University](https://radio.astro.gla.ac.uk/a1dynamics/keplerproofs.pdf) | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TLtpE.png)
Here we go. *Thanks for everyone's help!* |
601,633 | Why in the sentence
>
> **This is a great party!**
>
>
>
use the indefinite article **a** rather than the definite article **the**? After all, the demonstrative pronoun **This** indicates that the conversation is about a specific party, and not about some in general. | 2023/01/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/601633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/471749/"
] | ***This*** is [*deictic*](https://www.thoughtco.com/deictic-expression-deixis-1690428), it attracts the attention of the person to the "thing" you are talking about, in the same way you do when you *point out* the existence of something:
>
> * This is *a* table.
> * This is *a* house.
>
>
>
If the "thing" you are speaking of is the only one in its "group" then you can use *the*:
>
> * This is *the* idea!
> * This is *the* friend I was speaking to you about.
>
>
>
Try and replace ***this*** with ***What you can see now in front of your eyes***. Would you say:
>
> What you can see now in front of your eyes is ***the*** great party?
>
>
>
It makes more sense to say
>
> What you can see now in front of your eyes is ***a*** great party.
>
>
>
I don't know all the languages, but I am pretty confident that *this is **the** (!) case* in many other European languages, if not in all of them. | John Lawler wrote:
>
> Because the rules for article use with predicate nouns are different.
> A count noun like party being used as the predicate noun in a clause
> requires an indefinite article, no matter what its subject is:
>
>
> * *This is an oyster*
>
>
> [Contrast the non-count usage:]
>
>
> * *This is mud.*
>
>
> Article use has nothing to do with specific parties in most cases –
> they're just nuts and bolts, with no special meanings, but lots of
> slots where they fit into the grammatical machinery, usually as
> markers to distinguish something odd.
>
>
> |
601,633 | Why in the sentence
>
> **This is a great party!**
>
>
>
use the indefinite article **a** rather than the definite article **the**? After all, the demonstrative pronoun **This** indicates that the conversation is about a specific party, and not about some in general. | 2023/01/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/601633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/471749/"
] | ***This*** is [*deictic*](https://www.thoughtco.com/deictic-expression-deixis-1690428), it attracts the attention of the person to the "thing" you are talking about, in the same way you do when you *point out* the existence of something:
>
> * This is *a* table.
> * This is *a* house.
>
>
>
If the "thing" you are speaking of is the only one in its "group" then you can use *the*:
>
> * This is *the* idea!
> * This is *the* friend I was speaking to you about.
>
>
>
Try and replace ***this*** with ***What you can see now in front of your eyes***. Would you say:
>
> What you can see now in front of your eyes is ***the*** great party?
>
>
>
It makes more sense to say
>
> What you can see now in front of your eyes is ***a*** great party.
>
>
>
I don't know all the languages, but I am pretty confident that *this is **the** (!) case* in many other European languages, if not in all of them. | 1.
This reasoning is rushing things. "This" does not indicate that the conversation is about a party; it does not even indicate what the sentence is about: such a function is still too much for that little word; as a grammatical word (i.e. void of content, not a content word) it points out something either in the situational context (extralinguistic reference) or in some part of the discourse (anaphoric reference, if before the present point in the discourse, cataphoric reference if after); this something is characterized only partially or if characterized fully, it is assumed there is no name associated with it yet as far as the discourse acknowledges it. Once a name or a characterization has been introduced or once this something has been acknowledged as far as it is possible to identify it, "this" will be often replaced by "it"; this fact shows further that "this" is merely used to point out something that is not named or not nameable, or even something that is named but not known by some of the locutors.
* She is talking about a rave party; this is a rather new phenomenon in the world of mass entertainement. (*anaphoric reference; antecedent: rave party*)
* This is a great party; it will be remembered by all of us for a long time; it really has something special. (*extralinguistic reference, two persons at a party and one of them referring to that particular party; antecedent: great party*)
* I have to tell you this: your party is a success! (*cataphoric reference; the antecedent is now "your party is a success!".*)
2.
The use of "a" is not the usual use where "a" is a *referring* article. This means that "a" is not used to refer to *some* party.
>
> (**CoGEL¹ § 5.37**) **Nonreferring uses of the indefinite article**
>
> The indefinite article is strongly associated with the complement function in
> a clause, or more generally with noun phrases in a copular relationship. Here it has a descriptive role (similar to that of predicative adjectives), rather than a referring role:
>
>
> • Paganini was *a* great violinist.
>
> • My daughter is training as *a* radiologist.
>
> • We found Lisbon (to be) *a* delightful city.
>
> • What *a* miserable day (it is)!
>
>
>
"The" does not have this property of defining something as belonging to a category.
"This is the great party." is correct but means something else; only a special context will do in order for it to correspond to something sensical. There is an indefinite number of such contexts.
Imagine friends talking together about the parties they've been to in years past; imagine further that they've kept videos of them, and that among them there is a unique one they remember as the greatest party, but as they search through the titles they have problems identifying the given party, when suddenly one of the two finds it. He/she can then say this: "This is the great party!". In this particular context, though, "the great party" is metonymically
the video of it.
¹ *A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language* |
601,633 | Why in the sentence
>
> **This is a great party!**
>
>
>
use the indefinite article **a** rather than the definite article **the**? After all, the demonstrative pronoun **This** indicates that the conversation is about a specific party, and not about some in general. | 2023/01/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/601633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/471749/"
] | John Lawler wrote:
>
> Because the rules for article use with predicate nouns are different.
> A count noun like party being used as the predicate noun in a clause
> requires an indefinite article, no matter what its subject is:
>
>
> * *This is an oyster*
>
>
> [Contrast the non-count usage:]
>
>
> * *This is mud.*
>
>
> Article use has nothing to do with specific parties in most cases –
> they're just nuts and bolts, with no special meanings, but lots of
> slots where they fit into the grammatical machinery, usually as
> markers to distinguish something odd.
>
>
> | 1.
This reasoning is rushing things. "This" does not indicate that the conversation is about a party; it does not even indicate what the sentence is about: such a function is still too much for that little word; as a grammatical word (i.e. void of content, not a content word) it points out something either in the situational context (extralinguistic reference) or in some part of the discourse (anaphoric reference, if before the present point in the discourse, cataphoric reference if after); this something is characterized only partially or if characterized fully, it is assumed there is no name associated with it yet as far as the discourse acknowledges it. Once a name or a characterization has been introduced or once this something has been acknowledged as far as it is possible to identify it, "this" will be often replaced by "it"; this fact shows further that "this" is merely used to point out something that is not named or not nameable, or even something that is named but not known by some of the locutors.
* She is talking about a rave party; this is a rather new phenomenon in the world of mass entertainement. (*anaphoric reference; antecedent: rave party*)
* This is a great party; it will be remembered by all of us for a long time; it really has something special. (*extralinguistic reference, two persons at a party and one of them referring to that particular party; antecedent: great party*)
* I have to tell you this: your party is a success! (*cataphoric reference; the antecedent is now "your party is a success!".*)
2.
The use of "a" is not the usual use where "a" is a *referring* article. This means that "a" is not used to refer to *some* party.
>
> (**CoGEL¹ § 5.37**) **Nonreferring uses of the indefinite article**
>
> The indefinite article is strongly associated with the complement function in
> a clause, or more generally with noun phrases in a copular relationship. Here it has a descriptive role (similar to that of predicative adjectives), rather than a referring role:
>
>
> • Paganini was *a* great violinist.
>
> • My daughter is training as *a* radiologist.
>
> • We found Lisbon (to be) *a* delightful city.
>
> • What *a* miserable day (it is)!
>
>
>
"The" does not have this property of defining something as belonging to a category.
"This is the great party." is correct but means something else; only a special context will do in order for it to correspond to something sensical. There is an indefinite number of such contexts.
Imagine friends talking together about the parties they've been to in years past; imagine further that they've kept videos of them, and that among them there is a unique one they remember as the greatest party, but as they search through the titles they have problems identifying the given party, when suddenly one of the two finds it. He/she can then say this: "This is the great party!". In this particular context, though, "the great party" is metonymically
the video of it.
¹ *A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language* |
10,094,550 | For a regression with some basis functions, I read that gaussian basis functions are local whereas polynomial basis functions are global. What does it mean ?
Thank you | 2012/04/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10094550",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1236534/"
] | A gaussian is centered around a certain value and tapers off to 0 as you get far away from it. In contrast, a polynomial extends over the whole range.
This means that a gaussian will model a local feature of the data (like a bump or valley), whereas a polynomial will model global patterns in the data (say, an overall downward or upward trend). | A local basis function (you will also often see referred to as *compactly supported basis function*) is essentially non-zero only on a particular interval. Examples of such functions used in approximation / regression are B-Splines, wavelets etc. Polynomials on the other hand, are non-zero everywhere apart from at their roots. Consider a least squares regression curve using monomial basis - your resulting vandermonde matrix will not exhibit any kind of structure - an element can only be zero if x=0. Now assume that you try the same problem with a BSpline curve with fixed knots. Now because of the fact that the basis functions are local, your matrix will be banded - each row will contain zero items because the effect of the basis function is only present on a certain interval. |
57,638 | At the end of season 3 of Person of Interest, we see how the new rival AI Samaritan needs access to the government feeds. Greer explicitly asks Senator Garrison for permission to access them in episode S03E20, "Death Benefit".
However, after Season 2, the Machine is independent from the government and still has access to the security feeds. The same thing happens in season 5, when the Machine is built up again. Why can the Machine have free access to the data while Samaritan still needs that data from the government? | 2016/08/02 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/57638",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/32089/"
] | Even in season 3 the machine continues to give both relevant and irrelevant numbers. That's why the goverment has not revoked its access as they need the machine's help. Even though technically the machine is out of the goverment's hands at the end of season 2, it was never in the goverment's hands from the start. It was a black box which few high authorities trusted to give access and they still trust it.
Also most people who knew about how access was provided are dead and other people just are assuming this access is sanctioned. Until someone specifically orders to decommision the access, it continues this way.
One more thing to consider is that the Machine was provided access under the name of another project whose details are confidential. | Machine did not have free access, root used subway's encrypted system to tunnel into the government feeds (SNAFU).
Samaritan needed the feeds from the government, to make it legit, and possible to be used by governments. The machine was not used by the government anymore, so its access did not have to be officially sanctioned. |
83,149 | Does the church agree with some kind of Darwin evolution and big bang theory? If so, from when does human exists? If we think of human as we have soul, did Neanderthals had one? Was it like this individual does not have soul yet but from now, his children do have a soul and are the first people that could go to heaven? | 2021/05/08 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/83149",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/53921/"
] | >
> Does the church agree with some kind of Darwin evolution and big bang theory?
>
>
>
Many Christians, even entire church organizations, have unfortunately succumbed to pressure from anti-Christian, anti-theistic Uniformitarian "scientists" to deny the Creation that is taught in Genesis 1. (The entire basis of Uniformitarian / Naturalist "science" is "there is no God"; all of their claims ultimately derive from this dogma.)
Some Christians still believe in Genesis and Creationism. This is a huge conversation with both sides able to interpret the available evidence with varying degrees of plausibility. This is an area that is very hotly contested, so I won't go into any depth, instead focusing on your more specific question:
>
> If we think of human as we have soul, did Neanderthals had one?
>
>
>
Absolutely!
Neanderthals *are* human (at least in the Biblical sense), so they would possess souls exactly as much as you or I. Whether or not you classify neanderthals as a separate "species" could be the subject of vigorous debate, but they are just as much the same biblical *kind* as, for example, *canis lupus* and *canis latrans* (which are capable of interbreeding). Neanderthals are well within the range of variation of the human *kind*, and even atheistic scientists agree that *homo sapiens sapiens* shares DNA with neanderthals. For that matter, there are *living humans* that strongly resemble neanderthals. (Unfortunately, I can't find the reference again, but the man has an article in Wikipedia. Not, of course, claiming that he's a neanderthal, as Wikipedia is firmly committed to the Uniformitarian philosophy, but even so, the visual resemblance is striking.)
Further reading:
* <https://www.the-scientist.com/features/neanderthal-dna-in-modern-human-genomes-is-not-silent-66299>
* <https://www.icr.org/article/humans-neanderthals-more-similar-polar-brown-bears/>
* <https://www.icr.org/article/dna-proof-that-neandertals-are-just>
* <https://answersingenesis.org/human-evolution/neanderthal/> (topical index)
Ultimately, from a Biblical standpoint, your premise (that neanderthals are not humans, at least in a Biblical/theistic sense) is faulty. | **Did Neanderthals have a soul? From when do people exists/have soul?**
Do animals have souls like human beings?
The Catholic Church teaches that animals may have mortal souls whereas modern man (after Adam and his descendants) has an **immortal soul**!
Do animals have souls? Do plants have plant souls? Although not a defined dogma, it is permitted for Catholics to believe Neanderthals may have possessed an animal, yet mortal soul only.
The soul is the principle of life. Since animals and plants are living things, they have souls, but not in the sense in which human beings have souls. Our souls are rational–theirs aren’t–and ours are rational because they’re spiritual, not material.
Animals and plants can’t do anything which transcends the limitations of matter. Although some animals seem clever, they don’t actually possess conceptional intelligence. They can’t, for instance, conceive of the abstract notion of justice.
>
> Most people have experienced the sadness of witnessing an animal die, usually a beloved pet who brought great joy throughout their short lifespan. During the grieving period, it’s common for parents to tell children that there’s a special place for all the animals who have departed from their world – like a pet heaven.
>
>
> This image of a pet no longer in pain and experiencing paradise can certainly alleviate the worry of a young child wondering where their favourite animal has gone to, but is there any truth to the claim?
>
>
> The Church has no official teaching on the matter of pets entering heaven, but there are theological principles that can direct us to what answer is most probable.
>
>
> Catholics believe that all living things have souls, and this includes not only humans, but also plants and animals. When a living thing dies, the soul separates from its body or organic makeup. In the case of animals, the soul goes out of existence. However, the souls of human beings are radically different from the souls of other living things. Whereas the souls of animals are contingent upon their material makeup, human souls remain in existence after death because it is immaterial.
>
>
> This means that that human souls can’t be destroyed, and so are immortal.
>
>
> **Reasonable**
>
>
> Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI said in a sermon in 2008, that when an animal dies, it “just means the end of existence on earth”. It’s reasonable to believe then that all animals that die before the Second Coming and the creation of the “new heaven and new earth” will cease to exist.
>
>
> This, however, doesn’t necessarily mean that there won’t be any animals after the Second Coming.
>
>
> Some theologians argue that animals flourished in the Garden of Eden, before sin entered the world, and so there’s no inherent or theological contradiction in positing that God could create more animals.Animals were present when the fullness of grace abounded. However, others argue that there will be no need for animals to exist in the new creation, which pertains to ultimately knowing and loving God. Of course, this is all just speculative, and we will only really ever find out the answer at the end of time.
>
>
>
> >
> > “The souls of human beings are radically different from the souls of other living things”
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> [Do animals go to heaven?](https://www.irishcatholic.com/do-animals-go-to-heaven/)
>
>
>
Ultimately, this question should deal with the prospect of whether or not the Neanderthals had the intellectual ability to worship God. In other words were the Neanderthals more animal like or human like?
For those who believe in evolution, the Catholic Church allows the faithful to believe in this theory. The Church equally makes some qualitative point that are to be observe in this domain.
It is equally impermissible to dismiss the story of Adam and Eve and the fall (Gen. 2–3) as a fiction. A question often raised in this context is whether the human race descended from an original pair of two human beings (a teaching known as monogenism) or a pool of early human couples (a teaching known as polygenism).
In this regard, Pope Pius XII stated:
>
> “When, however, there is question of another conjectural opinion, namely polygenism, the children of the Church by no means enjoy such liberty. For the faithful cannot embrace that opinion which maintains either that after Adam there existed on this earth true men who did not take their origin through natural generation from him as from the first parents of all, or that Adam represents a certain number of first parents. Now, it is in no way apparent how such an opinion can be reconciled that which the sources of revealed truth and the documents of the teaching authority of the Church proposed with regard to original sin which proceeds from a sin actually committed by an individual Adam in which through generation is passed onto all and is in everyone as his own” (Humani Generis 37).
>
>
>
In other words, either Adam and Eve were created as the Scriptures literally tells us or Adam and Eve somehow evolved from some preexisting humanoid form such as the Neanderthals. Only Adam and Eve along with their descendants were infused with the gift of an immortal and rational soul. **Thus Neanderthals would not have possessed an *immortal soul*! They simply possessed a *mortal soul* like that of any other animal lower in dignity than man.**
>
> Thou hast made him a little lower than the angels: thou hast crowned him with glory and honour, and hast set him over the works of thy hands. - [Hebrews 2:7](https://biblehub.com/hebrews/2-7.htm)
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Wqzg6.jpg)
[The human lineage of Australopithecus afarensis, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Neanderthals and Homo sapiens.](https://www.history.com/news/humans-evolution-neanderthals-denisovans)
Although they say nothing is written in stone, with the exemption of the **Ten Commandments** written by God, there is lots of room for debate on this issue of human evolution. This is just one perspective.
Just today the news made headlines:
* [Remains of nine Neanderthals found in cave south of Rome](https://www.theguardian.com/science/2021/may/08/remains-of-nine-neanderthals-found-in-cave-south-of-rome) May 8, 2021.
My personal dilemma is whether the Sasquatch (Bigfoot) a living relic of the [Neanderthal](https://www.amazon.ca/Bigfoot-Yeti-Last-Neanderthal-Geneticistss/dp/193887515X)??? |
6,013,050 | I was surfing through various article related to Webservice in Qt , but unfortunatly didn't got what i was looking for. I am using .Net webservice with SOAP, and want to parse this service. Gone through various related article, but the basic problem that i am facing is to get the Soap libraries? Where to download from? And how to integrate? And this will really work for me?
Thank You. | 2011/05/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6013050",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/578204/"
] | Your best bet is probably integrating [gSOAP](http://www.cs.fsu.edu/~engelen/soap.html) into your Qt application. (Make sure it's [Licensing](http://www.cs.fsu.edu/~engelen/soaplicense.html) terms are ok for you.)
A good run-down of how to do the integration is [GSoap: SAOP and XML Web services for Qt apps](http://wiki.forum.nokia.com/index.php/GSoap%3a_SOAP_and_XML_Web_services_for_Qt_apps) (includes a sample .zip file). That doesn't require a specific version of Qt (since gSOAP is doing all the work essentially), so anything modern-ish should do. | Although it's a very late suggestion, [Apache Axis](http://axis.apache.org/axis2/java/core/) is a free/open source software SOAP stack that appears to fit your needs. |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | Step :
1. Preferences
2. Appearance & Behaviour
3. Appearance then untick *side-by-side layout on the left* at Window options
4. Project tab move to the left side and make sure untick *split-mode*
5. Structure tab move to the left side and make sure tick *split-mode* | Sure, just grab your "Structure" tool window button (the one on the left side, that has "7" in the title) and drag it to the bottom part of the same side.
Alternatively just right click on tool window button or title bar and choose "Split Mode" -- it will move it to the opposite part of the same side (e.g. will move from Left Top to Left Bottom -- just as per your image).
[Official manual page](https://www.jetbrains.com/phpstorm/help/manipulating-the-tool-windows.html?search=manipulating#d683881e250). |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | This took me a really long time to figure out.
For you to set this up, you need to
**First:** make sure each Tool Window is set to "Pinned Mode" and "Docked Mode" (*you can do this by right clicking on the Project/Structure tab*)
**Second:** the Tool Window you want on top should have the "Split Mode" NOT checked
**Third:** the Tool Window you want at the bottom should have the "Split Mode" checked | Sure, just grab your "Structure" tool window button (the one on the left side, that has "7" in the title) and drag it to the bottom part of the same side.
Alternatively just right click on tool window button or title bar and choose "Split Mode" -- it will move it to the opposite part of the same side (e.g. will move from Left Top to Left Bottom -- just as per your image).
[Official manual page](https://www.jetbrains.com/phpstorm/help/manipulating-the-tool-windows.html?search=manipulating#d683881e250). |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | Sure, just grab your "Structure" tool window button (the one on the left side, that has "7" in the title) and drag it to the bottom part of the same side.
Alternatively just right click on tool window button or title bar and choose "Split Mode" -- it will move it to the opposite part of the same side (e.g. will move from Left Top to Left Bottom -- just as per your image).
[Official manual page](https://www.jetbrains.com/phpstorm/help/manipulating-the-tool-windows.html?search=manipulating#d683881e250). | To whom the other answers did not work:
At first go to **Windows** menu then click **Restore Default Layout**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Project**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Structure** |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | Step :
1. Preferences
2. Appearance & Behaviour
3. Appearance then untick *side-by-side layout on the left* at Window options
4. Project tab move to the left side and make sure untick *split-mode*
5. Structure tab move to the left side and make sure tick *split-mode* | To whom the other answers did not work:
At first go to **Windows** menu then click **Restore Default Layout**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Project**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Structure** |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | Step :
1. Preferences
2. Appearance & Behaviour
3. Appearance then untick *side-by-side layout on the left* at Window options
4. Project tab move to the left side and make sure untick *split-mode*
5. Structure tab move to the left side and make sure tick *split-mode* | As of version 2019.1, PHPStorm tool windows no longer behave the way the other answers say, that is, there is no explicit "split mode". Instead, it uses the location of the tab; you can no longer split tool windows if they are in the same tab group, but you *can* display two tool panes by putting them in different groups. So if you're looking for the standard projects half-pane at the top, and structure at the bottom, put structure in the top left group, and structure in the bottom left, and then enable them both - and the view will split.
To reiterate – if you have both project and structure in top left, there is no way to split them; you must move the tab. |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | This took me a really long time to figure out.
For you to set this up, you need to
**First:** make sure each Tool Window is set to "Pinned Mode" and "Docked Mode" (*you can do this by right clicking on the Project/Structure tab*)
**Second:** the Tool Window you want on top should have the "Split Mode" NOT checked
**Third:** the Tool Window you want at the bottom should have the "Split Mode" checked | To whom the other answers did not work:
At first go to **Windows** menu then click **Restore Default Layout**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Project**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Structure** |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | This took me a really long time to figure out.
For you to set this up, you need to
**First:** make sure each Tool Window is set to "Pinned Mode" and "Docked Mode" (*you can do this by right clicking on the Project/Structure tab*)
**Second:** the Tool Window you want on top should have the "Split Mode" NOT checked
**Third:** the Tool Window you want at the bottom should have the "Split Mode" checked | As of version 2019.1, PHPStorm tool windows no longer behave the way the other answers say, that is, there is no explicit "split mode". Instead, it uses the location of the tab; you can no longer split tool windows if they are in the same tab group, but you *can* display two tool panes by putting them in different groups. So if you're looking for the standard projects half-pane at the top, and structure at the bottom, put structure in the top left group, and structure in the bottom left, and then enable them both - and the view will split.
To reiterate – if you have both project and structure in top left, there is no way to split them; you must move the tab. |
31,308,084 | Anyone know how to make project and structure navigation set in splitting mode?
See images ( I was able doing this, but don't know how )
 | 2015/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31308084",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1721850/"
] | As of version 2019.1, PHPStorm tool windows no longer behave the way the other answers say, that is, there is no explicit "split mode". Instead, it uses the location of the tab; you can no longer split tool windows if they are in the same tab group, but you *can* display two tool panes by putting them in different groups. So if you're looking for the standard projects half-pane at the top, and structure at the bottom, put structure in the top left group, and structure in the bottom left, and then enable them both - and the view will split.
To reiterate – if you have both project and structure in top left, there is no way to split them; you must move the tab. | To whom the other answers did not work:
At first go to **Windows** menu then click **Restore Default Layout**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Project**
Then go to **View** => **Tool Windows** => **Structure** |
7,665 | I have a theory that good prose style comes in part from avoiding complicated, abstract, and pretentious words. Are there any good lists of words to avoid, preferably with suggested alternatives? I'm thinking of lists like [this one](http://www.plainlanguage.gov/howto/wordsuggestions/simplewords.cfm). Thank you. | 2013/04/16 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/7665",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/5037/"
] | I suggest that you focus instead on critiquing your own writing with the question, "Could I say this more simply? More precisely? Can I potentially cut out any words?" You could also ask someone else, whose clear and simple style you admire, to look through your writing with these questions in mind.
Sometimes the "big" words are actually better, if they convey your meaning more exactly. It's only when they obscure your actual meaning or jar with your style that you want to eliminate them.
That said, Strunk and White does list commonly misused/overused words (although their selection of "commonly overused" words is written in reference to their own time). | The language is a tool to convey more than meaning. By choosing specific words you create atmosphere, impression, differ between formal and informal, elegant versus pretentious, frank versus rude. By removing a set of words you cripple your means of expression.
And there are words that function in specific expressions and fit specific situations where simpler alternatives would be worse. There are rules that directly contradict your premise, like [never use two words when one will suffice](https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/761/the-rules-of-writing/812#812) - use a more sophisticated word where you'd need to use two simpler.
Let us look at your list and see how it butchers the language:
INSTEAD OF - TRY
accomplish - carry out, do
*Son, you spent past fifteen years in the university. What did you do?*
accurate - correct, exact, right
*This gun is correct.*
*This gun is exact.*
*This gun is right.*
allocate - divide
*The `malloc()` command divides a specified amount of memory*. (that's entirely incorrect!!)
attain - meet
*I have met the rank of captain*.
Don't seek lists of words to avoid. Just learn the proper use of all words and apply the right ones where they belong. |
46,769,355 | I have an ios and android app live , developed on ionic .
My ios push notification certificate is expiring in nov. I ahve talked to few developers they said we need to create and update new certificate.
1. My only issue is if we update new certificate will the old user still be able to get the push notifications ?
2. Do we need to update the ipa version on apple store? | 2017/10/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46769355",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5384521/"
] | The last time i updated my push-notifications-certificate everything worked fine. For my understanding the certificate is only for the connecting and authorizing so that no one else can send notifications to your apps. | No need to create the new ipa ... Actually i have used SNS service of AWS, my certificate was about to expire, i have uploaded the new certificate and everything work like charm .. |
46,769,355 | I have an ios and android app live , developed on ionic .
My ios push notification certificate is expiring in nov. I ahve talked to few developers they said we need to create and update new certificate.
1. My only issue is if we update new certificate will the old user still be able to get the push notifications ?
2. Do we need to update the ipa version on apple store? | 2017/10/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46769355",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5384521/"
] | You don't need to update the IPA on the store in order for the new certificate to work. I've done this a few times. You have nothing to worry about.
The certificate is to authenticate your push notifications server with APNS, and it has nothing to do with the IPA, as long as your bundle identifier doesn't change between certificates. | No need to create the new ipa ... Actually i have used SNS service of AWS, my certificate was about to expire, i have uploaded the new certificate and everything work like charm .. |
1,310 | When are population dynamics models useful? There seems to have been a lot of research about it, but how does it help? If I need data about how a population will evolve under what conditions, I need it because I need data for a decision (such as "can we kill 50% of population X without doing too much damage?"), right? But for that, the model needs to be aware of what causes what. And for that, I have to do experiments, right? Like "let's kill a significant amount of population X and see what happens in the next ten years". I really don't get it. | 2012/03/04 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/1310",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/585/"
] | Population dynamics occupies a whole subset of mathematical biology. Perhaps the most pragmatic uses for modelling population dynamics come from the fields of epidemiology for modelling disease infection and transmission through a population ([one such article](https://doi.org/10.1007%2FBF00173264?from=SL)), or ecology modelling things like forestation, fishing dynamics, predator-prey relationships ([an example](https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1046/j.1365-2656.1999.00258.x/full)). Then there are more abstract uses, when you cannot measure a population to test a hypothesis because the labour is too intensive, or it's too costly, or no such surveillance mechanism exists. Theoretical models of population dynamics are built to gain an understanding of what the system as a whole may do under certain conditions. In this sense, population models are more of a theoretical exercise or a thought experiment. | Leonardo's already given you an excellent answer, but I thought I'd add my perspective. I'm a mathematical epidemiologist, so I'd at least like to believe these types of models are useful.
For me, there are a number of things population dynamics models are especially useful for:
* Highlighting data requirements. Yes, models need data, as you've mentioned. But they don't need all their data to come from one source, one study, or even one *field*. Models are also profoundly useful for showing where we *don't* have the data we need to fully understand a system. "To make a model where we understand A, we need the values for X, Y, and Z. X is well studied, but Y and Z aren't - though it turns out when we look over the entire parameter space for Z, nothing really changes in our answer. But guys? We could really use a study on Y."
* Eliminating guesswork. Models aren't perfect encapsulations of reality - there will always be some simplifying assumptions, etc. But it's better than "going with your gut" - especially for complex problems.
* Impossible studies. A ton of what mathematical epidemiology looks at it is areas where studies are either impossible, logistically difficult, or unethical. It would be very hard indeed to only be able to study pandemic response plans, or vaccination strategy only when we had an actual outbreak, or while a new vaccine is being rolled out.
* Highlighting potentially new directions. If you're considering an intervention, but no matter how effective you make it in your model it doesn't move the system much, it might not be worthwhile. Models can also highlight threshold effects - like the critical % of the population you'd need to vaccinate to achieve herd immunity. |
1,310 | When are population dynamics models useful? There seems to have been a lot of research about it, but how does it help? If I need data about how a population will evolve under what conditions, I need it because I need data for a decision (such as "can we kill 50% of population X without doing too much damage?"), right? But for that, the model needs to be aware of what causes what. And for that, I have to do experiments, right? Like "let's kill a significant amount of population X and see what happens in the next ten years". I really don't get it. | 2012/03/04 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/1310",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/585/"
] | Population dynamics occupies a whole subset of mathematical biology. Perhaps the most pragmatic uses for modelling population dynamics come from the fields of epidemiology for modelling disease infection and transmission through a population ([one such article](https://doi.org/10.1007%2FBF00173264?from=SL)), or ecology modelling things like forestation, fishing dynamics, predator-prey relationships ([an example](https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1046/j.1365-2656.1999.00258.x/full)). Then there are more abstract uses, when you cannot measure a population to test a hypothesis because the labour is too intensive, or it's too costly, or no such surveillance mechanism exists. Theoretical models of population dynamics are built to gain an understanding of what the system as a whole may do under certain conditions. In this sense, population models are more of a theoretical exercise or a thought experiment. | Two previous answers listed many applications of population dynamics models. I want to add that they are also important for conservation of endangered species. For example classical stage-class model ([Crouse et al 1987](http://www.esajournals.org/doi/abs/10.2307/1939225), [free copy](http://www.google.com/url?q=http://depts.washington.edu/amath/courses/422-winter-2011/materials/crouse_et_al_sea_turtles.pdf&sa=U&ei=NMFXT9GpIYOXOt-SnJ0N&ved=0CAQQFjAA&client=internal-uds-cse&usg=AFQjCNHMllJA87MvU5XqxcxgjMQm3TNSAQ)) indicate that the most effective way to protect sea turtles is reducing mortality of large juveniles.
Moreover, you don't have to perform such drastic experiments as killing 50% of a population to estimate your model parameters. Information about number of offspring, breeding success, natural mortality, etc can usually be gain without serious perturbation of wild populations. The number of individuals in every natural population fluctuates because of random reasons, so it is possible (but sometimes needs more field work) to calculate, (possibly nonlinear) regression between density of population and some demographic indicators and then extrapolate it to non-examined densities. For some small, short-living species it is sometimes possible to measure that correlations in laboratory or semi-wild conditions. For some long-living species, especially if they are sedentary, like trees, it may be better to compare specimens living in different distance from its neighborhoods. For poorly-known species it is possible to take missing information from related or similar species. |
1,310 | When are population dynamics models useful? There seems to have been a lot of research about it, but how does it help? If I need data about how a population will evolve under what conditions, I need it because I need data for a decision (such as "can we kill 50% of population X without doing too much damage?"), right? But for that, the model needs to be aware of what causes what. And for that, I have to do experiments, right? Like "let's kill a significant amount of population X and see what happens in the next ten years". I really don't get it. | 2012/03/04 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/1310",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/585/"
] | Population dynamics occupies a whole subset of mathematical biology. Perhaps the most pragmatic uses for modelling population dynamics come from the fields of epidemiology for modelling disease infection and transmission through a population ([one such article](https://doi.org/10.1007%2FBF00173264?from=SL)), or ecology modelling things like forestation, fishing dynamics, predator-prey relationships ([an example](https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1046/j.1365-2656.1999.00258.x/full)). Then there are more abstract uses, when you cannot measure a population to test a hypothesis because the labour is too intensive, or it's too costly, or no such surveillance mechanism exists. Theoretical models of population dynamics are built to gain an understanding of what the system as a whole may do under certain conditions. In this sense, population models are more of a theoretical exercise or a thought experiment. | I'll throw one more application into the pot. Population dynamics also forms the foundations of population genetics, population ecology, and more recently plays an important role in frameworks such as evolutionary game theory and eco-evolutionary dynamics.
Here the models are also used as a type of theoretical exercise or thought experiment (as a previous answer suggests). In the development of evolutionary theory we simply cannot observe the process over the timescales we require to test the hypotheses we make. Thus, the development of population models allows us to explore 'possible worlds', as Robert May once put it, to see what kinds of adaptations or population structures we would expect to see, *given* the assumptions we put in.
We are also seeing an increasing number of population models and dynamical models used in conjunction with experiments on microbes in the field of experimental evolution. Here we *can* observe evolution in real time, and many of the assumptions about well-mixedness and large population sizes that are often made in modelling populations are actually fairly accurate. |
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