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2,271
I'm exclusively breastfeeding my baby, and occasionally give him pumped bottles. I generally try to warm them up before giving them to him, at least to room temperature. (I was once told as a tip to get babies used to room-temperature bottles right away, just in case sometime you don't have a way to heat it up...) Sometimes, though, he is frantically crying as I'm trying to warm up the bottle... Is it ok to give him a cold bottle? He doesn't seem to mind, and drinks the whole thing. Are there any problems with feeding a 2-3 month old a cold bottle?
2011/07/13
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/2271", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/1131/" ]
I did find research on the effect of milk temperature on preterm infants at <http://milkbank.com/pdf/Stanford_Study_milk_feeding_temperature.pdf> A summary of the results included the following statement: The infants in this study had a similar tolerance (as measured by gastric residuals) to both cool temperature milk (10°C) and room temperature milk (24°C). Based on these data, there appears to be no advantage to warming frozen or refrigerated milk to room temperature. The study did reveal better tolerance for warmed milk for these fragile infants.
Yes, you can feed your baby a **room-temperature** bottle. No, you should not feed your baby a **fridge-temperature** bottle. The reason is that infants are very small bodies, so temperature differences are more significant to them than to older kids or adults. Infants can't handle a steaming hot cup of tea, just like they can't handle milk that's just a few degrees above freezing. The closer to the natural body-temperature their food is, the easier they can handle it. By the way, the same idea applies to bath water. (For bathing, not drinking!)
2,271
I'm exclusively breastfeeding my baby, and occasionally give him pumped bottles. I generally try to warm them up before giving them to him, at least to room temperature. (I was once told as a tip to get babies used to room-temperature bottles right away, just in case sometime you don't have a way to heat it up...) Sometimes, though, he is frantically crying as I'm trying to warm up the bottle... Is it ok to give him a cold bottle? He doesn't seem to mind, and drinks the whole thing. Are there any problems with feeding a 2-3 month old a cold bottle?
2011/07/13
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/2271", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/1131/" ]
Yes, you can feed your baby a **room-temperature** bottle. No, you should not feed your baby a **fridge-temperature** bottle. The reason is that infants are very small bodies, so temperature differences are more significant to them than to older kids or adults. Infants can't handle a steaming hot cup of tea, just like they can't handle milk that's just a few degrees above freezing. The closer to the natural body-temperature their food is, the easier they can handle it. By the way, the same idea applies to bath water. (For bathing, not drinking!)
I can't provide any supporting evidence, but I can tell you that at my very first pediatrician appointment with my first son, I had this exact conversation with my pediatrician. I live in Southern California (a warm climate anyway) and my son was born in the summer, so the weather was quite warm. My son started fussing a bit, and I was having typical new mom anxiety because I didn't have anyway to warm his bottle (I wasn't good enough at breastfeeding to do that in public yet). I asked my pediatrician if they had some way I could warm the bottle, and his response "Would you want to drink something warm when it is this hot outside? I bet your son would also prefer his drinks cold." That was the last time I heated any bottle for either of my kids.
2,271
I'm exclusively breastfeeding my baby, and occasionally give him pumped bottles. I generally try to warm them up before giving them to him, at least to room temperature. (I was once told as a tip to get babies used to room-temperature bottles right away, just in case sometime you don't have a way to heat it up...) Sometimes, though, he is frantically crying as I'm trying to warm up the bottle... Is it ok to give him a cold bottle? He doesn't seem to mind, and drinks the whole thing. Are there any problems with feeding a 2-3 month old a cold bottle?
2011/07/13
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/2271", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/1131/" ]
I did find research on the effect of milk temperature on preterm infants at <http://milkbank.com/pdf/Stanford_Study_milk_feeding_temperature.pdf> A summary of the results included the following statement: The infants in this study had a similar tolerance (as measured by gastric residuals) to both cool temperature milk (10°C) and room temperature milk (24°C). Based on these data, there appears to be no advantage to warming frozen or refrigerated milk to room temperature. The study did reveal better tolerance for warmed milk for these fragile infants.
I can't provide any supporting evidence, but I can tell you that at my very first pediatrician appointment with my first son, I had this exact conversation with my pediatrician. I live in Southern California (a warm climate anyway) and my son was born in the summer, so the weather was quite warm. My son started fussing a bit, and I was having typical new mom anxiety because I didn't have anyway to warm his bottle (I wasn't good enough at breastfeeding to do that in public yet). I asked my pediatrician if they had some way I could warm the bottle, and his response "Would you want to drink something warm when it is this hot outside? I bet your son would also prefer his drinks cold." That was the last time I heated any bottle for either of my kids.
1,726,799
If I have two cells, A1 has the world Hello, A2 has the word World. So if I type into another cell, =A1&A2 I will get HelloWorld I would really like to know what day it is too, So I tried to type in =A1&A2&NOW() but the output is, HelloWorld44728.5556479167 I have also tried, =CONCATENATE without success.
2022/06/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1726799", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/1701938/" ]
It's done just like under, or at least close to, win 10. * Open "Settings" and navigate as follows * Time & language * Typing * Advanced keyboard settings * Input language hot keys". This should open a window called "Text Services and Input Languages" it should contain an "Advanced Key Settings" section where you can switch between the two modes of how to turn off Caps Lock. I find that a lot more comfortable as well and is usually one of the first things I change when setting up my profile after a fresh windows installation.
> > On my old computer, when caps-lock is activated and I press the shift > key, it disables the caps look. > > > That is most likely a function of BIOS in the old computer and is not standard behavior on any computer I have (or have had). So you will need to use the Caps Lock key to both toggle Caps ON and then OFF. - This is quite normal.
537,997
We all agree that light has no mass yet it is affected by gravity. According to accepted theories I have seen light itself is also said to bend space meaning that it causes gravitation. This would seem to contradict the very definition of gravity as an attractive force between two masses. It also seems to cause contradiction as the energy of light varies depending on the observer. I have heard of a phenomena called Gravitomagnetism which is said to be an analog to magnetism. As I understand it, this is a force which pull masses in the direction of other masses that pass by similar to how magnetism pull charges in the direction (or opposite direction) of electrical current. So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam.
2020/03/24
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/537997", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/245323/" ]
“Gravitomagnetism” is just one formalism for understanding General Relativity. In GR, the density *and flow* of energy *and momentum* (expressed as the [energy-momentum-stress tensor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stress%E2%80%93energy_tensor)) is what causes spacetime curvature and affects the motion of particles. Whether you are talking about massive or massless particles, their motion helps determine the gravity they cause. If you want to see how the velocities and accelerations of two massive particles affects their mutual gravitational accelerations, look at the [Einstein-Infeld-Hoffmann equations](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein%E2%80%93Infeld%E2%80%93Hoffmann_equations). I have not seen analogous equations for massless particles, but they probably exist.
The answer by G.Smith is to the point, here I stress the separation between the General Relativity mathematical model and the Newtonian mathematical model of gravity. Physics is a scientific discipline where observations and measurements are fitted with mathematical models which describe existing data and successfully predict new values for new boundary conditions. When this happens one says that the model has been validated. If new experiments and observations should falsify the model, one will have to re-examine the assumptions and even search for a new model. In the particular case of gravity, [Newtonian gravity developed](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton%27s_law_of_universal_gravitation) from fitting mathematically observations and measurements up to two centuries ago, using [classical mechanics](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_mechanics) , and a single axiom/law , Newtons law. To first order the assumption that gravity is always attractive fits the data for velocities much smaller than the velocity of light, and masses much smaller than the earth. This is true to first order in the mathematical calculations, because, by a brilliant extension of the mathematics of electromagnetism, Einstein formed a mathematical theory called [General Relativity](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity), which gave predictions that were validated by better measurements and better observations. This means that even for [using the GPS system accurately on earth](http://www.astronomy.ohio-state.edu/~pogge/Ast162/Unit5/gps.html), one needs general relativity corrections to the first order orbits of the Newtonian model. It has to be stressed that a new physics theory describing the same data, **must** be consistent at the limit of overlap with the old theory, because the old theories are a mathematical mapping of a great number of data, and are a type of a boundary condition to **any** new theories, there has to be consistency in the overlap regions of phase space, and the definitions of variables. You say > > This would seem to contradict the very definition of gravity as an attractive force between two masses. > > > Gravity has to be **attractive only** at low energies and masses, because that is what has been **measured and observed.** Within the above context, the question > > So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam. > > > is confusing the region of validity in the behavior of light/photons, between two theories, the classical and the GR. In classical theory, even with quantum mechanics, photons have no mass, so have no Newtonian attraction. In GR masses are the manifestation of the [tensor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity#Einstein's_equations) defining the energy and momentum distributions of the system under study. Thus for the mathematics of GR as light has energy , it contributes to the tensor and thus distorts space, and this has been observed in astrophysics. Force has no meaning at the energies and masses of GR. It is a consequence of the space distortions that can be derived from the mathematics of GR. [Gravetomagnetism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gravitoelectromagnetism) > > Gravitoelectromagnetism, abbreviated GEM, refers to a set of formal analogies between the equations for electromagnetism and relativistic gravitation; specifically: between Maxwell's field equations and an approximation, valid under certain conditions, to the Einstein field equations for general relativity. *Gravitomagnetism is a widely* used term referring specifically to the kinetic effects of gravity, in analogy to the magnetic effects of moving electric charge. > > > your suggestion: > > just have Gravitomagnetism > > > posits a new model, and in addition to not being a mainstream model, it would need a lot more theory to fit high mass high energy data the way GR does.
537,997
We all agree that light has no mass yet it is affected by gravity. According to accepted theories I have seen light itself is also said to bend space meaning that it causes gravitation. This would seem to contradict the very definition of gravity as an attractive force between two masses. It also seems to cause contradiction as the energy of light varies depending on the observer. I have heard of a phenomena called Gravitomagnetism which is said to be an analog to magnetism. As I understand it, this is a force which pull masses in the direction of other masses that pass by similar to how magnetism pull charges in the direction (or opposite direction) of electrical current. So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam.
2020/03/24
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/537997", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/245323/" ]
> > So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam. > > > Here is a list of the abilities that light has, and after each ability in parenthesis there is the name of the ability. 1. Light has the ability to pull a nearby massive object towards itself. (attractive gravity) 2. Light has the ability to pull a nearby massive object in its direction of travel. (gravitomagnetic induction a.k.a frame dragging) 3. Light has the ability to not pull nearby parallel light towards itself. (attractive gravity and repulsive gravitomagnetism together) 4. Light has the ability to pull nearby anti-parallel light towards itself. (attractive gravity and attractive gravitomagnetism together) 5. Finally, I think two passing anti-parallel light pulses should induce some gravito-motive forces on each other, but after they have passed they should be like before the passing, except for some small change of direction. Like two passing electrons induce an electro-motive force on each other.
“Gravitomagnetism” is just one formalism for understanding General Relativity. In GR, the density *and flow* of energy *and momentum* (expressed as the [energy-momentum-stress tensor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stress%E2%80%93energy_tensor)) is what causes spacetime curvature and affects the motion of particles. Whether you are talking about massive or massless particles, their motion helps determine the gravity they cause. If you want to see how the velocities and accelerations of two massive particles affects their mutual gravitational accelerations, look at the [Einstein-Infeld-Hoffmann equations](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein%E2%80%93Infeld%E2%80%93Hoffmann_equations). I have not seen analogous equations for massless particles, but they probably exist.
537,997
We all agree that light has no mass yet it is affected by gravity. According to accepted theories I have seen light itself is also said to bend space meaning that it causes gravitation. This would seem to contradict the very definition of gravity as an attractive force between two masses. It also seems to cause contradiction as the energy of light varies depending on the observer. I have heard of a phenomena called Gravitomagnetism which is said to be an analog to magnetism. As I understand it, this is a force which pull masses in the direction of other masses that pass by similar to how magnetism pull charges in the direction (or opposite direction) of electrical current. So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam.
2020/03/24
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/537997", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/245323/" ]
> > So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam. > > > Here is a list of the abilities that light has, and after each ability in parenthesis there is the name of the ability. 1. Light has the ability to pull a nearby massive object towards itself. (attractive gravity) 2. Light has the ability to pull a nearby massive object in its direction of travel. (gravitomagnetic induction a.k.a frame dragging) 3. Light has the ability to not pull nearby parallel light towards itself. (attractive gravity and repulsive gravitomagnetism together) 4. Light has the ability to pull nearby anti-parallel light towards itself. (attractive gravity and attractive gravitomagnetism together) 5. Finally, I think two passing anti-parallel light pulses should induce some gravito-motive forces on each other, but after they have passed they should be like before the passing, except for some small change of direction. Like two passing electrons induce an electro-motive force on each other.
The answer by G.Smith is to the point, here I stress the separation between the General Relativity mathematical model and the Newtonian mathematical model of gravity. Physics is a scientific discipline where observations and measurements are fitted with mathematical models which describe existing data and successfully predict new values for new boundary conditions. When this happens one says that the model has been validated. If new experiments and observations should falsify the model, one will have to re-examine the assumptions and even search for a new model. In the particular case of gravity, [Newtonian gravity developed](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton%27s_law_of_universal_gravitation) from fitting mathematically observations and measurements up to two centuries ago, using [classical mechanics](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_mechanics) , and a single axiom/law , Newtons law. To first order the assumption that gravity is always attractive fits the data for velocities much smaller than the velocity of light, and masses much smaller than the earth. This is true to first order in the mathematical calculations, because, by a brilliant extension of the mathematics of electromagnetism, Einstein formed a mathematical theory called [General Relativity](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity), which gave predictions that were validated by better measurements and better observations. This means that even for [using the GPS system accurately on earth](http://www.astronomy.ohio-state.edu/~pogge/Ast162/Unit5/gps.html), one needs general relativity corrections to the first order orbits of the Newtonian model. It has to be stressed that a new physics theory describing the same data, **must** be consistent at the limit of overlap with the old theory, because the old theories are a mathematical mapping of a great number of data, and are a type of a boundary condition to **any** new theories, there has to be consistency in the overlap regions of phase space, and the definitions of variables. You say > > This would seem to contradict the very definition of gravity as an attractive force between two masses. > > > Gravity has to be **attractive only** at low energies and masses, because that is what has been **measured and observed.** Within the above context, the question > > So my question is this - does light in fact have gravity or does it just have Gravitomagnetism meaning the ability to pull nearby object in its direction of travel rather than toward the light-beam. > > > is confusing the region of validity in the behavior of light/photons, between two theories, the classical and the GR. In classical theory, even with quantum mechanics, photons have no mass, so have no Newtonian attraction. In GR masses are the manifestation of the [tensor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity#Einstein's_equations) defining the energy and momentum distributions of the system under study. Thus for the mathematics of GR as light has energy , it contributes to the tensor and thus distorts space, and this has been observed in astrophysics. Force has no meaning at the energies and masses of GR. It is a consequence of the space distortions that can be derived from the mathematics of GR. [Gravetomagnetism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gravitoelectromagnetism) > > Gravitoelectromagnetism, abbreviated GEM, refers to a set of formal analogies between the equations for electromagnetism and relativistic gravitation; specifically: between Maxwell's field equations and an approximation, valid under certain conditions, to the Einstein field equations for general relativity. *Gravitomagnetism is a widely* used term referring specifically to the kinetic effects of gravity, in analogy to the magnetic effects of moving electric charge. > > > your suggestion: > > just have Gravitomagnetism > > > posits a new model, and in addition to not being a mainstream model, it would need a lot more theory to fit high mass high energy data the way GR does.
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
I doubt you'll find ransomware source code floating around in the general public. I'd guess there is code out *there somewhere* but I wouldn't risk visiting shady sites on the "Darknet" (I really hate that term). (Un)fortunately, ransomware is not very complex. For a university project, simply encrypting and replacing files in ~/Documents is probably good enough. The trick is making the decryption key only obtainable through you. Encryption: 1. Generate Symmetric Key **K** 2. Encrypt all files in ~/Documents with **K** 3. Send **K** to Server 4. Erase all traces of **K** Decryption: 1. Obtain **K** from server. 2. Decrypt files with **K** I know that notorious ransomware use Asymmetric Encryption, but it actually isn't necessary at all. For example, improperly implemented RSA by [CryptoDefense](http://blog.emsisoft.com/2014/04/04/cryptodefense-the-story-of-insecure-ransomware-keys-and-self-serving-bloggers/) actually made it **easier** to write automated decryption tools, because they didn't realize that a Windows Crypto API keeps local copies of generated RSA Private Keys. Putting blind faith in a crypto system won't make it secure. What's important is that the decryption key is not recoverable on the system. Whether or not this is done by zero'ing memory or encrypting **K** with an RSA Public Key really does not matter.
No. There is not and I am quite sure there will never be: imagine nuclear weapons are available to buy in the shop. The spirit of the Open Source community is luckily investing positive efforts to develop tools that protect users ranging from anti viruses such as [ClamAV](http://www.clamav.net/index.html) to web vulnerability scanners such as [Grabber](http://rgaucher.info/beta/grabber/), passing by tools that are rather intended to assess users' systems such as [those](http://tools.kali.org/tools-listing) you can find in Kali Linux used for pentesting (of course, you can always use the knife to kill someone instead). But it is true that there are some open source *nefarious* tools such as [ZombieBrowserPack](https://github.com/Z6543/ZombieBrowserPack) which is a plugin can be manipulated remotely to steal authentication credentials and even bypass two-factor authentication mechanisms such as the ones implemented by Yahoo and Google, or simply hijack your Facebook account and much more. However, this must not lead to misunderstanding: this plugin is developed by [Zoltan Balazs](https://nl.linkedin.com/in/zbalazs) as a POC for academic purposes as similar other tools in the same context: virus code is present freely on Internet but it is intended for academic purposes and it can not harm because any malware which code is released its life is ended as anti-virus companies conceive a protection against it.
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
There is an open source ransomware called [Hidden Tear](https://github.com/utkusen/hidden-tear). The code encrypts files with the following extensions: ".txt", ".doc", ".docx", ".xls", ".xlsx", ".ppt", ".pptx", ".odt", ".jpg", ".png", ".csv", ".sql", ".mdb", ".sln", ".php", ".asp", ".aspx", ".html", ".xml", ".psd" by default with AES 256 bit encryption. It is open source so it could be easily customized to not only look for additional files but also the way encryption is done.
No. There is not and I am quite sure there will never be: imagine nuclear weapons are available to buy in the shop. The spirit of the Open Source community is luckily investing positive efforts to develop tools that protect users ranging from anti viruses such as [ClamAV](http://www.clamav.net/index.html) to web vulnerability scanners such as [Grabber](http://rgaucher.info/beta/grabber/), passing by tools that are rather intended to assess users' systems such as [those](http://tools.kali.org/tools-listing) you can find in Kali Linux used for pentesting (of course, you can always use the knife to kill someone instead). But it is true that there are some open source *nefarious* tools such as [ZombieBrowserPack](https://github.com/Z6543/ZombieBrowserPack) which is a plugin can be manipulated remotely to steal authentication credentials and even bypass two-factor authentication mechanisms such as the ones implemented by Yahoo and Google, or simply hijack your Facebook account and much more. However, this must not lead to misunderstanding: this plugin is developed by [Zoltan Balazs](https://nl.linkedin.com/in/zbalazs) as a POC for academic purposes as similar other tools in the same context: virus code is present freely on Internet but it is intended for academic purposes and it can not harm because any malware which code is released its life is ended as anti-virus companies conceive a protection against it.
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
No. There is not and I am quite sure there will never be: imagine nuclear weapons are available to buy in the shop. The spirit of the Open Source community is luckily investing positive efforts to develop tools that protect users ranging from anti viruses such as [ClamAV](http://www.clamav.net/index.html) to web vulnerability scanners such as [Grabber](http://rgaucher.info/beta/grabber/), passing by tools that are rather intended to assess users' systems such as [those](http://tools.kali.org/tools-listing) you can find in Kali Linux used for pentesting (of course, you can always use the knife to kill someone instead). But it is true that there are some open source *nefarious* tools such as [ZombieBrowserPack](https://github.com/Z6543/ZombieBrowserPack) which is a plugin can be manipulated remotely to steal authentication credentials and even bypass two-factor authentication mechanisms such as the ones implemented by Yahoo and Google, or simply hijack your Facebook account and much more. However, this must not lead to misunderstanding: this plugin is developed by [Zoltan Balazs](https://nl.linkedin.com/in/zbalazs) as a POC for academic purposes as similar other tools in the same context: virus code is present freely on Internet but it is intended for academic purposes and it can not harm because any malware which code is released its life is ended as anti-virus companies conceive a protection against it.
You can visit [this](https://github.com/roothaxor/Ransom) link: You will be able to understand how the ransomware works in encrypting and decrypting files. It's written in C and Python too. Good luck!
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
No. There is not and I am quite sure there will never be: imagine nuclear weapons are available to buy in the shop. The spirit of the Open Source community is luckily investing positive efforts to develop tools that protect users ranging from anti viruses such as [ClamAV](http://www.clamav.net/index.html) to web vulnerability scanners such as [Grabber](http://rgaucher.info/beta/grabber/), passing by tools that are rather intended to assess users' systems such as [those](http://tools.kali.org/tools-listing) you can find in Kali Linux used for pentesting (of course, you can always use the knife to kill someone instead). But it is true that there are some open source *nefarious* tools such as [ZombieBrowserPack](https://github.com/Z6543/ZombieBrowserPack) which is a plugin can be manipulated remotely to steal authentication credentials and even bypass two-factor authentication mechanisms such as the ones implemented by Yahoo and Google, or simply hijack your Facebook account and much more. However, this must not lead to misunderstanding: this plugin is developed by [Zoltan Balazs](https://nl.linkedin.com/in/zbalazs) as a POC for academic purposes as similar other tools in the same context: virus code is present freely on Internet but it is intended for academic purposes and it can not harm because any malware which code is released its life is ended as anti-virus companies conceive a protection against it.
"[The Zoo](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo)" is a good source of malware for research, including some ransomware. [This](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo/tree/master/malwares/Source/Original/Ransomware.Jigsaw), for example, is ransomware: Modern ransomware does not typically use just a symmetric key or operate via the mode described in some of the other answers. A method of operation more closely related to "real world" ransomware looks like this: * Generate a unique asymmetric key pair on the ransomware server * Send the public key to the victim machine for use with ransomware client (already lying in wait on victim machine) * For each file in list of files to encrypt: * ... generate random symmetric key (e.g., AES key) * ... encrypt file with random symmetric key * ... encrypt symmetric key with asymmetric public key * ... replace file with symmetric-encrypted file concatenated with public-key-encrypted symmetric key In this manner, each encrypted file has its own symmetric key encrypted with the unique public-key. Thus the only possibility of recovery is by purchasing the private key, which only exists on the ransomware server.
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
I doubt you'll find ransomware source code floating around in the general public. I'd guess there is code out *there somewhere* but I wouldn't risk visiting shady sites on the "Darknet" (I really hate that term). (Un)fortunately, ransomware is not very complex. For a university project, simply encrypting and replacing files in ~/Documents is probably good enough. The trick is making the decryption key only obtainable through you. Encryption: 1. Generate Symmetric Key **K** 2. Encrypt all files in ~/Documents with **K** 3. Send **K** to Server 4. Erase all traces of **K** Decryption: 1. Obtain **K** from server. 2. Decrypt files with **K** I know that notorious ransomware use Asymmetric Encryption, but it actually isn't necessary at all. For example, improperly implemented RSA by [CryptoDefense](http://blog.emsisoft.com/2014/04/04/cryptodefense-the-story-of-insecure-ransomware-keys-and-self-serving-bloggers/) actually made it **easier** to write automated decryption tools, because they didn't realize that a Windows Crypto API keeps local copies of generated RSA Private Keys. Putting blind faith in a crypto system won't make it secure. What's important is that the decryption key is not recoverable on the system. Whether or not this is done by zero'ing memory or encrypting **K** with an RSA Public Key really does not matter.
You can visit [this](https://github.com/roothaxor/Ransom) link: You will be able to understand how the ransomware works in encrypting and decrypting files. It's written in C and Python too. Good luck!
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
I doubt you'll find ransomware source code floating around in the general public. I'd guess there is code out *there somewhere* but I wouldn't risk visiting shady sites on the "Darknet" (I really hate that term). (Un)fortunately, ransomware is not very complex. For a university project, simply encrypting and replacing files in ~/Documents is probably good enough. The trick is making the decryption key only obtainable through you. Encryption: 1. Generate Symmetric Key **K** 2. Encrypt all files in ~/Documents with **K** 3. Send **K** to Server 4. Erase all traces of **K** Decryption: 1. Obtain **K** from server. 2. Decrypt files with **K** I know that notorious ransomware use Asymmetric Encryption, but it actually isn't necessary at all. For example, improperly implemented RSA by [CryptoDefense](http://blog.emsisoft.com/2014/04/04/cryptodefense-the-story-of-insecure-ransomware-keys-and-self-serving-bloggers/) actually made it **easier** to write automated decryption tools, because they didn't realize that a Windows Crypto API keeps local copies of generated RSA Private Keys. Putting blind faith in a crypto system won't make it secure. What's important is that the decryption key is not recoverable on the system. Whether or not this is done by zero'ing memory or encrypting **K** with an RSA Public Key really does not matter.
"[The Zoo](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo)" is a good source of malware for research, including some ransomware. [This](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo/tree/master/malwares/Source/Original/Ransomware.Jigsaw), for example, is ransomware: Modern ransomware does not typically use just a symmetric key or operate via the mode described in some of the other answers. A method of operation more closely related to "real world" ransomware looks like this: * Generate a unique asymmetric key pair on the ransomware server * Send the public key to the victim machine for use with ransomware client (already lying in wait on victim machine) * For each file in list of files to encrypt: * ... generate random symmetric key (e.g., AES key) * ... encrypt file with random symmetric key * ... encrypt symmetric key with asymmetric public key * ... replace file with symmetric-encrypted file concatenated with public-key-encrypted symmetric key In this manner, each encrypted file has its own symmetric key encrypted with the unique public-key. Thus the only possibility of recovery is by purchasing the private key, which only exists on the ransomware server.
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
There is an open source ransomware called [Hidden Tear](https://github.com/utkusen/hidden-tear). The code encrypts files with the following extensions: ".txt", ".doc", ".docx", ".xls", ".xlsx", ".ppt", ".pptx", ".odt", ".jpg", ".png", ".csv", ".sql", ".mdb", ".sln", ".php", ".asp", ".aspx", ".html", ".xml", ".psd" by default with AES 256 bit encryption. It is open source so it could be easily customized to not only look for additional files but also the way encryption is done.
You can visit [this](https://github.com/roothaxor/Ransom) link: You will be able to understand how the ransomware works in encrypting and decrypting files. It's written in C and Python too. Good luck!
96,508
I'm working on malware analysis at my university and I'm trying to develop ransomware. I'm planning to publish the source code after it's finished. Is there any open source ransomware sample so I can take a look?
2015/08/11
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/96508", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/81904/" ]
There is an open source ransomware called [Hidden Tear](https://github.com/utkusen/hidden-tear). The code encrypts files with the following extensions: ".txt", ".doc", ".docx", ".xls", ".xlsx", ".ppt", ".pptx", ".odt", ".jpg", ".png", ".csv", ".sql", ".mdb", ".sln", ".php", ".asp", ".aspx", ".html", ".xml", ".psd" by default with AES 256 bit encryption. It is open source so it could be easily customized to not only look for additional files but also the way encryption is done.
"[The Zoo](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo)" is a good source of malware for research, including some ransomware. [This](https://github.com/ytisf/theZoo/tree/master/malwares/Source/Original/Ransomware.Jigsaw), for example, is ransomware: Modern ransomware does not typically use just a symmetric key or operate via the mode described in some of the other answers. A method of operation more closely related to "real world" ransomware looks like this: * Generate a unique asymmetric key pair on the ransomware server * Send the public key to the victim machine for use with ransomware client (already lying in wait on victim machine) * For each file in list of files to encrypt: * ... generate random symmetric key (e.g., AES key) * ... encrypt file with random symmetric key * ... encrypt symmetric key with asymmetric public key * ... replace file with symmetric-encrypted file concatenated with public-key-encrypted symmetric key In this manner, each encrypted file has its own symmetric key encrypted with the unique public-key. Thus the only possibility of recovery is by purchasing the private key, which only exists on the ransomware server.
210,575
I'm looking into Red Orchestra 2 (<http://store.steampowered.com/app/35450>) and am hearing great things. However, on Steam there is no singleplayer tag, and no reviews mention singleplayer. Is the product linked above a multiplayer only game or is there singleplayer as well?
2015/03/21
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/210575", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/41423/" ]
There is a single-player campaign, but it's little more than a collection of tutorials and bot matches. To my knowledge, there isn't any story beyond "the fighting advances here!".
The single player campaign is a series of multiplayer matches with bots and no other players, hosted on a server ran on your own system. If you want to play the campaigns itll run like an online game but with a lower FPS as the server it runs on is being hosted on your PC. Incidentally, you can also play the campaign in online multiplayer, which is pretty cool. Find a dedicated server for it, join, and you can partake in a multiplayer campaign mode!
34,523,644
My Xcode is telling me: > > "Could not find developer disk image," > > > when I am trying to load the app onto an iPhone 6 running ios 9.2 and my Xcode is Version 7.1 (7B91b)
2015/12/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34523644", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5729402/" ]
If you have iOS 9.2 on your phone, just download xcode 7.2 beta instead of using older version. Upgraded your Xcode to 7.2 beta by downloading it from the [Xcode website](https://developer.apple.com/xcode/download/)
Whenever a new update of iOS is released, Apple releases a new version of Xcode too. This new version of Xcode contains the developer disk image necessary to run your projects on latest iOS. The solution to your problem is to update to the latest version of Xcode or copy the developer disk image folder. Right click on new version of Xcode -> select "Show Package Contents" -> select "Contents" -> select "Developer" -> select "Plateforms" -> select "iPhoneOS.Plateform" -> select "Device Support" -> copy the 10.0 folder. Right click on your Xcode -> select "Show Package Contents" -> select "Contents" -> select "Developer" -> select "Plateforms" -> select "iPhoneOS.Plateform" -> select "Device Support" -> now paste the disk image folder.
34,523,644
My Xcode is telling me: > > "Could not find developer disk image," > > > when I am trying to load the app onto an iPhone 6 running ios 9.2 and my Xcode is Version 7.1 (7B91b)
2015/12/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34523644", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5729402/" ]
If you have iOS 9.2 on your phone, just download xcode 7.2 beta instead of using older version. Upgraded your Xcode to 7.2 beta by downloading it from the [Xcode website](https://developer.apple.com/xcode/download/)
Older XCode version has no developer disk image for newer iOS version. If you don't want upgrade XCode you can find ready developer disk images for latest versions in this answer: <https://stackoverflow.com/a/39865199/286361>
1,355,647
I've heard of events and SO answers "bubbling up", but what has all that got to do with bubbles?
2009/08/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1355647", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41021/" ]
Event bubbling is the idea of information moving up through a deep structure, when proper design dictates that normally information should only flow downward. In very basic terms, think of a single object. Properly designed, this object should only know about its own child objects. It should have no direct interaction with its parent. Its children and parent objects, in turn, should follow the same rules. In effect, this means that information can only flow downward - a parent can invoke a method, send data into or extract data from its child, but the child cannot forcibly do the same to its parent. Think of what happens when you blow an air bubble underwater - you don't have to *push* the air towards the surface - you simply release it and it moves on its own. The same concept applies to event bubbling - deeper controls simply "release" their information - usually via an event - and it "floats" up the chain without directly invoking anything. With regard to a website like Stackoverflow (or practically any kind of site), the concept of bubbling is the same. Obviously each individual post ought not directly put itself on the home page, but when a single post has been updated, that event is released from the deepest point in the hierarchy - a single post - and floats up to eventually the top level, where it is dealt with (choosing whether or not to display on the home page).
If you are asking about the term, I guess it is an analogy to an event 'bubbling' up to the top, like an air bubble does in liquid. If you are asking what event bubbling is it is an event that is caught by one object that will refire it to any other objects that are listening to it. To quote a good article [here](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa719644(VS.71).aspx) > > ... a technique called event bubbling > that allows a child control to > propagate events up its containment > hierarchy. Event bubbling enables > events to be raised from a more > convenient location in the controls > hierarchy and allows event handlers to > be attached to the original control as > well as to the control that exposes > the bubbled event. > > >
148,924
I'm completely new to working with SharePoint and Windows Server, but last week I was given a small brief to play with SharePoint 2010 to see how I got along with it. Anyway I've set up a SharePoint server and had a mess around to get some new sites and pages created etc, but I'm now looking to have a try at importing some AD groups. As part of this I've look at these tutorials, [here](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee721049.aspx) and [here](http://sharepointgeorge.com/2010/configuring-the-user-profile-service-in-sharepoint-2010/). So far I've got through to the process of starting the User Profile Service which works fine, but when I get it starting the User Profile Synchronization service it sits on starting. But when I refresh the page or go to the monitoring section it shows it as aborted. Now I'm new to administering servers like I say and when I start the User Profile Synchronization service it tries to run as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE and asks for a password so I've been providing it with the admin password, now I'm not sure if this is part of the issue or not as I've checked the log files and they seem to say that it doesn't have permissions, which is fair enough, but I can't see how you can change the account even if I wanted to. So if anyone could help it would be appreciated, if you need any further information to help with an answer, just let me know.
2010/06/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/148924", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/25068/" ]
Just follow the instructions in this article and you'll be able to set it up successfully. <http://www.harbar.net/articles/sp2010ups.aspx>
Have you successfully setup the Managed Metadata service? Without it, the User Profile Synchronization Service will not start up and remain in a "starting" state.
148,924
I'm completely new to working with SharePoint and Windows Server, but last week I was given a small brief to play with SharePoint 2010 to see how I got along with it. Anyway I've set up a SharePoint server and had a mess around to get some new sites and pages created etc, but I'm now looking to have a try at importing some AD groups. As part of this I've look at these tutorials, [here](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee721049.aspx) and [here](http://sharepointgeorge.com/2010/configuring-the-user-profile-service-in-sharepoint-2010/). So far I've got through to the process of starting the User Profile Service which works fine, but when I get it starting the User Profile Synchronization service it sits on starting. But when I refresh the page or go to the monitoring section it shows it as aborted. Now I'm new to administering servers like I say and when I start the User Profile Synchronization service it tries to run as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE and asks for a password so I've been providing it with the admin password, now I'm not sure if this is part of the issue or not as I've checked the log files and they seem to say that it doesn't have permissions, which is fair enough, but I can't see how you can change the account even if I wanted to. So if anyone could help it would be appreciated, if you need any further information to help with an answer, just let me know.
2010/06/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/148924", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/25068/" ]
Just follow the instructions in this article and you'll be able to set it up successfully. <http://www.harbar.net/articles/sp2010ups.aspx>
I actually fell into TWO traps when I provisioned SQL for my SharePoint 2010 farm, and both traps were not very well documented either my Spence Harbar's famous UPS article (mentions it) or by Technet (no mention AFAIK). First of all I set up a named instance of SQL Server, like SERVERNAME\SHAREPOINT. Then I used the SQL server's FQDN (servername.domain.name\SHAREPOINT) name when I installed SharePoint, which is another thing the UPS can't handle. I tried a lot of troubleshooting, but in the end was forced to reinstall SQL and SharePoint. Had a lot of trouble with uninstalling Office Web Apps and SharePoint and in the end I'm stuck with a trouble-ridden SharePoint install and only a few days until deadline. Oh well, it could be worse.. :) Anyways, DON'T use SQL named instance OR SQL FQDN if you think you'll ever provision UPS, that's my point. Both work perfectly in all other scenarios, but you never know, do you.. :)
457,527
I fail to see why everybody thinks that something is erased in the famous Delayed Choice Quantum Eraser experiment (see <https://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/9903047.pdf> and <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed-choice_quantum_eraser>). According the paper, the interference patterns that arrive at D1 and D2 are shifted by pi. That is, if you add the interference patterns together, the pattern is the same as the pattern for detectors D3 and D4. Therefore, if you look only at D0, then no interference pattern is visible, not for the photons whose peer arrive at D3 and D4, but also not for the photons whose peer arrive at D1 or D2. This is different from the normal double slit experiment. Therefore, isn't it equally valid to say that the interference is always there, also for the photons that arrive at D3 or D4? We just don't detect it in that case, because we only look at only one of the possible paths and don't combine them together. It is the beamsplitter BSc for D1 and D2 which makes the interference pattern visible. That is, no information is erased, and there is no need to transfer information from D1/2/3/4 to D0. **Edit:** expressed in a different way: if I would remove the D3/D4 mirrors, and let all photons go through to D1/D2, it would clearly show that there is an interference pattern in D0 for all photons. Setting back the D3/D4 mirrors, redirecting 50% of the photons, would change nothing at the D0 side; the photons would still hit at exactly the same place at D0 as before. That is, the interference pattern would still be there, we just would not have enough information to detect it afterwards. What is wrong with this interpretation of the results? And if this interpretation can be valid, why is this such a controversial experiment? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)
2019/01/29
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/457527", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/101743/" ]
I think the best way to understand this equation $E=mc^{2}$ is just reinterpret the mass a another kind of energy. If you do this, you are still able to say that energy can't be created. Actually in general relativity to talk about a conserved quantity one normally form a tensor first and then identify a conserved quantity. In the case of the energy, the tensor is the stress–energy tensor which has a close relationship with the mass of a body or field.
No, because mass can't be created in a way that it violates the law of energy-conservation. Take as an example the color confinement. It says, that you can't observe one single quark, because the energy necessary to do so would be large enough that another hadron is created.
457,527
I fail to see why everybody thinks that something is erased in the famous Delayed Choice Quantum Eraser experiment (see <https://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/9903047.pdf> and <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed-choice_quantum_eraser>). According the paper, the interference patterns that arrive at D1 and D2 are shifted by pi. That is, if you add the interference patterns together, the pattern is the same as the pattern for detectors D3 and D4. Therefore, if you look only at D0, then no interference pattern is visible, not for the photons whose peer arrive at D3 and D4, but also not for the photons whose peer arrive at D1 or D2. This is different from the normal double slit experiment. Therefore, isn't it equally valid to say that the interference is always there, also for the photons that arrive at D3 or D4? We just don't detect it in that case, because we only look at only one of the possible paths and don't combine them together. It is the beamsplitter BSc for D1 and D2 which makes the interference pattern visible. That is, no information is erased, and there is no need to transfer information from D1/2/3/4 to D0. **Edit:** expressed in a different way: if I would remove the D3/D4 mirrors, and let all photons go through to D1/D2, it would clearly show that there is an interference pattern in D0 for all photons. Setting back the D3/D4 mirrors, redirecting 50% of the photons, would change nothing at the D0 side; the photons would still hit at exactly the same place at D0 as before. That is, the interference pattern would still be there, we just would not have enough information to detect it afterwards. What is wrong with this interpretation of the results? And if this interpretation can be valid, why is this such a controversial experiment? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)
2019/01/29
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/457527", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/101743/" ]
I think the best way to understand this equation $E=mc^{2}$ is just reinterpret the mass a another kind of energy. If you do this, you are still able to say that energy can't be created. Actually in general relativity to talk about a conserved quantity one normally form a tensor first and then identify a conserved quantity. In the case of the energy, the tensor is the stress–energy tensor which has a close relationship with the mass of a body or field.
When it is said that "Energy cannot be created" what is actually meant is, "Energy cannot be created from nothing.". The reason that energy cannot be created is that in your example the energy already existed locked in the mass. You started with something. In your example E=mc^2 the energy in principle can be converted back into mass. This can be done as many times as you please. Now, if you did this conversion back and forth ten times, would you say that you had created ten times the energy of the original mass?
457,527
I fail to see why everybody thinks that something is erased in the famous Delayed Choice Quantum Eraser experiment (see <https://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/9903047.pdf> and <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed-choice_quantum_eraser>). According the paper, the interference patterns that arrive at D1 and D2 are shifted by pi. That is, if you add the interference patterns together, the pattern is the same as the pattern for detectors D3 and D4. Therefore, if you look only at D0, then no interference pattern is visible, not for the photons whose peer arrive at D3 and D4, but also not for the photons whose peer arrive at D1 or D2. This is different from the normal double slit experiment. Therefore, isn't it equally valid to say that the interference is always there, also for the photons that arrive at D3 or D4? We just don't detect it in that case, because we only look at only one of the possible paths and don't combine them together. It is the beamsplitter BSc for D1 and D2 which makes the interference pattern visible. That is, no information is erased, and there is no need to transfer information from D1/2/3/4 to D0. **Edit:** expressed in a different way: if I would remove the D3/D4 mirrors, and let all photons go through to D1/D2, it would clearly show that there is an interference pattern in D0 for all photons. Setting back the D3/D4 mirrors, redirecting 50% of the photons, would change nothing at the D0 side; the photons would still hit at exactly the same place at D0 as before. That is, the interference pattern would still be there, we just would not have enough information to detect it afterwards. What is wrong with this interpretation of the results? And if this interpretation can be valid, why is this such a controversial experiment? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5EWO1.png)
2019/01/29
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/457527", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/101743/" ]
I think the best way to understand this equation $E=mc^{2}$ is just reinterpret the mass a another kind of energy. If you do this, you are still able to say that energy can't be created. Actually in general relativity to talk about a conserved quantity one normally form a tensor first and then identify a conserved quantity. In the case of the energy, the tensor is the stress–energy tensor which has a close relationship with the mass of a body or field.
> > From the mass-energy equivalence E=m(c\*c), it can be seen that energy can be created and it is not converted from one form of energy. > > > Have you checked what this m is in the famous equation? m is the [relativistic mass,](http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/Relativ/tdil.html#c3) and is not an invariant. [![relmas](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tsZ3y.gif)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tsZ3y.gif) It depends on velocity, and kinetic energy depends on velocity too,it is what happens to the inertial mass, the mass in F=ma, at relativistic velocities but a useful formula only for space ships going at relativistic velocity. In particle physics the the concept of relativistic mass is not used because of the confusion in terms it introduces. One works with [four vectors](http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/Relativ/vec4.html) of energy and momentum, where energy and momentum are conserved quantities and $m\_0$ is the invariant mass of the particle or system of particles described by the four vector, which does not change. [![energymom](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cbRP2.gif)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cbRP2.gif) > > The length of this 4-vector is the rest energy of the particle. The invariance is associated with the fact that the rest mass is the same in any inertial frame of reference > > >
14,724
I am a fan of [Devil May Cry](http://devilmaycry.com/). In Devil May Cry 4, the highest rank for fighting is called *smokin' sick style*. Here, it seems that *smokin'* is used as an adverb. I guess it is derived from the usage of the *f* word. Is it acceptable to take an *-ing* word as an adverb, which is commonly used as an adjective? Are there any other examples? ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VfBzr.jpg)
2011/03/02
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14724", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
It it's not uncommon to see such words used as adverbs. The word *fucking* and its many euphemisms furnish us the prime examples of this. > > This is fucking great. > > > Don't be so frickin' stupid. > > > Learn to bleepin' drive! > > > But there are other examples that don't involve profanity: > > It's boiling hot outside. > > > Put on a jacket. It's freezing cold. > > > These use cases, as you see, all involve intensifiers of some kind. That's how *smokin'* works in your example. All the example words may be used as adjectives as well.
Smoking is a normal adjective meaning great. Smokin' is just a way to make it more *slangy*, like *friggin'* and *smokin' hot babe* for example I even saw this: > > Smoking or Smokin', a slang term for > overtaking other vehicles in > motor-sport events > > >
152,819
> > **Possible Duplicate:** > > [Apache or NGINX for PHP?](https://serverfault.com/questions/99454/apache-or-nginx-for-php) > > > Hi, i have searched for this around the web and i can't find the right answer for my question. basically i want to know if i can get better performance with nginx than with apache (in php apps), and i'm not involving static content (where i know nginx is better). the sites are a widely collection of scripts with a lot of variables, using old not OOP oriented code and new websites using classes and smarty. the sites are very dynamic, changes parts in each request. i want to avoid suing nginx for static content and apache for php, so for that i;m asking, if it worth the transition in performance terms. my main confusion comes where i have seen benchmarks using wordpress and wp-supercache plugin, that could make it better for nginx than a custom sites with the features i already described. i have seen other benchmarks that just not show a big difference between them (around 5%) thanks in advance for any help :D Regards, Shadow.
2010/06/19
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/152819", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46260/" ]
What do you mean by 'performance'? Does it mean maximum throughput on a very busy server or does it mean fast pageloads for individual pages? Apache is rarely the limiting factor (some settings may improve performance 'tough). Usually the real load lies with php or mysql, and then usually badly constructed queries or useless work. Where nginx shines compared to apache 1 and 2 is in handling many concurrent connections (idle or busy). It also makes server paradigms possible that are not available on other webservers. It does not magically improve the performance of PHP/MySQL. Stopgap measures probably more worth your time than nginx are a php opcode cacher (apc) and the mysql query cache. Other than that I'd start profiling and fixing the code. For faster pageloads you will have most benefit from modifying the way the site works, see for example the yahoo performance blog.
Considering the breadth of applications of PHP, as well as any other web-serving scripting language, each website can behave very different. I strongly recommend creating two different servers and comparing their stats for your own use. As different websites can have different uses for their tech.
88,798
I saw [*The Pursuit Of Happyness* (2006)](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0454921/) three times but I can't understand what was the actual happiness? Can anybody help me?
2018/05/08
[ "https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/88798", "https://movies.stackexchange.com", "https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/63936/" ]
The title of the movie actually comes from a sign at the day care that his son went to. Chris (Smith) complains to the teacher that the word "Happiness" is misspelled. Later on, Chris explains: > > It was right then that I started thinking about Thomas Jefferson on > the Declaration of Independence and the part about our right to life, > liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. And I remember thinking how did > he know to put the pursuit part in there? That maybe happiness is > something that we can only pursue and maybe we can actually never have > it. No matter what. How did he know that? > > > The happiness that Chris pursues is the luxury that he sees; the box seats at a 49ers game, the mansions, the nice cars. He wants all of this for himself and for his son, especially after tasting homelessness.
**Chris himself says it in the movie** > > It was right then that I started thinking about Thomas Jefferson on the Declaration of Independence and the part about our right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. And I remember thinking how did he know to put the pursuit part in there? That maybe happiness is something that we can only pursue and maybe we can actually never have it. No matter what. How did he know that? > > > Pursuit of Happiness is like something which we have to get and it is a kind of thing which must be pursued; we don't simply get it. In the title itself it suggests that Chris pursues the happiness because what we do in our life for earning ultimately our goal is to get the happiness in the end. Also, happiness is kind of something which can be started from the inside of yourself.
17,102
I would like to use a view field (node reference to an og group, configured to display a teaser) as rendered node inside a view and display the view to anonymous users. Do you know how to achieve this result ? PS. Currently I can display it for admin user but for non-admin users the view field doesn't appear.
2011/12/09
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/17102", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/2916/" ]
If it is working for admins, but not for non admins, you problem is most likely permission. Do the users have permission to see the node? Maybe they need a special permission to see nodes via relationships? To fix this, you need to tweak your permissions. If you want to change the way a field is rendered, either on an entity or in a view, you need to create what's called a field formatter, which essentially is a theming function for fields.
If you have the field\_permissions module installed make sure you check the settings for your view field and that the "view any value for field x" is checked for Anonymous users.
17,102
I would like to use a view field (node reference to an og group, configured to display a teaser) as rendered node inside a view and display the view to anonymous users. Do you know how to achieve this result ? PS. Currently I can display it for admin user but for non-admin users the view field doesn't appear.
2011/12/09
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/17102", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/2916/" ]
If it is working for admins, but not for non admins, you problem is most likely permission. Do the users have permission to see the node? Maybe they need a special permission to see nodes via relationships? To fix this, you need to tweak your permissions. If you want to change the way a field is rendered, either on an entity or in a view, you need to create what's called a field formatter, which essentially is a theming function for fields.
Try dumping the node, and see if there are any fields that your anonymous users can't see.
17,102
I would like to use a view field (node reference to an og group, configured to display a teaser) as rendered node inside a view and display the view to anonymous users. Do you know how to achieve this result ? PS. Currently I can display it for admin user but for non-admin users the view field doesn't appear.
2011/12/09
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/17102", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/2916/" ]
If it is working for admins, but not for non admins, you problem is most likely permission. Do the users have permission to see the node? Maybe they need a special permission to see nodes via relationships? To fix this, you need to tweak your permissions. If you want to change the way a field is rendered, either on an entity or in a view, you need to create what's called a field formatter, which essentially is a theming function for fields.
The display suite extras module creates a lot of field specific permissions. If some fields are missing, maybe its because the ds permission was not properly set. **View Title on Node** is a new permission, for example. In my installation it was not set for anonymous users.
17,102
I would like to use a view field (node reference to an og group, configured to display a teaser) as rendered node inside a view and display the view to anonymous users. Do you know how to achieve this result ? PS. Currently I can display it for admin user but for non-admin users the view field doesn't appear.
2011/12/09
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/17102", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/2916/" ]
If you have the field\_permissions module installed make sure you check the settings for your view field and that the "view any value for field x" is checked for Anonymous users.
Try dumping the node, and see if there are any fields that your anonymous users can't see.
17,102
I would like to use a view field (node reference to an og group, configured to display a teaser) as rendered node inside a view and display the view to anonymous users. Do you know how to achieve this result ? PS. Currently I can display it for admin user but for non-admin users the view field doesn't appear.
2011/12/09
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/17102", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/2916/" ]
If you have the field\_permissions module installed make sure you check the settings for your view field and that the "view any value for field x" is checked for Anonymous users.
The display suite extras module creates a lot of field specific permissions. If some fields are missing, maybe its because the ds permission was not properly set. **View Title on Node** is a new permission, for example. In my installation it was not set for anonymous users.
8,411
If my main crontab runs the magento cron.php every 30 mins and i have a cron job set in a modules config.xml to run every 15 mins. Will that mean the modules cron gets run: 1. Once every 30 mins 2. Twice every 30 mins
2013/09/24
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/8411", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/783/" ]
There are a swath of configuration options for cron in the Magento admin under System Configuration -> System -> Cron. The one titled "Missed if Not Run Within" is, by default, set to 15 minutes and will affect what you're trying to determine. With this set at it's default of 15 minutes… …the job scheduled for every 15 with crontab executing every 30 would (theoretically) be run only once per 30 minutes with the job scheduled for the 15 minute mark being marked as missed. However, this cannot be relied on, as the timing of the cron cycle being off by a few seconds could land it occasionally within the 15 minute period and run it twice in one cycle. So don't *rely* on it only running once every 30 minutes. My suggestion would be to set the crontab to run every 5 minutes, then control the jobs actual scheduling using the [AOE Scheduler](http://www.magentocommerce.com/magento-connect/aoe-scheduler.html) module... which I've heard so much about, but haven't yet used it much myself. :)
I would say once. But dont understand why you run cron.php only every 30 min instead of every min.
42,397
**Is it possible to defeat software keyloggers?** I remember reading long ago about programs run from a USB which will defeat keyloggers. The software works (if I remember correctly) by intercepting keyboard events to the system, and randomly replacing your keystrokes with random keys, and then counteracting the randomness with a backspace or copy and paste type algorithm. Does this kind of software exist, and is it reliable? I'm sure a dedicated attacker could read his/her logs, but for use in a library or other public location this approach could seemingly work.
2013/09/13
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/42397", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/30108/" ]
The generic issue with such countermeasures is that they defeat only *some* keyloggers, and are themselves defeated by the next generation of keyloggers. In this case, it would be easy for a keylogger to take into account the backspace events (the keylogger sees all keyboard events, so in it sees backspaces) to rebuild the actual password. In fact existing key loggers should already do that, because *human users* use the backspace key occasionally, too ! Another generic issue with an anti-keylogger software is that it is *software*. A software keylogger, in order to enact its malevolent functionality, must intercept keypress events, and this requires privileged access to the operating system, at least administrator-level. An evil piece of code which obtains such access will not necessarily stop there; it may also scan for the launch of known anti-keylogger software and deactivate it. Malware and virus do that in general, against anti-malware and anti-virus software. An additional reason why a keylogger would block out your envisioned anti-keylogger software is that keylogger writers generally dislike competition -- if they find other keyloggers from their fellow keylogger writers, they promptly kick them out. Your anti-keylogger software, from the outside, really looks like a keylogger, since it intercepts keypress events; it is then likely to be deactivated by another keylogger which just wants the monopoly of key logging. Therefore, if software such as you describe exists at all, then it cannot be considered as reliable. It might enjoy some partial success against a few keyloggers, but this won't last.
About the only consistent protection - other than all the usual precautions about protecting your computer from malware - is a **hardware two-factor authentication dongle** (à la SecureID). This way if a software or hardware keylogger exists, your security has collapsed into one-factor authentication instead of *zero*-factor authentication. The equivalent of a hardware dongle can be created by having a seeded pRNG on a mobile device. The Battle.Net authenticator for example. This assumes the malware is only on one of your computing devices - not both. In either case, this protection from keyloggers is website-specific (or single sign-on equivalents) as the two-factor authentication needs to be recognised on the server-side. Protecting the decryption of assets residing on the same device as the malware is impossible without some seriously [compartmentalised hardware modules](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trusted_Computing), or a weak malware infection to begin with.
10,451,261
I have a database that I constantly need to restore. Every time I do so, all the users that have access to DB are deleted and I have to manually add them again. Is there any way that I can restore the DB but the users remain intact or any script that I run before/after the restore so that I don't have to manually add all the users again?
2012/05/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10451261", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1243271/" ]
Before the restore, you can script the users as they currently exist. In object explorer, expand the database, expand security, highlight the users node and click f8 (object explorer details). In object explorer details, select the users you want to keep, right click and script as create to new window, clipboard etc. Now run the restore, and when the restore is complete, run the script from above. If this is all happening on the same server, should work just fine as I described. If these are different servers, you may want to look into synchronizing server-level logins first.
Before you restore the database, use this script to script the logins and passwords: [How to transfer logins and passwords between instances of SQL Server](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/918992) Then, after you restore the database, execute the created script to re-create the logins
531,043
We have a Server 2008 R2 DC that is generating Event ID 10009 - "DCOM was unable to communicate with the computer X using any of the configured protocol." I found this question: [Event ID 10009 on Server 2008 R2 DCOM was unable to communicate with computer X](https://serverfault.com/questions/266214/event-id-10009-on-server-2008-r2-dcom-was-unable-to-communicate-with-computer-x). The only difference for me is that I know what the "computers" are. They are all our networking gear: switches, routers, firewall, WAPs etc. Why would our DC being trying to contact network equipment via DCOM? And is there any way to stop it? It's really annoying seeing thousands of errors a day in the event log.
2013/08/14
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/531043", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/117291/" ]
I did a bit of research and found an interesting technet blog article from MS about the ID 10009 DCOM Troubleshooting. It does give the reason of the DCOM attempts, but explains you what is triggering the DCOM call and gives tips on getting rid of it. In the same article (comments section from the blog team), it's suggested to run tools like Network Monitor and Process Monitor, look at which process keeps sending failured RPC requests to identify which application is culprit in your scenario. Hope it helps sources : <http://blogs.msdn.com/b/asiatech/archive/2010/03/16/how-to-troubleshoot-dcom-10009-error-logged-in-system-event.aspx>
The possible causes explained above are valid and useful in common troubleshootings. Also duplicated/obsolete DNS records or firewall misconfigurations at the workstation level could lead to DCOM event ID 10009. In my case, this type of error started to appear every 30 minutes (01:00, 01:30 and so on, the whole day) and most of the workstations that the server failed to connect to were powered off. After digging a lot and by chance, I just find a simple solution: Stop (and set to manual startup) the Windows SBS Manager service. Server is SBS 2011 with Exchange/DC/DNS/DHCP but I really don’t use the SBS Console, so finally no more polling errors.
239,300
I need to convert a bundle of static HTML documents into a single PDF file programmatically on the server side on a Java/J2EE platform using a batch process preferably. The pdf files would be distributed to site users for offline browsing of the web pages. The major points of the requirements are: 1. The banner at the top should not be present in the final pdf document. 2. The navigation bar on the left should be transformed into pdf bookmarks from html hyperlinks. 3. All hyperlinked contents (html/pdf/doc/docx etc.) present in the web pages should be part of the final pdf document with pdf bookmarks. Is there any standard open source way of doing this?
2008/10/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/239300", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
Try [Apache FOP](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/). I just used it to [convert XML to PDF](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/212577/how-do-you-create-a-pdf-from-xml-in-java) and I think you can do the same with HTML/DOM. The website has [a whole section](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/0.95/embedding.html) on running FOP in a Java application and there's [example code for DOM to PDF](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/0.95/embedding.html#ExampleDOM2PDF).
You can try [iText](http://www.lowagie.com/iText) - but I am not sure whether it handles all that you require. Moreover, it is always better if you explore many options and then decide what you can and cannot do. In many cases there won't be any library/API that will out of the box support all that you ask for.
239,300
I need to convert a bundle of static HTML documents into a single PDF file programmatically on the server side on a Java/J2EE platform using a batch process preferably. The pdf files would be distributed to site users for offline browsing of the web pages. The major points of the requirements are: 1. The banner at the top should not be present in the final pdf document. 2. The navigation bar on the left should be transformed into pdf bookmarks from html hyperlinks. 3. All hyperlinked contents (html/pdf/doc/docx etc.) present in the web pages should be part of the final pdf document with pdf bookmarks. Is there any standard open source way of doing this?
2008/10/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/239300", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
Try [Apache FOP](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/). I just used it to [convert XML to PDF](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/212577/how-do-you-create-a-pdf-from-xml-in-java) and I think you can do the same with HTML/DOM. The website has [a whole section](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/0.95/embedding.html) on running FOP in a Java application and there's [example code for DOM to PDF](http://xmlgraphics.apache.org/fop/0.95/embedding.html#ExampleDOM2PDF).
You can try [www.alt-soft.com Xml2PDF](http://www.alt-soft.com) for this
20,339,867
Using Xcode do I need to create a new file for each view when it is connected to a button? Or does it work fine with just keeping the app under one h and m file?
2013/12/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20339867", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2727065/" ]
Create a new file for each view. This will give you a new .h and .m file. Using MVC or single app view.
iOS app development follow the model-view-control design pattern, and as such, you should always create a new control (.m and .h file) for each new view.
226,297
In a linear voltage regulator like a TO-220: does Kirchhoff current law apply? What is the equation for the three currents flowing? In other words, what is the relation between I1, I2, I3 in the below circuit? (by I2 I mean the current flowing from pin 1 to pin 2 (GND) ) And is I2 a fixed value? How can I find I2 in data sheet? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Mia4y.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Mia4y.png)
2016/04/04
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/226297", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/16307/" ]
I'm going to make a few assumptions here, I'm going to assume that by I2 you mean the current flowing to GND from the voltage regulator. In a linear voltage regulator (I've used an L7805 as the example for this answer) your output current is always going to be: ![I3 = I1 - I2](https://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?I_%7B3%7D&space;=&space;I_%7B1%7D&space;-&space;I_%7B2%7D) Where I3 is your output current, I1 is your input current and I2 is the current flowing to ground, also known in the datasheet as the **quiescent current**. This quiescent current value changes slightly depending on your application but it is mainly a set value. For the case of an L7805 it is ~6mA. Quiescent current is defined as the difference between the input an output currents. This is the value that I think you're after. Lower the quiescent current, higher the efficiency, although apart from specific or close to tolerance applications it is usually considered negligible
As the 78xx series is based on a linear regulator design, the input current required is always the same as the output current. As the input voltage must always be higher than the output voltage, this means that the total power (voltage multiplied by current) going into the 78xx will be more than the output power provided. The difference is dissipated as heat. This means both that for some applications an adequate heatsink must be provided, and also that a (often substantial) portion of the input power is wasted during the process, rendering them less efficient than some other types of power supplies. When the input voltage is significantly higher than the regulated output voltage (for example, powering a 7805 using a 24 volt power source), this inefficiency can be a significant issue.
23,339
I have to buy a Raspberry Pi to control a monitor remotely. 1. Can I install software like [TeamViewer](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TeamViewer) on Raspberry Pi? 2. Can I connect the Raspberry Pi via wireless or LAN? 3. Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?
2014/09/17
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/23339", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/20370/" ]
1. "*Can I install software like TeamViewer on Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, use a [VNC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Network_Computing) server. 2. "*Can I connect via wireless or LAN to the Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, and you can even do both at the same time. 3. "*Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, if you mean a USB Wi-Fi dongle.
TeamViewer can be installed on the Raspberry Pi using Eltechs Exagear. [Here](http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/) is description how to do it.
23,339
I have to buy a Raspberry Pi to control a monitor remotely. 1. Can I install software like [TeamViewer](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TeamViewer) on Raspberry Pi? 2. Can I connect the Raspberry Pi via wireless or LAN? 3. Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?
2014/09/17
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/23339", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/20370/" ]
1. "*Can I install software like TeamViewer on Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, use a [VNC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Network_Computing) server. 2. "*Can I connect via wireless or LAN to the Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, and you can even do both at the same time. 3. "*Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?*" Yes, if you mean a USB Wi-Fi dongle.
<http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/> Try with ExaGear! "TeamViewer is pretty popular remote access software but unfortunately it is not available for ARM-based devices such as Raspberry Pi 2. Fortunately there is a way to run TeamViewer on Raspberry Pi 2 using ExaGear Desktop which allows to run x86 apps on Raspberry Pi 2."
23,339
I have to buy a Raspberry Pi to control a monitor remotely. 1. Can I install software like [TeamViewer](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TeamViewer) on Raspberry Pi? 2. Can I connect the Raspberry Pi via wireless or LAN? 3. Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?
2014/09/17
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/23339", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/20370/" ]
TeamViewer cannot be used on the Raspberry Pi at this time. They do not have a build for it. You can install a [VNC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Network_Computing) server, and that would be your simplest option. You would have no issues connecting on your LAN, however if you wanted to connect remotely, you would need to set up port forwarding. An alternative to port forwarding would be to use a NeoRouter or Logmein Hamachi, both of which can be installed on the Raspberry Pi. (The software would also need to be installed on the machine that you are using to connect to it.)
TeamViewer can be installed on the Raspberry Pi using Eltechs Exagear. [Here](http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/) is description how to do it.
23,339
I have to buy a Raspberry Pi to control a monitor remotely. 1. Can I install software like [TeamViewer](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TeamViewer) on Raspberry Pi? 2. Can I connect the Raspberry Pi via wireless or LAN? 3. Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?
2014/09/17
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/23339", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/20370/" ]
TeamViewer cannot be used on the Raspberry Pi at this time. They do not have a build for it. You can install a [VNC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Network_Computing) server, and that would be your simplest option. You would have no issues connecting on your LAN, however if you wanted to connect remotely, you would need to set up port forwarding. An alternative to port forwarding would be to use a NeoRouter or Logmein Hamachi, both of which can be installed on the Raspberry Pi. (The software would also need to be installed on the machine that you are using to connect to it.)
<http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/> Try with ExaGear! "TeamViewer is pretty popular remote access software but unfortunately it is not available for ARM-based devices such as Raspberry Pi 2. Fortunately there is a way to run TeamViewer on Raspberry Pi 2 using ExaGear Desktop which allows to run x86 apps on Raspberry Pi 2."
23,339
I have to buy a Raspberry Pi to control a monitor remotely. 1. Can I install software like [TeamViewer](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TeamViewer) on Raspberry Pi? 2. Can I connect the Raspberry Pi via wireless or LAN? 3. Can I connect an Internet key to a Raspberry Pi?
2014/09/17
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/23339", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/20370/" ]
TeamViewer can be installed on the Raspberry Pi using Eltechs Exagear. [Here](http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/) is description how to do it.
<http://eltechs.com/run-teamviewer-on-raspberry-pi/> Try with ExaGear! "TeamViewer is pretty popular remote access software but unfortunately it is not available for ARM-based devices such as Raspberry Pi 2. Fortunately there is a way to run TeamViewer on Raspberry Pi 2 using ExaGear Desktop which allows to run x86 apps on Raspberry Pi 2."
152,230
I am looking at Target's recent earnings release which can be found at the following URL:[Earnings Release](https://investors.target.com/static-files/85e1a5b3-0b6b-4352-834a-0770e25a530f). On page five it show two types of revenue: sales and other revenue. What does other revenue represent?
2022/08/19
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/152230", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/35177/" ]
It means revenue from other business activities that aren't substantial enough to warrant their own line items. [Target's latest 10-K](https://investors.target.com/static-files/105534b6-2fe3-4ab2-840d-c0ae9ef84a91) provides some detail about what is included: > > Other – Includes advertising, Shipt membership and service revenues, > commissions earned on third-party sales through Target.com, rental > income, and other miscellaneous revenues. > > >
Generally, companies talk a lot about their mainline revenue sources, i.e. revenue that derives from *the business they are trying to be in*. However, you get incidental revenue from every darn thing. Say you buy a parcel of land for a future distribution center, and the land has a USDA conservation easement (in which USDA pays you a small amount not to farm it). But, the plans do not pan out that year. You take the USDA income with a smile, it is 0.002% of your total revenue. But now, you are writing your annual report to stockholders in which you describe your revenue *in a limited number of words*. Are you going to take 3 paragraphs explaining what the USDA program is, which properties benefit from it, state the pittance it earns, *and then open the can of worms of why you own farmland and why the distribution center is not being built?* Absolutely not in a general report. Other random income sources are things like easements, sublets (buying a strip mall to get the anchor store location, or CVS at Target), tax abatements or tax credits (say that rooftop solar system you installed in the San Bernadino location), etc. It's just the random effluvia of being in business, and it isn't worth wasting the stockholders' time to break it all out. Of course if someone asks, you'll give them chapter and verse.
152,230
I am looking at Target's recent earnings release which can be found at the following URL:[Earnings Release](https://investors.target.com/static-files/85e1a5b3-0b6b-4352-834a-0770e25a530f). On page five it show two types of revenue: sales and other revenue. What does other revenue represent?
2022/08/19
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/152230", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/35177/" ]
Are you asking "What specifically does Target mean by Other Revenue" or are you asking "What might a company like Target mean by Other Revenue"? Given that Other Revenue appears to be only 1.5% of Sales, it is unlikely that Target provides a specific breakdown of the types of other revenue they might receive. Typically, companies would provide more detail in annual reports than in quarterly reports. So if you go back to the [2021 annual report](https://investors.target.com/static-files/836c7937-1e68-4445-aa98-9a19448f4334) and go to page 11, there is this paragraph > > We also sell merchandise through periodic exclusive design and > creative partnerships, and shop-in-shop experiences, with partners > such as Apple, Disney, Levi's, and Ulta Beauty, and generate revenue > from in-store amenities such as Target Café, Starbucks, and Target > Optical. CVS Pharmacy, Inc. (CVS) operates pharmacies and clinics in > our stores under a perpetual operating agreement from which we > generate annual occupancy income. > > > At least some of their Other Revenue comes from CVS leasing space in Target stores for pharmacies and clinics. Realistically, they're also getting revenue from these other partnerships. In any given quarter, they might recognize revenue from other random sources-- selling land they had purchased, gains on currency hedging transactions, etc.
Generally, companies talk a lot about their mainline revenue sources, i.e. revenue that derives from *the business they are trying to be in*. However, you get incidental revenue from every darn thing. Say you buy a parcel of land for a future distribution center, and the land has a USDA conservation easement (in which USDA pays you a small amount not to farm it). But, the plans do not pan out that year. You take the USDA income with a smile, it is 0.002% of your total revenue. But now, you are writing your annual report to stockholders in which you describe your revenue *in a limited number of words*. Are you going to take 3 paragraphs explaining what the USDA program is, which properties benefit from it, state the pittance it earns, *and then open the can of worms of why you own farmland and why the distribution center is not being built?* Absolutely not in a general report. Other random income sources are things like easements, sublets (buying a strip mall to get the anchor store location, or CVS at Target), tax abatements or tax credits (say that rooftop solar system you installed in the San Bernadino location), etc. It's just the random effluvia of being in business, and it isn't worth wasting the stockholders' time to break it all out. Of course if someone asks, you'll give them chapter and verse.
22,927
I have seen some rockabilly gigs where people actually **stand on the double bass**. For instance: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ankj5.jpg) and How is this possible? I haven't tried it myself, but if I try to stand on my double bass, I'm pretty sure it's going to be wrecked.
2014/08/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/22927", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7356/" ]
Effectively, the image and video prove that a double bass is stronger than you imagine. There are angles at which you wouldn't want to step on a double bass, but at the positions shown, it will safely hold an average weight person. You wouldn't want to try this with an expensive instrument, but a rockabilly bassist is unlikely to be using a high-end bass. Subtleties of tone are not important in this kind of music, and there's a certain thrift-shop glamour to having a beaten-up instrument.
Some double-basses are made with solid wood sides and back, which are quite fragile. Other less-expensive basses have sides and back made of pressed laminated wood (plywood) which is much stronger although not as good with regard to tone. I believe that some basses have a pressed laminate wood top as well. If you want to stand or sit on your bass, get the laminated-wood kind!
22,927
I have seen some rockabilly gigs where people actually **stand on the double bass**. For instance: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ankj5.jpg) and How is this possible? I haven't tried it myself, but if I try to stand on my double bass, I'm pretty sure it's going to be wrecked.
2014/08/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/22927", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7356/" ]
Effectively, the image and video prove that a double bass is stronger than you imagine. There are angles at which you wouldn't want to step on a double bass, but at the positions shown, it will safely hold an average weight person. You wouldn't want to try this with an expensive instrument, but a rockabilly bassist is unlikely to be using a high-end bass. Subtleties of tone are not important in this kind of music, and there's a certain thrift-shop glamour to having a beaten-up instrument.
I have been told that "Reinforced upright basses" are the kind that are strong enough to be stood on, and for rock gigs are better because they have less feedback than a nonreinforced upright bass. However, to get a nice reinforced one I have been told is around 4,000, although I know you can get them for cheaper if you aren't worried about the quality. I have no experience with upright basses, but I am an electric bassist and asked someone I know who plays upright basses and that is what he told me.
22,927
I have seen some rockabilly gigs where people actually **stand on the double bass**. For instance: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ankj5.jpg) and How is this possible? I haven't tried it myself, but if I try to stand on my double bass, I'm pretty sure it's going to be wrecked.
2014/08/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/22927", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7356/" ]
Effectively, the image and video prove that a double bass is stronger than you imagine. There are angles at which you wouldn't want to step on a double bass, but at the positions shown, it will safely hold an average weight person. You wouldn't want to try this with an expensive instrument, but a rockabilly bassist is unlikely to be using a high-end bass. Subtleties of tone are not important in this kind of music, and there's a certain thrift-shop glamour to having a beaten-up instrument.
The Alcoa Aluminum Basses made from 1928-1932 are perfect for standing on. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ge7mu.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ge7mu.png)
22,927
I have seen some rockabilly gigs where people actually **stand on the double bass**. For instance: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ankj5.jpg) and How is this possible? I haven't tried it myself, but if I try to stand on my double bass, I'm pretty sure it's going to be wrecked.
2014/08/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/22927", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7356/" ]
Some double-basses are made with solid wood sides and back, which are quite fragile. Other less-expensive basses have sides and back made of pressed laminated wood (plywood) which is much stronger although not as good with regard to tone. I believe that some basses have a pressed laminate wood top as well. If you want to stand or sit on your bass, get the laminated-wood kind!
I have been told that "Reinforced upright basses" are the kind that are strong enough to be stood on, and for rock gigs are better because they have less feedback than a nonreinforced upright bass. However, to get a nice reinforced one I have been told is around 4,000, although I know you can get them for cheaper if you aren't worried about the quality. I have no experience with upright basses, but I am an electric bassist and asked someone I know who plays upright basses and that is what he told me.
22,927
I have seen some rockabilly gigs where people actually **stand on the double bass**. For instance: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ankj5.jpg) and How is this possible? I haven't tried it myself, but if I try to stand on my double bass, I'm pretty sure it's going to be wrecked.
2014/08/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/22927", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7356/" ]
Some double-basses are made with solid wood sides and back, which are quite fragile. Other less-expensive basses have sides and back made of pressed laminated wood (plywood) which is much stronger although not as good with regard to tone. I believe that some basses have a pressed laminate wood top as well. If you want to stand or sit on your bass, get the laminated-wood kind!
The Alcoa Aluminum Basses made from 1928-1932 are perfect for standing on. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ge7mu.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ge7mu.png)
79,788
Is there a way to rewrite a subject of an Email on the receiving MTA (presumably at the Spam Filtering stage). An example would be if giving Email accounts to young children where certain words need to be blocked/X'd out (Profanity, etc.). Currently using postfix, sendmail, and spamassassin on Linux. Thank you.
2009/10/30
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/79788", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/-1/" ]
You could do that pretty easily with procmail (and formail.) You could also inspect the contents (message body) at that stage as well. See: <http://john.ellingsworth.org/?p=16>
Postfix [header\_checks](http://www.postfix.org/header_checks.5.html) is what you need. For example, with this line you can replace every subject which contains a bad word of your choice: > > /^Subject:.\*bad word.\*/ REPLACE Subject: Censored > > > Moreover you can drop, redirect or filter bad letters.
580,372
I am researching iPhone image libraries. I am looking for a lightweight image library that will compile on an iPhone. Have any libraries such as ImageMagick been ported? What image libraries would be best suited for the iPhone? The image library should be suited to do black & white, sepia tone, saturation filters, and more sophisticated effects such as oil painting, etc. Thank you in advance.
2009/02/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/580372", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/36609/" ]
The iPhone SDK comes with a very good image library, Core Graphics. From the SDK Documentation: > > The Core Graphics framework is a > C-based API that provides low-level, > lightweight 2D rendering with superb > output fidelity. Use this framework, > which is based on the Quartz drawing > engine, for path-based drawing, > anti-aliased rendering, gradients, > images, color management, > coordinate-space transformations, and > PDF document handling. > > > Check Out: <http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/navigation/Topics/GraphicsAnimation/index.html> And :<http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/navigation/Frameworks/Media/CoreGraphics/index.html> (Login required for both).
I believe there has been some success porting ImageMagick it to iOS: <http://www.imagemagick.org/discourse-server/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=14089>
580,372
I am researching iPhone image libraries. I am looking for a lightweight image library that will compile on an iPhone. Have any libraries such as ImageMagick been ported? What image libraries would be best suited for the iPhone? The image library should be suited to do black & white, sepia tone, saturation filters, and more sophisticated effects such as oil painting, etc. Thank you in advance.
2009/02/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/580372", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/36609/" ]
But Core Graphic won't do any of image filtering mention above. That's a part of Core Image, which is apparently missing from iPhone SDK.
I believe there has been some success porting ImageMagick it to iOS: <http://www.imagemagick.org/discourse-server/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=14089>
11,961
I am looking for sheet music for a particular song I'd like to sing with my choir. I tried googling and searching in some online shops but wasn't lucky. Is there some sort of specialized search engine, or catalog to search for choral sheet music? *-- Sidenote: I am looking for a general answer to the question 'How to search for choir sheet music?' But if anyone happens to know the choir arrangement I'm looking for, I'd be happy of course :-) The song is "Wonderful dream" (aka. Holidays are coming, the song Coca-Cola is using in their Christmas Commercial).*
2013/09/13
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/11961", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7053/" ]
The most extensive site is <http://www.cpdl.org> . There are also many chorale arrangements on IMSLP (<http://www.imslp.org/>) but that site also has orchestral, solo, opera, pieces, etc. CPDL is specifically focused on choral music. What you will not find on either site is most music published in the past 50 years (or since 1923 for American users) since that music is in copyright. For that music you will probably have to purchase it online.
The song "Wonderful Dream" was written by [Melanie Thornton](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Melanie_Thornton) (1967-2001). She was an American singer who had commercial success in Europe while remaining unknown in the USA; most published information about her seems to be from Germany. I found a [vocal solo and piano arrangement published by Hal Leonard](http://www.jwpepper.com/Wonderful-Dream/10355184E.item#.UjN3hRaq_d4). It appears to be out of print from Hal Leonard, but if you click on the link it will take you to the J.W. Pepper music distribution company in the US, which has copies for sale. It does not appear that there is a published choral arrangement. I live in the USA, and in this country, if there is a choral arrangement in print, it is highly likely that it will be for sale at jwpepper.com.
11,961
I am looking for sheet music for a particular song I'd like to sing with my choir. I tried googling and searching in some online shops but wasn't lucky. Is there some sort of specialized search engine, or catalog to search for choral sheet music? *-- Sidenote: I am looking for a general answer to the question 'How to search for choir sheet music?' But if anyone happens to know the choir arrangement I'm looking for, I'd be happy of course :-) The song is "Wonderful dream" (aka. Holidays are coming, the song Coca-Cola is using in their Christmas Commercial).*
2013/09/13
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/11961", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7053/" ]
The song "Wonderful Dream" was written by [Melanie Thornton](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Melanie_Thornton) (1967-2001). She was an American singer who had commercial success in Europe while remaining unknown in the USA; most published information about her seems to be from Germany. I found a [vocal solo and piano arrangement published by Hal Leonard](http://www.jwpepper.com/Wonderful-Dream/10355184E.item#.UjN3hRaq_d4). It appears to be out of print from Hal Leonard, but if you click on the link it will take you to the J.W. Pepper music distribution company in the US, which has copies for sale. It does not appear that there is a published choral arrangement. I live in the USA, and in this country, if there is a choral arrangement in print, it is highly likely that it will be for sale at jwpepper.com.
The sheet music with simple guitar chords and the vocal melody are in this link. <https://www.musicnotes.com/sheetmusic/mtd.asp?ppn=MN0119679>
11,961
I am looking for sheet music for a particular song I'd like to sing with my choir. I tried googling and searching in some online shops but wasn't lucky. Is there some sort of specialized search engine, or catalog to search for choral sheet music? *-- Sidenote: I am looking for a general answer to the question 'How to search for choir sheet music?' But if anyone happens to know the choir arrangement I'm looking for, I'd be happy of course :-) The song is "Wonderful dream" (aka. Holidays are coming, the song Coca-Cola is using in their Christmas Commercial).*
2013/09/13
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/11961", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/7053/" ]
The most extensive site is <http://www.cpdl.org> . There are also many chorale arrangements on IMSLP (<http://www.imslp.org/>) but that site also has orchestral, solo, opera, pieces, etc. CPDL is specifically focused on choral music. What you will not find on either site is most music published in the past 50 years (or since 1923 for American users) since that music is in copyright. For that music you will probably have to purchase it online.
The sheet music with simple guitar chords and the vocal melody are in this link. <https://www.musicnotes.com/sheetmusic/mtd.asp?ppn=MN0119679>
15,542
So in Dungeon World, there doesn't seem to be any stat for initiative or any structure to the sequence of moves that people can make. Is the game intended to be simply played "round robin", or do some people tend to make entire series of moves in a row, or what? I'm coming from games like D&D and Pathfinder, so the absence to a structure to the combat turn order is both refreshing and confusing.
2012/07/16
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/15542", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/732/" ]
It's up to the GM to direct turns in combat by switching between characters, often by asking "What do you do?" > > The easiest question to use is "What do you do?" Whenever you make a move, end with "What do you do?" You don't even have to ask the person you made the move against. Take that chance to shift the focus elsewhere: "Rath's spell is torn apart with a flick of the mage's wand. Finnegan, that spell was aiding you. What are you doing now that it's gone?" > > > The Example of Play chapter also demonstrates these transitions. I suspect the same character making multiple moves in a row is boring and goes against the **fill the characters' lives with adventure** agenda.
### Make the game more narrative! Even though you have turns, don't forget that in a round of combat all actions are contemporaneous. (In some rule-sets the terms "turn" and "round" have their meaning swapped... by the way the idea is the same...) In a round robin approach you can just collect all players' actions in a turn of combat and just explain what happens accordingly to what you (the GM) decide for NPCs/Environment to happen. Furthermore, players must always describe their in-game actions in order for a move to be triggered; for example, it's not permitted to say merely > > I perform **Hack and Slash** move on target Xavier. > > > but maybe something like > > *I attack Xavier with my broadsword paying attention to what Lucy does.* > > > Acting like this, the player can express his will to interact with Lucy the following **turn**. It's enough to keep in mind that you are **roleplaying** and not *playing a video game*.
15,542
So in Dungeon World, there doesn't seem to be any stat for initiative or any structure to the sequence of moves that people can make. Is the game intended to be simply played "round robin", or do some people tend to make entire series of moves in a row, or what? I'm coming from games like D&D and Pathfinder, so the absence to a structure to the combat turn order is both refreshing and confusing.
2012/07/16
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/15542", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/732/" ]
It's up to the GM to direct turns in combat by switching between characters, often by asking "What do you do?" > > The easiest question to use is "What do you do?" Whenever you make a move, end with "What do you do?" You don't even have to ask the person you made the move against. Take that chance to shift the focus elsewhere: "Rath's spell is torn apart with a flick of the mage's wand. Finnegan, that spell was aiding you. What are you doing now that it's gone?" > > > The Example of Play chapter also demonstrates these transitions. I suspect the same character making multiple moves in a row is boring and goes against the **fill the characters' lives with adventure** agenda.
I try to imagine the narrative of combat as being a bit like a soccer game. The spotlight is passed back and forth and sometimes intercepted. You want to make sure that everyone gets a chance, but remember, the GM's mandate is to always ask "What do you do?" and to be curious about the situation. Think about who each action might affect and ask them how they respond. Luckily, you only have half as many active members of a battle to think about - the monsters only go when the PCs look to you as if to say "well, what does the Ogre do now?" or when moves indicate they get to do something. The players will pick this rhythm up and start jumping in to have their say, too.
303,416
I have taken over all IT responsibilities for a company that is using Active Directory (2008 R2 native level) and Exchange 2010. I have come to find out that their internal Active Directory domain name is the same as an external internet domain name that they do not own. I understand that domain rename with Exchange 2010 / server 2008 r2 is not possible as far as I have read. Could someone help me to realize what other options may be available to me? They have quite a large infrastructure so moving to a new forest would be a massive job I would like to try to avoid if possible. Thank you in advance for your help.
2011/08/20
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/303416", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/43402/" ]
Domain rename with Exchange 2007/2010 is not supported by Microsoft. If you want to go this route, you will not be able to get any support from Microsoft, and there is a good change that your infrastructure will be damaged in some way. Most sites I have read on this say NOT to do this. So this leaves you with three options: 1)Do Nothing - This is the easiest of the three options. If the external domain is not something people are going to go to, then there is probably nothing to worry about. There may be some issues in getting UC/SAN certificates for Exchange, but the only issue I am aware of will be a security warning in Outlook when you're using the program inside your firewall. 2)Remove Exchange, then do a domain rename - I don't know what other AD-aware/AD-connected applications you have, so this may not be an option. How this works is that you take a long outage, back up your Exchange databases, remove Exchange from your environment, rename your domain, and then re-install Exchange and configure your environment. This would be a lot of work, and you would have no email during this outage. You would also need to extensively document your Exchange environment so that it is reconfigured with the same settings. 3)AD Migration - Create a new Active Directory forest and migrate all of your AD-objects to this domain. This will require the most work and the most testing to make sure that a migration doesn't break any of your applications. 3a)New AD Domain in the same forest - Some of the Microsoft material that I have read for my MCITP states that you can have discontiguous DNS naming structures in the same forest. This means that you can have one Active Directory forest with domains xyz.com and abc.local. This is a supported configuration for Microsoft Exchange 2010 (see <http://blogs.technet.com/b/exchange/archive/2009/10/27/3408616.aspx>), and it should allow you to solve your issue without a large-scale migration to a new forest. If you decide to make any major changes to your AD environment, I would recommend contacting a Microsoft partner to go over your scenario in greater detail than what you can provide here. There may be other caveats that you can't go into detail on that could hinder your project.
you just need to change CAS Name and Outlook error will disappear. follow the below article and set CAS name according to your DNS. <http://blogs.technet.com/b/danielkenyon-smith/archive/2010/05/13/the-name-on-the-certificate-is-invalid-or-does-not-match-the-name-of-the-site-part-2.aspx>
303,416
I have taken over all IT responsibilities for a company that is using Active Directory (2008 R2 native level) and Exchange 2010. I have come to find out that their internal Active Directory domain name is the same as an external internet domain name that they do not own. I understand that domain rename with Exchange 2010 / server 2008 r2 is not possible as far as I have read. Could someone help me to realize what other options may be available to me? They have quite a large infrastructure so moving to a new forest would be a massive job I would like to try to avoid if possible. Thank you in advance for your help.
2011/08/20
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/303416", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/43402/" ]
Domain rename with Exchange 2007/2010 is not supported by Microsoft. If you want to go this route, you will not be able to get any support from Microsoft, and there is a good change that your infrastructure will be damaged in some way. Most sites I have read on this say NOT to do this. So this leaves you with three options: 1)Do Nothing - This is the easiest of the three options. If the external domain is not something people are going to go to, then there is probably nothing to worry about. There may be some issues in getting UC/SAN certificates for Exchange, but the only issue I am aware of will be a security warning in Outlook when you're using the program inside your firewall. 2)Remove Exchange, then do a domain rename - I don't know what other AD-aware/AD-connected applications you have, so this may not be an option. How this works is that you take a long outage, back up your Exchange databases, remove Exchange from your environment, rename your domain, and then re-install Exchange and configure your environment. This would be a lot of work, and you would have no email during this outage. You would also need to extensively document your Exchange environment so that it is reconfigured with the same settings. 3)AD Migration - Create a new Active Directory forest and migrate all of your AD-objects to this domain. This will require the most work and the most testing to make sure that a migration doesn't break any of your applications. 3a)New AD Domain in the same forest - Some of the Microsoft material that I have read for my MCITP states that you can have discontiguous DNS naming structures in the same forest. This means that you can have one Active Directory forest with domains xyz.com and abc.local. This is a supported configuration for Microsoft Exchange 2010 (see <http://blogs.technet.com/b/exchange/archive/2009/10/27/3408616.aspx>), and it should allow you to solve your issue without a large-scale migration to a new forest. If you decide to make any major changes to your AD environment, I would recommend contacting a Microsoft partner to go over your scenario in greater detail than what you can provide here. There may be other caveats that you can't go into detail on that could hinder your project.
If you do not plan to change your active directory then it's so simple. Just change your route for CAS and make it your default SMTP and pop for sending and receiving mail. Another way is you can make an policy on your exchange to route over your new domain for your CAS
11,120,381
I have an android app that's been on the market for a while that i'm now overhauling. I'm using the new One x for testing, and noticed some weird things... 1. If i run the on my phone, click the home button so that the app goes to the background, i get the normal printouts i have in onPause etc. onDestroy does NOT get called, which makes you assume the process is still running. 2. However, when i go into settings/apps/running, it's not listed!! What i DO get a reoccuring printout every few seconds in the android log as long as i'm on the "running" screen: 06-20 15:04:42.435: INFO/RunningState(16694): Unknown non-service process: XXX #16558 3. If i then click on my app icon again, My lifecycle methods are called as if my app wasn't started, i.e. onCreate, onResume etc. gets called again!! I have no idea why this is, it doesn't happen on Galaxy2 or the Note, which i just tried, i get the "expected" lifecycle calls there. Anybody got any thoughts? To me it looks like something is broken in the phone, but i'm just one guy and i haven't found any other reports, so i can't understand how that could be the case... EDIT: also tested same code on the HTC Legend, no problems there...
2012/06/20
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11120381", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/917748/" ]
There's no garantee that onDestroy will be called when you exit / finish an activity: From <http://developer.android.com/reference/android/app/Activity.html#onDestroy()> > > There are situations where the system will simply kill the activity's hosting process without calling this method (or any others) in it, so it should not be used to do things that are intended to remain around after the process goes away. > > > Also see this thread here in SO [Activity OnDestroy never called?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4449955/ondestroy-never-called)
In Android ICS there are some new settings for developers, among them - "Don't keep activities". It is cleared by default, but your device might be configured in another way. Try switching this checkbox on/off and see what'd happen with your activity's lifecycle.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
Self Replicating Drones The enemy race drops a 3d printer/mobile factory on an asteroid. It starts building more of itself, and creates swarms of drones. It keeps doing this. Eventually there are so many drones you can't have a civilization anymore, either because enough of the mass of the solar system is converted into drones, or you give up and leave and the factories go into hibernation mode.
#### Spheres of cobalt 59 orbiting the sun The alien placed a lot of spheres of cobalt 59 in orbit around the Sun. The orbits are so eccentric that at the perihelion they graze the Sun surface and the heat ablates a layer of the surface, then the solar radiation turns it into cobalt 60. Now you have a very radioactive solar wind and, since those atoms were not in the plasma, many of them are not ionised therefore they can pass through the barrier of the Earth magnetic field.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
Self Replicating Drones The enemy race drops a 3d printer/mobile factory on an asteroid. It starts building more of itself, and creates swarms of drones. It keeps doing this. Eventually there are so many drones you can't have a civilization anymore, either because enough of the mass of the solar system is converted into drones, or you give up and leave and the factories go into hibernation mode.
A small stream of [strangelets](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/113655/21222) in a series of flyby trajectories around the sun will do the trick. As long as the sun is not touched, it is safe. Everything else becomes lethal to the touch. Since the ΔV from even Mercury to the Sun is immorally huge, the sun should be safe. Add to that, solar wind pushes stuff away from it... Over millenia other stars around the sun will be disassembled, but the Sun will be fine. As for the Earth, Moon, asteroids, comets... Each and every one of them will disintegrate. [Wikipedia, for example, says this could happen if even one strangeled touched the Earth:](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strangelet) > > This "ice-nine"-like disaster scenario is as follows: one strangelet hits a nucleus, catalyzing its immediate conversion to strange matter. This liberates energy, producing a larger, more stable strangelet, which in turn hits another nucleus, catalyzing its conversion to strange matter. In the end, all the nuclei of all the atoms of Earth are converted, and Earth is reduced to a hot, large lump of strange matter, the size of an asteroid. > > >
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
Self Replicating Drones The enemy race drops a 3d printer/mobile factory on an asteroid. It starts building more of itself, and creates swarms of drones. It keeps doing this. Eventually there are so many drones you can't have a civilization anymore, either because enough of the mass of the solar system is converted into drones, or you give up and leave and the factories go into hibernation mode.
I'm going to take a simplistic shot at this, forgive me if I don't 'color inside the lines'. In the OP "uninhabitable" and "diaspora" made me think that a civilization capable of such destruction would also likely have no issues with Biological weapons. In the basic premise of the pathogen seen in films like "Alien: Covenant", I suggest that a universally lethal-to-all virus/prion or other pathogen would fit the job. As a self-replicating, incurable weapon...deploy once, then step back and wait.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
**Rocks** Simply put you throw rocks at stuff you don't like. Fortunately our solar system is *full* of rocks just waiting around doing nothing, so we just grab a few (OK, more than a few) and direct them gently at the source of the problems (any inhabitable place) and wait for nature (and gravity) to takes it course. In the due course of time you can not only wipe out all life, but ensure it won't be producing or supporting any life for millions of years. Everyone wins.
Make other options more attractive. ----------------------------------- The only easy place to build inside our solar system is earth. Everything else kinda sucks. We could build a colony on Mars or some of the moons of Jupiter but it's pretty far from ideal. The only reason we consider it at all is because there aren't any other options we can reach. If this event got humanity in contact with other aliens, and provided FTL technology, then it may simply be that we don't return to our old home because Earth has been made uninhabitable in some way and ***there are so many better options now.*** Turns out the universe has loads of Earth-style planets with no intelligent race living on them so there's simply no reason to go build a domed Mars colony or deal with hostile atmospheres or cold climates. Just pick one of thousands of known, hospitable, unclaimed, Earth-like planets and starting the colony is far easier and cheaper.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
A small stream of [strangelets](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/113655/21222) in a series of flyby trajectories around the sun will do the trick. As long as the sun is not touched, it is safe. Everything else becomes lethal to the touch. Since the ΔV from even Mercury to the Sun is immorally huge, the sun should be safe. Add to that, solar wind pushes stuff away from it... Over millenia other stars around the sun will be disassembled, but the Sun will be fine. As for the Earth, Moon, asteroids, comets... Each and every one of them will disintegrate. [Wikipedia, for example, says this could happen if even one strangeled touched the Earth:](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strangelet) > > This "ice-nine"-like disaster scenario is as follows: one strangelet hits a nucleus, catalyzing its immediate conversion to strange matter. This liberates energy, producing a larger, more stable strangelet, which in turn hits another nucleus, catalyzing its conversion to strange matter. In the end, all the nuclei of all the atoms of Earth are converted, and Earth is reduced to a hot, large lump of strange matter, the size of an asteroid. > > >
They stole the Sun. ------------------- No, not *literally* - that takes too much power. But they have some basic technology that can tap into the Sun's own magnetic dynamo and spin a ball of magnetic plasma around the star - basically, turning it all into one giant sunspot. A sunspot which is very carefully calibrated and aimed to beam energy out on many specific vectors to projects the aliens have going in deep space. To the rest of the cosmos, the Sun is now a brown dwarf perhaps occasionally eclipsed by frozen planets with little if any gaseous atmosphere. The aliens do not believe in *enslaving* humans. The humans should be more than willing to spend their lives working for a small fraction of the energy they once thought of as falling free from the sky. A policy they can argue is entirely in line with native traditions, as several centuries of Earthly capitalism had assigned commons lands, unknown natural resources, even drinkable water to the powerful in much the same way.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
The answers all suggest multiple plausible ways to render the Solar System uninhabitable, but suffer from some flaws, such as requiring a long time frame to work, or require a great deal of resources. I will refine the process and suggest the aliens simply have to fire one RKKV (Relativistic Kinetic Kill Vehicle) into the Sun. Striking the sun with that amount of energy and using the extreme speed of the RKKV to deliver the energy deep into the Sun, many processes will be disrupted and the Sun will likely emit massive flares and other radiation events which will scour life from all exposed surfaces. Since the Sun will be unstable for years, there is really no hunkering down and waiting to fix the blasted surface installations, especially since we are talking about the sorts of flare events which would strip large portions of the atmosphere from the inner planets. Larry Niven's short story "Inconstant Moon" describes what such a scenario would look like from Earth. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H83uC.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H83uC.jpg) *Use SPF 10,000,000* <http://news.larryniven.net/biblio/display.asp?key=52> > > This story raises the question: How would you spend your last night on Earth? When the Moon suddenly starts shining brighter, Stan and Leslie realize the sun must have gone nova and they only have a few hours until the Earth rotates into the deadly sunshine. This story won a Hugo Award and was made into an episode of The Outer Limits. > > > As a possible bonus, after the flares settle down, the Sun may also go into a Maunder minimum, producing less energy and making any sort of biological or industrial recovery even more difficult. Even K2 civilizations have limits, so being able to deal with the opposition using only one RKKV is much more efficient than trying to strike every planet, moon and free flying object in the Solar System.
#### Spheres of cobalt 59 orbiting the sun The alien placed a lot of spheres of cobalt 59 in orbit around the Sun. The orbits are so eccentric that at the perihelion they graze the Sun surface and the heat ablates a layer of the surface, then the solar radiation turns it into cobalt 60. Now you have a very radioactive solar wind and, since those atoms were not in the plasma, many of them are not ionised therefore they can pass through the barrier of the Earth magnetic field.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
**Rocks** Simply put you throw rocks at stuff you don't like. Fortunately our solar system is *full* of rocks just waiting around doing nothing, so we just grab a few (OK, more than a few) and direct them gently at the source of the problems (any inhabitable place) and wait for nature (and gravity) to takes it course. In the due course of time you can not only wipe out all life, but ensure it won't be producing or supporting any life for millions of years. Everyone wins.
Destabilise Pluto, setting off a series of disasters ---------------------------------------------------- With a small change of orbit, Pluto can be made to viciously slingshot around Neptune. It hurtles towards the inner solar system and wrecks Earth. In the meantime, Neptune's orbit now brings it into collision with Uranus and eventually Saturn and Jupiter. The Solar System is now the Solar Splat, and mankind can't even decide if it began with the aliens altering the orbit of a planet or not. Depending on the details, mankind gets weeks or a few years to get out of the area as Earth and the colonies are destroyed in sequence.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
**Rocks** Simply put you throw rocks at stuff you don't like. Fortunately our solar system is *full* of rocks just waiting around doing nothing, so we just grab a few (OK, more than a few) and direct them gently at the source of the problems (any inhabitable place) and wait for nature (and gravity) to takes it course. In the due course of time you can not only wipe out all life, but ensure it won't be producing or supporting any life for millions of years. Everyone wins.
A small stream of [strangelets](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/113655/21222) in a series of flyby trajectories around the sun will do the trick. As long as the sun is not touched, it is safe. Everything else becomes lethal to the touch. Since the ΔV from even Mercury to the Sun is immorally huge, the sun should be safe. Add to that, solar wind pushes stuff away from it... Over millenia other stars around the sun will be disassembled, but the Sun will be fine. As for the Earth, Moon, asteroids, comets... Each and every one of them will disintegrate. [Wikipedia, for example, says this could happen if even one strangeled touched the Earth:](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strangelet) > > This "ice-nine"-like disaster scenario is as follows: one strangelet hits a nucleus, catalyzing its immediate conversion to strange matter. This liberates energy, producing a larger, more stable strangelet, which in turn hits another nucleus, catalyzing its conversion to strange matter. In the end, all the nuclei of all the atoms of Earth are converted, and Earth is reduced to a hot, large lump of strange matter, the size of an asteroid. > > >
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
Let's turn our thinking around. Instead of asking, "how could alien attacks send humanity into a diaspora?" we can ask, "what would aliens do if they *wanted* to scatter humanity like this?" Say, for instance, the aliens don't want to permanently ruin the worlds that the humans have colonized (because those worlds could be used by the aliens down the line), but they want to keep the humans off of them for a while. I've come up with a machine that could do the trick. It's a massive, self-powered vehicle the aliens have developed, which burrows into a world's surface once it lands on the least-defended area of the planet. Once deep in the planet's mantle, it sends out extremely powerful EM pulses constantly, which disrupt electronics all over the planet but dissipate harmlessly at larger ranges. Any human habitats on the planet will immediately lose life support and become uninhabitable, forcing an evacuation or worse. The humans can't just move to another location on the planet, because these EM pulses don't stop. Perhaps with some ingenuity, they could build Faraday-cage-enclosed habitats, but it would be dangerous setting that up in the first place while that machine is still running, given that all of humanity's habitat-building tools are themselves electronic. But couldn't the humans just destroy the device, you ask? Well, sure, maybe they could get a high-power enough laser from far away enough in space to vaporize a hole all the way down and destroy it, or something like that. But that takes a lot of time and a lot of resources. Maybe some governments were working on just such a solution, and the aliens eradicated them before they could finish. These planet-wide EM-producing digging machines are, of course, very expensive for the aliens as well, so it makes sense that they only sent them against the main human settlements, and have spared the scattered outposts.
**Rocks** Simply put you throw rocks at stuff you don't like. Fortunately our solar system is *full* of rocks just waiting around doing nothing, so we just grab a few (OK, more than a few) and direct them gently at the source of the problems (any inhabitable place) and wait for nature (and gravity) to takes it course. In the due course of time you can not only wipe out all life, but ensure it won't be producing or supporting any life for millions of years. Everyone wins.
148,771
For the Universe I am creating humanity has devolved into groups of scattered tribes. This is due to the fact that we ran afoul of a *really* nasty alien race, who decided to leave us homeless. A coalition of races had banded together to fight this menace, but mankind ended up with the short end of the stick. It is the Great *Diaspora*, and we are only hanging on by our fingernails. The problem I am having is how to thoroughly destroy or at the very least render uninhabitable the places Man once called home. If it were only Earth it would be a simple enough matter, but by the time the attack takes place he *also* has colonies on Luna, Mars, Ceres, Callisto, and Titan. How can I muck them up badly enough that we have to now seek a Promised Land elsewhere? Ceres I figure is small enough it could just be reduced to rubble, but what about Luna? If you destroy the colony there, what would prevent them from setting up new ones a few hundred miles away? At the moment all I can think of is a "Gray Goo" weapon, short of blasting multiple planets and moons to smithereens. I am hoping there is another option out there I haven't considered. EDIT: I'd like to hold onto the Sun. You know, sentimental reasons. :)
2019/06/11
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/148771", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/49249/" ]
So, to take a stab at this, destabilization of the oort cloud, millions upon billions of icy debris, with a vast number of objects over the size of 1km. A dead star swinging by the very edge of our system could easily dislodge of a few billion kilometer long pieces of ice. Just for good measure there could be ancient dormant prions, as mentioned in a previous post, that inhabit them. Fast forward a bit and you literally have an entire solar system getting pelted nonstop by large glaciers filled with deadly viruses/bacteria, or whatever you want them to be, quickly causing the entire solar system to go to shit. This would take care of pretty much any base that's not heavily armored, even if it is, just chuck a few hundred abnormally large iceballs at it. Lastly, for the long term, instead of rebuilding, just say that with the billions of asteroids that are being swept up, it'll be a few hundred years before its cleaned up enough to not have to worry about being on the surface of a planet. Either that or viruses.
Destabilise Pluto, setting off a series of disasters ---------------------------------------------------- With a small change of orbit, Pluto can be made to viciously slingshot around Neptune. It hurtles towards the inner solar system and wrecks Earth. In the meantime, Neptune's orbit now brings it into collision with Uranus and eventually Saturn and Jupiter. The Solar System is now the Solar Splat, and mankind can't even decide if it began with the aliens altering the orbit of a planet or not. Depending on the details, mankind gets weeks or a few years to get out of the area as Earth and the colonies are destroyed in sequence.
27,185,371
I've been looking into securing videos, and one thing I've run into is the concept of encrypting the output of a video source file. This happens after the user is authenticated and access granted (for example RTMPE is one of the instances of such encryption). What I don't get is why this serves any useful point at all for DRM purposes - and I'm not talking about RTMPE in specific, I just mean encryption of any sort at all from a server to client perspective. After all, if I am granted access to the video, and now I'm playing it and setting it to whatever the maximum resolution is, assuming different resolutions are behind different paywalls, I could just open up OBS, record my desktop at 5000 kbps, and get an amazing rip - and encryption would do absolutely nothing to hinder me, because I'm totally bypassing the fact that I can't easily download it directly. So my question is, why bother with encryption on videos? It wouldn't prevent automated video farming as long as proper user credentials are presented either I think? And furthermore, there's a sort of downside in that all the encryption technologies as far as I can find available for web usage has compatibility with one device class or another, such as RTMPE not working on iOS, which is pretty well used. I presume there would also be more battery life issues, as I tend to run out of battery much faster when playing Flash videos rather than HTML5. So, why not just authenticate and stream it straight up over, say, html5 without any encryption?
2014/11/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/27185371", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/776029/" ]
The hardware infrastructure used for A series VM is not suitable for D series VM. It might be possible that the cluster where the VM is hosted, has the hardware configuration required for creating A series VM alone. However if you would still want to change from A series to D series VM, you will have to export disks and create a new VM using the previously saved disks. Going forward as a workaround: when you create your very first VM in your Cloud Service, be sure to specify one of the D-SERIES size even if you do not need it immediately. Doing this, your Cloud Service will be “tied” to a cluster that will support both A-SERIES (except A8/A9) and D-SERIES, then for all the future VMs contained in the same Cloud Service. Now, you can create additional A-SERIES VMs and mix together in the same Cloud Service. If you do not need the first D-SERIES VM, you can now safely delete it.
If the D-series machines are not available due to the cluster, you can always delete the vm (preserve the disks) and create a new VM of the D-series and attach the existing disks to that system. When you create the new VM, choose the option to 'create from template' and the select your OS disk from the 'My Disks' section. Then attach all the data disks to the VM once it's provisioned.
5,699,962
Is it possible to use a C++Builder DLL in a VC++ application using load-time linking? If so, how is this done? I tried to build the VC++ application against my C++Builder .lib file, but got an error indicating that VC++ thought the .lib file was corrupt. Is it possible to generate a VC++-friendly .lib file? Or is there an easier way than this?
2011/04/18
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5699962", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/220192/" ]
We ended up doing it using the "Stubbing Out Functions" method described here: <http://support.microsoft.com/kb/131313>
Borland/CodeGear/Embarcadero IDEs include an IMPLIB.EXE command-line tool to generate a compatible import .lib file from a .dll file. See if VC++ has a similar tool.
53,692,576
I'm developing a web application where the backend, developed in spring boot, consumes data from a public API that returns data in JSON. The search is done through terms, full-text (like a google), the backend receives from the application frontend to the user's query, which in turn searches the public API, waits for a response, handles the information and sends it to the frontend. I wanted to implement the caching system in the backend, Spring Boot. Basically, before the spring boot makes a call to the API publishes and wait for the response, it checks on a key/value system if the search has already been done in the past, if yes, return what is in the value of the key. The caching system: * Key: terms of search, Value: json with API public response. * It has to persist data, not be volatile. * It has to be a key-value search (cache). * It has to be updated by a system other than the described one that updates the data of the cache, verifying if the data was changed in the base (Public API). Initially I thought of using a NoSQL database, such as mongoDB. But after investigating better, I came across Redis. What do you think is best? I would like to ask some suggestions to implement this architecture. I'm not sure how to implement it, I doubt both Redis or MongoDB or other. Thanks.
2018/12/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/53692576", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2989745/" ]
I am not sure cache will help you much in this case, because of different forms of search words. If you need to protect your backend from multiple executions of the same query, you can use [Spring Cache](https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/boot-features-caching.html). It supports different providers including Redis and has [evict mechanism](https://docs.spring.io/spring/docs/5.1.3.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/integration.html#cache-annotations-evict)
You can use MemCache. It's ready system for caching.
8,240,422
I build two apps first app com.pakname.pak1 and the second with com.pakname.pak2 package name, then I got one key mykey.keystore. What happens if I sign the both apps with the same key and publish them to the android market ? is this good habit ? I guess is not but I do not get the point of signing apps from same company with different keys. can someone explain me this kind of scenario Thanks
2011/11/23
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8240422", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/706780/" ]
Read this Signing Strategies Some aspects of application signing may affect how you approach the development of your application, especially if you are planning to release multiple applications. In general, the recommended strategy for all developers is to sign all of your applications with the same certificate, throughout the expected lifespan of your applications. There are several reasons why you should do so: * Application upgrade – As you release updates to your application, you will want to continue to sign the updates with the same certificate or set of certificates, if you want users to upgrade seamlessly to the new version. When the system is installing an update to an application, it compares the certificate(s) in the new version with those in the existing version. If the certificates match exactly, including both the certificate data and order, then the system allows the update. If you sign the new version without using matching certificates, you will also need to assign a different package name to the application — in this case, the user installs the new version as a completely new application. * Application modularity – The Android system allows applications that are signed by the same certificate to run in the same process, if the applications so requests, so that the system treats them as a single application. In this way you can deploy your application in modules, and users can update each of the modules independently if needed. * Code/data sharing through permissions . The Android system provides signature-based permissions enforcement, so that an application can expose functionality to another application that is signed with a specified certificate. By signing multiple applications with the same certificate and using signature-based permissions checks, your applications can share code and data in a secure manner.
On the Market the really important things are package name and versioning. If you try to upload two different package names for the same app, you'll drop in a grey zone full of pain :( Second one, if you try to upload twice the same app forgetting to update version, the Market will refuse your upload and you have to rebuild your app changing the version. Finally, I use the same keystore and the same signature for my apps without issues :)
10,791
Right now, I use visual svn on my server, and have ankhsvn/tortoise on my personal machine. It works fine enough, and I don't have to change, but if I can see some benefits of using a DVCS, then I might give it a go. However, if there's no point or difference using it without other people, then I won't bother. So again, I ask, are there any benefits to using a DVCS when you're the only developer?
2010/10/10
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/10791", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1554/" ]
Yes! I think the biggest benefit is the better branching + merging support offered by many DVCSes. Branching and merging is kind of a pain in the ass in SVN; it's annoying enough that it's not worth the time to create small, short-lived branches for quick feature additions, bug fixes, or experimentation, but merging is also annoying enough that it's a pain to create long-lived branches as well. On the other hand, branching and merging is a breeze in Git, so much so that I create a (local) branch for nearly every bug fix or feature I work on. I think the tools offered by Git for visualizing repos, grepping logs, etc., are a lot better than in SVN, too (although that's more a Git thing than specific to a DVCS). A DVCS also doesn't require a central server; when using SVN as a developer, you have to create a local repo to push into, which isn't a requirement with Git, since every repo contains the full history. As a corollary, archiving a repo is just a matter of zipping up your project -- there's no "central database" to back up. I started using Git nearly four years ago, after using SVN for a while, and I haven't looked back.
Well, the default answer would be, "If (whatever you're using now) works for you, why would you change?". But, yes, even if there is no reason for a change, I find using DVCS somewhat easier than the "older models". The following goes for *[Mercurial](http://mercurial.selenic.com/)*, which I use the most, so your mileage may vary, depending on which system you're going to use. * really easy to use - I figured out all the commands I need in an hour or so * everything is local (you don't need the remote server to be online) * very easy branching / merging - you don't even think about those things anymore * easy cloning (also, a type of branching) - and generally, a much more user friendly interface (I found it more enjoyable than git's on windows; also some concepts are simpler; i.e. don't require thinking on my side, therefore leading to less fiddling with VS and more work done) * works nice with svn [Jumping gate to an intro to Mercurial](http://hginit.com/) and a [blog (pretty colours ;-) with useful tips](http://hgtip.com/).
10,791
Right now, I use visual svn on my server, and have ankhsvn/tortoise on my personal machine. It works fine enough, and I don't have to change, but if I can see some benefits of using a DVCS, then I might give it a go. However, if there's no point or difference using it without other people, then I won't bother. So again, I ask, are there any benefits to using a DVCS when you're the only developer?
2010/10/10
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/10791", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1554/" ]
Yes! I think the biggest benefit is the better branching + merging support offered by many DVCSes. Branching and merging is kind of a pain in the ass in SVN; it's annoying enough that it's not worth the time to create small, short-lived branches for quick feature additions, bug fixes, or experimentation, but merging is also annoying enough that it's a pain to create long-lived branches as well. On the other hand, branching and merging is a breeze in Git, so much so that I create a (local) branch for nearly every bug fix or feature I work on. I think the tools offered by Git for visualizing repos, grepping logs, etc., are a lot better than in SVN, too (although that's more a Git thing than specific to a DVCS). A DVCS also doesn't require a central server; when using SVN as a developer, you have to create a local repo to push into, which isn't a requirement with Git, since every repo contains the full history. As a corollary, archiving a repo is just a matter of zipping up your project -- there's no "central database" to back up. I started using Git nearly four years ago, after using SVN for a while, and I haven't looked back.
My mother turns off the modem when it is too late to sleep. DVCS allows me to continue to work with VCS after modem is off.
10,791
Right now, I use visual svn on my server, and have ankhsvn/tortoise on my personal machine. It works fine enough, and I don't have to change, but if I can see some benefits of using a DVCS, then I might give it a go. However, if there's no point or difference using it without other people, then I won't bother. So again, I ask, are there any benefits to using a DVCS when you're the only developer?
2010/10/10
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/10791", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/1554/" ]
My mother turns off the modem when it is too late to sleep. DVCS allows me to continue to work with VCS after modem is off.
Well, the default answer would be, "If (whatever you're using now) works for you, why would you change?". But, yes, even if there is no reason for a change, I find using DVCS somewhat easier than the "older models". The following goes for *[Mercurial](http://mercurial.selenic.com/)*, which I use the most, so your mileage may vary, depending on which system you're going to use. * really easy to use - I figured out all the commands I need in an hour or so * everything is local (you don't need the remote server to be online) * very easy branching / merging - you don't even think about those things anymore * easy cloning (also, a type of branching) - and generally, a much more user friendly interface (I found it more enjoyable than git's on windows; also some concepts are simpler; i.e. don't require thinking on my side, therefore leading to less fiddling with VS and more work done) * works nice with svn [Jumping gate to an intro to Mercurial](http://hginit.com/) and a [blog (pretty colours ;-) with useful tips](http://hgtip.com/).
64,059
Humans have the tendency to get [certain prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuru_(disease)) when eating human flesh. It's known animals can get [prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bovine_spongiform_encephalopathy) as well. Does cannibalism among other animal species also make them more susceptible to get a prion disease, and are there distinctions between mammals doing so and other orders like reptiles, birds, fish etc.?
2017/07/26
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/64059", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/29751/" ]
It is perhaps worth looking into more historically established prion diseases in noncarnivorous animals, like sheep. If prion diseases were *only* transmitted by consuming prion-rich brain tissue, then they should be extremely rare (produced via unique misfolding events or mutations in affected individuals) or completely absent in wild herbivores and domestic herbivores which are not being fed meat meal. In fact, I mention scrapie because it [predates the practice of supplementing livestock feed](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Heiner_Fangerau/publication/23415231_The_early_history_of_the_transmissible_spongiform_encephalopathies_exemplified_by_scrapie/links/09e415088379596a2f000000.pdf) with meat-derived protein. (The first documented mention of the disease dates back to about 1772 and mentions that the disease is about 40 years old at that point.) As it happens, the earliest mention of livestock feed or feed supplements being composed of meat and bone meal I can find dates to [about 1890](https://www.researchgate.net/publication/291389679_Review_of_the_feed_industry_from_a_historical_perspective_and_implications_for_its_future). Prion diseases also appear in wild populations of elk and deer in the form of [Chronic Wasting Disease](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3309570/), currently a big problem in the northern US and Canada, as well as in cattle and sheep. **So how did scrapie come to be such a problem for European sheep farmers?** Well, for one thing, scrapie (and CWD) can be transmitted via [ectoparasites](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Omar_Lupi/publication/7848496_Risk_analysis_of_ectoparasites_acting_as_vectors_for_chronic_wasting_disease/links/570d210108aed31341cf7129/Risk-analysis-of-ectoparasites-acting-as-vectors-for-chronic-wasting-disease.pdf). But the most common culprit probably lies in the soil. It turns out that [infectious prions can survive for *years* in soil](http://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0000435) once they're deposited. Not only is the decomposition of a carcass a way to infect the soil with the misfolded prions, but CWD proteins are also [present in the excreta of infected animals](http://pubs.acs.org/doi/full/10.1021/es903520d) and even [antler velvet](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2687044/). This is a problem, because both scrapie and CWD can be acquired simply by [consuming infected soil or grazing on grass containing it](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3323154/). This is most likely the most common way that these prion diseases are acquired naturally--not cannibalism at all, or at least not the sort we commonly think of! It's a simple fecal-oral route of transmission, albeit one with an alarmingly long potential incubation period.
An individual (animal or human) acquires a prion disease when they consume meat that contains prions (proteins that are mishapen enough to drastically change their functionality), which subsequently causes proteins within the individual to misfold into the same shape as the prion, resulting in a whole slew of problems. **As of right now, there is little knowledge of where prions come from/how they're formed. Also, there is little knowledge of how inter-species infections/transmissions occur.** Researchers are currently investigating various combinations of inter-species transmissions, such as humans eating infected horse meat, or cats eating infected chicken meat, but still know only very little about this phenomenon. To say which species have higher rates of prion disease when looking at a cannibalist communities within that species, I don't think we're anywhere near close to making those conclusions, and the same goes for inter-species transmissions. All the best.
64,059
Humans have the tendency to get [certain prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuru_(disease)) when eating human flesh. It's known animals can get [prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bovine_spongiform_encephalopathy) as well. Does cannibalism among other animal species also make them more susceptible to get a prion disease, and are there distinctions between mammals doing so and other orders like reptiles, birds, fish etc.?
2017/07/26
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/64059", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/29751/" ]
An individual (animal or human) acquires a prion disease when they consume meat that contains prions (proteins that are mishapen enough to drastically change their functionality), which subsequently causes proteins within the individual to misfold into the same shape as the prion, resulting in a whole slew of problems. **As of right now, there is little knowledge of where prions come from/how they're formed. Also, there is little knowledge of how inter-species infections/transmissions occur.** Researchers are currently investigating various combinations of inter-species transmissions, such as humans eating infected horse meat, or cats eating infected chicken meat, but still know only very little about this phenomenon. To say which species have higher rates of prion disease when looking at a cannibalist communities within that species, I don't think we're anywhere near close to making those conclusions, and the same goes for inter-species transmissions. All the best.
Dr. Dean O'Del was on radio with a syndicated health show in the 1990s during the BSE/Mad Cow scares, where he cautioned that the use of bone meal on roses or plants as the heat of making bone meal did not destroy the prions until it was burnt to charcoal carbon. Given scant evidence for grass from contaminated soil might also have the prions in the grass for how sheep might get and transmit it, lowering the odds of eating prions still would require a totally plant based diet given the vast numbers of animals mixed into processed meat products like Pink Slime and deviled meat or ham, & a organic diet given that, only a spontaneous and rare mis-folded protein would start the 40 year incubation towards Alzheimer's and vCJV. Both scrapie and CWD can be acquired simply by consuming infected soil or grazing on grass containing it. This is most likely the most common way that these prion diseases are acquired naturally--not cannibalism at all, or at least not the sort we commonly think of! It's a simple fecal-oral route of transmission, albeit one with an alarmingly long potential incubation period.
64,059
Humans have the tendency to get [certain prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuru_(disease)) when eating human flesh. It's known animals can get [prion diseases](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bovine_spongiform_encephalopathy) as well. Does cannibalism among other animal species also make them more susceptible to get a prion disease, and are there distinctions between mammals doing so and other orders like reptiles, birds, fish etc.?
2017/07/26
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/64059", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/29751/" ]
It is perhaps worth looking into more historically established prion diseases in noncarnivorous animals, like sheep. If prion diseases were *only* transmitted by consuming prion-rich brain tissue, then they should be extremely rare (produced via unique misfolding events or mutations in affected individuals) or completely absent in wild herbivores and domestic herbivores which are not being fed meat meal. In fact, I mention scrapie because it [predates the practice of supplementing livestock feed](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Heiner_Fangerau/publication/23415231_The_early_history_of_the_transmissible_spongiform_encephalopathies_exemplified_by_scrapie/links/09e415088379596a2f000000.pdf) with meat-derived protein. (The first documented mention of the disease dates back to about 1772 and mentions that the disease is about 40 years old at that point.) As it happens, the earliest mention of livestock feed or feed supplements being composed of meat and bone meal I can find dates to [about 1890](https://www.researchgate.net/publication/291389679_Review_of_the_feed_industry_from_a_historical_perspective_and_implications_for_its_future). Prion diseases also appear in wild populations of elk and deer in the form of [Chronic Wasting Disease](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3309570/), currently a big problem in the northern US and Canada, as well as in cattle and sheep. **So how did scrapie come to be such a problem for European sheep farmers?** Well, for one thing, scrapie (and CWD) can be transmitted via [ectoparasites](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Omar_Lupi/publication/7848496_Risk_analysis_of_ectoparasites_acting_as_vectors_for_chronic_wasting_disease/links/570d210108aed31341cf7129/Risk-analysis-of-ectoparasites-acting-as-vectors-for-chronic-wasting-disease.pdf). But the most common culprit probably lies in the soil. It turns out that [infectious prions can survive for *years* in soil](http://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0000435) once they're deposited. Not only is the decomposition of a carcass a way to infect the soil with the misfolded prions, but CWD proteins are also [present in the excreta of infected animals](http://pubs.acs.org/doi/full/10.1021/es903520d) and even [antler velvet](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2687044/). This is a problem, because both scrapie and CWD can be acquired simply by [consuming infected soil or grazing on grass containing it](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3323154/). This is most likely the most common way that these prion diseases are acquired naturally--not cannibalism at all, or at least not the sort we commonly think of! It's a simple fecal-oral route of transmission, albeit one with an alarmingly long potential incubation period.
Dr. Dean O'Del was on radio with a syndicated health show in the 1990s during the BSE/Mad Cow scares, where he cautioned that the use of bone meal on roses or plants as the heat of making bone meal did not destroy the prions until it was burnt to charcoal carbon. Given scant evidence for grass from contaminated soil might also have the prions in the grass for how sheep might get and transmit it, lowering the odds of eating prions still would require a totally plant based diet given the vast numbers of animals mixed into processed meat products like Pink Slime and deviled meat or ham, & a organic diet given that, only a spontaneous and rare mis-folded protein would start the 40 year incubation towards Alzheimer's and vCJV. Both scrapie and CWD can be acquired simply by consuming infected soil or grazing on grass containing it. This is most likely the most common way that these prion diseases are acquired naturally--not cannibalism at all, or at least not the sort we commonly think of! It's a simple fecal-oral route of transmission, albeit one with an alarmingly long potential incubation period.
59,652
When is it correct to use *no* and *nope*? Is there any difference between them?
2012/02/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/59652", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/6733/" ]
Any difference? Nope - not in meaning anyway. Actually, "nope" means "no," but only in the sense of the opposite of "yes." Therefore, you might use it to answer a yes-or-no question in the negative, but you would **never** say, "*We found nope errors during the inspection*," or "*There was nope way Dave would ever surrender*." That said, "nope" is informal, and should only be used in writing in the most informal of contexts.
J.R. is correct to note that *nope* occurs only as a one-word answer to Y/N questions, and not for other uses of *no*. The final "pe" in *nope* comes from the way it is pronounced, ending with **firmly** closed lips to signal the end of the word, answer, utterance, and discussion. The "p" part is produced by closing the lips, and the silent "e" comes from the English spelling system, which requires it there to keep the pronunciation of "o" as tense /o/ even though it's followed by (what sounds like) a consonant. Similar reasons account for *yup* as a variant of *ya ~ yeah*, which needs no final "e" because the vowel is not tense.
11,297,482
I am struggling for days to solve this problem and it seems i cant find any good helpful guidance. So the problem is i want to implement a feature in my web application to give the users the option of editing a text on any editor they have locally and then save the file (the saved file will be online). Suggested Solution: well my idea is: 1)to create a folder for the user locally on the browser file location. 2)open the applications using exec() (before doing so checking what kind of operating system the user use and create the appropriate error handling) 3)save the file will should be in the created file(point 1). 4)Retrieve the data from the folder. Please advice me if u have a better idea?
2012/07/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11297482", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1445117/" ]
In short, you can't do all that. You can do some of that. Remember, with HTTP the user is in complete control, and you can do nothing "on the user's machine". If you could, that would be called "a dangerous security exploit" and would stop working as soon as the various browsers' coders got to it. You can send the output to the user with an appropriate MIME type, that will open the editor of your choice. You can even invent your own MIME type to do that (the user must install the editor by himself). Then the user will save the text on his machine. You can't save on a remote machine (not in all editors), since it is not a "save", it is an "upload" that you want. Finally the user can recover the file he or she just saved, and submit it to you via a POST form, for example. Frankly, where I live we call this "how to put one's ass before other people's kicks". Just think of all the possible editors, each maybe with its own format: if the user (un)knowingly chooses something weird such as "Save in Word 2015 Extra Format (Compressed)", and uploads the file to your server -- are you prepared to understand the file format and do something meaningful with it? A very common alternative is to implement any one of several Rich Text Editors in HTML - there's CKEdit, for example, or TinyMCE, and so on. They will let the user produce clean HTML and upload it on your server automatically.
What you're trying to do is impossible. PHP is server-side and it has no control over the client, it can only send it a sequence of characters to render (the page that gets displayed). There are javascript-based rich editors such as CKEditor and TinyMCE which you can provide for the client to use, but that's about as far as you can go. Additionally, as every web browser is a little different from the other and has its own quirks and bugs when it comes to running client side javascript/DOM operations, you can expect a lot of weird little issues that happen in one particular version of one particular browser but not in others. And if the client has javascript turned off they won't see any editor at all.
43,480,731
Option 1: If we [use an AWS KMS-managed customer master key (CMK)](http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingClientSideEncryption.html#client-side-encryption-kms-managed-master-key-intro), does that provide end-to-end encryption? Option 2: Or, would we have to [use a client-side master key](http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingClientSideEncryption.html#client-side-encryption-client-side-master-key-intro), so that only the client can decrypt their data?
2017/04/18
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43480731", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242933/" ]
Update: KMS is not asymmetric, though you can use Envelope Encryption to generate a data key from the CMK. The key is generated on a physical HSM making it not accessible externally. You will only have to worry about the access to the CMK [which you can achieve using IAM access control](http://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/iam-policies.html). For a detailed explanation how the mechanism works, check the [Envelope Encryption section on the KMS Cryptographic Details white paper](https://d0.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/KMS-Cryptographic-Details.pdf). So if you only worried about eavesdropping can be a good solution. If you are looking for strictly end-to-end encryption you might have to use asymmetric keys on which KMS can help you with too.
Aws kms does not store any data it provide you two keys 1 plain key : with the help of it you encrypt the data and delete it(key)(no need to save anywhere). 2.encrypted data key :- you need to save this key to decrypt the data( to decrypt the data first you got plain key from aws using encrypted data key) and with the help of plain key you decrypt the data. So encryption is done at client side.
71,603,178
While updating packages in XCode 13.3, I get SwiftPM.SPMRepositoryError error 3 and no further details. What is the meaning of this error? How to fix it? I removed all packages and added them back one by one. But it doesn't seem to be triggered by any specific package. It seems to be triggered by any package.
2022/03/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/71603178", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7241278/" ]
Right click the "**Package Dependencies**" in the project navigator, then select "**Reset Package Caches**" will fix this. This problem happens because you probably cleaned some Xcode cache, and SPM caches got corrupted.
I had this problem and had to do a few things: * Update some of the swift packages to later versions that support the new format of SPM package file that is used by Xcode 13.3 (\*) * Quit Xcode * rm -rf ~/Libray/Developer/Xcode/DerivedData * rm -rf ~/Library/Caches/org.swift.swiftpm * Start Xcode * File->Packages->Reset Package Caches * Build (could take a while depending on how many packages you have) This fixed it for me (\*) I had to update Auth0.swift to 2.0, AlamoFire to 5.5.0, and ZenDesk to 5.4.1
120,365
Is there a cron job that I can turn on or some setting that I must set, so when I make changes in Magento2 admin panel while in developer mode, that I do not have to go to cache page and flush cache manually every single time ?
2016/06/10
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/120365", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/36102/" ]
@Lachezar Raychev You are advised to disable the caches while in development stage. You can do this by simplying using the following commands from the magento root - ssh. * Disable: php bin/magento cache:disable * Enable: php bin/magento cache:enable * Flush: php bin/magento cache:flush Or simply disabling it from admin under Systems > Cache Management. This will be easier than creating an observer that runs a cron job after a save event.
Just disable the full page cache and configuration cache from admin.
16,541,879
I am trying to do something that should be really simple, but I am stuck. I am trying to add serial numbers (1,2,3 etc) to the items in Magento's invoice pdf under a column called Serial Number. Any clues on how to do this? Thanks!
2013/05/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16541879", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1422894/" ]
First, a quick nomenclature correction - checksums and CRCs are 2 different approaches trying to solve the same problem: detect bit errors occurred during data transmission in noisy channels. In general CRCs are more powerful detecting errors at the expense of more complexity. Selecting the right error detection scheme requires some knowledge about the channel (e.g. error probability) and its noise characteristics (e.g. impulsive, bursty). There are papers out there where this problem is analyzed in detail and some guidance is given in how to select the error detection method. I suggest you trying this introductory presentation as a starting point: <http://www.ece.cmu.edu/~koopman/pubs/KoopmanCRCWebinar9May2012.pdf> It will give you a better understanding of the complexity of this beautiful area and provide you some links to other learning materials.
Assuming that you have a good CRC or hash function that makes good use of the bits, and assuming that the expected sources of corruption do not have some unusual characteristics that invalidate the first assumption, then you can simply set an acceptable probability of a false positive, and get the number of bits from that. Or compute the probability from the bits and see if you're comfortable with that. The probability is: p = 2-n where *n* is the number of bits in the check value. That is the probability that an *n*-bit check value on some random data will accidentally match the *n*-bit check value on some other set of data.
2,157,337
I'm learning C++ (CLI apparently), and every time I post a question saying that I am using C++, someone jumps down my throat saying that I'm not using C++, but C++/CLI. I'm not really sure of a difference, as I am extreamely new to this, but it seems to make everyone upset. Can anyone shine some light on the differences? As a second note, the reason I am asking this is because it was suggested that I use CLI to be able to [make a method accessible to my C# project](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2156535/how-do-i-expose-a-c-method-to-my-c-application). I have everything running fine in my C++ project, through my constructor, but now I would like to be able to call those same methods from my C# project.
2010/01/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2157337", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/225239/" ]
C++ CLI runs on the "Common Language Interface". This basically means that when it's compiled, the compiled code will end up being allot like the byte code produced via C#. C++ CLI has a ton of extensions added to it such as Garbage Collection that do not exist in C++. C++ CLI also allows for "safe" C++ code. In this mode you're not allowed to use pointers. There's no such thing as "safe" code in C++ it's all "unsafe". C++ CLI can be nice for interfacing .NET code and C++ libraries, but besides that, I haven't found a use for it. The Wikipedia page has a good overview: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C%2B%2B/CLI> And yes, they are right to jump on you for being able to program in C++ CLI will not allow you to program in C++....they are different enough that you cant just mix them.
AFAIK, C++ CLI allows you to have access to the .net framework. It offers some garbage collection and few other specific features not on C++
2,157,337
I'm learning C++ (CLI apparently), and every time I post a question saying that I am using C++, someone jumps down my throat saying that I'm not using C++, but C++/CLI. I'm not really sure of a difference, as I am extreamely new to this, but it seems to make everyone upset. Can anyone shine some light on the differences? As a second note, the reason I am asking this is because it was suggested that I use CLI to be able to [make a method accessible to my C# project](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2156535/how-do-i-expose-a-c-method-to-my-c-application). I have everything running fine in my C++ project, through my constructor, but now I would like to be able to call those same methods from my C# project.
2010/01/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2157337", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/225239/" ]
C++ CLI runs on the "Common Language Interface". This basically means that when it's compiled, the compiled code will end up being allot like the byte code produced via C#. C++ CLI has a ton of extensions added to it such as Garbage Collection that do not exist in C++. C++ CLI also allows for "safe" C++ code. In this mode you're not allowed to use pointers. There's no such thing as "safe" code in C++ it's all "unsafe". C++ CLI can be nice for interfacing .NET code and C++ libraries, but besides that, I haven't found a use for it. The Wikipedia page has a good overview: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C%2B%2B/CLI> And yes, they are right to jump on you for being able to program in C++ CLI will not allow you to program in C++....they are different enough that you cant just mix them.
C++ runs directly as binary complied for your hardware. C++ cli is a c++ extension that is used to interface with the MS common language runtime. It complies to IL normally and is executed inside the .net runtime. There are numerous differences between the two some of the major ones being garbage collection and how inheritance and interfaces work. The reason to use c++Cli is gain the advantages of using the hundreds of classes provided to you by the framework. These are all accessible from any CLR compliant language so some have been left to wonder why one would use c++ to access the framework, unless you are linking into some legacy code.
876
I am a Polish citizen but currently live and work in Germany. After moving to a new flat, where I intend to stay for a while, I thought I could renew my ID so there will be my German address instead of the old Polish one. I don't want to apply for German citizenship, I just want my ID renewed here, without traveling back to Poland. Also I thought it would be nice if the ID could be in German/English instead of Polish/English to make it easier for local folks. Can I renew it at a normal City Hall in Germany or do I need to get back to my home country or to Polish Consulate? On the side note, my driving licence also needs an update. It expires in 2 years from now anyway.
2014/03/26
[ "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/876", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/users/154/" ]
**You cannot.** The only way of renewing ID is doing it **personally** in your corresponding municipality in Poland. There is no legal possibility to delegate this to anyone else. As far as I know this contradicts EU guidelines, as EU countries have removed resident IDs for EU nationals, instead fully recognizing national IDs for all purposes. So there is still hope that in the future it might change. But right now the rules are clear. There is no way of doing that. Polish [Ministry of Interior has addressed the issue](https://www.msw.gov.pl/pl/aktualnosci/informacje-dla-osob-wy/4932,Informacje-dla-osob-zamieszkalych-za-granica.html): > > Obowiązujący stan prawny nie przewiduje możliwości złożenia wniosku o > wydanie dowodu osobistego oraz odbioru tego dokumentu za pośrednictwem > pełnomocnika. Zgodnie z rozporządzeniem Rady Ministrów z dnia 21 > listopada 2000 roku (Dz. U. z 2000 r., nr 112, poz. 1182 z późn. zm.) > w sprawie wzoru dowodu osobistego oraz trybu postępowania w sprawach > wydawania dowodów osobistych, ich wymiany, zwrotu lub utraty, złożenie > wniosku o wydanie dowodu osobistego jak i odbiór dokumentu wymaga > osobistego stawiennictwa wnioskodawcy w organie gminy właściwym do > wydania tego dokumentu. > > > Rough translation > > The current state law does not provide for any possibility to apply > for an identity card and pick up of said document by proxy. According > to decree by the Council of Ministers dated 21 November 2000 (Journal > of Laws of 2000 No. 112, item. 1182, as amended. Amended.) on the > model of the identity card and the mode of procedure for issuing > identity cards, their replacement, return or loss of, an application > for an identity card and the pick-up of the document requires > appearance in person of the applicant in the municipality competent to > issue the document. > > >
I don't know the exact procedure for Polish citizens, [it could be easier to go back home and renew it there](https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/682/do-i-need-can-unregister-from-polish-address-when-leaving-poland/685#685) but in any case the local town hall in Germany can't help you with a national ID or passport renewal if you are not a German citizen. You should contact the Polish authorities (and in particular the nearest consulate or consular section). By contrast, in the EU, the driver's license [should be renewed locally](https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/20/if-i-obtain-a-drivers-licence-in-germany-as-a-non-german-eu-citizen-would-i-ha/288#288), following the same procedure than the locals (which, depending on the country, might or might not be through the town administration – in Germany, it is). Here again, it can sometimes be convenient to renew it back home (even if it's strictly speaking illegal and might require you to be registered as a resident there or lie about your residence on the application form).
876
I am a Polish citizen but currently live and work in Germany. After moving to a new flat, where I intend to stay for a while, I thought I could renew my ID so there will be my German address instead of the old Polish one. I don't want to apply for German citizenship, I just want my ID renewed here, without traveling back to Poland. Also I thought it would be nice if the ID could be in German/English instead of Polish/English to make it easier for local folks. Can I renew it at a normal City Hall in Germany or do I need to get back to my home country or to Polish Consulate? On the side note, my driving licence also needs an update. It expires in 2 years from now anyway.
2014/03/26
[ "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/876", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/users/154/" ]
I don't know the exact procedure for Polish citizens, [it could be easier to go back home and renew it there](https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/682/do-i-need-can-unregister-from-polish-address-when-leaving-poland/685#685) but in any case the local town hall in Germany can't help you with a national ID or passport renewal if you are not a German citizen. You should contact the Polish authorities (and in particular the nearest consulate or consular section). By contrast, in the EU, the driver's license [should be renewed locally](https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/20/if-i-obtain-a-drivers-licence-in-germany-as-a-non-german-eu-citizen-would-i-ha/288#288), following the same procedure than the locals (which, depending on the country, might or might not be through the town administration – in Germany, it is). Here again, it can sometimes be convenient to renew it back home (even if it's strictly speaking illegal and might require you to be registered as a resident there or lie about your residence on the application form).
I think that as a resident in Germany (someone living there or intending to live there for more than three months), you are supposed to register at the local Einwohnermeldeamt in Germany - independent of anything else. When you're there you might as well ask them about your Polish ID; there's a good chance that they know what you need to do. The nearest Polish consulate or embassy in Germany should be able to renew your Polish passport when you need it; I couldn't say if they will do this if you have a passport that is still valid for another five years, for example. Again, it would be worth asking them about your ID as well.
876
I am a Polish citizen but currently live and work in Germany. After moving to a new flat, where I intend to stay for a while, I thought I could renew my ID so there will be my German address instead of the old Polish one. I don't want to apply for German citizenship, I just want my ID renewed here, without traveling back to Poland. Also I thought it would be nice if the ID could be in German/English instead of Polish/English to make it easier for local folks. Can I renew it at a normal City Hall in Germany or do I need to get back to my home country or to Polish Consulate? On the side note, my driving licence also needs an update. It expires in 2 years from now anyway.
2014/03/26
[ "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/876", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com", "https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/users/154/" ]
**You cannot.** The only way of renewing ID is doing it **personally** in your corresponding municipality in Poland. There is no legal possibility to delegate this to anyone else. As far as I know this contradicts EU guidelines, as EU countries have removed resident IDs for EU nationals, instead fully recognizing national IDs for all purposes. So there is still hope that in the future it might change. But right now the rules are clear. There is no way of doing that. Polish [Ministry of Interior has addressed the issue](https://www.msw.gov.pl/pl/aktualnosci/informacje-dla-osob-wy/4932,Informacje-dla-osob-zamieszkalych-za-granica.html): > > Obowiązujący stan prawny nie przewiduje możliwości złożenia wniosku o > wydanie dowodu osobistego oraz odbioru tego dokumentu za pośrednictwem > pełnomocnika. Zgodnie z rozporządzeniem Rady Ministrów z dnia 21 > listopada 2000 roku (Dz. U. z 2000 r., nr 112, poz. 1182 z późn. zm.) > w sprawie wzoru dowodu osobistego oraz trybu postępowania w sprawach > wydawania dowodów osobistych, ich wymiany, zwrotu lub utraty, złożenie > wniosku o wydanie dowodu osobistego jak i odbiór dokumentu wymaga > osobistego stawiennictwa wnioskodawcy w organie gminy właściwym do > wydania tego dokumentu. > > > Rough translation > > The current state law does not provide for any possibility to apply > for an identity card and pick up of said document by proxy. According > to decree by the Council of Ministers dated 21 November 2000 (Journal > of Laws of 2000 No. 112, item. 1182, as amended. Amended.) on the > model of the identity card and the mode of procedure for issuing > identity cards, their replacement, return or loss of, an application > for an identity card and the pick-up of the document requires > appearance in person of the applicant in the municipality competent to > issue the document. > > >
I think that as a resident in Germany (someone living there or intending to live there for more than three months), you are supposed to register at the local Einwohnermeldeamt in Germany - independent of anything else. When you're there you might as well ask them about your Polish ID; there's a good chance that they know what you need to do. The nearest Polish consulate or embassy in Germany should be able to renew your Polish passport when you need it; I couldn't say if they will do this if you have a passport that is still valid for another five years, for example. Again, it would be worth asking them about your ID as well.
31,707,583
I was reading this article here <http://blog.jobspire.net/uploading-images-to-heroku/> which says : > > ... don’t upload to Heroku. At least > not directly. The upload will lock down our entire web worker for it’s > entire duration. That’s up to a minute. Unacceptable. > > > And also I see all people over the internet talking about using S3 as file (images) storage solution because at some point it's scalable... I think most of people talking about using S3 are using Heroku and I understand that Heroku has its limitations...But I am wondering if uploading images to Rails server is a bad idea even if your server is a VPS or a Dedicated Server ? I've seen recently a social network which store images in the server, and before the existence of the cloud or AWS (S3), how Rails developers handled image heavy sites ? I really need an explanation because I've searched many times but not found any clear answer.
2015/07/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31707583", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2392106/" ]
If you only plan to use a single server, it doesn't matter if you use S3 or the local hard drive. A local drive is faster of course, which may matter to you if you store a lot of data or many files. E.g. processing thousands of images on S3 to have a new thumbnail size tages a *very* long time, since each file needs to be downloaded, processed and uploaded. If you plan to use multiple servers you either need to use S3 or some way to synchronize the local folders between machine. We like to use local drives with [GlusterFS](http://www.gluster.org/) for synchronization, but of course S3 is easier to set up.
Uploading to your rails server and storing the files on the local file system of that server is a bad idea. The main reason: if you ever want to run two servers, the files are only going to be on one of them and you are going to be unable to serve them.
270,613
Im having trouble using a .NET COM in vb6, It compiles ok and I use regasm to register it, add a reference to it in the vb6 project, it even has intellisense. But when I try to make make an instance it gives me an 'Automation Error'. Any one can help? Thanks in advance.
2008/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270613", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/24927/" ]
You probably need to make sure your .NET assemblies are in the VB6 application's directory, or if debugging in the VB6 IDE that they are in the VB6.exe's directory. It is possible to make COM interop with .NET assemblies work more like COM dlls (see the codebase option of [regasm](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/tzat5yw6(VS.71).aspx)) but by default, .NET assemblies are searched for in the usual way - ie in the GAC or application directory - even when used via COM interop. A really simple way to get insight into where your assembly should be is by using sysinternals [filemon](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896642.aspx) utility.
I think you have to compile the .Net project in a certain way to be used by COM objects. And the .Net dlls need to be next to, in the same directory, as the COM object that calls them (If they occupy the same space I think). Project Property Pages\Configuration Properties\Build\Register for COM Interop = true
7,305,763
I have a multitab application where I want the display orientation the same for one tab and dynamic for the other, that means I need for example for Tab1 = always portrait orientation Tab2 = automatic detection plus orientation I have tried to disable the orientation on Tab1 but that will disable the orientation in the whole app. Any help?!
2011/09/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7305763", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/883784/" ]
From Apple docs: "Tab bar controllers support a portrait orientation by default and do not rotate to a landscape orientation unless all of the root view controllers support such an orientation. When a device orientation change occurs, the tab bar controller queries its array of view controllers. If any one of them does not support the orientation, the tab bar controller does not change its orientation." So the answer is no you cannot do what you are trying to do, it's an all or nothing kind of situation.
If you have not already used, I think calling different UIView for different Tab will help you to do so. If you have used it, then making 2 different ViewControllers and handling the same thing different may help you to do so.
4,239
I have met with [this edit](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014) twice during review. It boils down to changing a neutral pronoun to singular they. First time I thought this edit made next to no improvement (I know some other reviewer chose causes harm reason) because: * it is a very little change (no significant improvement) * it is quite clear that the author of the answer wanted to be like this However, since the answer deals with UK Parliament rules which are in place for many years, from a historical perspective it makes more sense to use the singular they instead of the much newer gender neutral.
2019/12/23
[ "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4239", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/11278/" ]
The answer was flagged: > > This answer is being deliberately provocative by using a neo-pronoun ("xyrself") where none is called for. > > > I don't know about deliberately provocative, but I agree that the use of the neo-pronoun in the answer is unnecessary and would probably prove to be a distraction. The edit may look minor, but I think it's a helpful one and it's good it was ultimately approved. The (main) Meta discussion linked in the edit suggestion comment is worth a read: [Can a user use neopronouns for any third party?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/340881/162704)
In this case I believe the edit should be rolled back and xyrself restored to the answer. The [main meta question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881/can-a-user-use-neopronouns-for-any-third-party) top answer calls the use of a neopronoun for someone who has not requested it akin to misgendering. While I don't agree with that position, it is not relevant here because the answer does not refer to a specific individual. The higher rated answer would agree with this edit because; > > Yes, you were right. Parsing the word 'perself' may be hard for users who aren't used to neopronouns, and 'themselves' is clearer. > > > This is circular logic. No one can become used to neopronouns if they are not used. And the change from a singular to plural in the quote suggests things are hardly clearer. Indeed this same flaw is the basis of my disagreement with comparing it to misgendering. Xyrself, a third person gender neutral pronoun does not asign a gender, and it does it reject the assigning of a gender to an individual. Perhaps in this instance themself is serviceable and specific, but singular they while gramatically correct can be easily confused with a plural meaning, and use of xyrself as an extension of xyr is a logical requirement to increase familiarity, understanding and acceptance of neopronouns. If that is something the poster wishes to do then more power to xem.
4,239
I have met with [this edit](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014) twice during review. It boils down to changing a neutral pronoun to singular they. First time I thought this edit made next to no improvement (I know some other reviewer chose causes harm reason) because: * it is a very little change (no significant improvement) * it is quite clear that the author of the answer wanted to be like this However, since the answer deals with UK Parliament rules which are in place for many years, from a historical perspective it makes more sense to use the singular they instead of the much newer gender neutral.
2019/12/23
[ "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4239", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/11278/" ]
The answer was flagged: > > This answer is being deliberately provocative by using a neo-pronoun ("xyrself") where none is called for. > > > I don't know about deliberately provocative, but I agree that the use of the neo-pronoun in the answer is unnecessary and would probably prove to be a distraction. The edit may look minor, but I think it's a helpful one and it's good it was ultimately approved. The (main) Meta discussion linked in the edit suggestion comment is worth a read: [Can a user use neopronouns for any third party?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/340881/162704)
My opinion is that edits *exclusively* changing neutral pronouns to other neutral pronouns (including from "neopronouns" to themself) should be rolled back, as they're fairly clearly inconsequential edits. Had I noticed the edit before I noticed this meta post, I would probably have rolled it back for that reason. Some answers to anticipated objections in this particular case: **Changing to themself improves clarity.** I guess the driver for this opinion is that xyrself is not an especially common word, but I don't agree that that alone justifies an edit, any more than would be an edit of "werewithal" to "means" or "apportionment" to "distribution" or any other change from a single less common word to a more common synonym. **Xyrself is political.** How? It's just a neutral pronoun. If the poster had attempted somehow to make their answer entirely about the pronoun or about gender politics generally, then yeah sure. But that's not what happened. If anything, it is the act of changing the pronoun that comes across as potentially political in my opinion, particularly given the fact that the context in which it was used was otherwise devoid of any gender politics. Certainly a change from themself to xyrself would be construed in that way, given they are synonyms. I don't see how the reverse change is any different. **Xyrself is less readable** Xy words exist in English, what's the problem? **The use of neopronouns attracts the wrong type of attention** This is an opinion evident in Yannis' statement that: > > the use of the neo-pronoun in the answer is unnecessary and would probably prove to be a distraction > > > and additionally is part of the editor's justification for the change. To me this is a point of real disagreement. They're entirely right that it's distracting people, not least the flagger who described the use of the word as "deliberately provocative", but I don't see why we should pander to people who think something so innocuous is provocative. We would never countenance editing out a reference to a spouse as "husband" or "wife" because it was triggering people who take issue with the existence of same-sex marriages for example, I don't see how this case is any different. I recognise that that might give the mods a hard time if they were absolutely inundated and having to spend inordinate amounts of time clearing up such posts. If that were the case, I'd probably acquiesce on the grounds of necessity. **The neopronoun was not referring to a specific person who had stated that was their correct pronoun** I mean...what's the problem then? If it was referring to a specific person who had specifically pointed out that that was **not** their preferred pronoun then that absolutely should be edited...but in the absence of any knowledge and particularly in the case of a reference to a hypothetical person (as in this case) it's effectively impossible for anyone to take offense at the usage.
4,239
I have met with [this edit](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014) twice during review. It boils down to changing a neutral pronoun to singular they. First time I thought this edit made next to no improvement (I know some other reviewer chose causes harm reason) because: * it is a very little change (no significant improvement) * it is quite clear that the author of the answer wanted to be like this However, since the answer deals with UK Parliament rules which are in place for many years, from a historical perspective it makes more sense to use the singular they instead of the much newer gender neutral.
2019/12/23
[ "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4239", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/11278/" ]
My opinion is that edits *exclusively* changing neutral pronouns to other neutral pronouns (including from "neopronouns" to themself) should be rolled back, as they're fairly clearly inconsequential edits. Had I noticed the edit before I noticed this meta post, I would probably have rolled it back for that reason. Some answers to anticipated objections in this particular case: **Changing to themself improves clarity.** I guess the driver for this opinion is that xyrself is not an especially common word, but I don't agree that that alone justifies an edit, any more than would be an edit of "werewithal" to "means" or "apportionment" to "distribution" or any other change from a single less common word to a more common synonym. **Xyrself is political.** How? It's just a neutral pronoun. If the poster had attempted somehow to make their answer entirely about the pronoun or about gender politics generally, then yeah sure. But that's not what happened. If anything, it is the act of changing the pronoun that comes across as potentially political in my opinion, particularly given the fact that the context in which it was used was otherwise devoid of any gender politics. Certainly a change from themself to xyrself would be construed in that way, given they are synonyms. I don't see how the reverse change is any different. **Xyrself is less readable** Xy words exist in English, what's the problem? **The use of neopronouns attracts the wrong type of attention** This is an opinion evident in Yannis' statement that: > > the use of the neo-pronoun in the answer is unnecessary and would probably prove to be a distraction > > > and additionally is part of the editor's justification for the change. To me this is a point of real disagreement. They're entirely right that it's distracting people, not least the flagger who described the use of the word as "deliberately provocative", but I don't see why we should pander to people who think something so innocuous is provocative. We would never countenance editing out a reference to a spouse as "husband" or "wife" because it was triggering people who take issue with the existence of same-sex marriages for example, I don't see how this case is any different. I recognise that that might give the mods a hard time if they were absolutely inundated and having to spend inordinate amounts of time clearing up such posts. If that were the case, I'd probably acquiesce on the grounds of necessity. **The neopronoun was not referring to a specific person who had stated that was their correct pronoun** I mean...what's the problem then? If it was referring to a specific person who had specifically pointed out that that was **not** their preferred pronoun then that absolutely should be edited...but in the absence of any knowledge and particularly in the case of a reference to a hypothetical person (as in this case) it's effectively impossible for anyone to take offense at the usage.
In this case I believe the edit should be rolled back and xyrself restored to the answer. The [main meta question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881/can-a-user-use-neopronouns-for-any-third-party) top answer calls the use of a neopronoun for someone who has not requested it akin to misgendering. While I don't agree with that position, it is not relevant here because the answer does not refer to a specific individual. The higher rated answer would agree with this edit because; > > Yes, you were right. Parsing the word 'perself' may be hard for users who aren't used to neopronouns, and 'themselves' is clearer. > > > This is circular logic. No one can become used to neopronouns if they are not used. And the change from a singular to plural in the quote suggests things are hardly clearer. Indeed this same flaw is the basis of my disagreement with comparing it to misgendering. Xyrself, a third person gender neutral pronoun does not asign a gender, and it does it reject the assigning of a gender to an individual. Perhaps in this instance themself is serviceable and specific, but singular they while gramatically correct can be easily confused with a plural meaning, and use of xyrself as an extension of xyr is a logical requirement to increase familiarity, understanding and acceptance of neopronouns. If that is something the poster wishes to do then more power to xem.