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1,971,359 | I understand that the "NUnit vs. MSTest" question has been asked alot on SO. However, I have a simple question that I think hasn't been answered directly.
I am new to TDD, and I know that both have their pro's and con's, however I want to know from a simplicity point of view which would be easier, MSTest or NUnit?
I have no preconceived favorites, I just want to know if there are things that one has that the other does not that are large differences. | 2009/12/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1971359",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/88770/"
] | There's a nice [comparison](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/261139/nunit-vs-mbunit-vs-mstest-vs-xunit-net) of unit testing frameworks. My personal advice would be to go with MSTest only if you use Microsoft Team Foundation Server for continuous integration, otherwise stick with open source alternatives. | I've actually never used MSTest myself since I started learning TDD with nUnit right away. One of the reasons I did not try out MSTest first was that I heard mostly negative opinions whenever I mentioned it to most TDD'ers. Again, I have no personal experience with it, I can only say I find nUnit easy to use.
There are also quite a few other options out there like xUnit and MBUnit which people also enjoy using and I have heard many good things about them. For my part I can say nUnit is a very full featured test framework and it works well for me.
If IDE integration is important, then I would suggest you get ReSharper which provides excellent IDE integration for nUnit and it also has support for most popular test frameworks, either natively or via plugins. Besides, everyone should be using ReSharper anyways, right? ;-). |
2,008 | My friend was a hard practitioner of Karate, now he is not practicing it for the last one year. His muscles are quickly becoming tighter when doing regular works like carrying little weighted bags, boxes etc.
Is this things have any relation with stopping his Martial Arts practice? | 2013/06/04 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/2008",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/1031/"
] | I get severe problems with my back and joints. For example, I was training rigorously five to six times a week for about five months while preparing for a grading test. Immediately after, I went on a relaxing holiday, where I spent most of the time in stationary position. A week into my holiday, I got serious problems with my back – as in, I couldn't walk or even sit up straight. This has happened before, and now I try to keeping active during my holidays. I get similar problems with my knees and elbows (although this may be related to my hyperflexibility).
I've heard other similar stories. If they practice hard for a number of years, and then suddenly stop, their old injuries will come back to haunt them, because the muscles are not there to support any more.
Apart from the physical problems, I also experience mental issues. I get very grumpy, tired, demotivated and agitated – it also affects my sleep, like dmckee mentioned. This makes sense, because exercise releases endorphines, which makes you happy and "high". This is why people who suffer from depressions or stress are often told to exercise more. When you stop exercising, you experience withdrawals, just like with cigarettes or drugs (although in a milder form, of course).
I know this is not the "correct" scientifically proven answer, but it is my personal subjective experience. | One generally becomes less flexible and of lesser endurance, and loses strength, when stopping a rigorous workout regimen. Reaction times increase as well. If an athlete stops doing the work that makes them an athlete, they will lose the attributes that mark them as an athlete.
It is likely that your friend, by not working out or by working out less than he once did, is experiencing a downward slide of his physical capabilities. |
9,430 | I don't know why, during Diwali, the Bengalis celebrate Kali Puja? Why don't they worship Goddess Lakshmi and Ganesha? | 2015/11/11 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/9430",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3951/"
] | Not only Bengali Hindus, but Axomiya, Oriya & Maithil Hindus also do the same, following the Tāntrika injunctions.
>
> कार्तिके कृष्णपक्षे तु पञ्चदश्यां महानिशि । आविर्भूता महाकाली योगिनीकोटिभिः सह ।। अतोऽत्र पूजनीया सा तस्मिन्नहनि मानवैः । बलिपूजादिकं सर्वं निशायां क्रियते तु यत् । तत्तदक्षयतां याति कालीविद्या प्रसीदति ।।
>
>
> *Mahākālī* manifested on the *mahāniśi* of the 15th day of the dark fortnight (i.e new-moon day) in the month of *Kārtika* accompanied by a crore of *yoginī*s. So She is worshipped on that day by humans. All activities like offering animal sacrifices & conducting worship done in that night yields unperishable merit & satisfaction to *Kālī*. [*Viśvasāra Tantra*]
>
>
>
>
> तुलार्के बहुले पक्षे पञ्चदश्यां महेश्वरीं । यथोपचारैः संपूज्य महानिशि नृपो भवेत् ।। शनिभौमदिने चेत्स्यात् ततः शतगुणं फलं । तत्रोभयदिने भूतयुक्तकुह्वां महानिशि । इमां यात्रां कारयित्वा चक्रवर्ती भवेन्नृपः ।।
>
>
> One becomes a king by worshipping *Maheśvarī* on the *mahāniśi* of the 15th day of the dark fortnight when the Sun is in conjunction with Libra (i.e the month of *Kārtika*) with the pre-required articles. The merit acquired is a hundred times more if the day falls on a Saturday or Tuesday. If this festival is observed on both of those days (of the week) with the *mahāniśi* occuring at the conjunction of *bhūta-caturdaśī* with *amāvasyā*, then the performer becomes an emperor. [*Kālīkalpa Tantra*]
>
>
> | >
> **History Of Kali Puja**
>
>
> The pujas in Hinduism are not based on the Vedas. They are based on
> individual traditions. Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the Ganapati
> festival in Maharashtra to foster nationalism and it has been a custom
> ever since. In a similar way, Raja Krishnachandra who was the king of
> Navadipa started this Bengali puja of Mahakali in the 18th century.
> The tradition was carried forward by his descendants and the other
> wealthy zamindar families in Bengal.
>
>
> As this puja was basically under the patronage of the rich and famous,
> it survived on a grand scale. Today, Kali puja is second in grandeur
> only to Durga puja in Bengal.
>
>
> **The Myth Of Mahakali**
>
>
> There is always mythical story to explain our rituals or pujas. So it
> is for kali puja. Once upon a time, two asuras, Sumbho and Nishumbho
> plagued the Earth and the Heaven. Thus the gods prayed to Goddess
> Durga who is the eternal Shakti of the Universe. To answer their
> prayers, Kali was born from the forehead of Durga.
>
>
> Kali attached the errant asuras with a 'khara' which is kind of
> twisted sword in her hand. Once she started slaying the asuras, her
> thirst for blood was aroused. She made a garland of the heads of dead
> asuras and wore around her neck. Then she started slaying anyone who
> came in her way. To soothe her anger, Shiva (who is her husband) lay
> in her path. When she stepped on her husband in her fury, she stuck
> her tongue out in regret. Her fury ended at than moment and that is
> why she is portrayed with her tongue stuck out and her foot on Shiva.
>
>
>
[Source](http://www.boldsky.com/yoga-spirituality/faith-mysticism/2012/kali-puja-diwali-031457.html) |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | Was this person a senior developer when they write the code 8 years ago?
Probably not - so the code wasn't 'senior developer quality'.
Unless they are still writing code the same way they did back then, you should have little concern in showing how you've improved on their work using current best practices. | >
> The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top.
>
>
>
Your other problem is apparently that you didn't discuss or obtain permission to do what you did, before you did it: because he's not expecting how much you've changed.
If I were senior developer reviewing a rewrite, one of my worries might be, "How can I tell whether the rewrite broke existing functionality?"
Do you have an answer to that question, e.g. are there defined system tests or acceptance tests, which the new version of the software is still passing?
If so then it's easier to review the new version on its merits, based on its superficial appearance and structure: e.g. to assess whether it's more modern, more maintainable, etc.
If not then you need to determine via code-inspection whether functionality has changed; which might be difficult if it's a complete rewrite. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | Was this person a senior developer when they write the code 8 years ago?
Probably not - so the code wasn't 'senior developer quality'.
Unless they are still writing code the same way they did back then, you should have little concern in showing how you've improved on their work using current best practices. | If it was my 8 year old code that you rewrote in a new language, while changing the structure completely: First, I know for a fact that the code that I wrote in 2009 should be rewritten in a different language if the company wants to continue developing it in the long term. And I know that it needs significant changes, because I knew in 2009 that parts of it could be expected to stop working soon.
My question would be: How much responsibility am I expected to have towards that code? If you changed the language *and* the structure at the same time, that's a brave move. And you are on your own. You want to show me your work? Actually, I'm not interested. It's your code. If it works well, be proud of it. If it doesn't work, your problem. I'm not going to help you.
What I'm saying is that you are much too late. You might have come to me before you rewrote it. I could have told you what parts of the code are good, what parts are bad because I never had time to do them well, and which parts are ugly because they contain sometimes bizarre workarounds that will make the app stop working if you "fix" the ugly bits.
You worry about sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different". I don't know if that senior developer was an intern eight years ago, or was experienced back then. In the former case, he might think "your code is different, and it sucks just as much or even more". If he was senior back then, he might come up with a list of things you've broken. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | When discussing your changes, avoid any use of "your old way" or "your old code". Once you join the development team, think of it as becoming "our code".
Every developer knows that, given a few years, a new framework, development practice etc. could come along to do the work of a piece of code cleaner and faster. Whether it comes from an intern or a grizzled programming veteran, your senior developer colleague should have an open mind to examine your work fairly, so long as you are not sounding as if you are singling him/her out, or refusing to acknowledge criticism of your own work. | >
> The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top.
>
>
>
Your other problem is apparently that you didn't discuss or obtain permission to do what you did, before you did it: because he's not expecting how much you've changed.
If I were senior developer reviewing a rewrite, one of my worries might be, "How can I tell whether the rewrite broke existing functionality?"
Do you have an answer to that question, e.g. are there defined system tests or acceptance tests, which the new version of the software is still passing?
If so then it's easier to review the new version on its merits, based on its superficial appearance and structure: e.g. to assess whether it's more modern, more maintainable, etc.
If not then you need to determine via code-inspection whether functionality has changed; which might be difficult if it's a complete rewrite. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | >
> How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ?
>
>
>
**Call it version 2.0.** Or 3.0, or 4.0 or whatever. Just make sure that you've incremented the major version number, so that it's clear that this version is significantly different from its predecessor. That way, it's not so much like you're correcting flaws in the previous code as reworking the whole project to meet new goals.
**Make a list of improvements.** How is your version appreciably better than the previous version?
* Does it do the same job 3x faster?
* Does the code now include a suite of unit tests that ensure that it does the right thing?
* Does it have any major new features or capabilities?
* Have you made the code fully compliant with the company coding guidelines?
* Did you rewrite the code using the company's new favorite language?
* Is the code now modular, so that it's easier to test and easier to extend?
In short, focus on what's good about the new version, not what was not-so-good about the previous version. The longer you can make the list of substantial benefits, the harder it will be to argue that the changes aren't improvements. Avoid listing minor changes like bug fixes, though -- you could probably have made those in the existing code without a major rewrite, so minor things will undermine your argument.
**Be prepared for some criticism.** Even though the code was written 8 years ago, the original author is likely still one of the company's subject matter experts on this topic, and he/she may notice some details that others haven't. Accept the criticism in a positive spirit. Take notes so that you'll remember to address all the issues that are raised during the discussion.
**Be prepared for any reaction.** Chances are that the original author will be glad that this old project has been rewritten and will no longer be something they have to answer questions about. Or, they might feel somewhat attached to one of their early projects and sad to see it fall by the wayside. Just be open and honest, answer questions as best you can, listen to what they tell you, and don't take negative comments too personally. | If it was my 8 year old code that you rewrote in a new language, while changing the structure completely: First, I know for a fact that the code that I wrote in 2009 should be rewritten in a different language if the company wants to continue developing it in the long term. And I know that it needs significant changes, because I knew in 2009 that parts of it could be expected to stop working soon.
My question would be: How much responsibility am I expected to have towards that code? If you changed the language *and* the structure at the same time, that's a brave move. And you are on your own. You want to show me your work? Actually, I'm not interested. It's your code. If it works well, be proud of it. If it doesn't work, your problem. I'm not going to help you.
What I'm saying is that you are much too late. You might have come to me before you rewrote it. I could have told you what parts of the code are good, what parts are bad because I never had time to do them well, and which parts are ugly because they contain sometimes bizarre workarounds that will make the app stop working if you "fix" the ugly bits.
You worry about sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different". I don't know if that senior developer was an intern eight years ago, or was experienced back then. In the former case, he might think "your code is different, and it sucks just as much or even more". If he was senior back then, he might come up with a list of things you've broken. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | >
> How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ?
>
>
>
**Call it version 2.0.** Or 3.0, or 4.0 or whatever. Just make sure that you've incremented the major version number, so that it's clear that this version is significantly different from its predecessor. That way, it's not so much like you're correcting flaws in the previous code as reworking the whole project to meet new goals.
**Make a list of improvements.** How is your version appreciably better than the previous version?
* Does it do the same job 3x faster?
* Does the code now include a suite of unit tests that ensure that it does the right thing?
* Does it have any major new features or capabilities?
* Have you made the code fully compliant with the company coding guidelines?
* Did you rewrite the code using the company's new favorite language?
* Is the code now modular, so that it's easier to test and easier to extend?
In short, focus on what's good about the new version, not what was not-so-good about the previous version. The longer you can make the list of substantial benefits, the harder it will be to argue that the changes aren't improvements. Avoid listing minor changes like bug fixes, though -- you could probably have made those in the existing code without a major rewrite, so minor things will undermine your argument.
**Be prepared for some criticism.** Even though the code was written 8 years ago, the original author is likely still one of the company's subject matter experts on this topic, and he/she may notice some details that others haven't. Accept the criticism in a positive spirit. Take notes so that you'll remember to address all the issues that are raised during the discussion.
**Be prepared for any reaction.** Chances are that the original author will be glad that this old project has been rewritten and will no longer be something they have to answer questions about. Or, they might feel somewhat attached to one of their early projects and sad to see it fall by the wayside. Just be open and honest, answer questions as best you can, listen to what they tell you, and don't take negative comments too personally. | >
> The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top.
>
>
>
Your other problem is apparently that you didn't discuss or obtain permission to do what you did, before you did it: because he's not expecting how much you've changed.
If I were senior developer reviewing a rewrite, one of my worries might be, "How can I tell whether the rewrite broke existing functionality?"
Do you have an answer to that question, e.g. are there defined system tests or acceptance tests, which the new version of the software is still passing?
If so then it's easier to review the new version on its merits, based on its superficial appearance and structure: e.g. to assess whether it's more modern, more maintainable, etc.
If not then you need to determine via code-inspection whether functionality has changed; which might be difficult if it's a complete rewrite. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | Before the review, make sure that the original coder knows that the complete redesign was performed to make the code base more flexible and extensible for new requirements.
If you can point out a few examples of requirements that would have been relatively complex prior to the rewrite, but are trivial now, it demonstrates that the rewrite was made for objective reasons.
At times people can resent 'their' code being rewritten - so make sure he understands the reasons beforehand. | >
> The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top.
>
>
>
Your other problem is apparently that you didn't discuss or obtain permission to do what you did, before you did it: because he's not expecting how much you've changed.
If I were senior developer reviewing a rewrite, one of my worries might be, "How can I tell whether the rewrite broke existing functionality?"
Do you have an answer to that question, e.g. are there defined system tests or acceptance tests, which the new version of the software is still passing?
If so then it's easier to review the new version on its merits, based on its superficial appearance and structure: e.g. to assess whether it's more modern, more maintainable, etc.
If not then you need to determine via code-inspection whether functionality has changed; which might be difficult if it's a complete rewrite. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | >
> How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ?
>
>
>
**Call it version 2.0.** Or 3.0, or 4.0 or whatever. Just make sure that you've incremented the major version number, so that it's clear that this version is significantly different from its predecessor. That way, it's not so much like you're correcting flaws in the previous code as reworking the whole project to meet new goals.
**Make a list of improvements.** How is your version appreciably better than the previous version?
* Does it do the same job 3x faster?
* Does the code now include a suite of unit tests that ensure that it does the right thing?
* Does it have any major new features or capabilities?
* Have you made the code fully compliant with the company coding guidelines?
* Did you rewrite the code using the company's new favorite language?
* Is the code now modular, so that it's easier to test and easier to extend?
In short, focus on what's good about the new version, not what was not-so-good about the previous version. The longer you can make the list of substantial benefits, the harder it will be to argue that the changes aren't improvements. Avoid listing minor changes like bug fixes, though -- you could probably have made those in the existing code without a major rewrite, so minor things will undermine your argument.
**Be prepared for some criticism.** Even though the code was written 8 years ago, the original author is likely still one of the company's subject matter experts on this topic, and he/she may notice some details that others haven't. Accept the criticism in a positive spirit. Take notes so that you'll remember to address all the issues that are raised during the discussion.
**Be prepared for any reaction.** Chances are that the original author will be glad that this old project has been rewritten and will no longer be something they have to answer questions about. Or, they might feel somewhat attached to one of their early projects and sad to see it fall by the wayside. Just be open and honest, answer questions as best you can, listen to what they tell you, and don't take negative comments too personally. | Ask for a review of your code tweaks. Indicate that you feel it improves upon the original but wanted to be sure and get more feedback on if you are going in the right direction. The correctness will speak for itself if that is the case and it will give respect to the other person as you are seeking their opinion on it. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | >
> How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ?
>
>
>
**Call it version 2.0.** Or 3.0, or 4.0 or whatever. Just make sure that you've incremented the major version number, so that it's clear that this version is significantly different from its predecessor. That way, it's not so much like you're correcting flaws in the previous code as reworking the whole project to meet new goals.
**Make a list of improvements.** How is your version appreciably better than the previous version?
* Does it do the same job 3x faster?
* Does the code now include a suite of unit tests that ensure that it does the right thing?
* Does it have any major new features or capabilities?
* Have you made the code fully compliant with the company coding guidelines?
* Did you rewrite the code using the company's new favorite language?
* Is the code now modular, so that it's easier to test and easier to extend?
In short, focus on what's good about the new version, not what was not-so-good about the previous version. The longer you can make the list of substantial benefits, the harder it will be to argue that the changes aren't improvements. Avoid listing minor changes like bug fixes, though -- you could probably have made those in the existing code without a major rewrite, so minor things will undermine your argument.
**Be prepared for some criticism.** Even though the code was written 8 years ago, the original author is likely still one of the company's subject matter experts on this topic, and he/she may notice some details that others haven't. Accept the criticism in a positive spirit. Take notes so that you'll remember to address all the issues that are raised during the discussion.
**Be prepared for any reaction.** Chances are that the original author will be glad that this old project has been rewritten and will no longer be something they have to answer questions about. Or, they might feel somewhat attached to one of their early projects and sad to see it fall by the wayside. Just be open and honest, answer questions as best you can, listen to what they tell you, and don't take negative comments too personally. | When discussing your changes, avoid any use of "your old way" or "your old code". Once you join the development team, think of it as becoming "our code".
Every developer knows that, given a few years, a new framework, development practice etc. could come along to do the work of a piece of code cleaner and faster. Whether it comes from an intern or a grizzled programming veteran, your senior developer colleague should have an open mind to examine your work fairly, so long as you are not sounding as if you are singling him/her out, or refusing to acknowledge criticism of your own work. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | >
> How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ?
>
>
>
**Call it version 2.0.** Or 3.0, or 4.0 or whatever. Just make sure that you've incremented the major version number, so that it's clear that this version is significantly different from its predecessor. That way, it's not so much like you're correcting flaws in the previous code as reworking the whole project to meet new goals.
**Make a list of improvements.** How is your version appreciably better than the previous version?
* Does it do the same job 3x faster?
* Does the code now include a suite of unit tests that ensure that it does the right thing?
* Does it have any major new features or capabilities?
* Have you made the code fully compliant with the company coding guidelines?
* Did you rewrite the code using the company's new favorite language?
* Is the code now modular, so that it's easier to test and easier to extend?
In short, focus on what's good about the new version, not what was not-so-good about the previous version. The longer you can make the list of substantial benefits, the harder it will be to argue that the changes aren't improvements. Avoid listing minor changes like bug fixes, though -- you could probably have made those in the existing code without a major rewrite, so minor things will undermine your argument.
**Be prepared for some criticism.** Even though the code was written 8 years ago, the original author is likely still one of the company's subject matter experts on this topic, and he/she may notice some details that others haven't. Accept the criticism in a positive spirit. Take notes so that you'll remember to address all the issues that are raised during the discussion.
**Be prepared for any reaction.** Chances are that the original author will be glad that this old project has been rewritten and will no longer be something they have to answer questions about. Or, they might feel somewhat attached to one of their early projects and sad to see it fall by the wayside. Just be open and honest, answer questions as best you can, listen to what they tell you, and don't take negative comments too personally. | Was this person a senior developer when they write the code 8 years ago?
Probably not - so the code wasn't 'senior developer quality'.
Unless they are still writing code the same way they did back then, you should have little concern in showing how you've improved on their work using current best practices. |
90,816 | My internship mission consists in recoding an entire software which was coded 8 years ago by a current senior developer of the company in another language.
The only trouble is that I changed the organization of the software from bottom to top. I switched to MVC instead of the "all in a file" pattern for example.
How do I show him my current work without sounding like "your previous work sucked so much, that's why mine is so different" ? | 2017/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/90816",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/68787/"
] | Was this person a senior developer when they write the code 8 years ago?
Probably not - so the code wasn't 'senior developer quality'.
Unless they are still writing code the same way they did back then, you should have little concern in showing how you've improved on their work using current best practices. | The first step is stop seeing your work this way: you did not receive the task to rewrite bad code but to port it to a new language.
That's what you did and that's it.
Different choices are to be expected when porting, moreover if the codebase is old, so if nobody goes down that slope you shouldn't worry about someone seeing a judgement in your changes.
As a side note maybe you are not fully aware of all the reasoning behind the choices made 8 years ago that led to that code: maybe that was the best they could do at that time with the tools, constraints, specifications and so on. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | >
> What prevents people from doing this?
>
>
>
* Laws (if you are *lying* about your residency)
* Convenience
* It won't work for income taxes
>
> Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower?
>
>
>
According to the [Illinois Department of Revenue](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/individuals/filingrequirements/Pages/default.aspx):
>
> you must file Form IL-1040 and Schedule NR if
>
>
> * you earned enough taxable income from Illinois sources to have a tax liability
>
>
>
So just *claiming* you live in Indiana won't stop you from owing income tax in Illinois. Plus Indiana might compensate for lower income taxes with higher property taxes, so you might actually may *more* taxes with this scheme.
(I see in the comments you only want to create a PO Box, so this may not apply, but it does apply to other situations where people *legitimately* live across state lines).
NBA players actually have to pay tax to [*all states that they play in*](https://www.slamonline.com/nba/state-taxes-nba-free-agency/). Otherwise, every player would move to a state that has no state income tax. | According to [the Illinois Department of Revenue](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/questionsandanswers/Pages/10.aspx), you must file an Illinois income tax return if “you earned enough taxable income from Illinois sources to have a tax liability[.]” There is a form for residents of Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan or Wisconsin to fill out exempting them from withholding, but not Indiana. “If you received wages, salaries, tips, and commissions from Illinois employers, you are not required to pay Illinois Income Tax on this income. This is based on reciprocal agreements between Illinois and these states.”
So this might be useful if you earn a lot of passive income from investments out-of-state (although in that case the way to make them tax-free *legally* is to buy muni bonds), or if you want to work in Indiana but live in Chicago, but not if you work and live in Illinois.
Most people who work in Illinois would have state income tax withheld, although the hypothetical tax cheat would have several ways around that. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | >
> What prevents people from doing this?
>
>
>
* Laws (if you are *lying* about your residency)
* Convenience
* It won't work for income taxes
>
> Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower?
>
>
>
According to the [Illinois Department of Revenue](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/individuals/filingrequirements/Pages/default.aspx):
>
> you must file Form IL-1040 and Schedule NR if
>
>
> * you earned enough taxable income from Illinois sources to have a tax liability
>
>
>
So just *claiming* you live in Indiana won't stop you from owing income tax in Illinois. Plus Indiana might compensate for lower income taxes with higher property taxes, so you might actually may *more* taxes with this scheme.
(I see in the comments you only want to create a PO Box, so this may not apply, but it does apply to other situations where people *legitimately* live across state lines).
NBA players actually have to pay tax to [*all states that they play in*](https://www.slamonline.com/nba/state-taxes-nba-free-agency/). Otherwise, every player would move to a state that has no state income tax. | It's difficult if not impossible to do if you actually live in Chicago, and just have a mail drop in the other state. You'd need to establish effective residency there, by e.g. owning a residence, spending time there, maintaining voter registration, driver's license and so on. All of that is likely to cost more than you'd save in taxes unless you are a) really rich; or b) actually do live in the second state, and just work in the first.
As an example of b, for a couple of years I spent alternate weeks working in California & living in rented lodgings there. The other weeks I'd work from my actual (owned) home in Nevada, where I maintained everything that goes into establishing residency. As a consequence, I only had to pay California nonresident tax on the portion of my income that came from the California client, not on income that I got from my other clients. The critical point here is that I actually WAS a Nevada resident, and had been for many years before taking the California job, so there was no lying about my resident status. It was never questioned, but I could have easily proved it if it had been.
PS: And per comments above, the only reason this actually benefitted me is because only a fraction of my income was from California. Had I had only a single W-2 job in California, I think (though I've never actually worked it out) that I would have paid as much whether I was a resident or non-resident. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | Why stop at Indiana? Why not say you live in a tax haven in a completely different country, and not pay any taxes at all, even though you still remain in the same place?
Oh, it's called tax evasion. Right. That thing they talk about on TV all the time these days.
Many people actually do it (though it's usually a little bit more complex, they set up companies in those countries, and get the money through those companies). In some cases, it's actually even legal (see big corporations "parking" their international profits in tax havens to avoid taxation in the US), up to a certain point, though many countries are actively fighting those "loopholes".
But in many cases, it's actually just plain illegal. The country/state where you live in has laws that says you owe taxes on your income based on a number of conditions, such as your place of residence, the source of your income, and so on. In some cases, several jurisdictions may even have a valid claim to tax you (suppose you are an United States citizen living in France and working in Switzerland: all three have a reason to tax you).
There are then treaties to decide who you actually pay taxes to in those situations, but it can quickly become very complex.
If you just plain flat out lie about where you live, you'll end up being caught when they check (and they do check). You'll be asked to prove that you actually live where you claim you do. Rent, utility bills, grocery bills... If you can't prove it, you'll be taxed, and will probably have to pay penalties. And good luck reclaiming what you paid to the other state! | **Because there are much easier ways to cheat on your taxes**
While moral obligations and legal threats play a part, I believe the main reason is this would be an extremely expensive, difficult way to cheat your taxes.
**Why (Low/Middle Income)**
1) You must establish residency in a state you don't live in. A P.O. box won't cut it. You've got to show a lease or utility bills. That involves buying or leasing an actual place to live, which will be several hundred a month.
2) Per above, a low/middle net worth individual would spend more faking a residence than they'd save. It's all risk and no reward.
3) Furthermore, low/middle net worth people likely work a 9-5 job, where taxes are taken out of their paychecks before they even see the money. Claiming they don't owe state taxes is likely going to raise a red flag.
**Why (High Income)**
For high net worth individuals, it's a bit different. They can afford a lake house in a 0% income tax state, and may actually visit a weekend or two a month to get the mail and enjoy the view.
1) They can also afford a great accountant to figure out how to legally not pay taxes in the state they live in anyway.
2) High net worth individuals are likely already itemizing deductions, and figuring out how to make the mortgage interest deduction work in their favor. They've likely also set up companies that hold money and assets for them in a tax-advantaged way.
3) High net worth individuals (many retirees are in this camp) do move to states like Florida which have no income tax. If you're running a company that does business in another state, you may still be required to pay some type of corporate income tax based on where the money was earned. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | The very short version is "laws". The more helpful version is that every state has its own taxation requirements. For instance, if you work in Illinois you are required [to file appropriate forms](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/individuals/filingrequirements/Pages/default.aspx) stating what you say your residence is.
Every state works a little differently, so you'll need to review every involved state. [Here is a law firm's advice on establishing state "domicile" (residency)](http://frostpllc.com/establishing-residency-for-state-tax-purposes/).
The short version is that you will be required to tell the state you get paid in, and the state you claim to live in (if they have a tax or other reason to care), with yearly filed forms what your status is. Many states you might work in don't actually care where you claim to reside - you pay taxes regardless.
All states have figured out that this is a 'great' and seemingly 'easy' way to dodge taxes, so in my experience if you work/live in multiple states it doesn't matter how honest or correct your taxes are - they will all often request more paperwork asking you to prove what you say about your residency is true. If you do not provide it, they will assume the truth is whatever gets them the most money, and the onus becomes on you to prove otherwise. And the documents they require quickly become non-trivial.
At one point I had to provide copies of birth certificates, driver license and registration, car insurance, lease(s), school records, a signed/notarized statement from myself asserting my proper status, W2s from every job, copies of tax returns in every state I filed and a copy of my federal return, etc. And I had to do something similar for every state I filed in. It all worked out fine - but every state was very keen to cut down on this form of tax fraud (this happened within the last few years).
States with low/no income taxes don't like being used for this, because they lose money too - those states generally rely on other taxes which you will contribute minimally to. States with income taxes where you work and claim not to live aren't keen on such a situation either, because they lose a primary source of income.
So all in all, this is a very well known issue among tax authorities, and they are legally entitled - and usually will nowadays - to demand you provide proof that you meet the legal requirements of the state in terms of domicile and tax status. If you cannot provide the proof, they will make you pay. If they catch you lying, this is tax fraud, and tax authorities really don't mind hitting you with penalties. If you've done this more than once, they will also automatically flag past returns to go back and check, and they are generally quite happy to refer you to the district attorney for additional 'handling', plus penalties. And on top of it, tax authorities have a very unusual presumption of innocence - which is that they tend not to have that. They can go back and say, "well, you were lying/wrong about this thing, so we will assume everything else is wrong and charge you appropriately" - and then you have to prove you aren't in the wrong for every item. This will generally mean you need a lawyer, and they add their own expense on top.
The name of the game is "some people get away with it - so they punish people extra hard to try to discourage you". So don't do it :) | I'm surprised no one has yet mention an important reason: **ignorance**.
Your question (and other answers) assumes people are aware of all the benefits and costs of making such decision. However, **we are not rational machines**. In reality, we have limited knowledge of the world. There is an amazing article about a recent book on the topic ("The knowledge illusion") [here](https://www.nytimes.com/2017/04/18/books/review/knowledge-illusion-steven-sloman-philip-fernbach.html). A nice quote:
>
> Over the last few decades, the ideal of the rational individual has been attacked from all sides. Postcolonial and feminist thinkers challenged it as a chauvinistic Western fantasy, glorifying the autonomy and power of white men. Behavioral economists and evolutionary psychologists have demonstrated that most human decisions are based on emotional reactions and heuristic shortcuts rather than rational analysis, and that while our emotions and heuristics were perhaps suitable for dealing with the African savanna in the Stone Age, they are woefully inadequate for dealing with the urban jungle of the silicon age.
>
>
> |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | Lying to save on taxes is called tax fraud. The threat of large fines and jail-time is what prevents most people from committing tax fraud. | Some adjoining states have reciprocity agreements. In those cases it is where you live that determines which state taxes apply.
But if you aren't covered by one of those agreements. Then each state will try and determine if they can claim you.
The states set out in their laws what you need to do to claim residency. They look for things like which address do you have bills sent to, where are you registered to vote, where do you have your drivers license. There ra e also exemptions carved out for active duty military, college students, and workers who are on temporary assignments.
The risk is being charged with tax fraud. You could be hit with interest and penalties. In your example Illinois would claim taxes going back for more years than Indiana will be willing to refund. They could also hit you with other fines for not registering the vehicle, or getting a drivers license, or paying a personal property tax.
Ways you could get caught. Parking a car with an out of state license plate for too many nights. When you get to a point when you need to apply for a benefit from the other state.
I knew somebody who moved states, but didn't tell their company for years. Then their child wanted to go to a school in their new state. They weren't allowed to register for school until they resolved all the issues. It cost them a ton of money. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | Why stop at Indiana? Why not say you live in a tax haven in a completely different country, and not pay any taxes at all, even though you still remain in the same place?
Oh, it's called tax evasion. Right. That thing they talk about on TV all the time these days.
Many people actually do it (though it's usually a little bit more complex, they set up companies in those countries, and get the money through those companies). In some cases, it's actually even legal (see big corporations "parking" their international profits in tax havens to avoid taxation in the US), up to a certain point, though many countries are actively fighting those "loopholes".
But in many cases, it's actually just plain illegal. The country/state where you live in has laws that says you owe taxes on your income based on a number of conditions, such as your place of residence, the source of your income, and so on. In some cases, several jurisdictions may even have a valid claim to tax you (suppose you are an United States citizen living in France and working in Switzerland: all three have a reason to tax you).
There are then treaties to decide who you actually pay taxes to in those situations, but it can quickly become very complex.
If you just plain flat out lie about where you live, you'll end up being caught when they check (and they do check). You'll be asked to prove that you actually live where you claim you do. Rent, utility bills, grocery bills... If you can't prove it, you'll be taxed, and will probably have to pay penalties. And good luck reclaiming what you paid to the other state! | To offer a different point of view from the other answers. Each state will have rules about when people will owe income (or other taxes) and what income is to be included in that calculation.
There's nothing stopping you from reading the rules and arranging your life such that you avoid a state's income tax. Some states are aggressive, if I remember correctly, you owe New York income tax from all sources of income by simply owning property in the state regardless of whether or not you even set foot in the state. Some states may require that you be physically present in the state more than 180 days.
Fact of the matter is there will be rules. You just have to follow the rules. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | It's difficult if not impossible to do if you actually live in Chicago, and just have a mail drop in the other state. You'd need to establish effective residency there, by e.g. owning a residence, spending time there, maintaining voter registration, driver's license and so on. All of that is likely to cost more than you'd save in taxes unless you are a) really rich; or b) actually do live in the second state, and just work in the first.
As an example of b, for a couple of years I spent alternate weeks working in California & living in rented lodgings there. The other weeks I'd work from my actual (owned) home in Nevada, where I maintained everything that goes into establishing residency. As a consequence, I only had to pay California nonresident tax on the portion of my income that came from the California client, not on income that I got from my other clients. The critical point here is that I actually WAS a Nevada resident, and had been for many years before taking the California job, so there was no lying about my resident status. It was never questioned, but I could have easily proved it if it had been.
PS: And per comments above, the only reason this actually benefitted me is because only a fraction of my income was from California. Had I had only a single W-2 job in California, I think (though I've never actually worked it out) that I would have paid as much whether I was a resident or non-resident. | I'm surprised no one has yet mention an important reason: **ignorance**.
Your question (and other answers) assumes people are aware of all the benefits and costs of making such decision. However, **we are not rational machines**. In reality, we have limited knowledge of the world. There is an amazing article about a recent book on the topic ("The knowledge illusion") [here](https://www.nytimes.com/2017/04/18/books/review/knowledge-illusion-steven-sloman-philip-fernbach.html). A nice quote:
>
> Over the last few decades, the ideal of the rational individual has been attacked from all sides. Postcolonial and feminist thinkers challenged it as a chauvinistic Western fantasy, glorifying the autonomy and power of white men. Behavioral economists and evolutionary psychologists have demonstrated that most human decisions are based on emotional reactions and heuristic shortcuts rather than rational analysis, and that while our emotions and heuristics were perhaps suitable for dealing with the African savanna in the Stone Age, they are woefully inadequate for dealing with the urban jungle of the silicon age.
>
>
> |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | According to [the Illinois Department of Revenue](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/questionsandanswers/Pages/10.aspx), you must file an Illinois income tax return if “you earned enough taxable income from Illinois sources to have a tax liability[.]” There is a form for residents of Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan or Wisconsin to fill out exempting them from withholding, but not Indiana. “If you received wages, salaries, tips, and commissions from Illinois employers, you are not required to pay Illinois Income Tax on this income. This is based on reciprocal agreements between Illinois and these states.”
So this might be useful if you earn a lot of passive income from investments out-of-state (although in that case the way to make them tax-free *legally* is to buy muni bonds), or if you want to work in Indiana but live in Chicago, but not if you work and live in Illinois.
Most people who work in Illinois would have state income tax withheld, although the hypothetical tax cheat would have several ways around that. | I'm surprised no one has yet mention an important reason: **ignorance**.
Your question (and other answers) assumes people are aware of all the benefits and costs of making such decision. However, **we are not rational machines**. In reality, we have limited knowledge of the world. There is an amazing article about a recent book on the topic ("The knowledge illusion") [here](https://www.nytimes.com/2017/04/18/books/review/knowledge-illusion-steven-sloman-philip-fernbach.html). A nice quote:
>
> Over the last few decades, the ideal of the rational individual has been attacked from all sides. Postcolonial and feminist thinkers challenged it as a chauvinistic Western fantasy, glorifying the autonomy and power of white men. Behavioral economists and evolutionary psychologists have demonstrated that most human decisions are based on emotional reactions and heuristic shortcuts rather than rational analysis, and that while our emotions and heuristics were perhaps suitable for dealing with the African savanna in the Stone Age, they are woefully inadequate for dealing with the urban jungle of the silicon age.
>
>
> |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | Why stop at Indiana? Why not say you live in a tax haven in a completely different country, and not pay any taxes at all, even though you still remain in the same place?
Oh, it's called tax evasion. Right. That thing they talk about on TV all the time these days.
Many people actually do it (though it's usually a little bit more complex, they set up companies in those countries, and get the money through those companies). In some cases, it's actually even legal (see big corporations "parking" their international profits in tax havens to avoid taxation in the US), up to a certain point, though many countries are actively fighting those "loopholes".
But in many cases, it's actually just plain illegal. The country/state where you live in has laws that says you owe taxes on your income based on a number of conditions, such as your place of residence, the source of your income, and so on. In some cases, several jurisdictions may even have a valid claim to tax you (suppose you are an United States citizen living in France and working in Switzerland: all three have a reason to tax you).
There are then treaties to decide who you actually pay taxes to in those situations, but it can quickly become very complex.
If you just plain flat out lie about where you live, you'll end up being caught when they check (and they do check). You'll be asked to prove that you actually live where you claim you do. Rent, utility bills, grocery bills... If you can't prove it, you'll be taxed, and will probably have to pay penalties. And good luck reclaiming what you paid to the other state! | According to [the Illinois Department of Revenue](https://www2.illinois.gov/rev/questionsandanswers/Pages/10.aspx), you must file an Illinois income tax return if “you earned enough taxable income from Illinois sources to have a tax liability[.]” There is a form for residents of Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan or Wisconsin to fill out exempting them from withholding, but not Indiana. “If you received wages, salaries, tips, and commissions from Illinois employers, you are not required to pay Illinois Income Tax on this income. This is based on reciprocal agreements between Illinois and these states.”
So this might be useful if you earn a lot of passive income from investments out-of-state (although in that case the way to make them tax-free *legally* is to buy muni bonds), or if you want to work in Indiana but live in Chicago, but not if you work and live in Illinois.
Most people who work in Illinois would have state income tax withheld, although the hypothetical tax cheat would have several ways around that. |
105,373 | Lets say you work in Chicago and live in Chicago but put your home address as somewhere in Indiana. Then every week you collect the mail that is being sent to you in Indiana. Wouldn't you save a lot of money assuming the taxes are lower? What prevents people from doing this? | 2019/02/15 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/105373",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/82580/"
] | Lying to save on taxes is called tax fraud. The threat of large fines and jail-time is what prevents most people from committing tax fraud. | It's difficult if not impossible to do if you actually live in Chicago, and just have a mail drop in the other state. You'd need to establish effective residency there, by e.g. owning a residence, spending time there, maintaining voter registration, driver's license and so on. All of that is likely to cost more than you'd save in taxes unless you are a) really rich; or b) actually do live in the second state, and just work in the first.
As an example of b, for a couple of years I spent alternate weeks working in California & living in rented lodgings there. The other weeks I'd work from my actual (owned) home in Nevada, where I maintained everything that goes into establishing residency. As a consequence, I only had to pay California nonresident tax on the portion of my income that came from the California client, not on income that I got from my other clients. The critical point here is that I actually WAS a Nevada resident, and had been for many years before taking the California job, so there was no lying about my resident status. It was never questioned, but I could have easily proved it if it had been.
PS: And per comments above, the only reason this actually benefitted me is because only a fraction of my income was from California. Had I had only a single W-2 job in California, I think (though I've never actually worked it out) that I would have paid as much whether I was a resident or non-resident. |
24,186 | I am working on a messaging system and plan to use ElGamal asymmetric encryption to protect the message contents during storage and transmission. (This would be in addition to TLS used during transmission.) What I want to know is if there are any inherent weaknesses in the ElGamal algorithm that I should be aware of or guidelines to the key bit size.
Assumptions:
1. Messages will be short, so performance is less of a concern.
2. Keys (and the associated user accounts) are disposable (short lived).
3. Message retention will be minimized (days, not weeks or months).
4. Messaging will be asynchronous as users are not expected to be online at the same time. (This is the main reason that I have ruled out the typical D-H key exchange to generate a shared, symmetric key.)
5. Private keys will never leave the client device.
6. Public keys will be stored in a database with the anonymous user account consisting of a username and hashed password.
7. Using libgcrpt. | 2015/02/26 | [
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/24186",
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com",
"https://crypto.stackexchange.com/users/23111/"
] | A Diffie-Hellman exchange needs not be synchronous. In DH, each party has a private key (*x*) and a public key (*g**x* mod *p*). If the sender knows the recipient's public key *g**a*, then he can build his own key pair (*b* and *g**b*), compute the shared secret (*g**ab*), and send both his public key (*g**b*) and the encrypted message (symmetric key derived from *g**ab*) to the recipient. This works for asynchronous messages: the recipient needs not do anything at message sending time. This kind of processing is used in, for instance, [S/MIME](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S/MIME) for encrypted emails, and it works.
The difference between DH and asymmetric encryption (like ElGamal or RSA) is only that in the case of DH, the sender does not get to *choose* the exact value of the shared secret, but that's fine as long as that secret is only used for symmetric encryption.
In fact, even if you use asymmetric encryption (ElGamal, RSA...), you still want to use it to encrypt a randomly generated symmetric key, and use that key with a symmetric encryption algorithm to process the actual data. Indeed, asymmetric encryption algorithms are quite limited in the size and format of what they could send.
That being said, ElGamal, as an asymmetric encryption algorithm, is fine *as long as it is used properly*. Notably, ElGamal is homomorphic (given the encryption of *x* and the encryption of *y*, one can from the outside compute the encryption of the product *xy*), which is a nice property in some cases, but can be bothersome in other conditions. A safe method to do ElGamal encryption is to, indeed, use it only to encrypt a random symmetric key, at which point there really is no advantage over a simple Diffie-Hellman.
"Proper usage" really means that you should not just slap together a few cryptographic algorithms; such an assembly is a delicate matter, and should be done only as part of a fully specified and analysed *protocol*. For instance, [OpenPGP](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc4880), which is implemented by [GnuPG](https://www.gnupg.org/) (an opensource library from which libgcrypt was derived). Indeed, OpenPGP supports ElGamal encryption, and does it "properly" (it uses ElGamal because that protocol was defined at a time when RSA was still patented, but ElGamal was not -- this no longer applies nowadays).
So that would be the "guidelines": follow OpenPGP; even better, save time and use the GnuPG implementation directly. Code which is easiest to design and implement is code which has already been designed and implemented by somebody else. | Whenever possible, Security Stack Exchange is going to recommend "don't roll your own" crypto. Is there a library which implements ElGamal that you can use instead where it has been tested and vetted? Implementing Crypto is always difficult and unless you are experienced in the area, you should try to avoid doing as much as possible on your own.
There will always be weaknesses that can be found in the math, but most often the issues will be in the programming of the algorithm. You may be interested in Bruce Schneier's latest paper, "[Surreptitiously Weakening Cryptographic Systems](http://eprint.iacr.org/2015/097)". In the paper (p. 3) , he notes there is a subliminal channel attack possible.
You may want to search or ask on [Crypto.SE](https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/16336/weaknesses-in-elgamal-with-public-key-of-small-order) for relevant discussions.
Many of your assumptions are algorithm and protocol agnostic. |
42,804 | In July 2019, the [United Kingdom seized an oil tanker carrying oil from Iran to Syria](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions). Reportedly, this is to enforce EU sanctions against Syria. But neither Iran nor Syria are members of the EU, so how can EU sanctions against Syria be of any relevance? Do sanctions imply a [blockade](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blockade)? Do EU sanctions authorise EU member states to check and possibly impede any vessel transiting through EU waters, or is such passage supposed to be free under [innocent passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Innocent_passage), [strait passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strait_passage), or [transit passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transit_passage)?
(It gets more complicated, because it was in waters claimed by Gibraltar, a claim that Spain disputes, and the ship was apparently registered in Panama; but I'm not sure those complications affect the answer in this case) | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/42804",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | I'm not going to stake who is right on this, but the UK/Gibraltar claim/action is based on the following [justification](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html):
>
> Gibraltar's government said in a statement Friday that it is extending the detention of the supertanker by 14 days after obtaining an order from the British territory's Supreme Court.
>
>
> "The Supreme Court has issued today's order on the basis that there are reasonable grounds to consider that the detention of the Grace 1 is required for the purposes of compliance with the EU Regulation 36/2012 on sanctions on Syria," the statement said.
>
>
>
Note that insofar the EU has [refused to comment](https://www.todayonline.com/world/european-commission-declines-comment-tanker-seized-gibraltar) on whether the regulation was properly applied or not in this case.
>
> The European Union's executive declined on Thursday to comment on the tanker detained in Gibraltar, saying that it had no information on the case and that implementing the bloc's sanctions was a matter for the member states.
>
>
>
Also the tanker [might not](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html) have been under Panamanian flag at the time of its detention:
>
> While several online shipping trackers say the vessel was sailing under the flag of Panama, the Panama Maritime Authority (PMA) said in a statement that Grace 1's registry was canceled on May 29 after it was notified the ship may be participating or linked to financing terrorism.
>
>
> "The PMA ... was notified of the international alert regarding the vessel GRACE 1, which indicated that this vessel might be participating or being linked to the Financing of Terrorism, or in support of the destabilizing activities of certain regions led by terrorist groups," the PMA said.
>
>
>
Also, [regarding ownership](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions) of that tanker:
>
> Lloyd’s List reported Grace 1 had “a complex ownership chain” and was controlled by Russian Titan Shipping, a subsidiary of TNC Gulf, a Dubai-based shipping company. Executives connected with both companies hold Iranian university and technical qualifications, or list their names in Farsi.
>
>
>
So the details are still sketchy. I could not find the full text of Gibraltar Supreme Court decision on-line, insofar. It might have more details.
There's a more recent Gibraltar government [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) on this though, which says among other things:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
> The Grace 1's position well inside BGTW when boarded can clearly be seen on the attached screenshot. The ship remains detained in that area.
>
>
> The detention of the vessel relates to the suspected destination of the cargo, the Banyas refinery in Syria, which is owned by a company, the Banyas Oil Refinery Company. This company is the subject of European Union sanctions under EU Regulation 36/2012, which is directly applicable in Gibraltar.
>
>
> The investigations of the Royal Gibraltar Police continue and the vessel remains detained under an Order of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Gibraltar.
>
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DDs1T.jpg)
>
>
>
So at least this much is clear: the Gibraltar government claims to have detained the tanker inside its own (claimed) territorial waters (BGTW), rather than in what they recognize as international waters in the Straights.
---
And regarding innocent passage, I'm speculating here since Gibraltar has not said anything about the issue in relation to Grace 1, but [some news from 2015](https://www.gbc.gi/news/government-obtains-innocent-passage-legal-opinion-30256) discuss it in relation to Spanish vessels:
>
> A vessel can only be considered to be on innocent passage through British Gibraltar Territorial Waters if it's moving continuously and expeditiously, and is not engaged in any activities that are prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK. That's the basis of expert legal advice received by the Government on the question of innocent passage as it relates to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
>
>
> In November last year, the Government announced it had commissioned a legal opinion on the definition of innocent passage given discussions that were underway at the time relating to the procedure for categorising the entry into BGTW of foreign state vessels. Following the latest spate of incursions by Spanish vessels this month that provoked a formal protest by the UK, GBC [Gibraltar Broadcasting Corporation] asked Number Six Convent Place whether it had received this advice.
>
>
> In reply the Government confirmed that it had. The legal opinion further states that when it appears objectively from the foreign vessel's behaviour that its purpose in passing through BGTW is to assert its country's sovereignty claim over the waters, its passage would not be deemed to be innocent under international law. Number Six says it will continue to pursue this matter with the Foreign Office on the strength of the legal opinion it's received.
>
>
>
That news was from 2015, but incidents with Spanish vessels were [also reported in February this year](https://www.chronicle.gi/uk-makes-formal-protest-spain-sunday-incursion/).
So clearly the Gibraltar and UK governments are generally aware of the issue of innocent passage through BGTW, and they have a stance on it at least as far as Spanish vessels are concerned. That they chose not to mention/discuss innocent passage in the Grace 1 case probably means they think it doesn't apply to ships violating EU embargoes, presumably because allowing ships passing through Gibraltar's (claimed) territorial waters to violate EU sanctions/embargo is considered "prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK". | The key legal point of their justification seems to be this, from the [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) linked and quoted by Fizz:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely
> navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two
> miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the
> international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged
> call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
>
Article 18 of [UNCLOS](https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/unclos_e.pdf) says this:
>
> 1. Passage means navigation through the territorial sea for the purpose of:
>
>
> (a) traversing that sea without entering internal waters
> or calling at a roadstead or port facility outside internal waters; or
>
>
> (b) proceeding to or from internal waters or a call at such roadstead
> or port facility.
> 2. Passage shall be continuous and expeditious. However, passage includes stopping and anchoring, but only in so far as the same are
> incidental to ordinary navigation or are rendered necessary by
> force majeure or distress or for the purpose of rendering assistance
> to persons, ships or aircraft in danger or distress.
>
>
>
Once you stop to take on supplies, it's no longer passage.
I also don't think stopping to take on supplies in itself counts as calling at a [roadstead](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roadstead) or port facility. But even if it did, "passage" only seems to apply to going to or from the place, not actually being at it. Once you've chosen to stop in a country's internal waters or facility, you're placing yourself fully within its jurisdiction. |
42,804 | In July 2019, the [United Kingdom seized an oil tanker carrying oil from Iran to Syria](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions). Reportedly, this is to enforce EU sanctions against Syria. But neither Iran nor Syria are members of the EU, so how can EU sanctions against Syria be of any relevance? Do sanctions imply a [blockade](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blockade)? Do EU sanctions authorise EU member states to check and possibly impede any vessel transiting through EU waters, or is such passage supposed to be free under [innocent passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Innocent_passage), [strait passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strait_passage), or [transit passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transit_passage)?
(It gets more complicated, because it was in waters claimed by Gibraltar, a claim that Spain disputes, and the ship was apparently registered in Panama; but I'm not sure those complications affect the answer in this case) | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/42804",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | I'm not going to stake who is right on this, but the UK/Gibraltar claim/action is based on the following [justification](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html):
>
> Gibraltar's government said in a statement Friday that it is extending the detention of the supertanker by 14 days after obtaining an order from the British territory's Supreme Court.
>
>
> "The Supreme Court has issued today's order on the basis that there are reasonable grounds to consider that the detention of the Grace 1 is required for the purposes of compliance with the EU Regulation 36/2012 on sanctions on Syria," the statement said.
>
>
>
Note that insofar the EU has [refused to comment](https://www.todayonline.com/world/european-commission-declines-comment-tanker-seized-gibraltar) on whether the regulation was properly applied or not in this case.
>
> The European Union's executive declined on Thursday to comment on the tanker detained in Gibraltar, saying that it had no information on the case and that implementing the bloc's sanctions was a matter for the member states.
>
>
>
Also the tanker [might not](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html) have been under Panamanian flag at the time of its detention:
>
> While several online shipping trackers say the vessel was sailing under the flag of Panama, the Panama Maritime Authority (PMA) said in a statement that Grace 1's registry was canceled on May 29 after it was notified the ship may be participating or linked to financing terrorism.
>
>
> "The PMA ... was notified of the international alert regarding the vessel GRACE 1, which indicated that this vessel might be participating or being linked to the Financing of Terrorism, or in support of the destabilizing activities of certain regions led by terrorist groups," the PMA said.
>
>
>
Also, [regarding ownership](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions) of that tanker:
>
> Lloyd’s List reported Grace 1 had “a complex ownership chain” and was controlled by Russian Titan Shipping, a subsidiary of TNC Gulf, a Dubai-based shipping company. Executives connected with both companies hold Iranian university and technical qualifications, or list their names in Farsi.
>
>
>
So the details are still sketchy. I could not find the full text of Gibraltar Supreme Court decision on-line, insofar. It might have more details.
There's a more recent Gibraltar government [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) on this though, which says among other things:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
> The Grace 1's position well inside BGTW when boarded can clearly be seen on the attached screenshot. The ship remains detained in that area.
>
>
> The detention of the vessel relates to the suspected destination of the cargo, the Banyas refinery in Syria, which is owned by a company, the Banyas Oil Refinery Company. This company is the subject of European Union sanctions under EU Regulation 36/2012, which is directly applicable in Gibraltar.
>
>
> The investigations of the Royal Gibraltar Police continue and the vessel remains detained under an Order of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Gibraltar.
>
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DDs1T.jpg)
>
>
>
So at least this much is clear: the Gibraltar government claims to have detained the tanker inside its own (claimed) territorial waters (BGTW), rather than in what they recognize as international waters in the Straights.
---
And regarding innocent passage, I'm speculating here since Gibraltar has not said anything about the issue in relation to Grace 1, but [some news from 2015](https://www.gbc.gi/news/government-obtains-innocent-passage-legal-opinion-30256) discuss it in relation to Spanish vessels:
>
> A vessel can only be considered to be on innocent passage through British Gibraltar Territorial Waters if it's moving continuously and expeditiously, and is not engaged in any activities that are prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK. That's the basis of expert legal advice received by the Government on the question of innocent passage as it relates to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
>
>
> In November last year, the Government announced it had commissioned a legal opinion on the definition of innocent passage given discussions that were underway at the time relating to the procedure for categorising the entry into BGTW of foreign state vessels. Following the latest spate of incursions by Spanish vessels this month that provoked a formal protest by the UK, GBC [Gibraltar Broadcasting Corporation] asked Number Six Convent Place whether it had received this advice.
>
>
> In reply the Government confirmed that it had. The legal opinion further states that when it appears objectively from the foreign vessel's behaviour that its purpose in passing through BGTW is to assert its country's sovereignty claim over the waters, its passage would not be deemed to be innocent under international law. Number Six says it will continue to pursue this matter with the Foreign Office on the strength of the legal opinion it's received.
>
>
>
That news was from 2015, but incidents with Spanish vessels were [also reported in February this year](https://www.chronicle.gi/uk-makes-formal-protest-spain-sunday-incursion/).
So clearly the Gibraltar and UK governments are generally aware of the issue of innocent passage through BGTW, and they have a stance on it at least as far as Spanish vessels are concerned. That they chose not to mention/discuss innocent passage in the Grace 1 case probably means they think it doesn't apply to ships violating EU embargoes, presumably because allowing ships passing through Gibraltar's (claimed) territorial waters to violate EU sanctions/embargo is considered "prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK". | As per UNCLOS Part 3 Article 38, the right of unimpeded transit passage applies to straits such as Gibraltar and Hormuz. Stopping to take on supplies (if true) could not have altered the vessel’s right to transit passage as it still remained incidental to her ordinary navigation.
In fact the vessel was still exercising its right of transit passage without any intention of harbouring in Gibraltar before being impeded.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/efR4l.jpg)
>
> ### Article 38
>
>
> *Right of transit passage*
> 1. In straits referred to in article 37, all ships and aircraft enjoy the right of transit passage, which shall not be impeded; except that, if the strait is formed by an island of a State bordering the strait and its mainland, transit passage shall not apply if there exists seaward of the island a route through the seas or through an exclusive economic zone of similar convenience with respect to navigational and hydrographical characteristics.
> 2. Transit passage means the exercise in accordance with this Part of the freedom of navigation and overflight solely for the purpose of continuous and expeditious transit of the strait between one part of the high seas or an exclusive economic zone and another part of the high seas or an exclusive economic zone. However, the requirement of continuous and expeditious transit does not preclude passage through the strait for the purpose of entering, leaving or returning from a State bordering the strait, subject to the conditions of entry to that State.
> 3. Any activity which is not an exercise of the right of transit passage through a strait remains subject to the other applicable provisions of this Convention.
>
>
> |
42,804 | In July 2019, the [United Kingdom seized an oil tanker carrying oil from Iran to Syria](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions). Reportedly, this is to enforce EU sanctions against Syria. But neither Iran nor Syria are members of the EU, so how can EU sanctions against Syria be of any relevance? Do sanctions imply a [blockade](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blockade)? Do EU sanctions authorise EU member states to check and possibly impede any vessel transiting through EU waters, or is such passage supposed to be free under [innocent passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Innocent_passage), [strait passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strait_passage), or [transit passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transit_passage)?
(It gets more complicated, because it was in waters claimed by Gibraltar, a claim that Spain disputes, and the ship was apparently registered in Panama; but I'm not sure those complications affect the answer in this case) | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/42804",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | I'm not going to stake who is right on this, but the UK/Gibraltar claim/action is based on the following [justification](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html):
>
> Gibraltar's government said in a statement Friday that it is extending the detention of the supertanker by 14 days after obtaining an order from the British territory's Supreme Court.
>
>
> "The Supreme Court has issued today's order on the basis that there are reasonable grounds to consider that the detention of the Grace 1 is required for the purposes of compliance with the EU Regulation 36/2012 on sanctions on Syria," the statement said.
>
>
>
Note that insofar the EU has [refused to comment](https://www.todayonline.com/world/european-commission-declines-comment-tanker-seized-gibraltar) on whether the regulation was properly applied or not in this case.
>
> The European Union's executive declined on Thursday to comment on the tanker detained in Gibraltar, saying that it had no information on the case and that implementing the bloc's sanctions was a matter for the member states.
>
>
>
Also the tanker [might not](https://edition.cnn.com/2019/07/05/middleeast/oil-tanker-gibraltar-iran-intl-gbr/index.html) have been under Panamanian flag at the time of its detention:
>
> While several online shipping trackers say the vessel was sailing under the flag of Panama, the Panama Maritime Authority (PMA) said in a statement that Grace 1's registry was canceled on May 29 after it was notified the ship may be participating or linked to financing terrorism.
>
>
> "The PMA ... was notified of the international alert regarding the vessel GRACE 1, which indicated that this vessel might be participating or being linked to the Financing of Terrorism, or in support of the destabilizing activities of certain regions led by terrorist groups," the PMA said.
>
>
>
Also, [regarding ownership](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions) of that tanker:
>
> Lloyd’s List reported Grace 1 had “a complex ownership chain” and was controlled by Russian Titan Shipping, a subsidiary of TNC Gulf, a Dubai-based shipping company. Executives connected with both companies hold Iranian university and technical qualifications, or list their names in Farsi.
>
>
>
So the details are still sketchy. I could not find the full text of Gibraltar Supreme Court decision on-line, insofar. It might have more details.
There's a more recent Gibraltar government [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) on this though, which says among other things:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
> The Grace 1's position well inside BGTW when boarded can clearly be seen on the attached screenshot. The ship remains detained in that area.
>
>
> The detention of the vessel relates to the suspected destination of the cargo, the Banyas refinery in Syria, which is owned by a company, the Banyas Oil Refinery Company. This company is the subject of European Union sanctions under EU Regulation 36/2012, which is directly applicable in Gibraltar.
>
>
> The investigations of the Royal Gibraltar Police continue and the vessel remains detained under an Order of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Gibraltar.
>
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DDs1T.jpg)
>
>
>
So at least this much is clear: the Gibraltar government claims to have detained the tanker inside its own (claimed) territorial waters (BGTW), rather than in what they recognize as international waters in the Straights.
---
And regarding innocent passage, I'm speculating here since Gibraltar has not said anything about the issue in relation to Grace 1, but [some news from 2015](https://www.gbc.gi/news/government-obtains-innocent-passage-legal-opinion-30256) discuss it in relation to Spanish vessels:
>
> A vessel can only be considered to be on innocent passage through British Gibraltar Territorial Waters if it's moving continuously and expeditiously, and is not engaged in any activities that are prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK. That's the basis of expert legal advice received by the Government on the question of innocent passage as it relates to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
>
>
> In November last year, the Government announced it had commissioned a legal opinion on the definition of innocent passage given discussions that were underway at the time relating to the procedure for categorising the entry into BGTW of foreign state vessels. Following the latest spate of incursions by Spanish vessels this month that provoked a formal protest by the UK, GBC [Gibraltar Broadcasting Corporation] asked Number Six Convent Place whether it had received this advice.
>
>
> In reply the Government confirmed that it had. The legal opinion further states that when it appears objectively from the foreign vessel's behaviour that its purpose in passing through BGTW is to assert its country's sovereignty claim over the waters, its passage would not be deemed to be innocent under international law. Number Six says it will continue to pursue this matter with the Foreign Office on the strength of the legal opinion it's received.
>
>
>
That news was from 2015, but incidents with Spanish vessels were [also reported in February this year](https://www.chronicle.gi/uk-makes-formal-protest-spain-sunday-incursion/).
So clearly the Gibraltar and UK governments are generally aware of the issue of innocent passage through BGTW, and they have a stance on it at least as far as Spanish vessels are concerned. That they chose not to mention/discuss innocent passage in the Grace 1 case probably means they think it doesn't apply to ships violating EU embargoes, presumably because allowing ships passing through Gibraltar's (claimed) territorial waters to violate EU sanctions/embargo is considered "prejudicial to Gibraltar or the UK". | I intended to post a comment, but I require 50 reputation for that, so will post my comment here. Apologies for this.
[This article](https://7dnews.com/news/iran-s-grace-1-captain-asks-to-resign) reports:
>
> Grace 1 was supposed to undergo maintenance before being captured, but
> the latest events disrupted installation of spare parts, which
> rendered the tanker incapable of undertaking a long voyage.
>
>
>
If Grace 1 was unable to continue its journey without maintenance, it could be argued that this constitutes an emergency as set out in international shipping laws, and thus its stop in Gibraltar for maintenance falls within innocent passage. |
42,804 | In July 2019, the [United Kingdom seized an oil tanker carrying oil from Iran to Syria](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions). Reportedly, this is to enforce EU sanctions against Syria. But neither Iran nor Syria are members of the EU, so how can EU sanctions against Syria be of any relevance? Do sanctions imply a [blockade](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blockade)? Do EU sanctions authorise EU member states to check and possibly impede any vessel transiting through EU waters, or is such passage supposed to be free under [innocent passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Innocent_passage), [strait passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strait_passage), or [transit passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transit_passage)?
(It gets more complicated, because it was in waters claimed by Gibraltar, a claim that Spain disputes, and the ship was apparently registered in Panama; but I'm not sure those complications affect the answer in this case) | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/42804",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | The key legal point of their justification seems to be this, from the [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) linked and quoted by Fizz:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely
> navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two
> miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the
> international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged
> call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
>
Article 18 of [UNCLOS](https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/unclos_e.pdf) says this:
>
> 1. Passage means navigation through the territorial sea for the purpose of:
>
>
> (a) traversing that sea without entering internal waters
> or calling at a roadstead or port facility outside internal waters; or
>
>
> (b) proceeding to or from internal waters or a call at such roadstead
> or port facility.
> 2. Passage shall be continuous and expeditious. However, passage includes stopping and anchoring, but only in so far as the same are
> incidental to ordinary navigation or are rendered necessary by
> force majeure or distress or for the purpose of rendering assistance
> to persons, ships or aircraft in danger or distress.
>
>
>
Once you stop to take on supplies, it's no longer passage.
I also don't think stopping to take on supplies in itself counts as calling at a [roadstead](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roadstead) or port facility. But even if it did, "passage" only seems to apply to going to or from the place, not actually being at it. Once you've chosen to stop in a country's internal waters or facility, you're placing yourself fully within its jurisdiction. | As per UNCLOS Part 3 Article 38, the right of unimpeded transit passage applies to straits such as Gibraltar and Hormuz. Stopping to take on supplies (if true) could not have altered the vessel’s right to transit passage as it still remained incidental to her ordinary navigation.
In fact the vessel was still exercising its right of transit passage without any intention of harbouring in Gibraltar before being impeded.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/efR4l.jpg)
>
> ### Article 38
>
>
> *Right of transit passage*
> 1. In straits referred to in article 37, all ships and aircraft enjoy the right of transit passage, which shall not be impeded; except that, if the strait is formed by an island of a State bordering the strait and its mainland, transit passage shall not apply if there exists seaward of the island a route through the seas or through an exclusive economic zone of similar convenience with respect to navigational and hydrographical characteristics.
> 2. Transit passage means the exercise in accordance with this Part of the freedom of navigation and overflight solely for the purpose of continuous and expeditious transit of the strait between one part of the high seas or an exclusive economic zone and another part of the high seas or an exclusive economic zone. However, the requirement of continuous and expeditious transit does not preclude passage through the strait for the purpose of entering, leaving or returning from a State bordering the strait, subject to the conditions of entry to that State.
> 3. Any activity which is not an exercise of the right of transit passage through a strait remains subject to the other applicable provisions of this Convention.
>
>
> |
42,804 | In July 2019, the [United Kingdom seized an oil tanker carrying oil from Iran to Syria](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/jul/04/royal-marines-gibraltar-tanker-oil-syria-eu-sanctions). Reportedly, this is to enforce EU sanctions against Syria. But neither Iran nor Syria are members of the EU, so how can EU sanctions against Syria be of any relevance? Do sanctions imply a [blockade](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blockade)? Do EU sanctions authorise EU member states to check and possibly impede any vessel transiting through EU waters, or is such passage supposed to be free under [innocent passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Innocent_passage), [strait passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strait_passage), or [transit passage](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transit_passage)?
(It gets more complicated, because it was in waters claimed by Gibraltar, a claim that Spain disputes, and the ship was apparently registered in Panama; but I'm not sure those complications affect the answer in this case) | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/42804",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | The key legal point of their justification seems to be this, from the [press release](https://www.gibraltar.gov.gi/press-releases/grace-1-confirmed-to-be-carrying-full-load-of-crude-oil-5222019-5112) linked and quoted by Fizz:
>
> The Grace 1 was detained last week in Gibraltar when it freely
> navigated into British Gibraltar Territorial Waters to a point two
> miles off the Eastside of Gibraltar, having previously exited the
> international waters of the Straits of Gibraltar, on a pre-arranged
> call for provisions and spare parts.
>
>
>
Article 18 of [UNCLOS](https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/unclos_e.pdf) says this:
>
> 1. Passage means navigation through the territorial sea for the purpose of:
>
>
> (a) traversing that sea without entering internal waters
> or calling at a roadstead or port facility outside internal waters; or
>
>
> (b) proceeding to or from internal waters or a call at such roadstead
> or port facility.
> 2. Passage shall be continuous and expeditious. However, passage includes stopping and anchoring, but only in so far as the same are
> incidental to ordinary navigation or are rendered necessary by
> force majeure or distress or for the purpose of rendering assistance
> to persons, ships or aircraft in danger or distress.
>
>
>
Once you stop to take on supplies, it's no longer passage.
I also don't think stopping to take on supplies in itself counts as calling at a [roadstead](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roadstead) or port facility. But even if it did, "passage" only seems to apply to going to or from the place, not actually being at it. Once you've chosen to stop in a country's internal waters or facility, you're placing yourself fully within its jurisdiction. | I intended to post a comment, but I require 50 reputation for that, so will post my comment here. Apologies for this.
[This article](https://7dnews.com/news/iran-s-grace-1-captain-asks-to-resign) reports:
>
> Grace 1 was supposed to undergo maintenance before being captured, but
> the latest events disrupted installation of spare parts, which
> rendered the tanker incapable of undertaking a long voyage.
>
>
>
If Grace 1 was unable to continue its journey without maintenance, it could be argued that this constitutes an emergency as set out in international shipping laws, and thus its stop in Gibraltar for maintenance falls within innocent passage. |
31,139 | I did a search online but couldn't find an accurate list. Anybody know of a list by neighbourhood that is up-to-date? | 2014/06/28 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31139",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2283/"
] | [Starbucks store allocater](http://www.starbucks.com/store-locator/search/location) may help you.
It can show every single Starbucks location, opening time, plus some extra service like wifi/mbile payment/24-hours opening, on **Earth**.
However, many Starbucks stops selling around half hour before closed. | Looks like there's one, according to [Yelp](http://www.yelp.com/search?find_desc=starbucks&find_loc=West%20Village%2C%20Manhattan%2C%20NY&ns=1&ls=9a9eb218a8e0db7b#open_time=1395). |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | I think the single largest thing you can do to make sure that everything works smoothly is to make sure that everyone is on the same page as far as expectations. You are welcome to have any level of paranoia/security you want, as long as your players understand that going in. If they know it's there, they'll plan for it. If they're unaware for carefully crafted story reasons, it adds to the drama. If they just didn't know, that makes for a huge let down (most of the time).
I played in a sci-fi game where everyone on a planet wore Heart Monitors. One of the other players chose to be a killer robot. He wasn't aware that the moment he killed someone, he was causing an investigation. It escalated to a point where he should have just died to a police manhunt. All this was for smuggling a package that, if caught, would have resulted in a small reprimand. We had no idea of the setting, though. This happened in our first session. We never had a second session.
But, in the retelling, I want to illustrate that the expectations were what ruined that. The robot went in expecting to need to silence any observer. Turns out he made more of a mess by doing so. If he had known about the Heart Monitors, he would have changed tactics. And I think that is the extreme example of an alarm, but even that kind of immediate response could have been handled, with appropriate warning. Spoof the signal (even temporarily), or kill in such a way that the heart keeps going for a short bit, or something. Just make sure that the players know what's *possible* in the setting, let alone what they're facing at the current moment. If they know what's available, and the likelihood they might come across that tech, it's then their job to be prepared. | I think it depends on what kind of game you want to play. If you are playing a gritty game where getting past security systems is a big part of the challenge during game play (like in Shadowrun for example) then I think you should pay close attention to the details and sound the alarms when the PCs make a misstep. However, if bypassing security systems isn't as important to the story you are trying to enjoy with your players then don't worry about the fine details. There is little reason to focus on being realistic when it doesn't support the story. |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | There are a number of approaches you can take, depending on the specific campaign.
**1. Remember that many places don't have an alarm to hit.** A lot of interesting targets will not have an alarm to hit, or will only have a very basic one that requires some human to trigger it manually. Many places will not have one due to cost and complacency. Others, especially in a cloak-and-dagger type game, will not have one precisely because they have something to keep secret and will not have or do anything that can betray what is going on inside or attract outside attention. And of course if it is something along the lines of a "panic button", then all the PCs have to do is either avoid detection by humans or take the person down before they can hit the button. That type of alarm will make the stakes of being detected higher, but not change any fundamentals.
**2. Preparation** As lorimer mentioned, dealing with the alarm can be part of the game. If the PCs know to expect an alarm they can find some gadget (in sci-fi) or spell or amulet (in fantasty) that lets them get past it. Or they can find some way to disable it ahead of time. Or they can use social engineering to avoid the issues (of course the gaurds will politely turn off the alarm for the nice repairman, people can be bribed to disable them, etc).
**3. Does the alarm actually matter?** Sometimes an alarm can go off and it just doesn't matter, besides adding flavor. If, say, the alarm just calls out to normal law enforcement the response time could be measured in several minutes (possibly more if there is a big event tying up law enforcement's attention or this is a dystopian future where law enforcement is stretched past the breaking point...) The PCs might be able to ignore the alarm, do their thing, and get out before the cavalry arrives, the alarm just adds some urgency.
Even better, if the PCs have enough information, they might be able to use the alarms to their advantage. If the PCs have one team deliberately trip an alarm somewhere, it just might pull security away from their actual target while they go in. Even if they unintentionally trip a second alarm, they might have some time and face a reduced security response because of the first alarm. | I think it depends on what kind of game you want to play. If you are playing a gritty game where getting past security systems is a big part of the challenge during game play (like in Shadowrun for example) then I think you should pay close attention to the details and sound the alarms when the PCs make a misstep. However, if bypassing security systems isn't as important to the story you are trying to enjoy with your players then don't worry about the fine details. There is little reason to focus on being realistic when it doesn't support the story. |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | The very simple answer is: you don't.
Roleplaying is about making decisions that have consequences. As a Game Master, it's up to you to make those consequences interesting and fun, but that doesn't mean they should always be beneficial to the party or the characters that incur them.
If the players set off an alarm, then they will learn pretty quickly that they need to think smarter and prepare more for future encounters. As long as you give them options and allow for reasonable escape opportunities, ultimately the fate of the characters should be in *their* hands, not yours. | In general my PCs know that any sneaking into fortress, castle, hi-rise, brothel is not going to be a cakewalk. I encourage them to approach it in a realistic manner such as scouting, social engineering, getting low level jobs to scout the inside, use of hidden mikes, tracking devices and robots.
Also for the most part I allow a little leeway such as if the PCs are sneaking in and forget to announce they are on the lookout for guards, detection devices and such. I assume they are since they are sneaking in.
If they are pretty much taking no pre-cautions feel free to bring the full effects of their actions to their attention. They may escape and find themselves having to break into the same place that now has triple the guards and double the detection devices.
Example
The party had to break into a mansion to steal a prototype sniper rifle. The mansion was well guarded with troops, automated turrets, cameras, dogs, motion detectors, x-rays. Part of the party staked it out while the rest tried to find weakness in the defenses. After a few days they discovered a weak link. Any food going in was not X-Ray'ed that with the fact they knew the owner of the mansion was having a birthday soon. So they split up some got in via the birthday cake, another got in by kidnapping and replacing one of the drummers for the band playing, the rest got in as wait staff (they found out wait staff badges where low level but the easiest to reproduce). |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | I think the single largest thing you can do to make sure that everything works smoothly is to make sure that everyone is on the same page as far as expectations. You are welcome to have any level of paranoia/security you want, as long as your players understand that going in. If they know it's there, they'll plan for it. If they're unaware for carefully crafted story reasons, it adds to the drama. If they just didn't know, that makes for a huge let down (most of the time).
I played in a sci-fi game where everyone on a planet wore Heart Monitors. One of the other players chose to be a killer robot. He wasn't aware that the moment he killed someone, he was causing an investigation. It escalated to a point where he should have just died to a police manhunt. All this was for smuggling a package that, if caught, would have resulted in a small reprimand. We had no idea of the setting, though. This happened in our first session. We never had a second session.
But, in the retelling, I want to illustrate that the expectations were what ruined that. The robot went in expecting to need to silence any observer. Turns out he made more of a mess by doing so. If he had known about the Heart Monitors, he would have changed tactics. And I think that is the extreme example of an alarm, but even that kind of immediate response could have been handled, with appropriate warning. Spoof the signal (even temporarily), or kill in such a way that the heart keeps going for a short bit, or something. Just make sure that the players know what's *possible* in the setting, let alone what they're facing at the current moment. If they know what's available, and the likelihood they might come across that tech, it's then their job to be prepared. | There are a number of approaches you can take, depending on the specific campaign.
**1. Remember that many places don't have an alarm to hit.** A lot of interesting targets will not have an alarm to hit, or will only have a very basic one that requires some human to trigger it manually. Many places will not have one due to cost and complacency. Others, especially in a cloak-and-dagger type game, will not have one precisely because they have something to keep secret and will not have or do anything that can betray what is going on inside or attract outside attention. And of course if it is something along the lines of a "panic button", then all the PCs have to do is either avoid detection by humans or take the person down before they can hit the button. That type of alarm will make the stakes of being detected higher, but not change any fundamentals.
**2. Preparation** As lorimer mentioned, dealing with the alarm can be part of the game. If the PCs know to expect an alarm they can find some gadget (in sci-fi) or spell or amulet (in fantasty) that lets them get past it. Or they can find some way to disable it ahead of time. Or they can use social engineering to avoid the issues (of course the gaurds will politely turn off the alarm for the nice repairman, people can be bribed to disable them, etc).
**3. Does the alarm actually matter?** Sometimes an alarm can go off and it just doesn't matter, besides adding flavor. If, say, the alarm just calls out to normal law enforcement the response time could be measured in several minutes (possibly more if there is a big event tying up law enforcement's attention or this is a dystopian future where law enforcement is stretched past the breaking point...) The PCs might be able to ignore the alarm, do their thing, and get out before the cavalry arrives, the alarm just adds some urgency.
Even better, if the PCs have enough information, they might be able to use the alarms to their advantage. If the PCs have one team deliberately trip an alarm somewhere, it just might pull security away from their actual target while they go in. Even if they unintentionally trip a second alarm, they might have some time and face a reduced security response because of the first alarm. |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | I think the single largest thing you can do to make sure that everything works smoothly is to make sure that everyone is on the same page as far as expectations. You are welcome to have any level of paranoia/security you want, as long as your players understand that going in. If they know it's there, they'll plan for it. If they're unaware for carefully crafted story reasons, it adds to the drama. If they just didn't know, that makes for a huge let down (most of the time).
I played in a sci-fi game where everyone on a planet wore Heart Monitors. One of the other players chose to be a killer robot. He wasn't aware that the moment he killed someone, he was causing an investigation. It escalated to a point where he should have just died to a police manhunt. All this was for smuggling a package that, if caught, would have resulted in a small reprimand. We had no idea of the setting, though. This happened in our first session. We never had a second session.
But, in the retelling, I want to illustrate that the expectations were what ruined that. The robot went in expecting to need to silence any observer. Turns out he made more of a mess by doing so. If he had known about the Heart Monitors, he would have changed tactics. And I think that is the extreme example of an alarm, but even that kind of immediate response could have been handled, with appropriate warning. Spoof the signal (even temporarily), or kill in such a way that the heart keeps going for a short bit, or something. Just make sure that the players know what's *possible* in the setting, let alone what they're facing at the current moment. If they know what's available, and the likelihood they might come across that tech, it's then their job to be prepared. | Usually in the games I'm a part of, the PCs' status as heroes sort of takes care of the alarm issue. If intruders easily slaughtered the 5 guys guarding your entrance, are you more likely to rush in there, or hunker down and take the best defensive position you can?
For more stealth or skill-oriented infiltrations, my approach is simply to allow multiple failures instead of one bad roll meaning a total failure. For example, a stealth failure could be described as, "A guard starts to turn a corner and his flashlight will shine directly on you. Everyone roll perception to see if they hear the guard in time to warn you." Chances are someone will make it, but then have some longer-term consequence. "You duck out of sight in time, but the guard thought he heard something suspicious and he's starting to check windows and doors for signs of forced entry." |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | The thing with science fiction settings is that when technology creates a problem for the PCs, it can also generally create a solution. Part of the heist genre is figuring out what the alarm systems are and getting your hands on the gadgets you need to neutralize them. Other valid tactics include social engineering tactics like bribing or impersonating the camera-watchers. The trick is getting players who realize that if they go up against alarm systems, they can lose very suddenly, and that therefore they need to do their homework and plan things out rather than rushing in blind.
Alternatively, if your PCs are working for an organization or higher power and don't have the means or wherewithall to deal with electronic security (no hacker or engineer-types), it's possible that "dealing with the alarm systems" is handled by someone or something else. If you go this route, you can also use it to build tension; "We can get you a four minute window of inactivity on the perimeter defenses. Don't waste it." Then you run into a complication on the way through and you're in jeopardy from the security systems, but it's not immediate / game-over jeopardy. | For a sci-fi setting, which was presupposed in the original question, make sure that one of the PCs is a Tech/Engineer/GreaseMonkeyType. She or He should be able with a very routine skill roll, to determine exactly what kind of surveillance system is being dealt with, and then with another skill roll of minor, moderate, or major difficulty, depending upon the sophistication of the systems in place, either to (1) disable the system entirely (the easiest solution), (2) fool the system into thinking no one is there so no alert is sent, but leave the system operating normally (this is a more difficult choice), or (3) send a false signal (this would be the most difficult of these three possible solutions). I'd allow the PCs to choose which method of disabling/subterfuge was being performed, and adjust the difficulty of the task accordingly.
This is equally do-able for a fantasy setting: If the alarm is a bell or gong that is located within sight of the PCs, a simple Silence spell will usually do the trick. If the room is being monitored via claivoyance/crystal ball/etc. then the PCs will require some advance notice of this monitoring. Judicious use of an Invisibility or other illusion spell, to either make themselves totally undetectable or else appear as creatures who belong in the area, should accomplish the goal. Teleporting past the room with the alarm would also work well, if that option is available to the PCs. |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | In general my PCs know that any sneaking into fortress, castle, hi-rise, brothel is not going to be a cakewalk. I encourage them to approach it in a realistic manner such as scouting, social engineering, getting low level jobs to scout the inside, use of hidden mikes, tracking devices and robots.
Also for the most part I allow a little leeway such as if the PCs are sneaking in and forget to announce they are on the lookout for guards, detection devices and such. I assume they are since they are sneaking in.
If they are pretty much taking no pre-cautions feel free to bring the full effects of their actions to their attention. They may escape and find themselves having to break into the same place that now has triple the guards and double the detection devices.
Example
The party had to break into a mansion to steal a prototype sniper rifle. The mansion was well guarded with troops, automated turrets, cameras, dogs, motion detectors, x-rays. Part of the party staked it out while the rest tried to find weakness in the defenses. After a few days they discovered a weak link. Any food going in was not X-Ray'ed that with the fact they knew the owner of the mansion was having a birthday soon. So they split up some got in via the birthday cake, another got in by kidnapping and replacing one of the drummers for the band playing, the rest got in as wait staff (they found out wait staff badges where low level but the easiest to reproduce). | Usually in the games I'm a part of, the PCs' status as heroes sort of takes care of the alarm issue. If intruders easily slaughtered the 5 guys guarding your entrance, are you more likely to rush in there, or hunker down and take the best defensive position you can?
For more stealth or skill-oriented infiltrations, my approach is simply to allow multiple failures instead of one bad roll meaning a total failure. For example, a stealth failure could be described as, "A guard starts to turn a corner and his flashlight will shine directly on you. Everyone roll perception to see if they hear the guard in time to warn you." Chances are someone will make it, but then have some longer-term consequence. "You duck out of sight in time, but the guard thought he heard something suspicious and he's starting to check windows and doors for signs of forced entry." |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | In a cyberpunk scenario, you would typically have the physical infiltrators (call them grunts) working in tandem with cyberintruders who work the target's computer network.
The typical pattern works that the two groups are in communication (which might be interrupted during the scenario), the grunts would lay the groundwork by providing ports of access for the cyber intruders (e.g., spotting a communications cable and tapping into it, which might later be used to intercept an alarm message), and later the cyberintruders provide information to the grunts and deal with any "noise" they might produce.
The "alarm" is then a problem for the cyber PCs to deal with: stop the message from reaching HQ, ensure that HQ receives a reassuring flow of fake information, etc.
There is a lot of role-playing and problem-solving potential in this, but you have to ensure all the players have the same idea of what's going on. The couple of cyberpunk raid scenarios I've played fell to bits over this.
Funny, I don't think I've read a cyberpunk raid scenario in 15 years. They used to be all the rage. | Usually in the games I'm a part of, the PCs' status as heroes sort of takes care of the alarm issue. If intruders easily slaughtered the 5 guys guarding your entrance, are you more likely to rush in there, or hunker down and take the best defensive position you can?
For more stealth or skill-oriented infiltrations, my approach is simply to allow multiple failures instead of one bad roll meaning a total failure. For example, a stealth failure could be described as, "A guard starts to turn a corner and his flashlight will shine directly on you. Everyone roll perception to see if they hear the guard in time to warn you." Chances are someone will make it, but then have some longer-term consequence. "You duck out of sight in time, but the guard thought he heard something suspicious and he's starting to check windows and doors for signs of forced entry." |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | "Step away from that alarm, rookie. We don't need the 5-0 kicking in the door and making everybody play nice. When you've been here as long as I have, you'll realize that a night like this is a night to have some fun. Why did I sign up to be a security guard if not to lay down some pain every once in a while? Let's go kick some ass!" | The very simple answer is: you don't.
Roleplaying is about making decisions that have consequences. As a Game Master, it's up to you to make those consequences interesting and fun, but that doesn't mean they should always be beneficial to the party or the characters that incur them.
If the players set off an alarm, then they will learn pretty quickly that they need to think smarter and prepare more for future encounters. As long as you give them options and allow for reasonable escape opportunities, ultimately the fate of the characters should be in *their* hands, not yours. |
13,915 | When I design adventures, I often come up with situations where the NPCs could realistically thwart the PCs quickly by sounding an alarm. This is especially common in science fiction settings, where the NPCs have access to surveillance cameras, radars, motion detectors, and other advanced technology. This makes stealthy missions difficult to pull off, because the PCs can be revealed in a matter of seconds if they make even a single mistake.
**How do I keep NPCs from just sounding the alarm right way, without suspending disbelief too much?** | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13915",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2218/"
] | I think it depends on what kind of game you want to play. If you are playing a gritty game where getting past security systems is a big part of the challenge during game play (like in Shadowrun for example) then I think you should pay close attention to the details and sound the alarms when the PCs make a misstep. However, if bypassing security systems isn't as important to the story you are trying to enjoy with your players then don't worry about the fine details. There is little reason to focus on being realistic when it doesn't support the story. | Usually in the games I'm a part of, the PCs' status as heroes sort of takes care of the alarm issue. If intruders easily slaughtered the 5 guys guarding your entrance, are you more likely to rush in there, or hunker down and take the best defensive position you can?
For more stealth or skill-oriented infiltrations, my approach is simply to allow multiple failures instead of one bad roll meaning a total failure. For example, a stealth failure could be described as, "A guard starts to turn a corner and his flashlight will shine directly on you. Everyone roll perception to see if they hear the guard in time to warn you." Chances are someone will make it, but then have some longer-term consequence. "You duck out of sight in time, but the guard thought he heard something suspicious and he's starting to check windows and doors for signs of forced entry." |
21,238 | For a planet, we can colloquially refer to its period of rotation as a "day" and its period of revolution around its parent star as a "year." Some worlds have unique terms, such as Martian days being referred to as "sols", but the principle is the same: one word for rotation around its axis, another for revolutions around the star.
Is there an equivalent word for the period of a moon's revolution around a planet? On Earth it roughly lines up with a "month," but multi-moon planets would have different periods for each moon.
If I was in charge of timekeeping for a mission to Europa or Ganymede, what term would I use to refer to the period of time it takes for the moon to complete one orbit of Jupiter? | 2017/06/08 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/21238",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/529/"
] | You should use one of the precisely defined terms of specific measures of orbital period, which are described on [this Wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orbital_period).
You might get away with just "orbital period" is you're not using it in a context that requires precision.
For length of day there's [synodic day](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synodic_day) as well as sidereal period. There's a discussion on the difference between these [here](http://cseligman.com/text/sky/rotationvsday.htm). | Adding to [@stephenG's answer](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/21239/7982), the related Wikipedia page [Lunar month](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_month) can be used to get an idea of what the various terms mean.
I have to agree though that one should probably try to get away with just using the word month while distracting the person you're talking to (cough or drop something) and then quickly moving on, because any term that's more precise will have a very specific definition, and if someone says "Wait, don't you mean a *blah-blah-blah* month?" you'll have to stop figure out if you do or don't!
| kind | frame - or - criteria | Earth's moon (days) |
| --- | --- | --- |
| sidereal | inertial wrt stars | 27.321661 |
| synodic | rotating with Sun-Earth | 29.530588 |
| draconitic (or draconic) (or nodal) | orbital plane (precesses) time between ascending nodes | 27.212220 |
| anomalistic | time between periapses | 27.554551 |
| tropical | time between alignments of Moon's axis with the planet-moon line | 27.321582 | |
114,165 | I have such confusion with the word *than*, check out these examples:
>
> I would prefer to have beaten him up than have been beaten up by him.
>
>
> I prefer to die than kill someone
>
>
>
Should the preposition *to* be placed after *than* if I wanted to put the verb in the infinitive form? Like, *I prefer to die than to kill*? Or should it be like the first example? No preposition necessary?
And when talking about verbs ending in *-ing*: *I would prefer doing this than doing that* or *I would prefer doing this than do that*? | 2017/01/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/114165",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/46520/"
] | What you're describing is yet another example of *ellipsis*, in this case, where common prepositions are left out of sentences when they add no significant information. Either way is correct:
>
> I would prefer to die than (to) kill someone.
>
>
>
Other examples:
>
> She said she would prefer to go shopping than (to) see a movie.
>
>
> I'd much prefer to stay home in bed than (to) go to work today.
>
>
>
If comparing two activities, then the most common construction is to make them both the same form. It doesn't really matter whether you pick the infinitive or the gerund:
>
> I prefer skiing rather than surfing.
>
>
> I prefer to ski rather than to surf.
>
>
>
However there are various other ways you can structure this kind of statement, that can be different depending on if you use the infinitive or the gerund:
>
> I prefer skiing to surfing (and not "I prefer to ski to to surf")
>
>
> I prefer to ski, not to surf (or "I prefer skiing not surfing)
>
>
>
Note: Your first example is *somewhat* unusual English. "Prefer" usually refers to things you would *like* to do, not things you would *prefer* to avoid. In this case "would rather" is more natural:
>
> I would rather die than have to kill someone
>
>
> She said she would rather [make out](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/make-out) with an orangutan than go on another date with him.
>
>
> | I prefer to die than kill someone.
The sentence is grammatical. You can also use "to" after than, but it's less common. Look at the following sentence:
I prefer to walk than/rather than to catch the train (The Free Dictionary).
As for the sentences:
I would prefer doing this than doing that.
I would doing this than do that.
You use 'than" to join infinitives, not two -ing forms or an -ing form and an infinitive. So the correct sentences are:
I would prefer doing this to doing that.
I would prefer doing this rather than that.
I would prfer to do this than (to) do that.
I would prefer to do this rather than that. |
21,177 | I was just reading the sleep threads, and I wondered, why is the body so constructed so that sleep is necessary? (Is it just a design error?) But then, how do things come to be awake at all? How did this happen? Yes, I can see the advantages, but how did it happen? What is "awake"? Are single-cell animals awake?
The question I want to ask is, how did things progress from just sitting around ingesting and growing, like plants, to being something more? Is it more? What do "wakers" have that the rest don't?
Sorry, I'm not a biologist, this may be a foolish question, or in the wrong place. | 2014/09/10 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/21177",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/9183/"
] | Based on various comments, I've expanded this answer. Though long, I cannot cover the depth of the topic of sleep but I tried to address the issues asked in the original question while broadly highlighting various aspects about sleep research. I welcome any suggestions for improvement.
**What is sleep?**
To know what it means to be awake, you must know what it means to be in a state of sleep. These are two alternative states for animals that sleep.
Finding a concise scientific definition of sleep is difficult, probably because sleep is a very complex process. For example, [Diekelmann and Born (2010)](http://www.researchgate.net/publication/40834254_The_memory_function_of_sleep/file/d912f5032417709272.pdf) state that,
>
> Sleep has been identified as a state that optimizes the consolidation of newly acquired information in memory...
>
>
>
and later
>
> Sleep is characterized by the cyclic occurrence of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM sleep, which includes slow wave sleep (SWS, stages 3 and 4) and lighter sleep stages 1 and 2....
>
>
>
Most attempts to explain what sleep is include the four stages of sleep along with REM (rapid eye movement sleep). The stages are nicely explained by this National Institutes of Heath website on [Brain Basics: Understanding Sleep](http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/brain_basics/understanding_sleep.htm). Each stage of sleep can be identified by specific types of brain waves, shown below (image from [here](http://bama.ua.edu/~sprentic/large101%20outline-sleep.htm)).
Notice that the first wave pattern is characteristic of being awake. The wave patterns change as an individual becomes drowsy and then falls asleep. While asleep, the brain cycles through the different stages, each with its characteristic brain waves. Associated with these stages are changes in metabolic activity and physical capabilities. For example, the [Brain Basics](http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/brain_basics/understanding_sleep.htm) site notes that we become less responsive to external stimuli and metabolic activity slows. During REM, breathing becomes rapid and we can't move the muscles in our arms or legs. Similar states are found in other invertebrate and vertebrate organisms, which suggests that these are common indicators of sleep or a sleep-like state. Some examples of these states are given in the citations and links below.
Defining "awake" seems just as difficult as defining "asleep" but once again neural activity seems to be key indicator. As shown in the figure above, being awake has characteristic wave patterns in the brain that are distinct from the wave patterns associated with sleep. In addition, none of the physiological/physical states associated with sleep stages are present when you are awake.
In both cases, asleep and awake, the indicators seem to be based on characteristic neurological activities in the brain or, in the case of some invertebrtes, the organized nervous system. This interpretation is important when considering whether organisms without any type of nervous system is capable of sleep or the alternate state: awake. More on this at the end.
**Why sleep?**
Science magazine, in the 125th anniversary issue, made a list of 125 big questions that remain to be answered by scientists. One of those questions was "Why do we sleep?" The role of sleep remains elusive but many ideas have been put forth about the role of and the evolution of sleep. The leading idea seems to be memory consolidation. This article by [Kavanau (1997)](http://www.eeb.ucla.edu/Faculty/Kavanau/OriginEvolutionSleep.pdf) reviews ideas about the function of sleep and why it evolved. He suggests that sleep and memory evolved as as ways to improve or maintain effective connections among the nerve cells in the brain. Some circuits are used frequently, such as those used to process sensory information like vision. Other circuits are used less frequency, such as circuits that can be used to store memories. Sleep may allow those infrequently used circuits to be activated and used without causing conflict with the circuits used during "restful waking." In other words, sleep may allow the lesser used circuits to be exercised, which can help to consolidate memories. So, at least one function of sleep may be to help maintain efficiency in how information is moved around the brain by maintaining the brain circuitry. See also this review by [Siegel (2005)](http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v437/n7063/full/nature04285.html) and the previously mentioned article by Diekelmann and Born (2010).
This [Scitable article](http://www.nature.com/scitable/blog/scibytes/got_sleep) has a nice overview of the importance of sleep for humans, as does the [Brain Basics](http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/brain_basics/understanding_sleep.htm) site.
**What organisms sleep or have sleep-like activity?**
Sleep has been well-studied in vertebrates, from fishes [(Marshall 1972)](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1644087/pdf/procrsmed00350-0073a.pdf) to mammals [(Pace-Schott and Hobson 2002)](http://www.mb.mahidol.ac.th/neuroscience/intranet/2011/Allan%20Hobson_The%20Neurobiology%20of%20Sleep.pdf). However, not all vertebrates necessarily sleep [(Kavanau 1998)](http://www.eeb.ucla.edu/Faculty/Kavanau/VertebratesNeverSleep.pdf). For example, continuously swimming fishes like some sharks and blind cave fishes may not sleep. These are just three references of *many* about sleep in vertebrates.
Sleep and sleep-like activity has not been as well studied in inertebrates. As noted in [this thread](https://biology.stackexchange.com/q/21159/8517), there is evidence for sleep in at least some insects. Cephalopods like octopuses show signs of sleep [(Mather 2008)](http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1053810006001504). *Caenorhabditis elegans*, a nematode worm and model biological system, shows sleep-like states tht are similar to mammals and fruit flies [(Raizen et al. 2008)](http://www.its.caltech.edu/~bi250c/papers/Raizen%20et%20al%202008.pdf). The most basal organism that shows evidence of sleep-like patterns is a jellyfish called *Chironex fleckeri* [(Kavanau 2006)](http://homepage.psy.utexas.edu/HomePage/Class/Psy355D/jellyfish.pdf). Cnidarians like jellyfishes are the basal (most "simple") group of organisms with an organized nervous system. Interestingly, *C. fleckeri* process a lot of visual information obtained through their 24 eyes. Twelve of the eyes are simple, light-receiving structures but 8 of the eyes are camera-like, meaning they have a lens. Kavanau (2006) argued that sleep (up to 15 hours) in this jellyfish allows time for its simple nervous system to process the visual information obtained while it is awake. The presence of sleep-like activity in jellyfish and nematode worms suggest that sleep is an evolutionarily ancient phenomenon.
This Wikipedia page on [sleep in non-humans](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sleep_(non-human)) overviews evidence for sleep in vertebrates and invertebrates. It's not clear whether androids sleep or [what they dream about](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Do_Androids_Dream_of_Electric_Sheep%3F) if they do sleep.$^1$
**Do single-celled organisms sleep?**
This is (to me) a tricky question. Sleep is associated with specific types of neural activity in the brain or nervous system. In addition, sleep-like neural activity has been found in diversity of organisms with some type of nervous system, and seems evolutionarily old. I therefore think that any organism that has some form of organized neural center (brain, brain-like organ or centralized nervous system) has the potential to show some type of sleep-like patterns.
In contrast, organisms lacking any type organized nervous system would not be capable of sleep, at least as currently defined. If they do not sleep, then they also cannot be awake because being "awake" seems to be recognized as neural activity not typical of sleep. Therefore, it seems to me that single celled organisms like bacteria and paramecium are neither sleeping nor awake. Plants are neither sleeping nor awake. They are metabolically active but they are neither asleep nor awake because they do not have any type of neural activity.
I'm not a sleep researcher (but sometimes I am a sleepy one) nor am I a neurophysiologist. I just walked through my train of thought. I welcome contrary views along with the supporting science.
**Literature Cited**
Diekelmann, S. and J. Born. 2006. The memory function of sleep. Nature Reviews Neuroscience 11: 114-126.
Kavanau, J.L. 1997. Origin and evolution of sleep: Roles of vision and endothermy. Brain Research Bulletin 42: 245-264.
Kavanau, J.L. 1998. Vertebrates that never sleep: Implications for sleep's basic function.
Kavanau, J.L. 2006. Is sleep's 'supreme mystery' unraveling? An evolutionary analysis of sleep encounters no mystery; nr does life's earliest sleep, recently discovered in jellyfish. Medical Hypotheses 66: 3-9.
Marshall, N.B. 1972. Sleep in fishes. Proceedings of the Royal Society of Medicine (abstract).
Mather, J.A. 2008. Cephalopod consciousness: Behavioral evidence. Consciousness and cognition 17: 37-48.
Pace-Schott, E.F. and J.A. Hobson. 2002. The neurobiology of sleep: Genetics, cellular physiology and subcortical networks. Nature Reviews Neuroscience 3: 591-605.
Raizen, D.M. et al. 2008. Lethargus is a *Caenorhabditis elegans* sleep-like state. Nature 451: 561-572.
Siegel, J.M. 2005. Clues to the functions of mammalian sleep. Nature 437: 1264-1271.
**Footnote**
1. I could not resist. | All organisms (except viruses?) need some kind of nutrition to survive and reproductive activities for the species to survive. As humans don't do these while asleep in a first approximation I would consider those life phases as sleep when these do not happen. In this sense clostridium bacteria could be considered asleep when in their endospore states, a sunflower seed could also be considered asleep as it is inactive. |
302,591 | One of my hobby applications uses a SQLite back end to store the application data. The application is setup so that the user can click the typical "Check for Updates" button, which will query a webservice to see if an update is available. If it is, the user clicks the "update" button and downloads a the new database (via HTTP) which then gets installed in the application. This process is currently "modal" in that the user cannot do anything else in the application until the download and install are complete.
I'm working on updating the application, and one thing I want to make happen is to have this update process occur behind the scenes, ala Windows Update. When the application fires up, the service would be queried, and if an update is available, it would automatically be downloaded, but in the background so the user could continue to do their work. Once the download is complete, the user would be prompted to install the update.
I've looked extensively into [BITS](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb968799(VS.85).aspx), and even though there are no APIs I've seen to date to leverage the technology, I have seen some sample code and believe I can make it work.
But is this the best away to approach a "background update" for a data library, or are there some other solutions/approaches out there? | 2008/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/302591",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/71/"
] | If you are only running on MS Windows, and your clients are using a new enough version of the operating system to support BITS, then I think certainly you should leverage the functionality already built into the platform, rather than doing what everyone else does and write your own background update checker that sits in my taskbar notification area and uses system resources unnecessarily.
As for information about BITS:
[About BITS](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa362708(VS.85).aspx)
[BITS Reference](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa362820%28VS.85%29.aspx)
[Background Intelligent Transfer Service, From Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Background_Intelligent_Transfer_Service) | This really feels like you should be considering Sync Framework <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/sync/bb736753.aspx> rather than BITS. |
302,591 | One of my hobby applications uses a SQLite back end to store the application data. The application is setup so that the user can click the typical "Check for Updates" button, which will query a webservice to see if an update is available. If it is, the user clicks the "update" button and downloads a the new database (via HTTP) which then gets installed in the application. This process is currently "modal" in that the user cannot do anything else in the application until the download and install are complete.
I'm working on updating the application, and one thing I want to make happen is to have this update process occur behind the scenes, ala Windows Update. When the application fires up, the service would be queried, and if an update is available, it would automatically be downloaded, but in the background so the user could continue to do their work. Once the download is complete, the user would be prompted to install the update.
I've looked extensively into [BITS](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb968799(VS.85).aspx), and even though there are no APIs I've seen to date to leverage the technology, I have seen some sample code and believe I can make it work.
But is this the best away to approach a "background update" for a data library, or are there some other solutions/approaches out there? | 2008/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/302591",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/71/"
] | If you are only running on MS Windows, and your clients are using a new enough version of the operating system to support BITS, then I think certainly you should leverage the functionality already built into the platform, rather than doing what everyone else does and write your own background update checker that sits in my taskbar notification area and uses system resources unnecessarily.
As for information about BITS:
[About BITS](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa362708(VS.85).aspx)
[BITS Reference](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa362820%28VS.85%29.aspx)
[Background Intelligent Transfer Service, From Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Background_Intelligent_Transfer_Service) | I'm the PM for the BITS team in Windows -- yes, the BITS technology is a good fit for lots of times when you need to download (or upload) data in a way that's friendly to the user. BITS tries to be careful about hogging network bandwidth, the current power status, and network costs, and will automatically retry downloads on failure. We've also just created a new sample [BITS Manager](https://github.com/Microsoft/BITS-Manager) program on GitHub for everyone who programs in C# and .NET! |
302,591 | One of my hobby applications uses a SQLite back end to store the application data. The application is setup so that the user can click the typical "Check for Updates" button, which will query a webservice to see if an update is available. If it is, the user clicks the "update" button and downloads a the new database (via HTTP) which then gets installed in the application. This process is currently "modal" in that the user cannot do anything else in the application until the download and install are complete.
I'm working on updating the application, and one thing I want to make happen is to have this update process occur behind the scenes, ala Windows Update. When the application fires up, the service would be queried, and if an update is available, it would automatically be downloaded, but in the background so the user could continue to do their work. Once the download is complete, the user would be prompted to install the update.
I've looked extensively into [BITS](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb968799(VS.85).aspx), and even though there are no APIs I've seen to date to leverage the technology, I have seen some sample code and believe I can make it work.
But is this the best away to approach a "background update" for a data library, or are there some other solutions/approaches out there? | 2008/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/302591",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/71/"
] | I'm the PM for the BITS team in Windows -- yes, the BITS technology is a good fit for lots of times when you need to download (or upload) data in a way that's friendly to the user. BITS tries to be careful about hogging network bandwidth, the current power status, and network costs, and will automatically retry downloads on failure. We've also just created a new sample [BITS Manager](https://github.com/Microsoft/BITS-Manager) program on GitHub for everyone who programs in C# and .NET! | This really feels like you should be considering Sync Framework <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/sync/bb736753.aspx> rather than BITS. |
1,217,610 | Is it possible to get internet access and a unique ip address as well in kali linux Vm. If yes, then what would be the networking configuration? | 2017/06/09 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1217610",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/734942/"
] | Yes, just make sure you set the network adapter as bridged, not as NAT, and the VM will become part of your network, getting its IP and internet access from the router (or whatever does DHCP and routing) | Without more details, it’s very hard to explain what you want.
Virtual box creates a virtual machine environment on top of your host operating system. It has several options for how to configure networking.
If you select bridged networking, then your virtual machine is effectively on the same LAN or Wi-Fi as your host with different/Unique IP. It will talk to an external DHCP server and get external information.
If you select ‘shared’ networking, then your host will provide a virtual LAN for the VM to reside on, with the host providing routing and NAT services to the outside world. Your host will also provide DHCP services on the virtual LAN.
And then, it gets complicated… |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | Using VO's lets you decouple state from behavior, which sounds incompatible with OOP, but may well be appropriate when different aspects of the application view the state with their own goals in mind.
A general argument against VO's is that they allow invalid states, but what constitutes validity may well differ depending on what stage something is in a processing pipeline or what treatment it is being considered for. For example, data entry may require only that the birth year is in the past and not over 120 years ago, but qualification for a student will impose a tighter range. The VO could be created from importing or data entry, then passed to a student business logic object that maintains a reference to the VO and ensures validity with regard to its requirements. The student can then be passed around, instead of the raw VO, allowing full object-oriented behavior. This works particularly well if the business logic object exposes the VO through an immutable interface. | I think they are a good pattern for certain environments (e.g. service-oriented applications).
Using [DTOs](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_transfer_object) is often valuable when you want to decouple layers of an application. The reason that DTOs help you do this is that you can easily serialize a DTO with the understanding that any behavior that can be applied to it is located elsewhere.
In situations where decoupling of state and behavior is not needed I wouldn't recommend the use of this pattern as it simply clutters the domain. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | Value objects are great!
Why in the world would you want to keep calling "IsValidName(myString)" all over the place when you could just encapsulate the rules of what makes a name into a Name class, and then have the compiler make sure that a non-validated name never gets passed around? | Not a bad design pattern if used properly.
For me POCOs should have only intra-object logic, all inter-object logic belongs in the business layer. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | >
> Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design
> pattern? Some people say that all
> domain logic of an object needs to be
> together in that object.
>
>
>
I think there's a lot of confusion here because there are **two almost completely contradictory definitions** of "Value Object".
* One is "**An object with value semantics**", i.e. immutable and often validated for correctness at construction.
* Another is "**An object that has state but no logic**". I think that's what you mean. It's better to call this a Data Transfer Object, since that expression is better defined.
POCO/POJO is also not a fitting expression because it does not mean absence of logic either, only that no specific superclass, interface or bytecode enhancement is required.
**As for your question:** having a domain model in classes without logic for no other reason than having seen other people doing it like that and having a name for it is indeed **very bad design** - it's an anti-pattern known as **[anemic domain model](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anemic_Domain_Model)**. Unfortunately, there have been a number of badly designed frameworks (now generally abandoned) that required and promoted this "pattern".
It ignores the fundamental idea of object orientation: encapsulating data with the logic that operates on it, and it generally leads to verbose, inflexible and fragile code because the external logic now needs to be called explicitly and passed the model, it becomes much harder to ensure that invalid data is not passed around, and the knowledge about the structure of the domain model is spread around widely.
That being said, it's definitely not true that "all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object" - sometimes there are good reasons to extract *some* of the domain logic and keep it in separate classes:
* When it's not really domain logic but a technical aspect, like persistence, that should be in a separate layer
* when the logic is different in different parts of the application
* generally, when it's so complex that the domain classes would become too big, and you need to structure it more.
But generally, **the domain logic concerning an object should be part of that object, unless you have a specific reason to put it somewhere else**. | Using VO's lets you decouple state from behavior, which sounds incompatible with OOP, but may well be appropriate when different aspects of the application view the state with their own goals in mind.
A general argument against VO's is that they allow invalid states, but what constitutes validity may well differ depending on what stage something is in a processing pipeline or what treatment it is being considered for. For example, data entry may require only that the birth year is in the past and not over 120 years ago, but qualification for a student will impose a tighter range. The VO could be created from importing or data entry, then passed to a student business logic object that maintains a reference to the VO and ensures validity with regard to its requirements. The student can then be passed around, instead of the raw VO, allowing full object-oriented behavior. This works particularly well if the business logic object exposes the VO through an immutable interface. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | >
> Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design
> pattern? Some people say that all
> domain logic of an object needs to be
> together in that object.
>
>
>
I think there's a lot of confusion here because there are **two almost completely contradictory definitions** of "Value Object".
* One is "**An object with value semantics**", i.e. immutable and often validated for correctness at construction.
* Another is "**An object that has state but no logic**". I think that's what you mean. It's better to call this a Data Transfer Object, since that expression is better defined.
POCO/POJO is also not a fitting expression because it does not mean absence of logic either, only that no specific superclass, interface or bytecode enhancement is required.
**As for your question:** having a domain model in classes without logic for no other reason than having seen other people doing it like that and having a name for it is indeed **very bad design** - it's an anti-pattern known as **[anemic domain model](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anemic_Domain_Model)**. Unfortunately, there have been a number of badly designed frameworks (now generally abandoned) that required and promoted this "pattern".
It ignores the fundamental idea of object orientation: encapsulating data with the logic that operates on it, and it generally leads to verbose, inflexible and fragile code because the external logic now needs to be called explicitly and passed the model, it becomes much harder to ensure that invalid data is not passed around, and the knowledge about the structure of the domain model is spread around widely.
That being said, it's definitely not true that "all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object" - sometimes there are good reasons to extract *some* of the domain logic and keep it in separate classes:
* When it's not really domain logic but a technical aspect, like persistence, that should be in a separate layer
* when the logic is different in different parts of the application
* generally, when it's so complex that the domain classes would become too big, and you need to structure it more.
But generally, **the domain logic concerning an object should be part of that object, unless you have a specific reason to put it somewhere else**. | Not a bad design pattern if used properly.
For me POCOs should have only intra-object logic, all inter-object logic belongs in the business layer. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | >
> Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design
> pattern? Some people say that all
> domain logic of an object needs to be
> together in that object.
>
>
>
I think there's a lot of confusion here because there are **two almost completely contradictory definitions** of "Value Object".
* One is "**An object with value semantics**", i.e. immutable and often validated for correctness at construction.
* Another is "**An object that has state but no logic**". I think that's what you mean. It's better to call this a Data Transfer Object, since that expression is better defined.
POCO/POJO is also not a fitting expression because it does not mean absence of logic either, only that no specific superclass, interface or bytecode enhancement is required.
**As for your question:** having a domain model in classes without logic for no other reason than having seen other people doing it like that and having a name for it is indeed **very bad design** - it's an anti-pattern known as **[anemic domain model](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anemic_Domain_Model)**. Unfortunately, there have been a number of badly designed frameworks (now generally abandoned) that required and promoted this "pattern".
It ignores the fundamental idea of object orientation: encapsulating data with the logic that operates on it, and it generally leads to verbose, inflexible and fragile code because the external logic now needs to be called explicitly and passed the model, it becomes much harder to ensure that invalid data is not passed around, and the knowledge about the structure of the domain model is spread around widely.
That being said, it's definitely not true that "all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object" - sometimes there are good reasons to extract *some* of the domain logic and keep it in separate classes:
* When it's not really domain logic but a technical aspect, like persistence, that should be in a separate layer
* when the logic is different in different parts of the application
* generally, when it's so complex that the domain classes would become too big, and you need to structure it more.
But generally, **the domain logic concerning an object should be part of that object, unless you have a specific reason to put it somewhere else**. | I think they are a good pattern for certain environments (e.g. service-oriented applications).
Using [DTOs](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_transfer_object) is often valuable when you want to decouple layers of an application. The reason that DTOs help you do this is that you can easily serialize a DTO with the understanding that any behavior that can be applied to it is located elsewhere.
In situations where decoupling of state and behavior is not needed I wouldn't recommend the use of this pattern as it simply clutters the domain. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | All Domain logic should be in the Domain layer, in Domain Objects... but there is a strong argument to be made that technical concerns, like how to save an object to the database, or log an objects activities, are not domain behaviors, they are infrastructure, or application concerns, and should NOT be in the domain objects...
Examine Domain Driven Design, In this methodology, it is recommended that you separate Domain-related aspects of persistence logic (like persisting/Fetching objects) into a separate Type (also in the Domain Layer) called a Repository... But even here, the technical aspects of how to talk to a database or other persistence storage technology are furthur separated into an infrastructure service.
One way to look at this is that services should be partitioned into three sets,
* Infrsastructure Services. those that relate to general technical aspects
(like generic database access, caching, logging, configuration, messaging, etc.)
* Application services. That relate to technical or application design aspects that have nothing to do with the business domain (MVC pattern in UI, Screen navigation, domain entity initialization methodology, etc.
* Domain Services. Services that are explicitly related to the business model. (for example, creating a reservation for a airline seat on a specific flight, with specific meal requests and seat assignment, and appropriate transactional debits to a specified credit card...)
The last type of "service" should be in the Domain Layer, the first two, - not... | I think they are a good pattern for certain environments (e.g. service-oriented applications).
Using [DTOs](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_transfer_object) is often valuable when you want to decouple layers of an application. The reason that DTOs help you do this is that you can easily serialize a DTO with the understanding that any behavior that can be applied to it is located elsewhere.
In situations where decoupling of state and behavior is not needed I wouldn't recommend the use of this pattern as it simply clutters the domain. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | >
> Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design
> pattern? Some people say that all
> domain logic of an object needs to be
> together in that object.
>
>
>
I think there's a lot of confusion here because there are **two almost completely contradictory definitions** of "Value Object".
* One is "**An object with value semantics**", i.e. immutable and often validated for correctness at construction.
* Another is "**An object that has state but no logic**". I think that's what you mean. It's better to call this a Data Transfer Object, since that expression is better defined.
POCO/POJO is also not a fitting expression because it does not mean absence of logic either, only that no specific superclass, interface or bytecode enhancement is required.
**As for your question:** having a domain model in classes without logic for no other reason than having seen other people doing it like that and having a name for it is indeed **very bad design** - it's an anti-pattern known as **[anemic domain model](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anemic_Domain_Model)**. Unfortunately, there have been a number of badly designed frameworks (now generally abandoned) that required and promoted this "pattern".
It ignores the fundamental idea of object orientation: encapsulating data with the logic that operates on it, and it generally leads to verbose, inflexible and fragile code because the external logic now needs to be called explicitly and passed the model, it becomes much harder to ensure that invalid data is not passed around, and the knowledge about the structure of the domain model is spread around widely.
That being said, it's definitely not true that "all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object" - sometimes there are good reasons to extract *some* of the domain logic and keep it in separate classes:
* When it's not really domain logic but a technical aspect, like persistence, that should be in a separate layer
* when the logic is different in different parts of the application
* generally, when it's so complex that the domain classes would become too big, and you need to structure it more.
But generally, **the domain logic concerning an object should be part of that object, unless you have a specific reason to put it somewhere else**. | Value objects are great!
Why in the world would you want to keep calling "IsValidName(myString)" all over the place when you could just encapsulate the rules of what makes a name into a Name class, and then have the compiler make sure that a non-validated name never gets passed around? |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | All Domain logic should be in the Domain layer, in Domain Objects... but there is a strong argument to be made that technical concerns, like how to save an object to the database, or log an objects activities, are not domain behaviors, they are infrastructure, or application concerns, and should NOT be in the domain objects...
Examine Domain Driven Design, In this methodology, it is recommended that you separate Domain-related aspects of persistence logic (like persisting/Fetching objects) into a separate Type (also in the Domain Layer) called a Repository... But even here, the technical aspects of how to talk to a database or other persistence storage technology are furthur separated into an infrastructure service.
One way to look at this is that services should be partitioned into three sets,
* Infrsastructure Services. those that relate to general technical aspects
(like generic database access, caching, logging, configuration, messaging, etc.)
* Application services. That relate to technical or application design aspects that have nothing to do with the business domain (MVC pattern in UI, Screen navigation, domain entity initialization methodology, etc.
* Domain Services. Services that are explicitly related to the business model. (for example, creating a reservation for a airline seat on a specific flight, with specific meal requests and seat assignment, and appropriate transactional debits to a specified credit card...)
The last type of "service" should be in the Domain Layer, the first two, - not... | Using VO's lets you decouple state from behavior, which sounds incompatible with OOP, but may well be appropriate when different aspects of the application view the state with their own goals in mind.
A general argument against VO's is that they allow invalid states, but what constitutes validity may well differ depending on what stage something is in a processing pipeline or what treatment it is being considered for. For example, data entry may require only that the birth year is in the past and not over 120 years ago, but qualification for a student will impose a tighter range. The VO could be created from importing or data entry, then passed to a student business logic object that maintains a reference to the VO and ensures validity with regard to its requirements. The student can then be passed around, instead of the raw VO, allowing full object-oriented behavior. This works particularly well if the business logic object exposes the VO through an immutable interface. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | All Domain logic should be in the Domain layer, in Domain Objects... but there is a strong argument to be made that technical concerns, like how to save an object to the database, or log an objects activities, are not domain behaviors, they are infrastructure, or application concerns, and should NOT be in the domain objects...
Examine Domain Driven Design, In this methodology, it is recommended that you separate Domain-related aspects of persistence logic (like persisting/Fetching objects) into a separate Type (also in the Domain Layer) called a Repository... But even here, the technical aspects of how to talk to a database or other persistence storage technology are furthur separated into an infrastructure service.
One way to look at this is that services should be partitioned into three sets,
* Infrsastructure Services. those that relate to general technical aspects
(like generic database access, caching, logging, configuration, messaging, etc.)
* Application services. That relate to technical or application design aspects that have nothing to do with the business domain (MVC pattern in UI, Screen navigation, domain entity initialization methodology, etc.
* Domain Services. Services that are explicitly related to the business model. (for example, creating a reservation for a airline seat on a specific flight, with specific meal requests and seat assignment, and appropriate transactional debits to a specified credit card...)
The last type of "service" should be in the Domain Layer, the first two, - not... | >
> Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design
> pattern? Some people say that all
> domain logic of an object needs to be
> together in that object.
>
>
>
I think there's a lot of confusion here because there are **two almost completely contradictory definitions** of "Value Object".
* One is "**An object with value semantics**", i.e. immutable and often validated for correctness at construction.
* Another is "**An object that has state but no logic**". I think that's what you mean. It's better to call this a Data Transfer Object, since that expression is better defined.
POCO/POJO is also not a fitting expression because it does not mean absence of logic either, only that no specific superclass, interface or bytecode enhancement is required.
**As for your question:** having a domain model in classes without logic for no other reason than having seen other people doing it like that and having a name for it is indeed **very bad design** - it's an anti-pattern known as **[anemic domain model](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anemic_Domain_Model)**. Unfortunately, there have been a number of badly designed frameworks (now generally abandoned) that required and promoted this "pattern".
It ignores the fundamental idea of object orientation: encapsulating data with the logic that operates on it, and it generally leads to verbose, inflexible and fragile code because the external logic now needs to be called explicitly and passed the model, it becomes much harder to ensure that invalid data is not passed around, and the knowledge about the structure of the domain model is spread around widely.
That being said, it's definitely not true that "all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object" - sometimes there are good reasons to extract *some* of the domain logic and keep it in separate classes:
* When it's not really domain logic but a technical aspect, like persistence, that should be in a separate layer
* when the logic is different in different parts of the application
* generally, when it's so complex that the domain classes would become too big, and you need to structure it more.
But generally, **the domain logic concerning an object should be part of that object, unless you have a specific reason to put it somewhere else**. |
1,213,646 | Is use of VO´s (POCO) a bad design pattern? Some people say that all domain logic of an object needs to be together in that object.
Ex.: ProductVO: Id, Name, Description
ProductBO: SearchById(int id), Insert(ProductVO newProduct), Update(ProductVO updatedProduct, SearchByKeyword(string word)...... | 2009/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1213646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97082/"
] | Using VO's lets you decouple state from behavior, which sounds incompatible with OOP, but may well be appropriate when different aspects of the application view the state with their own goals in mind.
A general argument against VO's is that they allow invalid states, but what constitutes validity may well differ depending on what stage something is in a processing pipeline or what treatment it is being considered for. For example, data entry may require only that the birth year is in the past and not over 120 years ago, but qualification for a student will impose a tighter range. The VO could be created from importing or data entry, then passed to a student business logic object that maintains a reference to the VO and ensures validity with regard to its requirements. The student can then be passed around, instead of the raw VO, allowing full object-oriented behavior. This works particularly well if the business logic object exposes the VO through an immutable interface. | Not a bad design pattern if used properly.
For me POCOs should have only intra-object logic, all inter-object logic belongs in the business layer. |
331,397 | I'm considering ditching Windows 8 and doing a fully clean install of Ubuntu. However, I'm concerned because my computer came with a built-in 16 GB recovery partition that would need to be erased as well.
If I pick the "erase entire disk" option during installation, will it wipe out this recovery partition too? | 2013/08/11 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/331397",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/183275/"
] | Yes, it will.
I've switched from windows 8 to Ubuntu a lot. It will destroy your recovery partition, but it is worth it. SO WORTH IT! You should totally go through with your Ubuntu installation. You will be happy with what you get from it! | If you select the option "erase entire disk" option your entire disk partition scheme will be erased and the entire disk space will be alloted to Ubuntu.
To prevent this you can try using "advanced partitioning tool" during formatting. |
331,397 | I'm considering ditching Windows 8 and doing a fully clean install of Ubuntu. However, I'm concerned because my computer came with a built-in 16 GB recovery partition that would need to be erased as well.
If I pick the "erase entire disk" option during installation, will it wipe out this recovery partition too? | 2013/08/11 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/331397",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/183275/"
] | Using the "Erase entire disk", will erase all partitions.
Since you're new, I would recommend to start with dual booting with Windows first. Get used to Ubuntu and then you may decide later to remove Windows completely. This is especially recommended if you do not have recovery media or another means of reinstalling Windows should you wish to.
In any case, I would recommend doing a backup of your important data on an external disk before trying to install Ubuntu. If something goes wrong, your data would be safe. | Yes, it will.
I've switched from windows 8 to Ubuntu a lot. It will destroy your recovery partition, but it is worth it. SO WORTH IT! You should totally go through with your Ubuntu installation. You will be happy with what you get from it! |
331,397 | I'm considering ditching Windows 8 and doing a fully clean install of Ubuntu. However, I'm concerned because my computer came with a built-in 16 GB recovery partition that would need to be erased as well.
If I pick the "erase entire disk" option during installation, will it wipe out this recovery partition too? | 2013/08/11 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/331397",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/183275/"
] | Using the "Erase entire disk", will erase all partitions.
Since you're new, I would recommend to start with dual booting with Windows first. Get used to Ubuntu and then you may decide later to remove Windows completely. This is especially recommended if you do not have recovery media or another means of reinstalling Windows should you wish to.
In any case, I would recommend doing a backup of your important data on an external disk before trying to install Ubuntu. If something goes wrong, your data would be safe. | If you select the option "erase entire disk" option your entire disk partition scheme will be erased and the entire disk space will be alloted to Ubuntu.
To prevent this you can try using "advanced partitioning tool" during formatting. |
25,511 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How can I sync the bookmarks in the web browser?](https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/1452/how-can-i-sync-the-bookmarks-in-the-web-browser)
>
>
>
Since I'm a big Google user, I'm used to everything ([Google Contacts](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Google_Contacts), etc.) being synchronised on my Android phone. Is it possible to use something similar to Chrome's bookmark synchronisation, but somehow get these bookmarks to my Android phone? | 2010/02/26 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/25511",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Dolphin mobile browser is supposed to have built-in Google Bookmarks sync capability. | There are quite a number of ways to sync bookmarks to your Android phone.
If you're looking for one-click-import, check out the [MyBookmarks](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=org.dant.MyBookmarks) app for Android.
If you use Opera on your desktop, I think it lets you save your bookmarks on the cloud. You can then sync it to Android using Opera Mobile/Mini (i.e., if you use it as your primary browser) |
25,511 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How can I sync the bookmarks in the web browser?](https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/1452/how-can-i-sync-the-bookmarks-in-the-web-browser)
>
>
>
Since I'm a big Google user, I'm used to everything ([Google Contacts](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Google_Contacts), etc.) being synchronised on my Android phone. Is it possible to use something similar to Chrome's bookmark synchronisation, but somehow get these bookmarks to my Android phone? | 2010/02/26 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/25511",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Dolphin mobile browser is supposed to have built-in Google Bookmarks sync capability. | If you use Firefox, you might want to take a look at Firefox 4 and [Firefox 4 Mobile](http://www.mozilla.com/mobile). Both have [Firefox Sync](https://wiki.mozilla.org/Firefox_Sync) built-in, syncing bookmarks and browser history across various desktop installations of Firefox as well as on your mobile.
It's enough of a killer feature and done well enough that I've stopped using the stock Android 2.2 browser. |
25,511 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How can I sync the bookmarks in the web browser?](https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/1452/how-can-i-sync-the-bookmarks-in-the-web-browser)
>
>
>
Since I'm a big Google user, I'm used to everything ([Google Contacts](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Google_Contacts), etc.) being synchronised on my Android phone. Is it possible to use something similar to Chrome's bookmark synchronisation, but somehow get these bookmarks to my Android phone? | 2010/02/26 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/25511",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Dolphin mobile browser is supposed to have built-in Google Bookmarks sync capability. | I use Chrome on my computer, and Opera on my Android. So I installed Opera on my computer, opened Chrome's Bookmark Manager, exported bookmarks to a Chrome HTML document, started up Opera on the computer, imported Firefox bookmarks (no Chrome option, but Firefox option works), then synced to my Android's Opera. I'm assuming you could do the same for most browsers. |
2,338 | How does algebra relate to this chess notation?
Why do they call this chess notation **algebraic**? | 2013/05/02 | [
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/2338",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/users/687/"
] | I think that Jonathan Garber is right. Much of algebra has to do with equation in an x y coordinate plane which is very similar to the way that algebraic notation denotes specific squares on the board. I have however not been able to find any specific source of the information. | Algebra is more than simply a branch of mathematics. The central element of it is using symbols as abstractions, the way the notation uses letters and numbers to represent the squares, as opposed to the systems where the square is more concretely described, as "King Bishop 4" for example. |
2,338 | How does algebra relate to this chess notation?
Why do they call this chess notation **algebraic**? | 2013/05/02 | [
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/2338",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/users/687/"
] | I think that Jonathan Garber is right. Much of algebra has to do with equation in an x y coordinate plane which is very similar to the way that algebraic notation denotes specific squares on the board. I have however not been able to find any specific source of the information. | Algebraic notation is quite old. It is based on a system created by Philipp Stamma (c.1705–55) *before* descriptive notation started to evolve. There is no indication that anyone with a mathematical background had anything to do with its development or spreading, so my best guess is that they called it "algebraic" simply because it uses coordinates. The funny thing is that there is nothing algebraic about coordinates. If anything, it should be called "geometric notation", but somehow "algebraic" sounds better; as if it is more accurate.
In brief, I strongly suspect that they **just** called it "algebraic". |
10,948,472 | <http://markallanson.net/wordpress/index.php/category/rsmb/>
I was trying to follow the above link for setting up mqtt as a windows service to run silently at background.
but, can't follow what the author wants to say in step one and two.
neither there is any space for comments/questions.
I want to do this so that I don't need to input username and password every time the remote machine is started.
If you have any idea how to setup. any alternate option for not inserting the password in windows. or any suggestion please share. thnx | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10948472",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/884674/"
] | I can't answer your specific question, but I can recommend the winsw "windows service wrapper" package to turn any executable into a service: <http://kenai.com/projects/winsw>
I can also tell you that the Windows install of the mosquitto mqtt broker ( <http://mosquitto.org/>) installs itself as a service automatically so this should solve your problem. | I'm quite surprised you couldn't ask the question on the original post - there is a comments form on it - <http://markallanson.net/wordpress/index.php/2009/running-ibms-really-small-message-broker-on-windows/>
Do you have the Windows Server 2003 Resource Kit installed? have you unzipped RSMB as the author describes? if so, the commands he lists should work for you.
As Roger says, another alternative is to use mosquitto which is similar to RSMB but is free from the license restrictions. |
85,520 | I was asked to supervise a team of undergrad students
who are taking part in a case competition.
I decided to look through the competition website
to find out more about what is expected of a faculty advisor.
The website writes:
>
> The primary role of the faculty advisor is to provide direction, advice and guidance to the student team.
> The faculty advisor should not contribute to the content of the presentation, nor should they provide or facilitate the assistance from other parties that contribute to the content of presentation.
>
>
>
How do I walk the fine line between
"providing direction, advice and guidance",
and yet "not contributing to the content of the presentation"?
(This is my first time helping a student team with a competition,
so I would appreciate the advice of other faculty who have done this before.) | 2017/02/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/85520",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/8802/"
] | I have only worked as a TA to help students on an individual exercise basis, but I think the idea is kind of similar to this. In the case of a competition like this I can only speak from my role as being supervised.
However, I would say that the most important thing is to ask questions, such as "Why do you think that step *X* that you propose here would be a good step?" or "What results do you expect by doing this thing *Y* you're doing?". This should make them think about what they are doing in this competition and why they are doing it.
Regarding the presentation, you can of course always give them advice about how to present, how to style their slides, and how to convey the information they are presenting in an efficient way.
All in all, with most things you help them with, just ask yourself if you're telling them how to do it. If not, you're probably fine I guess. | The German project *[Jugend hackt](https://jugendhackt.org)* *(= youth hacks)* has a very similar approach. Mentors shall only support and provide advice and guidance but not contribute to the coding projects of the participants.
In practice this means, that you assist them by finding their topic/project by chairing the process and giving advice when you think the project might be too complex, out of scope or could not be finished within the given time period. If they nevertheless decide to go for a project which you think might fail, that's fine.
During the project, only help the students when they ask for assistance, you think that their time schedule will fail or you discovered a major problem the participants didn't figure out for themselves after an appropriate time period.
Regarding *Jugend hackt*, the most important rule for the mentors is: "Never ever touch the keyboard of a participant." It's up to them to **do** everything, correct their mistakes and to learn by experience. Maybe you can transfer this rule to being a supervisor in a students competition: "Never ever touch their keyboard/equipment/labware/texts." |
46,751 | A friend of mine who has water-treatment engineering degree recently moved to another country but struggles to find a job in his field. Because he did not want to stay at home unemployed (and because stealing food is not an option), he took a minimum-wage job (salesman in a small shop) that has nothing to do with his skills or even experience.
While I believe there is no shame for him to do that, I'm still not sure what to advise regarding his public LinkedIn profile and/or resume:
Should he mention the low-paying, unrelated job ? Is there any drawback in doing so ? Any drawback in **not** doing so ? | 2015/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/46751",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/13362/"
] | One advantage of mentioning the current unrelated job is that it shows that you are employed in city X. Instead of showing that your current job is in another country, or that your most recent job ended last year.
It also shows that you have the necessary work permits for the country where you are looking for a job. | Avoid mentioning jobs that *may* hurt your overall job chances. Generally speaking, this is great "add-on" information that an interviewer can elicit from you("Have you ever taken a service-sector or low-paying job, to make ends meet?" - INSERT\_STORY )
.
But I would not put fast-food jobs on a page with more professional stints.
It simply does not make sense. Again, bring it up in an interview to show your grit perhaps. But I generally don't see the point
LinkedIn, being a public "profile" , should focus on overall picture |
46,751 | A friend of mine who has water-treatment engineering degree recently moved to another country but struggles to find a job in his field. Because he did not want to stay at home unemployed (and because stealing food is not an option), he took a minimum-wage job (salesman in a small shop) that has nothing to do with his skills or even experience.
While I believe there is no shame for him to do that, I'm still not sure what to advise regarding his public LinkedIn profile and/or resume:
Should he mention the low-paying, unrelated job ? Is there any drawback in doing so ? Any drawback in **not** doing so ? | 2015/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/46751",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/13362/"
] | Your friend shouldn't mention the low paying, unrelated job on his Linkedin profile. The idea is to keep the Linkedin profile consistent and on point and to send a clear message through that consistency and that relevance.
Your friend can always explain himself at the interview stage. It's not about being ashamed, it's about sending a clear message about the work experience and skills set through consistency and relevance. | Avoid mentioning jobs that *may* hurt your overall job chances. Generally speaking, this is great "add-on" information that an interviewer can elicit from you("Have you ever taken a service-sector or low-paying job, to make ends meet?" - INSERT\_STORY )
.
But I would not put fast-food jobs on a page with more professional stints.
It simply does not make sense. Again, bring it up in an interview to show your grit perhaps. But I generally don't see the point
LinkedIn, being a public "profile" , should focus on overall picture |
46,751 | A friend of mine who has water-treatment engineering degree recently moved to another country but struggles to find a job in his field. Because he did not want to stay at home unemployed (and because stealing food is not an option), he took a minimum-wage job (salesman in a small shop) that has nothing to do with his skills or even experience.
While I believe there is no shame for him to do that, I'm still not sure what to advise regarding his public LinkedIn profile and/or resume:
Should he mention the low-paying, unrelated job ? Is there any drawback in doing so ? Any drawback in **not** doing so ? | 2015/05/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/46751",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/13362/"
] | One advantage of mentioning the current unrelated job is that it shows that you are employed in city X. Instead of showing that your current job is in another country, or that your most recent job ended last year.
It also shows that you have the necessary work permits for the country where you are looking for a job. | Your friend shouldn't mention the low paying, unrelated job on his Linkedin profile. The idea is to keep the Linkedin profile consistent and on point and to send a clear message through that consistency and that relevance.
Your friend can always explain himself at the interview stage. It's not about being ashamed, it's about sending a clear message about the work experience and skills set through consistency and relevance. |
48,364,651 | I have a checkbox list, with the following options
Option A
Option B
Option C
If the user select Option A, it must return View A, if the user select Option B, it must return View B and so on.
But here is the catch - if the user select Option A and Option B together, it must return View A in one tab and View B in one tab.
Is this possible, or how will I be able to archive this?
I am using MVC 5 with Razor | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48364651",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2230088/"
] | Each time a minion connects to the master there is an event on the event bus which you can react upon.
[Reactor](https://docs.saltstack.com/en/latest/topics/reactor/#mapping-events-to-reactor-sls-files)
This is the main difference between Ansible and Saltstack.
In order to do what you want, I would react on each minion's reconnect and try to apply a state which is idempotent.
[Idempotent](https://docs.saltstack.com/en/latest/topics/reactor/#mapping-events-to-reactor-sls-files)
You could also setup a scheduled task in Saltstack that runs the state every X minutes and apply the desired configuration.
[Scheduled task](https://docs.saltstack.com/en/latest/topics/reactor/#mapping-events-to-reactor-sls-files) | The [answer](https://github.com/saltstack/salt/issues/45813#issuecomment-362304134) from [Daniel Wallace](https://github.com/gtmanfred) (salt developper):
>
> That is not possible.
>
>
> The minions connect to the publish port/bus and the master puts new
> jobs on that bus. Then the minion picks it up and runs the job, if the
> minion is not connected when the job is published, then it will not
> see the job.
>
>
> |
49,491,800 | as I understand, If the security key returned by the tester (client) is correct the ECU will respond with a positive UDS-response. After this the tester will be granted security access at the requested security level.
**my question is : what's the purpose of security level if tester will always be granted security access at the requested security level?** | 2018/03/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49491800",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4838002/"
] | Security Access works using a shared-secret between ECU and authorized tester (secret algorithm/private key). The purpose is to restrict access to certain services/subfunctions by i.e. unauthorized tester/tools (3rd party) or users lacking certain access rights.
To request Security Access, the tester will first send a command to request a random seed from the ECU (i.e. **0x27 01**). If the ECU will allow this in their current state, it may respond with a positive response including the seed (i.e. **0x67 01 AA BB CC DD**).
Then the tester application needs to take this seed (*0xAA BB CC DD*) and apply a secret key generation algorithm to it (i.e. a cryptographic function using a private key only known to ECU and authorized tester) - once the key is calculated it needs to be sent back to the ECU (i.e. **0x27 02 66 77 88 99**). The ECU can reply to this with a positive response (i.e. **0x67 02**) or an Negative Response Code (i.e. **0x7F 0x27 0x35**).
That means a tester will not always be granted security access at the requested security level. It is possible for the ECU to deny the access - common reasons are:
* transition to this security access level is not possible from the
current session/security level (i.e. NRC 0x7F
serviceNotSupportedInActiveSession, NRC 0x22 conditionsNotCorrect,
NRC 0x31 requestOutOfRange...)
* the key send by tester does not match the key which the ECU expects (NRC 0x35 invalidKey)
* tester tried to many times with the wrong key (NRC 0x36 exceedNumberOfAttempts)
* the ECU is not allowing unlocking security access currently due to too many wrong attempts before - tester needs to wait a certain
timeout first (NRC 0x37 requiredTimeDelayNotExpired) | UDS is not a AUTOSAR only concept, it was defined long ago as ISO-14229.
There can be more than one Security Level. Usually, they are also a bit bound to the Diagnostic Sessions.
Each Session can have a separate Security Level, with different Seed/Key and/or SecurityAlgorithms:
\* ProgrammingSession -> SecurityLevel 1
\* ExtendedSession -> SecurityLevel 3
\* SupplierSpecific/User Session -> SecurityLevel 5 ...
As already stated, the Client has to request the seed and calculates a key, which the ECU does the same. The client then sends the Key which the ECU will compare against its own calculated expected key.
If it does not match, there will be a negative response, and the security level will not be reached.
If the Session times out or if the session is changed, the Security Level is set back to Locked state.
Services can be configured regarding availability and execution by assignment to certain Sessions and SecurityLevels. |
944 | Specifically stackoverflow and serverfault.
Is that possible? It sure would be convenient for scripting purposes. | 2009/06/30 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/944",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/116/"
] | I would LOVE to see this happen. I realize that it's probably too late in the game to change the user IDs on ServerFault, but back when it was first announced I had the idea that a user would have a single account (with, incidentally, a single ID) that existed on all the sites. Separate posts, rep, badges, etc. but basic user info would be the same across the sites.
Not only would it have made it easier to provide a unified rep tracker, but it would also eliminate some of the headache that goes with migrating questions from one site to another and trying to preserve ownership of the content.
However, it looks as though Jeff is trying to right this mistake with Meta by prepopulating the site with the current users from SO and SF, and is [actively looking into](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2/sync-meta-user-accounts-daily-with-other-family-sites) keeping the data in sync. So I guess we can probably expect that SuperUser and whatever other Overflows come down the line will enable users to retain their IDs from whatever sister site they're a member of. | From a database perspective, this seems impossible at this point (well, not impossible, but practically given the amount of work necessary).
I imagine that user id is the identity field in the user table and it serves as a foreign key to other information stored in other tables. So changing that user id would mean changing data all over the place.
It might have been a nice to have, but at this point seems unlikely given other priorities. |
944 | Specifically stackoverflow and serverfault.
Is that possible? It sure would be convenient for scripting purposes. | 2009/06/30 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/944",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/116/"
] | We had a vision of a unique OpenID identifier as the "key" to all three sites, but Google's "every domain gets their own hashed OpenID" has kind of thrown a huge monkey wrench into that. :(
Edit: we now have fairly robust cross-site account association that even works with Google (see your accounts tab), but I realized I didn't answer your question. We never planned to provide for the same *numeric* ids for every user. | I would LOVE to see this happen. I realize that it's probably too late in the game to change the user IDs on ServerFault, but back when it was first announced I had the idea that a user would have a single account (with, incidentally, a single ID) that existed on all the sites. Separate posts, rep, badges, etc. but basic user info would be the same across the sites.
Not only would it have made it easier to provide a unified rep tracker, but it would also eliminate some of the headache that goes with migrating questions from one site to another and trying to preserve ownership of the content.
However, it looks as though Jeff is trying to right this mistake with Meta by prepopulating the site with the current users from SO and SF, and is [actively looking into](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2/sync-meta-user-accounts-daily-with-other-family-sites) keeping the data in sync. So I guess we can probably expect that SuperUser and whatever other Overflows come down the line will enable users to retain their IDs from whatever sister site they're a member of. |
944 | Specifically stackoverflow and serverfault.
Is that possible? It sure would be convenient for scripting purposes. | 2009/06/30 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/944",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/116/"
] | We had a vision of a unique OpenID identifier as the "key" to all three sites, but Google's "every domain gets their own hashed OpenID" has kind of thrown a huge monkey wrench into that. :(
Edit: we now have fairly robust cross-site account association that even works with Google (see your accounts tab), but I realized I didn't answer your question. We never planned to provide for the same *numeric* ids for every user. | From a database perspective, this seems impossible at this point (well, not impossible, but practically given the amount of work necessary).
I imagine that user id is the identity field in the user table and it serves as a foreign key to other information stored in other tables. So changing that user id would mean changing data all over the place.
It might have been a nice to have, but at this point seems unlikely given other priorities. |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | Some other Japanese tv & movie suggestions:
Jet Jaguar (man sized flying robot, hijacked by Seatopians to lead monster Megalon....but breaks free from their control, then grows to giant size and assists Godzilla in battling Megalon & Gigan) appears in movie "Godzilla vs Megalon" (1973).
"Zone Fighter". 1973 Toho studios TV series & answer to Ultraman, and other henshin/transformation heroes such as Kikaider, Kamen Rider, etc. Giant Ultraman style hero, fights giants monsters, including cameos from Godzilla, King Ghidorah, & Gigan. Official Toho TV spin-off of Godzilla film series. (Maybe a movie have been edited togetherfrom episodes?)
"Red Man" 1972 Tsuburaya Productions...Ultraman looking hero, fought monsters. Very low budget! (Maybe a movie edited together from episodes?)
Other Tsuburaya 1970s tv series: "Jumborg Ace"; "Jumborg 9"; "Fire Man".
"Super Robot Red Baron" 1973, and it's 1974 sequel "Super Robot Mach Baron".
Somewhere in Asia, the 1974 series (Mach Baron) was adapted into an 86-minute feature film which used footage from the original series.
"Iron King". 1972. Ultraman like, & hero is assisted by hat/jacket cowboy character with whip he swings on to fight giant robots/monsters (cowboy that Indiana Jones is based on).
"Giant Robo", or English dub/edit known as "Johnny Sokko and His Flying Robot" 1967 tv series...In 1970, several episodes were edited together to create the 95-minute "Voyage into Space".
"Dinosaur War Izenborg" (1977) Tsuburaya. Both animated & live action, animated people in helmuts & super vehicles fight evil Dinosaurs, then become Izenborg, a sort of Ultraman-like giant hero. The first four episodes were released in the form of a movie edit titled "Attack of the Super Monsters".
Sky Rider (6th Kamen Rider: "Sky Rider" or 'The New Kamen Rider') flies, fights monsters. TV Series. Sky Rider Had a 1980 movie also: "Kamen Rider: Eight Riders vs. Gingaoh". | [*Dinosaur War Izenborg*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dinosaur_War_Izenborg).
It's an old anime series
We had it when we were kids but dubbed in Arabic (*الرجل الحديدي*, *The man of steel/man of iron*).
I hope this is what you were talking about. |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | After consulting with a friend who knows more about Japanese TV shows of that period, I have another candidate:
The 1978 series [Dinosaur Corps Koseidon](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dinosaur_Corps_Koseidon). This show features Koseider, a [hero in a suit with a helmet](http://ultra.wikia.com/wiki/Koseidon) who fights dinosaur-like monsters (so, similar to Godzilla). The monsters are mostly the same size as he is, but he does [fight giant monsters](http://ticra.blog.fc2.com/blog-entry-1078.html):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ecPou.jpg) | [*Dinosaur War Izenborg*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dinosaur_War_Izenborg).
It's an old anime series
We had it when we were kids but dubbed in Arabic (*الرجل الحديدي*, *The man of steel/man of iron*).
I hope this is what you were talking about. |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | Some other Japanese tv & movie suggestions:
Jet Jaguar (man sized flying robot, hijacked by Seatopians to lead monster Megalon....but breaks free from their control, then grows to giant size and assists Godzilla in battling Megalon & Gigan) appears in movie "Godzilla vs Megalon" (1973).
"Zone Fighter". 1973 Toho studios TV series & answer to Ultraman, and other henshin/transformation heroes such as Kikaider, Kamen Rider, etc. Giant Ultraman style hero, fights giants monsters, including cameos from Godzilla, King Ghidorah, & Gigan. Official Toho TV spin-off of Godzilla film series. (Maybe a movie have been edited togetherfrom episodes?)
"Red Man" 1972 Tsuburaya Productions...Ultraman looking hero, fought monsters. Very low budget! (Maybe a movie edited together from episodes?)
Other Tsuburaya 1970s tv series: "Jumborg Ace"; "Jumborg 9"; "Fire Man".
"Super Robot Red Baron" 1973, and it's 1974 sequel "Super Robot Mach Baron".
Somewhere in Asia, the 1974 series (Mach Baron) was adapted into an 86-minute feature film which used footage from the original series.
"Iron King". 1972. Ultraman like, & hero is assisted by hat/jacket cowboy character with whip he swings on to fight giant robots/monsters (cowboy that Indiana Jones is based on).
"Giant Robo", or English dub/edit known as "Johnny Sokko and His Flying Robot" 1967 tv series...In 1970, several episodes were edited together to create the 95-minute "Voyage into Space".
"Dinosaur War Izenborg" (1977) Tsuburaya. Both animated & live action, animated people in helmuts & super vehicles fight evil Dinosaurs, then become Izenborg, a sort of Ultraman-like giant hero. The first four episodes were released in the form of a movie edit titled "Attack of the Super Monsters".
Sky Rider (6th Kamen Rider: "Sky Rider" or 'The New Kamen Rider') flies, fights monsters. TV Series. Sky Rider Had a 1980 movie also: "Kamen Rider: Eight Riders vs. Gingaoh". | Spectra man is what you're looking for:
 |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | After consulting with a friend who knows more about Japanese TV shows of that period, I have another candidate:
The 1978 series [Dinosaur Corps Koseidon](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dinosaur_Corps_Koseidon). This show features Koseider, a [hero in a suit with a helmet](http://ultra.wikia.com/wiki/Koseidon) who fights dinosaur-like monsters (so, similar to Godzilla). The monsters are mostly the same size as he is, but he does [fight giant monsters](http://ticra.blog.fc2.com/blog-entry-1078.html):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ecPou.jpg) | I know what you are referring to.. its a series not a movie..
Sorry it's dubbed in Arabic |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | if the title is Man of Steel may I point you to the Taiwanese film adaptation of the Tokusatsu series "Super Robot Mach Baron'"? That has the alternate title of "Man of Iron" in English or "Iron Superman"
[enter link description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg)
[1](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg):
this is an episode from the original Japanese edit of the show
Is it also the Taiwanese/Thai/Japanese coproduction movie "MarsMen"? The Jumborg Ace character in the movie was design by the same person who designed Mirrorman
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg) | I know what you are referring to.. its a series not a movie..
Sorry it's dubbed in Arabic |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | if the title is Man of Steel may I point you to the Taiwanese film adaptation of the Tokusatsu series "Super Robot Mach Baron'"? That has the alternate title of "Man of Iron" in English or "Iron Superman"
[enter link description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg)
[1](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg):
this is an episode from the original Japanese edit of the show
Is it also the Taiwanese/Thai/Japanese coproduction movie "MarsMen"? The Jumborg Ace character in the movie was design by the same person who designed Mirrorman
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BbLu9.jpg) | [*Dinosaur War Izenborg*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dinosaur_War_Izenborg).
It's an old anime series
We had it when we were kids but dubbed in Arabic (*الرجل الحديدي*, *The man of steel/man of iron*).
I hope this is what you were talking about. |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | Could it be [Ultraman](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ultraman)? This was from the 60s.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/u8Ujg.jpg) | I know what you are referring to.. its a series not a movie..
Sorry it's dubbed in Arabic |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | Guyver was roughly from the 80's as well. This is the first episode of the anime which aired in ~1989.
--- | Spectra man is what you're looking for:
 |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | The year you remember seeing it in is way off, but this sounds a lot like the 1998 Japanese live-action film [Dark Soldier D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dark_Soldier_D). There aren't many good pictures from it online, but [an image of the robot](http://ecx.images-amazon.com/images/I/51BJP8RG44L.jpg) on the DVD cover might ring a bell? It's about a soldier who was recruited to test an experimental armored suit, and then ends up using it to fight giant monsters. The monsters are huge, but the robot suit he pilots is not much bigger than a human. There are some pretty memorable moments - in the second "episode", he fights [a giant monster chicken](http://www.lockntoad.com/hrotia/DarkSoldier3.jpg), and then loses his arm in the battle (he gets a mechanical arm in the third part). In any case, this is a long shot, but your description immediately made me think of it. | I know what you are referring to.. its a series not a movie..
Sorry it's dubbed in Arabic |
96,860 | Now this one is tough, i have talked to so many people and i have tried to search so much.
I saw a film when i was a kid, it was this strangest thing. In my country the film was actually called "man of steel" / "Stålmannen" :In Norwegian (Though i do not know what title this film had in English, but in my language the film title translates directly to man of steel). The film is Asian i think, and it is about a man that can fly, and he fights huge creatures, like godzillas or something like that. Or huge robots like we see in Neon genesis. I think i can recall this man of steel wearing a full metal suit with helmet.
I can not seem to have found a godzilla movie that has a flying man beating him up. But that does not mean it isn't a godzilla movie or spin-off. This might also be a movie made around 1976-1980 to be a sort of Japanese take on Superman the movie or King Kong.
I remember far to little of the film, because i was very young when i saw it, and that was in the mid-late 80's. So it must of course have been made before this. The effects were not very good, and i bet this film/tv movie released on VHS was made between 1970 and 1988. I could rent this in the video store.
Hehe, i hope some other member here actually have seen this piece of art and can help me out.
Edit: This movie i'm looking for is not animated.
Edit 2: After getting a lot of help from you guys we might be on our way to narrow it down. Mirrorman seem to be the one that comes closest at the moment. But i can not seem to find a full size movie of this character. And he also is to big, i am almost certain the hero i am talking about was not monster size, or it can maybe be my brain tricking me since he is a normal man, then becomes big size as mirrorman. This i cannot say for sure, but mirrormans battles and suit do give me some flashbacks. And it does not seem to be ultraman.
Edit 3: Anyone know if Hong Kong ever made something like this? We have been focusing on Japan all the way. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/96860",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/48893/"
] | The year you remember seeing it in is way off, but this sounds a lot like the 1998 Japanese live-action film [Dark Soldier D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dark_Soldier_D). There aren't many good pictures from it online, but [an image of the robot](http://ecx.images-amazon.com/images/I/51BJP8RG44L.jpg) on the DVD cover might ring a bell? It's about a soldier who was recruited to test an experimental armored suit, and then ends up using it to fight giant monsters. The monsters are huge, but the robot suit he pilots is not much bigger than a human. There are some pretty memorable moments - in the second "episode", he fights [a giant monster chicken](http://www.lockntoad.com/hrotia/DarkSoldier3.jpg), and then loses his arm in the battle (he gets a mechanical arm in the third part). In any case, this is a long shot, but your description immediately made me think of it. | Spectra man is what you're looking for:
 |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | There are three options, some already mentioned.
* You were drawing too much power the power line could provide.
You can try it by drilling into similar material and watch the lights. If it will flicker you should turn off another device (washer, fridge,...) for a while. If not I have bad news for you...
* You were drilling into powerline.
Turn off main breaker, insert metal rod in the hole and find what line is connected to it. Open the wall and find the wires near the hole. Or, which is much cleaner way, call electrician. They can detect wires without opening the walls, they use metal detectors for it.
* If all above is false, then you had a bad luck and maybe you and your neighbours were drawing too much at the moment, there was temporal power shortage in your area, who knows. (Thanks Steve Jessop for comment) | Since this is closet, there seems to be no real reason not to go ahead and remove the wallboard (or plaster and lath) a few inches to each side of the stud and see if there is a wire there. You should probably get a [non-contact voltage detector](http://www.myhardwaresupply.com/store/p/20448-Voltage-Detector-Non-contact.aspx?feed=Froogle&gclid=CI_IgqDC1c4CFQ02gQodcOQOxw) and check the vicinity of where you are going to cut just in case there is wiring just behind the wall. Nothing particularly special about this model. There are other similar devices from other makers and you can get them at your local big-box store. Note that just if it doesn't detect anything, that doesn't mean you haven't hit a wire. It might just be too far in the wall.
If there is a wire where you drilled, you should assume you've hit it and repair the wiring. If you decide to fix it yourself, make sure match the wire gauges and put any splices in a junction box that is accessible.
Repairing the wall is fairly easy if you don't have to worry about making it look nice and generally that's not a concern inside a closet. Just cut a piece of drywall a little larger than the hole you created, put it over the hole, trace around it and cut the hole to fit the piece, screw the piece to the stud (short screws!) apply a little mesh tape and smooth on some joint compound. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | Since this is closet, there seems to be no real reason not to go ahead and remove the wallboard (or plaster and lath) a few inches to each side of the stud and see if there is a wire there. You should probably get a [non-contact voltage detector](http://www.myhardwaresupply.com/store/p/20448-Voltage-Detector-Non-contact.aspx?feed=Froogle&gclid=CI_IgqDC1c4CFQ02gQodcOQOxw) and check the vicinity of where you are going to cut just in case there is wiring just behind the wall. Nothing particularly special about this model. There are other similar devices from other makers and you can get them at your local big-box store. Note that just if it doesn't detect anything, that doesn't mean you haven't hit a wire. It might just be too far in the wall.
If there is a wire where you drilled, you should assume you've hit it and repair the wiring. If you decide to fix it yourself, make sure match the wire gauges and put any splices in a junction box that is accessible.
Repairing the wall is fairly easy if you don't have to worry about making it look nice and generally that's not a concern inside a closet. Just cut a piece of drywall a little larger than the hole you created, put it over the hole, trace around it and cut the hole to fit the piece, screw the piece to the stud (short screws!) apply a little mesh tape and smooth on some joint compound. | Yes. Be *very* worried.
Keep everyone away from the closet/hole...
When you can, turn off the house's main isolating switch, and make sure nobody can turn it on while you work.
Tape over the hole with electrical tape. Leave the mains switched off if you can.
*CALL AN ELECTRICIAN* to repair the damage you've done to the wiring. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | Since this is closet, there seems to be no real reason not to go ahead and remove the wallboard (or plaster and lath) a few inches to each side of the stud and see if there is a wire there. You should probably get a [non-contact voltage detector](http://www.myhardwaresupply.com/store/p/20448-Voltage-Detector-Non-contact.aspx?feed=Froogle&gclid=CI_IgqDC1c4CFQ02gQodcOQOxw) and check the vicinity of where you are going to cut just in case there is wiring just behind the wall. Nothing particularly special about this model. There are other similar devices from other makers and you can get them at your local big-box store. Note that just if it doesn't detect anything, that doesn't mean you haven't hit a wire. It might just be too far in the wall.
If there is a wire where you drilled, you should assume you've hit it and repair the wiring. If you decide to fix it yourself, make sure match the wire gauges and put any splices in a junction box that is accessible.
Repairing the wall is fairly easy if you don't have to worry about making it look nice and generally that's not a concern inside a closet. Just cut a piece of drywall a little larger than the hole you created, put it over the hole, trace around it and cut the hole to fit the piece, screw the piece to the stud (short screws!) apply a little mesh tape and smooth on some joint compound. | I'm thinking about something else than drilling into a wire.
The power used by your drill could've been high and made the light flicker because it was nearly the maximum this power line could provide. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | If you don't want to start taking walls down (it can be a very time consuming job, especially the clean-up afterwards) to have a look, I would suggest calling an electrician in and asking them to run an insulation safety check. They have a device that they can just plug into your wiring that remote checks the insulation on the cables is up to standards (in the UK we tend to call them a Megger tester, after the most common brand name, but I'm not sure what they'd be called in the US). This should be able to tell you if you've broken through the insulation to an extent that is dangerous. Hopefully, you'll be able to find an electrician that won't charge too much for this, or maybe even free -- it's at most a half hour job, and as it may well lead to rewiring work later down the line they'll probably want to get in before the competition. | You can obtain a [wire tracer like this one](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mJGqh-XJVpk). It might cost about as much as the time to knock a hole and repair it, but it should be quicker. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | So you now have an electrified shelf that alerts you when your kids try to get to their Christmas presents before Santa delivers them. What's so bad? :)
[Craftsman Wall Scanner with AC Wire Warning](http://www.sears.com/craftsman-wall-scanner-with-ac-wirewarning/p-00949067000P?sid=IDx01192011x000001&gclid=CPjgppXq1c4CFYGCaQodqx0DJg&gclsrc=aw.ds)
Something like the above (a stud finder/scanner) will tell you if an electrical line is at the spot you drilled. If there is one then you will have to open the wall to determine if you killed the Romex.
If you look at the light switch box you can tell of they used conduit (required for many cities). If there is conduit run for the light switch, then conduit was run for the wire to the light and you probably did not drill through wiring. | I'm thinking about something else than drilling into a wire.
The power used by your drill could've been high and made the light flicker because it was nearly the maximum this power line could provide. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | So you stopped drilling and it got better. Of course, if you put in a screw it might get worse in a hurry.
Best bet is that you nicked the insulation on a wire or wires - either from drilling too deep, determinedly drilling though something that was supposed to prevent you (or warn you by being difficult to drill, compared to wood anyway) from drilling into it, or because it was installed improperly (too close to the surface, without steel protector plates.)
As such it would be a very good idea to **turn off the breaker** for the affected circuit, open up the wall, have a look, and call an electrician if you are not comfortable fixing electrical things yourself. | Yes. Be *very* worried.
Keep everyone away from the closet/hole...
When you can, turn off the house's main isolating switch, and make sure nobody can turn it on while you work.
Tape over the hole with electrical tape. Leave the mains switched off if you can.
*CALL AN ELECTRICIAN* to repair the damage you've done to the wiring. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | Since this is closet, there seems to be no real reason not to go ahead and remove the wallboard (or plaster and lath) a few inches to each side of the stud and see if there is a wire there. You should probably get a [non-contact voltage detector](http://www.myhardwaresupply.com/store/p/20448-Voltage-Detector-Non-contact.aspx?feed=Froogle&gclid=CI_IgqDC1c4CFQ02gQodcOQOxw) and check the vicinity of where you are going to cut just in case there is wiring just behind the wall. Nothing particularly special about this model. There are other similar devices from other makers and you can get them at your local big-box store. Note that just if it doesn't detect anything, that doesn't mean you haven't hit a wire. It might just be too far in the wall.
If there is a wire where you drilled, you should assume you've hit it and repair the wiring. If you decide to fix it yourself, make sure match the wire gauges and put any splices in a junction box that is accessible.
Repairing the wall is fairly easy if you don't have to worry about making it look nice and generally that's not a concern inside a closet. Just cut a piece of drywall a little larger than the hole you created, put it over the hole, trace around it and cut the hole to fit the piece, screw the piece to the stud (short screws!) apply a little mesh tape and smooth on some joint compound. | If you don't want to start taking walls down (it can be a very time consuming job, especially the clean-up afterwards) to have a look, I would suggest calling an electrician in and asking them to run an insulation safety check. They have a device that they can just plug into your wiring that remote checks the insulation on the cables is up to standards (in the UK we tend to call them a Megger tester, after the most common brand name, but I'm not sure what they'd be called in the US). This should be able to tell you if you've broken through the insulation to an extent that is dangerous. Hopefully, you'll be able to find an electrician that won't charge too much for this, or maybe even free -- it's at most a half hour job, and as it may well lead to rewiring work later down the line they'll probably want to get in before the competition. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | So you now have an electrified shelf that alerts you when your kids try to get to their Christmas presents before Santa delivers them. What's so bad? :)
[Craftsman Wall Scanner with AC Wire Warning](http://www.sears.com/craftsman-wall-scanner-with-ac-wirewarning/p-00949067000P?sid=IDx01192011x000001&gclid=CPjgppXq1c4CFYGCaQodqx0DJg&gclsrc=aw.ds)
Something like the above (a stud finder/scanner) will tell you if an electrical line is at the spot you drilled. If there is one then you will have to open the wall to determine if you killed the Romex.
If you look at the light switch box you can tell of they used conduit (required for many cities). If there is conduit run for the light switch, then conduit was run for the wire to the light and you probably did not drill through wiring. | Yes. Be *very* worried.
Keep everyone away from the closet/hole...
When you can, turn off the house's main isolating switch, and make sure nobody can turn it on while you work.
Tape over the hole with electrical tape. Leave the mains switched off if you can.
*CALL AN ELECTRICIAN* to repair the damage you've done to the wiring. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | If you don't want to start taking walls down (it can be a very time consuming job, especially the clean-up afterwards) to have a look, I would suggest calling an electrician in and asking them to run an insulation safety check. They have a device that they can just plug into your wiring that remote checks the insulation on the cables is up to standards (in the UK we tend to call them a Megger tester, after the most common brand name, but I'm not sure what they'd be called in the US). This should be able to tell you if you've broken through the insulation to an extent that is dangerous. Hopefully, you'll be able to find an electrician that won't charge too much for this, or maybe even free -- it's at most a half hour job, and as it may well lead to rewiring work later down the line they'll probably want to get in before the competition. | Yes. Be *very* worried.
Keep everyone away from the closet/hole...
When you can, turn off the house's main isolating switch, and make sure nobody can turn it on while you work.
Tape over the hole with electrical tape. Leave the mains switched off if you can.
*CALL AN ELECTRICIAN* to repair the damage you've done to the wiring. |
97,883 | I was installing shelving in my closets, when drilled a hole into studs, the lights flickered momentarily for 2 seconds.
I stopped drilling, and everything else seems fine now. The circuit didn't break and the lights are no longer flickering.
There doesn't seem to be any sockets around the switch.
Should I call an electrician or is there anything I should test? | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/97883",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/59139/"
] | So you now have an electrified shelf that alerts you when your kids try to get to their Christmas presents before Santa delivers them. What's so bad? :)
[Craftsman Wall Scanner with AC Wire Warning](http://www.sears.com/craftsman-wall-scanner-with-ac-wirewarning/p-00949067000P?sid=IDx01192011x000001&gclid=CPjgppXq1c4CFYGCaQodqx0DJg&gclsrc=aw.ds)
Something like the above (a stud finder/scanner) will tell you if an electrical line is at the spot you drilled. If there is one then you will have to open the wall to determine if you killed the Romex.
If you look at the light switch box you can tell of they used conduit (required for many cities). If there is conduit run for the light switch, then conduit was run for the wire to the light and you probably did not drill through wiring. | You can obtain a [wire tracer like this one](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mJGqh-XJVpk). It might cost about as much as the time to knock a hole and repair it, but it should be quicker. |
309,142 | I'm using the following [two rf433 modules](http://i0.wp.com/randomnerdtutorials.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/05/433-Copy.jpg?resize=450%2C251) in combination with two Arduino Unos.
After testing them both at 5V (in combination with the RadioHead library), which worked, I decided to test the improvement in the range, while powering the transmitter with 12V (I'm using an external power supply). [This](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/a/103358/137122) answer suggested that a NPN transistor can be used to provide enough voltage for a logic HIGH (I tried connecting everything as depicted on that picture). I used a RFP30N06LE MOSFET and wired everything as depicted in the picture below:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ypwCe.png)
After a minute or so, I noticed that two wires started to melt, so I quickly disconnected everything. One wire is the orange one, connecting the drain of the MOSFET with the DATA pin of the transmitter, the other one is the ground wire from the source of the MOSFET to the GND. I also noticed that the MOSFET got quite hot.
Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong? Thank you.
\*\*EDIT:\*\*As @Andy aka suggested, the data pin doesn't need level shifting. Upon removing the MOSFET and both resistors from the circuit the transmitter is now working at 12V. The grounds of the external power supply, the transmitter and the Uno have to be tied together. | 2017/06/05 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/309142",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/137122/"
] | If you are going to use a BS170, use it like this (with the PCA driver configured as a totem pole output): -
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EDEFi.gif)
At the moment you have the source connected to the positive rail and the internal body diode will conduct all the time and you won't be able to turn the LED off.
Regards the other LED outputs connected directly the the PCA device take note what its data sheet says: -
>
> The LED output driver is programmed to be either open-drain with a 25
> mA current sink capability at 5 V or totem pole with a 25 mA sink, 10
> mA source capability at 5 V.
>
>
>
In other words, if you are trying to source current into an LED you will only get 10 mA LED current. | If your IC is an open-drain, then you are required to pull that pin to 5V with a resistor. The resistor value will determine the rise time of the high signal. Right now, all your PWM is doing is toggling between 'floating' and GND, when it should be 'high' and GND. |
430,804 | I have home internet access via Comcast/Xfinity and the router below providing wifi to multiple devices - laptops, iPads, iPhones, iPod Touch. Macs.
What is the best way to monitor and record the URLs called by device to establish or monitor browsing history?
I'm the admin so have root access to the router via Ethernet, but all other devices access it via wifi.
I have young children and would like to have (preferably remote) access to view a list of the URLs they are browsing or pages they are accessing.
I know that Xfinity does record this information, but I believe it is outside of their Parental Control Feature-Set.
The equivalent would be to copy the browser .plist file from OS X and view it, but that is a one-time thing and I'm looking to be able to access it remotely by device ID, without installing nanny software on all of the machines.
Is there an easy way to set this up?
Thanks in advance for any help.
Desirae
Wireless Gateway
SMCD3GNV or TG852G
802.11n
<http://media2.comcast.net/anon.comcastonline2/support/help/faqs/wirelessrouters/SMCD3GNV_25547.jpg> | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/430804",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/137197/"
] | Use OpenDNS as your upstream DNS server on your router.
**How it works:**
Every device that uses this router will get it's DHCP lease from the router, which will say send me all your DNS queries. The router will forward them all to the OpenDNS servers.
You can then log into their web portal to set parental controls.
**Benefits:**
* Quick, simple, effective
* No new hardware/software to setup
* Captures HTTPs traffic.
<https://www.opendns.com/home-solutions/parental-controls/> | There are a fair number of ways to do what you're after, but most of them are somewhat technical. If you can get an intermediate router between your internet connection and your LAN and put DD-WRT on it, you could use [this guide](http://www.makeuseof.com/tag/paranoid-monitoring-networks-comings-goings-wallwatcher-ddwrt/) to monitor HTTP requests with it.
A more full-featured solution would be to put something like [untangle](http://www.untangle.com/) on your home network (ideally between the internet and your LAN, again), and use its network monitoring facilities to see which sites are being visited, and by whom. Still not super-simple, though. |
67,490 | OK, I am trying to remember a paperback I read back in the 70s. The plot was very disjointed, so maybe it was one of those books written as a spoof by multiple authors who did not communicate with each other, like **Naked Came the Stranger** or **Atlanta Nights**. All I remember is that the protagonist was just called "The Boy" and it starts out with him living in a shack which is up on stilts in a swamp or at the shore. Something happens (maybe his mentor dies?) and he has to leave, so he climbs out through the trap door in the floor and heads off to various adventures. I know this isn't much to go on, but maybe it will spark someone's memory.
My memory is that this was a relatively new book (two or three years old) when I read it around 1978. It was in English and I think published in the USA. Also, it was an adult novel, rather than young adult, but I don't think it was "adult" in the sense of being erotic.
In response to further comments, I will add that I don't think there were any supernatural / magical elements in the stories. I think it was a standard after-a-global-disaster world. War? Plague? Famine? I don't remember. I also don't remember any geographic details, but US is probably most likely. This was all 35 years ago... | 2014/09/10 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/67490",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/32615/"
] | I can recall no details of the plot - I disliked the book very much-, but some other features made me think of "[Deus Irae](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deus_Irae)".
* By two authors - Philip K Dick and Roger Zelazny
* Disjointed - according to the wikipedia article (link above) the authors worked on it sporadically and via correspondence
* post-apocalyptic - check
* relatively new in 1978 - it was published in 1976
* a negative correlation is that from the wikipedia article, it does not appear that the protagonist is called "The Boy"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zPeiR.jpg) | Was it "A boy and his dog?" I don't remember the swamp, but it had a unique writing style and came out in 1975. The characters name was "Vic" but It could have mostly been "boy."
Edit: sorry, the movie came out in 1975, I guess the book (novella) came out in 1969... |
1,940,868 | How do I say an MXML component is inside some package? Well, it's in a different folder... I know how to do it ActionScript... But when I do in MXML I don't declare the package explicitly because I don't know how, and when I call it to my application, it states that
>
> The prefix "package" for element
> "package:Component" is not bound.
>
>
> | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1940868",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/221393/"
] | Hope this helps.
For a component just create it in a new folder and from your base class when your invoking that component just invoke it with a new namespace.
e.g if you create a new component say employee\_list.mxml in src/component folder
and if you have your main app file ALL\_EMP.mxml in src/ folder then to invoke the component you defined in src/component folder use a namespace as
< mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" **xmlns:Comp="component.\*"** layout="horizontal" >
then you can invoke the component directly in mxml as
(tag specific to your App)...
it is somewhat similar to creating and using Taglibs in JSPs... | Check out the [screencast for the Components chapter](http://www.firststepsinflex.com) of First Steps in Flex. It explains this in detail. |
251,408 | Andrew Barber closed a question regarding GCM servers. My question is at
[this link](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/22738566/how-to-implement-a-java-gcm-app-server).
In my opinion the question is not vague. I have been researching the issue for a couple of weeks. It's about a gaping hole in the Google GCM docs regarding how to implement GCM CCS SMPP server code (that is provided).
I am requesting that someone review the question and hopefully open it back up. I do believe, however, that this issue is moot as apparently no one knows the answer.
Gary | 2014/04/20 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/251408",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1058647/"
] | That's great. It shows that you didn't bother to read the close reason.
>
> **Too broad**: There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format. Please add details to narrow the answer set or to isolate an issue that can be answered in a few paragraphs.
>
>
>
So, your question:
>
> I know how to write ASP.Net Web api Rest servers that run under IIS but I don't think there is a Smack library for asp.net so I should probably write the app server part in Java.
>
>
> So, how can I take this Java code and package it onto a server at my webhoster? Can it run under IIS? Apache?
>
>
>
How is this supposed to be answerable in a few paragraphs? It sounds like you don't know what you're doing and need a long tutorial. | Now that I have researched the issue by finding some very good information sources, I know the answer to my "broad" question. The following is the correct (or at least very good) answer to my posted question . . .
"The example code in the docs will run under Apache Tomcat pretty much as is. It could also run as a standard Java EE Web app with Servlets and JSPs. There is also an XMPP .NET library from AG Software called agsXMPP if you prefer to go that way.
The real problem is that the CCS XMPP part of Google Cloud Messaging is pretty embryonic at this stage and that is likely the reason for no hard examples in the docs. In the real world the CcsClient needs to be much more robust because it has to cope with connection loss so, at this point, you need to develop you own persistence solution.
You might want to consider going with the HTTP side of GCM for server to client traffic and have your phone apps post directly to your own server for client to server traffic."
So, I submit this as data that tends to show that (a) the question was not too broad and (b) that it was comletely answerable.
S.O. has been a valuable tool through my year long ramp up on Android but in my opinion you guys are too hard-nosed and sometimes actually prevent information exchange. You certainly prevented me getting the answer above a week or so ago. I've seen you do worse to many others. |
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