qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
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36,779 | I've just started editing my novel.
For the drafting I had done most of the work on a phone, as I wanted to make the most of the daily commute. This worked well enough and the first rough draft is done.
However, I'm finding the same approach just isn't as strong for editing as it's not easy to highlight and remove words or find things quickly on a phone.
Does a portable computer exist that would be up to the task? A tiny laptop could work but I currently commute by bus (not train) so there isn't exactly a table or other surface I could rest a computer on.
My other option is just working weekends, but I'd rather avoid this if possible.
Can any writers recommend any suitable tools?
If not, how did you keep productive during the editing stage? | 2018/06/07 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/36779",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/28031/"
] | Tablet, with tablet pen is the best mark up tool, period. However, turning a marked up document into a new draft needs two panels and that won't ever work well in transit. You're going to need to find time outside of your commute for revision & editing, but you can reduce the task load. | To add to what others have said:
If you choose a tablet:
-----------------------
* the touchscreen keyboard will be much less ergonomic compared to a real laptop. If you are the kind of person who may be discouraging by that, you can get a wired or Bluetooth portable keyboard.
* a tablet + accessories setup will be more fiddly than a laptop. With a laptop, you will only have one device that you will have to remember to carry and keep charged. With a tablet and keyboard, you will have to keep two charged, and connect/disconnect them occasionally.
If you choose a laptop:
-----------------------
* they are more tempting to leave behind unattended because of their weight, "just this once, for only a minute". That can get them stolen more easily than with a tablet, which you can train yourself to pick up whenever you leave the room. |
64,569,549 | I am a software developer and I've been working on integrating Microsoft Graph Api in my application to be able to retrieve calendar information for users. For development purposes, I have been using a Microsoft 365 Developer subscription, in which I register my app, by following <https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/quickstart-register-app>. This seems to be working fine with my developer subscription, so after creating a small proof of concept, now I am trying to make a time and cost estimation for this, and I have some doubts about if there are any costs for the client.
Is Azure Active Directory Admin Center available on all Microsoft 365 business plans with the "App registration" option? Or are there any other cost-related aspects I need to take in consideration?
I've searched online and found that there shouldn't be any additional costs, but since I am not really familiar with Microsoft 365 and Azure Active Directory Admin Center other than what I used for my proof of concept, I am not really sure I have the right information.
Maybe there is someone who already implemented this in production and can have a better understanding over this.
Thanks | 2020/10/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64569549",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2397005/"
] | >
> Microsoft 365 subscription extra-costs for Microsoft Graph Api usage
>
>
>
1.There is no extra cost to use the API, it is open source.
>
> and I have some doubts about if there are any costs for the client.
>
>
>
2.No,it's free.And only microsoft 365 subscription needs to be charged.
3.Yes,all Microsoft 365 subscriptions offer this option.
As @Nishant - MSFT Identity says,Registering apps in Azure AD does not involve any costs and Microsoft 365 E5 developer subscription comes with Azure Active Directory(it's free) for building advanced identity and access management solutions. | M365 subscription will have an Azure tenant associated with it and hence you can create application for authenticating to AAD using MS Graph. |
47,579 | [How old is the idea of the far side of the Moon?](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/q/47570/7982) got me thinking that as soon as we see the moon [librate](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Libration) we have to come to terms with there being even more of it we can't see.
The Moon's libration is a natural consequence of its orbit being elliptical; while it rotates around its own axis at steady angular rate (360° every ~29.5 days), its angular rate of revolution around the Earth is not so constant; advancing faster than average when it's closer to us and slower than average when further.
This allows us to "peek around the corner" and see extra bits on the left and right side during the month.
The uneven angular rate of revolution is a consequence of Keplerian orbits, so it could have been predicted. In fact, even before orbital mechanics it's possible just plotting the Moon's position among the stars would show this variation in speed.
So I'd like to ask the following:
**Question:** Was lunar libration first observed or first predicted? In either case, who was the responsible party?
[This answer to *Moon's rotation and revolution*](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/44371/7982) says
>
> **Anyways, if what you are asking instead is how and when we realised the exact mechanism by which the Moon gained its synchronous rotation**, then the answer is that the process was first correctly described by british astronomer [George Darwin](https://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Darwin) (this is Charles Darwin son by the way) [in 1879](https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/10.1098/rstl.1879.0061). But the main idea was really present as [early as Isaac Newton's work on his lunar theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_theory#Newton). So not only the fact that the Moon has the same rotational period as its orbital period was known long ago but also the exact way as to why this happened has been scientifically understood at least for 142 years now. This is 90 years before any human landed on the Moon and 78 years before even the Sputnik exited our world at the dawn of space exploration.
>
>
>
which is quite helpful, but it's not enough to definitively answer my current question. | 2021/11/23 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/47579",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/7982/"
] | The variable speed of the Moon on the celestial sphere has been known since ancient times. The [Babylonians made ~7 centuries of daily astronomical observations](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Babylonian_astronomical_diaries) from around 700 BC. That data was the basis of the astronomical tables of [Hipparchus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hipparchus), which Ptolemy used in creating the formulae of celestial motions in the [Almagest](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almagest).
However, actually *observing* the Moon's libration would have been tricky before the development of the telescope. [Thomas Harriot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomas_Harriot) was the first person to make a drawing of the Moon through a telescope, on 26 July 1609, over four months before Galileo Galilei.
According to Wikipedia, the lunar libration in longitude was discovered by [Johannes Hevelius](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johannes_Hevelius) in the early 1640s & published in 1647. Hevelius was the last astronomer to do significant work without telescopes, although he did eventually use them.
[William Gilbert](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Gilbert_(physician))
>
> made the first attempt to map the surface markings on the Moon in the 1590s. His chart, made without the use of a telescope, showed outlines of dark and light patches on the Moon's face.
>
>
>
[Wikipedia says](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Libration)
>
> Galileo Galilei is sometimes credited with the discovery of the lunar libration in latitude in 1632, although Thomas Harriot or William Gilbert might have done so before.
>
>
>
Newton presented a fairly detailed analysis of lunar motion in the *Principia*, but some of his calculations were rather inaccurate due to various approximations that he made in order to simplify the calculations. [Lunar theory is hard!](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_theory#Newton)
Prior to Newton, it's unlikely that anyone thought of the Moon being affected by tidal locking. Of course it was known that the tides were connected to the cycles of the Moon, but there wasn't really any solid theory on how that worked.
Bear in mind that before Newton, it was standard to consider celestial mechanics and terrestrial mechanics to be governed by separate systems of laws. As I mentioned [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/41481/16685), Newton's outstanding insight was that a single scheme could describe both terrestrial motion and celestial motion.
So prior to Newton, it was assumed that the Moon's motion was due to celestial influences. The notion that the Earth influenced the Moon was a very radical idea.
Kepler's laws, as published in his *Astronomia Nova* were purely empirical. It was reasonable to assume that other Solar System bodies also moved in elliptical orbits, but we had to wait several decades for Newton's *Principia* to give that idea a solid theoretical basis. Similarly, it was reasonable to assume that the Moon's rotation on its axis (relative to the stars) was fairly uniform (like the Earth's), but until Newton there was no solid theory stating that the rotation of celestial bodies ought to obey the law of conservation of angular momentum.
Thus the observations of lunar libration came before the necessary theory. | According to [Wood](https://www.mdpi.com/2076-3263/9/1/5/pdf) Galileo was the first to observe libration in longitude and latitude and make notes of it, described in his Siderus Nuncius.
Given that exact observations, and comparisons require detailed photos or images, it seems unlikely that this libration was observed earlier. An interesting read on the discussion among the leading scientists around 1600 is found in [this article by Jarosław Włodarczyk](https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/10.1098/rsnr.2019.0009). The difficulties described there to obtain even a decent grasp of a map of the moon at that time even with (the first) telescopes makes it seem unlikely it was discovered earlier.
The absence of any talk of confirmation, especially texts or correspondence where e.g. Kepler is involved, makes me believe it hasn't been predicted previously - at least not by anyone who Kepler, Galileo or Gilbert had knowledge of - despite the knowledge of the Moon's variable speed on its orbit. |
47,579 | [How old is the idea of the far side of the Moon?](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/q/47570/7982) got me thinking that as soon as we see the moon [librate](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Libration) we have to come to terms with there being even more of it we can't see.
The Moon's libration is a natural consequence of its orbit being elliptical; while it rotates around its own axis at steady angular rate (360° every ~29.5 days), its angular rate of revolution around the Earth is not so constant; advancing faster than average when it's closer to us and slower than average when further.
This allows us to "peek around the corner" and see extra bits on the left and right side during the month.
The uneven angular rate of revolution is a consequence of Keplerian orbits, so it could have been predicted. In fact, even before orbital mechanics it's possible just plotting the Moon's position among the stars would show this variation in speed.
So I'd like to ask the following:
**Question:** Was lunar libration first observed or first predicted? In either case, who was the responsible party?
[This answer to *Moon's rotation and revolution*](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/44371/7982) says
>
> **Anyways, if what you are asking instead is how and when we realised the exact mechanism by which the Moon gained its synchronous rotation**, then the answer is that the process was first correctly described by british astronomer [George Darwin](https://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Darwin) (this is Charles Darwin son by the way) [in 1879](https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/10.1098/rstl.1879.0061). But the main idea was really present as [early as Isaac Newton's work on his lunar theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_theory#Newton). So not only the fact that the Moon has the same rotational period as its orbital period was known long ago but also the exact way as to why this happened has been scientifically understood at least for 142 years now. This is 90 years before any human landed on the Moon and 78 years before even the Sputnik exited our world at the dawn of space exploration.
>
>
>
which is quite helpful, but it's not enough to definitively answer my current question. | 2021/11/23 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/47579",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/7982/"
] | The variable speed of the Moon on the celestial sphere has been known since ancient times. The [Babylonians made ~7 centuries of daily astronomical observations](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Babylonian_astronomical_diaries) from around 700 BC. That data was the basis of the astronomical tables of [Hipparchus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hipparchus), which Ptolemy used in creating the formulae of celestial motions in the [Almagest](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almagest).
However, actually *observing* the Moon's libration would have been tricky before the development of the telescope. [Thomas Harriot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomas_Harriot) was the first person to make a drawing of the Moon through a telescope, on 26 July 1609, over four months before Galileo Galilei.
According to Wikipedia, the lunar libration in longitude was discovered by [Johannes Hevelius](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johannes_Hevelius) in the early 1640s & published in 1647. Hevelius was the last astronomer to do significant work without telescopes, although he did eventually use them.
[William Gilbert](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Gilbert_(physician))
>
> made the first attempt to map the surface markings on the Moon in the 1590s. His chart, made without the use of a telescope, showed outlines of dark and light patches on the Moon's face.
>
>
>
[Wikipedia says](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Libration)
>
> Galileo Galilei is sometimes credited with the discovery of the lunar libration in latitude in 1632, although Thomas Harriot or William Gilbert might have done so before.
>
>
>
Newton presented a fairly detailed analysis of lunar motion in the *Principia*, but some of his calculations were rather inaccurate due to various approximations that he made in order to simplify the calculations. [Lunar theory is hard!](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_theory#Newton)
Prior to Newton, it's unlikely that anyone thought of the Moon being affected by tidal locking. Of course it was known that the tides were connected to the cycles of the Moon, but there wasn't really any solid theory on how that worked.
Bear in mind that before Newton, it was standard to consider celestial mechanics and terrestrial mechanics to be governed by separate systems of laws. As I mentioned [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/41481/16685), Newton's outstanding insight was that a single scheme could describe both terrestrial motion and celestial motion.
So prior to Newton, it was assumed that the Moon's motion was due to celestial influences. The notion that the Earth influenced the Moon was a very radical idea.
Kepler's laws, as published in his *Astronomia Nova* were purely empirical. It was reasonable to assume that other Solar System bodies also moved in elliptical orbits, but we had to wait several decades for Newton's *Principia* to give that idea a solid theoretical basis. Similarly, it was reasonable to assume that the Moon's rotation on its axis (relative to the stars) was fairly uniform (like the Earth's), but until Newton there was no solid theory stating that the rotation of celestial bodies ought to obey the law of conservation of angular momentum.
Thus the observations of lunar libration came before the necessary theory. | To understand the answer provided below, we need to reframe the original question slightly. Perhaps a better way to put *"was libration first predicted"* is to say, outright, *libration was first observed, then a theory was advanced explaining its occurrence.* Although the observation of libration is documented in 1632 by Galileo, and independently observed and documented in 1647 by Hevelius, the question opens up an initially unseen view of history regarding who first developed a theory for libration. Reading relevant portions of Newton's preserved [correspondence](https://www.newtonproject.ox.ac.uk/), clearly Newton was working in depth on the libration problem by about 1670, or so. From about 1670 and, more or less, the decade following, the matter of lunar libration was the subject of discussion among Newton and Huygens, as well as with Halley, and Mercator, among others. The history of events shows that to no small degree, in later life Newton was trying to pin down the primacy of his work regarding libration. There seems to have been an air of intrigue regarding when libration had been first explained, others were trying to claim they were first in line. The general view of the Ptolemeo-Aristotelian cosmos is changed by Newton's presentations in *Principia Mathematica,* and regarding libration, Newton wanted a solid and honest cornerstone establishing the date of his work as being the first. But apparently there is no extant evidence that lunar libration had been predicted and then confirmed by observation.
Alan Gabby discusses the discovery of lunar libration by Hevelius and development of the theory regarding it by Newton, in an essay titled *Innovation and Continuity in the History of Astronomy: The Case of the Rotating Moon.* This essay is within a larger anthology, Studies in Philosophy and the History of Philosophy, Volume 24, *Revolution and Continuity: Essays in the History and Philosophy of Early Modern Science,* edited by Peter Barker and Roger Ariew. The publisher is Catholic University Press (1991).
Gabby gives the following account on page 96 and following pages:
>
> Galileo gave his account of parallactic lunar in the *Dialogo* of 1632, and in correspondence of 1637-38 (albeit probably unknown to Newton) announced further parallactic libratory effects. Libration in latitude and longitude was discovered by Hevelius, who produced the first maps of libration in *Selenographia* (1647). In 1648 Hevelius hit on the idea of explaining longitudinal libration by having the Moon face always its eccentric point, not the Earth. This idea occurred independently to Riccioli, who published it in *Almagestum novum* (1651), together with libration maps and a general survey of the subject. However, Riccioli was unhappy with the eccentric hypothesis, since the observed librations were not quite those predicted from the accepted value for lunar eccentricity, a weakness that Hevelius recognized, though he favored retaining the hypothesis until something better came along.
>
>
>
Gabby gives a detailed account of Newton's involvement in the development of an understanding of lunar libration and its occurrence. Mercator, in his *Institutionum astronomicarum libri duo,* (1676) provides the earliest version of Newton's libration theory as told to him by Newton, both in person (presumably in discussions with Mercator at Royal Society meetings) and later by letter. Newton apparently had ready a text for publication on the subject in 1673. As Gabby states,
>
> Newton’s letter to Oldenburg for Huygens of 23 June 1673...strongly suggests that the theory itself was in existence by that date at the latest.
>
>
>
Clearly, Newton had the theory at hand yet before mid-1673, but details of the time are unavailable. However, Newton's own recollection of the inception of the theory was documented by Newton some 40 years later in the third edition of his *Principia Mathematica.* Those details come, somewhat, from a draft of that edition indicating Newton may have been uncertain, precisely, of the date. Without his preserved correspondence, and that of others, as well as the communications with, and publication by, Mercator, those details possibly would have remained unclear. His notation in the draft was for deletion of "anno 1675" regarding the date of which he had given Mercator details of the libration theory. Gabby takes particular note,
>
> Whether Newton’s deletion of “anno 1675” signifies an uncertain recollection of the date of something that took place at least forty years previously, or a decision to mention only the date of publication, it seems safe to link Newton’s lunar libration theory, his first published contribution to astronomy, with the years 1673—75.
>
>
>
But did Newton have another reason for establishing this date for the primacy of his work? Why would Newton, now in his old age, be so insistent on the veracity of this date? Gabby makes the following comment:
>
> What prompted these persistent efforts in Newton’s old age to get right for first publication the wording of what we now realize is a priority claim? It seems to me that Newton had read or heard about (I cannot say when) the theory of lunar libration in longitude that [Giovanni Domenico] Cassini had published in 1693. Cassini’s theory seems to date also from circa 1675 and also employed, though none too clearly, the model of a moon rotating uniformly about an axis inclined at 7.5° to the orbital axis (and at 2.5° to the ecliptic axis), and moving nonuniformly in its orbit. No doubt it was G. D. Cassini (whose striking contributions to the observational study of ultra-lunar rotations Newton recognized and used) who was the implied foreign rival claimant to the libration of the moon to whom Newton wished to deny priority in the third edition of the *Principia...*
>
>
>
---
This was a very interesting question. Nevertheless, things are not always as they seem... One cannot prove the negative, but apparently there is no record of a prediction of lunar libration, and then an observation to confirm it. Rather, first lunar libration was observed, and then a theory for its occurrence was advanced. |
26,024 | I recently had a couple of 10Gbit Ethernet cards installed on a few machines connected to a LAN of about 80 commodity nodes running a distributed file system (Lustre). The 10Gbit card achieves good performance on file operations and is functioning as it should.
However, I wrote a custom client app in C that asynchronously sends large blocks of data to multiple nodes in the network. The machine the client app runs on has a 10GB Ethernet card, and all the destination nodes have a 1GB Ethernet card - so I should be able to get a theoretical max send transfer rate of 10 gbits.
If I run the client app on a machine with a 1Gbit card, it easily maxes out the card for sustained lengths of time. But strangely, if I run the same app on a machine with a 10Gbit card it gets horrible performance (around 20-30 mbits a second).
The program is written in C using normal TCP sockets. Is there some special setting required for 10Gbit? Because it's very odd that it gets maximum performance on a 1Gbit card, but horrible performance on a 10Gbit card. Again, the problem is not the 10Gbit card itself, since the distributed file system (Lustre) gets good performance with the 10Gbit card.
Any ideas/suggestions? | 2009/06/15 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/26024",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | One thing I've noticed as a problem between 10gb and 1gb lan segments is that the default MTU is different. 10gb ethernet uses a default MTU of 9000 as opposed to the default of 1500 for 1gb ethernet. You can either change your MTU on the 10g to the lower number or set up your router to handle breaking down the jumbo packets for you.
This has caused me some headaches, because without one of those two things configured, there is a lot of packet fragmentation. | It is very likely that the application you wrote is not at par with the I/O optimizations of a standardized applications like Lustre.
The performance bottle necks in your code may not be surfacing on the machine and OS with a 1Gbps card but when the card throughput capacity increases to 10Gbps, with all other parameters constant (hardware and OS), your code limitations are made prominent.
---
This is quoted from the Wikipedia [Lustre Implementation](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lustre_(file_system)#Implementation) section.
>
> In a typical Lustre installation on a Linux client, a Lustre filesystem driver module is loaded into the kernel and the filesystem is mounted like any other local or network filesystem. Client applications see a single, unified filesystem even though it may be composed of tens to thousands of individual servers and MDT/OST filesystems.
>
>
> On some massively parallel processor (MPP) installations, computational processors can access a Lustre file system by redirecting their I/O requests to a dedicated I/O node configured as a Lustre client. This approach was used in the LLNL Blue Gene installation
>
>
>
Are you using this part?
>
> Another approach uses the liblustre library to provide userspace applications with direct filesystem access.
>
>
> Liblustre allows data movement directly between application space and the Lustre OSSs without requiring an intervening data copy through the kernel, thus providing low latency, high bandwidth access from computational processors to the Lustre file system directly.
>
>
> |
26,024 | I recently had a couple of 10Gbit Ethernet cards installed on a few machines connected to a LAN of about 80 commodity nodes running a distributed file system (Lustre). The 10Gbit card achieves good performance on file operations and is functioning as it should.
However, I wrote a custom client app in C that asynchronously sends large blocks of data to multiple nodes in the network. The machine the client app runs on has a 10GB Ethernet card, and all the destination nodes have a 1GB Ethernet card - so I should be able to get a theoretical max send transfer rate of 10 gbits.
If I run the client app on a machine with a 1Gbit card, it easily maxes out the card for sustained lengths of time. But strangely, if I run the same app on a machine with a 10Gbit card it gets horrible performance (around 20-30 mbits a second).
The program is written in C using normal TCP sockets. Is there some special setting required for 10Gbit? Because it's very odd that it gets maximum performance on a 1Gbit card, but horrible performance on a 10Gbit card. Again, the problem is not the 10Gbit card itself, since the distributed file system (Lustre) gets good performance with the 10Gbit card.
Any ideas/suggestions? | 2009/06/15 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/26024",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | One thing I've noticed as a problem between 10gb and 1gb lan segments is that the default MTU is different. 10gb ethernet uses a default MTU of 9000 as opposed to the default of 1500 for 1gb ethernet. You can either change your MTU on the 10g to the lower number or set up your router to handle breaking down the jumbo packets for you.
This has caused me some headaches, because without one of those two things configured, there is a lot of packet fragmentation. | MTU will be important to get consistent on the interfaces.
Make sure you have hardware TCP offload turned on (if it works) . And that the firmware on all your nics is up to date as the TOE is very broken on some nics as they are shipped. I would test with TOE and TSO etc turned on and off and see if it makes any difference.
Are you using broadcomm 10G Ethernet as we have found real issues with those.
Have you tested your network with lnet tester ?
How many OSS do you have and what kind of throughput do you get though the filesystem ? |
131,928 | Everytime when I want to install the ubuntu, it calls me to download the ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz! Because of my poor network, it makes me crazy! How can I install the ubuntu 12.04 without downloading ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz? | 2012/05/05 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/131928",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/60635/"
] | If your network is really slow you might want to order one of the [Ubuntu CDs/DVDs](http://shop.canonical.com/index.php?cPath=17). You could also ask someone to download and burn the [DVD images](http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/dvd/current/) for you. There is also a mini-iso that has a "network installation" option which tends to download a little bit less. That one still downloads quiet a lot of data and is hard to get by as it is not an official option any more (as far as I know). | Your best answer is to get the live-DVD. Please use this to boot and use the 'Try Ubuntu' option to make sure it runs OK on your hardware before attempting to install. You then have the option of using wubi recommended only if you use Ubuntu only occasionally or installing on a partition. Either way, make sure you can recover all data and the Windows operating system if something goes wrong. |
131,928 | Everytime when I want to install the ubuntu, it calls me to download the ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz! Because of my poor network, it makes me crazy! How can I install the ubuntu 12.04 without downloading ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz? | 2012/05/05 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/131928",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/60635/"
] | Your best answer is to get the live-DVD. Please use this to boot and use the 'Try Ubuntu' option to make sure it runs OK on your hardware before attempting to install. You then have the option of using wubi recommended only if you use Ubuntu only occasionally or installing on a partition. Either way, make sure you can recover all data and the Windows operating system if something goes wrong. | <http://nl.releases.ubuntu.com/12.04/ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz>
Hey dude Download it from here and save it. And you install ubuntu again then copy this file into you disks directory which is in C : ubuntu/disks.
I hope it will help :) |
131,928 | Everytime when I want to install the ubuntu, it calls me to download the ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz! Because of my poor network, it makes me crazy! How can I install the ubuntu 12.04 without downloading ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz? | 2012/05/05 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/131928",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/60635/"
] | If your network is really slow you might want to order one of the [Ubuntu CDs/DVDs](http://shop.canonical.com/index.php?cPath=17). You could also ask someone to download and burn the [DVD images](http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/dvd/current/) for you. There is also a mini-iso that has a "network installation" option which tends to download a little bit less. That one still downloads quiet a lot of data and is hard to get by as it is not an official option any more (as far as I know). | <http://nl.releases.ubuntu.com/12.04/ubuntu-12.04-wubi-amd64.tar.xz>
Hey dude Download it from here and save it. And you install ubuntu again then copy this file into you disks directory which is in C : ubuntu/disks.
I hope it will help :) |
37,306 | As the title says I am looking for any abilities, spells, enchants, ect that would stack with [haste](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/h/haste)/[speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/speed) (Preferably speed). I am attempting to build a character who hits A LOT. I know I have seen something somewhere that stacked with speed but I cannot find it anywhere now.
The build I am attempting will be using multiweapon fighting with a speed enchant on each weapon he uses.
EDIT:
To be more specific I am looking for abilities, spells ect that will not change the character physically and will only use his weapons.
The answers so far offer good advice but not quite what I am looking for.
YogoZuno is the closest with mentioning the Monk and two weapon fighting tree. | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/37306",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8933/"
] | A monk can flurry built-in, plus when it gets a pool of ki points, it can add an additional attack once per round. So, with Haste and a Ki point, that's 4 attacks per round, before even adding iteratives or natural attacks. A Zen Archer with a ki pool and Haste could fire 4 bowshots a round without iteratives. A Ninja using the Flurry of Stars trick, Rapid Shot and Haste could throw 5 shuriken in a round (at -4 to hit!), assuming he had Quick Draw to draw them all.
If you continue looking at the monk path, the Drunken Master allows a potentially unlimited supply of ki points once you hit 3rd level, allowing you to add an extra attack to a reasonably large number of full attacks.
The two-weapon fighting tree is another option for increasing attacks per round, although it does (in general) limit you to light weapons. Generally, you'll get an attack with each weapon (with slightly less Str bonus on the second), plus haste for 3 attacks, at -2 to hit.
A catfolk with claws and the feat Catfolk Exemplar has two 1d6 natural attacks built-in. The Barbarian Beast totem powers can also provide natural attacks, as can several options on the Tiefling from Blood of Fiends, or the Ranger Natural Weapon style.
Another possible method is using a Magus and touch spells with Spell Combat. When casting a touch spell, a free attack is generated. So, when using a touch spell with Spell Combat, a Magus can have two attacks in a round (at -2). Add haste, and it's 3. Unfortunately, due to Spell Combat being a full round action without being actually being a full attack, you can't really combine this method with any of the other suggestions I've made, except a Monk's Ki pool and natural attacks. | I can help with this:
the Aegis (psionics unleashed+unlimited possibilities) can have another set of arms capable of wielding weapons at 8th level
the Monk, with the appropriate fighting styles, can hit even not in his turn (for example when someone tried to hit him but missed) |
37,306 | As the title says I am looking for any abilities, spells, enchants, ect that would stack with [haste](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/h/haste)/[speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/speed) (Preferably speed). I am attempting to build a character who hits A LOT. I know I have seen something somewhere that stacked with speed but I cannot find it anywhere now.
The build I am attempting will be using multiweapon fighting with a speed enchant on each weapon he uses.
EDIT:
To be more specific I am looking for abilities, spells ect that will not change the character physically and will only use his weapons.
The answers so far offer good advice but not quite what I am looking for.
YogoZuno is the closest with mentioning the Monk and two weapon fighting tree. | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/37306",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8933/"
] | I can help with this:
the Aegis (psionics unleashed+unlimited possibilities) can have another set of arms capable of wielding weapons at 8th level
the Monk, with the appropriate fighting styles, can hit even not in his turn (for example when someone tried to hit him but missed) | Weapons and natural attacks work differently as you progress in levels. Where number of attacks will increase with your characters base attack bonus, natural attacks can only be used once per natural and secondary natural weapon. To increase your number of attacks beyond the normal for your base attack bonus you could take an exotic weapon proficiency feat in a double one handed weapon such as the Taiaha (UC: Pg.148) on top of your dual wielding, or simply add on additional natural attacks.
Which ever you choose to go with (keeping in mind that using a normal attack in the same round as a natural attack will treat all other natural attacks as secondary natural attacks) you will need spells and enchants to up your hit chance. Assuming you take levels in caster for haste, your base attack bonus is going to be lower than usual on top of any penalties you take for making additional attacks with double weapons. I would look into buffs like Good Hope / Heroism if you plan on taking levels in bard. Also grabbing potions of Enlarge Person early on are extremely useful! I did this on my dwarf wielding dual dwarvens, the damage you output with one hit makes up for three. |
37,306 | As the title says I am looking for any abilities, spells, enchants, ect that would stack with [haste](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/h/haste)/[speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/speed) (Preferably speed). I am attempting to build a character who hits A LOT. I know I have seen something somewhere that stacked with speed but I cannot find it anywhere now.
The build I am attempting will be using multiweapon fighting with a speed enchant on each weapon he uses.
EDIT:
To be more specific I am looking for abilities, spells ect that will not change the character physically and will only use his weapons.
The answers so far offer good advice but not quite what I am looking for.
YogoZuno is the closest with mentioning the Monk and two weapon fighting tree. | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/37306",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8933/"
] | A monk can flurry built-in, plus when it gets a pool of ki points, it can add an additional attack once per round. So, with Haste and a Ki point, that's 4 attacks per round, before even adding iteratives or natural attacks. A Zen Archer with a ki pool and Haste could fire 4 bowshots a round without iteratives. A Ninja using the Flurry of Stars trick, Rapid Shot and Haste could throw 5 shuriken in a round (at -4 to hit!), assuming he had Quick Draw to draw them all.
If you continue looking at the monk path, the Drunken Master allows a potentially unlimited supply of ki points once you hit 3rd level, allowing you to add an extra attack to a reasonably large number of full attacks.
The two-weapon fighting tree is another option for increasing attacks per round, although it does (in general) limit you to light weapons. Generally, you'll get an attack with each weapon (with slightly less Str bonus on the second), plus haste for 3 attacks, at -2 to hit.
A catfolk with claws and the feat Catfolk Exemplar has two 1d6 natural attacks built-in. The Barbarian Beast totem powers can also provide natural attacks, as can several options on the Tiefling from Blood of Fiends, or the Ranger Natural Weapon style.
Another possible method is using a Magus and touch spells with Spell Combat. When casting a touch spell, a free attack is generated. So, when using a touch spell with Spell Combat, a Magus can have two attacks in a round (at -2). Add haste, and it's 3. Unfortunately, due to Spell Combat being a full round action without being actually being a full attack, you can't really combine this method with any of the other suggestions I've made, except a Monk's Ki pool and natural attacks. | Natural attacks. The multiattack feat, and lots and lots of natural attacks. Each one of them you can get is one more hit per round. If you're combining this with the Aegis lunadir mentioned for 4 arms, you can use the Harness Power Stone customization for metamorphosis, claws of the beast, and bite of the wolf for several natural attacks. Lots of magic items give you another natural attack. Go for the aberrant Aegis archetype for even more natural attacks. You can find even more ways, but this list covers most of the low-hanging fruit. |
37,306 | As the title says I am looking for any abilities, spells, enchants, ect that would stack with [haste](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/h/haste)/[speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/speed) (Preferably speed). I am attempting to build a character who hits A LOT. I know I have seen something somewhere that stacked with speed but I cannot find it anywhere now.
The build I am attempting will be using multiweapon fighting with a speed enchant on each weapon he uses.
EDIT:
To be more specific I am looking for abilities, spells ect that will not change the character physically and will only use his weapons.
The answers so far offer good advice but not quite what I am looking for.
YogoZuno is the closest with mentioning the Monk and two weapon fighting tree. | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/37306",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8933/"
] | Natural attacks. The multiattack feat, and lots and lots of natural attacks. Each one of them you can get is one more hit per round. If you're combining this with the Aegis lunadir mentioned for 4 arms, you can use the Harness Power Stone customization for metamorphosis, claws of the beast, and bite of the wolf for several natural attacks. Lots of magic items give you another natural attack. Go for the aberrant Aegis archetype for even more natural attacks. You can find even more ways, but this list covers most of the low-hanging fruit. | Weapons and natural attacks work differently as you progress in levels. Where number of attacks will increase with your characters base attack bonus, natural attacks can only be used once per natural and secondary natural weapon. To increase your number of attacks beyond the normal for your base attack bonus you could take an exotic weapon proficiency feat in a double one handed weapon such as the Taiaha (UC: Pg.148) on top of your dual wielding, or simply add on additional natural attacks.
Which ever you choose to go with (keeping in mind that using a normal attack in the same round as a natural attack will treat all other natural attacks as secondary natural attacks) you will need spells and enchants to up your hit chance. Assuming you take levels in caster for haste, your base attack bonus is going to be lower than usual on top of any penalties you take for making additional attacks with double weapons. I would look into buffs like Good Hope / Heroism if you plan on taking levels in bard. Also grabbing potions of Enlarge Person early on are extremely useful! I did this on my dwarf wielding dual dwarvens, the damage you output with one hit makes up for three. |
37,306 | As the title says I am looking for any abilities, spells, enchants, ect that would stack with [haste](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/h/haste)/[speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/speed) (Preferably speed). I am attempting to build a character who hits A LOT. I know I have seen something somewhere that stacked with speed but I cannot find it anywhere now.
The build I am attempting will be using multiweapon fighting with a speed enchant on each weapon he uses.
EDIT:
To be more specific I am looking for abilities, spells ect that will not change the character physically and will only use his weapons.
The answers so far offer good advice but not quite what I am looking for.
YogoZuno is the closest with mentioning the Monk and two weapon fighting tree. | 2014/05/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/37306",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8933/"
] | A monk can flurry built-in, plus when it gets a pool of ki points, it can add an additional attack once per round. So, with Haste and a Ki point, that's 4 attacks per round, before even adding iteratives or natural attacks. A Zen Archer with a ki pool and Haste could fire 4 bowshots a round without iteratives. A Ninja using the Flurry of Stars trick, Rapid Shot and Haste could throw 5 shuriken in a round (at -4 to hit!), assuming he had Quick Draw to draw them all.
If you continue looking at the monk path, the Drunken Master allows a potentially unlimited supply of ki points once you hit 3rd level, allowing you to add an extra attack to a reasonably large number of full attacks.
The two-weapon fighting tree is another option for increasing attacks per round, although it does (in general) limit you to light weapons. Generally, you'll get an attack with each weapon (with slightly less Str bonus on the second), plus haste for 3 attacks, at -2 to hit.
A catfolk with claws and the feat Catfolk Exemplar has two 1d6 natural attacks built-in. The Barbarian Beast totem powers can also provide natural attacks, as can several options on the Tiefling from Blood of Fiends, or the Ranger Natural Weapon style.
Another possible method is using a Magus and touch spells with Spell Combat. When casting a touch spell, a free attack is generated. So, when using a touch spell with Spell Combat, a Magus can have two attacks in a round (at -2). Add haste, and it's 3. Unfortunately, due to Spell Combat being a full round action without being actually being a full attack, you can't really combine this method with any of the other suggestions I've made, except a Monk's Ki pool and natural attacks. | Weapons and natural attacks work differently as you progress in levels. Where number of attacks will increase with your characters base attack bonus, natural attacks can only be used once per natural and secondary natural weapon. To increase your number of attacks beyond the normal for your base attack bonus you could take an exotic weapon proficiency feat in a double one handed weapon such as the Taiaha (UC: Pg.148) on top of your dual wielding, or simply add on additional natural attacks.
Which ever you choose to go with (keeping in mind that using a normal attack in the same round as a natural attack will treat all other natural attacks as secondary natural attacks) you will need spells and enchants to up your hit chance. Assuming you take levels in caster for haste, your base attack bonus is going to be lower than usual on top of any penalties you take for making additional attacks with double weapons. I would look into buffs like Good Hope / Heroism if you plan on taking levels in bard. Also grabbing potions of Enlarge Person early on are extremely useful! I did this on my dwarf wielding dual dwarvens, the damage you output with one hit makes up for three. |
48,569 | Romans 13:9, (DRB):
>
> For Thou shalt not commit adultery: Thou shalt not kill: Thou shalt not steal, **Thou shalt not bear false witness:** Thou shalt not covet: and if there be any other commandment, it is comprised in this word, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
>
>
>
Some translations have the phrase "you shall not bear false witness", while some others have not.
According to textual criticism, what is the accurate text? With or without the phrase "you shall not bear false witness"? | 2020/06/19 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48569",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/33285/"
] | At Rom 13:9 the manuscript evidence is *almost* evenly divided as follows:
* NA28, UBS5, NA4, W&H, Byzantine text (R-P), Greek Orthodox 1904, Majority Text (Z-H) all have Οὐ κλέψεις, Οὐκ ἐπιθυμήσεις = You shall not steal, You shall not covet. (This is the slight majority of MSS.)
* The Textus Receptus has κλέψεις, οὐ ψευδομαρτυρήσεις, οὐκ ἐπιθυμήσεις = Thou shalt not steal, **Thou shalt not bear false witness**, Thou shalt not covet (the bolded phrase has been added).
For a list of the various MSS which do and do not have this extra phrase, see UBS4 or UBS5 (that list is long).
>
> Bruce Metzger, in his Textual Commentary of the GNT says: Under the
> influence of Ex 20:15-17 and Deut 5:19-21 several witnesses (א, P,
> 048, 81, etc) insert οὐ ψευδομαρτυρήσεις. The course of transmission,
> other readings arose in various witnesses through omission (perhaps
> because of homoeoteleuton) rearrangement of the order of the
> commandments (the chief manuscripts of the Septuagint vary among
> themselves and the Hebrew).
>
>
>
Which ever reading is adopted, the sense of what Paul is saying is not altered at all as he follows his brief list with a catch-all phrase, "and any other commandment that there may be …". | I personally trust the Nestle-Aland/UBS (NU) manuscripts a bit more than the Textus Receptus (TR), as the TR is based on only a handful of late Greek manuscripts. The NU is based on a diverse collection of both early and late texts, and when discrepancies are found, the NU tends to defer to the earlier texts while still allowing the Majority Text to hold some level of sway in the translation.
The TR includes the line in question, while the NU does not.
You see Jesus' teaching on this matter in his interaction with the rich man in Matthew 19:18-19, Mark 10:19, and Luke 18:20, and in all of these cases, "do not bear false witness" is included.
When Paul summarizes this short list of a handful of the 10 commandments (Exodus 20:13-17, Deuteronomy 5:17-21) by quoting Jesus (Matthew 22:39, Mark 12:31, Luke 10:7) as saying "Love your neighbor as yourself," it becomes apparent that regardless of which source text is accurate in this instance, the intended message is unaffected. In fact, Jesus was possibly, or probably, quoting Leviticus 19:18, which also commands the Israelites to love their neighbors as themselves.
Sources:
* [Differences Between the Majority Text and the Textus Receptus](https://www.carm.org/king-james-onlyism/differences-between-the-majority-text-and-the-textus-receptus/)
* [On which New Testament manuscripts did the KJV translators rely?](https://carm.org/king-james-onlyism/on-which-new-testament-manuscripts-did-the-kjv-translators-rely/) |
3,185,463 | I'm making a simple 3D CAD software. in the class diagram, many objects need to distinguish with others by (x,y,z). I create a class so-called "Position", but the problem is it looks highly-coupling because many classese work with position.
Any ideas? | 2010/07/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3185463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/377717/"
] | It is not a problem per se if a type is used by many other types. In your case, graphical objects obviously (usually) have a position so the coupling looks natural and reasonable from the perspective of the domain model.
Also, the Position class is probably going to be a fairly low-level class whose interface (and probably implementation too) is not going to change very often in the long run. So there is not much chance of such changes breaking client code. | First let me say after 12 years that your design is not bad. Assuming that the positioning logic of your classes shall be called from outside, all your classes need to have and offer this logic. So it is part of the interface and you must bring the functionalities in. And this means, you must depend on it and there is a coupling. The coupling is not between your objects. So it is not as bad.
But there are always alternatives. It is known that inheritance establishes a very tight coupling. Consider for example that the positioning logic is only called internally in your class. Then you don't have any benefit in inheritance. You could as well have another class (let us call it Position). And instead of deriving from this class, you integrate an object of this class. And whenever you want to do something with the position, you call the corresponding methods of this object.
This alternative looks like a nonsense change. Why should you do this? But let us have a look at the consequences. Assume you have a class Circle. Circle has such a position object as proposed above. (By the way, see the wording "has a position" instead of "is a position". The "object-and-composition" solution seems to be quite natural.) Somewhere in a file X of your code you may have created such a Circle. And now you decide you change the positioning logic. In X you don't have to worry that this has a side effect, because the interface of Circle has not changed. It is just one object inside of Circle that has changed. That is just an implementation detail. In contrast if you would have used inheritance, you cannot just change the base class without looking if this has a negative effect to X. So this "object-and-composition" solution has actually reduced the coupling between X and the positioning logic.
You can even reduce the coupling further. With the object-and-composition solution, whenever you change the positioning logic, you have to check all your classes if this has an effect. But what about using an interface for Position. Your classes don't see an object of a type Position, but an object that fullfils an interface Position. And the actual positioning logic implements this interface. This way most of your classes' code has no dependency to the implementation of the positioning logic.
That is not the end of the game. There is still a coupling, because your classes must somehow create the position objects. So at least the constructor must go into detail and for example pass x,y,z. But what if you use something like a factory for this purpose, so that your objects just get the position without even knowing how these have been created. Then you are absolutely flexible. You can use your classes in completely different situations. For example in a two dimensional coordinate system. There is no coupling between your positioning logic and your classes any more.
I hope you see that all these options exist. I suppose in your example this is a bit over-engineered. But your question was how to reduce the coupling. And there are always ways. Combinations are of course possible. For example you can have the object-and-composition and make the position object public in your base class. But then I would ask if not inheritance would have been the better option? |
290,514 | I posted this ([python how to rerun program?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/29686553/python-how-to-rerun-program/29686703?noredirect=1#comment47510721_29686703)) and there's nothing that bugs me more than an unexplained down vote. Sometimes I feel like since I have lower reputation my responses are shrugged off as insignificant. Was I wrong?
The worst part is almost identical code received an up vote that was posted later probably just because of reputation. | 2015/04/16 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/290514",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/3578820/"
] | The people reached statistic is a rough guesstimate of how many views all your posts have. A single view is considered to be equivalent with a single user.
There is however one slight problem with the calculation of that number. The view count is only stored for a question, not for each answer. So you can only be 100% sure a question is viewed. For questions with multiple answers you are at a loss. Also note that only the total viewcount up to this date is stored. The viewcount history isn't stored in SEDE, and AFAIK not even in the production schema.
Hence the trickery in a query using data that was already available since 2008 to also give some people reached credits to answers, as explained in [We're working on a new stat to help convey the reach of your posts here](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/244534/were-working-on-a-new-stat-to-help-convey-the-reach-of-your-posts-here) over on MSE.
From that post this is the formula:
* **Questions**
+ Non-deleted only
* **Answers** - Views of the parent question for answers that are:
+ Non-deleted AND
+ Score > 0 AND
+ Also meets one or more of the following criteria:
- In the top 3 answers OR
- Is the Accepted Answer OR
- Score at least 5 OR
- Has at least 20% of the total vote count
Specially if you have an answer that is around a score of 5 on a highly viewed question will result in big jumps in that number with single up- or down vote.
If you want to play a bit with that formula use the [SEDE query](https://data.stackexchange.com/stackoverflow/query/253267/people-helped-public-prototype-1?UserId=811) or the improved one offered by Martin Smith: <https://data.stackexchange.com/stackoverflow/query/756276/people-reached?UserId=149428> | The results from the query in the accepted answer aren't correct. It will include all questions where the user has a positively scored answer as even though it includes ranking code to calculate the top 3 answers belonging to that question it omits to check that the user has one of those answers...
An alternative SEDE query is here <https://data.stackexchange.com/stackoverflow/query/757338/people-reached>
For user ids [236247](https://data.stackexchange.com/stackoverflow/query/757338/people-reached?UserId=236247) and [149428](https://data.stackexchange.com/stackoverflow/query/757338/people-reached?UserId=149428) (who both commented on the accepted answer) the results are much closer to what is shown on the site.
NB: Any query using SEDE is going to be vulnerable to the issue of out dated data however. A single vote on a question with a million views can tip the balance between those views being counted or not and this might not exist in the data dump yet.
So this query result includes all candidate questions though only those with "true" in the eligible result column are counted. But seeing the view count for non eligible questions may help with manual investigation of sudden changes. |
3,333 | I'm writing an addon and I want to save two sizes of every rendered image. One is the original size which blender saves anyway. The other one is a scaled down version of that image.
How do I scale an image with the Python API (possibly with a specific interpolation filter like linear, cubic, ...)? | 2013/10/14 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/3333",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/151/"
] | You can use the Python Image Library (PIL) for instance, there's a Python 3k port:
<https://github.com/gpolo/pil-py3k> and <https://github.com/sloonz/pil-py3k>
or Pillow, which is also a PIL fork:
<https://pypi.python.org/pypi/Pillow/2.2.1>
Example code (for original PIL though):
<http://www.daniweb.com/software-development/python/code/216637/resize-an-image-python>
As PIL supported differnt interpolation techniques, all of the above should offer the same (or more).
You could also try without any extra modules, by saving the image in blender to another file using [Image.save\_render()](http://www.blender.org/documentation/blender_python_api_2_69_0/bpy.types.Image.html?highlight=save_render#bpy.types.Image.save_render). Note that this method can be used on any image, it doesn't save the rendered image only (*render* stands for *render settings*, the render settings of the given scene will be used to save the file. It ignores the resolution settings however. To change scale, you needed to import the saved image again (so that `.pixels` isn't empty, which is the case for render results), then call [Image.scale()](http://www.blender.org/documentation/blender_python_api_2_69_0/bpy.types.Image.html?highlight=save_render#bpy.types.Image.scale) and save again. But you can't specify an interpolation mode. | One could also create a "File Output" node preceeded by a "Scale" node using scripting. This doesn't provide filter options either, though.
Of course this only works with nodes postprocessing turned on.
[Blender Wiki Cookbook example](http://wiki.blender.org/index.php/Dev:2.5/Py/Scripts/Cookbook/Code_snippets/Nodes) |
54,290 | I have successfully installed CentOS and joined it to a Windows 2003 Active Directory Domain with Winbind and Samba. We are moving one of our file servers over to CentOS. One of the things I am having trouble figuring out is assigning permissions to file shares.
In case you are curious as to how I set this up, I followed this tutorial:
<http://www.linuxmail.info/active-directory-integration-samba-centos-5/>
To give an example, say we have a share called "Shared", which we want the "Domain Users" group to be able to access and write to. Now say we have a folder inside of that share called "Secret". We only want the "Secret Agents" group to be able to read and write to that folder. It should become clear that restricting access to a subfolder of a Samba share is either impossible or difficult to set up, which is what got me into looking at using POSIX ACLs.
My first question is: Is this a good way to go about setting this up? Your first thought may be to break the "Secret" folder out onto its own share, but since in real life, we have lots and lots of subfolders inside shares with different sets of permissions, giving each differing folder its own share would become a nightmare.
My second question is: If using POSIX ACL's is a good way, then would the ACL's be left intact if files and folders were backed up and restored. Would they also be left intact if say, the server blows up and we restored those files and folders to another server?
I don't know a whole lot about POSIX ACL's. I just learned about them today. So if there are any potential problems or "catches" that you think I should know about, please include those too.
Thanks for your time | 2009/08/14 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/54290",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/16759/"
] | I have done the same on my company's file server. It seems to work. The only drawback is that Mac and Linux samba clients seem to copy the original file permissions. So I had to put a cron script to restore correct permissions.
By the way, such a script would solve you backup and restore problem. The main drawback is that it overrides permissions set by your users. | This is exactly what I've done before and it works, although it can get a little messy sometimes. When setting up the ACLs I'd recommend also setting up the directories so that files and subdirectories in them are set to be owned by the secret group, if not a dummy 'secret' user as well.
If the ACLs are backed up on back up and restore, that will depend on your backup software, but in general they are and if they are not, it may just be a flag to pass. It will be --xattrs or --acls if using GNU Tar based backup such as Amanda, possibly by default in newer versions of Tar. Assuming you're restoring on another GNU/Linux server, the attributes can be restored in place, although you'll want to make sure you have the same users/groups on the new server (ideally centralized authentication.) |
12,220,607 | I'm developing an RCP application. In our application we are using the Eclipse Packing Project's Eclipse Marketplace.
There is one command for showing the Eclipse Marketplace. Using plug-in spy, I found that its ID is
org.eclipse.epp.mpc.ui.command.showMarketplaceWizard.
The display name on the menu is "Eclipse Marketplace". The Product Manager doesn't like that and wants it to just say "Marketplace".
Is there a way to change the name of this menu item? | 2012/08/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12220607",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/834135/"
] | You could use the [Equinox Transforms](http://wiki.eclipse.org/Equinox_Transforms) project with its xslt bundles. This allows you to perform a xslt-transformation of the plugin.xml that contributes this menu before its loaded by the platform without modifying any platform bundles. Check also [Bug 276638](https://bugs.eclipse.org/bugs/show_bug.cgi?id=276638) | First I would ask the manager if the issue is really that important to spend time on it, if you dont know exactly how to do it, it's atleast a days job...
I dont know exactly how to do it, but here's what I would start by examining.
Download the source code to the plugin that has that menuitem. If you are lucky, and I think you might be, then that piece of menu text is translateable. You can verify this by finding a \*.properties file in the right package that contains that string.
The solution would then be to offer a new translation in the locale you are using where that string has been changed:
* You would first need to create a [plugin fragment](http://wiki.eclipse.org/FAQ_What_is_a_plug-in_fragment?)
* Then read more about how to internationalize plugins [here](http://www.eclipse.org/articles/Article-Internationalization/how2I18n.html) and offer a new translation of this string.
This solution will be forward/backward compatible as long as the key to the string won't change, and its a pretty straightforward solution that doesnt violate any core Eclipse principles. Well, not *that* much atleast.
Of course, this requires that the string is translatable.
Other alternatives:
Change the code in the Eclipse plugin, recompile and distribute this plugin instead of the original. But this means you will need to keep in mind that this plugin is handled in a special way everytime you upgrade to a newer version of Eclipse. And it's pretty ugly. |
12,220,607 | I'm developing an RCP application. In our application we are using the Eclipse Packing Project's Eclipse Marketplace.
There is one command for showing the Eclipse Marketplace. Using plug-in spy, I found that its ID is
org.eclipse.epp.mpc.ui.command.showMarketplaceWizard.
The display name on the menu is "Eclipse Marketplace". The Product Manager doesn't like that and wants it to just say "Marketplace".
Is there a way to change the name of this menu item? | 2012/08/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12220607",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/834135/"
] | You could use the [Equinox Transforms](http://wiki.eclipse.org/Equinox_Transforms) project with its xslt bundles. This allows you to perform a xslt-transformation of the plugin.xml that contributes this menu before its loaded by the platform without modifying any platform bundles. Check also [Bug 276638](https://bugs.eclipse.org/bugs/show_bug.cgi?id=276638) | Its really easy with *Equinox Transform*. It won't take much time. For reference you can have a look at my blog [**Equinox Transform Revealed**](http://eclipse-api-inside-story.blogspot.de/2014/09/equinox-transform-revealed.html). You just need to write an xslt for Plugin.xml. |
12,220,607 | I'm developing an RCP application. In our application we are using the Eclipse Packing Project's Eclipse Marketplace.
There is one command for showing the Eclipse Marketplace. Using plug-in spy, I found that its ID is
org.eclipse.epp.mpc.ui.command.showMarketplaceWizard.
The display name on the menu is "Eclipse Marketplace". The Product Manager doesn't like that and wants it to just say "Marketplace".
Is there a way to change the name of this menu item? | 2012/08/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12220607",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/834135/"
] | First I would ask the manager if the issue is really that important to spend time on it, if you dont know exactly how to do it, it's atleast a days job...
I dont know exactly how to do it, but here's what I would start by examining.
Download the source code to the plugin that has that menuitem. If you are lucky, and I think you might be, then that piece of menu text is translateable. You can verify this by finding a \*.properties file in the right package that contains that string.
The solution would then be to offer a new translation in the locale you are using where that string has been changed:
* You would first need to create a [plugin fragment](http://wiki.eclipse.org/FAQ_What_is_a_plug-in_fragment?)
* Then read more about how to internationalize plugins [here](http://www.eclipse.org/articles/Article-Internationalization/how2I18n.html) and offer a new translation of this string.
This solution will be forward/backward compatible as long as the key to the string won't change, and its a pretty straightforward solution that doesnt violate any core Eclipse principles. Well, not *that* much atleast.
Of course, this requires that the string is translatable.
Other alternatives:
Change the code in the Eclipse plugin, recompile and distribute this plugin instead of the original. But this means you will need to keep in mind that this plugin is handled in a special way everytime you upgrade to a newer version of Eclipse. And it's pretty ugly. | Its really easy with *Equinox Transform*. It won't take much time. For reference you can have a look at my blog [**Equinox Transform Revealed**](http://eclipse-api-inside-story.blogspot.de/2014/09/equinox-transform-revealed.html). You just need to write an xslt for Plugin.xml. |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | I've not tried it yet, but [RhodeCode](http://rhodecode.org/ "RhodeCode") seems to have all the features you'd ever want from a web based repository manager.
You can create new repositories, fork current repositories and it allows you to set up user authentication and access rights. | As described in the article [Publishing Repositories](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories) in the mercurial wiki, mercurial has different way for publishing repositories (hg serve, ssh, hgwebdir, hgweb, ...).
Since you need multiple repositories with [push/pull authentication](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#Allowing_Push) then you should go for [hgwebdir](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#multiple) (also described [here](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/HgWebDirStepByStep)).
After setting up hgwebdir, apart from pushing/pulling from the repositories, you will also have a web interface that will look like, for example, the [suckless.org code repository](http://hg.suckless.org/).
As [mentioned by Ry4an](https://superuser.com/questions/115365/bitbucket-on-my-own-server/116343#116343) you can't create a new repository via the web interface. |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | I've not tried it yet, but [RhodeCode](http://rhodecode.org/ "RhodeCode") seems to have all the features you'd ever want from a web based repository manager.
You can create new repositories, fork current repositories and it allows you to set up user authentication and access rights. | For your needs you might want to take a look at [gitblit](http://gitblit.com/)
It is fairly basic and simple. It provides web-UI so you can manage as many repos as you need. However I found out that they don't have per branch permissions out of the box (requires some ground work with groovy scripts). On a flip side if it doesn't bother you, then it might be it!
Cheers mate! |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | I've not tried it yet, but [RhodeCode](http://rhodecode.org/ "RhodeCode") seems to have all the features you'd ever want from a web based repository manager.
You can create new repositories, fork current repositories and it allows you to set up user authentication and access rights. | If you have money, bitbucket has an hosted version (just ask Jesper for a quote). |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | I have used bitbucket.org but I also wanted an in house DVCM server for my web development team, so we went with Redmine. This is tested and installed easy using BitNami images, <http://bitnami.org/stack/redmine> | For your needs you might want to take a look at [gitblit](http://gitblit.com/)
It is fairly basic and simple. It provides web-UI so you can manage as many repos as you need. However I found out that they don't have per branch permissions out of the box (requires some ground work with groovy scripts). On a flip side if it doesn't bother you, then it might be it!
Cheers mate! |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | Hgwebdir running in a web server (comes with mercurial) does everything except let you create the new repos with a click, which you can **very** easily do with a [simple script](http://ry4an.org/unblog/UnBlog/2009-09-17) you can put right in the hgwebdir footer. | For your needs you might want to take a look at [gitblit](http://gitblit.com/)
It is fairly basic and simple. It provides web-UI so you can manage as many repos as you need. However I found out that they don't have per branch permissions out of the box (requires some ground work with groovy scripts). On a flip side if it doesn't bother you, then it might be it!
Cheers mate! |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | Hgwebdir running in a web server (comes with mercurial) does everything except let you create the new repos with a click, which you can **very** easily do with a [simple script](http://ry4an.org/unblog/UnBlog/2009-09-17) you can put right in the hgwebdir footer. | If you have money, bitbucket has an hosted version (just ask Jesper for a quote). |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | Hgwebdir running in a web server (comes with mercurial) does everything except let you create the new repos with a click, which you can **very** easily do with a [simple script](http://ry4an.org/unblog/UnBlog/2009-09-17) you can put right in the hgwebdir footer. | As described in the article [Publishing Repositories](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories) in the mercurial wiki, mercurial has different way for publishing repositories (hg serve, ssh, hgwebdir, hgweb, ...).
Since you need multiple repositories with [push/pull authentication](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#Allowing_Push) then you should go for [hgwebdir](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#multiple) (also described [here](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/HgWebDirStepByStep)).
After setting up hgwebdir, apart from pushing/pulling from the repositories, you will also have a web interface that will look like, for example, the [suckless.org code repository](http://hg.suckless.org/).
As [mentioned by Ry4an](https://superuser.com/questions/115365/bitbucket-on-my-own-server/116343#116343) you can't create a new repository via the web interface. |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | Hgwebdir running in a web server (comes with mercurial) does everything except let you create the new repos with a click, which you can **very** easily do with a [simple script](http://ry4an.org/unblog/UnBlog/2009-09-17) you can put right in the hgwebdir footer. | I've not tried it yet, but [RhodeCode](http://rhodecode.org/ "RhodeCode") seems to have all the features you'd ever want from a web based repository manager.
You can create new repositories, fork current repositories and it allows you to set up user authentication and access rights. |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | Hgwebdir running in a web server (comes with mercurial) does everything except let you create the new repos with a click, which you can **very** easily do with a [simple script](http://ry4an.org/unblog/UnBlog/2009-09-17) you can put right in the hgwebdir footer. | I have used bitbucket.org but I also wanted an in house DVCM server for my web development team, so we went with Redmine. This is tested and installed easy using BitNami images, <http://bitnami.org/stack/redmine> |
115,365 | I want to have something like bitbucket.org or github (but for mercurial!) on my VDS. I don't need full functionality, but I need it being able to serve repositories, accept changes (with auth!) and creating new repos in one-two clicks in web interface. What can I use? Thanks | 2010/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/115365",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12691/"
] | I have used bitbucket.org but I also wanted an in house DVCM server for my web development team, so we went with Redmine. This is tested and installed easy using BitNami images, <http://bitnami.org/stack/redmine> | As described in the article [Publishing Repositories](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories) in the mercurial wiki, mercurial has different way for publishing repositories (hg serve, ssh, hgwebdir, hgweb, ...).
Since you need multiple repositories with [push/pull authentication](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#Allowing_Push) then you should go for [hgwebdir](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/PublishingRepositories#multiple) (also described [here](http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/HgWebDirStepByStep)).
After setting up hgwebdir, apart from pushing/pulling from the repositories, you will also have a web interface that will look like, for example, the [suckless.org code repository](http://hg.suckless.org/).
As [mentioned by Ry4an](https://superuser.com/questions/115365/bitbucket-on-my-own-server/116343#116343) you can't create a new repository via the web interface. |
1,004,084 | When I connect a wifi adapter to my computer I can see the available wireless networks listed, but when I use Wireshark and set it to listen with that interface/adapter, no packets are captured (when I am not connected to any network, because if I am I will effectively capture the packets from that network.
But how is the computer able to display the name of the wireless networks? There must be something that is sent so that my adapter can get the computer to display the network's name.
yes, the interface is listening o promiscuous mode.
So, my question is, what is this thing that is sent so that my adapter can get info from networks it is not connected to? Why isn't Wireshark displaying it?
How can I capture those packets or whatever they are? | 2015/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1004084",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/507987/"
] | You need to capture in 802.11 Monitor Mode, with an 802.11 link type, not just promiscuous mode with an Ethernet-style link type. | Are you authenticated to the network you are trying to capture traffic on?
Do you have more than one wireless interface? if so are you connected and listening on the same on?
Are you missing the information about your wireless traffic specifically?
Do you have other traffic being captured on the network? for example when you open a website and browse do you see that traffic?
Lastly, promiscuous mode will be helpful on a wireless network you are authenticated to, when you want to sniff other peoples packets. So might help turning this off if you are being overwhelmed with packets you don't want. |
31,657 | I am trying to reference the wikipedia commons image in an english wikipedia info box. The image is a wikimedia commons picture with a Japanese name. Somehow it does not allow it to be placed there. Is there a special way to reference non romantic language file names in images? | 2012/09/30 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/31657",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/17066/"
] | You can reference pictures with non-latin names in infoboxes and anywhere, no problem.
Just use copy-paste like you would do for a latin characters URL. | You should ask this on en-wp, not here! see **[WP:PICTURE](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia%3aPicture_tutorial)**, you can use the methods described on that page for any kind of file name, just copy the complete file name and paste it in the wiki code.
If you have more questions like this, see these pages on English Wikipedia:
* [Wikipedia:Village pump](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia%3aVillage_pump)
* [Wikipedia:IRC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia%3aIRC) |
10,366 | >
> Recall a time when you were driving your car and suddenly
> another car appeared, going very fast, seeming as if it were about to
> hit you. Your conscious mind was focused on an interesting conversation with a friend in the passenger's seat or the program on the
> radio. In an instant, before you had time to think, before the conscious, self-aware part of your mind could consider the matter, danger was sensed and fear began.
> As an emotion begins, it takes us over in those first milliseconds,
> directing what we do and say and think. Without consciously choosing to do it, you automatically turned the steering wheel to avoid the
> other motorist, hitting the brake with your foot.
>
>
>
Paul Ekman writes in "Emotions Revealed: Recognizing Faces and Feelings to Improve Communication and Emotional Life" that in near-accidents people hit the brakes because they feel fear.
Is the fear response fast enough to do that or do people first hit the brakes and then switch to an emotional state of fear? | 2015/06/07 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/10366",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/625/"
] | *This was much longer than I expected! There's quite a bit of ground to cover, but I try to go over it quickly.*
So, there are two implicit theoretical assumptions in your question:
1. We have an "affect program" for fear in our brain (e.g., [Ekman & Cordaro, 2011](http://emr.sagepub.com/content/3/4/364.short)). When the fear program is activated, a specific pattern of changes in experience, behavior, physiology, and cognition occur (i.e., the fear response).
2. Present emotions are the primary causes of future behavior.
I'll briefly examine these assumptions, and then I'll draw a conclusion.
Assumption #1: Affect programs
------------------------------
By "affect program" I mean a discrete module or circuit in the brain that, when activated, automatically produces a fear response. So if I see a car about to hit me, it might activate my fear program, which will produce my fear response.
**Your question uses this assumption by asking about the speed of the fear response.** How fast can my fear program activate my fear response (which would motivate me to hit the brakes)? Does my fear program trigger a response too slowly, such that my fear response will occur after I hit the brakes?
In recent years, the "affect program" idea has been called into question (e.g., [Barrett, 2006](http://affective-science.org/pubs/2006/Barrett2006kinds.pdf); [Lindquist et al., 2012](http://wagerlab.colorado.edu/files/papers/Lindquist_2012_BBS.pdf)). As it stands, it's a fairly controversial assumption that I would argue has iffy empirical support and explanatory power.
If there isn't a "fear program," then what is there? Well…that's tricky. I could get into a whole lot of theory, but that would take up a lot of space (although if you're interested, see [Satpute, Wilson-Mendenhall, & Barrett, 2015](http://www.affective-science.org/pubs/2015/satpute-et-al-brain-mapping-2015.pdf)). **I think the point that I want to make is that it's difficult to talk about the speed of the fear response.** Without having a consensual definition of "emotion," we can't talk very easily about the nature of fear (i.e., what it is, what it looks like, when it begins, when it ends, its function, its neural basis, its evolution, etc.).
Assumption #2: Present emotions cause future behavior
-----------------------------------------------------
The idea that fear causes me to run away, that anger causes me to approach, or that sadness causes me to withdraw seems very intuitive. In fact, despite its mixed empirical support, many researchers seem to accept this idea without reservation.
On the other hand, Roy Baumeister and colleagues have argued that present emotions affect future behaviors indirectly ([Baumeister, Vohs, DeWall, & Zhang, 2007](http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.129.5830&rep=rep1&type=pdf)). In fact, they argue that behavior tends to follow emotions, not the other way around.
To make a long story short, **Baumeister argues that *anticipated emotions* are the more direct causes of present behavior.** So If I anticipate feeling relieved as a consequence of hitting the brakes, then I will hit the brakes. That is, I will hit the brakes because this will lead to future relief. My fear is not motivating this behavior; instead, my expectation of relief is. Indeed, a recent small-scope meta-analysis supports this theory ([DeWall, Baumeister, Chester, & Bushman, 2015](http://emr.sagepub.com/content/early/2015/03/16/1754073915572690.full))
Conclusion
----------
So I made things pretty complicated! I posed two questions:
1. Can we meaningfully talk about the speed of the fear response without a consensual definition of emotion?
2. Do present emotions cause future behavior (e.g., fear causing me to hit the brakes)?
My answers to both questions were ***no***. However, I think if we ignore the yuckiness of the first question, we can say that **fear probably doesn't cause us to hit the brakes**, but rather the expectation of relief does (or some other anticipated feeling).
When and how quickly the fear response occurs during this situation is hard to answer (but can be resolved somewhat depending on your theoretical perspective). If we assume that emotions are multi-componential, then we might imagine that the *experience* component need not occur at the same moment as the *behavioral* component (mirroring studies of emotion coherence, e.g., [Mauss et al., 2005](http://spl.stanford.edu/pdfs/2005/Mauss.pdf)). **Thus, the experience of fear could (hypothetically) occur before or after the braking behavior.** | I think we can respond to something reflexively long before fear has a chance to happen. If you almost stumble, your body responded, perhaps even by spinal reflex, before the "news" had even reached your brain. Walking is conditioned by years of practice, including practice almost falling. We get better and better at not falling, otherwise things like skating or riding a unicycle would be impossible. Driving builds on the same sensory and motor mechanisms as walking: We see threats and feel conditions which trigger the appropriate correct responses by reflex.
Have you ever wondered why when you are poked by something sharp you *always* move away from it, never drive it into your body? Almost magic. Reflex. Anything involving locomotion works the same way. People with experience in momentum-altering activities like skiing respond better to loss of traction when driving a car. (So it is fortunate that most of the skiers live in areas where the roads get snowy! What a useful coincidence!)
So, fear doesn't even enter the picture until you are already starting to respond, unless you have no reflexes in place to get triggered, like being on a roller coaster or while someone else is driving. I was driving a boat once when I started to notice an object ahead in the dim glow of the red-green forelight. It was about 20 feet away (a small part of a second) and as I was peering at it in perplexity my hands had *already* turned the wheel hard over and the boat went up on its side. Meantime, I had four separate verbal thoughts at once, one of them about the huge meteor streaking across the horizon ahead at that very moment. By the time I felt any fear, I had stopped the boat and was looking over the side for a hole (which was not there, fortunately). |
40,625 | I am almost certain that the R in *regards* must be in lower case because it follows a conjunction and is therefore a part of the same phrase/sentence. But I've been seeing a lot of emails of late that end in "Thanks and **R**egards," which got me wondering. | 2011/09/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/40625",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5739/"
] | Yes, many use that way, also in "Best Regards".
But, especially if we're talking about some official/formal email, I'd suggest to write according to the normal rules of orthography.
In that case, write them like this: "*Best regards*", "*Thanks and regards*" or "*Yours faithfully*", etc. | I think it would be stretching a point to rail against capitalising "Regards" in OP's example, though in most cases people only capitalise the first word.
I believe the intention here may be to convey *both* "single-word sign-off's" in a single phrase, where either on its own would obviously be capitalised. Though as @Alenanno points out, it's not uncommon to see "Best Regards" or ["Yours Faithfully"](http://www.lettersofnote.com/2010/06/yours-faithfully-adolf-hitler.html)anyway.
In short, it's a matter of style, not grammatical correctness. |
40,625 | I am almost certain that the R in *regards* must be in lower case because it follows a conjunction and is therefore a part of the same phrase/sentence. But I've been seeing a lot of emails of late that end in "Thanks and **R**egards," which got me wondering. | 2011/09/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/40625",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5739/"
] | Yes, many use that way, also in "Best Regards".
But, especially if we're talking about some official/formal email, I'd suggest to write according to the normal rules of orthography.
In that case, write them like this: "*Best regards*", "*Thanks and regards*" or "*Yours faithfully*", etc. | If rendered this way: "Best Regards," then you have an example of honorific capitals. This is an error committed by those who do not understand the rules of written English. Of course it should be "Best regards," as only the first word of a sentence (and any proper nouns) should be capitalized.
But some people don't know that, and instead have internalized a false rule along the lines of "capitalize all *important* words." This is quite common in internal business communications.
For example, in a company newsletter, you might see something like this: "The President of Balco, Claude Balzer, will be speaking to the Head of the Engineering Department." In this case, only the 'T' in the first "the," the 'B' in "Balco," and the 'C' and 'B' in Balzer's name should be capitalized.
In a similar way, the writer of "Best Regards" thinks that the complimentary close is a special part of the letter or email, and thus worthy of separate rules that do not apply to any other part. There is, however, no uniform style manual that authorizes such a practice. |
48,499 | Which one is appropiate?
>
> I will submit my assignments by tonight
>
>
> I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
>
>
>
I want to express that before the end of the day, I will submit my assignments. | 2015/02/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/48499",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15851/"
] | First off, with the preposition *by*, we would normally mention a specific time or point in time. I will submit my assignments by 10 tonight or by midnight tonight. Or you can say *by the end of the day*, because that also refers to a specific point in time. (*By tonight* does not really specify a point in time, unless there is a previously defined specific time that *tonight* refers to, such as a deadline that everyone knows about.)
As far as which construction to use, either one is fine. The first one has more of a promise meaning. The second one has a more matter of fact meaning. I explain the difference in detail [here](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/48043/6951) | In this case, "I will submit" is the correct usage.
"I will submit" focuses on the fact that there will be an event, where you submit the assignment. The listener can reasonably assume it will be swift.
"I will be submitting" focuses on the act of you engaging in submission. There will be a submission, but it concentrates on the time period where the submission is occurring, rather than the fact that it happens. I would use the phrasing "I will be submitting my assignments by tonight" if the listener knows I intend to submit my assignment in the form of an interpretive dance in the cafeteria drawn out over 3 acts, and I will be intentionally disrupting normal class to do so.
This is more obvious in other verbs. "I will pray for you" may be as little as "I'll pray for you once, but then I'm going about the rest of my business." "I will be praying for you implies a longer duration and many prayers. (*though some people will say "I will pray for you" and pray many times over a long duration. Welcome to English. We're not as consistent as we'd like.*) |
48,499 | Which one is appropiate?
>
> I will submit my assignments by tonight
>
>
> I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
>
>
>
I want to express that before the end of the day, I will submit my assignments. | 2015/02/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/48499",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15851/"
] | I will submit my assignment by tonight.
I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
Both the sentences express the future and are interchangeable, with a slight difference in meaning.
The first sentence formed with will + bare ininitive has the overtures of certainty, and intention and emphasizes the action. On the other hand, the second sentence formed with will be + present participle is merely a statement, which means that the assignments will be submitted in the normal course of events or a routine. It's therefore considered to be usual or not so promising as the first sentence. | In this case, "I will submit" is the correct usage.
"I will submit" focuses on the fact that there will be an event, where you submit the assignment. The listener can reasonably assume it will be swift.
"I will be submitting" focuses on the act of you engaging in submission. There will be a submission, but it concentrates on the time period where the submission is occurring, rather than the fact that it happens. I would use the phrasing "I will be submitting my assignments by tonight" if the listener knows I intend to submit my assignment in the form of an interpretive dance in the cafeteria drawn out over 3 acts, and I will be intentionally disrupting normal class to do so.
This is more obvious in other verbs. "I will pray for you" may be as little as "I'll pray for you once, but then I'm going about the rest of my business." "I will be praying for you implies a longer duration and many prayers. (*though some people will say "I will pray for you" and pray many times over a long duration. Welcome to English. We're not as consistent as we'd like.*) |
48,499 | Which one is appropiate?
>
> I will submit my assignments by tonight
>
>
> I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
>
>
>
I want to express that before the end of the day, I will submit my assignments. | 2015/02/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/48499",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15851/"
] | First off, with the preposition *by*, we would normally mention a specific time or point in time. I will submit my assignments by 10 tonight or by midnight tonight. Or you can say *by the end of the day*, because that also refers to a specific point in time. (*By tonight* does not really specify a point in time, unless there is a previously defined specific time that *tonight* refers to, such as a deadline that everyone knows about.)
As far as which construction to use, either one is fine. The first one has more of a promise meaning. The second one has a more matter of fact meaning. I explain the difference in detail [here](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/48043/6951) | I will submit my assignment by tonight.
I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
Both the sentences express the future and are interchangeable, with a slight difference in meaning.
The first sentence formed with will + bare ininitive has the overtures of certainty, and intention and emphasizes the action. On the other hand, the second sentence formed with will be + present participle is merely a statement, which means that the assignments will be submitted in the normal course of events or a routine. It's therefore considered to be usual or not so promising as the first sentence. |
48,499 | Which one is appropiate?
>
> I will submit my assignments by tonight
>
>
> I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
>
>
>
I want to express that before the end of the day, I will submit my assignments. | 2015/02/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/48499",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15851/"
] | First off, with the preposition *by*, we would normally mention a specific time or point in time. I will submit my assignments by 10 tonight or by midnight tonight. Or you can say *by the end of the day*, because that also refers to a specific point in time. (*By tonight* does not really specify a point in time, unless there is a previously defined specific time that *tonight* refers to, such as a deadline that everyone knows about.)
As far as which construction to use, either one is fine. The first one has more of a promise meaning. The second one has a more matter of fact meaning. I explain the difference in detail [here](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/48043/6951) | 1 will submit
2 will be submitting
In my view , the formula 2 here is not used for stressing the progressive aspect but simply to give the idea "will submit" more weight, simply because the formula "will be submitting" is longer. Whether this emphasis of the submitting act is appropriate or not is another question. I have the feeling "will be submitting" sounds a bit like a cheap rhetoric effect. |
48,499 | Which one is appropiate?
>
> I will submit my assignments by tonight
>
>
> I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
>
>
>
I want to express that before the end of the day, I will submit my assignments. | 2015/02/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/48499",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15851/"
] | I will submit my assignment by tonight.
I will be submitting my assignments by tonight.
Both the sentences express the future and are interchangeable, with a slight difference in meaning.
The first sentence formed with will + bare ininitive has the overtures of certainty, and intention and emphasizes the action. On the other hand, the second sentence formed with will be + present participle is merely a statement, which means that the assignments will be submitted in the normal course of events or a routine. It's therefore considered to be usual or not so promising as the first sentence. | 1 will submit
2 will be submitting
In my view , the formula 2 here is not used for stressing the progressive aspect but simply to give the idea "will submit" more weight, simply because the formula "will be submitting" is longer. Whether this emphasis of the submitting act is appropriate or not is another question. I have the feeling "will be submitting" sounds a bit like a cheap rhetoric effect. |
8,607 | I'm currently designing a turn based game for tablets. Initially for Android with porting to iOS later considered in design.
I'm having trouble narrowing down the available technologies to even know where to spend my research time. I am hoping that if I explain what I am trying to achieve someone may be able to suggest a platform and/or engine.
I've looked into some of the open source Engines ( <http://www.cuteandroid.com/ten-open-source-android-2d-or-3d-game-engine-for-android-developers> ) and some appear to handle much of what I might require - although with a higher focus on graphics than i need. Mages looks interesting although development appears to have ceased.
If I could somehow leverage GoogleApps that would be excellent.
Here is what I am trying to achieve:
PvP turn based strategy game over internet - minimal animation and bandwidth required
Players match up online using MetaGame system
MatchID created on Resolution Server and Game starts
Clients have 30 second countdown to select MoveString
Clients sends small secure timestamped and MatchIDed MoveString to Resolution server
Resolution server looks up Move String for each player, Resolves and Updates Players status in MatchID on Server
Resolution server updates Client Views
Repeat until victory conditions met - MatchID Closed, Rewards earned in MetaGame
There will also need to be a full social and account system and metagame backend - but this could be running on separate system(s)
Tablet in Offline mode would be catalog browsing and perhaps single player AI - bum I'm focusing on the Resolution Server at this point
I'm not even certain if I would be looking at an Android App or a WebApp at this stage! I want a custom GUI so I guess an app - but maybe as I have little animation a WebApp might also work. Probably some combination of both.
There will be very small overhead in data between client server - essentially a small text string every 30 seconds sent to the Resolution server which looks up the Effect and applies it to the Opponents string and determines some results to apply to the match. The client view is updated minimally with the results (only 5 in game Integers tracked) - perhaps triggering small animations/popups on the client to show the end result. e.g Explosion.
If you have suggestions for a good technology or platform to best achieving the Resolution Server I'd love to hear.
Also if you have experience with open source Engines - and could narrow down which (if any ) might be most suitable that would be a big help.
Thanks in advance | 2011/02/15 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/8607",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/5474/"
] | [Game Engine for Google Web Toolkit](http://code.google.com/p/gwt-game/) | Have a look at <http://www.airplaysdk.com/>
It lets you write native C++ for several platforms at the same time. |
8,607 | I'm currently designing a turn based game for tablets. Initially for Android with porting to iOS later considered in design.
I'm having trouble narrowing down the available technologies to even know where to spend my research time. I am hoping that if I explain what I am trying to achieve someone may be able to suggest a platform and/or engine.
I've looked into some of the open source Engines ( <http://www.cuteandroid.com/ten-open-source-android-2d-or-3d-game-engine-for-android-developers> ) and some appear to handle much of what I might require - although with a higher focus on graphics than i need. Mages looks interesting although development appears to have ceased.
If I could somehow leverage GoogleApps that would be excellent.
Here is what I am trying to achieve:
PvP turn based strategy game over internet - minimal animation and bandwidth required
Players match up online using MetaGame system
MatchID created on Resolution Server and Game starts
Clients have 30 second countdown to select MoveString
Clients sends small secure timestamped and MatchIDed MoveString to Resolution server
Resolution server looks up Move String for each player, Resolves and Updates Players status in MatchID on Server
Resolution server updates Client Views
Repeat until victory conditions met - MatchID Closed, Rewards earned in MetaGame
There will also need to be a full social and account system and metagame backend - but this could be running on separate system(s)
Tablet in Offline mode would be catalog browsing and perhaps single player AI - bum I'm focusing on the Resolution Server at this point
I'm not even certain if I would be looking at an Android App or a WebApp at this stage! I want a custom GUI so I guess an app - but maybe as I have little animation a WebApp might also work. Probably some combination of both.
There will be very small overhead in data between client server - essentially a small text string every 30 seconds sent to the Resolution server which looks up the Effect and applies it to the Opponents string and determines some results to apply to the match. The client view is updated minimally with the results (only 5 in game Integers tracked) - perhaps triggering small animations/popups on the client to show the end result. e.g Explosion.
If you have suggestions for a good technology or platform to best achieving the Resolution Server I'd love to hear.
Also if you have experience with open source Engines - and could narrow down which (if any ) might be most suitable that would be a big help.
Thanks in advance | 2011/02/15 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/8607",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/5474/"
] | >
> Also if you have experience with open source Engines - and could narrow down which (if any ) might be most suitable that would be a big help.
>
>
>
I currently work with [libGDX](http://code.google.com/p/libgdx/), an engine which abstracts the difference of android and PC, so you can test and develop with the PC. Testing with the emulator of android is not recommended, since it is very slow and would therefore slow down development. This is also the main reason why I do not recommend AndEngine.
You said you need a little animation. Even for this "little" you should use OpenGL ES (which is used by libGDX too ;) ). A GUI is basically nothing except image rendering and click/tap resolving, so writing your own little framework should outperform the pain which may be linked with adjusting the default android GUI to your needs.
Since it is Java, you can't simply put the game on the iOS market. I know a game (Legends of Yore) by Kevin Glass ([cokeandcode.com](http://cokeandcode.com/)) which is ported to iOS **and** written in Java, but I don't know how he has achieved this.
A last word on the server: I am not a professional there, but if you only need to request and push a state every 30 seconds, I would just make a very simple server or even just an URL backed with some PHP (simple, but slow), Java (fast, but complicated and not always available), C, Go (If you want to have simplicity and speed, but not very developed yet) or whatever. | Have a look at <http://www.airplaysdk.com/>
It lets you write native C++ for several platforms at the same time. |
8,607 | I'm currently designing a turn based game for tablets. Initially for Android with porting to iOS later considered in design.
I'm having trouble narrowing down the available technologies to even know where to spend my research time. I am hoping that if I explain what I am trying to achieve someone may be able to suggest a platform and/or engine.
I've looked into some of the open source Engines ( <http://www.cuteandroid.com/ten-open-source-android-2d-or-3d-game-engine-for-android-developers> ) and some appear to handle much of what I might require - although with a higher focus on graphics than i need. Mages looks interesting although development appears to have ceased.
If I could somehow leverage GoogleApps that would be excellent.
Here is what I am trying to achieve:
PvP turn based strategy game over internet - minimal animation and bandwidth required
Players match up online using MetaGame system
MatchID created on Resolution Server and Game starts
Clients have 30 second countdown to select MoveString
Clients sends small secure timestamped and MatchIDed MoveString to Resolution server
Resolution server looks up Move String for each player, Resolves and Updates Players status in MatchID on Server
Resolution server updates Client Views
Repeat until victory conditions met - MatchID Closed, Rewards earned in MetaGame
There will also need to be a full social and account system and metagame backend - but this could be running on separate system(s)
Tablet in Offline mode would be catalog browsing and perhaps single player AI - bum I'm focusing on the Resolution Server at this point
I'm not even certain if I would be looking at an Android App or a WebApp at this stage! I want a custom GUI so I guess an app - but maybe as I have little animation a WebApp might also work. Probably some combination of both.
There will be very small overhead in data between client server - essentially a small text string every 30 seconds sent to the Resolution server which looks up the Effect and applies it to the Opponents string and determines some results to apply to the match. The client view is updated minimally with the results (only 5 in game Integers tracked) - perhaps triggering small animations/popups on the client to show the end result. e.g Explosion.
If you have suggestions for a good technology or platform to best achieving the Resolution Server I'd love to hear.
Also if you have experience with open source Engines - and could narrow down which (if any ) might be most suitable that would be a big help.
Thanks in advance | 2011/02/15 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/8607",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/5474/"
] | [Game Engine for Google Web Toolkit](http://code.google.com/p/gwt-game/) | >
> Also if you have experience with open source Engines - and could narrow down which (if any ) might be most suitable that would be a big help.
>
>
>
I currently work with [libGDX](http://code.google.com/p/libgdx/), an engine which abstracts the difference of android and PC, so you can test and develop with the PC. Testing with the emulator of android is not recommended, since it is very slow and would therefore slow down development. This is also the main reason why I do not recommend AndEngine.
You said you need a little animation. Even for this "little" you should use OpenGL ES (which is used by libGDX too ;) ). A GUI is basically nothing except image rendering and click/tap resolving, so writing your own little framework should outperform the pain which may be linked with adjusting the default android GUI to your needs.
Since it is Java, you can't simply put the game on the iOS market. I know a game (Legends of Yore) by Kevin Glass ([cokeandcode.com](http://cokeandcode.com/)) which is ported to iOS **and** written in Java, but I don't know how he has achieved this.
A last word on the server: I am not a professional there, but if you only need to request and push a state every 30 seconds, I would just make a very simple server or even just an URL backed with some PHP (simple, but slow), Java (fast, but complicated and not always available), C, Go (If you want to have simplicity and speed, but not very developed yet) or whatever. |
1,150 | How do we go about fixing a misspelled tag?
The "n" and "g" are flipped around
<https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/tags/sharepointdesinger2013/info> | 2015/01/07 | [
"https://sharepoint.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1150",
"https://sharepoint.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.meta.stackexchange.com/users/34274/"
] | Since there are not that many questions tagged with it, I would retag them with the correct tag.
When there are no more questions using a tag it will self destruct in a day or two | It will be deleted automatically at 3:00 am UTC so long as there are no posts tagged with it.
[How can we get rid of misspelled and unused (or "zombie") tags?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/19753/how-can-we-get-rid-of-misspelled-and-unused-or-zombie-tags) |
760,183 | In your opinion is it common and ethical to do custom software development for a Customer and then add that software to your base product which is available to your other customers?
My take on it is that:
1. It's a contractual issue between you
and the Customer.
2. It's done often (although maybe not 'common').
3. It's similar to the Customer paying to have their pet feature bumped up the development priority queue.
Can anyone point to any well known (or at least public) examples of this? | 2009/04/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/760183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2955/"
] | 1. You are right, it should be a contractual obligation over who owns the source code. Many vendors will sell the finished product to the client but keep the source code, others will give the whole thing away (which is S.O.P. with our company)
2. I imagine it gets done, just not sure as far as the scope or depth of the copying.
I can't think of any well-known examples (primarily because business between two companies isn't often publicized), but a personal example is when we developed a much more flexible time-tracking system in one of our client applications and it turned out so well that we implemented it into our own personal time-tracking system (which wasn't that great out the gate). | From an ethical standpoint, I think it's actually quite simple: It's a matter of what your customer perceives you to be doing. Do they think you are customizing your product for them, or do they think they are paying for their pet requests to be bumped up in your feature queue? |
760,183 | In your opinion is it common and ethical to do custom software development for a Customer and then add that software to your base product which is available to your other customers?
My take on it is that:
1. It's a contractual issue between you
and the Customer.
2. It's done often (although maybe not 'common').
3. It's similar to the Customer paying to have their pet feature bumped up the development priority queue.
Can anyone point to any well known (or at least public) examples of this? | 2009/04/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/760183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2955/"
] | From an ethical standpoint, I think it's actually quite simple: It's a matter of what your customer perceives you to be doing. Do they think you are customizing your product for them, or do they think they are paying for their pet requests to be bumped up in your feature queue? | As an extreme standpoint: if all custom made code could not be used anywhere else anymore then at some point you will not be able to continue your business anymore without violating that rule.
As the opposite extreme: if all custom made code would end up in a generic product then no customer would provide their specific problems to you anymore.
Of course both standpoints are quite extreme and are not likely to happen to that extent in my opinion.
Personally I would state very clearly to a new customer that in general all (custom) code could be used in other products and projects, unless it is agreed in advance to not do so for specific parts of the code. Then if it is really important to them that certain parts stay behind closed doors they will let you know. |
760,183 | In your opinion is it common and ethical to do custom software development for a Customer and then add that software to your base product which is available to your other customers?
My take on it is that:
1. It's a contractual issue between you
and the Customer.
2. It's done often (although maybe not 'common').
3. It's similar to the Customer paying to have their pet feature bumped up the development priority queue.
Can anyone point to any well known (or at least public) examples of this? | 2009/04/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/760183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2955/"
] | 1. You are right, it should be a contractual obligation over who owns the source code. Many vendors will sell the finished product to the client but keep the source code, others will give the whole thing away (which is S.O.P. with our company)
2. I imagine it gets done, just not sure as far as the scope or depth of the copying.
I can't think of any well-known examples (primarily because business between two companies isn't often publicized), but a personal example is when we developed a much more flexible time-tracking system in one of our client applications and it turned out so well that we implemented it into our own personal time-tracking system (which wasn't that great out the gate). | As an extreme standpoint: if all custom made code could not be used anywhere else anymore then at some point you will not be able to continue your business anymore without violating that rule.
As the opposite extreme: if all custom made code would end up in a generic product then no customer would provide their specific problems to you anymore.
Of course both standpoints are quite extreme and are not likely to happen to that extent in my opinion.
Personally I would state very clearly to a new customer that in general all (custom) code could be used in other products and projects, unless it is agreed in advance to not do so for specific parts of the code. Then if it is really important to them that certain parts stay behind closed doors they will let you know. |
47,420 | The image below seems to be circulating on Facebook along with a text
>
> To give you an idea of the times we are living in, Twitter has been
> flooded with hundreds of new accounts today.
>
>
> All have the NHS tag and a picture of a Nurse or doctor. All are
> praising of the government and tweeting how they have lots of PPE and
> stories otherwise are fake news.
>
>
> One problem. They are all commercial bot accounts. Take any of the
> profile pictures and image search and you’ll find some poor Healthcare
> worker who’s picture has been stolen. Like Mia the nurse who is now
> ‘NHS Susan, ‘ the Boris loving bot account.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9KqyE.jpg)
(The DHSC mentioned in the image would be the Department of Health and Social Care.)
The "WestHertsNHS" respond here: <https://twitter.com/WestHertsNHS/status/1252323058100178945> and seems to confirm a fake account has been taken down. The rest of the thread seems inconclusive.
I've no idea how to investigate the truth of the assertions; presumably it's as easy for anyone wanting to discredit the government to set up fake twitter bots supportive of government policy - and then cry foul play - as it is for the government to actually use fake twitter bots if they wanted too. Can SE skeptics shine any more light on this? | 2020/04/21 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/47420",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/8497/"
] | The answer to this is going to opinion based to some extent. The WHO like everyone else was largely dependent on China for information at that point. Here's for example what the ECDC reported/concluded [on Jan 17](https://www.ecdc.europa.eu/sites/default/files/documents/Risk%20assessment%20-%20pneumonia%20Wuhan%20China%2017%20Jan%202020.pdf):
>
> In China, 763 close contacts have been identified and monitored. Of these, 644 have completed the observation period, while 119 remain under medical observation. So far, **none** has tested positive for 2019-nCoV [7,10].
>
>
>
There are some later examples of (quite) insensitive Chinese tests [see q on med SE](https://medicalsciences.stackexchange.com/questions/23126/why-were-so-many-covid-19-negative-tests-among-close-contacts-of-the-early-chine), so [Hanlon's razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanlon%27s_razor) probably applies here, not only to China but whomever else believed their test results.
This info had to be counterbalanced against the clusters observed, from the ECDC report:
>
> Among the cases reported, two
> small family clusters were identified. In one cluster, all three members of the family had attended the specific Wuhan
> market before disease onset. In the other cluster, one member was the spouse of a salesman in the market.
>
>
>
The WHO seems to have said something similar about the family clusters being a little troublesome, although seemingly just in a press conference, according to an [answer on politics SE](https://politics.stackexchange.com/a/52604/18373):
>
> According to the [WHO COVID-19 Timeline](https://www.who.int/news-room/detail/08-04-2020-who-timeline---covid-19)'s entry for January 14th:
>
>
>
> >
> > Dr. Maria Van Kerkhove noted in a press briefing there had been limited human-to-human transmission of the coronavirus (in the 41 confirmed cases), mainly through family members, and that there was a risk of a possible wider outbreak. Dr. Kerkhove noted that human-to-human transmission would not be surprising given our experience with SARS, MERS and other respiratory pathogens.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
So it was a matter of balancing the overwhelmingly negative tests reported by China with the few epidemiological findings to the contrary. As that press conference suggests, not everyone inside the WHO was equally convinced of how to weigh these somewhat contrary findings coming from China.
For comparison, here's what the US CDC was [saying](https://www.cdc.gov/media/releases/2020/p0117-coronavirus-screening.html) (Jan 17) based on the same reports:
>
> Chinese authorities additionally report that several hundred health care workers caring for outbreak patients are being monitored and no spread of this virus from patients to health care workers has been seen. They report no sustained spread of this virus in the community, however there are indications that some limited person-to-person spread may have occurred.
>
>
>
So you can quibble about wording like "no significant" vs "limited" but it doesn't look like any major health authorities [outside China] could infer the magnitude of the problem at the time. Basically, the WHO, the ECDC and the US CDC were reading the same findings put out by China and coming to fairly similar conclusions in that Jan 14-17 time frame.
---
Very long aside below, but hopefully insightful as to what was going on in China in those crucial days:
[AP news (April, 15)](https://apnews.com/68a9e1b91de4ffc166acd6012d82c2f9)
>
> China didn’t warn public of likely pandemic for 6 key days
>
>
> In the six days after top Chinese officials secretly determined they likely were facing a pandemic from a new coronavirus, the city of Wuhan at the epicenter of the disease hosted a mass banquet for tens of thousands of people; millions began traveling through for Lunar New Year celebrations.
>
>
> That delay from Jan. 14 to Jan. 20 was neither the first mistake made by Chinese officials at all levels in confronting the outbreak, nor the longest lag, as governments around the world have dragged their feet for weeks and even months in addressing the virus. [...]
>
>
> It’s uncertain whether it was local officials who failed to report cases or national officials who failed to record them. It’s also not clear exactly what officials knew at the time in Wuhan, which only opened back up last week with restrictions after its quarantine. [...]
>
>
> Without these internal reports, it took the first case outside China, in Thailand on Jan. 13, to galvanize leaders in Beijing into recognizing the possible pandemic before them. It was only then that they launched a nationwide plan to find cases — distributing CDC-sanctioned test kits, easing the criteria for confirming cases and ordering health officials to screen patients. They also instructed officials in Hubei province, where Wuhan is located, to begin temperature checks at transportation hubs and cut down on large public gatherings. And they did it all without telling the public.
>
>
> The documents show that the head of China’s National Health Commission, Ma Xiaowei, laid out a grim assessment of the situation on Jan. 14 in a confidential teleconference with provincial health officials. A memo states that the teleconference was held to convey instructions on the coronavirus from President Xi Jinping, Premier Li Keqiang and Vice Premier Sun Chunlan, but does not specify what those instructions were.
>
>
> “The epidemic situation is still severe and complex, the most severe challenge since SARS in 2003, and is likely to develop into a major public health event,” the memo cites Ma as saying.
>
>
> The National Health Commission is the top medical agency in the country. In a faxed statement, the Commission said it had organized the teleconference because of the case reported in Thailand and the possibility of the virus spreading during New Year travel. It added that China had published information on the outbreak in an “open, transparent, responsible and timely manner,” in accordance with “important instructions” repeatedly issued by President Xi.
>
>
> The documents come from an anonymous source in the medical field who did not want to be named for fear of retribution. The AP confirmed the contents with two other sources in public health familiar with the teleconference. Some of the memo’s contents also appeared in a public notice about the teleconference, stripped of key details and published in February.
>
>
> Under a section titled “sober understanding of the situation,” the memo said that “clustered cases suggest that human-to-human transmission is possible.” It singled out the case in Thailand, saying that the situation had “changed significantly” because of the possible spread of the virus abroad.
>
>
> “With the coming of the Spring Festival, many people will be traveling, and the risk of transmission and spread is high,” the memo continued. “All localities must prepare for and respond to a pandemic.”
>
>
> In the memo, Ma demanded officials unite around Xi and made clear that political considerations and social stability were key priorities during the long lead-up to China’s two biggest political meetings of the year in March. While the documents do not spell out why Chinese leaders waited six days to make their concerns public, the meetings may be one reason.
>
>
> The National Health Commission also distributed a 63-page set of instructions to provincial health officials, obtained by the AP. The instructions ordered health officials nationwide to identify suspected cases, hospitals to open fever clinics, and doctors and nurses to don protective gear. They were marked “internal” — “not to be spread on the internet,” “not to be publicly disclosed.”
>
>
> In public, however, officials continued to downplay the threat, pointing to the 41 cases public at the time.
>
>
> “We have reached the latest understanding that the risk of sustained human-to-human transmission is low,” Li Qun, the head of the China CDC’s emergency center, told Chinese state television on Jan. 15. That was the same day Li was appointed leader of a group preparing emergency plans for the level one response, a CDC notice shows.
>
>
> [...]
>
>
> “They may not have said the right thing, but they were doing the right thing,” said Ray Yip, the retired founding head of the U.S. Centers for Disease Control’s office in China. “On the 20th, they sounded the alarm for the whole country, which is not an unreasonable delay.”
>
>
> If health officials raise the alarm prematurely, it can damage their credibility — “like crying wolf” —and cripple their ability to mobilize the public, said Benjamin Cowling, an epidemiologist at the University of Hong Kong.
>
>
> [...]
>
>
> [Earlier on, Chinese] officials obstructed medical staff who tried to report such cases. They set tight criteria for confirming cases, where patients not only had to test positive, but samples had to be sent to Beijing and sequenced. They required staff to report to supervisors before sending information higher, Chinese media reports show. And they punished doctors for warning about the disease.
>
>
> As a result, no new cases were reported for almost two weeks from Jan. 5, even as officials gathered in Wuhan for Hubei province’s two biggest political meetings of the year, internal China CDC bulletins confirm.
>
>
> During this period, teams of experts dispatched to Wuhan by Beijing said they failed to find clear signs of danger and human-to-human transmission. [...]
>
>
> The second [Beijing] expert team, dispatched on Jan. 8, similarly failed to unearth any clear signs of human-to-human transmission. Yet during their stay, more than half a dozen doctors and nurses had already fallen ill with the virus, a retrospective China CDC study published in the New England Journal of Medicine would later show.
>
>
> The teams looked for patients with severe pneumonia, missing those with milder symptoms. They also narrowed the search to those who had visited the seafood market — which was in retrospect a mistake, said Cowling, the Hong Kong epidemiologist, who flew to Beijing to review the cases in late January. [...]
>
>
> “I always suspected it was human-to-human transmissible,” said Wang Guangfa, the leader of the second expert team, in a Mar. 15 post on Weibo, the Chinese social media platform. He fell ill with the virus soon after returning to Beijing on Jan. 16.
>
>
> When the Thai case was reported, health authorities finally drew up an internal plan to systematically identify, isolate, test, and treat all cases of the new coronavirus nationwide.
>
>
> Wuhan’s case count began to climb immediately — four on Jan. 17, then 17 the next day and 136 the day after. Across the country, dozens of cases began to surface, in some cases among patients who were infected earlier but had not yet been tested. In Zhejiang, for example, a man hospitalized on Jan. 4 was only isolated on Jan. 17 and confirmed positive on Jan. 21. Shenzhen, where Yuen had earlier found six people who tested positive, finally recorded its first confirmed case on Jan. 19.
>
>
> The Wuhan Union Hospital, one of the city’s best, held an emergency meeting on Jan. 18, instructing staff to adopt stringent isolation — still before Xi’s public warning. A health expert told AP that on Jan. 19, she toured a hospital built after the SARS outbreak, where medical workers had furiously prepared an entire building with hundreds of beds for pneumonia patients.
>
>
> “Everybody in the country in the infectious disease field knew something was going on,” she said, declining to be named to avoid disrupting sensitive government consultations. “They were anticipating it.”
>
>
>
So yeah, as the WHO (and US CDC, ECDC) was/were repeating what China had said a few days prior, the Chinese authorities were themselves waking up to the true extent of the problem and gearing up the response... while not quite revealing it in public until the 20th or so. | Note: This isn't intended as a complete answer, only a partial one (which is too extensive to place in comments).
A [Washington Post](https://www.washingtonpost.com/world/national-security/americans-at-world-health-organization-transmitted-real-time-information-about-coronavirus-to-trump-administration/2020/04/19/951c77fa-818c-11ea-9040-68981f488eed_story.html) article from April 19, 2020 states:
>
> More than a dozen U.S. researchers, physicians and public health
> experts, many of them from the Centers for Disease Control and
> Prevention, were working full time at the Geneva headquarters of the
> World Health Organization as the novel coronavirus emerged late last
> year and transmitted real-time information about its discovery and
> spread in China to the Trump administration, according to U.S. and
> international officials.
>
>
> A number of CDC staff members are regularly detailed to work at the
> WHO in Geneva as part of a rotation that has operated for years.
> Senior Trump-appointed health officials also consulted regularly at
> the highest levels with the WHO as the crisis unfolded, the officials
> said.
>
>
>
So CDC staff working with WHO did communicate (in "real time") to the White House staff information about the virus.
And an article in the March 30, 2020 issue of The New Yorker contains a story, written by an English professor from the US, relating his experience with the virus while living in China during the origin of the outbreak. He implies that the presence of the virus was well-known by mid-January, and a "lock-down" was implemented to prevent its spread between people.
What I can't show is that the details (ie, people-to-people transmission) was transmitted to the WHO, though it's clear that the fact would have been known to anyone outside of China who was following the situation there, since it was so well-known within China. |
273,540 | All of my desktop shortcut icons on Windows 7 have changed to Notepad icons.
How do I get my old icons back? | 2011/04/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/273540",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/77613/"
] | Try this:
Reset the desktop icon cache
1. Click Start, and open Computer.
2. On the Tool bar, click Organize and choose Folder and Search Options.
3. Click the View tab, and check to select the Show hidden files and folders option, and click OK.
4. Then, enter the following directory:
C:\Users(User Name)\AppData\Local
1. Find the IconCache.db file, and rename it as IconCache.db.old.
2. Close the window, and restart the computer. | Download and Run the batch file [from this location](http://www.sevenforums.com/attachments/tutorials/274775d1372780091-icon-cache-rebuild-rebuild_icon_cache.bat)
Follow the instructions in the command prompt to rebuild the Icon Cache.
Restart your computer to generate a new IconCache.db file. |
273,540 | All of my desktop shortcut icons on Windows 7 have changed to Notepad icons.
How do I get my old icons back? | 2011/04/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/273540",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/77613/"
] | The simplest and quickest way I found is on
[this forum](http://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_7-windows_programs/undo-file-association-for-lnk-extension-to/f13b105e-8ea3-47e4-aeda-66f8fc1e839d?rtAction=1401615592302).
This simply says to delete all the keys for **.lnk** extension. The procedure is:
* Press *[Win + R]* to open *run* and then type `regedit` and hit *ENTER*
* Go to the **HKEY\_CURRENT\_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Explorer\FileExts.lnk** folder
* Remove every subfolder (called *keys* in *regedit*) and the keys they contain
* Now restart the PC
Now everything works fine. | Download and Run the batch file [from this location](http://www.sevenforums.com/attachments/tutorials/274775d1372780091-icon-cache-rebuild-rebuild_icon_cache.bat)
Follow the instructions in the command prompt to rebuild the Icon Cache.
Restart your computer to generate a new IconCache.db file. |
9,988,416 | I want to implement visitors tracking on a php site, to estimate the conversion rates.
What every site tells me is that we should divide the the number of completed transactions to the number of visitos. But to what should we count as 'visitors' I haven't yet found a definite answer.
I may guess, there could be different methods, well let's talk about these that would be more reliable then, and provide for a more accurate calculation.
So, what is that? Should we take a number of let's say unique ips every day, or a number of pages loaded, or what? I'm completely lost, what should we track? | 2012/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9988416",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1125062/"
] | The only really useful metric is "Unique Visitors", specifically unique IPs that don't appear to be bots. The first part is easy but knowing what is and isn't a bot is a complex art. You should really leave this sort of tracking to a dedicated stats package like AWStats or Google Analytics (the later which has tools to track various sorts of goals and conversions).
If you really must have a DIY solution you should definitely start by looking at the browser/bot identification code in AWStats. I imagine that somewhere in there is a humungous list of known browser User Agent strings.
On many sites bots and crawlers can account for over 50% of actual "hits" or "pages" so if you can't identify bots accurately then your stats are basically worthless for most purposes. | There is no universal measure for web statistics. You can only compare against sites with similar measuring methods, and only then as a guide - never a definitive value.
You can measure trends on your own site if you use the same method for measuring from one month to the next for example.
In your case, I think daily unique visitors is the most useful, as it is probably closest to representing the actual number of visitors to a site. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | This is a tricky proposition. Firstly, if planets like Mars and Mercury are inhabited and settled there needs to be a high level of environmental and life support technology in place. Remove that and everybody dies. However, it is a requirement of the OP that they remain alive. Not entirely impossible, but it will be necessary to come back to it.
After one century of warfare, everyone is reduced to almost stone-age technology. So their knowledge has disappeared. Now how to pull these threads together?
Assume highly automated technology, so highly automated, self-regulating, self-maintaining, and self-repairing that it's been centuries since humans had to do anything with their technology. No-one needs to be trained to be an engineer, repair person or anything technologically oriented.
So a century ago, the war begins. It starts with a phase of cyber warfare that prevents humans from controlling their machines. Just say "Open the pod bay doors, please HAL." To find nothing happens. Humans find their access to the knowledge about how their technology works is also locked up. Totally inaccessible. Now they are completely knowledge deprived. Previously this is knowledge they didn't need as the combination of AI and cybernetic control systems mean the machines could take care of themselves
Humans can survive. They live on inside their life support and habitat facilities on planets like Mars and Mercury. They are reduced to what is effectively a hunter-gatherer lifestyle. Hunting what had been previously livestock and zoological specimens. Gathering edible plants from what had been parks and gardens. They have learned how to make primitive stone tools.
This does mean by 2500 human habitats were gigantic structures occupying spaces, that collectively, would be size of small nation states. Life support and environmental systems keep humans alive inside their habitats on the settled planets of the solar system, but humans are forced live their lives as palaeolithic savages. | Depends on the level of technology. For simpler technologies you cannot get rid of them without killing people. People will remember and pass on. For high tech, destroy the infrastructure and do not allow them to rebuild it for a while. Additionally, destroy libraries and wipe out digital devices using EMP. This will send them back to late 1800s. Without advanced machinery, knowing how to make 22nm transistor will not help anyone. Over time, people will switch to a more primitive technological level and will start building slowly. Not having books means not having head start as most primitive technology will not be known to the people. With war running 100 years, most people with the knowledge of the advanced machinery will die of old age. Even if they manage to get back into advanced age, they again will not have any head start to rebuild. Then these people will slowly advance like we did in the past. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | Depends on the level of technology. For simpler technologies you cannot get rid of them without killing people. People will remember and pass on. For high tech, destroy the infrastructure and do not allow them to rebuild it for a while. Additionally, destroy libraries and wipe out digital devices using EMP. This will send them back to late 1800s. Without advanced machinery, knowing how to make 22nm transistor will not help anyone. Over time, people will switch to a more primitive technological level and will start building slowly. Not having books means not having head start as most primitive technology will not be known to the people. With war running 100 years, most people with the knowledge of the advanced machinery will die of old age. Even if they manage to get back into advanced age, they again will not have any head start to rebuild. Then these people will slowly advance like we did in the past. | Other Galaxies
==============
Probably not because unless there was a crazy breakthrough in technology that would allow us to explore all of the other galaxies in this universe. And plus we don't know if there are or aren't any other planets in our universe that are as technologically advanced like us. And the only way to remove all technology in the universe would be by somehow exploring every part of every galaxy in the universe, and removing all living species and removing all the technology that they have.
Constants
=========
Even if this were to happen we would be operating technology at the moment of trying to remove all technology, making it almost impossible to ever complete such a feat, and an exponentially less chance in 100 years. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | Depends on the level of technology. For simpler technologies you cannot get rid of them without killing people. People will remember and pass on. For high tech, destroy the infrastructure and do not allow them to rebuild it for a while. Additionally, destroy libraries and wipe out digital devices using EMP. This will send them back to late 1800s. Without advanced machinery, knowing how to make 22nm transistor will not help anyone. Over time, people will switch to a more primitive technological level and will start building slowly. Not having books means not having head start as most primitive technology will not be known to the people. With war running 100 years, most people with the knowledge of the advanced machinery will die of old age. Even if they manage to get back into advanced age, they again will not have any head start to rebuild. Then these people will slowly advance like we did in the past. | There is a big technology monopoly. Everything is interconnected.
And then one of the parties released the computer virus. It took down all technology, power plants, hospitals.
Knowledge was gone, houshold appliances didn't work anymore, autonomous farming died out, people had no food.
No technology could function without the cloud. And the cloud was destroyed by the virus. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | This is a tricky proposition. Firstly, if planets like Mars and Mercury are inhabited and settled there needs to be a high level of environmental and life support technology in place. Remove that and everybody dies. However, it is a requirement of the OP that they remain alive. Not entirely impossible, but it will be necessary to come back to it.
After one century of warfare, everyone is reduced to almost stone-age technology. So their knowledge has disappeared. Now how to pull these threads together?
Assume highly automated technology, so highly automated, self-regulating, self-maintaining, and self-repairing that it's been centuries since humans had to do anything with their technology. No-one needs to be trained to be an engineer, repair person or anything technologically oriented.
So a century ago, the war begins. It starts with a phase of cyber warfare that prevents humans from controlling their machines. Just say "Open the pod bay doors, please HAL." To find nothing happens. Humans find their access to the knowledge about how their technology works is also locked up. Totally inaccessible. Now they are completely knowledge deprived. Previously this is knowledge they didn't need as the combination of AI and cybernetic control systems mean the machines could take care of themselves
Humans can survive. They live on inside their life support and habitat facilities on planets like Mars and Mercury. They are reduced to what is effectively a hunter-gatherer lifestyle. Hunting what had been previously livestock and zoological specimens. Gathering edible plants from what had been parks and gardens. They have learned how to make primitive stone tools.
This does mean by 2500 human habitats were gigantic structures occupying spaces, that collectively, would be size of small nation states. Life support and environmental systems keep humans alive inside their habitats on the settled planets of the solar system, but humans are forced live their lives as palaeolithic savages. | Other Galaxies
==============
Probably not because unless there was a crazy breakthrough in technology that would allow us to explore all of the other galaxies in this universe. And plus we don't know if there are or aren't any other planets in our universe that are as technologically advanced like us. And the only way to remove all technology in the universe would be by somehow exploring every part of every galaxy in the universe, and removing all living species and removing all the technology that they have.
Constants
=========
Even if this were to happen we would be operating technology at the moment of trying to remove all technology, making it almost impossible to ever complete such a feat, and an exponentially less chance in 100 years. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | This is a tricky proposition. Firstly, if planets like Mars and Mercury are inhabited and settled there needs to be a high level of environmental and life support technology in place. Remove that and everybody dies. However, it is a requirement of the OP that they remain alive. Not entirely impossible, but it will be necessary to come back to it.
After one century of warfare, everyone is reduced to almost stone-age technology. So their knowledge has disappeared. Now how to pull these threads together?
Assume highly automated technology, so highly automated, self-regulating, self-maintaining, and self-repairing that it's been centuries since humans had to do anything with their technology. No-one needs to be trained to be an engineer, repair person or anything technologically oriented.
So a century ago, the war begins. It starts with a phase of cyber warfare that prevents humans from controlling their machines. Just say "Open the pod bay doors, please HAL." To find nothing happens. Humans find their access to the knowledge about how their technology works is also locked up. Totally inaccessible. Now they are completely knowledge deprived. Previously this is knowledge they didn't need as the combination of AI and cybernetic control systems mean the machines could take care of themselves
Humans can survive. They live on inside their life support and habitat facilities on planets like Mars and Mercury. They are reduced to what is effectively a hunter-gatherer lifestyle. Hunting what had been previously livestock and zoological specimens. Gathering edible plants from what had been parks and gardens. They have learned how to make primitive stone tools.
This does mean by 2500 human habitats were gigantic structures occupying spaces, that collectively, would be size of small nation states. Life support and environmental systems keep humans alive inside their habitats on the settled planets of the solar system, but humans are forced live their lives as palaeolithic savages. | There is a big technology monopoly. Everything is interconnected.
And then one of the parties released the computer virus. It took down all technology, power plants, hospitals.
Knowledge was gone, houshold appliances didn't work anymore, autonomous farming died out, people had no food.
No technology could function without the cloud. And the cloud was destroyed by the virus. |
61,797 | In the year 2500, the main planets are all colonised for various reasons (Mars as another place to put the population, Mercury for minerals, etc.). The planet Mercury then becomes more and more rich, until its ruler declares himself emperor.
In the year 2900, a war starts, lasting until 3000. At the end, people have been reduced to almost stone-age technology. My question is this: how would someone attack in a way that the people survive, while knowledge disappears. | 2016/11/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/61797",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/29332/"
] | Other Galaxies
==============
Probably not because unless there was a crazy breakthrough in technology that would allow us to explore all of the other galaxies in this universe. And plus we don't know if there are or aren't any other planets in our universe that are as technologically advanced like us. And the only way to remove all technology in the universe would be by somehow exploring every part of every galaxy in the universe, and removing all living species and removing all the technology that they have.
Constants
=========
Even if this were to happen we would be operating technology at the moment of trying to remove all technology, making it almost impossible to ever complete such a feat, and an exponentially less chance in 100 years. | There is a big technology monopoly. Everything is interconnected.
And then one of the parties released the computer virus. It took down all technology, power plants, hospitals.
Knowledge was gone, houshold appliances didn't work anymore, autonomous farming died out, people had no food.
No technology could function without the cloud. And the cloud was destroyed by the virus. |
3,402 | I've noticed on a couple of freelancing sites (especially Elance) where the majority projects get allocated either to yourself (if you're lucky), or to another (lucky them) or they get cancelled (unlucky for everyone).
However, there are quite a few projects that just seem to "hang" there, not being allocated to anyone. Which could be for a number of reasons.
Would it be safe to assume that any project after a month after it's initial announcement is unlikely to do anything than just sit and stagnate, in a state of limbo (incorrectly flagged as "hiring open" or "selecting candidate"?
Are there any other freelancers that keep tabs on these sort of statistics? | 2015/07/01 | [
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/questions/3402",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/users/6052/"
] | Being a client on those services give you a chance to open the project even if you are not sure that you need someone to work on it. So those are the ones that are left hanging because clients are not sure what to do, could not find anyone to match their budget, or simply found contractor via another source and were too lazy to close it.
oDesk took a twist and started to treat clients the same as contractors dividing them to good or bad. For example, my job award ration on odesk is 50%, which is IMHO pretty good, but they still emailed me telling me that I should open a project only if I plan to actually hire someone. Otherwise they will close my account. So they are doing their best as of recently to shut down clients like those (or like me) who spend bids and time of other contractors. | I have worked on elance for years (and odesk too, now they have both merged and elance is already starting to withhold contractor payments for a minimum of 3-5 days, I've heard reports of up to 3 weeks to get paid now), and like you said there are several reasons. Some people just post job ads to see what they will get back, some of the people posting are contractors looking to see what other contractors are bidding, some are people writing blog articles about it, or others are just scammers looking to pump people for information then try to do the project themselves, or have their in-house team do it once they have some info on a solution/approach.
I've had many many clients waste my time getting detailed specs, solutions, etc.. and then never hire me or anyone else for the job. I'm talking insisting on a "phone interview" then keeping me on the phone for hours asking every little detail about the project and how I would handle it.
I've learned to not give out so much information, so it's better now, but I'm getting off track. Your other question was, can you assume after 30 days that the job is dead. Simple answer, NO! I've had people hit me up 3, 6, even a year after I bid the job and end up hiring me and making some good money out of it. However, it is RARE, and maybe only happens once or twice a year to me. And I bid a lot of jobs. A lot.
I have a policy (stated in my profile under payment terms or whatever), that my quotes are only good for 30 days and after that time, a new quote must be obtained before hire. This is because if someone comes back 6 months later and I was short on cash at the time of the bid and only bid at like 30/hr, then 6 months later I'm doing better clocking 6k a week, I'm not interested in chincy 30/hr work anymore, so I point them to the clause in my payment terms to handle that situation. They usually bail, sometimes they are willing to pay more.
IMO, if a job has not contacted you within 1 or 2 weeks, forget about it. I usually withdraw my application. If someone is going to waste my time and not even bother to respond, then I don't want a response, move on to better clients.
Elance does not charge the client a dime. They can post as many free jobs as they want and there is no penalty for not hiring. Another thing that happens is a lot of these guys will try to get you on Skype and move off the platform. Something that I'm sure happens a lot on there. I don't do it because there is only one reason someone wants you to move off platform, so they can burn you.
If someone pays you through Paypal, even if its like 20,000 dollars over the course of a year, at any time, they can call their bank and reverse the charges and Paypal does not protect you. You will have a -20,000 balance on Paypal. It's happened to me more than once, not for that much, but basically any money you get through Paypal is not really yours, ever. They can always take it back, this is what I've been told by Paypal account specialist. So I'd rather have elance do the transaction, as they have never ripped me off (for a payment, they rip me off constantly on fees and other redic stuff).
Anyway, the two have merged now and neither is worth working for. The overseas contractors really threw salt in that game, so for anyone looking for decent wages, it's back to the old 9-5. Though I have been thinking of trying fivverr now that they upped their limit from 5 dollars to 500 dollars a job.
Anyway, kind of all over the place on this... I hope I sort of answered your question. |
3,402 | I've noticed on a couple of freelancing sites (especially Elance) where the majority projects get allocated either to yourself (if you're lucky), or to another (lucky them) or they get cancelled (unlucky for everyone).
However, there are quite a few projects that just seem to "hang" there, not being allocated to anyone. Which could be for a number of reasons.
Would it be safe to assume that any project after a month after it's initial announcement is unlikely to do anything than just sit and stagnate, in a state of limbo (incorrectly flagged as "hiring open" or "selecting candidate"?
Are there any other freelancers that keep tabs on these sort of statistics? | 2015/07/01 | [
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/questions/3402",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/users/6052/"
] | Being a client on those services give you a chance to open the project even if you are not sure that you need someone to work on it. So those are the ones that are left hanging because clients are not sure what to do, could not find anyone to match their budget, or simply found contractor via another source and were too lazy to close it.
oDesk took a twist and started to treat clients the same as contractors dividing them to good or bad. For example, my job award ration on odesk is 50%, which is IMHO pretty good, but they still emailed me telling me that I should open a project only if I plan to actually hire someone. Otherwise they will close my account. So they are doing their best as of recently to shut down clients like those (or like me) who spend bids and time of other contractors. | >
> Would it be safe to assume that any project after a month after it's initial announcement is unlikely to do anything than just sit and stagnate, in a state of limbo (incorrectly flagged as "hiring open" or "selecting candidate"?
>
>
>
**Yes.** I've been using Elance for over a year, and I've observed (from reviewing the history of all jobs that I've bidded on) that **over 90% of posted contracts never make a hire.** Many of the contracts sit in the "selecting candidate" phase for eternity after they are abandoned by the client. This will vary depending on the type of work the contract is for, but don't expect a stagnating contract to ever get started. |
3,402 | I've noticed on a couple of freelancing sites (especially Elance) where the majority projects get allocated either to yourself (if you're lucky), or to another (lucky them) or they get cancelled (unlucky for everyone).
However, there are quite a few projects that just seem to "hang" there, not being allocated to anyone. Which could be for a number of reasons.
Would it be safe to assume that any project after a month after it's initial announcement is unlikely to do anything than just sit and stagnate, in a state of limbo (incorrectly flagged as "hiring open" or "selecting candidate"?
Are there any other freelancers that keep tabs on these sort of statistics? | 2015/07/01 | [
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/questions/3402",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/users/6052/"
] | >
> Would it be safe to assume that any project after a month after it's initial announcement is unlikely to do anything than just sit and stagnate, in a state of limbo (incorrectly flagged as "hiring open" or "selecting candidate"?
>
>
>
**Yes.** I've been using Elance for over a year, and I've observed (from reviewing the history of all jobs that I've bidded on) that **over 90% of posted contracts never make a hire.** Many of the contracts sit in the "selecting candidate" phase for eternity after they are abandoned by the client. This will vary depending on the type of work the contract is for, but don't expect a stagnating contract to ever get started. | I have worked on elance for years (and odesk too, now they have both merged and elance is already starting to withhold contractor payments for a minimum of 3-5 days, I've heard reports of up to 3 weeks to get paid now), and like you said there are several reasons. Some people just post job ads to see what they will get back, some of the people posting are contractors looking to see what other contractors are bidding, some are people writing blog articles about it, or others are just scammers looking to pump people for information then try to do the project themselves, or have their in-house team do it once they have some info on a solution/approach.
I've had many many clients waste my time getting detailed specs, solutions, etc.. and then never hire me or anyone else for the job. I'm talking insisting on a "phone interview" then keeping me on the phone for hours asking every little detail about the project and how I would handle it.
I've learned to not give out so much information, so it's better now, but I'm getting off track. Your other question was, can you assume after 30 days that the job is dead. Simple answer, NO! I've had people hit me up 3, 6, even a year after I bid the job and end up hiring me and making some good money out of it. However, it is RARE, and maybe only happens once or twice a year to me. And I bid a lot of jobs. A lot.
I have a policy (stated in my profile under payment terms or whatever), that my quotes are only good for 30 days and after that time, a new quote must be obtained before hire. This is because if someone comes back 6 months later and I was short on cash at the time of the bid and only bid at like 30/hr, then 6 months later I'm doing better clocking 6k a week, I'm not interested in chincy 30/hr work anymore, so I point them to the clause in my payment terms to handle that situation. They usually bail, sometimes they are willing to pay more.
IMO, if a job has not contacted you within 1 or 2 weeks, forget about it. I usually withdraw my application. If someone is going to waste my time and not even bother to respond, then I don't want a response, move on to better clients.
Elance does not charge the client a dime. They can post as many free jobs as they want and there is no penalty for not hiring. Another thing that happens is a lot of these guys will try to get you on Skype and move off the platform. Something that I'm sure happens a lot on there. I don't do it because there is only one reason someone wants you to move off platform, so they can burn you.
If someone pays you through Paypal, even if its like 20,000 dollars over the course of a year, at any time, they can call their bank and reverse the charges and Paypal does not protect you. You will have a -20,000 balance on Paypal. It's happened to me more than once, not for that much, but basically any money you get through Paypal is not really yours, ever. They can always take it back, this is what I've been told by Paypal account specialist. So I'd rather have elance do the transaction, as they have never ripped me off (for a payment, they rip me off constantly on fees and other redic stuff).
Anyway, the two have merged now and neither is worth working for. The overseas contractors really threw salt in that game, so for anyone looking for decent wages, it's back to the old 9-5. Though I have been thinking of trying fivverr now that they upped their limit from 5 dollars to 500 dollars a job.
Anyway, kind of all over the place on this... I hope I sort of answered your question. |
1,531,398 | My problem is "how to know which menu item is
clicked in visual studio 2005". i wrote some code using hook for monitoring
WM\_MENUSELECT..it is working fine for notepad,visual c++6.0 applications but
when i use this code for VS-2005 it is not woking(these type of msgs are not
generating when i click menuitem in VS2005)..
is there any other way to achive this...
please help me on this..i am really getting irritating becoz i am struggling
from last one month...
any help is greatly appreciated... | 2009/10/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1531398",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/173530/"
] | Any time you assume anything about how other people's software is implemented, you run the risk that they did something unusual or otherwise contrary to your expectations. There is no perfect solution here.
Having said that, you could try hooking WM\_COMMAND messages instead of WM\_MENUSELECT. That's more likely to be used by alternative toolbar/menu implementations. | WM\_MENUSELECT is a message from a Windows component. The same message is used, whether you're using C, C++, Delphi or any other language. A trivial difference like VC++6 and VC++8 won't matter. XP or Vista could matter, but I'd doubt it.
Now, it's possible that the actual cause of your difference is a different MFC version or something like that, but without code that would be speculating. |
246,278 | Our power meter has two "branches" - one for ground floor and one for upper floor, and on the bill we've got 2 readings, again one for each floor. Also from the street we've got 2 mains cables coming to the meter box. They may or may not be the same phase - how can I tell? This is in New Zealand, typically single-phase 240V power.
The reason is that we are considering solar panels and the single-phase inverters are much cheaper than the 3-phase ones. In fact I don't know if we can actually have a 3-phase inverter with an unbalanced power draw, and with the 3rd phase unused altogether.
The solar people looked at our meter box and they didn't know what to make of it. They suggested to only attach the PV to one of the branches but that kinda makes the investment less efficient as the other floor would get no benefit from the solar panels.
So my idea was to ask an electrician to change our setup to only use 1 mains cable for the whole house, disconnect the other one and then have a clean-cut single phase system where we can use the solar with a single-phase inverter. Does that make sense? | 2022/03/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/246278",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/149723/"
] | Just put a AC volt meter between the two phases. If it reads zero its the same phase, if it reads 480 Volt they are two opposites of a two phase system with a 180 degrees phase angle.
If you get something in the middle, then the voltage you get should be 240\*(1-cos(a) ). Where a is the phase angle. You can then calculate the phase angle with a=acos(1-Vm/Vb), Where Vm is the measured voltage and Vb is the voltage on a socket, so 240 volt theoretically. | Get a multimeter set to AC voltage. Carefully measure the voltage between the two supply lives, trying not to electrocute yourself in the process.
On a 230V supply, two lives on the same phase will show no more than a few volts. Two lives on different phases will have around 400V between them. It's a bit less than twice the supply voltage. |
246,278 | Our power meter has two "branches" - one for ground floor and one for upper floor, and on the bill we've got 2 readings, again one for each floor. Also from the street we've got 2 mains cables coming to the meter box. They may or may not be the same phase - how can I tell? This is in New Zealand, typically single-phase 240V power.
The reason is that we are considering solar panels and the single-phase inverters are much cheaper than the 3-phase ones. In fact I don't know if we can actually have a 3-phase inverter with an unbalanced power draw, and with the 3rd phase unused altogether.
The solar people looked at our meter box and they didn't know what to make of it. They suggested to only attach the PV to one of the branches but that kinda makes the investment less efficient as the other floor would get no benefit from the solar panels.
So my idea was to ask an electrician to change our setup to only use 1 mains cable for the whole house, disconnect the other one and then have a clean-cut single phase system where we can use the solar with a single-phase inverter. Does that make sense? | 2022/03/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/246278",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/149723/"
] | EU/NZ 3-phase distribution
--------------------------
New Zealand uses European style power distribution. Power is distributed as high-voltage 3-phase "delta" (no neutral). At the neighborhood level, there is a transformer which steps this down to 3-phase "wye" (230V from phase to neutral; 400V phase to phase).
Any given house is given neutral and obviously 1 phase... but it may also get 2 or all 3 phases, depending on things like "is it in Germany?"
So when you say "2 phases" what you mean is "2 out of the 3 phases". And that is a perfectly reasonable configuration, especially for dual tenencies (2 meters).
The reason to do that is, it saves wire. Two services on the same phase need 2 separate neutrals. However on different phases, they can share the neutral. And due to the mathematics of 3-phase, no matter how the phases are loaded, neutral current will never exceed phase current. (Even if the 3rd phase is always 0 because it doesn't exist). So the neutral can be the same size as the live wires.
Balance is good
---------------
The power company sorely needs all 3 phases to be balanced. It is inefficient and costly to run the generators with lopsided phase loading. For distribution transformers and wires, imbalanced load means wasting capacity, so larger wires are needed.
However, here's the thing about solar. If the sun is shining at your house, it's probably shining at your neighbor 3 doors down who also has solar. And 12 neighbors sharing your transformer also have solar. And 500 neighbors have solar who share your high voltage feeder. So the laws of large numbers kick in, evenly distributing all these "randomly phased" solar systems onto the high voltage feeders.
So you don't need to worry about it, because it will be lost in the averages. There's no reason to use a 3-phase solar inverter, since you might not even have the 3rd phase. | Get a multimeter set to AC voltage. Carefully measure the voltage between the two supply lives, trying not to electrocute yourself in the process.
On a 230V supply, two lives on the same phase will show no more than a few volts. Two lives on different phases will have around 400V between them. It's a bit less than twice the supply voltage. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Maybe you could combine a git wrapper for editing, etc:
<https://github.com/schacon/ruby-git>
with your own rendering code based on a simple file based storage system.
I'm not so familiar with Ruby though, so can't help much on the ruby rendering side of things.
This comment you make "most of my site will contain advanced dynamic functionality" looks like you are going to need to roll your own solution based on your unique requirements. | For what reason do you want to keep your content into a git repository? What exactly is the problem that makes you hate databases so much? A DBMS is built for fast data reads and writes, whereas git is built for change management. This is an architectural choice with which you might shoot yourself in the foot.
If the problem lies in users that overwrite entries, then you should rather introduce functionality to archive previous versions (or the diff's of them) not overwrite them. For example the rails\_admin gem does that
And even with immediate committing you will not escape the problem that one user opens an entry for editing and keeps it for an hour until he saves it, where at the same time another user does a quick edit in 5 minutes. Here you need to send from the client which revision has he been editing and in the case of conflict, show an interface where the user can compare his revisions with the ones made by the other user. Or if you're advanced then you can do it the google-docs way. enable simultaneous editing. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Your solution might be too confusing later and you may have more headaches later.
I advice this: (1) Use a NoSQL such as MongoDB. (2) Migrate all your data from previous DB. (3) Then put your DB under versioning with. You can, since it's document-based and not SQL.
Mongo has an excellent Gem too, called MongoID <https://github.com/mongoid/mongoid>
This way you can use a CMS which has much bigger community (like Refinery). Further more: your DB backups solved easily becuase you are able to roll back anytime with Git or simply clone your DB sometimes, also you can automatize backups, etc.
HTH | For what reason do you want to keep your content into a git repository? What exactly is the problem that makes you hate databases so much? A DBMS is built for fast data reads and writes, whereas git is built for change management. This is an architectural choice with which you might shoot yourself in the foot.
If the problem lies in users that overwrite entries, then you should rather introduce functionality to archive previous versions (or the diff's of them) not overwrite them. For example the rails\_admin gem does that
And even with immediate committing you will not escape the problem that one user opens an entry for editing and keeps it for an hour until he saves it, where at the same time another user does a quick edit in 5 minutes. Here you need to send from the client which revision has he been editing and in the case of conflict, show an interface where the user can compare his revisions with the ones made by the other user. Or if you're advanced then you can do it the google-docs way. enable simultaneous editing. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Gollum (https://github.com/github/gollum) is a Git-powered wiki written by GitHub in Sinatra. You can both push and pull from command line or use the included web interface to edit content.
Unfortunately it seems like GitHub have some what abandon development/maintenance of it, so it has some rough edges. It's also very basic, so it does not include features such as authentication[1].
I'm gonna use Gollum with gollum-site (https://github.com/dreverri/gollum-site), a static file generator for Gollum, and just use Gollum as the admin backend.
1: A basic solution to authentication can be found at <https://github.com/github/gollum/issues/107#issuecomment-2608061>
---
There is also Regulate, <https://github.com/quickleft/regulate>:
>
> Rails 3 engine that provides a Git backed CMS that allows for an admin to define editable regions in a page view.
>
>
> | For what reason do you want to keep your content into a git repository? What exactly is the problem that makes you hate databases so much? A DBMS is built for fast data reads and writes, whereas git is built for change management. This is an architectural choice with which you might shoot yourself in the foot.
If the problem lies in users that overwrite entries, then you should rather introduce functionality to archive previous versions (or the diff's of them) not overwrite them. For example the rails\_admin gem does that
And even with immediate committing you will not escape the problem that one user opens an entry for editing and keeps it for an hour until he saves it, where at the same time another user does a quick edit in 5 minutes. Here you need to send from the client which revision has he been editing and in the case of conflict, show an interface where the user can compare his revisions with the ones made by the other user. Or if you're advanced then you can do it the google-docs way. enable simultaneous editing. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | I ended up implementing a [micro-CMS called Hardwired](http://hardwiredcms.com) that does an excellent job of staying out of my way.
Give it a try. | For what reason do you want to keep your content into a git repository? What exactly is the problem that makes you hate databases so much? A DBMS is built for fast data reads and writes, whereas git is built for change management. This is an architectural choice with which you might shoot yourself in the foot.
If the problem lies in users that overwrite entries, then you should rather introduce functionality to archive previous versions (or the diff's of them) not overwrite them. For example the rails\_admin gem does that
And even with immediate committing you will not escape the problem that one user opens an entry for editing and keeps it for an hour until he saves it, where at the same time another user does a quick edit in 5 minutes. Here you need to send from the client which revision has he been editing and in the case of conflict, show an interface where the user can compare his revisions with the ones made by the other user. Or if you're advanced then you can do it the google-docs way. enable simultaneous editing. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Your solution might be too confusing later and you may have more headaches later.
I advice this: (1) Use a NoSQL such as MongoDB. (2) Migrate all your data from previous DB. (3) Then put your DB under versioning with. You can, since it's document-based and not SQL.
Mongo has an excellent Gem too, called MongoID <https://github.com/mongoid/mongoid>
This way you can use a CMS which has much bigger community (like Refinery). Further more: your DB backups solved easily becuase you are able to roll back anytime with Git or simply clone your DB sometimes, also you can automatize backups, etc.
HTH | Maybe you could combine a git wrapper for editing, etc:
<https://github.com/schacon/ruby-git>
with your own rendering code based on a simple file based storage system.
I'm not so familiar with Ruby though, so can't help much on the ruby rendering side of things.
This comment you make "most of my site will contain advanced dynamic functionality" looks like you are going to need to roll your own solution based on your unique requirements. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Gollum (https://github.com/github/gollum) is a Git-powered wiki written by GitHub in Sinatra. You can both push and pull from command line or use the included web interface to edit content.
Unfortunately it seems like GitHub have some what abandon development/maintenance of it, so it has some rough edges. It's also very basic, so it does not include features such as authentication[1].
I'm gonna use Gollum with gollum-site (https://github.com/dreverri/gollum-site), a static file generator for Gollum, and just use Gollum as the admin backend.
1: A basic solution to authentication can be found at <https://github.com/github/gollum/issues/107#issuecomment-2608061>
---
There is also Regulate, <https://github.com/quickleft/regulate>:
>
> Rails 3 engine that provides a Git backed CMS that allows for an admin to define editable regions in a page view.
>
>
> | Maybe you could combine a git wrapper for editing, etc:
<https://github.com/schacon/ruby-git>
with your own rendering code based on a simple file based storage system.
I'm not so familiar with Ruby though, so can't help much on the ruby rendering side of things.
This comment you make "most of my site will contain advanced dynamic functionality" looks like you are going to need to roll your own solution based on your unique requirements. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | I ended up implementing a [micro-CMS called Hardwired](http://hardwiredcms.com) that does an excellent job of staying out of my way.
Give it a try. | Maybe you could combine a git wrapper for editing, etc:
<https://github.com/schacon/ruby-git>
with your own rendering code based on a simple file based storage system.
I'm not so familiar with Ruby though, so can't help much on the ruby rendering side of things.
This comment you make "most of my site will contain advanced dynamic functionality" looks like you are going to need to roll your own solution based on your unique requirements. |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Gollum (https://github.com/github/gollum) is a Git-powered wiki written by GitHub in Sinatra. You can both push and pull from command line or use the included web interface to edit content.
Unfortunately it seems like GitHub have some what abandon development/maintenance of it, so it has some rough edges. It's also very basic, so it does not include features such as authentication[1].
I'm gonna use Gollum with gollum-site (https://github.com/dreverri/gollum-site), a static file generator for Gollum, and just use Gollum as the admin backend.
1: A basic solution to authentication can be found at <https://github.com/github/gollum/issues/107#issuecomment-2608061>
---
There is also Regulate, <https://github.com/quickleft/regulate>:
>
> Rails 3 engine that provides a Git backed CMS that allows for an admin to define editable regions in a page view.
>
>
> | Your solution might be too confusing later and you may have more headaches later.
I advice this: (1) Use a NoSQL such as MongoDB. (2) Migrate all your data from previous DB. (3) Then put your DB under versioning with. You can, since it's document-based and not SQL.
Mongo has an excellent Gem too, called MongoID <https://github.com/mongoid/mongoid>
This way you can use a CMS which has much bigger community (like Refinery). Further more: your DB backups solved easily becuase you are able to roll back anytime with Git or simply clone your DB sometimes, also you can automatize backups, etc.
HTH |
5,369,021 | I hope the problem is clear. Is there an alternative way not to get undefined reference error without implementing template functions in header files? Thanks in advance. | 2011/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5369021",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/447896/"
] | Gollum (https://github.com/github/gollum) is a Git-powered wiki written by GitHub in Sinatra. You can both push and pull from command line or use the included web interface to edit content.
Unfortunately it seems like GitHub have some what abandon development/maintenance of it, so it has some rough edges. It's also very basic, so it does not include features such as authentication[1].
I'm gonna use Gollum with gollum-site (https://github.com/dreverri/gollum-site), a static file generator for Gollum, and just use Gollum as the admin backend.
1: A basic solution to authentication can be found at <https://github.com/github/gollum/issues/107#issuecomment-2608061>
---
There is also Regulate, <https://github.com/quickleft/regulate>:
>
> Rails 3 engine that provides a Git backed CMS that allows for an admin to define editable regions in a page view.
>
>
> | I ended up implementing a [micro-CMS called Hardwired](http://hardwiredcms.com) that does an excellent job of staying out of my way.
Give it a try. |
2,443,699 | I created a maven project in eclipse. I uploaded it to my subversion server. Now on my testing server I installed maven and I want to connect it with my svn repository to run test builds on. Not sure how to do this since I have only worked with Maven via the eclipse plug-in. | 2010/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2443699",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38415/"
] | I'm a little confused as to what you're really asking here. If you split your application up into different services running across the network, then data marshalling has to occur somewhere.
Having said that, have you investigated [OSGi](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSGi) ? You can deploy different [bundles](http://www.javaworld.com/javaworld/jw-03-2008/jw-03-osgi1.html) (basically, jar files with additional metadata defining the interfaces) into the same OSGi server, and the server will facilitate communication between these bundles transparently, since everything is running within the same JVM - i.e. you call methods on objects in different bundles as you would normally.
An OSGi server will permit unloading and upgrades of bundles at runtime and applications should run normally (if in a degraded fashion) provided the [OSGi bundle lifecycle](http://www.osgi.org/javadoc/r4v42/org/osgi/framework/Bundle.html) states are respected. | It sounds like your team has a manual QA process and the real issue is automating regression tests so that you can deploy new releases quickly and with confidence. Breaking up the code into separate servers is a workaround for that.
If you're willing to restart the server then one approach might be to compile the code into separate jar files, and deploy a module by dropping in a new jar and restarting. This is largely a matter of structuring your code base so that bad dependencies don't creep in and the calls between jars are made via interfaces that don't change. (Or alternately, use abstract classes so you can add a new method with a default implementation.) Your build system could help by making sure that separately deployed modules can only depend on common interfaces and anything else is a compile error. But note that your compiler isn't going to help you detect incompatibilities when you're swapping in jars that you didn't compile against, so I'm not sure this really avoids having a good QA process.
If you want to deploy new code without restarting the JVM then OSGI is the standard way to do that. (But one that I know little about.) |
14,281 | Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ? When does one realize, one is ignorant ?
Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/14281",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5016/"
] | everyone who is subject to samsara or the round of rebirths is ignorant, because
>
> **From ignorance as a requisite condition** come fabrications.
>
> From fabrications as a requisite condition comes consciousness.
>
> From consciousness as a requisite condition comes name-&-form.
> From name-&-form as a requisite condition come the six sense media.
>
> From the six sense media as a requisite condition comes contact.
>
> Fromc ontact as a requisite condition comes feeling.
>
> From feeling as a requisite condition comes craving.
>
> From craving as a requisite condition comes clinging.
>
> From clinging as a requisite condition comes becoming.
>
> From becoming as a requisite condition comes birth.
>
> From birth as a requisite condition, then aging & death, sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair come into play.
>
>
>
[Paticcasamuppadavibhanga sutta ( SN 12.2)](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn12/sn12.002.than.html)
i think ignorance covers nescience of the phenomenon of suffering and the way of escape from it
>
> ***When does one realize, one is ignorant ?***
>
>
>
perhaps once one realizes that they suffer while having no clue how to avoid that
>
> ***Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?***
>
>
>
i find this an interesting question, my guess is 'NO', but i'm not sure i can explain why i think so and can't remember suttas which explain this point.
that's as far as awakening is concerned
as for nibbana i'm a bit more certain, just as suffering is effected by a chain of causes, quoted above, so is nibbana, for example
>
> What is impermanent is suffering. What is suffering is nonself. What
> is nonself should be seen as it really is with correct wisdom thus:
> ‘This is not mine, this I am not, this is not my self.’
>
> When one sees this thus as it really is with correct wisdom, the mind becomes dispassionate and is liberated from the taints by nonclinging.
>
> By being liberated, it is steady;
>
> by being steady, it is content;
>
> by being content, he is not agitated.
>
> Being unagitated, he personally attains Nibbāna.
>
>
>
[Anicca sutta (SN 22.45)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.45)
an aspirant needs to go through a series of stages of mind development to arrive at that destination and those cannot be bypassed
the first step in curing an illness is its acknowledgement | >
> Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?
>
>
>
This is a very big epistemological question.
Ignorance is the state of being unaware, or uninformed.
Enlightenment is the state of being informed.
Knowing ignorance or knowing nothing of ignorance are posited opposites of non-existent states. Probably the answer is no.
However; take the Rumsfeldian view of knowledge - there are known knowns, and known unknowns. We know that we know things, and we know there are things we don't know - these are the states of knowledge everyone understands. There could also be unknown knowns and unknown unknowns. I have yet to imagine a scenario for unknown unknowns - that's like proving the existence of a negative / non-existent thing. Perhaps unknown unknown knowns.... ugh.
Stay with me- for the case of unknown knowns - there may be things we would know if we were made aware of the possibility they could be known. A case that comes to mind is say you have knowledge in one science that people in another field of science don't realize exists. Phlogiston perhaps or the ether. All I need to do is tell you the knowledge you are seeking exists in another field of science. I don't say where and I don't say what.
Now you are in a state of knowing you are ignorant about that knowledge, and you may become enlightened. |
14,281 | Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ? When does one realize, one is ignorant ?
Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/14281",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5016/"
] | everyone who is subject to samsara or the round of rebirths is ignorant, because
>
> **From ignorance as a requisite condition** come fabrications.
>
> From fabrications as a requisite condition comes consciousness.
>
> From consciousness as a requisite condition comes name-&-form.
> From name-&-form as a requisite condition come the six sense media.
>
> From the six sense media as a requisite condition comes contact.
>
> Fromc ontact as a requisite condition comes feeling.
>
> From feeling as a requisite condition comes craving.
>
> From craving as a requisite condition comes clinging.
>
> From clinging as a requisite condition comes becoming.
>
> From becoming as a requisite condition comes birth.
>
> From birth as a requisite condition, then aging & death, sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair come into play.
>
>
>
[Paticcasamuppadavibhanga sutta ( SN 12.2)](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn12/sn12.002.than.html)
i think ignorance covers nescience of the phenomenon of suffering and the way of escape from it
>
> ***When does one realize, one is ignorant ?***
>
>
>
perhaps once one realizes that they suffer while having no clue how to avoid that
>
> ***Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?***
>
>
>
i find this an interesting question, my guess is 'NO', but i'm not sure i can explain why i think so and can't remember suttas which explain this point.
that's as far as awakening is concerned
as for nibbana i'm a bit more certain, just as suffering is effected by a chain of causes, quoted above, so is nibbana, for example
>
> What is impermanent is suffering. What is suffering is nonself. What
> is nonself should be seen as it really is with correct wisdom thus:
> ‘This is not mine, this I am not, this is not my self.’
>
> When one sees this thus as it really is with correct wisdom, the mind becomes dispassionate and is liberated from the taints by nonclinging.
>
> By being liberated, it is steady;
>
> by being steady, it is content;
>
> by being content, he is not agitated.
>
> Being unagitated, he personally attains Nibbāna.
>
>
>
[Anicca sutta (SN 22.45)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.45)
an aspirant needs to go through a series of stages of mind development to arrive at that destination and those cannot be bypassed
the first step in curing an illness is its acknowledgement | **Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism?**
I think that asking "who?" can get complicated because of *anatta*.
And there are different forms or schools of Buddhism, which so far as I know may have slightly understandings or definitions of ignorance and enlightenment etc.
Still, if you look at the [four stages of enlightenment](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four_stages_of_enlightenment#The_four_stages_of_attainment) in Theravada Buddhism, or look at the [Sutta Pitaka's list of ten fetters](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fetter_(Buddhism)#Sutta_Pitaka.27s_list_of_ten_fetters), the "fetter" of "ignorance" is eradicated at the fourth stage: i.e. that of Arahant, a fully awakened person.
I think that implies that anyone but an Arahant may be subject to ignorance (isn't fully knowledgeable).
---
**What does the term ignorance cover? When does one realize, one is ignorant?**
The Pali word for "ignorant" is *avijjā*.
That word starts with the prefix "*a*-" which means "without" (that prefix has the same meaning in Greek and in some English words, e.g. "atheist", "agnostic", "anhydrous", etc.).
Many Pali words used in Buddhism are like that (i.e. beginning with "*a*-") and IMO that sense is lost when it's translated into English.
Look at the opening line of the [chant of metta](http://www.buddhanet.net/chant-metta.htm) for example:
>
> *Aham avero homi*
>
> May I be free from enmity and danger
>
>
>
A literal translation is ...
* *Aham* -- I (first person singular)
* *[avero](http://dsalsrv02.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.3:1:2327.pali)* -- if *vera* means "hatred, revenge, hostile action", so *avera* means "absence of enmity, friendliness"
* *homi* -- I should be (first person singular imperative of the verb 'to be')
... "I should be without-emnity".
I like to think that's clearer, a translation closer to what the original actually said.
The English word is often phrased as if the noun is a something (e.g. "freedom" or "ignorance") whereas the Pali word is often phrased as a not-something (e.g. "not-emnity" or "not-knowledge").
So anyway, when you ask, "what is ignorance?", then the answer is, "it's not-knowledge"; so the next question then is presumably, "what is 'knowledge'?"
If you ask "what is knowledge?", then you get [an answer like Thiago's](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14286/254) which talks about 'Right View'.
There are other types of knowledge (maybe called 'higher knowledge') too, e.g. as described in the [Sekha-patipada Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.053.than.html):
>
> he recollects his manifold past lives ... he sees beings passing away & re-appearing ... he enters & remains in the fermentation-free awareness-release & discernment-release
>
>
>
---
>
> **Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?**
>
>
>
The definition of ignorance as a "lack of knowledge" might suggest not -- even if a being is (at least temporarily) happy or at peace or humble, maybe that wouldn't be called "enlightened" or "becoming enlightened".
I'm thinking of [Phil's snake](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14319/254) as an example.
Not from the Theravada tradition, there is a famous koan, called "Joshu's Dog". Maybe it's the *potential* to be enlightened that is what they call 'Buddha-nature'. |
14,281 | Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ? When does one realize, one is ignorant ?
Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/14281",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5016/"
] | *"**Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ?**"*
In the Sammaditthi Sutta: The Discourse on Right View:
>
> "And what is ignorance, what is the origin of ignorance, what is the cessation of ignorance, what is the way leading to the cessation of ignorance?
>
>
> Not knowing about dukkha, not knowing about the origin of dukkha, not knowing about the cessation of dukkha, not knowing about the way leading to the cessation of dukkha — this is called ignorance.
>
>
>
*"**When does one realize, one is ignorant ?**"*
I guess, when one realizes one does not understand / is unskillful in the above.
*"**Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?**"*
As far as enlightenment is understood as nirvana (which is understood as cessation of dukkha), and ignorance is understood as the above, no. That would be the same as asking if someone who knows nothing of arithmetic to be able to sum numbers: his sum would denounce the very knowledge of arithmetic.
In the same way, someone skillful and wise on origin and cessation of dukkha, someone who put an end on dukkha necessarily is someone who is not an ignorant on the origin and cessation of dukkha. | >
> Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?
>
>
>
This is a very big epistemological question.
Ignorance is the state of being unaware, or uninformed.
Enlightenment is the state of being informed.
Knowing ignorance or knowing nothing of ignorance are posited opposites of non-existent states. Probably the answer is no.
However; take the Rumsfeldian view of knowledge - there are known knowns, and known unknowns. We know that we know things, and we know there are things we don't know - these are the states of knowledge everyone understands. There could also be unknown knowns and unknown unknowns. I have yet to imagine a scenario for unknown unknowns - that's like proving the existence of a negative / non-existent thing. Perhaps unknown unknown knowns.... ugh.
Stay with me- for the case of unknown knowns - there may be things we would know if we were made aware of the possibility they could be known. A case that comes to mind is say you have knowledge in one science that people in another field of science don't realize exists. Phlogiston perhaps or the ether. All I need to do is tell you the knowledge you are seeking exists in another field of science. I don't say where and I don't say what.
Now you are in a state of knowing you are ignorant about that knowledge, and you may become enlightened. |
14,281 | Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ? When does one realize, one is ignorant ?
Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/14281",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5016/"
] | *"**Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ?**"*
In the Sammaditthi Sutta: The Discourse on Right View:
>
> "And what is ignorance, what is the origin of ignorance, what is the cessation of ignorance, what is the way leading to the cessation of ignorance?
>
>
> Not knowing about dukkha, not knowing about the origin of dukkha, not knowing about the cessation of dukkha, not knowing about the way leading to the cessation of dukkha — this is called ignorance.
>
>
>
*"**When does one realize, one is ignorant ?**"*
I guess, when one realizes one does not understand / is unskillful in the above.
*"**Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?**"*
As far as enlightenment is understood as nirvana (which is understood as cessation of dukkha), and ignorance is understood as the above, no. That would be the same as asking if someone who knows nothing of arithmetic to be able to sum numbers: his sum would denounce the very knowledge of arithmetic.
In the same way, someone skillful and wise on origin and cessation of dukkha, someone who put an end on dukkha necessarily is someone who is not an ignorant on the origin and cessation of dukkha. | **Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism?**
I think that asking "who?" can get complicated because of *anatta*.
And there are different forms or schools of Buddhism, which so far as I know may have slightly understandings or definitions of ignorance and enlightenment etc.
Still, if you look at the [four stages of enlightenment](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four_stages_of_enlightenment#The_four_stages_of_attainment) in Theravada Buddhism, or look at the [Sutta Pitaka's list of ten fetters](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fetter_(Buddhism)#Sutta_Pitaka.27s_list_of_ten_fetters), the "fetter" of "ignorance" is eradicated at the fourth stage: i.e. that of Arahant, a fully awakened person.
I think that implies that anyone but an Arahant may be subject to ignorance (isn't fully knowledgeable).
---
**What does the term ignorance cover? When does one realize, one is ignorant?**
The Pali word for "ignorant" is *avijjā*.
That word starts with the prefix "*a*-" which means "without" (that prefix has the same meaning in Greek and in some English words, e.g. "atheist", "agnostic", "anhydrous", etc.).
Many Pali words used in Buddhism are like that (i.e. beginning with "*a*-") and IMO that sense is lost when it's translated into English.
Look at the opening line of the [chant of metta](http://www.buddhanet.net/chant-metta.htm) for example:
>
> *Aham avero homi*
>
> May I be free from enmity and danger
>
>
>
A literal translation is ...
* *Aham* -- I (first person singular)
* *[avero](http://dsalsrv02.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.3:1:2327.pali)* -- if *vera* means "hatred, revenge, hostile action", so *avera* means "absence of enmity, friendliness"
* *homi* -- I should be (first person singular imperative of the verb 'to be')
... "I should be without-emnity".
I like to think that's clearer, a translation closer to what the original actually said.
The English word is often phrased as if the noun is a something (e.g. "freedom" or "ignorance") whereas the Pali word is often phrased as a not-something (e.g. "not-emnity" or "not-knowledge").
So anyway, when you ask, "what is ignorance?", then the answer is, "it's not-knowledge"; so the next question then is presumably, "what is 'knowledge'?"
If you ask "what is knowledge?", then you get [an answer like Thiago's](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14286/254) which talks about 'Right View'.
There are other types of knowledge (maybe called 'higher knowledge') too, e.g. as described in the [Sekha-patipada Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.053.than.html):
>
> he recollects his manifold past lives ... he sees beings passing away & re-appearing ... he enters & remains in the fermentation-free awareness-release & discernment-release
>
>
>
---
>
> **Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?**
>
>
>
The definition of ignorance as a "lack of knowledge" might suggest not -- even if a being is (at least temporarily) happy or at peace or humble, maybe that wouldn't be called "enlightened" or "becoming enlightened".
I'm thinking of [Phil's snake](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14319/254) as an example.
Not from the Theravada tradition, there is a famous koan, called "Joshu's Dog". Maybe it's the *potential* to be enlightened that is what they call 'Buddha-nature'. |
14,281 | Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism? What does the term ignorance cover ? When does one realize, one is ignorant ?
Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/14281",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5016/"
] | **Who is considered to be ignorant according to Buddhism?**
I think that asking "who?" can get complicated because of *anatta*.
And there are different forms or schools of Buddhism, which so far as I know may have slightly understandings or definitions of ignorance and enlightenment etc.
Still, if you look at the [four stages of enlightenment](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four_stages_of_enlightenment#The_four_stages_of_attainment) in Theravada Buddhism, or look at the [Sutta Pitaka's list of ten fetters](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fetter_(Buddhism)#Sutta_Pitaka.27s_list_of_ten_fetters), the "fetter" of "ignorance" is eradicated at the fourth stage: i.e. that of Arahant, a fully awakened person.
I think that implies that anyone but an Arahant may be subject to ignorance (isn't fully knowledgeable).
---
**What does the term ignorance cover? When does one realize, one is ignorant?**
The Pali word for "ignorant" is *avijjā*.
That word starts with the prefix "*a*-" which means "without" (that prefix has the same meaning in Greek and in some English words, e.g. "atheist", "agnostic", "anhydrous", etc.).
Many Pali words used in Buddhism are like that (i.e. beginning with "*a*-") and IMO that sense is lost when it's translated into English.
Look at the opening line of the [chant of metta](http://www.buddhanet.net/chant-metta.htm) for example:
>
> *Aham avero homi*
>
> May I be free from enmity and danger
>
>
>
A literal translation is ...
* *Aham* -- I (first person singular)
* *[avero](http://dsalsrv02.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.3:1:2327.pali)* -- if *vera* means "hatred, revenge, hostile action", so *avera* means "absence of enmity, friendliness"
* *homi* -- I should be (first person singular imperative of the verb 'to be')
... "I should be without-emnity".
I like to think that's clearer, a translation closer to what the original actually said.
The English word is often phrased as if the noun is a something (e.g. "freedom" or "ignorance") whereas the Pali word is often phrased as a not-something (e.g. "not-emnity" or "not-knowledge").
So anyway, when you ask, "what is ignorance?", then the answer is, "it's not-knowledge"; so the next question then is presumably, "what is 'knowledge'?"
If you ask "what is knowledge?", then you get [an answer like Thiago's](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14286/254) which talks about 'Right View'.
There are other types of knowledge (maybe called 'higher knowledge') too, e.g. as described in the [Sekha-patipada Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.053.than.html):
>
> he recollects his manifold past lives ... he sees beings passing away & re-appearing ... he enters & remains in the fermentation-free awareness-release & discernment-release
>
>
>
---
>
> **Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?**
>
>
>
The definition of ignorance as a "lack of knowledge" might suggest not -- even if a being is (at least temporarily) happy or at peace or humble, maybe that wouldn't be called "enlightened" or "becoming enlightened".
I'm thinking of [Phil's snake](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/14319/254) as an example.
Not from the Theravada tradition, there is a famous koan, called "Joshu's Dog". Maybe it's the *potential* to be enlightened that is what they call 'Buddha-nature'. | >
> Can one know nothing of ignorance and still become enlightened?
>
>
>
This is a very big epistemological question.
Ignorance is the state of being unaware, or uninformed.
Enlightenment is the state of being informed.
Knowing ignorance or knowing nothing of ignorance are posited opposites of non-existent states. Probably the answer is no.
However; take the Rumsfeldian view of knowledge - there are known knowns, and known unknowns. We know that we know things, and we know there are things we don't know - these are the states of knowledge everyone understands. There could also be unknown knowns and unknown unknowns. I have yet to imagine a scenario for unknown unknowns - that's like proving the existence of a negative / non-existent thing. Perhaps unknown unknown knowns.... ugh.
Stay with me- for the case of unknown knowns - there may be things we would know if we were made aware of the possibility they could be known. A case that comes to mind is say you have knowledge in one science that people in another field of science don't realize exists. Phlogiston perhaps or the ether. All I need to do is tell you the knowledge you are seeking exists in another field of science. I don't say where and I don't say what.
Now you are in a state of knowing you are ignorant about that knowledge, and you may become enlightened. |
49,949,142 | I`m trying to adjust the height of two tableviews embedded in a single viewController. .
[This is how it is currently displayed](https://i.stack.imgur.com/R3YSM.png)
[Current constraints](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TzmD4.png)
If possible, I want to adjust the height of each table to avoid the scrolling effect of the table (it is not possible when the total content of the tables is higher than the screen, in that case the height of each table must be the same )
I have manually changed the constraints to show you what behavior I want
[Expected behavior 1](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ACWwu.png)
[Expected behavior 2](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kXWRz.png)
I have no idea what constraints I have to modify and what part has to be programmatically | 2018/04/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49949142",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4722957/"
] | Here is a scenario:
1. Mapping Data to table.
2. Get tableview's content size
3. Set the constraint = height of the content size
4. Update constraint layout.
In your case, i would like to recommend to use 1 table view with 2 sections.
Hope this help. | The best solution would be not using tableView for the first section as its not a complicated content to be displayed on tableView. Even if you want to use tableView, try this.
Take height constraint of the top tableView. Take outlet of the height constraint in your controller. Then just after you are reloading the tableView, assign the contentSize.height to the constraint and call self.view.layoutIfNeeded(). This will change the height of the tableView to be same as content.
You can do same with bottom tableView. |
2,732 | Hace meses que estamos golpeando los límites del off-topic para ver si son pared maestra o más bien tabique.
Empezamos con lo de [Juntemos en respuestas wiki las respuestas cortas específicas de regiones / Let's use community wiki to summarize set of short region specific answers](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2483/1674), que venía a abordar el conflicto de la política de que [¿Qué tipo de preguntas puedo hacer aquí?](https://spanish.stackexchange.com/help/on-topic):
>
> Pero por favor, no preguntes sobre los siguientes asuntos. Están fuera del ámbito de este sitio.
>
>
> * ...
> * Preguntas sobre "listas", donde cada respuesta es igualmente válida
> * Preguntas buscando recursos de aprendizaje
>
>
>
Es decir, nos hemos dado cuenta de que hay preguntas que indudablemente tendrán respuestas igualmente válidas pues dependen de la región, por lo que no se puede determinar cuál es la buena, sino más bien incorporarlas en una respuesta única tipo wiki de comunidad.
Esto nos hace abrir la primera pregunta: ¿debemos aceptar preguntas cuyas respuestas sean del tipo lista? ¿Bajo qué condiciones? ¿Deberíamos circunscribirlo a etiquetas determinadas?
---
Pasado el tiempo, y relacionado con lo de arriba en cuanto a preguntas de listas, [empezamos a observar](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/a/2710/1674) que la pregunta [Resources for learning Spanish](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2514/1674) podría bien moverse al sitio principal para ejercer de pregunta canónica contra la que marcar como duplicadas las preguntas que consulten por recursos de aprendizaje, algo que más arriba hemos visto que también es [una de los motivos de cierre propios del sitio](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/a/2701/1674).
(También podemos dejar este tema para más adelante, y solamente apuntarlo para que se aborde en otra pregunta.)
---
Siguió el tiempo y el clímax (con cariño) vino con la pregunta [Una vez al año no hace daño: propuesta para permitir preguntas off-topic](https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2725/1674) en la que se planteaba la posibilidad de hacer un día en el que valieran preguntas en el límite exterior del off-topic actual (es decir, actualmente consideradas como tal). Se comentó sobre preguntas del tipo opinión o futuribles (sobre normas, posibles evoluciones, reformas, etc) y tuvo varias posiciones a favor de ello.
---
Con todo, esto es solamente un intento de recopilar las iniciativas que han ido surgiendo por aquí para, con ello, abrir el debate y preguntaros a todos: ¿cuáles de las limitaciones por *off-topic* actualmente vigentes os parecen obsoletas? ¿Cuáles y bajo qué condiciones nosotros, como comunidad, podemos aceptar cambiar, manteniendo siempre el firme propósito de crear un sitio sano, útil y lo más riguroso posible?
¡Abran juego, señores! | 2017/11/16 | [
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2732",
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/users/1674/"
] | Hace ya tiempo que las preguntas con respuestas de tipo lista se admiten en el sitio, con la única particularidad de que el mismo que pregunta debe abrir una respuesta en modo *community wiki* para que la gente pueda ir aglutinando ahí todas las respuestas posibles.
Recuerdo como ejemplo la primera pregunta que hice (inadvertidamente) de este tipo: *[Colección de expresiones usadas para decir "faltar a clase"](https://spanish.stackexchange.com/q/17020/12637)*. En aquel momento la pregunta no se cerró, pero tú mismo me avisaste de que contravenía las normas del sitio y procedí a crear la respuesta CW antes de llegaran las primeras respuestas de los usuarios, que serían todas igualmente válidas. Desde entonces se han formulado muchas otras preguntas similares, y todas han seguido el mismo camino.
No considero pues que estas preguntas sean *off-topic*, porque si hacemos estas preguntas es por el simple hecho de que nuestro idioma permite este tipo de preguntas (dada la cantidad de variedades regionales que tenemos), y no debemos ignorar este hecho ni convertirlo en algo *off-topic*.
Una idea que se me ocurre es tener tres secciones:
* Sección *off-topic*: en esta sección debemos incluir los tipos de preguntas que no queremos hacer bajo ningún concepto.
* Sección *preguntas peculiares* (se admiten sugerencias para cambiar el nombre de la sección): añadimos aquí las preguntas que se pueden hacer pero que necesitan hacerse de una forma concreta. Por ejemplo, las preguntas del TG necesitan ser automáticamente convertidas a CW, y las preguntas con respuestas de tipo lista necesitan que el autor de la pregunta cree una respuesta en modo CW donde ir incorporando respuestas parciales.
* Sección *preguntas estándar*: todo el resto de preguntas posibles.
---
Con respecto a las preguntas acerca de recursos: veo bien mover la pregunta sobre recursos para aprender español al sitio principal, marcarla como pregunta canónica, y las preguntas similares marcarlas como duplicadas en vez de cerrarlas. Así abrimos la posibilidad de preguntar por otro tipo de recursos más específicos, como "¿qué diccionarios hay que se especialicen en términos científicos?". ¿Qué haríamos con estas preguntas? ¿Marcarlas como duplicadas y añadir una nueva sección en la pregunta canónica? ¿O permitir que se desarrollen por su cuenta?
Lo único malo que le veo a esto es que ya no podríamos marcarla como *featured* y dejaría de aparecer en el cuadro a la derecha, donde creo que tiene buena visibilidad.
---
Por último, también me parecería correcto relajar (o incluso eliminar) las restricción sobre las preguntas que se resuelvan con una simple búsqueda al diccionario. Igual que alguien puede no conocer el recurso del [IATE](http://iate.europa.eu), un principiante de español puede que no sepa que existe la RAE y que tiene un diccionario en línea. Por tanto, podría preguntar qué significa una palabra que igual para nosotros es fácil pero para él no lo es. En vez de borrarle la pregunta, se le explica lo que significa y se le redirige a la pregunta de recursos para aprender español, o incluso directamente al propio diccionario.
Lo normal es que en cuanto un usuario vea que tiene el recurso a su alcance deje de hacer preguntas de ese tipo, dado que él mismo las considerará triviales. El único problema es que llegue un *trol* y empiece a hacer preguntas de este tipo constantemente. Ya queda a elección de cada uno responderlas o no. Quién sabe, igual así animamos a la gente con poca reputación a responder si ve que son preguntas más asequibles, y puede que así fomentemos la participación. | Me gustaría una forma de definir si las preguntas o respuestas van dirigidas hacia hispanoamericanos o ibéricos.
He visto la reacción ante mis respuestas e indagando me di cuenta que algunos términos que he utilizado no son ni remotamente utilzados en España. Sin embargo, la definición es la misma.
O, en muchas otras ocasiones, las preguntas se ven afectadas por regionalismos, modismos y opiniones y no tienen una respuesta única.
Obviamente para algunos, la mitad de las respuestas resultan perfectas y para otros confusas.
El español es un idioma oficial en 20 paises a través de tres continentes, y aunque es una regla de Stack Overflow, la verdad encuentro de extremo mal gusto los puntos negativos sin una justificación.
Una comunidad no se puede enriquecer únicamente diciendo que algo está mal sin dar razones. |
29,175 | Is it safe to store bicycle tires near electric heaters? I'm wondering if the heat will degrade the rubber somehow.
More specifically, I'd like to store my bike near the electric baseboard heaters in our apartment. | 2015/02/26 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/29175",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/13106/"
] | It depends on a lot of hows including (but not limited to) close, hot, long, and manufactured.
Most well manufactured tires that are mounted and aired up will mostly suffer from air loss. As the tire and tube heats up, the pressure rises and the tendency to leak a bit of pressure over time will be exaggerated. Tubeless setups utilizing juice may see that juice evaporate/dissipate quicker. Tire/tube setups that were recently inflated to max pressures in much colder environments may actually blow out (happened one time when I left a wheel in front of a sunny window).
If you are talking about storing your bike along side a baseboard heater or similar, you are probably going to be ok short of actually leaning the tires directly against the heat source. | Electric baseboard heaters are entirely resistive heat, so there should be no problem assuming the temperature isn't extreme.
What becomes a problem is if you store the wheels near a DC electric motor that uses brushes. These produce a small amount of ozone, which contributes to the premature destruction of tire rubber. Most AC motors are brushless, so are fine.
However, you should know that some air purifiers work by producing ozone. In addition, some office equipment such as older photocopiers also have DC motors that produce a lot of ozone. These have mostly been phased out because of health concerns but are responsible for the characteristic smell of copy machines. |
100,064 | I am in need of some help with a project. I am trying to build a circuit that will turn on three LEDs randomly on a 1-5second cycle. I have the basic when it comes to electronics, but get stuck on the random part. I have started with a 555. | 2014/02/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/100064",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/37338/"
] | Yes, Hall effect sensors sense the magnetic field caused by current, and can therefore measure absolute current. A current transformer can only sense current down to some minimum frequency below which gain falls off rapidly. A current transformer can't sense a fixed current.
If you are measuring current of something that is inherently AC, like the power line, then a current transformer can be appropriate. If you really need to sense DC current, then you can't use a current transformer and a Hall effect sensor may be appropriate. Keep in mind that a Hall sensor requires separate power to operate.
The other major way to sense current is by using a sense resistor. The resulting voltage is not isolated, so that may need to be dealt with. In the case of a sense resistor, it is often convenient to put some detection and processing circuitry together with the sensor. That can the convert the result to digital and send the digital information over some isolation barrier, like a opto-coupler. | There is a way to detect DC current with a transformer - It is called a flux gate or zero flux DC current transformer. The technique was written about in 1901 in an IEEE paper, was realized in an HP 428B milliammeter from the 1950s or 1960s and used in other applications today.
Essentially, toroidal cores with equal and opposite windings are excited by a sinusoidal waveform. This produces zero net flux in a winding common to both cores - the cores should be matched orthogonal cores. If a DC current flows in a wire through the center of the cores, it produces a net flux as it subtracts from one of the cores flux (the other core is saturated further). The common winding then indicates a net flux which can be bucked with a second common winding current which is proportional to the net flux/current in the sense winding. A control loop is used to close the loop and drive the net flux to zero. Pretty cool stuff. I am surprised it is not used more often and suspect it is easier/cheaper to use hall effect sensors. |
32,604 | I noticed that there is sentence construct that starts with an adjective, something like this:
>
> Ready to race, John started the car.
>
>
> John, ready to race, started the car.
>
>
>
I looked at some resources [here](http://www.chompchomp.com/terms/relativeclause.htm) and noticed that it's neither a relative clause (which should have a relative pronoun) nor an adjective phrase.
What is that structure, if I'm correct that it's indeed grammatical, called? | 2014/09/01 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/32604",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/8612/"
] | >
> 1) *Ready to race,* John started the car.
>
>
> 2) John, *ready to race,* started the car.
>
>
>
The expression *"ready to race"* is an **adjective phrase.** It is functioning as a **predicative adjunct,** and its predicand is the noun "John".
Consider:
* John is *[ready to race].*
* John is *[ready].*
* John is *[tall].*
The above three examples are copular clauses, where the expression in brackets is the *predicative complement*, and the predicand is the subject "John".
In your two original examples, "John" has the property "ready to race" ascribed to it.
NOTE: The terminology in this post is supposedly consistent with that used in the 2002 reference grammar by Huddleston and Pullum et al., *The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language* (CGEL). Related pages: 262-3 ([30.ii] *"[Angry at this deception,] Kim stormed out of the room"*), 529-31, 541, 545-6 ([29]). | The problem is where you find it in traditional grammars. Most likely in the chapter participle constructions. There are two possibilities to derive the above construction:
1 John was ready to race and started the car.
2 As John was ready to race he started the car.
In both cases you can shorten the first part of the two sentences by using a participle construction:
3 Being ready to race John started the car.
This is a stylistic device to give more variety to sentence structures.
If the participle construction contains "being" it is mostly dropped
as "being" has almost no meaning or is self-evident.
Any sentence or subordinate clause can be shortened and changed into a participle construction anď added to another sentence. |
502,407 | This problem is a bit complex, but i will try to explain as best possible.
I am hosted on Bluehots, and I have a Dedicated ip address with them. they allow hosting multiple domains, so i have multiple hosted in one account.
The way they are setup is that domain1.com is the primary domain and is the root .../public\_html/ all other domains... domain2.com, domain3.com etc. are hosted within the root i.e. /public\_html/domain2/ and /public\_html/domain3/ etc.
I can even access the content on domain2.com by going to domain1.com/domain2/ (which i redirect to domain2.com with .htaccess.
Whithout babbling on, here is the problem:
I want to install a ssl certificate to make domain1.com more secure, and since i have a dedicated ip it should be possible. But i just realized that i have other domains also hosted within my account so I foresee a problem. I am just not sure if i can still install a SSL cert or not.
Any ideas? | 2013/04/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/502407",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/171056/"
] | [X.509](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X.509) certificates don't rely on the IP address but on the domain name. As long as your domain name can be found as common name or alternative name, you are fine.
There was a time when having multiple SSL virtual hosts behind one IP address was not possible but now most of the Web ecosystem supports [server name identification](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Server_Name_Indication). | I don't see why not.
I've got a server with one IP address, and a half-dozen different sites, presenting on different hostnames, most with a different SSL certificate.
As long as your host allow you to specify different settings for each VirtualHost, I don't see why it'd be a problem, unless one of us is missing a massive detail from the facts |
224,460 | What's the easiest way to checkout a file from our TFS with MSBUILD.
From what I can see it's to shell out to TF.EXE and manually call the checkout command. Is there really no built in command?! | 2008/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/224460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6084/"
] | There really is no built in command. Even worse, the tf checkout command only accepts a single filespec.
The recently released [MSBuildExtensionPack](http://www.codeplex.com/MSBuildExtensionPack) has some msbuild commands for TFS, but no perf gain there. Under the hood, they shell out to tf.exe | the 'itemspec' can be a list of space-delimited items and can use wildcards. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | In Brazil "pure" ethanol (94% ethanol, 6% water) is sold at every gas station, and pretty much every new car sold can run with any proportion gasoline-ethanol mixture (they call it "flex" engines).
So, the infrastructure for a fuel that can power a combustion engine for a heavier than air aircraft does exists independently from oil since the 1970's.
The history would certainly be different, and possibly there would not be the political-economical incentives for airplanes to be what they are today, but it is quite possible they would be invented and be used for local travel in places where sugarcane is viable. | River-side mill towns existed before electricity could be used to export energy.
>
> Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use?
>
>
>
sailplanes, definately.
Oowered craft, maybe for military applications, and use by the very rich. They would probably be ethanol fueled, it's hard to speculate on which type of engine they would use. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ### We were flying for [hundreds of years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines) before putting an engine on planes:
* We had man-carrying kites going back to possibly the 7th century.
* 1783 we had manned hydrogen balloon flight.
* First heavier than air craft (no human on board) was 1655 apparently ([spring powered ormithopter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines#The_17th_and_18th_centuries)).
* In 1853, British engineer George Cayley built the world's first real glider.
With no petrol, the wright brothers plane as built couldn't exist (they used gasoline), but we had batteries and electric motors at this point in history, they have a lower power to weight ratio, but that first flight could've occurred electrically in the same period.
Long distance air travel would be harder, batteries are heavier than the same amount of fuel, but lacking fossil fuels, we can still refine ethanol from biomass. There are [ethanol powered aircraft](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embraer_EMB_202_Ipanema), which are actually cheaper to run than gasoline ones. That linked one is commonly used for crop dusting, and can be powered by ethanol generated free from waste parts of crops. There's no reason that can't scale up to a small airliner-sized aircraft. | Piston and jet powered flight could still be developed without reliance on fossil fuels. We use fossil fuels for gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel because it's relatively easy to prepare from the oil we extract from the ground, the fuels are energy-dense and the engines are power-dense. However, both piston and jet engines can run on a range of fuels that could be synthesized or refined from sources other than petroleum. Jet fuel can be refined from vegetable oil. For piston-powered flight, you need something that behaves pretty much like gasoline in terms of energy density, combustibility, and storability - a blend of mostly alkanes in the right range (heptane, octane). It is possible (not necessarily easy or efficient) to synthesize them from hydrocarbon sources - vegetable oils and/or other plant matter. If you have cheap and abundant nuclear power, that can help to make synthesis of aviation fuels economic.
It would be far more plausible to see aircraft powered by liquid fueled piston or jet engines than compact nuclear reactors, even if the fuels have to be synthesized because nuclear power production scales up well, but doesn't scale down well, and mobile reactors bring safety issues - collisions/crashes can trigger dangerous leaks of radioactive materials. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ***Lighter than air craft:***
While the modern combustion-powered aircraft would be a hard sell, there were [steam-powered airships](https://www.space.com/16623-first-powered-airship.html#:%7E:text=Henri%20Giffard%27s%20steam%2Dpowered%20airship%20flew%20in%201852.&text=In%201784%2C%20General%20Jean%20Baptiste,Meusnier%27s%20design%20was%20never%20built.) built long before the Wright brothers, and hand-cranked *designs* existed before that. After that, electrically-powered airships were constructed like the [*La France*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_France_(airship)).
A steam powered model could certainly have been operational, utilizing charcoal or distilled volatiles, and in fact such designs predated ones using fossil fuels. Only the relative efficiency of fossil fuels caused them to predominate. In fact, the [diesel engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diesel_engine) invented by Rudolf Diesel initially ran on coal dust (easily a sub with charcoal) or vegetable oil, demonstrating that biofuels were already viable early in the history of aircraft. [Diesel aircraft engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aircraft_diesel_engine) were viable at the beginning of the aviation industry and are currently enjoying a resurgence.
Once the value and efficacy of aircraft were established, I doubt they would have simply disappeared. It is speculation to say if fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters would have been invented, but I'm guessing that as the manufacture of biofuels for various powered vehicles became more common, they probably would have been at LEAST invented, even if they didn't end up being practical. The versatility of these vehicles would probably still have led to at least specialized functions for them.
But I'm confident there still would have been blimps and dirigibles, and likely better ones than we have today due to lack of competition from gas-guzzling fixed-wing craft. Land and sea transportation also benefited from fossil fuels, so weaker competition in these arenas means the airship would have been quite reasonably competitive as a passenger and even cargo transport.
You may find [this](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67461/realistic-airships) question relevant to your question. | Piston and jet powered flight could still be developed without reliance on fossil fuels. We use fossil fuels for gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel because it's relatively easy to prepare from the oil we extract from the ground, the fuels are energy-dense and the engines are power-dense. However, both piston and jet engines can run on a range of fuels that could be synthesized or refined from sources other than petroleum. Jet fuel can be refined from vegetable oil. For piston-powered flight, you need something that behaves pretty much like gasoline in terms of energy density, combustibility, and storability - a blend of mostly alkanes in the right range (heptane, octane). It is possible (not necessarily easy or efficient) to synthesize them from hydrocarbon sources - vegetable oils and/or other plant matter. If you have cheap and abundant nuclear power, that can help to make synthesis of aviation fuels economic.
It would be far more plausible to see aircraft powered by liquid fueled piston or jet engines than compact nuclear reactors, even if the fuels have to be synthesized because nuclear power production scales up well, but doesn't scale down well, and mobile reactors bring safety issues - collisions/crashes can trigger dangerous leaks of radioactive materials. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ***Lighter than air craft:***
While the modern combustion-powered aircraft would be a hard sell, there were [steam-powered airships](https://www.space.com/16623-first-powered-airship.html#:%7E:text=Henri%20Giffard%27s%20steam%2Dpowered%20airship%20flew%20in%201852.&text=In%201784%2C%20General%20Jean%20Baptiste,Meusnier%27s%20design%20was%20never%20built.) built long before the Wright brothers, and hand-cranked *designs* existed before that. After that, electrically-powered airships were constructed like the [*La France*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_France_(airship)).
A steam powered model could certainly have been operational, utilizing charcoal or distilled volatiles, and in fact such designs predated ones using fossil fuels. Only the relative efficiency of fossil fuels caused them to predominate. In fact, the [diesel engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diesel_engine) invented by Rudolf Diesel initially ran on coal dust (easily a sub with charcoal) or vegetable oil, demonstrating that biofuels were already viable early in the history of aircraft. [Diesel aircraft engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aircraft_diesel_engine) were viable at the beginning of the aviation industry and are currently enjoying a resurgence.
Once the value and efficacy of aircraft were established, I doubt they would have simply disappeared. It is speculation to say if fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters would have been invented, but I'm guessing that as the manufacture of biofuels for various powered vehicles became more common, they probably would have been at LEAST invented, even if they didn't end up being practical. The versatility of these vehicles would probably still have led to at least specialized functions for them.
But I'm confident there still would have been blimps and dirigibles, and likely better ones than we have today due to lack of competition from gas-guzzling fixed-wing craft. Land and sea transportation also benefited from fossil fuels, so weaker competition in these arenas means the airship would have been quite reasonably competitive as a passenger and even cargo transport.
You may find [this](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67461/realistic-airships) question relevant to your question. | ### We were flying for [hundreds of years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines) before putting an engine on planes:
* We had man-carrying kites going back to possibly the 7th century.
* 1783 we had manned hydrogen balloon flight.
* First heavier than air craft (no human on board) was 1655 apparently ([spring powered ormithopter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines#The_17th_and_18th_centuries)).
* In 1853, British engineer George Cayley built the world's first real glider.
With no petrol, the wright brothers plane as built couldn't exist (they used gasoline), but we had batteries and electric motors at this point in history, they have a lower power to weight ratio, but that first flight could've occurred electrically in the same period.
Long distance air travel would be harder, batteries are heavier than the same amount of fuel, but lacking fossil fuels, we can still refine ethanol from biomass. There are [ethanol powered aircraft](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embraer_EMB_202_Ipanema), which are actually cheaper to run than gasoline ones. That linked one is commonly used for crop dusting, and can be powered by ethanol generated free from waste parts of crops. There's no reason that can't scale up to a small airliner-sized aircraft. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | In Brazil "pure" ethanol (94% ethanol, 6% water) is sold at every gas station, and pretty much every new car sold can run with any proportion gasoline-ethanol mixture (they call it "flex" engines).
So, the infrastructure for a fuel that can power a combustion engine for a heavier than air aircraft does exists independently from oil since the 1970's.
The history would certainly be different, and possibly there would not be the political-economical incentives for airplanes to be what they are today, but it is quite possible they would be invented and be used for local travel in places where sugarcane is viable. | Not directly related to the fuel used in the aircraft, coal is also used to create coke which is used in the creation of metal products
>
> In 1709, Abraham Darby I established a coke-fired blast furnace to produce cast iron. Coke's superior crushing strength allowed blast furnaces to become taller and larger. The ensuing availability of inexpensive iron was one of the factors leading to the Industrial Revolution. Before this time, iron-making used large quantities of charcoal, produced by burning wood.
>
>
>
As other answers show fossil fuels can be replaced with other fuels. However the lack of easily and cheaply available fossil fuels would impact the course of the Industrial Revolution in your world impacting the availability of many technologies.
Additionally the lack of fossil fuels means that the use of wood as a fuel remains high leading to higher levels of deforestation which can deeply impact a region's ecosystem. Japan managed to prevent deforestation by changing their use of forests (source: <https://www.appropedia.org/Japan_Forestry>). Easter Island, however, did not.
>
> With the loss of their forest, the quality of life for Islanders plummeted. Streams and drinking water supplies dried up. Crop yields declined as wind, rain, and sunlight eroded topsoils. Fires became a luxury since no wood could be found on the island
> <https://rainforests.mongabay.com/09easter_island.htm>
>
>
>
Would Britain have avoided Easter Island's fate without fossil fuels to burn for simple things such as heat and cooking? A different approach to the use of wood and forest management would be required. Further impacting the course of industrialisation. Farming is also impacted by industrialisation, think of all the tools and machines. Further farming depends on fossil fuels for synthetic fertilizers (<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fertilizer#Nitrogen_fertilizers>).
Considering the reduced farming efficiency means that large part of the population is involved in food production so there are less engineers and scientists for developing alternative methods for creating cheap metals, electricity generation, or even nuclear technology. The farming efficiency will also impact the availability of bio fuels.
All that being said the Industrial Revolution would probably still be possible without fossil fuels but it's course would definitely be different. I can imagine that societies would try to find faster growing trees to supply their energy needs, maybe even bamboo which can also be turned into charcoal. Probably different furnace designs would generate cheap metals with charcoal or bio fuels. Electricity will likely start to play a role in metal smelting and refining earlier on as well, see eletric arc furnances for example. Once this thin edge of industrialisation's wedge is in the developments will continue. However the industrialisation speed and scale would be impacted by the need to constantly balance the environmental aspects to maintain healthy forests and farmland. Failing to do so would hurt a society without fossil fuels a lot quicker stalling their industrialisation.
As laid out by others aircraft would be possible without fossil fuels. However the total energy available is simply more limited without fossil fuels. Most technologies, including railroads and flying would be less wide spread and thus available only to the rich elite of society.
Hydropower is also a lot less available especially before Hydropower dams can be built, still being based on waterwheels. Wind power would be implemented more since windmills can be placed in more locations. Batteries would be a lot more important in this world dependent on electricity, as we start to see in the world today. Battery powered aircraft are possible but require more energy dense batteries than we have today. Considering the importance of batteries in your world these would surely be invented.
I expect nuclear power to be a bigger game changer than in our world, making power available more cheaply at a bigger scale. Either that or wind and eventually solar power would play a bigger role.
As for your question "Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?" Probably yes, aircraft would still be faster than ships and trains generally can not cross oceans and seas. Also aircraft need less infrastructure than trains which I can imagine will be an even bigger advantage in a world where it less easy to mass produce many thing for a long time. Also don't forget the military applications that are unique to aircraft which will aid their development. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ***Lighter than air craft:***
While the modern combustion-powered aircraft would be a hard sell, there were [steam-powered airships](https://www.space.com/16623-first-powered-airship.html#:%7E:text=Henri%20Giffard%27s%20steam%2Dpowered%20airship%20flew%20in%201852.&text=In%201784%2C%20General%20Jean%20Baptiste,Meusnier%27s%20design%20was%20never%20built.) built long before the Wright brothers, and hand-cranked *designs* existed before that. After that, electrically-powered airships were constructed like the [*La France*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_France_(airship)).
A steam powered model could certainly have been operational, utilizing charcoal or distilled volatiles, and in fact such designs predated ones using fossil fuels. Only the relative efficiency of fossil fuels caused them to predominate. In fact, the [diesel engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diesel_engine) invented by Rudolf Diesel initially ran on coal dust (easily a sub with charcoal) or vegetable oil, demonstrating that biofuels were already viable early in the history of aircraft. [Diesel aircraft engines](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aircraft_diesel_engine) were viable at the beginning of the aviation industry and are currently enjoying a resurgence.
Once the value and efficacy of aircraft were established, I doubt they would have simply disappeared. It is speculation to say if fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters would have been invented, but I'm guessing that as the manufacture of biofuels for various powered vehicles became more common, they probably would have been at LEAST invented, even if they didn't end up being practical. The versatility of these vehicles would probably still have led to at least specialized functions for them.
But I'm confident there still would have been blimps and dirigibles, and likely better ones than we have today due to lack of competition from gas-guzzling fixed-wing craft. Land and sea transportation also benefited from fossil fuels, so weaker competition in these arenas means the airship would have been quite reasonably competitive as a passenger and even cargo transport.
You may find [this](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67461/realistic-airships) question relevant to your question. | River-side mill towns existed before electricity could be used to export energy.
>
> Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use?
>
>
>
sailplanes, definately.
Oowered craft, maybe for military applications, and use by the very rich. They would probably be ethanol fueled, it's hard to speculate on which type of engine they would use. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ### solar wings
Today there are experiments with solar- and battery powered electrical aircrafts. They work well enough! Though, to save energy, they fly slow. Get used to have a cruise speed of 300km per hour maxi.
### catapult start
If you have to use less power, you can still fly. Most power is needed during take-off. Would it be a strong requirement that no fossil fuels are used, airports could have an aircraft-carrier-like catapult to help supplying a part of the energy.
### sailing
In-flight you can be totally powerless with today's normal aircraft ( like Boeing 737, A350, Dreamliner, Comac and the like) and fly hundreds of kilometres without problem. That said, you will be even slower than the solar aircraft above, probably in the range of 100 - 200 km per hour, also you need some means to get them up there in the first place. If you build sailing aircraft specifically for this speed and purpose, it will get better. If you are ready to spend part of the flight time using convections to gain height, you can fly very very long without power, but your average speed gets even lower. Trains are better and faster then.
### hydrogen engine
Today's turbines can be powered by hydrogen, too. On first glance this is even attractive because hydrogen has a 4 times higher power-to-weight ratio than kerosene. However the storage of hydrogen is so complicated that it will eat up much of that weight-advantage or even more. So imagine today's aircraft with a different kind of fuel storage, probably in the belly and not in the wing, so the wing can be slightly slimmer but longer, and you have that just-subsonic aircraft from today, but without fossil fuels.
I don't know if we would have taken the same development path towards this fossil-free aircraft like here, on a world entirely without fossil fuels. | Not directly related to the fuel used in the aircraft, coal is also used to create coke which is used in the creation of metal products
>
> In 1709, Abraham Darby I established a coke-fired blast furnace to produce cast iron. Coke's superior crushing strength allowed blast furnaces to become taller and larger. The ensuing availability of inexpensive iron was one of the factors leading to the Industrial Revolution. Before this time, iron-making used large quantities of charcoal, produced by burning wood.
>
>
>
As other answers show fossil fuels can be replaced with other fuels. However the lack of easily and cheaply available fossil fuels would impact the course of the Industrial Revolution in your world impacting the availability of many technologies.
Additionally the lack of fossil fuels means that the use of wood as a fuel remains high leading to higher levels of deforestation which can deeply impact a region's ecosystem. Japan managed to prevent deforestation by changing their use of forests (source: <https://www.appropedia.org/Japan_Forestry>). Easter Island, however, did not.
>
> With the loss of their forest, the quality of life for Islanders plummeted. Streams and drinking water supplies dried up. Crop yields declined as wind, rain, and sunlight eroded topsoils. Fires became a luxury since no wood could be found on the island
> <https://rainforests.mongabay.com/09easter_island.htm>
>
>
>
Would Britain have avoided Easter Island's fate without fossil fuels to burn for simple things such as heat and cooking? A different approach to the use of wood and forest management would be required. Further impacting the course of industrialisation. Farming is also impacted by industrialisation, think of all the tools and machines. Further farming depends on fossil fuels for synthetic fertilizers (<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fertilizer#Nitrogen_fertilizers>).
Considering the reduced farming efficiency means that large part of the population is involved in food production so there are less engineers and scientists for developing alternative methods for creating cheap metals, electricity generation, or even nuclear technology. The farming efficiency will also impact the availability of bio fuels.
All that being said the Industrial Revolution would probably still be possible without fossil fuels but it's course would definitely be different. I can imagine that societies would try to find faster growing trees to supply their energy needs, maybe even bamboo which can also be turned into charcoal. Probably different furnace designs would generate cheap metals with charcoal or bio fuels. Electricity will likely start to play a role in metal smelting and refining earlier on as well, see eletric arc furnances for example. Once this thin edge of industrialisation's wedge is in the developments will continue. However the industrialisation speed and scale would be impacted by the need to constantly balance the environmental aspects to maintain healthy forests and farmland. Failing to do so would hurt a society without fossil fuels a lot quicker stalling their industrialisation.
As laid out by others aircraft would be possible without fossil fuels. However the total energy available is simply more limited without fossil fuels. Most technologies, including railroads and flying would be less wide spread and thus available only to the rich elite of society.
Hydropower is also a lot less available especially before Hydropower dams can be built, still being based on waterwheels. Wind power would be implemented more since windmills can be placed in more locations. Batteries would be a lot more important in this world dependent on electricity, as we start to see in the world today. Battery powered aircraft are possible but require more energy dense batteries than we have today. Considering the importance of batteries in your world these would surely be invented.
I expect nuclear power to be a bigger game changer than in our world, making power available more cheaply at a bigger scale. Either that or wind and eventually solar power would play a bigger role.
As for your question "Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?" Probably yes, aircraft would still be faster than ships and trains generally can not cross oceans and seas. Also aircraft need less infrastructure than trains which I can imagine will be an even bigger advantage in a world where it less easy to mass produce many thing for a long time. Also don't forget the military applications that are unique to aircraft which will aid their development. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | In Brazil "pure" ethanol (94% ethanol, 6% water) is sold at every gas station, and pretty much every new car sold can run with any proportion gasoline-ethanol mixture (they call it "flex" engines).
So, the infrastructure for a fuel that can power a combustion engine for a heavier than air aircraft does exists independently from oil since the 1970's.
The history would certainly be different, and possibly there would not be the political-economical incentives for airplanes to be what they are today, but it is quite possible they would be invented and be used for local travel in places where sugarcane is viable. | Piston and jet powered flight could still be developed without reliance on fossil fuels. We use fossil fuels for gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel because it's relatively easy to prepare from the oil we extract from the ground, the fuels are energy-dense and the engines are power-dense. However, both piston and jet engines can run on a range of fuels that could be synthesized or refined from sources other than petroleum. Jet fuel can be refined from vegetable oil. For piston-powered flight, you need something that behaves pretty much like gasoline in terms of energy density, combustibility, and storability - a blend of mostly alkanes in the right range (heptane, octane). It is possible (not necessarily easy or efficient) to synthesize them from hydrocarbon sources - vegetable oils and/or other plant matter. If you have cheap and abundant nuclear power, that can help to make synthesis of aviation fuels economic.
It would be far more plausible to see aircraft powered by liquid fueled piston or jet engines than compact nuclear reactors, even if the fuels have to be synthesized because nuclear power production scales up well, but doesn't scale down well, and mobile reactors bring safety issues - collisions/crashes can trigger dangerous leaks of radioactive materials. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ### We were flying for [hundreds of years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines) before putting an engine on planes:
* We had man-carrying kites going back to possibly the 7th century.
* 1783 we had manned hydrogen balloon flight.
* First heavier than air craft (no human on board) was 1655 apparently ([spring powered ormithopter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines#The_17th_and_18th_centuries)).
* In 1853, British engineer George Cayley built the world's first real glider.
With no petrol, the wright brothers plane as built couldn't exist (they used gasoline), but we had batteries and electric motors at this point in history, they have a lower power to weight ratio, but that first flight could've occurred electrically in the same period.
Long distance air travel would be harder, batteries are heavier than the same amount of fuel, but lacking fossil fuels, we can still refine ethanol from biomass. There are [ethanol powered aircraft](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embraer_EMB_202_Ipanema), which are actually cheaper to run than gasoline ones. That linked one is commonly used for crop dusting, and can be powered by ethanol generated free from waste parts of crops. There's no reason that can't scale up to a small airliner-sized aircraft. | Not directly related to the fuel used in the aircraft, coal is also used to create coke which is used in the creation of metal products
>
> In 1709, Abraham Darby I established a coke-fired blast furnace to produce cast iron. Coke's superior crushing strength allowed blast furnaces to become taller and larger. The ensuing availability of inexpensive iron was one of the factors leading to the Industrial Revolution. Before this time, iron-making used large quantities of charcoal, produced by burning wood.
>
>
>
As other answers show fossil fuels can be replaced with other fuels. However the lack of easily and cheaply available fossil fuels would impact the course of the Industrial Revolution in your world impacting the availability of many technologies.
Additionally the lack of fossil fuels means that the use of wood as a fuel remains high leading to higher levels of deforestation which can deeply impact a region's ecosystem. Japan managed to prevent deforestation by changing their use of forests (source: <https://www.appropedia.org/Japan_Forestry>). Easter Island, however, did not.
>
> With the loss of their forest, the quality of life for Islanders plummeted. Streams and drinking water supplies dried up. Crop yields declined as wind, rain, and sunlight eroded topsoils. Fires became a luxury since no wood could be found on the island
> <https://rainforests.mongabay.com/09easter_island.htm>
>
>
>
Would Britain have avoided Easter Island's fate without fossil fuels to burn for simple things such as heat and cooking? A different approach to the use of wood and forest management would be required. Further impacting the course of industrialisation. Farming is also impacted by industrialisation, think of all the tools and machines. Further farming depends on fossil fuels for synthetic fertilizers (<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fertilizer#Nitrogen_fertilizers>).
Considering the reduced farming efficiency means that large part of the population is involved in food production so there are less engineers and scientists for developing alternative methods for creating cheap metals, electricity generation, or even nuclear technology. The farming efficiency will also impact the availability of bio fuels.
All that being said the Industrial Revolution would probably still be possible without fossil fuels but it's course would definitely be different. I can imagine that societies would try to find faster growing trees to supply their energy needs, maybe even bamboo which can also be turned into charcoal. Probably different furnace designs would generate cheap metals with charcoal or bio fuels. Electricity will likely start to play a role in metal smelting and refining earlier on as well, see eletric arc furnances for example. Once this thin edge of industrialisation's wedge is in the developments will continue. However the industrialisation speed and scale would be impacted by the need to constantly balance the environmental aspects to maintain healthy forests and farmland. Failing to do so would hurt a society without fossil fuels a lot quicker stalling their industrialisation.
As laid out by others aircraft would be possible without fossil fuels. However the total energy available is simply more limited without fossil fuels. Most technologies, including railroads and flying would be less wide spread and thus available only to the rich elite of society.
Hydropower is also a lot less available especially before Hydropower dams can be built, still being based on waterwheels. Wind power would be implemented more since windmills can be placed in more locations. Batteries would be a lot more important in this world dependent on electricity, as we start to see in the world today. Battery powered aircraft are possible but require more energy dense batteries than we have today. Considering the importance of batteries in your world these would surely be invented.
I expect nuclear power to be a bigger game changer than in our world, making power available more cheaply at a bigger scale. Either that or wind and eventually solar power would play a bigger role.
As for your question "Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?" Probably yes, aircraft would still be faster than ships and trains generally can not cross oceans and seas. Also aircraft need less infrastructure than trains which I can imagine will be an even bigger advantage in a world where it less easy to mass produce many thing for a long time. Also don't forget the military applications that are unique to aircraft which will aid their development. |
185,007 | In a world without fossil fuels, would air travel ever really be developed?
Without fossil fuels, the most likely path that could lead to the development of a proper industrial revolution would eventually be nuclear power and renewables. This world would probably start with hydro-electric power, in which they then move on to nuclear as scientists living in the cities that build up around dams are able to discover more about nuclear physics that would allow this to be harnessed as a fuel source.
While there are other questions that could be raised, how would air travel be developed in this sort of world? Could airships remain viable in the face of electrified railroads and nuclear transport across oceans?
Would fixed wing aircraft or helicopters eventually be developed? What fuel sources might they use? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/185007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/70746/"
] | ### We were flying for [hundreds of years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines) before putting an engine on planes:
* We had man-carrying kites going back to possibly the 7th century.
* 1783 we had manned hydrogen balloon flight.
* First heavier than air craft (no human on board) was 1655 apparently ([spring powered ormithopter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_flying_machines#The_17th_and_18th_centuries)).
* In 1853, British engineer George Cayley built the world's first real glider.
With no petrol, the wright brothers plane as built couldn't exist (they used gasoline), but we had batteries and electric motors at this point in history, they have a lower power to weight ratio, but that first flight could've occurred electrically in the same period.
Long distance air travel would be harder, batteries are heavier than the same amount of fuel, but lacking fossil fuels, we can still refine ethanol from biomass. There are [ethanol powered aircraft](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embraer_EMB_202_Ipanema), which are actually cheaper to run than gasoline ones. That linked one is commonly used for crop dusting, and can be powered by ethanol generated free from waste parts of crops. There's no reason that can't scale up to a small airliner-sized aircraft. | In Brazil "pure" ethanol (94% ethanol, 6% water) is sold at every gas station, and pretty much every new car sold can run with any proportion gasoline-ethanol mixture (they call it "flex" engines).
So, the infrastructure for a fuel that can power a combustion engine for a heavier than air aircraft does exists independently from oil since the 1970's.
The history would certainly be different, and possibly there would not be the political-economical incentives for airplanes to be what they are today, but it is quite possible they would be invented and be used for local travel in places where sugarcane is viable. |
162,751 | Let me begin with the disclaimer: I am a mathematician and not an electrical engineer. That being said, surely I am missing something simple. For classroom demonstrations in dynamical systems, I have been constructing analogue computers from op-amp circuits. Some of the circuits are of my own design, and some are copied from other scientists. All of them have been successful except for this one, by Cuomo & Oppenheim, 1993, Physics Review Journal:
This circuit is designed to mimic the Lorenz Equations (rather, a re-scaled version thereof). The [x] are analog multipliers (AD633JN), and I am using NTE858M op amps. I have checked my work and I am convinced that I have built correctly. I have also verified the accuracy of the schematic, and I cannot find any discrepancy between the circuit and the corresponding dynamical system. The only output is a millivolts noise.
Why does this implementation fail?
Here is a link to the author's paper for more detailed information:
<http://www.rle.mit.edu/dspg/documents/CircuitImplementation_000.pdf> | 2015/04/01 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/162751",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/71314/"
] | Here's is my thoughts I think that implementation might fail is because in the paper you reference, the author's use the device AD632AD multiplier while you are using the AD633JN multiplier. A quick glance through the datasheet and we can see that the AD632AD multiplier performance total error has maximum of +/-1 while the AD633JN has a multiplier performance total error has maximum of +/-2. Also the AD632 multiplier under the multiplier perfomance has a maximum Output Offset Voltage of +/-30mV while the AD633 has a maximum Output Offset Voltage of +/-50mV. It think that those differences between might be worth looking into because given the nature of chaotic system it might just be enough to modified the circuit behavior. | Please pardon it may be obvious but it seems that if you are using an oscilloscope to view the outputs be careful that you are operating in XY mode instead of just viewing each signal with respect to time. |
26,762 | I have never really understood the connotation of someone calling their domicile a *condo* over the word *apartment*. I have a vague feeling the former is fancier and more up-scale, but are there any real differences I'm not aware of? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/26762",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4763/"
] | In the US, a [condominium](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/condominium) involves an investment of funds, and is similar to buying a house. A person actually owns a condominium and can sell it for a return on investment. Also, they can use it as collateral for borrowing money.
An [apartment](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/apartment) is rented/leased from a landlord/landlady. Rental payments go to the owner, and the tenant does not own the property, so cannot borrow against it. When a person moves out of an apartment, they may receive their security deposit back, but that's about it.
I think owning a condo probably is considered more high-class than renting an apartment. Many, many rich people in New York City own condos, for instance, and brag about it. | Something none of the answers have pointed out yet is that the meaning of *apartment* is **different** in New York City and in most of the rest of the U.S. In New York City, an *apartment* is a single unit in a multi-unit residential building, regardless of whether you rent or own it, and of whether the ownership is legally a condo or co-op arrangement (so *apartment* in NYC means the same thing that *flat* means in the U.K.). In most of the rest of the U.S., an *apartment* is a *rented* single unit in a multi-unit residential building.
This means that in most of the U.S., if you live in a multi-unit residential building, you either live in an apartment, a co-op, or a condo. In New York City, and in much of Canada, your *apartment* will either be a rental, a co-op, or a condo (or a sublet, if you lease it from somebody who in turn is renting it themself). |
26,762 | I have never really understood the connotation of someone calling their domicile a *condo* over the word *apartment*. I have a vague feeling the former is fancier and more up-scale, but are there any real differences I'm not aware of? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/26762",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4763/"
] | There is a big difference in the USA. In a **condominium**, the ownership of a building is divided into shares and ownership of some of those shares gives the right to live in a particular part of the building. In the event that you want to sell those shares, the other shareholders in the building must approve the transfer, so if they do not like the new purchaser they may block the transaction. Equally, some condominiums restrict letting the property.
In a Co-op, the **apartment** is owned by the individual and in many, while the management company of the building has the right to refuse transfer to a new purchaser, it instead must buy the property itself. Although usually cheaper, Condos are viewed as more 'snobby' because there is a degree of social acceptance that goes with them.
---
**EDIT**: Not sure I agree with all the answers following my first post.
When I lived in NYC I owned an apartment in a co-op, a high-rise in NY10021. Some of my neighbours were renting, others were owner occupants. All were called apartments and labelled as such on the mail boxes in the lobby. The bank would not lend to me (resident alien) to buy a condo, because of resale/renting issues should something go wrong, which is why I bought (and could only borrow for) a co-op. It might be different outside NYC, I've no property-owning experience there.
Some people bragged about ‘condos’ and saw a benefit in owning one. I thought this was rubbish, as I considered having to flaunt supposed ‘social acceptance’ as pathetic. I also believed that the big disadvantages inherent in that type of restrictive ownership outweighed the relatively minor advantage of lower acquisition price.
In Europe, a flat is an apartment, either owned or rented, and colloquially means either a student’s rented accommodation, or a second, smaller residence of a temporary nature e.g. ‘I keep a flat in the City for a convenience.’ Sometimes the latter is called a *pied-a-terre*, literally (French) ‘a foot in the ground.’ A flat often is used to describe a unit in a sub-divided property, whereas an apartment usually is in a purpose-built block. The terms 'condo' and 'co-op' are not used for property in Ireland/UK/France. BTW, in Ireland and the UK a *co-op* is where a farmer buys cattle feed ;-) | Condos tend to be in complexes rather than single buildings. Additionally, a condo is purchased and owned, whereas an apartment is rented.
[This Link](http://www.realtor.com/Basics/AllAbout/HomeAffordability/Condo.asp) has some good info about condos. |
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