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Apple recently released a new version of iTunes Connect. I just want to change the primary language of my app, but the documentation (<https://developer.apple.com/library/ios/documentation/LanguagesUtilities/Conceptual/iTunesConnect_Guide/Chapters/DisplayInMoreLanguages.html> at the bottom) is now deprecated. Anyone solved this problem? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/55D9K.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/55D9K.png)
2015/09/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32844091", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1438334/" ]
I found a way to make it work without having to get accepted by the App Store. 1. In Localizable Information, click on the language and choose a new language you want to add as primary language. 2. Very important. **Hit Save** at top right corner. 3. Go down to General Information. You will find now that Primary Language becomes a drop-down menu with new language that you just added. You can proceed to change your primary language and then Save. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RTWX9.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RTWX9.png) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/unJNz.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/unJNz.png)
I had the same problem. My solution was to untick 'Use XXXCOUNTRYXXX Apple Watch' under 'Apple Watch' in Media Manager (and any others that may be ticked by default). I was then able to change the primary language. [![Screenshot of tickbox](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BvFS4.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BvFS4.png)
32,844,091
Apple recently released a new version of iTunes Connect. I just want to change the primary language of my app, but the documentation (<https://developer.apple.com/library/ios/documentation/LanguagesUtilities/Conceptual/iTunesConnect_Guide/Chapters/DisplayInMoreLanguages.html> at the bottom) is now deprecated. Anyone solved this problem? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/55D9K.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/55D9K.png)
2015/09/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32844091", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1438334/" ]
I found a way to make it work without having to get accepted by the App Store. 1. In Localizable Information, click on the language and choose a new language you want to add as primary language. 2. Very important. **Hit Save** at top right corner. 3. Go down to General Information. You will find now that Primary Language becomes a drop-down menu with new language that you just added. You can proceed to change your primary language and then Save. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RTWX9.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RTWX9.png) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/unJNz.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/unJNz.png)
For those still having problems changing your primary language, you first need to submit a new version of your app which has at least 2 localizations (for me e.g. i started only with german and then german and english). German was my initial primary language. As soon as the version is approved + ready for sale(dont forget to add the localization in your App-Information as well (add new language)) THEN you can change the primary language in the App information. Sorry for my english, new here ;)
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
The feasts (Yom Kippur, tabernacles etc) are all well documented as to month and day. If the birth of Jesus Christ were to be so memorialised, it would be so documented : and it is not. What is to be memorialised (by Jesus' own command) is the remembrance of Him in his sufferings and death : 'This do, in remembrance of me'. The date of his death is well documented but the indication is a more than annual event, as is made clear in the Corinthian epistle where it is evidently a regular memorial on a weekly (at least) basis.
"Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth" First and foremost, there is NO such omission: the angel told the shepherds to celebrate Christ's birth, and the angels themselves were celebrating it: > > But the angel said to them, “Do not be afraid; for behold, **I bring > you good news of great joy** which will be for all the people; for > today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who > is Christ the Lord. This will be a sign for you: **you will find a > baby** wrapped in cloths and lying in a manger.” And suddenly there > appeared with the angel a multitude of the heavenly host praising God > and saying, > > > “Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men with whom > He is pleased.” > > > When the angels had gone away from them into heaven, the shepherds > began saying to one another, “Let us go straight to Bethlehem then, > and **see this thing that has happened** which the Lord has made known > to us.” So they came in a hurry and found their way to Mary and > Joseph, and the baby as He lay in the manger. When they had seen this, > **they made known the statement which had been told them about this > Child**. And all who heard it wondered at the things which were told > them by the shepherds. But Mary **treasured all these things,** > pondering them in her heart. The shepherds went back, **glorifying and > praising God for all that they had heard and seen,** just as had been > told them. (Luke 2:10-20. NASB) > > > Having cleared that point, there is a plausible reason why the Gospels' silence on the date of Jesus' birth may be not only compatible with the divine design that Christians celebrate the event but also **actually required to enable that celebration**, and it becomes evident if we recall the basis for the date of December 25: the notion of integral age of prophets - based on understanding the statement by Moses: "I am a son of a hundred and twenty years today" (Deut 31:2) in the sense that he was turning 120 years old that very day, in which he was later going to die -, plus the incorrect assumption that Jesus was crucified on March 25. Now, if the notion of integral age did indeed apply to Jesus in its **original** sense, i.e. regarding his birth, and not in a modified sense regarding his conception, then Christmas would fall on the same date as Good Friday and Christians would not be able to celebrate it. In that case, the Gospels' silence about the date of Jesus' birth would be **actually required to enable its celebration** by Christians.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
**Does the ambiguity in the NT regarding the date of Jesus's birth and the lack of explicit command to celebrate it every year (compared to explicit instruction to memorialize the Lord's supper) *in itself* a teaching?** From *Sola Scriptura* perspective, I think it's safe to derive from the Bible alone that Christmas celebration is optional and that the customary date itself is not important. Therefore, we can deduce that God would be fine leaving Christian movements to abstain from this celebration, most notably [Quakers](https://www.quaker.org.uk/blog/times-and-seasons-a-quaker-reflection-on-christmas), [Jehovah's Witnesses](https://www.jw.org/en/jehovahs-witnesses/faq/why-not-celebrate-christmas/), and [Churches of Christ](https://christianchronicle.org/christ-in-christmas-churches-of-christ-and-the-holiday-season/). But given the early church's tradition (within about 150 years, cf. [St. Hippolytus of Rome quote dated c. 204 AD](https://insidethevatican.com/magazine/lead-story/the-25th-of-december-pagan-feast-or-patristic-tradition/)) the birth was seen as an important milestone to celebrate, *especially* if we see the growing recognition of the role **incarnation** played in more and more doctrines such as theological anthropology and atonement. I think it is safe to deduce from these early experiences of Trinitarian Christians that **God the Son's taking flesh** to add a second nature of 100% human being to the human form of a Jewish male Jesus of Nazareth is worth commemorating, *especially* in the face of Gnostic threat that downplayed the materiality of Jesus or other [early church heresies](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_heresies_in_the_Catholic_Church) (like adoptionism, apollinarism, docetism, etc.) that regarded Jesus as less than God. What better way to counter those heresies than by celebrating the following events to emphasize the different aspects of *God became man*? * [Annunciation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Annunciation) * [Christmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christmas) * [Epiphany](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epiphany_(holiday)) for which [Advent](https://www.learnreligions.com/meaning-of-advent-700455) is a preparation **[INCARNATION](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incarnation_(Christianity)) is the whole point of celebrating Christmas**. For Christians, every activity (singing carols, gift exchange, Christmas tree, nativity scene re-enactment, joyful spirit over Christmas meals, singing Handel's *Messiah*) needs to point to this one way or the other. This doctrine is fully supported by the Bible, see [10 Key Bible Verses on the Incarnation](https://www.crossway.org/articles/10-key-bible-verses-on-the-incarnation/): * John 1:14 (which you mentioned): *And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.* * Heb 1:1-2: *Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world.* * Isa 9:6: *For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.* * Gal 4:4-5: *But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.* * etc. For more readings on how an extremely influential early church father [Irenaeus of Lyons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irenaeus) (c. 130-202 AD) linked incarnation to other doctrines, see * [St. Irenaeus and the *Imago Dei*: The Importance of Being Human](https://www.stthomas.edu/media/catholicstudies/center/logosjournal/archives/2003vol06/64/6-4-Article.pdf): reminding us how Incarnation helps us to be more fully human by looking at how Jesus lived and fulfilled all God's expectation for Adam as a full bodied being, fully participating in the world, bodily loving our neighbors. * [Irenaeus of Lyons: A Defense of Recapitulation](https://digitalcommons.georgefox.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1018&context=seminary_masters): showing how atonement can also be seen from incarnation angle, how Jesus completed what Adam could not complete ### Conclusion While the Bible is silent on the date and the command to celebrate Christmas, when we reflect on the significance of Incarnation which the Bible clearly teaches, it is incumbent for us Trinitarian Christians to celebrate Incarnation as well as the Lord's supper. We can see the ambiguity as God's teaching us to prioritize Eucharist over Christmas (if we have to choose), but we also have Biblical justification to celebrate Christmas to remind us of Incarnation, an important plank for our salvation.
Yes, the "ambiguity" in the Bible regarding 25 December should teach us something. It should teach us to use the same "ambiguity" regarding 25 December. As @SLM so neatly [stated](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/88700/59520): > > Our confusion is not to say there isn't an accurate answer. > > > To some it is clear that we should celebrate 25 December as the birthday of Jesus Christ. To others it is clear that we should not celebrate 25 December as the birth of Christ as the birthday of our Saviour. Only one of these groups can be right, and the answer is in the Bible, but it is not clear to everyone. I believe the Bible is "ambigious" on some truths for the sake of The Truth that is Jesus Christ. Throug the work of the Holy Spirt as you seek the truth in the Bible and grow in fait and learn something, you will see that the truth has always been there, you just couldn't see it. You had to drink the milk before you could bear the meat. As the Bible and the Holy Spirit teach (feeding us with milk before feeding us meat) so should we teach others. Never lying about the truth, but also not trying to force-feed others. > > 1Co 3:2  I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye > were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able. > > >
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
**Given many questions as to whether Jesus was born on 25 December or not, I ask if the ambiguity in scripture is meant to teach us something?** Some things are simply not mentioned in biblical texts! Given the nature of this question, I would like to give a more roundabout perspective taken from a Catholic perspective, if that is okay. Strictly speaking there is no ambiguity in Scriptures on the subject matter of keeping or celebrating Jesus’ birthday. It simply is not mentioned in Scriptures. Some traditions chose to do so; while others chose not to do so. If I may be condemned for celebrating Christmas, so be it. I am not Ebenezer Scrooge and I do not [**humbug**](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Humbug) this subject matter as [Ebenezer Scrooge](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ebenezer_Scrooge) would. Yes, the Scriptures do not say anything about celebrating the **Birth of Christ** as we commonly say as **Christmas**, but the the Sacred Scriptures do not directly forbid it either. Tertullian held that Christ’s conception and death were on March 25th, exactly nine months prior to December 25th. > > But where did he get this idea from, that the crucifixion was on the 8th day before the kalends of April, March 25? > > > There is a lunar calendar on the statue of Hippolytus in the Vatican Library. Apparently a note within this indicates the “Passion of Christ” was on Friday March 25. > > > Tertullian, Adversus Judaeos 8:18: > > > Quae passio Christi [huius exterminium] intra tempora LXX ebdomadarum perfecta est sub Tiberio Caesare, consulibus Rubellio Gemino et Rufio Gemino mense Martio temporibus paschae, die octavo Kalendarum Aprilium, die primo azymorum quo agnum occiderunt ad vesperam, sicut a Moyse fuerat praeceptum. > > > And the suffering of this “extermination” was perfected within the times of the lxx hebdomads, under Tiberius Caesar, in the consulate of Rubellius Geminus and Fufius Geminus, in the month of March, at the times of the passover, on the eighth day before the calends of April, on the first day of unleavened bread, on which they slew the lamb at even, just as had been enjoined by Moses. - [March 25 – the date of the annunciation, the crucifixion, and the origin of December 25 as the date of Christmas?](https://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/2021/03/25/march-25-the-date-of-the-annunciation-the-crucifixion-and-the-origin-of-december-25-as-the-date-of-christmas/) > > > As decided Christians, we can not all be in accord with this idea of celebrating the **Birth of Jesus**, in his incarnation and physically dwelt amongst men. Yet, St. Paul himself admits, be it in a roundabout way, that some things may not be written down in Sacred Scriptures. I am not trying to be argumentative here. But rather point out that Catholics see things in a different light. As long as Christendom is divided there will be no unity in thought, tradition or beliefs to one degree or another. > > So then, brothers and sisters, stand firm and hold fast to the teachings[a] we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter. - [2 Thessalonians 2:15](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Thessalonians%202%3A15&version=NIV) > > > According to St. John Chrysostom the custom of celebrating the Solemnity of our Saviour’s Nativity in his Homily for this Feast, that the Western Churches had, from the very commencement of Christianity, kept it on December 25th. Here is what the now famous liturgist Dom Guéranger, the foremost authority on the liturgy in his Liturgical Year has to say about this matter: > > The Feast of Mary’s Purification is, therefore, part of that of Jesus’ Birth; and the custom of keeping this holy and glorious period of forty days as one continued Festival has every appearance of being a very ancient one, at least in the Roman Church. And firstly, with regard to our Saviour’s Birth on December 25, we have St John Chrysostom telling us, in his Homily for this Feast, that the Western Churches had, from the very commencement of Christianity, kept it on this day. He is not satisfied with merely mentioning the tradition; he undertakes to show that it is well founded, inasmuch as the Church of Rome had every means of knowing the true day of our Saviour’s Birth, since the acts of the Enrolment, taken in Judea by command of Augustus, were kept in the public archives of Rome. The holy Doctor adduces a second argument, which he founds upon the Gospel of St Luke, and he reasons thus: we know from the sacred Scriptures that it must have been in the fast of the seventh month [Lev. xxiii 24 and following verses. The seventh month (or Tisri) corresponded to the end of our September and beginning of our October. -Tr.] that the Priest Zachary had the vision in the Temple; after which Elizabeth, his wife, conceived St John the Baptist: hence it follows that the Blessed Virgin Mary having, as the Evangelist St Luke relates, received the Angel Gabriel’s visit, and conceived the Saviour of the world in the sixth month of Elizabeth’s pregnancy, that is to say, in March, the Birth of Jesus must have taken place in the month of December. - [The History of Christmas (The Liturgical Year)](http://www.liturgialatina.org/lityear/christmas/christmas1.htm) > > > And now for St. John Chrysostom in his own words: > > There is something which long ago patriarchs painfully longed for, prophets foretold and the righteous set their hearts on. Now it has come to pass and had its consummation today. God was seen on earth through flesh and dwelt among humankind. So then, beloved, let us rejoice with great gladness. For if John leapt in his mother’s womb when Mary visited Elizabeth, consider that we have actually seen our Saviour born today. So now we, much more, must leap, rejoice, and be full of wonder and astonishment at the grandeur of God’s plan which exceeds all thought. Think how great it would be to see the sun coming down from the heavens, running on the earth and sending out its beams on everybody from here. If the sight of such splendour would astound all who behold it, consider and contemplate now how great it is to see the sun of righteousness (Malachi 4: 2), sending out beams from our own flesh and illuminating our souls. Long ago I set my heart on seeing this day, and not just seeing it, but seeing it with such a great gathering of people. I continually prayed that our place of meeting would be filled just as we now see it filled. So this has come to pass and had its consummation. Although it is not yet the tenth year since this day became clear and familiar to us, through your zeal, it has now flourished as though it was given from the beginning many years ago. Because of this one would not be far wrong in saying that it is both new and old: new because it has only recently been made known to you, old and venerable because it has swiftly become similar in stature to days long recognised and it feels as though it is of similar age to them. It is as with carefully bred and cultivated plants (the ones that reach an impressive height almost as soon as they are placed in the earth, and are laden with fruit). This day was known from the beginning to those in the West: now it has been brought to us and before the passing of many years, has swiftly shot up, bearing such fruit as you now see – the precincts full and the church packed with the crowd who have gathered together. Expect a repayment worthy of such zeal from Christ who is born today in the flesh. He will reward you for this enthusiasm. Your heartfelt zeal for this day is a great sign of your love for the one who is born. If it is necessary for anything to be contributed by us, your fellow servants, then, as we are able, we will contribute it; or rather whatever words the grace of God gives me to build you up. What do you wish to hear today? You want, of course, to hear about this day. I well know that many are still debating with each other about it, some arguing against, some for. Everywhere there is a lot of conversation about this day, some saying accusingly that the day is a new innovation which has only recently been introduced, while others contend that it is ancient and venerable, that the prophets spoke in advance about his birth and that from the beginning it was plain and clear to those living from Thrace to Cadiz. So come then and let us begin to give an account of these things. At the moment a day which is debated among you enjoys significant goodwill. If it became more familiar to you it is obvious that it would enjoy even greater zeal. Clarity of teaching will consolidate its position among you. > > > I have three convincing arguments to share with you through which we will know for sure that this is the time at which our Lord Jesus Christ, God the Word, was born. Of the three the first is that the news about the feast was swiftly circulated everywhere; it increased in prominence and the feast flourished. Gamaliel said of the proclamation of the Gospel – if it is from men and women it will come to an end, but if it is from God you will not be able to bring it to an end lest you are found to be fighting against God. I would confidently say of this day that, since God the Word is of God, far from it coming to an end, it is increasing in prominence each year and becoming better and better known. Within a few years the preaching of the Gospel had taken hold of the entire world even though it was shared in each place by ordinary people of little education like tentmakers and fishermen. The modest circumstances of its servants did it no harm, but the power of the message won over everything, brought to nothing whatever got in the way and demonstrated a strength of its own. - [John Chrysostom - Homily on the Date of Christmas](https://earlychurchtexts.com/public/john_chrysostom_homily_in_diem_natalem_domini_nostri_jesu_christi.htm) > > > Objections to celebrate Christmas will always exists as long a disunity exists. I guess as Catholics we have to help eliminate those objections to Christmas and the Dec. 25th Birth of Christ made Flesh? > > Objection: The Dec. 25th birth of Christ invented by the Catholic Church in the 4th century. > > > Answer: There is no evidence supporting any part of this allegation. There is good evidence that the Nativity has been celebrated from as early as the second century, hundreds of years before the Catholic Church even existed. > > > The Catholic Church and Papacy as we know them today did not grow up until the 6th and 7th centuries. Boniface III, in 607, was the first Bishop to actually use the term "Pope." Prior to this, there was no centralized authority in the church to institute observance of the Nativity, and what customs existed grew up spontaneously by the common consent of the collective church. Not even the emperor Constantine (AD 242-337), who is sometimes associated with the beginnings of Catholicism and a centralized power in the church, ever addressed the issue of the Nativity. > > > Objection: If there was no Catholic Church or Papacy prior to the 6th or 7th centuries responsible for instituting celebration of Christ's birth Dec. 25th, what about an ecumenical council? > > > Answer: Here again there is no evidence supporting this supposition. > > The first ecumenical council was the Council of Nicea in AD 325, long after the Nativity was already being celebrated. This council took up the question of the uniform celebration of the Pasche (Easter), but history is silent about it or any other council instituting the Feast of the Nativity. So far as may be authoritatively shown, if not set in the church by the apostles, celebration of the Nativity grew up spontaneously as a way of commemorating important events in sacred history, like the miracle at Cana, the Passion, Resurrection, and Ascension. In the East, January 6th (Epiphany) was kept as the date of Christ's birth until late in the fourth century, (though the same date was supposed by others to commemorate Jesus' baptism, the arrival of the Magi, or the miracle at Cana). In the West, the Nativity was celebrated Dec. 25th for as long as history remembers. The fact that the Nativity was celebrated differently in differnt places proves that no pope or council established the Feast of the Nativity, for if that were the case there would be no place for this difference to have grown up. Among the earliest testimonies to celebration the Nativity include the following: > > > * Theophilus, Bishop of Caesarea (A.D. 115-181) - Theophilus lived in the time of Emperor Commodus; he lived within 100 years of the apostles, and was bishop of Caesarea in Palestine, the very fount whence sprang our faith. > > > *We ought to celebrate the birth-day of our Lord on what day soever the 25th of December shall happen." Magdeburgenses, Cent. 2. c. 6. Hospinian, de orign Festorum Chirstianorum* > > > * Clement of Alexandria (AD 153-217) - In the second century, Alexandria became the intellectual center of Christianity, beginning with Clement, followed by his student, Origen. > > > \*"And there are those who have determined not only the year of our Lord's birth, but also the day; and they say that it took place in the twenty-eighth year of Augustus, and in the twenty-fifth day of Pachon." (Stromata, I, xxi) > > > Counting from the death of Antony in 30 B.C., the 28th year of Augustus would have been 2 B.C. The first month of the Egyptian calendar was Thoth, answering to late August (Thoth 1 = August 29). The ninth month was Pachon. The 25th of Pachon answers to the 20th of May. However, this is usually explained by the fact that the months originally took their names from where they occurred in the year. Hence, October, November and December were the eighth, ninth, and tenth months counting from March in the original Roman calendar, which had only ten months. But the Greek Fathers frequently took April, instead of March, for the first month of the year, as we see expressly in St. Chrysostom, in Anastasius Patriarch of Antioch, the Apostolic Constitutions, in Macarius, Stephanus, Gobarus, and other of the ancients. This would make December the ninth counting from April. Supposing therefore that some were informed Christ was born the 25th day of ninth month, who then transferred it to the Egyptian calendar, the 25th of Pachon would be the result. This is the belief of John Selden and Johannes Keppler. > > > * Hippolytus of Rome (A.D. 170-240) - Hippolytus of Rome provides one of the earliest known references to the December 25 birth of Christ in his commentary on Daniel. Chrysostom says that the Feast of the Nativity was kept “from the beginning” by those in the west, and we find corroboration of this in Hippolytus: > > > *“The first coming of our Lord, that in the flesh, in which he was born at Bethlehem, took place eight days before the calends of January, a Wednesday, in the forty-second year of the reign of Augustus, 5500 years from Adam.” (Commentary on Daniel 4:23)* > > > The eighth before the calends of January is the twenty-fifth day of December, and the forty-second year of Augustus counting from the death of Julius Caesar was 2 BC. > > > * Apostolic Constitutions (circa A.D. 70-250) - The Apostolic Constitutions are a compilation, whose material is derived from sources differing in age. Early writers were inclined to assign them to the apostolic age and to Clement Romanus (A.D. 70), but they are now generally assigned to the second or third century. In the Fifth book, Sec. III, we find: > > > *"Brethren, observe the festival days; and first of all the birthday which you are to celebrate on the twenty-fifth of the ninth month.* > > > The ninth month counting from Nisan (April) is Casleu in the Jewish calendar. Transferred to our Roman calendar, the ninth month answers to December. > > > Diocletian (A.D. 303-304) - Nicephorus wrote an ecclesiastical history in which he reports Diocletian's destruction of a church on Dec. 25th, filled with worshippers celebrating the Lord's Nativity: > > > *"At Nicomedia (a city of Bithynia) when the festival of Christ's birth-day came, and a multitude of Christians in all ages had assembled together in the temple to celebrate that birth-day. Diocletian the tyrant, having gotten an advantageous occasion whereby he might accomplish his madness and fury, sent men thither to enclose the temple, and to set it on fire round about, and so consumed them all to ashes, even twenty thousand persons."* > > > John Selden in his monumental work, Theanthropos (1661, pp. 33, 34), confirms Nicephorus' report, saying that ancient Greek and Roman martyrologies date this event to Dec. 25th. It is probable that this occurred in A.D. 303-304. > > > Objection: Dec. 25th was assigned for celebration of Christ's birth to Christianize the pagan solstice, Saturnalia, Feast of the Unconquered Sun, and other pagan festivals. > > > Answer: Not one word from antiquity has ever been produced supporting this assertion. The whole notion is supposition at best, or deliberate slander at worst. The church fathers never spoke of Dec. 25th in connection with Christ's birth except as the traditional, received date of the Nativity. > > > * Saturnalia - The Saturnalia was originally celebrated on only one day, the fourteenth Kalends of January (Dec. 17). With the Julian reform of the calendar, two days were added to December, causing the festival to fall on the sixteenth Kalends of January. Macrobius reports that the addition of two days to December caused the festival to be celebrated more days than one, which, coupled with the Sigarillaria, came to be celebrated a full week, or Dec. 17-23. > > > "I judge that I've now abundantly demonstrated that the Saturnalia used to be celebrated on one day only, the fourteenth before the Kalends, but that it was later extended to three, first as a result of the days that Caesar added to the month, and then by the edict of Augustus in which he assigned to the Saturnialia a three day holiday. As a result, they begin on the sixteenth day before the Kalends and end on the fourteenth, when the one day observance was formerly held. But the addition of the Sigillaria extends the public bustle and religious celebration to seven days." Saturnalia I.10.23, 24 > > > Thus, the Saturnalia reached only as far as Dec. 23rd and therefore cannot account for Christmas occurring Dec. 25th. > > > * Solstice - It is true that pagan peoples throughout the ancient world had various celebrations at the major turning points of the calendar, including the winter solstice, and that this anciently fell upon Dec. 25th. However, due to defects in the Roman calendar, by the time of Jesus' birth the winter solstice anticipated Dec. 25th by about two days. By the Council of Nicea in A.D. 325, the astronomical event anticipated the calendar by four days. Therefore, to correct this deficiency and provide for the uniform observance of the Pasche (Easter), the council set the vernal equinox, which anciently fell on March 25th, to March 21st, moving it four days. But in correcting the civil date of the vernal equinox to correspond with the astronomical event, the winter solstice was also necessarily corrected, for the two stand in fixed relation one to another. Hence, the solstice now falls on Dec. 21st. However, the coincidence that the Nativity is celebrated on the day the solstice anciently occurred in the civil calendar is no more evidence that the date is contrived than the coincidence that Christ's passion and resurrection occurred near the vernal equinox. Indeed, might not God have chosen man's salvation to come about precisely this way because of its poetic symbolism and value? Malachi associated Christ with the sun over 400 years before his birth, saying, "the Sun of Righteousness shall arise with healing in his wings" (Mal. 4:2). New Testament writers make similar use of the metaphor (Lk. 1:78; Jn. 1:4, 9; 2 Pet. 1:19). Thus, it is altogether fitting that Christ should come into the world in the dark of winter, bringing spiritual light and salvation, and be raised from the dead in the spring when the earth is reborn after the pall of sin and winter death. > Sol Invictus - This is a facet of the winter solstice, but we treat it here separately. In A.D. 274 following his victories in the east, the emperor Aurelius built a temple and instituted quadrennial games in behalf of Sol Invictus, a pagan sun god to whom he attributed his victories. An illuminated codex manuscript produced for a wealthy Christian named Valentinus contains, in part six, a calendar for the year 354 (the Chronography of 354). (The Codex is available on-line here) This calendar bears the following inscription for Dec. 25th: "N INVICTI CM XXX". N = Natalis ("birthday/nativity"). INVICTI = "Of the Unconquered one". CM = Circenses missus ("games ordered"). XXX = 30. Thus, for birthday of the "unconquered one" that year, thirty games were ordered. Many believe this refers to Sol Invictus and the "birthday" of the sun god worshipped by the Roman Emperor Aurelius. Although this has been questioned and others believe the games instituted by Aurelius were kept in October, we may accept as true for present purposes that Sol Invictus was honored Dec. 25th. > > > Objection: Shepherds would not have been in the field keeping watch over sheep in winter. > > > Answer: This argument assumes that weather conditions in Jerusalem and Judea are similar to those of Europe and other northern climes. However, Judea is a desert climate. Its average high temperature in December is 57.2° Fahrenheit; its average low is 47.1°. Its record high in December is 79°. The Bible fully confirms the ability of shepherds to be in the fields, keeping watch over their flocks in December. Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob lived year round in tents their whole lives (Heb. 11:9; cf. Gen. 128; 13:3, 18; 18:1, 9), as did many of the Jews for centuries after conquering Canaan (Jud. 4:18; Jer. 35:7, 10). Moreover, scripture specifically relates that Jacob kept watch over Laban's flocks by winter frost at night (Gen. 31:40). The pictures below were taken in Bethlehem at Christmas 1890 and 2006. As may be seen, the climate is perfectly suitable for being out of doors. Hence, there is simply no basis to this objection. > > > Objection: Jesus was probably born in September. > > > Answer: The usual method used as proof Jesus was born in September is the priestly courses. A second method is an interpretation of Rev. 12:1-5 vis-à-vis astronomical events. Both are wrong. > > > Priestly Courses: We know that Zechariah, the father of John the Baptist, was a priest and was executing his priestly office when told that his wife, Elizabeth, would conceive a son (Lk. 1:5, 9). John was conceived six months before our Lord (Lk. 1:24, 26, 36). If it can be determined when John was conceived, it can be identified when Jesus was born some fifteen months later. There were twenty-four courses of priests (I Chron. 24:18). Zechariah was a member of the course of Abijah, the eighth course (Lk. 1:5; I Chron. 24:10). If it is assumed that the courses began their ministration in the spring on Nisan 1, the course of Abijah would have been serving the week of Jyar 20-26 (the eight weeks are as follows: Nisan 1-7, 8-14, 15-21, 22-28, 29-5 Jyar, 6-12, 13-19, 20-26). This is sometimes extended a week based upon the assumption that the normal progression of the course was interrupted by Passover Nisan 14. If so, Zechariah would then have been serving the week of 27 Jyar - 4 Sivan. Working from this latter date, and assuming John was conceived the first week Zechariah returned home, a normal 38 week gestation would place John's birth the week of Shebat 29- Adar 5. Jesus' birth 6 months (26 weeks) later would thus fall on Elul 4-10. If it is then assumed that Nisan 1 answers to April 1, Elul would then translate into September 4-10, for it is the fifth month from Nisan. In this way, therefore, it is argued that Jesus was born in September. However, there are several errors and oversights in this approach that render it untenable. > > > First, postponing of the normal service of Abijah in the eighth week cannot be justified. Although the Mishna indicates all the courses served at the three great feasts of the year (Passover, Pentecost, and Tabernacles) (Finegan, p. 133, § 241), there is no basis for assuming that the normal rotation of the courses was suspended, rather then merely supplemented. The extra work associated with the great feasts might require additional courses to serve, but the regular evening and morning sacrifices and other priestly duties still had to be made throughout the remainder of the week. Hence, we would expect this responsibility to fall to the course whose duty it was to minister that week. The better view therefore is that the course whose turn it was to serve received assistance of other courses, not that the normal rotation was entirely suspended. Second, there were twenty-four courses of priests, but about 51 1/2 weeks in the Jewish lunar year of 354 days (about 54 3/4 weeks in leap years of 384 days). Each course therefore served twice annually, plus such additional weeks as necessary to fill out the year (e.g., some courses served a third time). The model above assumes Zechariah was serving in the first weekly ministration and does not allow for the possibility he was serving six months later, which would place Jesus' birth in March. Third, and most important, the best scholarship agrees that the priestly courses began their annual rotations in the fall on Tishri 1, not in the spring on Nisan 1 as proposed by the model above (Finegan, p. 134 § 243). It was the seventh month when the temple was dedicated by Solomon for which the courses were created in the first place, and the seventh month when the sacrifices resumed again under Ezra after the Babylonian captivity (I Kn. 8:2; Ezra 3:6). Hence, Tishri is the correct point for the annual rotation to begin, not Nisan. The most basic assumption underlying September birth model is therefore false. On the other hand, we have shown in our tables of priestly courses that, working from 1 Tishri and constructing the courses in twenty-four year cycles from A.D. 70 backward to 21 B.C., it is fully possible that John was conceived in the fall and born in June, placing Jesus' birth six months later in December. > > > Rev. 12:1-5: Another method of placing Jesus' birth in September was proposed by Ernest L. Martin in his book, The Star that Astonished the World (ASK Publications, 1996). Therein, Martin asserts that Rev. 12:1-5 provides an exact time for the birth of Christ, right down to the day and hour. Martin is able to do this by interpreting the woman as the constellation Virgo. He then urges that her being “clothed with the sun” signifies that the sun was midway in the constellation, thus clothing her. For Martin, the key is the moon beneath her feet, which he says could only happen within a 90 minute window one day in the year 3 BC. Thus, according to Martin, we have the precise means of dating Jesus’ birth: > > > *“The Moon has to be positioned somewhere under that 7 degree arc to satisfy the description of Revelation 12. But the Moon also has to be in that exact location when the Sun is mid-bodied to Virgo. In the year 3 B.C.E., these two factors came to precise agreement for about an hour and a half, as observed from Palestine or Patmos, in the twilight period of September 11th The relationship began about 6:15 p.m. (sunset), and lasted until around 7:45 p.m. (moonset). This is the only day in the whole year that the astronomical phenomenon described in the twelfth chapter of Revelation could take place.”* > > > Of course, at the critical moment that the moon is allegedly in position the sun has set, so it difficult to see how Martin can argue for the literalness of the vision. Moreover, the constellation Draco does not answer the description of the dragon in Revelation, nor for that matter does Virgo match the description of the woman (Virgo does not have a crown of twelve stars and Draco does not have seven heads and ten horns). Hence, Martin insists upon the literalness of the vision only when it suits him and not at all points. However, by far the most glaring discrepancy between Martin's account and scripture is the year of Jesus' birth. Luke is emphatic that Jesus was 29 going on 30 at his baptism in the fall of 15th of Tiberius (A.D. 29). This would place Jesus' birth in 2 B.C. Thus, Martin's interpretation of Rev. 12:1-5 is contradicted by God's inspired word. (For a full refutation of Martin, [click here](http://dec25th.info/Simmons%27%20Refutation%20of%20Martin%27s%20Star%20that%20Astonished%20the%20World.html)). > > > Conclusion > > > None of the normal objections put forward against Christmas and the Dec. 25th birth of Christ have any factual basis. > > > [Objections to Christmas and the Dec. 25th Birth of Christ Answered](http://dec25th.info/Objections%20Answered.html) > > >
One of the things the ambiguity of Scripture indicates is that Scripture was never meant to be read like some read it today, as having the answer for every question. Instead, it demonstrates the need for Church authority which is quite clear in Scripture (think of the erring fellow to whom we go privately to correct, then with one or two brothers, etc., and then bring him before the Church). That parenthesized reference demonstrates clearly that there are individuals in the Church that have authority to welcome the erring party into the Church or to exclude that one from communion.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
A "Why didn't God include a certain piece of information in Scripture?" question is most likely to generate only speculation (which is fine as long as it is identified as such). Here is mine: I think it is likely that, since the Word becoming flesh was first, a penultimate act of condescension and humility (God in flesh and blood) and second, a necessary means to an end (no atoning death without a birth first), a dateless birth is well in keeping with both the mind and purpose of Christ. > > Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, **but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself** by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. - Philippians 2:5-8 > > > Another important aspect is that the birth of Jesus (the man) is not the beginning of the Son of God. Perhaps the exact date is left out as emphasizing that, in the beginning, "the Word was with God and the Word was God". The one who has always existed "took on flesh" but did not "come into being". This is different from any other human birth. The Son of God has no birthday!
One of the things the ambiguity of Scripture indicates is that Scripture was never meant to be read like some read it today, as having the answer for every question. Instead, it demonstrates the need for Church authority which is quite clear in Scripture (think of the erring fellow to whom we go privately to correct, then with one or two brothers, etc., and then bring him before the Church). That parenthesized reference demonstrates clearly that there are individuals in the Church that have authority to welcome the erring party into the Church or to exclude that one from communion.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
Our confusion is not to say there isn't an accurate answer. Ambiguity embraced is to see both sides. > > Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually. Heb 7:3 > > > The reference is to Melchizedek of which priesthood is Christ and who is a pattern to Christ. It is said of having neither beginning or ending of life. No one knows the specific birth or death dates. As in God. Yet, there is this. > > Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow. 1 Peter 1:10-11 > > > We might read this and think it refer only to Messiah's sufferings, but not so. It means the whole of Messiah on earth. The grace that should come; as in God with us. > > 2. The time, and the manner of the times, wherein the Messiah was to appear. > [Matthew Henry](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/mhc/1Pe/1Pe_001.cfm?a=1152011) > > > > > 11. what--Greek, "In reference to what, or what manner of time." What expresses the time absolutely: what was to be the era of Messiah's coming; what manner of time; what events and features should characterize the time of His coming. > [Jamieson, Fausset & Brown](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/jfb/1Pe/1Pe_001.cfm?a=1152011) > > > As well, the magi from the east didn't miss His star at His birth (Mt 2:1). Were they watching for it, inquiring to the time? <there came wise men--literally, "Magi" or "Magians," probably of the learned class who cultivated astrology and kindred sciences. Balaam's prophecy ( Num 24:17 ), and perhaps Daniel's ( Dan 9:24, &c.), might have come down to them by tradition; but nothing definite is known of them. [Jamieson, Fausset & Brown](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/jfb/Mat/Mat_002.cfm?a=931001) Herod the king was troubled at a baby. Was he watching for the time? > > When Herod the king had heard these things, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him. > > > Why were they troubled? It had been prophesied of a King. > > The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be. Gen 49:10 > > > > > Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre. Psalm 45:6 > > > > > Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this. Isa 9:7 > > > > > Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. Dan 9:24 > > > > > Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Is 7:14 > > > Moreover, John (the baptist) the son of Zechariah had been born. All of these things point to a specific time for Messiah's birth. All of these things erase ambiguity. They could count the times and they did. There is no reason to continue with further details such as the 490 years of Daniel. There is lots of ambiguity there now as well. The point is at that time, they were looking for the fulfillment of prophecy. There was no ambiguity.
"Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth" First and foremost, there is NO such omission: the angel told the shepherds to celebrate Christ's birth, and the angels themselves were celebrating it: > > But the angel said to them, “Do not be afraid; for behold, **I bring > you good news of great joy** which will be for all the people; for > today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who > is Christ the Lord. This will be a sign for you: **you will find a > baby** wrapped in cloths and lying in a manger.” And suddenly there > appeared with the angel a multitude of the heavenly host praising God > and saying, > > > “Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men with whom > He is pleased.” > > > When the angels had gone away from them into heaven, the shepherds > began saying to one another, “Let us go straight to Bethlehem then, > and **see this thing that has happened** which the Lord has made known > to us.” So they came in a hurry and found their way to Mary and > Joseph, and the baby as He lay in the manger. When they had seen this, > **they made known the statement which had been told them about this > Child**. And all who heard it wondered at the things which were told > them by the shepherds. But Mary **treasured all these things,** > pondering them in her heart. The shepherds went back, **glorifying and > praising God for all that they had heard and seen,** just as had been > told them. (Luke 2:10-20. NASB) > > > Having cleared that point, there is a plausible reason why the Gospels' silence on the date of Jesus' birth may be not only compatible with the divine design that Christians celebrate the event but also **actually required to enable that celebration**, and it becomes evident if we recall the basis for the date of December 25: the notion of integral age of prophets - based on understanding the statement by Moses: "I am a son of a hundred and twenty years today" (Deut 31:2) in the sense that he was turning 120 years old that very day, in which he was later going to die -, plus the incorrect assumption that Jesus was crucified on March 25. Now, if the notion of integral age did indeed apply to Jesus in its **original** sense, i.e. regarding his birth, and not in a modified sense regarding his conception, then Christmas would fall on the same date as Good Friday and Christians would not be able to celebrate it. In that case, the Gospels' silence about the date of Jesus' birth would be **actually required to enable its celebration** by Christians.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
Yes, the "ambiguity" in the Bible regarding 25 December should teach us something. It should teach us to use the same "ambiguity" regarding 25 December. As @SLM so neatly [stated](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/88700/59520): > > Our confusion is not to say there isn't an accurate answer. > > > To some it is clear that we should celebrate 25 December as the birthday of Jesus Christ. To others it is clear that we should not celebrate 25 December as the birth of Christ as the birthday of our Saviour. Only one of these groups can be right, and the answer is in the Bible, but it is not clear to everyone. I believe the Bible is "ambigious" on some truths for the sake of The Truth that is Jesus Christ. Throug the work of the Holy Spirt as you seek the truth in the Bible and grow in fait and learn something, you will see that the truth has always been there, you just couldn't see it. You had to drink the milk before you could bear the meat. As the Bible and the Holy Spirit teach (feeding us with milk before feeding us meat) so should we teach others. Never lying about the truth, but also not trying to force-feed others. > > 1Co 3:2  I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye > were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able. > > >
"Birthday" is mentioned only three times in the Bible: > > Now it came to pass on the third day, which was **Pharaoh’s birthday**, that he made a feast for all his servants; and he lifted up the head of the chief butler and of the chief baker among his servants. > Then he restored the chief butler to his butlership again, and he placed the cup in Pharaoh’s hand. > But **he hanged the chief baker**, as Joseph had interpreted to them. > — Genesis 40:20–22 > > > > > But when **Herod’s birthday** was celebrated, the daughter of Herodias danced before them and pleased Herod. > Therefore he promised with an oath to give her whatever she might ask. > > > So she, having been prompted by her mother, said, “Give me John the Baptist’s head here on a platter.” > > > And the king was sorry; nevertheless, because of the oaths and because of those who sat with him, he commanded it to be given to her. > So he sent and **had John beheaded in prison**. > And his head was brought on a platter and given to the girl, and she brought it to her mother. > — Matthew 14:6–11 > > > > > [Same account as Matthew] > — Mark 6:21–28 > > > Notice that they are celebrated by rulers, and that things don't go well for other people. The Bible says nothing else about anyone's birthday, indicating that it is not something that Christians should concern themselves with. Celebrating the anniversary of one's own birth is an example of pride and vanity. Even Jesus's birth has significance only because it made his death possible. It is Jesus's death and suffering that Christians are told to commemorate: > > And He took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, “This is My body which is given for you; **do this in remembrance of Me**.” > Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you. > — Luke 22:19–20 > > >
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
**Does the ambiguity in the NT regarding the date of Jesus's birth and the lack of explicit command to celebrate it every year (compared to explicit instruction to memorialize the Lord's supper) *in itself* a teaching?** From *Sola Scriptura* perspective, I think it's safe to derive from the Bible alone that Christmas celebration is optional and that the customary date itself is not important. Therefore, we can deduce that God would be fine leaving Christian movements to abstain from this celebration, most notably [Quakers](https://www.quaker.org.uk/blog/times-and-seasons-a-quaker-reflection-on-christmas), [Jehovah's Witnesses](https://www.jw.org/en/jehovahs-witnesses/faq/why-not-celebrate-christmas/), and [Churches of Christ](https://christianchronicle.org/christ-in-christmas-churches-of-christ-and-the-holiday-season/). But given the early church's tradition (within about 150 years, cf. [St. Hippolytus of Rome quote dated c. 204 AD](https://insidethevatican.com/magazine/lead-story/the-25th-of-december-pagan-feast-or-patristic-tradition/)) the birth was seen as an important milestone to celebrate, *especially* if we see the growing recognition of the role **incarnation** played in more and more doctrines such as theological anthropology and atonement. I think it is safe to deduce from these early experiences of Trinitarian Christians that **God the Son's taking flesh** to add a second nature of 100% human being to the human form of a Jewish male Jesus of Nazareth is worth commemorating, *especially* in the face of Gnostic threat that downplayed the materiality of Jesus or other [early church heresies](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_heresies_in_the_Catholic_Church) (like adoptionism, apollinarism, docetism, etc.) that regarded Jesus as less than God. What better way to counter those heresies than by celebrating the following events to emphasize the different aspects of *God became man*? * [Annunciation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Annunciation) * [Christmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christmas) * [Epiphany](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epiphany_(holiday)) for which [Advent](https://www.learnreligions.com/meaning-of-advent-700455) is a preparation **[INCARNATION](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incarnation_(Christianity)) is the whole point of celebrating Christmas**. For Christians, every activity (singing carols, gift exchange, Christmas tree, nativity scene re-enactment, joyful spirit over Christmas meals, singing Handel's *Messiah*) needs to point to this one way or the other. This doctrine is fully supported by the Bible, see [10 Key Bible Verses on the Incarnation](https://www.crossway.org/articles/10-key-bible-verses-on-the-incarnation/): * John 1:14 (which you mentioned): *And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.* * Heb 1:1-2: *Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world.* * Isa 9:6: *For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.* * Gal 4:4-5: *But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.* * etc. For more readings on how an extremely influential early church father [Irenaeus of Lyons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irenaeus) (c. 130-202 AD) linked incarnation to other doctrines, see * [St. Irenaeus and the *Imago Dei*: The Importance of Being Human](https://www.stthomas.edu/media/catholicstudies/center/logosjournal/archives/2003vol06/64/6-4-Article.pdf): reminding us how Incarnation helps us to be more fully human by looking at how Jesus lived and fulfilled all God's expectation for Adam as a full bodied being, fully participating in the world, bodily loving our neighbors. * [Irenaeus of Lyons: A Defense of Recapitulation](https://digitalcommons.georgefox.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1018&context=seminary_masters): showing how atonement can also be seen from incarnation angle, how Jesus completed what Adam could not complete ### Conclusion While the Bible is silent on the date and the command to celebrate Christmas, when we reflect on the significance of Incarnation which the Bible clearly teaches, it is incumbent for us Trinitarian Christians to celebrate Incarnation as well as the Lord's supper. We can see the ambiguity as God's teaching us to prioritize Eucharist over Christmas (if we have to choose), but we also have Biblical justification to celebrate Christmas to remind us of Incarnation, an important plank for our salvation.
"Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth" First and foremost, there is NO such omission: the angel told the shepherds to celebrate Christ's birth, and the angels themselves were celebrating it: > > But the angel said to them, “Do not be afraid; for behold, **I bring > you good news of great joy** which will be for all the people; for > today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who > is Christ the Lord. This will be a sign for you: **you will find a > baby** wrapped in cloths and lying in a manger.” And suddenly there > appeared with the angel a multitude of the heavenly host praising God > and saying, > > > “Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men with whom > He is pleased.” > > > When the angels had gone away from them into heaven, the shepherds > began saying to one another, “Let us go straight to Bethlehem then, > and **see this thing that has happened** which the Lord has made known > to us.” So they came in a hurry and found their way to Mary and > Joseph, and the baby as He lay in the manger. When they had seen this, > **they made known the statement which had been told them about this > Child**. And all who heard it wondered at the things which were told > them by the shepherds. But Mary **treasured all these things,** > pondering them in her heart. The shepherds went back, **glorifying and > praising God for all that they had heard and seen,** just as had been > told them. (Luke 2:10-20. NASB) > > > Having cleared that point, there is a plausible reason why the Gospels' silence on the date of Jesus' birth may be not only compatible with the divine design that Christians celebrate the event but also **actually required to enable that celebration**, and it becomes evident if we recall the basis for the date of December 25: the notion of integral age of prophets - based on understanding the statement by Moses: "I am a son of a hundred and twenty years today" (Deut 31:2) in the sense that he was turning 120 years old that very day, in which he was later going to die -, plus the incorrect assumption that Jesus was crucified on March 25. Now, if the notion of integral age did indeed apply to Jesus in its **original** sense, i.e. regarding his birth, and not in a modified sense regarding his conception, then Christmas would fall on the same date as Good Friday and Christians would not be able to celebrate it. In that case, the Gospels' silence about the date of Jesus' birth would be **actually required to enable its celebration** by Christians.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
> > I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. > > > For what it's worth, growing up in the Churches of Christ, I've heard this exact question posed *many* times and quite a lot of people do hold either the position that, due to the silence of scripture on the subject, either it *should not* be celebrated or that such celebration is optional. Personally, I would fall into the latter of those categories. While I do believe that the writings of the early church fathers and known practices of the church in the second century are useful for study and providing insight about the beliefs of early Christians, I don't believe that they are, of themselves, in any way binding on modern Christians. And I would agree with your interpretation of 2 Thess 2:15 as referring specifically to what that the church at Thessalonika had been taught by word *from the apostles and those appointed by them*, not just any teaching they eventually may have received from anyone claiming to be a Christian. Indeed, there were already plenty of heresies being taught at the time that Paul obviously would not have wanted them to believe, as evidenced by his own epistles specifically addressing several of them. And, of course, the church at Thessalonika at the time Paul wrote 2 Thessalonians obviously didn't have the complete Bible as we have today, as some of it still had not yet been written. As for celebrating Christmas - or any other religious holiday - there is neither instruction for Christians to do so, nor for them not to. And there are Biblical examples of Christians who did celebrate religious holidays (such as the Jewish feasts,) as well as those who did not. And both were *explicitly approved* as acceptable practice, for example, in Romans 14 and 15. > > One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. 6 He who observes the day, observes it to the Lord; and he who does not observe the day, to the Lord he does not observe it. He who eats, eats to the Lord, for he gives God thanks; and he who does not eat, to the Lord he does not eat, and gives God thanks. > > > Romans 14:5-6 NASB > > So then each of us shall give account of himself to God. 13 Therefore let us not judge one another anymore, but rather resolve this, not to put a stumbling block or a cause to fall in our brother’s way. 14 I know and am convinced by the Lord Jesus that there is nothing unclean of itself; but to him who considers anything to be unclean, to him it is unclean. 15 Yet if your brother is grieved because of your food, you are no longer walking in love. Do not destroy with your food the one for whom Christ died. 16 Therefore do not let your good be spoken of as evil; 17 for the kingdom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit. 18 For he who serves Christ in these things is acceptable to God and approved by men. > > > Romans 14:12-18 NASB In addition to explicitly saying that each practice is acceptable to God, the apostle Paul also commands both those who do and don't observe the feasts to not judge each other and additionally commands them not to exercise their liberty (either to observe or not to) in such a way that could cause division or cause a brother to stumble by violating his own conscious. Paul further mentions in verse 14 (and reiterates in verse 23) that observing in violation of one's own conscious, however, would be a sin. While Romans 14 (and 15) wasn't referring to Christmas specifically, it sets out principles that apply generally to situations where there is disagreement among Christians on matters that are not set out in scripture. I would therefore apply those same principles to this situation: I wouldn't judge anyone either for observing or not observing a religious holiday such as Christmas, nor would I exercise my liberty to observe it or not in a way that might cause a brother to stumble or cause division. ### The Silence of Scripture As far as why we're not given the date of Jesus' birth in scripture, I would say that it is simply because it isn't at all necessary for us to know. If God deemed it important for us to celebrate the day of Christ's birth, then He surely would have told us what it was. As Paul says in 2 Timothy 3:16-17, > > All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. > 2 Timothy 3:16-17 ESV > > > If something were necessary for us to know in order to be "complete, equipped for every good work," it would have been recorded for us in scripture. That's not to say that there aren't things that are useful or interesting to know that aren't recorded in scripture - such as, for example, the aforementioned writings of the early church fathers - but they aren't necessary for anyone to know the nature of God, what He has done for us, or how He wants us to live. If celebrating Christmas as the birth of Christ were something God definitely wanted us to do, He would have told us so and told us when it was. Similarly, if it were vitally important for us *not* to celebrate it, He would have told us that, too. There are many subjects on which scripture is silent because it simply isn't important for us to know or have a single, universal practice. It is on these subjects where what Paul discusses in Romans 14 and 15 comes into play. One particular practice may be useful to Christians from one time, place, and background in their devotion and service to God, but not necessarily to those from another. Most customary practices were useful to some group of Christians at some point, but that doesn't mean that they're useful, let alone necessary, for all Christians in all times. For this particular example, [GratefulDisciple's answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/88678/11019) mentions good reasons why celebrating Christmas was a useful practice at the time it was introduced. However, Gnosticism and such heresies aren't significant threats to the church in most places in modern times, so some of the early reasons for its usefulness aren't applicable to nearly as much (or perhaps any) of the church today as they were then. The same could undoubtedly be said of countless other practices among Christians that have differed both from one time period to another as well as from one place or background to another in the same time. For example, the use of song books for singing hymns was undoubtedly a useful practice for very many Christians throughout the 19th and 20th centuries. However, Christians prior to that time mostly didn't have the technology for those to be feasible to mass produce (and much of the population wasn't literate anyway.) And, now, yet other technological developments (e.g. projectors and PowerPoint) have rendered them largely obsolete to many Christians, having been replaced by a more useful practice for the time. Song books are a somewhat trivial (and intentionally chosen to be not overly controversial) example, but the same principles apply to many practices that may have been (or may currently be) useful for some Christians in some places for fulfilling the desires that God has expressed for us, but which are less useful, not useful, or even counterproductive for Christians in other times or places. If a particular practice were the most useful option for all Christians for all time, then I do believe that God would have provided us the information we need for that practice in scripture. For example, practices like singing, reading scripture, prayer, preaching, and communion are indeed useful practices to all Christians in all times and we are given those as commands and examples in scripture. The minute details of the most useful ways for Christians to carry out those practices, however, do vary from one place and time to another and scripture remains largely silent on those, leaving them up to Christians in each place and time to work out. So, I would say that the reason for the omission of the date of Christ's birth from scripture is likely the same reason that the names of the songs sung by the first century church in worship are omitted from scripture: it's just not that important for us to know and there's no need for us to be placing undue attention to those details that could be better spent elsewhere. Scripture leaves it up to Christians in different times and places to decide whether and when celebrating Christmas is most useful for them, just as it does for which songs are sung and what aids are used to that end.
Our confusion is not to say there isn't an accurate answer. Ambiguity embraced is to see both sides. > > Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually. Heb 7:3 > > > The reference is to Melchizedek of which priesthood is Christ and who is a pattern to Christ. It is said of having neither beginning or ending of life. No one knows the specific birth or death dates. As in God. Yet, there is this. > > Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow. 1 Peter 1:10-11 > > > We might read this and think it refer only to Messiah's sufferings, but not so. It means the whole of Messiah on earth. The grace that should come; as in God with us. > > 2. The time, and the manner of the times, wherein the Messiah was to appear. > [Matthew Henry](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/mhc/1Pe/1Pe_001.cfm?a=1152011) > > > > > 11. what--Greek, "In reference to what, or what manner of time." What expresses the time absolutely: what was to be the era of Messiah's coming; what manner of time; what events and features should characterize the time of His coming. > [Jamieson, Fausset & Brown](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/jfb/1Pe/1Pe_001.cfm?a=1152011) > > > As well, the magi from the east didn't miss His star at His birth (Mt 2:1). Were they watching for it, inquiring to the time? <there came wise men--literally, "Magi" or "Magians," probably of the learned class who cultivated astrology and kindred sciences. Balaam's prophecy ( Num 24:17 ), and perhaps Daniel's ( Dan 9:24, &c.), might have come down to them by tradition; but nothing definite is known of them. [Jamieson, Fausset & Brown](https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/jfb/Mat/Mat_002.cfm?a=931001) Herod the king was troubled at a baby. Was he watching for the time? > > When Herod the king had heard these things, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him. > > > Why were they troubled? It had been prophesied of a King. > > The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be. Gen 49:10 > > > > > Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre. Psalm 45:6 > > > > > Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this. Isa 9:7 > > > > > Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. Dan 9:24 > > > > > Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Is 7:14 > > > Moreover, John (the baptist) the son of Zechariah had been born. All of these things point to a specific time for Messiah's birth. All of these things erase ambiguity. They could count the times and they did. There is no reason to continue with further details such as the 490 years of Daniel. There is lots of ambiguity there now as well. The point is at that time, they were looking for the fulfillment of prophecy. There was no ambiguity.
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
A "Why didn't God include a certain piece of information in Scripture?" question is most likely to generate only speculation (which is fine as long as it is identified as such). Here is mine: I think it is likely that, since the Word becoming flesh was first, a penultimate act of condescension and humility (God in flesh and blood) and second, a necessary means to an end (no atoning death without a birth first), a dateless birth is well in keeping with both the mind and purpose of Christ. > > Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, **but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself** by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. - Philippians 2:5-8 > > > Another important aspect is that the birth of Jesus (the man) is not the beginning of the Son of God. Perhaps the exact date is left out as emphasizing that, in the beginning, "the Word was with God and the Word was God". The one who has always existed "took on flesh" but did not "come into being". This is different from any other human birth. The Son of God has no birthday!
"Birthday" is mentioned only three times in the Bible: > > Now it came to pass on the third day, which was **Pharaoh’s birthday**, that he made a feast for all his servants; and he lifted up the head of the chief butler and of the chief baker among his servants. > Then he restored the chief butler to his butlership again, and he placed the cup in Pharaoh’s hand. > But **he hanged the chief baker**, as Joseph had interpreted to them. > — Genesis 40:20–22 > > > > > But when **Herod’s birthday** was celebrated, the daughter of Herodias danced before them and pleased Herod. > Therefore he promised with an oath to give her whatever she might ask. > > > So she, having been prompted by her mother, said, “Give me John the Baptist’s head here on a platter.” > > > And the king was sorry; nevertheless, because of the oaths and because of those who sat with him, he commanded it to be given to her. > So he sent and **had John beheaded in prison**. > And his head was brought on a platter and given to the girl, and she brought it to her mother. > — Matthew 14:6–11 > > > > > [Same account as Matthew] > — Mark 6:21–28 > > > Notice that they are celebrated by rulers, and that things don't go well for other people. The Bible says nothing else about anyone's birthday, indicating that it is not something that Christians should concern themselves with. Celebrating the anniversary of one's own birth is an example of pride and vanity. Even Jesus's birth has significance only because it made his death possible. It is Jesus's death and suffering that Christians are told to commemorate: > > And He took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, “This is My body which is given for you; **do this in remembrance of Me**.” > Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you. > — Luke 22:19–20 > > >
88,668
Are we going all round the houses debating whether it was autumn, winter, or spring when Jesus was born, when it’s what the Bible does ***not*** say about the date of his birth that should speak volumes to us? Are we apparently deaf to that? What I mean is that if the date of Jesus’ birth was important, would it not have been clear, in scripture? If God wanted us to note the date of Jesus’ birth, the Bible surely would have stated it? Further, if God wanted us to annually celebrate that birth-date, would there not have been a command to do that, in the Bible? After all, Jesus expressly told his followers to remember his death, even though the exact date of it is debatable, given that the year of his death depends on knowing the year of his birth, and that’s not known as a fact. Yet the omission in the Bible as to any kind of celebration of Christ’s birth stands in stark contrast to the command to remember his death. I'm ***not*** wanting this question to turn into reasons as to why we should celebrate Jesus' birth every year, or not. I just want to know if anyone else has pondered the absence of information about this, in the Bible, and your thoughts. I look for answers from Christians who believe that Jesus Christ “became flesh and dwelt among us” as stated in John 1:1-14, obtaining his human nature from the virgin Mary.
2021/12/25
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/88668", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/40447/" ]
**Does the ambiguity in the NT regarding the date of Jesus's birth and the lack of explicit command to celebrate it every year (compared to explicit instruction to memorialize the Lord's supper) *in itself* a teaching?** From *Sola Scriptura* perspective, I think it's safe to derive from the Bible alone that Christmas celebration is optional and that the customary date itself is not important. Therefore, we can deduce that God would be fine leaving Christian movements to abstain from this celebration, most notably [Quakers](https://www.quaker.org.uk/blog/times-and-seasons-a-quaker-reflection-on-christmas), [Jehovah's Witnesses](https://www.jw.org/en/jehovahs-witnesses/faq/why-not-celebrate-christmas/), and [Churches of Christ](https://christianchronicle.org/christ-in-christmas-churches-of-christ-and-the-holiday-season/). But given the early church's tradition (within about 150 years, cf. [St. Hippolytus of Rome quote dated c. 204 AD](https://insidethevatican.com/magazine/lead-story/the-25th-of-december-pagan-feast-or-patristic-tradition/)) the birth was seen as an important milestone to celebrate, *especially* if we see the growing recognition of the role **incarnation** played in more and more doctrines such as theological anthropology and atonement. I think it is safe to deduce from these early experiences of Trinitarian Christians that **God the Son's taking flesh** to add a second nature of 100% human being to the human form of a Jewish male Jesus of Nazareth is worth commemorating, *especially* in the face of Gnostic threat that downplayed the materiality of Jesus or other [early church heresies](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_heresies_in_the_Catholic_Church) (like adoptionism, apollinarism, docetism, etc.) that regarded Jesus as less than God. What better way to counter those heresies than by celebrating the following events to emphasize the different aspects of *God became man*? * [Annunciation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Annunciation) * [Christmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christmas) * [Epiphany](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epiphany_(holiday)) for which [Advent](https://www.learnreligions.com/meaning-of-advent-700455) is a preparation **[INCARNATION](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incarnation_(Christianity)) is the whole point of celebrating Christmas**. For Christians, every activity (singing carols, gift exchange, Christmas tree, nativity scene re-enactment, joyful spirit over Christmas meals, singing Handel's *Messiah*) needs to point to this one way or the other. This doctrine is fully supported by the Bible, see [10 Key Bible Verses on the Incarnation](https://www.crossway.org/articles/10-key-bible-verses-on-the-incarnation/): * John 1:14 (which you mentioned): *And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.* * Heb 1:1-2: *Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world.* * Isa 9:6: *For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.* * Gal 4:4-5: *But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.* * etc. For more readings on how an extremely influential early church father [Irenaeus of Lyons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irenaeus) (c. 130-202 AD) linked incarnation to other doctrines, see * [St. Irenaeus and the *Imago Dei*: The Importance of Being Human](https://www.stthomas.edu/media/catholicstudies/center/logosjournal/archives/2003vol06/64/6-4-Article.pdf): reminding us how Incarnation helps us to be more fully human by looking at how Jesus lived and fulfilled all God's expectation for Adam as a full bodied being, fully participating in the world, bodily loving our neighbors. * [Irenaeus of Lyons: A Defense of Recapitulation](https://digitalcommons.georgefox.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1018&context=seminary_masters): showing how atonement can also be seen from incarnation angle, how Jesus completed what Adam could not complete ### Conclusion While the Bible is silent on the date and the command to celebrate Christmas, when we reflect on the significance of Incarnation which the Bible clearly teaches, it is incumbent for us Trinitarian Christians to celebrate Incarnation as well as the Lord's supper. We can see the ambiguity as God's teaching us to prioritize Eucharist over Christmas (if we have to choose), but we also have Biblical justification to celebrate Christmas to remind us of Incarnation, an important plank for our salvation.
A "Why didn't God include a certain piece of information in Scripture?" question is most likely to generate only speculation (which is fine as long as it is identified as such). Here is mine: I think it is likely that, since the Word becoming flesh was first, a penultimate act of condescension and humility (God in flesh and blood) and second, a necessary means to an end (no atoning death without a birth first), a dateless birth is well in keeping with both the mind and purpose of Christ. > > Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, **but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself** by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. - Philippians 2:5-8 > > > Another important aspect is that the birth of Jesus (the man) is not the beginning of the Son of God. Perhaps the exact date is left out as emphasizing that, in the beginning, "the Word was with God and the Word was God". The one who has always existed "took on flesh" but did not "come into being". This is different from any other human birth. The Son of God has no birthday!
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
My **#1** tip: **drink calories** If I want to gain weight, I make a smoothie with two bananas, a generous scoop of nut butter, vegan milk, and a tablespoon of carob. I drink this alongside my normal breakfast. I typically gain about 4kg per month doing this. Turning food into drink by way of smoothies should enable you to eat more calorie-dense food easily.
Oatmeal, bananas, potatoes and soya beans have a high calorie content. Nuts and seeds often have a high fat content, which translates to a high calorific value. If you eat more calories than you use, you gain weight, so these are all good options. Then there's exercise, muscles are denser than fat, so if you build up your muscles you'll weigh more.
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
My **#1** tip: **drink calories** If I want to gain weight, I make a smoothie with two bananas, a generous scoop of nut butter, vegan milk, and a tablespoon of carob. I drink this alongside my normal breakfast. I typically gain about 4kg per month doing this. Turning food into drink by way of smoothies should enable you to eat more calorie-dense food easily.
If you want to gain lean weight - instead of a mix between lean weight and fat -, then you need a high protein diet. Researchers don't seem to agree on exact numbers, but, for adults undergoing regular weight training, [most aim at higher than 1g/lb of bodyweight](http://www.bodybuilding.com/fun/maki1.htm) (2.2g/kg for those under the metric system). So, not only you need to ingest more calories than your TDEE ([estimate yours here](https://www.supertracker.usda.gov/bwp/index.html)) to keep on gaining weight, but you also need to keep a high protein ratio, as well. The best sources for piling up protein in a vegan diet are soy protein (usually 20-24g of protein per 30 grams), wheat gluten (70-75g per 100 grams) and spirulina algae (arguably 10-20g per 30 grams). Other sources might include peanut butter, other nuts and beans, but bear in mind most of those sources have low protein ratios. Of course, changes in your diet should be discussed with your dietitian. Exercise is also an important factor, since high protein diets have been proven not to provide additional benefits for sedentary adults.
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
My **#1** tip: **drink calories** If I want to gain weight, I make a smoothie with two bananas, a generous scoop of nut butter, vegan milk, and a tablespoon of carob. I drink this alongside my normal breakfast. I typically gain about 4kg per month doing this. Turning food into drink by way of smoothies should enable you to eat more calorie-dense food easily.
I would like to answer this question both for vegetarians and vegans from the Ayurvedic viewpoint (the only difference being vegans do not take dairy). Ayurveda is a system of well-being and medicine that originates in India, and it recommends a vegetarian diet. According to Ayurveda, one can gain weight by eating *vegetarian food that is grounding, warm, oily, smooth, stabilizing, and substantive.* Other factors like a regular daily schedule and a light exercise routine are also involved. It is recommened to eat three heavy meals at the same time everyday. You can read more at this [article](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/health-guides/weight-management-guide/an-ayurvedic-approach-to-gaining-weight/): > > ...You will want to orient your diet around healthy, whole foods that are > deeply nutritious. Choose foods that are warm, moist, oily, grounding, > nourishing, smooth, and stabilizing, over foods that are cold, dry, > light, or rough. Favor the sweet, sour, and salty tastes over the > pungent, bitter, and astringent tastes. Build your meals around staple > foods that naturally taste sweet, such as fruits, grains, root > vegetables, milk, ghee, fresh yogurt, eggs, nuts, seeds, and > vata-pacifying meats. Nourishing and rejuvenating dishes such as Sweet > Potato Halva and Urad Dal (Split Black Gram) are fantastic, as are substantive soups and > stews. You can also include grounding, nutritive snacks in between > meals. For instance, fill a jar with dates, pour warm > Ghee (clarified butter) over them and let the ghee solidify. Eat one or two of these ghee > dates in the early morning or any time between meals for a > rejuvenative boost of energy. Other supportive snacks include soaked > and peeled almonds, soaked cashews, and date shakes. > Experiment with what works for you and keep snacks handy so that you > can reach for quality nourishment rather than a quick fix of empty > energy (i.e., sugar or junk food). > > > This [page](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/diet/vata-pacifying-foods) gives a list of fruit, vegetables, grains, legumes etc to be preferred and avoided for weight gain.
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
Oatmeal, bananas, potatoes and soya beans have a high calorie content. Nuts and seeds often have a high fat content, which translates to a high calorific value. If you eat more calories than you use, you gain weight, so these are all good options. Then there's exercise, muscles are denser than fat, so if you build up your muscles you'll weigh more.
If you want to gain lean weight - instead of a mix between lean weight and fat -, then you need a high protein diet. Researchers don't seem to agree on exact numbers, but, for adults undergoing regular weight training, [most aim at higher than 1g/lb of bodyweight](http://www.bodybuilding.com/fun/maki1.htm) (2.2g/kg for those under the metric system). So, not only you need to ingest more calories than your TDEE ([estimate yours here](https://www.supertracker.usda.gov/bwp/index.html)) to keep on gaining weight, but you also need to keep a high protein ratio, as well. The best sources for piling up protein in a vegan diet are soy protein (usually 20-24g of protein per 30 grams), wheat gluten (70-75g per 100 grams) and spirulina algae (arguably 10-20g per 30 grams). Other sources might include peanut butter, other nuts and beans, but bear in mind most of those sources have low protein ratios. Of course, changes in your diet should be discussed with your dietitian. Exercise is also an important factor, since high protein diets have been proven not to provide additional benefits for sedentary adults.
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
Oatmeal, bananas, potatoes and soya beans have a high calorie content. Nuts and seeds often have a high fat content, which translates to a high calorific value. If you eat more calories than you use, you gain weight, so these are all good options. Then there's exercise, muscles are denser than fat, so if you build up your muscles you'll weigh more.
I would like to answer this question both for vegetarians and vegans from the Ayurvedic viewpoint (the only difference being vegans do not take dairy). Ayurveda is a system of well-being and medicine that originates in India, and it recommends a vegetarian diet. According to Ayurveda, one can gain weight by eating *vegetarian food that is grounding, warm, oily, smooth, stabilizing, and substantive.* Other factors like a regular daily schedule and a light exercise routine are also involved. It is recommened to eat three heavy meals at the same time everyday. You can read more at this [article](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/health-guides/weight-management-guide/an-ayurvedic-approach-to-gaining-weight/): > > ...You will want to orient your diet around healthy, whole foods that are > deeply nutritious. Choose foods that are warm, moist, oily, grounding, > nourishing, smooth, and stabilizing, over foods that are cold, dry, > light, or rough. Favor the sweet, sour, and salty tastes over the > pungent, bitter, and astringent tastes. Build your meals around staple > foods that naturally taste sweet, such as fruits, grains, root > vegetables, milk, ghee, fresh yogurt, eggs, nuts, seeds, and > vata-pacifying meats. Nourishing and rejuvenating dishes such as Sweet > Potato Halva and Urad Dal (Split Black Gram) are fantastic, as are substantive soups and > stews. You can also include grounding, nutritive snacks in between > meals. For instance, fill a jar with dates, pour warm > Ghee (clarified butter) over them and let the ghee solidify. Eat one or two of these ghee > dates in the early morning or any time between meals for a > rejuvenative boost of energy. Other supportive snacks include soaked > and peeled almonds, soaked cashews, and date shakes. > Experiment with what works for you and keep snacks handy so that you > can reach for quality nourishment rather than a quick fix of empty > energy (i.e., sugar or junk food). > > > This [page](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/diet/vata-pacifying-foods) gives a list of fruit, vegetables, grains, legumes etc to be preferred and avoided for weight gain.
160
I'm vegan and in general I don't have any problem maintaining my weight, but for the last few months I've wanted to increase my weight and it's been really hard. Could others who have had the same problem give me some tips or advice on how to gain weight on a vegan diet?
2017/02/01
[ "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/questions/160", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com", "https://vegetarianism.stackexchange.com/users/144/" ]
If you want to gain lean weight - instead of a mix between lean weight and fat -, then you need a high protein diet. Researchers don't seem to agree on exact numbers, but, for adults undergoing regular weight training, [most aim at higher than 1g/lb of bodyweight](http://www.bodybuilding.com/fun/maki1.htm) (2.2g/kg for those under the metric system). So, not only you need to ingest more calories than your TDEE ([estimate yours here](https://www.supertracker.usda.gov/bwp/index.html)) to keep on gaining weight, but you also need to keep a high protein ratio, as well. The best sources for piling up protein in a vegan diet are soy protein (usually 20-24g of protein per 30 grams), wheat gluten (70-75g per 100 grams) and spirulina algae (arguably 10-20g per 30 grams). Other sources might include peanut butter, other nuts and beans, but bear in mind most of those sources have low protein ratios. Of course, changes in your diet should be discussed with your dietitian. Exercise is also an important factor, since high protein diets have been proven not to provide additional benefits for sedentary adults.
I would like to answer this question both for vegetarians and vegans from the Ayurvedic viewpoint (the only difference being vegans do not take dairy). Ayurveda is a system of well-being and medicine that originates in India, and it recommends a vegetarian diet. According to Ayurveda, one can gain weight by eating *vegetarian food that is grounding, warm, oily, smooth, stabilizing, and substantive.* Other factors like a regular daily schedule and a light exercise routine are also involved. It is recommened to eat three heavy meals at the same time everyday. You can read more at this [article](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/health-guides/weight-management-guide/an-ayurvedic-approach-to-gaining-weight/): > > ...You will want to orient your diet around healthy, whole foods that are > deeply nutritious. Choose foods that are warm, moist, oily, grounding, > nourishing, smooth, and stabilizing, over foods that are cold, dry, > light, or rough. Favor the sweet, sour, and salty tastes over the > pungent, bitter, and astringent tastes. Build your meals around staple > foods that naturally taste sweet, such as fruits, grains, root > vegetables, milk, ghee, fresh yogurt, eggs, nuts, seeds, and > vata-pacifying meats. Nourishing and rejuvenating dishes such as Sweet > Potato Halva and Urad Dal (Split Black Gram) are fantastic, as are substantive soups and > stews. You can also include grounding, nutritive snacks in between > meals. For instance, fill a jar with dates, pour warm > Ghee (clarified butter) over them and let the ghee solidify. Eat one or two of these ghee > dates in the early morning or any time between meals for a > rejuvenative boost of energy. Other supportive snacks include soaked > and peeled almonds, soaked cashews, and date shakes. > Experiment with what works for you and keep snacks handy so that you > can reach for quality nourishment rather than a quick fix of empty > energy (i.e., sugar or junk food). > > > This [page](https://www.banyanbotanicals.com/info/ayurvedic-living/living-ayurveda/diet/vata-pacifying-foods) gives a list of fruit, vegetables, grains, legumes etc to be preferred and avoided for weight gain.
87,945
I went home on vacation to India from the UAE. I will return on 17 February. However, my passport will expire on 14 May. Will I be allowed to enter UAE on my return trip? Is there any problem I will face because my passport will not be valid for 6 months beyond my re-entry date into the UAE?
2017/02/12
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/87945", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/57312/" ]
I was prohibited from traveling for having my visa expiring within 14 days (the officer's specification) upon arrival from a jaunt to Istanbul. Here are my details, which might not the same as your situation. * American with work visa to work in UAE for a government agency. * Work visa was going to expire in 14 days, my trip was for 10 days. My employer had not started the procedure to renew it for another three years. * This was in 2012 in Abu Dhabi My guess is that you should be fine, but from years of experience, my advice is to not mess around with the bureaucracy. Get something - anything - from your employment showing proof of employment to accompany you, and, if possible, renew your three year visa early before leaving.
As stated by [Timatic](https://www.timaticweb.com/cgi-bin/tim_website_client.cgi?SpecData=1&VISA=on&PASSTYPES=PASS&NA=in&DE=ae&DE=00&DE=00&DE=00&DE=00&AR=ae&TR=00&TR=00&TR=00&TR=00&TR=00&user=FLIGHTWORX&subuser=FLIGHTWORX), the database used by airlines: > > Passports and other documents accepted for entry issued to > residents of the United Arab Emirates must be valid **on > arrival**. > > > So, because you have a UAE residence permit, it's enough if your pasport is valid on the day you re-enter UAE. Make sure to show your residence permit as well as your passport at check-in. If they try to deny you boarding, ask them to check Timatic, putting the UAE in "alien residency"
167,315
I am in need of an iPhone app that will count down or up from a particular number for a visually impaired individual. For example if 60 is entered a voice would say 60,59,58,57 and etc. Does something like this exist for an iPhone 6?
2015/01/14
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/167315", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/109620/" ]
I found this app "Voice Over Timer" which looks to be configurable to do close to what you want. AppStore Link: <https://appsto.re/us/TeCFM.i> *edit* upon further review, it looks like the countdown can only be announced for the last ten seconds. The AppStore page mentioned a customization but it is a customization from among pre-determined options.
"Stopwatch - simple with voice speaking time" - that's the full name.
13,365,142
I have developed a windows phone application and it works fine.It uses GPS and GPRS connection and does some calculations.Now i want it to run in the background or under lock screen until user chooses not to run it under locked screen or in the background. Any idea how can i do that ?
2012/11/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13365142", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1360087/" ]
You're in luck, a new background processing model is supported specificly for GeoLocation apps in WP8. Further information: How to run location-tracking apps in the background for Windows Phone 8: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windowsphone/develop/jj662935(v=vs.105).aspx> Apps Tracking GeoLocation in the background: <http://www.developer.nokia.com/Community/Wiki/What%27s_new_in_Windows_Phone_8>
If you're coding an application for WP users I'd suggest you code it initially to target WP7.5, otherwise your app won't be usable by the existing WP user-base. Granted, there are only 14-15 million WP7 users, but I'll bet there are significantly fewer WP8 users. WP7.5 apps run on WP8 and not the other way round! In the WP7.5 world what you'd want to use is a background agent. This is a process that runs every 15-30 minutes and can do some calcs, connect to the web, etc. Here are some details on it: [Background Agent Info](http://www.silverlightshow.net/items/Windows-Phone-7.5-Use-Background-agents.aspx)
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
I'd recommend getting the DMG first. You can create your own monsters (stat up natural animals, they're likely to be adequate for first level characters), stat up NPCs from playable races in the PHB, and save the "monster" stuff for later adventures. You will, however, certainly want the additional rules in the DMG; the PHB presents only the player-facing subset, and isn't in itself enough to run a game even if only PC races are present on both sides. For monsters, between the [Basic Rules DMG](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/DMBasicRulesV05.pdf) and the [SRD](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/SRD-OGL_V5.1.pdf), both available at WoTC for download, most (but not all) of the monsters used in D&D are available. That inventory of monsters is enough to run a long campaign. (Some of the product identity monsters like Beholders and Illithids are only in the Monster Manual).
As a general rule I typically go PHB > GM Guide > Other stuff in that order. Mostly because the PHB and GM guides tend to compliment one another (your mileage may vary). Which is to say that the GM guide may refer to specific examples from the players guide or add additional clarifications to rules. On the other hand, books such as the Monsters Manual are more reference material for things that you can throw into your game. Additionally, I would also do a couple of web searches for GM tips (aka free advice). For the most part game mastering *can* be genericized to a point. Which is to say there are problems, and solutions, that all game masters have. Going into more specific problems can be asked with further questions here.
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
The DMG is much more important. ------------------------------- First, it's worth noting that it's pretty important to have all three books. That being said, the DMG contains lots of useful information for a new DM. While more experienced DMs might scoff at the advice inside, there are still a lot of useful tables, maps, and suggestions in the DMG that are good for getting off the ground. Additionally, the DMG contains the list of magic items, as well as guidelines for creating your own monsters and magic items. With the sample monsters in the PHB and the creation guidelines, you could create your own monsters fairly easily. A lot of Monster Manual is (legally) available online. ------------------------------------------------------ The Open Gaming License legally makes a large list of monsters available for free. You can access this list at various places on the internet ([here](https://www.5thsrd.org/gamemaster_rules/monster_indexes/monsters_by_cr/), for example). The list is missing some classic monsters, like the beholder, but for practical purposes it doesn't really matter. On the other hand, a lot of the DMG advice and creation guidelines are not legally available on the internet (though many magic items are). Thus, buying the DMG gets you a lot more stuff you couldn't get otherwise.
I'd recommend getting the DMG first. You can create your own monsters (stat up natural animals, they're likely to be adequate for first level characters), stat up NPCs from playable races in the PHB, and save the "monster" stuff for later adventures. You will, however, certainly want the additional rules in the DMG; the PHB presents only the player-facing subset, and isn't in itself enough to run a game even if only PC races are present on both sides. For monsters, between the [Basic Rules DMG](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/DMBasicRulesV05.pdf) and the [SRD](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/SRD-OGL_V5.1.pdf), both available at WoTC for download, most (but not all) of the monsters used in D&D are available. That inventory of monsters is enough to run a long campaign. (Some of the product identity monsters like Beholders and Illithids are only in the Monster Manual).
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
I'd recommend getting the DMG first. You can create your own monsters (stat up natural animals, they're likely to be adequate for first level characters), stat up NPCs from playable races in the PHB, and save the "monster" stuff for later adventures. You will, however, certainly want the additional rules in the DMG; the PHB presents only the player-facing subset, and isn't in itself enough to run a game even if only PC races are present on both sides. For monsters, between the [Basic Rules DMG](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/DMBasicRulesV05.pdf) and the [SRD](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/SRD-OGL_V5.1.pdf), both available at WoTC for download, most (but not all) of the monsters used in D&D are available. That inventory of monsters is enough to run a long campaign. (Some of the product identity monsters like Beholders and Illithids are only in the Monster Manual).
Neither. -------- If you *must* purchase one of the two, since you've indicated you're making your own campaign then I guess the choice would be DMG, given that you'll have plenty of SRD monsters to populate your world but the worldbuilding and campaign design bits of the DMG aren't freely-available. (Then again: the lore-parts of the MM that aren't SRD are pretty awesome and would stand in for a lot of world-building. Still, on "Encounter Design" and "Adventuring Day" and a few tables and sample maps I'd lean toward DMG, personally. *If you **had** to choose one of those two.*) But you're not constrained to buy one of those two, there are lots of RPG products out there! ### Buy the Starter Set. Or one of the hardcover adventures. (But the Starter Set's better.) The Starter Set is designed specifically for you: it assumes a new GM and does a few nice things to help you along: * presents the players a restricted set of options (drawing from the Basic Rules) so that you don't have to have twelve classes' features at the tip of your brain, just four; * annotates the adventure with GMing sidebars relevant to the material at hand, pointing you to rules on hiding, or overland travel, or exploration, or social negotiations at times where they're likely to come up; * fleshes out a scenario large enough for players to wander around and have some freedom in, but small enough to easily keep in your head. Other benefits to you: * there's a network effect: you'll find plenty of other new (and experienced!) GMs who've run the Starter Set and can share experience, vs. the zero other people who've run your custom adventure; * it's got a natural endpoint: you don't run the risk of disliking a setting that your players love and feeling obligated to run it a year past your expiration date; * using a written adventure allows you to pay more attention to the player-GM dynamic, to rules-questions, to spotlight management... all things that will, in time, become second nature but which will occupy more bandwidth in your early games. ### Then seek out advice when problems arise. Talk with your players. Talk with other GMs. Read [gm-technique](/questions/tagged/gm-technique "show questions tagged 'gm-technique'") questions here. Browse forums. Read GMing blogs. Play in other GMs' games. With actual quandaries in hand you'll get much more from these resources than you will reading--even memorizing--the DMG. Because the DMG, containing many good things (and hints), is as well laid out as almost any D&D (TSR or WotC) product: it's a great reference once you already know (basically) how to do the thing it purports to present.
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
The DMG is much more important. ------------------------------- First, it's worth noting that it's pretty important to have all three books. That being said, the DMG contains lots of useful information for a new DM. While more experienced DMs might scoff at the advice inside, there are still a lot of useful tables, maps, and suggestions in the DMG that are good for getting off the ground. Additionally, the DMG contains the list of magic items, as well as guidelines for creating your own monsters and magic items. With the sample monsters in the PHB and the creation guidelines, you could create your own monsters fairly easily. A lot of Monster Manual is (legally) available online. ------------------------------------------------------ The Open Gaming License legally makes a large list of monsters available for free. You can access this list at various places on the internet ([here](https://www.5thsrd.org/gamemaster_rules/monster_indexes/monsters_by_cr/), for example). The list is missing some classic monsters, like the beholder, but for practical purposes it doesn't really matter. On the other hand, a lot of the DMG advice and creation guidelines are not legally available on the internet (though many magic items are). Thus, buying the DMG gets you a lot more stuff you couldn't get otherwise.
As a general rule I typically go PHB > GM Guide > Other stuff in that order. Mostly because the PHB and GM guides tend to compliment one another (your mileage may vary). Which is to say that the GM guide may refer to specific examples from the players guide or add additional clarifications to rules. On the other hand, books such as the Monsters Manual are more reference material for things that you can throw into your game. Additionally, I would also do a couple of web searches for GM tips (aka free advice). For the most part game mastering *can* be genericized to a point. Which is to say there are problems, and solutions, that all game masters have. Going into more specific problems can be asked with further questions here.
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
Neither. -------- If you *must* purchase one of the two, since you've indicated you're making your own campaign then I guess the choice would be DMG, given that you'll have plenty of SRD monsters to populate your world but the worldbuilding and campaign design bits of the DMG aren't freely-available. (Then again: the lore-parts of the MM that aren't SRD are pretty awesome and would stand in for a lot of world-building. Still, on "Encounter Design" and "Adventuring Day" and a few tables and sample maps I'd lean toward DMG, personally. *If you **had** to choose one of those two.*) But you're not constrained to buy one of those two, there are lots of RPG products out there! ### Buy the Starter Set. Or one of the hardcover adventures. (But the Starter Set's better.) The Starter Set is designed specifically for you: it assumes a new GM and does a few nice things to help you along: * presents the players a restricted set of options (drawing from the Basic Rules) so that you don't have to have twelve classes' features at the tip of your brain, just four; * annotates the adventure with GMing sidebars relevant to the material at hand, pointing you to rules on hiding, or overland travel, or exploration, or social negotiations at times where they're likely to come up; * fleshes out a scenario large enough for players to wander around and have some freedom in, but small enough to easily keep in your head. Other benefits to you: * there's a network effect: you'll find plenty of other new (and experienced!) GMs who've run the Starter Set and can share experience, vs. the zero other people who've run your custom adventure; * it's got a natural endpoint: you don't run the risk of disliking a setting that your players love and feeling obligated to run it a year past your expiration date; * using a written adventure allows you to pay more attention to the player-GM dynamic, to rules-questions, to spotlight management... all things that will, in time, become second nature but which will occupy more bandwidth in your early games. ### Then seek out advice when problems arise. Talk with your players. Talk with other GMs. Read [gm-technique](/questions/tagged/gm-technique "show questions tagged 'gm-technique'") questions here. Browse forums. Read GMing blogs. Play in other GMs' games. With actual quandaries in hand you'll get much more from these resources than you will reading--even memorizing--the DMG. Because the DMG, containing many good things (and hints), is as well laid out as almost any D&D (TSR or WotC) product: it's a great reference once you already know (basically) how to do the thing it purports to present.
As a general rule I typically go PHB > GM Guide > Other stuff in that order. Mostly because the PHB and GM guides tend to compliment one another (your mileage may vary). Which is to say that the GM guide may refer to specific examples from the players guide or add additional clarifications to rules. On the other hand, books such as the Monsters Manual are more reference material for things that you can throw into your game. Additionally, I would also do a couple of web searches for GM tips (aka free advice). For the most part game mastering *can* be genericized to a point. Which is to say there are problems, and solutions, that all game masters have. Going into more specific problems can be asked with further questions here.
104,547
This is my first time DMing, and I already have the Player's Handbook. I'm wondering which core book I should get next: the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual? I am creating a campaign for four players, and I already have some of it done, but I would like to have better sources for the rest of the campaign. Which one is more useful?
2017/08/01
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/104547", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36653/" ]
The DMG is much more important. ------------------------------- First, it's worth noting that it's pretty important to have all three books. That being said, the DMG contains lots of useful information for a new DM. While more experienced DMs might scoff at the advice inside, there are still a lot of useful tables, maps, and suggestions in the DMG that are good for getting off the ground. Additionally, the DMG contains the list of magic items, as well as guidelines for creating your own monsters and magic items. With the sample monsters in the PHB and the creation guidelines, you could create your own monsters fairly easily. A lot of Monster Manual is (legally) available online. ------------------------------------------------------ The Open Gaming License legally makes a large list of monsters available for free. You can access this list at various places on the internet ([here](https://www.5thsrd.org/gamemaster_rules/monster_indexes/monsters_by_cr/), for example). The list is missing some classic monsters, like the beholder, but for practical purposes it doesn't really matter. On the other hand, a lot of the DMG advice and creation guidelines are not legally available on the internet (though many magic items are). Thus, buying the DMG gets you a lot more stuff you couldn't get otherwise.
Neither. -------- If you *must* purchase one of the two, since you've indicated you're making your own campaign then I guess the choice would be DMG, given that you'll have plenty of SRD monsters to populate your world but the worldbuilding and campaign design bits of the DMG aren't freely-available. (Then again: the lore-parts of the MM that aren't SRD are pretty awesome and would stand in for a lot of world-building. Still, on "Encounter Design" and "Adventuring Day" and a few tables and sample maps I'd lean toward DMG, personally. *If you **had** to choose one of those two.*) But you're not constrained to buy one of those two, there are lots of RPG products out there! ### Buy the Starter Set. Or one of the hardcover adventures. (But the Starter Set's better.) The Starter Set is designed specifically for you: it assumes a new GM and does a few nice things to help you along: * presents the players a restricted set of options (drawing from the Basic Rules) so that you don't have to have twelve classes' features at the tip of your brain, just four; * annotates the adventure with GMing sidebars relevant to the material at hand, pointing you to rules on hiding, or overland travel, or exploration, or social negotiations at times where they're likely to come up; * fleshes out a scenario large enough for players to wander around and have some freedom in, but small enough to easily keep in your head. Other benefits to you: * there's a network effect: you'll find plenty of other new (and experienced!) GMs who've run the Starter Set and can share experience, vs. the zero other people who've run your custom adventure; * it's got a natural endpoint: you don't run the risk of disliking a setting that your players love and feeling obligated to run it a year past your expiration date; * using a written adventure allows you to pay more attention to the player-GM dynamic, to rules-questions, to spotlight management... all things that will, in time, become second nature but which will occupy more bandwidth in your early games. ### Then seek out advice when problems arise. Talk with your players. Talk with other GMs. Read [gm-technique](/questions/tagged/gm-technique "show questions tagged 'gm-technique'") questions here. Browse forums. Read GMing blogs. Play in other GMs' games. With actual quandaries in hand you'll get much more from these resources than you will reading--even memorizing--the DMG. Because the DMG, containing many good things (and hints), is as well laid out as almost any D&D (TSR or WotC) product: it's a great reference once you already know (basically) how to do the thing it purports to present.
78
In [a recent question](https://mathematica.stackexchange.com/q/297/34) there were many answers that just consisted of links to packages. The answers, while potentially useful to the OP, contained no discussion about how these packages could be used to address the specific problem given in the body of the question.1 So my questions are: * When is it acceptable to post an answer that consists primarily of links? * When are these link dumps better as comments? * I understand that link dumps can sometimes be useful and appropriate. In these cases, how are they best presented? --- 1 However, all of the packages did address the title of the question, which did not quite reflect the body of the question.
2012/01/20
[ "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/78", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/users/34/" ]
An answer should be as self-contained as possible, so examples are necessary. So, I'm of the opinion that a link lends credence to your answer, but it in of itself does not answer the question, unless the question is specifically about finding a reference to something.
One obvious problem with answering questions with only a link is that links can change. This is the biggest reason I opted to delete my question on looking for a good Mathematica Quick Reference. The question itself was only really answerable with a link. That being said, there are some links that are semi-permanent. Mathematica documentation comes to mind. However, I don't think it suffices to answer a question with only a link to the documentation. If a link happens to be the only way to answer a question, it probably isn't a good question for the site.
78
In [a recent question](https://mathematica.stackexchange.com/q/297/34) there were many answers that just consisted of links to packages. The answers, while potentially useful to the OP, contained no discussion about how these packages could be used to address the specific problem given in the body of the question.1 So my questions are: * When is it acceptable to post an answer that consists primarily of links? * When are these link dumps better as comments? * I understand that link dumps can sometimes be useful and appropriate. In these cases, how are they best presented? --- 1 However, all of the packages did address the title of the question, which did not quite reflect the body of the question.
2012/01/20
[ "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/78", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/users/34/" ]
An answer should be as self-contained as possible, so examples are necessary. So, I'm of the opinion that a link lends credence to your answer, but it in of itself does not answer the question, unless the question is specifically about finding a reference to something.
[Is it okay to answer a Stack Overflow question with a link?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/13369/is-it-okay-to-answer-a-stackoverflow-question-with-a-link) (Ironic to essentially say that one shouldn't answer with a link by posting just a link?)
78
In [a recent question](https://mathematica.stackexchange.com/q/297/34) there were many answers that just consisted of links to packages. The answers, while potentially useful to the OP, contained no discussion about how these packages could be used to address the specific problem given in the body of the question.1 So my questions are: * When is it acceptable to post an answer that consists primarily of links? * When are these link dumps better as comments? * I understand that link dumps can sometimes be useful and appropriate. In these cases, how are they best presented? --- 1 However, all of the packages did address the title of the question, which did not quite reflect the body of the question.
2012/01/20
[ "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/78", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://mathematica.meta.stackexchange.com/users/34/" ]
One obvious problem with answering questions with only a link is that links can change. This is the biggest reason I opted to delete my question on looking for a good Mathematica Quick Reference. The question itself was only really answerable with a link. That being said, there are some links that are semi-permanent. Mathematica documentation comes to mind. However, I don't think it suffices to answer a question with only a link to the documentation. If a link happens to be the only way to answer a question, it probably isn't a good question for the site.
[Is it okay to answer a Stack Overflow question with a link?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/13369/is-it-okay-to-answer-a-stackoverflow-question-with-a-link) (Ironic to essentially say that one shouldn't answer with a link by posting just a link?)
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
I would infer that he means loop-based as distinct from set-based programming, which is a better way to code with SQL. For example, in a loop-based mental model, you would change a bunch of rows by running a query, fetching the rows one-by-one, changing the value of a field, and post each row back to the database. This runs N+1 SQL queries to change N rows. It's often the consequence of using ORM tools like Entity Framework or Active Record. In a set-based mental model, you'd use a single SQL `UPDATE` statement to change all the rows in one operation. You don't have to fetch any data back to the application, it all happens on the database server. And you only have to run a single SQL statement. This is more efficient, but most ORM tools fail to support this technique (except by allowing you to bypass the ORM and execute custom SQL directly). --- Re comments from other folks: We can come up with answers for what *we* think "loop-based" means, but this will never answer what *your coworker* meant when he said it. If he backed off, then he might not know how to be more articulate about it. If so, you'll never know what he meant. --- Re ORMs are smarter than that these days, I'd like to hear some examples. I'm not denying it -- I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched. That is, within the "ORMish" interface, not by breaking the abstraction.
Maybe he was referring to avoid loops in a stored proc. Having loops in Transact-SQL are usually bad practices, SQL is made to retrieve data in a fast way without loops. Maybe he was also referring for an entity having multiple children. And when an instance of that entity is created, its children are retrieved in a loop instead of with a single query, we often see that in ORM. But ORMs have hints we can tell them to avoid that. Hope this helps
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
I would infer that he means loop-based as distinct from set-based programming, which is a better way to code with SQL. For example, in a loop-based mental model, you would change a bunch of rows by running a query, fetching the rows one-by-one, changing the value of a field, and post each row back to the database. This runs N+1 SQL queries to change N rows. It's often the consequence of using ORM tools like Entity Framework or Active Record. In a set-based mental model, you'd use a single SQL `UPDATE` statement to change all the rows in one operation. You don't have to fetch any data back to the application, it all happens on the database server. And you only have to run a single SQL statement. This is more efficient, but most ORM tools fail to support this technique (except by allowing you to bypass the ORM and execute custom SQL directly). --- Re comments from other folks: We can come up with answers for what *we* think "loop-based" means, but this will never answer what *your coworker* meant when he said it. If he backed off, then he might not know how to be more articulate about it. If so, you'll never know what he meant. --- Re ORMs are smarter than that these days, I'd like to hear some examples. I'm not denying it -- I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched. That is, within the "ORMish" interface, not by breaking the abstraction.
My guess is that he was referring to the way it was done in classic ASP where there was a RecordSet object and you would loop through the results of a query to render the page. I can't see what this would have to do with creating a good schema though.
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
I would infer that he means loop-based as distinct from set-based programming, which is a better way to code with SQL. For example, in a loop-based mental model, you would change a bunch of rows by running a query, fetching the rows one-by-one, changing the value of a field, and post each row back to the database. This runs N+1 SQL queries to change N rows. It's often the consequence of using ORM tools like Entity Framework or Active Record. In a set-based mental model, you'd use a single SQL `UPDATE` statement to change all the rows in one operation. You don't have to fetch any data back to the application, it all happens on the database server. And you only have to run a single SQL statement. This is more efficient, but most ORM tools fail to support this technique (except by allowing you to bypass the ORM and execute custom SQL directly). --- Re comments from other folks: We can come up with answers for what *we* think "loop-based" means, but this will never answer what *your coworker* meant when he said it. If he backed off, then he might not know how to be more articulate about it. If so, you'll never know what he meant. --- Re ORMs are smarter than that these days, I'd like to hear some examples. I'm not denying it -- I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched. That is, within the "ORMish" interface, not by breaking the abstraction.
From your question, it *appears* that he is saying that you should avoid Set-based operations because they were the old way..."before we had loop-based programming." This is like dangling red meat before a lion - *if* that is what he is really saying. So - challenge him. "What do you mean? - Do you mean the use of cursors?" "Are you suggesting that 'loop based' (really, cursor-based) manipulation of data in the database is better than Set-based operations? - or Vice Versa?" If he actually means that you should learn the Set-based approach native to SQL, then you may well have something to learn from the guy. If he is savvy about the kinds of compromises inherent in many ORMs (even if they are smart enough to not just devolve everything to operations looping over records retrieved), then you definitely have something to learn from him. If, on the other hand, he thinks that cursors are a snazzy new invention that helps you escape the hassle of that SQL set-based stuff, then you have a real problem if this guy is your DBA! Oh, and one other thing, there's lots of stuff I don't know but I have many years of deep SQL development experience. Indeed, I've written some [SQL that'll make your hair curl](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/651936/how-can-i-improve-this-mailing-address-sql-server-select-statement/652065#652065). And I gotta tell you - I never heard the term "loop-based programming." So do *not* take it as something of a standard term or art or something you should have known. Good luck...
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
I would infer that he means loop-based as distinct from set-based programming, which is a better way to code with SQL. For example, in a loop-based mental model, you would change a bunch of rows by running a query, fetching the rows one-by-one, changing the value of a field, and post each row back to the database. This runs N+1 SQL queries to change N rows. It's often the consequence of using ORM tools like Entity Framework or Active Record. In a set-based mental model, you'd use a single SQL `UPDATE` statement to change all the rows in one operation. You don't have to fetch any data back to the application, it all happens on the database server. And you only have to run a single SQL statement. This is more efficient, but most ORM tools fail to support this technique (except by allowing you to bypass the ORM and execute custom SQL directly). --- Re comments from other folks: We can come up with answers for what *we* think "loop-based" means, but this will never answer what *your coworker* meant when he said it. If he backed off, then he might not know how to be more articulate about it. If so, you'll never know what he meant. --- Re ORMs are smarter than that these days, I'd like to hear some examples. I'm not denying it -- I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched. That is, within the "ORMish" interface, not by breaking the abstraction.
"I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched." I do have doubts whether such a possibility would actually be a good idea. Modifying database values without the modifier *KNOWING* the actual content that he is modifying ? That's like saying to someone, "Whatever it is you think you know (and I don't even really know what it is that you think you know), it's wrong."
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
From your question, it *appears* that he is saying that you should avoid Set-based operations because they were the old way..."before we had loop-based programming." This is like dangling red meat before a lion - *if* that is what he is really saying. So - challenge him. "What do you mean? - Do you mean the use of cursors?" "Are you suggesting that 'loop based' (really, cursor-based) manipulation of data in the database is better than Set-based operations? - or Vice Versa?" If he actually means that you should learn the Set-based approach native to SQL, then you may well have something to learn from the guy. If he is savvy about the kinds of compromises inherent in many ORMs (even if they are smart enough to not just devolve everything to operations looping over records retrieved), then you definitely have something to learn from him. If, on the other hand, he thinks that cursors are a snazzy new invention that helps you escape the hassle of that SQL set-based stuff, then you have a real problem if this guy is your DBA! Oh, and one other thing, there's lots of stuff I don't know but I have many years of deep SQL development experience. Indeed, I've written some [SQL that'll make your hair curl](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/651936/how-can-i-improve-this-mailing-address-sql-server-select-statement/652065#652065). And I gotta tell you - I never heard the term "loop-based programming." So do *not* take it as something of a standard term or art or something you should have known. Good luck...
Maybe he was referring to avoid loops in a stored proc. Having loops in Transact-SQL are usually bad practices, SQL is made to retrieve data in a fast way without loops. Maybe he was also referring for an entity having multiple children. And when an instance of that entity is created, its children are retrieved in a loop instead of with a single query, we often see that in ORM. But ORMs have hints we can tell them to avoid that. Hope this helps
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
From your question, it *appears* that he is saying that you should avoid Set-based operations because they were the old way..."before we had loop-based programming." This is like dangling red meat before a lion - *if* that is what he is really saying. So - challenge him. "What do you mean? - Do you mean the use of cursors?" "Are you suggesting that 'loop based' (really, cursor-based) manipulation of data in the database is better than Set-based operations? - or Vice Versa?" If he actually means that you should learn the Set-based approach native to SQL, then you may well have something to learn from the guy. If he is savvy about the kinds of compromises inherent in many ORMs (even if they are smart enough to not just devolve everything to operations looping over records retrieved), then you definitely have something to learn from him. If, on the other hand, he thinks that cursors are a snazzy new invention that helps you escape the hassle of that SQL set-based stuff, then you have a real problem if this guy is your DBA! Oh, and one other thing, there's lots of stuff I don't know but I have many years of deep SQL development experience. Indeed, I've written some [SQL that'll make your hair curl](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/651936/how-can-i-improve-this-mailing-address-sql-server-select-statement/652065#652065). And I gotta tell you - I never heard the term "loop-based programming." So do *not* take it as something of a standard term or art or something you should have known. Good luck...
My guess is that he was referring to the way it was done in classic ASP where there was a RecordSet object and you would loop through the results of a query to render the page. I can't see what this would have to do with creating a good schema though.
1,619,947
This isn't a joke. ;) I was working with a DBA to define a data model and he was pushing back against some of my suggestions by saying something like "well before we had 'loop based' programming" or "loop based data models" My suggestions, because we are working with Entity Framework, a model == table schema based ORM, were to simplify some relationships. I want to know what he meant by that? --- Thanks for the answers so far but its definitely not a sql "set-based" vs cursor,while loop thing. --- In response I said "I have no idea what that means" and he never provided an answer, just dropped some part of his objections.
2009/10/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1619947", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/25300/" ]
From your question, it *appears* that he is saying that you should avoid Set-based operations because they were the old way..."before we had loop-based programming." This is like dangling red meat before a lion - *if* that is what he is really saying. So - challenge him. "What do you mean? - Do you mean the use of cursors?" "Are you suggesting that 'loop based' (really, cursor-based) manipulation of data in the database is better than Set-based operations? - or Vice Versa?" If he actually means that you should learn the Set-based approach native to SQL, then you may well have something to learn from the guy. If he is savvy about the kinds of compromises inherent in many ORMs (even if they are smart enough to not just devolve everything to operations looping over records retrieved), then you definitely have something to learn from him. If, on the other hand, he thinks that cursors are a snazzy new invention that helps you escape the hassle of that SQL set-based stuff, then you have a real problem if this guy is your DBA! Oh, and one other thing, there's lots of stuff I don't know but I have many years of deep SQL development experience. Indeed, I've written some [SQL that'll make your hair curl](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/651936/how-can-i-improve-this-mailing-address-sql-server-select-statement/652065#652065). And I gotta tell you - I never heard the term "loop-based programming." So do *not* take it as something of a standard term or art or something you should have known. Good luck...
"I'm genuinely interested in an example of an ORM that can invoke an update against rows it hasn't fetched." I do have doubts whether such a possibility would actually be a good idea. Modifying database values without the modifier *KNOWING* the actual content that he is modifying ? That's like saying to someone, "Whatever it is you think you know (and I don't even really know what it is that you think you know), it's wrong."
167,508
Is there a way to find out, using Win2008 R2 Hyper-V manager or a command-line tool, the externally-accessible IP Address(es) of Windows XP Hyper-V guests? I'd like to be able to connect to my guests by IP address via Remote Desktop (for cases where name resolution is not working properly) but without combing through the DHCP server it's been challenging to know which IP address corresponds to which host. Any ideas? Assigning static IPs to each guest is possible but is something I'd like to avoid.
2010/08/05
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/167508", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/21039/" ]
look at this link it will do what you want <http://blogs.technet.com/b/m2/archive/2010/07/29/how-to-get-the-ip-address-of-a-virtual-machine-from-hyper-v.aspx>
Why not just use the Hyper-V Manager to open the VM's Console? It works remotely if you have Remote Management enabled in the Firewall Settings, and you don't have to do any look-ups in the DHCP Server. Otherwise, no, Hyper-V does not track it's VMs IPs, just their MAC addresses.
21,495,614
I am trying to move a menu one level up from the list, by accessing it via the *WP Admin Panel --> Appearance --> Menus* The problem is, when I try to move the menu by clicking and dragging it like before, it just adds blank boxes below it, like in the screenshot! I had even upgraded the Wordpress to 3.8.1. But still facing this issue! Please pardon me if Stackoverflow is not the right place to ask this question. Please move to the respective child sites of Stackoverflow, if this question is not apt for here. Thank you ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vf8ed.png) ----------------------- ----------------------- **EDIT** The following is what am seeing in Google Chrome's Javascript console: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yjow3.png) When I searched in Google, the main cause for this is multiple declaration of jQuery. The above error points to the `Pluto` theme which is being bought.
2014/02/01
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/21495614", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/938436/" ]
It was found that, jQuery multiple version conflict was causing this issue. And got it resolved finally, after updating the Pluto theme. Please note that, I have already updated the Wordpress to the latest version too. Thanks @Manolis and @Howlin for their help.
I also Facing same Problem. This problem can be solved directly by Installing this plugin <http://wordpress.org/plugins/use-google-libraries/>
14,889
How is it possible for *m*-cresol (3-methylphenol) to be synthesized? The methylation of phenol would lead to the *ortho*- and *para*-isomers instead.
2014/08/04
[ "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/14889", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/7030/" ]
Here is a synthesis of *m*-cresol starting from benzene. It achieves the desired *meta* orientation of the final substituents by introducing a *meta*-directing substituent (the aldehyde group) early-on in the synthetic scheme. In the nitration step, the *meta* isomer is by far the major product (o:m:p 19:72:9), but a distillation or recrystallization would be needed (or you could carry all the isomers along and separate later, but you'd probably have the widest range in boiling points at this stage with the nitro group present). The only novel step is the [double Wolff-Kishner](http://www.tara.tcd.ie/bitstream/handle/2262/60702/One-step%20double%20reduction%20of%20aryl%20nitro%20and%20carbonyl%20groups%20using%20hydrazine.pdf;jsessionid=8BF41AFF57A857B4FE5D785692513EB0?sequence=1) used to reduce both the aldehyde and nitro groups in a single reaction. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H2q7n.jpg)
From the comments above, its clear you are asking how m-cresol is prepared. I know one method, which involves diazotization of m-toluidine. In this way we should make m-toluidine first but it **making m-toluidine is more difficult** than m-cresol. **m-toluidine is prepared by m-nitrotoluene** but unfortunately m-nitro toulene is minor isomer in nitration of toluene and this is really so difficult to separate it. But you can prepare M-cresol thorugh this process, though the **yield of the reaction will be small.** Though I will be looking for more answers on this question if someone knows another way of preparing this particular compound. Hope this helps.
39,863
4 year-old-son speaks while using loudspeaker option in phone and in video call.But If I give mobile phone in his hand he just keeps it in his ear for just 5 to 10 seconds and gives back to me.If I ask what they are speaking he tells me what they speaking to him but he is not replying to them.If I hold the phone in his ear he just carries on his work like playing.He is not interested in talking on phones he pushes the phone or if I give it to him he puts it on bed in my absence in that room or gives back to me.If I force to talk he just repeats what I am telling in low volume.How to make him answering others through phone?
2020/05/02
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/39863", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/33187/" ]
With loudspeakers on, talking on the phone is just normal conversation, with the exception that you don't see the person you're talking to, comparable to talking to someone in another room. Without loudspeakers, talking into a device and hearing a voice in another end of it is very superficial. That's something you have to get used to. Getting silent in this situation is no different from how most adults stiffen up and act differently when they are aware somebody is filming them. Speaking on a phone, however, is so prevalent that the kid quite certainly will get used to it and the behaviour will seem natural. I predict this'll pass, and until it does, I see nothing strange in it. I wouldn't take the fact that some other kids may not have such barriers as a concern.
As @dxh pointed out, it needs some getting used to. Some things that may help: 1. Video call, if not, speaker phone. 2. A parent providing the conversation prompts. A hypothetical from my house: Parent: Lets talk to grandpa about this new toy... Kid: hmmmm.... Parent: How do you play with it... Kid: hhmmmm....runs away Parent: (chase the kid...) How tall did you stack up these blocks? Kid: It went higher than the table... and then the car flew over it ... Grandparent: Was it taller than you.... Kid: Yeah! And the car zoomed like this ... (runs away...) This needs a lot of getting used to. They need to be in the habit of talking to that person. Also, when then talk it may not last more than a minute or so. Kids have so many things to do! It also depends on the other person. Its easier if the grandparent talks about things that are of interest to the kid. Most of the time open ended questions - what did you do today kinds - will not work. Even if the kid talks one day, they might not talk at all the next day. The emphasis then has to be on being polite - Hi, How are you, I am fine, Bye - level of conversation. Since the kid is only 4, the conversation can be limited to Hi - Bye. Comparing to other kids is not useful at all. Some kids talk a lot. Some kids do not talk much. Some kids talk in different situations. If there are any developmental converns please bring it up with the child's pediatrician.
28,077
Presentism is the position that all that exists, exists in the present. Though one can speak of the past, and of events in the past, strictly speaking (in this position), there is no temporal event located there, that we are strictly referring to (as opposed to a memory of); and the same, or so for the future. But what *is* present? That which is present right here, right now; I mean by this: this now, this time on the clock, on this table, this morning; and all that is *simultaneous* with this now. This, taking into account a little physics (I mean special and not general relativity) is justified *locally*; for the concept of simultaneity is still possible then. So I can talk about now - in this room, or a little further away - on this earth. But for distant places, which will be moving in some way to where I am here now, the concept of simultaneity fails. Thus does presentism fail? (I mean for this reason; and not for others - since there are others). This can be fixed - I think - if we take into account how some thing, or place (say, a star or galaxy) is moving in relation to us (since the concept of simultaneity is not absolute, but relational). In this sense, it seems we can fix up the notion of what is present to me now, not just here, in my room; or a little further - on this earth; but everywhere. But is this correct?
2015/09/12
[ "https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/28077", "https://philosophy.stackexchange.com", "https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/" ]
I think that according to special relativity, there is no *now* somewhere else, regardless of the distance, at least as long as we are not talking of quantum mechanics scales, "now" is only "here". This is how Feynman puts it: "Alpha Centauri 'now' is an idea or concept of our mind; it is not something that is really definable physically at the moment." but the point is that it does not matter if we are talking of another galaxy or another continent, or another city or another room. the tip of a light cone is just a point in space-time and any event outside the light cone has no fact-of-the-matter time order relation to it, regardless of the distance. it is actually a mind blowing property of space-time, that we do not appreciate enough. naturally, we have a little complexity in that the brain is about 10-15 cm in diameter, a problem that can be exploited for an indeterminate amount of contemplation. --- you may be thinking now, "what is this guy talking about? didn't he hear of relative simultaneity?" The planes of relative simultaneity are useful as mathematical abstractions but do not fit the bill of a *Now*. try to think about it while walking back and forth in your room, contemplating deeply what some hypothetical aliens are doing *right now* 2.5M light years away (on the axis of your march), but note that this remote *Now* of yours absurdly shifts back and forth days or even weeks each time you change direction. this problem is called the [Andromeda Paradox](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rietdijk%E2%80%93Putnam_argument). --- as for presentism, it seems to me that things that have ceased to exist in your past light cone, like Socrates, do not exist (anymore), and things that will come into being in your future light cone, like the philosophers of the 31st century, do not exist (yet), and as for events outside your light cone, it is meaningless to ask if they have already happened or not. there is no such thing as a snapshot of existence in the universe.
"Simultaneity" happens all the time (so to speak.) For example a "fortuitous" encounter is the chance meeting of someone expected to meet in the future that does in fact happen but not according to any plan or "foresight." There is also "spontaneity" where you are "acting" in present time but not really "knowing" where you are going with whatever it is you're thinking or are uncertain as to the outcome. There is also the idea of "serendipity"... a chance meeting that seems to assure one's "future" for all time. These and many other "facts of living" prove that while presentism existsit is only a construct of the mind and not in fact how we as humans nor any other sentient being in fact exists. Birds build nests, whales sing songs...all with a "future purpose" in mind (having shelter, getting food, etc) Humans are unique in explicitly doing away with time in order to discover "truths" however. The technical term I believe is called "instinct" or in sports "being in the zone" where you are not conscious of time when "acting." For example we have yet to discover any other living organism that attempts to build something like a Cathedral...which we know will require generations or "not in our time" to be completed. This is a unique form of "presentism" as it requires a type of plan that can be understood in the here and now AND in the future thus implying some type of "Master Plan" or "destiny." Of course if I take a well worn footpath and turn it into a road and then some type of highway or "interchange" this might seem to imply some greater intelligence on my part but in reality I'm just trodding the same path and merely expanding (or expounding) on the possibilities should I consider more doing the same. This "more of the same" is neither in the present nor having to do with "simultaneity" but simply projecting out "into the future" what is merely observed. Technically speaking such "thinking" is false as if everything is "just a roll of the dice" the "odds" are still the same...namely the number is the number observed not the odds of said number "going to be observed." One could argue and be right however if the dice are rolled and two sixes appear every time that "there is a problem with the dice." As Einstein famously said "God does not play dice with the Planets."
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
Yes, you can set the image of wall and table from virtual scene on emulator config.[config android emulator](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fh6LL.png)
You can't use barcode scanner on emulator because for scanning you need a camera..so if possible then use mobile device for it..
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
In Android Studio,go to AVD Manager * Choose a device then Click "Edit this device" -> * Click Show Advanced Settings * At camera, select Front: Emulate, Back: VirtualScene. * Then Run App, Click ... - (icon More) at toolbar of device * Click icon camera * Click folder and choose image QR, then you can scale it * Close panel, an continue run app. * When you go to Scan QR Screen, please use ALT + QWEASD to move and control[![This location ](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg) Then image will be scan
You can't use barcode scanner on emulator because for scanning you need a camera..so if possible then use mobile device for it..
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
You can't use barcode scanner on emulator because for scanning you need a camera..so if possible then use mobile device for it..
Yes it is possible. you can use the camera of your laptop as the AVD's front or back camera [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
Yes, you can set the image of wall and table from virtual scene on emulator config.[config android emulator](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fh6LL.png)
You can enable the cam on android emulator, and so use a barcode scanner on it. To do so, you have to set the emulator property "configures camera facing back" (or front) to "yes" or "webcam0". source : <http://viralpatel.net/blogs/enable-camera-in-android-emulator/>
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
In Android Studio,go to AVD Manager * Choose a device then Click "Edit this device" -> * Click Show Advanced Settings * At camera, select Front: Emulate, Back: VirtualScene. * Then Run App, Click ... - (icon More) at toolbar of device * Click icon camera * Click folder and choose image QR, then you can scale it * Close panel, an continue run app. * When you go to Scan QR Screen, please use ALT + QWEASD to move and control[![This location ](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg) Then image will be scan
You can enable the cam on android emulator, and so use a barcode scanner on it. To do so, you have to set the emulator property "configures camera facing back" (or front) to "yes" or "webcam0". source : <http://viralpatel.net/blogs/enable-camera-in-android-emulator/>
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
You can enable the cam on android emulator, and so use a barcode scanner on it. To do so, you have to set the emulator property "configures camera facing back" (or front) to "yes" or "webcam0". source : <http://viralpatel.net/blogs/enable-camera-in-android-emulator/>
Yes it is possible. you can use the camera of your laptop as the AVD's front or back camera [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
Yes, you can set the image of wall and table from virtual scene on emulator config.[config android emulator](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fh6LL.png)
Yes it is possible. you can use the camera of your laptop as the AVD's front or back camera [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)
9,867,415
Adding strings localization files in iPhone bundle is very simple and perfectly fine but there is only one drawbacks every time we need to upload new build on AppStore when we add new language in app. Is there any other way like we can manage Localization from server, when we start app we download all label string and Localiza image from server and stored in document directory and run accordingly. Download data according to language... So can we do like this and the main things Apple can reject that kinds of scenario ?
2012/03/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9867415", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375930/" ]
In Android Studio,go to AVD Manager * Choose a device then Click "Edit this device" -> * Click Show Advanced Settings * At camera, select Front: Emulate, Back: VirtualScene. * Then Run App, Click ... - (icon More) at toolbar of device * Click icon camera * Click folder and choose image QR, then you can scale it * Close panel, an continue run app. * When you go to Scan QR Screen, please use ALT + QWEASD to move and control[![This location ](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OJNYB.jpg) Then image will be scan
Yes it is possible. you can use the camera of your laptop as the AVD's front or back camera [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xtasd.png)
148,426
This question is about US mortgages. I was talking to a realtor who told me that buying a **single-family** home now as owner-occupied would prevent me from applying for an owner-occupied mortgage for a **multifamily house** with a a **lower down payment** and suggested doing it the other way round: **multi-family then single family** *if both are owner-occupied*. Her take is that I would not be able to put a low down-payment but instead would need to put down `25%` for the 2nd place (a multi-family home) even if I lived in the single-family home for at least a year as required for owner-occupied mortgages. Is this true? I couldn't find a source that mentions this underwriting process.
2022/01/08
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/148426", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/95054/" ]
You seem to regard the owner-occupied rules as paperwork peccadilloes to overcome. The intent of these rules, rather, is that you indeed occupy (i.e. live in, reside in full-time) the abode that you tell a lender will be owner-occupied. To do otherwise would be to commit federal crimes such as mortgage fraud while you launch your real estate endeavor.
My experience is that lenders require 20% down in order to get a mortgage on a piece of rental property. If lender will view a multifamily property as an investment property and require the 20% down payment on the loan, then you have to make sure that by putting a large down payment on the single family house you don't drain your cash and won't qualify for a loan on the multifamily property. You should sit down with your agent and mortgage broker and determine if the order of purchases makes a difference. If it does, you may have to go with multifamily purchase first, or put a smaller amount down on the single family house.
12,349
Is systemd on or off topic here ? From the wiki page - <https://wiki.ubuntu.com/systemd#Warning.21_Experimental_code> > > Warning! Experimental code > > > systemd is under active development in Ubuntu although the rough plan would be to default to systemd during development of 15.04. If you want to help it's best to be running 15.04. (14.10 might be doable as well..) > > > I would think 15.04 is ubuntu +1 and thus off topic as per the FAQ. We getting tons of questions on this topic , see [Unable to boot after installing systemd-services and changing the init parameter on boot](https://askubuntu.com/questions/565301/unable-to-install-systemd-on-ubuntu-14-04) And there is even [How can I replace upstart with systemd?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/420917/how-can-i-replace-upstart-with-systemd)
2014/12/25
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/12349", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/35795/" ]
I have *no idea* why they say that systemd is "Experimental code" when is considered stable enough to land in the next iteraction of Debian Jessie as their main init system. What it is *experimental* is the integration of systemd with Ubuntu, or the use of the PPA instead of the main repositories, and even so, I have a functional systemd Ubuntu installation of Trusty with GDM/Gnome 3/Gnome Shell (upgraded from Raring), and haven´t found any partypooper problem *yet*. Bugs caused by the itteraction of systemd with Ubuntu, like trying to install two DM´s at the same time and both infunctional, is off topic, as they should be addresed by developers. Asking about how to use systemd, replace the system init provider from upstart to systemd, etc. are on topic, as they can be addressed by users and aren´t actual problems that are best served by developers intervention.
I'd say that's similar to custom compiled kernels or mainline kernels, which are off-topic as far as I am aware. At least that would make sense from the support perspective. As you said in one of the comments, there are other distributions available that have already integrated systemd and which would be more appropriate to study systemd. I wouldn't say it's off-topic because it's Ubuntu+1, but a core software component that's not completely integrated and ready for and Ubuntu release. Users wanting to try out systemd, like users who want to try out Ubuntu+1, should get involved in bug reporting instead of posting here. Correct me if I'm wrong.
413,208
### Duplicate: > > [How to indent a selection in gvim (win32)?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/318923/how-to-indent-a-selection-in-gvim-win32) > > > [How do I indent multiple lines quickly in vi?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/235839/how-do-i-indent-multiple-lines-quickly-in-vi) > > > Using vim under linux I can indent a block of code using the VISUAL mode and pressing ">". In vim under Windows this does not happen. This is what happens: * Press V, the VIM enter in the VISUAL mode * Press 'Down', the VIM exit for the VISUAL mode. I can't select anything in VISUAL mode. Alternatively, if I use the SELECT mode for selecting code the ">" does not indent it.
2009/01/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/413208", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/36131/" ]
Ok, I got it. In Windows I should press Shift+Down to remain in the VISUAL mode.
Weird, I don't experience this behavior on Vim 7.1 on Win XP. Perhaps setting nocompatible will help you?
413,208
### Duplicate: > > [How to indent a selection in gvim (win32)?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/318923/how-to-indent-a-selection-in-gvim-win32) > > > [How do I indent multiple lines quickly in vi?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/235839/how-do-i-indent-multiple-lines-quickly-in-vi) > > > Using vim under linux I can indent a block of code using the VISUAL mode and pressing ">". In vim under Windows this does not happen. This is what happens: * Press V, the VIM enter in the VISUAL mode * Press 'Down', the VIM exit for the VISUAL mode. I can't select anything in VISUAL mode. Alternatively, if I use the SELECT mode for selecting code the ">" does not indent it.
2009/01/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/413208", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/36131/" ]
Ok, I got it. In Windows I should press Shift+Down to remain in the VISUAL mode.
Haven't you keep mswin.vim ? If you want the same behaviour on both OSes, get rid of this file.
413,208
### Duplicate: > > [How to indent a selection in gvim (win32)?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/318923/how-to-indent-a-selection-in-gvim-win32) > > > [How do I indent multiple lines quickly in vi?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/235839/how-do-i-indent-multiple-lines-quickly-in-vi) > > > Using vim under linux I can indent a block of code using the VISUAL mode and pressing ">". In vim under Windows this does not happen. This is what happens: * Press V, the VIM enter in the VISUAL mode * Press 'Down', the VIM exit for the VISUAL mode. I can't select anything in VISUAL mode. Alternatively, if I use the SELECT mode for selecting code the ">" does not indent it.
2009/01/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/413208", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/36131/" ]
Haven't you keep mswin.vim ? If you want the same behaviour on both OSes, get rid of this file.
Weird, I don't experience this behavior on Vim 7.1 on Win XP. Perhaps setting nocompatible will help you?
34,596,116
I created a Node.js project in visual studio and I now wanted to publish it to azure, so I followed the following guide: <https://github.com/Microsoft/nodejstools/wiki/Publish-to-Azure-Website-using-Web-Deploy#converting-to-an-azure-project-type> But the publish button when I right click on the project or the build menu at the top, the button is disabled. Any ideas? [![Publish button disabled](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YSGdG.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YSGdG.png)
2016/01/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34596116", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1421561/" ]
It looks like you were trying to publish your website **while still in debug mode**. when you're in Debug mode some menu options could be disabled. Verify that you aren't running Visual Studio Debug mode , I mean stop DEBUG, and verify again the publish option-. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rn3f8.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rn3f8.png)
It seems that this functionality is not available /no longer available for node project templates. However, if you are using Azure for hosting, deployment can still be performed using the [Azure CLI](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/get-started-with-azure-cli?view=azure-cli-latest). If you are using Azure functions like me, you may use the [az functionapp deployment source config-zip](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/functionapp/deployment/source?view=azure-cli-latest#az-functionapp-deployment-source-config-zip) command to deploy a node function.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
### Short answer: I believe cross-dupes not only are acceptable, but a small overlap is even useful: * If the scopes of the sites overlap, so should their content. * While a minor overlap does no harm *at all*, a *gap* between the sites would harm both. For both sites being useful and complementary, provide an uninterrupted learning curve, the "travel" between them should be smooth. A minor overlap is part of that. Imagine the situation that you constantly have to switch, because an (on topic) question was coincidentally answered on the other site.
I think a lot of the confusion arises from forums that are very similar. In some cases, a question is on topic in more than one community. In that case, I believe that exact duplicates **should** stay. I have basically two reasons: 1. Web presence =============== If the question is correctly answered in two places, the answer will be easier for people to find straight from the search engine or even straight on the site. In other words, whether a person is searching Google for an answer to a question or searching a particular StackExchange community, they will find the information. 2. Bigger database ================== It also gives each stackexchange communtiy a larger database of information to draw from in the future, preventing further confusion. That is to say, even if you were somehow able to close all these remotely duped questions, sooner or later, it's going to pop up again and you'll have to do it again. Wastes time: poor moderators. All that being said, I have seen situations arise in which a question is questionably on topic but and is already correctly answered in a community where it is unquestionably **on topic**. In these cases, my humble opinion is that there should be a means of migrating and duping. Otherwise, it simply promotes re-asking questions in the wrong place; thus promoting disorder and cheating the system.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
Personally, I think that the best solution would be to develop a way of sharing questions across all sites where they're on topic. The rules against cross-posting were developed back in the days when there was very little overlap between the subject matter of different SE sites. However, things are very different today. The question you mention would be on topic here, on [Unix & Linux](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), on [Ask Different](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), [Super User](https://superuser.com/), [Elementary OS](https://elementaryos.stackexchange.com/) and maybe more. The current system would allow duplicate questions and duplicate answers across all of these sites. While I quite agree that this is less than optimal, it's the way things are at the moment. There is no way of flagging cross-site duplicates and no actions mods can take even if such a flag were raised. If you know that the same question has been asked and answered elsewhere, you can feel free to copy it verbatim and post it as an answer here. It would be polite to include a link to the site where you found it, of course, but copying SE answers is very much allowed. We had a discussion on [Unix & Linux meta](https://unix.meta.stackexchange.com/q/1396/22222) a while ago and that was the conclusion there as well. So, no, don't flag and yes, copy the existing answer. If you want to be super nice, you can make it [Community Wiki](https://askubuntu.com/help/privileges/community-wiki) so as not to get points for other people's work but, again, that's completely up to you.
I think a lot of the confusion arises from forums that are very similar. In some cases, a question is on topic in more than one community. In that case, I believe that exact duplicates **should** stay. I have basically two reasons: 1. Web presence =============== If the question is correctly answered in two places, the answer will be easier for people to find straight from the search engine or even straight on the site. In other words, whether a person is searching Google for an answer to a question or searching a particular StackExchange community, they will find the information. 2. Bigger database ================== It also gives each stackexchange communtiy a larger database of information to draw from in the future, preventing further confusion. That is to say, even if you were somehow able to close all these remotely duped questions, sooner or later, it's going to pop up again and you'll have to do it again. Wastes time: poor moderators. All that being said, I have seen situations arise in which a question is questionably on topic but and is already correctly answered in a community where it is unquestionably **on topic**. In these cases, my humble opinion is that there should be a means of migrating and duping. Otherwise, it simply promotes re-asking questions in the wrong place; thus promoting disorder and cheating the system.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
I think a lot of the confusion arises from forums that are very similar. In some cases, a question is on topic in more than one community. In that case, I believe that exact duplicates **should** stay. I have basically two reasons: 1. Web presence =============== If the question is correctly answered in two places, the answer will be easier for people to find straight from the search engine or even straight on the site. In other words, whether a person is searching Google for an answer to a question or searching a particular StackExchange community, they will find the information. 2. Bigger database ================== It also gives each stackexchange communtiy a larger database of information to draw from in the future, preventing further confusion. That is to say, even if you were somehow able to close all these remotely duped questions, sooner or later, it's going to pop up again and you'll have to do it again. Wastes time: poor moderators. All that being said, I have seen situations arise in which a question is questionably on topic but and is already correctly answered in a community where it is unquestionably **on topic**. In these cases, my humble opinion is that there should be a means of migrating and duping. Otherwise, it simply promotes re-asking questions in the wrong place; thus promoting disorder and cheating the system.
I'm on the fence on this one more leaning toward the some overlap argument as a certain amount of overlap between here and U&L is unavoidable and likely positive, but Braiam does make an excellent point regarding due diligence. As it is, when I run across a question that I know has been answered (and answered well) on another SE site I just comment and point to the related answer rather than wasting valuable time re-answering. In fact if I'm doing MY due diligence I will discover the existing answer on another SE site resulting in the same action as if I had prior knowledge. Sometimes (often?) the question has been answered partially on a number of sites in which case I do my best to pull all the information together and cite the sources. I don't think different methods of determination or handling of cross-dupes are necessary.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
I think a lot of the confusion arises from forums that are very similar. In some cases, a question is on topic in more than one community. In that case, I believe that exact duplicates **should** stay. I have basically two reasons: 1. Web presence =============== If the question is correctly answered in two places, the answer will be easier for people to find straight from the search engine or even straight on the site. In other words, whether a person is searching Google for an answer to a question or searching a particular StackExchange community, they will find the information. 2. Bigger database ================== It also gives each stackexchange communtiy a larger database of information to draw from in the future, preventing further confusion. That is to say, even if you were somehow able to close all these remotely duped questions, sooner or later, it's going to pop up again and you'll have to do it again. Wastes time: poor moderators. All that being said, I have seen situations arise in which a question is questionably on topic but and is already correctly answered in a community where it is unquestionably **on topic**. In these cases, my humble opinion is that there should be a means of migrating and duping. Otherwise, it simply promotes re-asking questions in the wrong place; thus promoting disorder and cheating the system.
I think the best way would be to provide an option to make the same question visible across multiple SE communitites without a need to re-create the question in other communitites (which they are doing now). The answers also can be made visible across the sites. I am saying this because I have myself done that a couple of times just for a straightforward reason: I wanted my question to be visible to more number of people and I found the subject valid in multiple communities.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
### Short answer: I believe cross-dupes not only are acceptable, but a small overlap is even useful: * If the scopes of the sites overlap, so should their content. * While a minor overlap does no harm *at all*, a *gap* between the sites would harm both. For both sites being useful and complementary, provide an uninterrupted learning curve, the "travel" between them should be smooth. A minor overlap is part of that. Imagine the situation that you constantly have to switch, because an (on topic) question was coincidentally answered on the other site.
Personally, I think that the best solution would be to develop a way of sharing questions across all sites where they're on topic. The rules against cross-posting were developed back in the days when there was very little overlap between the subject matter of different SE sites. However, things are very different today. The question you mention would be on topic here, on [Unix & Linux](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), on [Ask Different](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), [Super User](https://superuser.com/), [Elementary OS](https://elementaryos.stackexchange.com/) and maybe more. The current system would allow duplicate questions and duplicate answers across all of these sites. While I quite agree that this is less than optimal, it's the way things are at the moment. There is no way of flagging cross-site duplicates and no actions mods can take even if such a flag were raised. If you know that the same question has been asked and answered elsewhere, you can feel free to copy it verbatim and post it as an answer here. It would be polite to include a link to the site where you found it, of course, but copying SE answers is very much allowed. We had a discussion on [Unix & Linux meta](https://unix.meta.stackexchange.com/q/1396/22222) a while ago and that was the conclusion there as well. So, no, don't flag and yes, copy the existing answer. If you want to be super nice, you can make it [Community Wiki](https://askubuntu.com/help/privileges/community-wiki) so as not to get points for other people's work but, again, that's completely up to you.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
### Short answer: I believe cross-dupes not only are acceptable, but a small overlap is even useful: * If the scopes of the sites overlap, so should their content. * While a minor overlap does no harm *at all*, a *gap* between the sites would harm both. For both sites being useful and complementary, provide an uninterrupted learning curve, the "travel" between them should be smooth. A minor overlap is part of that. Imagine the situation that you constantly have to switch, because an (on topic) question was coincidentally answered on the other site.
I'm on the fence on this one more leaning toward the some overlap argument as a certain amount of overlap between here and U&L is unavoidable and likely positive, but Braiam does make an excellent point regarding due diligence. As it is, when I run across a question that I know has been answered (and answered well) on another SE site I just comment and point to the related answer rather than wasting valuable time re-answering. In fact if I'm doing MY due diligence I will discover the existing answer on another SE site resulting in the same action as if I had prior knowledge. Sometimes (often?) the question has been answered partially on a number of sites in which case I do my best to pull all the information together and cite the sources. I don't think different methods of determination or handling of cross-dupes are necessary.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
### Short answer: I believe cross-dupes not only are acceptable, but a small overlap is even useful: * If the scopes of the sites overlap, so should their content. * While a minor overlap does no harm *at all*, a *gap* between the sites would harm both. For both sites being useful and complementary, provide an uninterrupted learning curve, the "travel" between them should be smooth. A minor overlap is part of that. Imagine the situation that you constantly have to switch, because an (on topic) question was coincidentally answered on the other site.
I think the best way would be to provide an option to make the same question visible across multiple SE communitites without a need to re-create the question in other communitites (which they are doing now). The answers also can be made visible across the sites. I am saying this because I have myself done that a couple of times just for a straightforward reason: I wanted my question to be visible to more number of people and I found the subject valid in multiple communities.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
Personally, I think that the best solution would be to develop a way of sharing questions across all sites where they're on topic. The rules against cross-posting were developed back in the days when there was very little overlap between the subject matter of different SE sites. However, things are very different today. The question you mention would be on topic here, on [Unix & Linux](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), on [Ask Different](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), [Super User](https://superuser.com/), [Elementary OS](https://elementaryos.stackexchange.com/) and maybe more. The current system would allow duplicate questions and duplicate answers across all of these sites. While I quite agree that this is less than optimal, it's the way things are at the moment. There is no way of flagging cross-site duplicates and no actions mods can take even if such a flag were raised. If you know that the same question has been asked and answered elsewhere, you can feel free to copy it verbatim and post it as an answer here. It would be polite to include a link to the site where you found it, of course, but copying SE answers is very much allowed. We had a discussion on [Unix & Linux meta](https://unix.meta.stackexchange.com/q/1396/22222) a while ago and that was the conclusion there as well. So, no, don't flag and yes, copy the existing answer. If you want to be super nice, you can make it [Community Wiki](https://askubuntu.com/help/privileges/community-wiki) so as not to get points for other people's work but, again, that's completely up to you.
I'm on the fence on this one more leaning toward the some overlap argument as a certain amount of overlap between here and U&L is unavoidable and likely positive, but Braiam does make an excellent point regarding due diligence. As it is, when I run across a question that I know has been answered (and answered well) on another SE site I just comment and point to the related answer rather than wasting valuable time re-answering. In fact if I'm doing MY due diligence I will discover the existing answer on another SE site resulting in the same action as if I had prior knowledge. Sometimes (often?) the question has been answered partially on a number of sites in which case I do my best to pull all the information together and cite the sources. I don't think different methods of determination or handling of cross-dupes are necessary.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
Personally, I think that the best solution would be to develop a way of sharing questions across all sites where they're on topic. The rules against cross-posting were developed back in the days when there was very little overlap between the subject matter of different SE sites. However, things are very different today. The question you mention would be on topic here, on [Unix & Linux](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), on [Ask Different](https://unix.stackexchange.com/), [Super User](https://superuser.com/), [Elementary OS](https://elementaryos.stackexchange.com/) and maybe more. The current system would allow duplicate questions and duplicate answers across all of these sites. While I quite agree that this is less than optimal, it's the way things are at the moment. There is no way of flagging cross-site duplicates and no actions mods can take even if such a flag were raised. If you know that the same question has been asked and answered elsewhere, you can feel free to copy it verbatim and post it as an answer here. It would be polite to include a link to the site where you found it, of course, but copying SE answers is very much allowed. We had a discussion on [Unix & Linux meta](https://unix.meta.stackexchange.com/q/1396/22222) a while ago and that was the conclusion there as well. So, no, don't flag and yes, copy the existing answer. If you want to be super nice, you can make it [Community Wiki](https://askubuntu.com/help/privileges/community-wiki) so as not to get points for other people's work but, again, that's completely up to you.
I think the best way would be to provide an option to make the same question visible across multiple SE communitites without a need to re-create the question in other communitites (which they are doing now). The answers also can be made visible across the sites. I am saying this because I have myself done that a couple of times just for a straightforward reason: I wanted my question to be visible to more number of people and I found the subject valid in multiple communities.
15,720
A few seconds ago a first time user of AU asked a question (on AU), which was promptly and correctly [answered](https://askubuntu.com/questions/794013/what-is-in-terminal-command-line) by @terdon. That question had an [exact dupe](https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/11376/what-does-double-dash-mean-also-known-as-bare-double-dash), equally well answered by @Guss, earlier on Unix & Linux, a SE communities with *some* overlap with AU and a few other SE communities. Initially I was actually real surprised that said question was not already answered on AU; on second thought it actually *made sense* since it already had at least one excellent answer on Unix & Linux. It *made sense*, **but** I would not go as far as saying that before making a query on AU, one should first check whether there is an answer for it in a different SE community. Rather one should learn to post in the right community to begin with. Right, but sometimes it's not so easy to decide as in this case. * So, how should one treat a query in a community A, which was already posted in unequivocal terms in community B, both on SE ? * Should one call that a dupe or a "cross-dupe", without meaning that the two communities are one but somehow closely related ? I am not sure that sounds completely right. * Should flair be awarded per usual, either through upvotes or automatic increment upon acceptance of such an answer to a cross-dupe ? * Or should the query echoing another identical query in another community of StackExchange be treated differently in terms of flair accrual, categorisation as dupe, removal, etc. ?
2016/07/02
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/15720", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/292181/" ]
I'm on the fence on this one more leaning toward the some overlap argument as a certain amount of overlap between here and U&L is unavoidable and likely positive, but Braiam does make an excellent point regarding due diligence. As it is, when I run across a question that I know has been answered (and answered well) on another SE site I just comment and point to the related answer rather than wasting valuable time re-answering. In fact if I'm doing MY due diligence I will discover the existing answer on another SE site resulting in the same action as if I had prior knowledge. Sometimes (often?) the question has been answered partially on a number of sites in which case I do my best to pull all the information together and cite the sources. I don't think different methods of determination or handling of cross-dupes are necessary.
I think the best way would be to provide an option to make the same question visible across multiple SE communitites without a need to re-create the question in other communitites (which they are doing now). The answers also can be made visible across the sites. I am saying this because I have myself done that a couple of times just for a straightforward reason: I wanted my question to be visible to more number of people and I found the subject valid in multiple communities.
247,714
The other day I logged into Discord on my friend's computer using the desktop application. Does Windows log these events somewhere? Does it store the password hash or some sort of authentication token?
2021/03/29
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/247714", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/254583/" ]
I do not believe Windows stores app credentials by default. But Windows CAN do almost anything you (or an attacker with sufficient access) tells it to. I think it is important to distinguish credentials (your password) and session management (access to the application). These patterns and advice apply to most client-server applications. Applications are free to implement credential management and session management however (securely) they want. Many have made mistakes. "Remember me" functionality is usually session management... the client computer will store a token that is authorized to resume an existing session (without requiring credentials) on the server computer. If an attacker can access that client token, they might be able to resume your server session. If an attacker gets your credentials, they might be able to start a new server session. Both scenarios are bad obviously. Multifactor authentication, and not-using-untrusted-client-devices are good ways to protect your credentials. Secure transmission too obviously. Session management is tougher, as most of it is invisible to the user, and is implemented many different ways. If you're worried, usually a password change on the server will invalidate previously created client sessions. I hope this helps!
Windows stores computer login password using a hashing algorithm. Windows doesn't store external application credentials. But your password can be compromised if your friend has a keylogger on the computer. If the application was set to save the password, it will be stored on the computer.
44,225,569
I'm trying to use Callgrind/Kcachegrind for the first time to profile my C++ application and what I noticed is that the two functions that take more time are: 1. < cycle 1 > (50% self) and 2. do\_lookup\_x (15% self) Now, from my understanding cycle 1 is related to the estimation of the time taken by recursively called functions, but it is not very clear to me how I should interpret a so high time spent here. If there are some cycles, I would like to see which function is called more often and take more CPU time at the end. If I disable Cycle Detection (View->Cycle Detection), then cycle 1 disappears but the "Self" time sum up to roughly 60%, and I'm not sure this is the best thing to do. Regarding do\_lookup\_x I'm totally clueless... Can you clarify me a bit how should I interpret these results? Thanks in advance.
2017/05/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/44225569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4158622/" ]
Cycles may be detected incorrectly in KCachegrind: <http://valgrind.org/docs/manual/cl-manual.html#cl-manual.cycles> > > 6.2.4. Avoiding cycles > Informally speaking, a cycle is a group of functions which call each other in a recursive way. ... > > > Cycles are not bad in itself, but tend to make performance analysis of your code harder. This is because inclusive costs for calls inside of a cycle are meaningless. The definition of inclusive cost, i.e. self cost of a function plus inclusive cost of its callees, needs a topological order among functions. For cycles, this does not hold true: callees of a function in a cycle include the function itself. Therefore, KCachegrind does cycle detection and skips visualization of any inclusive cost for calls inside of cycles. Further, all functions in a cycle are collapsed into artificial functions called like Cycle 1. > > > Now, when a program exposes really big cycles (as is true for some GUI code, or in general code using event or callback based programming style), you lose the nice property to let you pinpoint the bottlenecks by following call chains from main, guided via inclusive cost. In addition, KCachegrind loses its ability to show interesting parts of the call graph, as it uses inclusive costs to cut off uninteresting areas. > > > Despite the meaningless of inclusive costs in cycles, the big drawback for visualization motivates the possibility to temporarily switch off cycle detection in KCachegrind, which can lead to misguiding visualization. However, often cycles appear because of unlucky superposition of independent call chains in a way that the profile result will see a cycle. Neglecting uninteresting calls with very small measured inclusive cost would break these cycles. In such cases, incorrect handling of cycles by not detecting them still gives meaningful profiling visualization. > > > Try to turn off Cycle Detection in KCachegrind's View menu and check "Self" time column, as "Incl" will be incorrect. You can also try some other profiler with exact and full function stack saving. Many profilers supported by <https://github.com/jrfonseca/gprof2dot> script saves full stack, not only the callee-caller pairs as in callgrind/cachegrind format.
I agree with @osgx that you need a different profiler, one that captures entire call stacks. Then, inclusive time percent of a function is a very simple number. It is just the fraction of stack samples in which that function appears, regardless of how many times it appears in single samples. Here's a way to think of it. - Suppose samples are taken every 10ms, for a total of 100 seconds, or 10,000 samples. - Suppose function Foo appears on 30% of those samples, either once or more than once. - That means if you could change Foo so it takes almost no time, such as by passing it off to a very fast sub-processor, then no samples would see it, because it would never be on the stack long enough for a sample to hit it. - So those 30% of samples would simply *disappear*, and the program would take 70 seconds instead of 100. - That means Foo is personally responsible for 30% of the time (regardless of recursion). Actually, I prefer [*this method*](https://stackoverflow.com/a/378024/23771), because I'm more interested in finding out what the problem is, rather than whether it takes 29% or 31%. It takes whatever it takes, and what it takes will not be affected by how precisely it gets measured.
141,285
Which of the options do you think to have better usability for the product cards for a grocery app (Shoppers) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png) The problem: I need to give to shoppers a better visualization of the basic products information in a smooth way for them don't get confused y make their process more easy and fast Solution: I think is a lot of information for a card so I tried to organize the information in a way that I considered clear and give a better reading so in A we have in the top left the product name, in the top right the location of the product in-store and in the center of the cards the picture, the order quantity and other information that help to picker the product in a better way like reference, price, and barcode At the bottom of the card, I have a client comment if the client sends one In B we had the same information but the difference is that I display the order quantity at the same level that the product name and the location is now in the center Leave me to know what you think! Thanks for the feedback
2021/10/13
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/141285", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/152290/" ]
The only way to know is to do A/B testing I personally prefer A B would be better if you could somehow distinguish the `3x` from the Item Name with a more distinct styling or color. Right now the quantity of the item is more obvious to me in design A.
1. Why is the location in the store important for an online experience? 2. You have the product count but I don’t see an option to increase or decrease this value 3. Why is the barcode number needed on what I’m assuming is the quick/list view of products? 4. Each of these versions, including the original, have positive qualities but none of them currently achieve the right hierarchy
141,285
Which of the options do you think to have better usability for the product cards for a grocery app (Shoppers) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png) The problem: I need to give to shoppers a better visualization of the basic products information in a smooth way for them don't get confused y make their process more easy and fast Solution: I think is a lot of information for a card so I tried to organize the information in a way that I considered clear and give a better reading so in A we have in the top left the product name, in the top right the location of the product in-store and in the center of the cards the picture, the order quantity and other information that help to picker the product in a better way like reference, price, and barcode At the bottom of the card, I have a client comment if the client sends one In B we had the same information but the difference is that I display the order quantity at the same level that the product name and the location is now in the center Leave me to know what you think! Thanks for the feedback
2021/10/13
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/141285", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/152290/" ]
The only way to know is to do A/B testing I personally prefer A B would be better if you could somehow distinguish the `3x` from the Item Name with a more distinct styling or color. Right now the quantity of the item is more obvious to me in design A.
I would probably go with A but with the following recommendations: * Increase the colour contrast in the message to make it stand out (e.g. black font) * Move the quantity to the right side of the panel maybe with a grey background as in the original Last but not least, as mentioned, try to only include the necessary information that the user needs to complete the order (e.g. Location, barcode, etc).
141,285
Which of the options do you think to have better usability for the product cards for a grocery app (Shoppers) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uqm36.png) The problem: I need to give to shoppers a better visualization of the basic products information in a smooth way for them don't get confused y make their process more easy and fast Solution: I think is a lot of information for a card so I tried to organize the information in a way that I considered clear and give a better reading so in A we have in the top left the product name, in the top right the location of the product in-store and in the center of the cards the picture, the order quantity and other information that help to picker the product in a better way like reference, price, and barcode At the bottom of the card, I have a client comment if the client sends one In B we had the same information but the difference is that I display the order quantity at the same level that the product name and the location is now in the center Leave me to know what you think! Thanks for the feedback
2021/10/13
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/141285", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/152290/" ]
The only way to know is to do A/B testing I personally prefer A B would be better if you could somehow distinguish the `3x` from the Item Name with a more distinct styling or color. Right now the quantity of the item is more obvious to me in design A.
If I`d like to shop something online, the first Information thats important for me is WHAT. So I would scale the main productname up. The second information is probably either how much it costs (depends on how much of the current month is already over :) and how much product I would buy. I am not interested in data like barcodes or locations (that one could be an information to use as a filter for the tiles if it is really relevant to the users goals) Overall great attempts. Try to use font sizes that differentiate more and try to use not to many. For example use a bold headline with the name of the product. Then a smaller copytext for metadata in the middle of the tile and a larger maybe thinner typeface for the price. I hope this helps. Good luck!
1,006
I don't know if my question is philosophy, law, history, ethics or none of it, but I imagine a scenario where an obviously evil and criminal act with the intent of malice has the result of utility and good. For example, imagine if Charlie is going to the cinema and on his way to the cinema I stop him and I rob him of his money or even violence towards so that he cannot complete his visit to the cinema and maybe needs to go to the hospital or the police station instead. On the occasion the cinema where Charlie was going to is attacked by a bomb or terrorists and everybody at the cinema dies. It becomes clear that Charlie would have been dead if I had not committed the crime against him. Or similarly if I with malicious intent make somebody miss an airplane where everybody dies. Was there such a situation in real history and how would that be thought of, considering that the criminal only had evil intention but in fact he saved the life of the victim. Would that even change a verdict or the ethical conclusion what was the right thing to do?
2020/06/08
[ "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1006", "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com/users/2529/" ]
It's on topic here ------------------ You are asking about the legal implications of a given set of facts - that's what we do. With a few minor tweaks, you could be asking about the philosophical implications - that's what Philosophy does.
We don't do ethical questions here, that's what Philosophy SE is for (it might even be a FAQ). We can deal with the legal implications.
1,006
I don't know if my question is philosophy, law, history, ethics or none of it, but I imagine a scenario where an obviously evil and criminal act with the intent of malice has the result of utility and good. For example, imagine if Charlie is going to the cinema and on his way to the cinema I stop him and I rob him of his money or even violence towards so that he cannot complete his visit to the cinema and maybe needs to go to the hospital or the police station instead. On the occasion the cinema where Charlie was going to is attacked by a bomb or terrorists and everybody at the cinema dies. It becomes clear that Charlie would have been dead if I had not committed the crime against him. Or similarly if I with malicious intent make somebody miss an airplane where everybody dies. Was there such a situation in real history and how would that be thought of, considering that the criminal only had evil intention but in fact he saved the life of the victim. Would that even change a verdict or the ethical conclusion what was the right thing to do?
2020/06/08
[ "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1006", "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://law.meta.stackexchange.com/users/2529/" ]
It's on topic here ------------------ You are asking about the legal implications of a given set of facts - that's what we do. With a few minor tweaks, you could be asking about the philosophical implications - that's what Philosophy does.
> > I don't know if my question is philosophy, law, history, ethics > > > Many questions about ethics are on topic for Law SE. That is because ethics is very often part of, and/or inseparable from, [legislation](http://www.legislature.mi.gov/(S(wd2gqe4ual5gmtwjiu1csk5e))/mileg.aspx?page=ExecuteSearch&query=list&isearchfulltext=ethics) and other sources of law. This is palpable in the examples that follow. Sometimes ethics is even *mandated* by the law. [*Iberiabank v. Broussard*, 907 F.3d 826, 840 (2018)](https://www.leagle.com/decision/infco20181025101) points out that "*Louisiana courts permit LUTPA claims based on breaches of **ethical standards** even if there are parallel remedies for similar conduct*" (emphasis added, citations and quotation marks omitted). Ethics is supposed to be one criterion for rulings *on equitable grounds*. As an example, [*Matter of Mobile Steel Co.*, 563 F.2d 692, 699 (1977)](https://www.leagle.com/decision/19771255563f2d69211152) states that bankruptcy courts "*possess the power 'to prevent the consummation of a course of conduct by [a] claimant which . . . would be fraudulent or otherwise inequitable' by subordinating his claims to the **ethically superior** claims asserted by other creditors*" (emphasis added, quotation marks in original, citations omitted). [MCL 15.486](http://www.legislature.mi.gov/(S(rofohswq3otsodvsohgvujc5))/mileg.aspx?page=getObject&objectName=mcl-15-486&highlight=ethics) provides that the Regulatory Boards and Commissions Ethics Act "*is intended to supplement existing ethics law, and if there is a conflict, the following laws prevail*" (citing statutes). [MCL 124.754(9)](http://www.legislature.mi.gov/(S(rofohswq3otsodvsohgvujc5))/mileg.aspx?page=getobject&objectname=mcl-124-754) reads that "*[a]n authority shall adopt a code of ethics*". Various rules and comments in the [California Rules of Professional Conduct](http://www.calbar.ca.gov/Portals/0/documents/rules/Rules-of-Professional-Conduct.pdf) make several, explicit references to the California Code of Judicial *Ethics* and "*an applicable code of judicial ethics*". The court in [*Florida Bar v. Went For It, Inc.*, 515 U.S. 618, 645 (1995)](https://www.leagle.com/decision/19951133515us61811110) alleges that "*[t]he objective of the profession is to ensure that 'the ethical standards of lawyers are linked to the service and protection of clients'*" (citations omitted, quotation marks in original). > > the criminal only had evil intention but in fact he saved the life of the victim. Would that even change a verdict or the ethical conclusion what was the right thing to do? > > > No. It is important to distinguish between matters of ethics and *random* coincidences where a criminal's act *unexpectedly* prevented the victim from suffering greater harm. The criminal cannot reasonably posit that considerations of ethics should be a mitigating factor or lead to his exoneration for *harm he actually caused*.
39,171
Say I am buying stock XYZ, is it possible to close my position, in this case sell, as soon as open market hours close or do I have to wait until the next market open?
2014/10/29
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/39171", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/14791/" ]
If you bought stock XYZ during the day, and then you sold XYZ in after hours (after 4pm ET) that same day, then it still counts as a day trade in terms of the pattern day trader rules. If you don't want it to be a day trade, then you will have to wait until the next morning to sell it.
I know that corporate actions, such as splits or dividends, are considered next day as of 20:00 eastern time. 20:00 is also the change from the PM session to "extended overnight" EXTO session.07:00 is the start of the AM session. This is info is for stocks only, other securities have their own thing. Even options exchanges have different extended hours.(which is odd considering that they are treated similar to the underlying stocks in most regulations, tax code, and the generic regular-hours examples of day trading.) Seems to be a rather elusive topic, possibly the volumes are so low that the situation is rare, the official rules may also have sloppy semantics that just don't define the specific cutoff times.
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
In my experience, a slow hibernate is a result of write caching that has been disabled on the disk. Have a look at the properties of the drive, under the Policies tab.
When you hibernate (go into a suspend-to-disk state) your OS needs to write copies of data in any active memory pages in RAM to disk (to the hibernation file in the root of your system drive usually in Windows) - in your case that could mean writing up to 4Gb of information to disk. Writing 4Gb in three minutes is an average of just under 22Mbyte/second which while a good chunk slower than most modern drives can write isn't outrageously so it is unlikely that Windows has decided to run your drive in PIO mode, but it might be worth checking to see if it is using an old standard DMA mode instead of the shine newer UDMA modes your drive will support. Windows should drop the standard down a step or few in the presence of certain drive anomalies, though I've also seen it do this for no readily apparent reason. In case it has dropped the standard down (you can check this, and try revert, in the device manager entry for the drive controller) for good reason I suggest you get some software that can read the SMART properties of the drive to make sure it still thinks it is healthy. A quick question (which might be a little patronising in which case I'm sorry!): are you sure that you were hibernating (suspend to disk) before rather than sleeping (suspend to RAM)? Though I would expect suspend-to-RAM to be quicker than 24 seconds, writing a full 4Gb of state in 24 seconds is ~170Mbyte/second on average which seems a mite high. I could be barking up the wrong end of the stick here as there are reasons why a susend-to-disk can be much faster (not all RAM in use, recently un-hibernated so most of the hibernation file is still valid and doesn't need to be rewritten (assuming Windows uses a one-to-one mapping for RAM pages to file blocks and uses a mark-on-access-and-only-write-if-dirty algorithm when hibernating, etc...)
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
make sure hiberfil.sys is a contigeous file (disable hibernation, defragment the drive, re-enable hibernation).
Some advice for speeding hibernation: 1. See if there are any suspicious events in the Event Log. 2. Disable Readyboost and Superfetch (if enabled). 3. Run Windows Update, paying attention to optional driver updates. 4. Check new versions for non-Microsoft drivers and especially for display, bluetooth, USB. 5. Download [TweakVista](http://www.stardock.com/products/tweakvista/) - it may tell you which parts of the system are affecting sleep/hibernation performance 6. Remove the hibernation file by switching the feature off and defrag your primary drive (ensure you have at least 20% disk space free), then re-enable hibernation.
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
Some advice for speeding hibernation: 1. See if there are any suspicious events in the Event Log. 2. Disable Readyboost and Superfetch (if enabled). 3. Run Windows Update, paying attention to optional driver updates. 4. Check new versions for non-Microsoft drivers and especially for display, bluetooth, USB. 5. Download [TweakVista](http://www.stardock.com/products/tweakvista/) - it may tell you which parts of the system are affecting sleep/hibernation performance 6. Remove the hibernation file by switching the feature off and defrag your primary drive (ensure you have at least 20% disk space free), then re-enable hibernation.
When you hibernate (go into a suspend-to-disk state) your OS needs to write copies of data in any active memory pages in RAM to disk (to the hibernation file in the root of your system drive usually in Windows) - in your case that could mean writing up to 4Gb of information to disk. Writing 4Gb in three minutes is an average of just under 22Mbyte/second which while a good chunk slower than most modern drives can write isn't outrageously so it is unlikely that Windows has decided to run your drive in PIO mode, but it might be worth checking to see if it is using an old standard DMA mode instead of the shine newer UDMA modes your drive will support. Windows should drop the standard down a step or few in the presence of certain drive anomalies, though I've also seen it do this for no readily apparent reason. In case it has dropped the standard down (you can check this, and try revert, in the device manager entry for the drive controller) for good reason I suggest you get some software that can read the SMART properties of the drive to make sure it still thinks it is healthy. A quick question (which might be a little patronising in which case I'm sorry!): are you sure that you were hibernating (suspend to disk) before rather than sleeping (suspend to RAM)? Though I would expect suspend-to-RAM to be quicker than 24 seconds, writing a full 4Gb of state in 24 seconds is ~170Mbyte/second on average which seems a mite high. I could be barking up the wrong end of the stick here as there are reasons why a susend-to-disk can be much faster (not all RAM in use, recently un-hibernated so most of the hibernation file is still valid and doesn't need to be rewritten (assuming Windows uses a one-to-one mapping for RAM pages to file blocks and uses a mark-on-access-and-only-write-if-dirty algorithm when hibernating, etc...)
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
make sure hiberfil.sys is a contigeous file (disable hibernation, defragment the drive, re-enable hibernation).
When you hibernate (go into a suspend-to-disk state) your OS needs to write copies of data in any active memory pages in RAM to disk (to the hibernation file in the root of your system drive usually in Windows) - in your case that could mean writing up to 4Gb of information to disk. Writing 4Gb in three minutes is an average of just under 22Mbyte/second which while a good chunk slower than most modern drives can write isn't outrageously so it is unlikely that Windows has decided to run your drive in PIO mode, but it might be worth checking to see if it is using an old standard DMA mode instead of the shine newer UDMA modes your drive will support. Windows should drop the standard down a step or few in the presence of certain drive anomalies, though I've also seen it do this for no readily apparent reason. In case it has dropped the standard down (you can check this, and try revert, in the device manager entry for the drive controller) for good reason I suggest you get some software that can read the SMART properties of the drive to make sure it still thinks it is healthy. A quick question (which might be a little patronising in which case I'm sorry!): are you sure that you were hibernating (suspend to disk) before rather than sleeping (suspend to RAM)? Though I would expect suspend-to-RAM to be quicker than 24 seconds, writing a full 4Gb of state in 24 seconds is ~170Mbyte/second on average which seems a mite high. I could be barking up the wrong end of the stick here as there are reasons why a susend-to-disk can be much faster (not all RAM in use, recently un-hibernated so most of the hibernation file is still valid and doesn't need to be rewritten (assuming Windows uses a one-to-one mapping for RAM pages to file blocks and uses a mark-on-access-and-only-write-if-dirty algorithm when hibernating, etc...)
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
In my experience, a slow hibernate is a result of write caching that has been disabled on the disk. Have a look at the properties of the drive, under the Policies tab.
Slow hibernation can be caused by services taking too long to shutdown. Your use case seems to indicate this: Under regedit, check the following key: > > HKEY\_LOCAL\_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Control > > > Open it and locate *WaitToKillServiceTimeout*. You should see a big number in milliseconds. I do not know what is the default Vista sets it at. But you want to reduce this to 5000. That's 5 seconds of waiting before forcefully shutting down a service.
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
In my experience, a slow hibernate is a result of write caching that has been disabled on the disk. Have a look at the properties of the drive, under the Policies tab.
make sure hiberfil.sys is a contigeous file (disable hibernation, defragment the drive, re-enable hibernation).
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
Some advice for speeding hibernation: 1. See if there are any suspicious events in the Event Log. 2. Disable Readyboost and Superfetch (if enabled). 3. Run Windows Update, paying attention to optional driver updates. 4. Check new versions for non-Microsoft drivers and especially for display, bluetooth, USB. 5. Download [TweakVista](http://www.stardock.com/products/tweakvista/) - it may tell you which parts of the system are affecting sleep/hibernation performance 6. Remove the hibernation file by switching the feature off and defrag your primary drive (ensure you have at least 20% disk space free), then re-enable hibernation.
Slow hibernation can be caused by services taking too long to shutdown. Your use case seems to indicate this: Under regedit, check the following key: > > HKEY\_LOCAL\_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Control > > > Open it and locate *WaitToKillServiceTimeout*. You should see a big number in milliseconds. I do not know what is the default Vista sets it at. But you want to reduce this to 5000. That's 5 seconds of waiting before forcefully shutting down a service.
51,813
I have a 4GB RAM 500GB 7200 rpm HDD laptop and when I hibernate the laptop it takes in the region of 3 or 4 minutes(\*) to hibernate. not the 24 seconds it used to take. It takes this long whether or not my external USB drives are plugged in. When I got it it was pre-installed with Vista Home Premium, I have since restored the OS from the backup DVD's I created, and also upgraded to Vista Ultimate. What should I be checking in order to track down the source of this rather sloth-like hibernate process. I'm looking to tips, techniques and tools please peeps. Thanks in advance. I will be back to update / answer this question as I investigate, and also if I find a solution. (\*) Timed it - it took 4 minutes 38 seconds. 31 seconds after enabling disk write caching
2009/10/06
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/51813", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/7891/" ]
make sure hiberfil.sys is a contigeous file (disable hibernation, defragment the drive, re-enable hibernation).
Slow hibernation can be caused by services taking too long to shutdown. Your use case seems to indicate this: Under regedit, check the following key: > > HKEY\_LOCAL\_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Control > > > Open it and locate *WaitToKillServiceTimeout*. You should see a big number in milliseconds. I do not know what is the default Vista sets it at. But you want to reduce this to 5000. That's 5 seconds of waiting before forcefully shutting down a service.
846,473
Is it possible to make devices “forget” Apple TV? I have reset my Apple TV, and now it’s listed as Apple TV(2) even though its name is set to “Apple TV”. ### Screenshots: ![AirPlay screenshot](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yIo9D.png) ![Menu dropdown screenshot](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jX0jT.png)
2014/11/29
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/846473", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/313648/" ]
Swipe up, select air play Apple TV, Turn Off Air Play Mirring, then select Apple TV. It sounds too simple, but it worked for me. Hope this helps.
It's not possible. Airplay devices work like wifi networks: when it's needed, the iDevice scans to check what is available in range. There is no option regarding Airplay: it just appears when you are close enough to a capable device.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
This exact setup happens all the time in movies, so let's examine how they handle it. If they are the only character, then as a GM, completely tune the story to them. They shouldn't have to do hacking, or at best they have to shoot their way in to where the Russian hacker who already knows stuff is. James Bond doesn't use keyboards. Avoid his minimums except for once in a while for dramatic effect, or to introduce Bond Girls who have that skill set. As for addressing his strength - he's an expert shooter, but is always having to go places where he doesn't have a gun, or just has a pistol when others have machine guns, or has a machine gun when they have tanks. Or places where you can't just shoot the heck out of everyone (like a public casino) without having long term consequences. If they are not the only character, the other characters are in danger. What do The Killer and Hard Boiled have in common? Lots of OTHER people who get killed. The chick who's along that's in danger. Or your buddy movies with one killer type and one intellectual (or even just not a killer, take Rush Hour) - the killer has to spend a lot of their time protecting/coaching/handling the less combat oriented person. One of the big risks of having a min-maxed PC in the group is the min-maxed bad guys the GM has to toss on, who can often terminate the non min-maxed PCs in a round. It becomes the combat monster PC's job to avoid that, or else the whole party dies and they say "new game, and be less of a goon this time please." This is of course advice for in-play. You should try to head this off ahead of time by disallowing (GM)/forgoing (player) total min-maxing by choice of system or GM guidance. Because as you note it ends up being unsatisfying even in your maxed area.
Provide Shooty with situations where he gets to use his shooting, but it isn't enough to just shoot. A gunfight doesn't just have to be some people shooting at each other. Letting the NPCs have a huge situational advantage, and using non-standard dirty tricks is a good way to introduce tension to gunfights that have gone stale. For a prime example, check out [Tucker's Kobolds](https://media.wizards.com/2014/downloads/dnd/TuckersKobolds.pdf).
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
Why is Shooty doing the hacking at all? Is he the only PC in your game? Have another PC pick up hacking, or let him have an NPC hacker on retainer, which could be a fun relationship to deal with in play. The fact that Shooty is an expert shooter and you're throwing other expert shooters at him consistently means, yes, they're perfectly matched. So don't to that all the time. Mix it up. Have him face a gang of mediocre shooters, people with skills just above or below his, or someone with a bazooka or sniper rifle or superior armor. Give him a chance to kick ass *most* of the time, but not all of the time.
You could try adding other elements to the gun fights to make them more interesting (e.g. Environmental Hazards, Reinforcements, Timelimits etc). For example, imagine a gun-fight set in a chemical laboratory. You can have various explosive hazards or other dangers he needs to avoid while also fighting against his opponents. Maybe someone is trying to capture him, you could have more opponents arrive every few rounds so his only option is to run away and he has to figure out how to escape. Another idea: A smoke filled warehouse where no-one can see more than 5ft in front of themselves. He has to use his ears to hear where his opponents are and move quietly enough that they won't be able to locate him. You can add stealth and perception skills to the fight.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
Bob didn't get the character he wanted out of character creation. The GM should have helped Bob create the character he wanted to play. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- So, Bob went into character creation expecting to get a character who would be challenged by high-end gunplay and not worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Instead, he created a character who would not be challenged by high-end gunplay, but would be worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Something obviously went wrong there, whether it was Bob's lack of familiarity with the system (character creation or otherwise) or just a character creation system with poor player guidance from the jump. And in a more general sense, Bob should be comfortable straight-up telling the GM what he wants to get out of the game, and the GM should be comfortable helping Bob create a character that behaves as Bob would expect of them. The exact reason why is going to have to wait, because first we need to talk about why Bob's impulse didn't work out for him as well as he'd expect. ### How Cyberpunk Do There certainly is a Shooty McShootenstein in your average cyberpunk universe. A savant with firearms whose transportation, provision, and intrusion needs are all provided for so he can focus on the thing he does best, murder other human beings with guns, and never be bothered by everything else. **Just the way his corporate masters want it.** The kinds of characters PCs are expected to make, on the other hand, are cyberpunk protagonists, people who won't or can't fully participate in corporate society and as a result have to develop a more broad skill set. They're outside the support structure of corporate society that can cover for being a more narrowly skilled person. Not only that, but the corporate society forcibly imposes the chaos and hazard it doesn't want to deal with on them, either indirectly because their only meal ticket is Mr. Johnson at HappySmile Ltd who wants to make some bad PR for a competitor by hacking one of their self-driving toxic waste trucks, or directly because somebody hacked a self-driving toxic waste truck and it jackknifed into their squat and now everyone and everything they care about is at risk. What Bob wants to make is a freelancer who's survived for a decent time in this environment and, in addition to cultivating a personal specialty in the care and use of firearms, developed that broader skill base but not to a distinctive degree -- even if sometimes it's just "knowing who to ask", that's still got to be developed as a personal relationship and not an entry in a corporate directory. So the day-to-day isn't an issue for Bob, and he can still be challenged by high-end gunfights against the Shooty McShootensteins of the world, though his role in them might not be so much to absolutely outshoot the Shooty as to engage the Shooty for a significant length of time while other associates work to dump more chaos on Shooty than he can handle. Shooty McShootenstein can certainly be a cyberpunk protagonist, perhaps after he's been discarded by his corp in favor of the shiny new v2Shooty model, but the thing is that **weaknesses are at least as dramatically interesting as strengths**. As such, a natural part of Shooty's cyberpunk story is going to be about the day-to-day challenge of dealing with all the chaos and hazard that he was insulated from by his coddled corporate life, which is exactly the stuff Bob doesn't want to have to play out. ### How GMs Do But it's also important to talk about why Bob should tell the GM what kind of play experience he wants to have, and why the GM should help Bob make a character who will have that play experience. At its core it's about **being a good sport**. Being a good sport means that the GM is generally very restricted in what they **should** do, as compared to what the rules say they **can** do. They generally have absolute narrative control over everything outside the player characters and can, in fact, drown the world in nuclear fire any time they want, but sporting GM conduct means that you don't threaten the PCs with impossible obstacles but with dramatic ones (or at least impossible obstacles with dramatic workarounds). Players generally have fewer restrictions, at least compared to the scope of their possible actions. The GM is expected to adjudicate any reasonable course of action the players come up with, and sporting player conduct usually only means avoiding options which are in the rules but regarded as flawed somehow, such that the GM can't fairly adjudicate them. Because the scope of player action is so wide, the scope of expected GM reaction is also similarly wide and often falls outside the GM's session prep. As a result the GM often has to work out an appropriate next step from first principles, and usually what they work from is their understanding of game canon, in this case cyberpunk canon, even if that's just limited to the setting flavor and play examples in the rulebook. They have to improvise the next step in the story, and that's much easier to do if they can pull a fitting obstacle from the entirety of the cyberpunk day-to-day instead of having to come up with a reason to have an even more shootier guy show up. So it's also sporting conduct for the GM to help Bob create a character that performs as Bob will expect in the game as the GM will run it. ### Final Notes This all, of course, assumes that the GM understands how to fairly represent the challenges of the cyberpunk day-to-day in mechanical terms, and how to use the character creation system to create a sort of "baseline freelancer" who's capable of dealing with all of them. Ideally the system itself can create those sorts of characters without the GM having to worry, but if not, the GM needs enough understanding of the system that they can create a character template for people like Bob, who wants to be a baseline freelancer with a specialty in firearms.
You could try adding other elements to the gun fights to make them more interesting (e.g. Environmental Hazards, Reinforcements, Timelimits etc). For example, imagine a gun-fight set in a chemical laboratory. You can have various explosive hazards or other dangers he needs to avoid while also fighting against his opponents. Maybe someone is trying to capture him, you could have more opponents arrive every few rounds so his only option is to run away and he has to figure out how to escape. Another idea: A smoke filled warehouse where no-one can see more than 5ft in front of themselves. He has to use his ears to hear where his opponents are and move quietly enough that they won't be able to locate him. You can add stealth and perception skills to the fight.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
This exact setup happens all the time in movies, so let's examine how they handle it. If they are the only character, then as a GM, completely tune the story to them. They shouldn't have to do hacking, or at best they have to shoot their way in to where the Russian hacker who already knows stuff is. James Bond doesn't use keyboards. Avoid his minimums except for once in a while for dramatic effect, or to introduce Bond Girls who have that skill set. As for addressing his strength - he's an expert shooter, but is always having to go places where he doesn't have a gun, or just has a pistol when others have machine guns, or has a machine gun when they have tanks. Or places where you can't just shoot the heck out of everyone (like a public casino) without having long term consequences. If they are not the only character, the other characters are in danger. What do The Killer and Hard Boiled have in common? Lots of OTHER people who get killed. The chick who's along that's in danger. Or your buddy movies with one killer type and one intellectual (or even just not a killer, take Rush Hour) - the killer has to spend a lot of their time protecting/coaching/handling the less combat oriented person. One of the big risks of having a min-maxed PC in the group is the min-maxed bad guys the GM has to toss on, who can often terminate the non min-maxed PCs in a round. It becomes the combat monster PC's job to avoid that, or else the whole party dies and they say "new game, and be less of a goon this time please." This is of course advice for in-play. You should try to head this off ahead of time by disallowing (GM)/forgoing (player) total min-maxing by choice of system or GM guidance. Because as you note it ends up being unsatisfying even in your maxed area.
Why is Shooty doing the hacking at all? Is he the only PC in your game? Have another PC pick up hacking, or let him have an NPC hacker on retainer, which could be a fun relationship to deal with in play. The fact that Shooty is an expert shooter and you're throwing other expert shooters at him consistently means, yes, they're perfectly matched. So don't to that all the time. Mix it up. Have him face a gang of mediocre shooters, people with skills just above or below his, or someone with a bazooka or sniper rifle or superior armor. Give him a chance to kick ass *most* of the time, but not all of the time.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
Why is Shooty doing the hacking at all? Is he the only PC in your game? Have another PC pick up hacking, or let him have an NPC hacker on retainer, which could be a fun relationship to deal with in play. The fact that Shooty is an expert shooter and you're throwing other expert shooters at him consistently means, yes, they're perfectly matched. So don't to that all the time. Mix it up. Have him face a gang of mediocre shooters, people with skills just above or below his, or someone with a bazooka or sniper rifle or superior armor. Give him a chance to kick ass *most* of the time, but not all of the time.
Bob didn't get the character he wanted out of character creation. The GM should have helped Bob create the character he wanted to play. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- So, Bob went into character creation expecting to get a character who would be challenged by high-end gunplay and not worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Instead, he created a character who would not be challenged by high-end gunplay, but would be worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Something obviously went wrong there, whether it was Bob's lack of familiarity with the system (character creation or otherwise) or just a character creation system with poor player guidance from the jump. And in a more general sense, Bob should be comfortable straight-up telling the GM what he wants to get out of the game, and the GM should be comfortable helping Bob create a character that behaves as Bob would expect of them. The exact reason why is going to have to wait, because first we need to talk about why Bob's impulse didn't work out for him as well as he'd expect. ### How Cyberpunk Do There certainly is a Shooty McShootenstein in your average cyberpunk universe. A savant with firearms whose transportation, provision, and intrusion needs are all provided for so he can focus on the thing he does best, murder other human beings with guns, and never be bothered by everything else. **Just the way his corporate masters want it.** The kinds of characters PCs are expected to make, on the other hand, are cyberpunk protagonists, people who won't or can't fully participate in corporate society and as a result have to develop a more broad skill set. They're outside the support structure of corporate society that can cover for being a more narrowly skilled person. Not only that, but the corporate society forcibly imposes the chaos and hazard it doesn't want to deal with on them, either indirectly because their only meal ticket is Mr. Johnson at HappySmile Ltd who wants to make some bad PR for a competitor by hacking one of their self-driving toxic waste trucks, or directly because somebody hacked a self-driving toxic waste truck and it jackknifed into their squat and now everyone and everything they care about is at risk. What Bob wants to make is a freelancer who's survived for a decent time in this environment and, in addition to cultivating a personal specialty in the care and use of firearms, developed that broader skill base but not to a distinctive degree -- even if sometimes it's just "knowing who to ask", that's still got to be developed as a personal relationship and not an entry in a corporate directory. So the day-to-day isn't an issue for Bob, and he can still be challenged by high-end gunfights against the Shooty McShootensteins of the world, though his role in them might not be so much to absolutely outshoot the Shooty as to engage the Shooty for a significant length of time while other associates work to dump more chaos on Shooty than he can handle. Shooty McShootenstein can certainly be a cyberpunk protagonist, perhaps after he's been discarded by his corp in favor of the shiny new v2Shooty model, but the thing is that **weaknesses are at least as dramatically interesting as strengths**. As such, a natural part of Shooty's cyberpunk story is going to be about the day-to-day challenge of dealing with all the chaos and hazard that he was insulated from by his coddled corporate life, which is exactly the stuff Bob doesn't want to have to play out. ### How GMs Do But it's also important to talk about why Bob should tell the GM what kind of play experience he wants to have, and why the GM should help Bob make a character who will have that play experience. At its core it's about **being a good sport**. Being a good sport means that the GM is generally very restricted in what they **should** do, as compared to what the rules say they **can** do. They generally have absolute narrative control over everything outside the player characters and can, in fact, drown the world in nuclear fire any time they want, but sporting GM conduct means that you don't threaten the PCs with impossible obstacles but with dramatic ones (or at least impossible obstacles with dramatic workarounds). Players generally have fewer restrictions, at least compared to the scope of their possible actions. The GM is expected to adjudicate any reasonable course of action the players come up with, and sporting player conduct usually only means avoiding options which are in the rules but regarded as flawed somehow, such that the GM can't fairly adjudicate them. Because the scope of player action is so wide, the scope of expected GM reaction is also similarly wide and often falls outside the GM's session prep. As a result the GM often has to work out an appropriate next step from first principles, and usually what they work from is their understanding of game canon, in this case cyberpunk canon, even if that's just limited to the setting flavor and play examples in the rulebook. They have to improvise the next step in the story, and that's much easier to do if they can pull a fitting obstacle from the entirety of the cyberpunk day-to-day instead of having to come up with a reason to have an even more shootier guy show up. So it's also sporting conduct for the GM to help Bob create a character that performs as Bob will expect in the game as the GM will run it. ### Final Notes This all, of course, assumes that the GM understands how to fairly represent the challenges of the cyberpunk day-to-day in mechanical terms, and how to use the character creation system to create a sort of "baseline freelancer" who's capable of dealing with all of them. Ideally the system itself can create those sorts of characters without the GM having to worry, but if not, the GM needs enough understanding of the system that they can create a character template for people like Bob, who wants to be a baseline freelancer with a specialty in firearms.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
Provide Shooty with situations where he gets to use his shooting, but it isn't enough to just shoot. A gunfight doesn't just have to be some people shooting at each other. Letting the NPCs have a huge situational advantage, and using non-standard dirty tricks is a good way to introduce tension to gunfights that have gone stale. For a prime example, check out [Tucker's Kobolds](https://media.wizards.com/2014/downloads/dnd/TuckersKobolds.pdf).
I'm not sure what to do once this has already happened, but it should be preventable. Don't let players begin the game at the peak of their ability, unless you're planning on running a very short campaign. Try using a system that lets characters buy additional choices instead of just static bonuses. 4e powers are a great example of this. I can't think of any games that do this for gun skills though.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
This exact setup happens all the time in movies, so let's examine how they handle it. If they are the only character, then as a GM, completely tune the story to them. They shouldn't have to do hacking, or at best they have to shoot their way in to where the Russian hacker who already knows stuff is. James Bond doesn't use keyboards. Avoid his minimums except for once in a while for dramatic effect, or to introduce Bond Girls who have that skill set. As for addressing his strength - he's an expert shooter, but is always having to go places where he doesn't have a gun, or just has a pistol when others have machine guns, or has a machine gun when they have tanks. Or places where you can't just shoot the heck out of everyone (like a public casino) without having long term consequences. If they are not the only character, the other characters are in danger. What do The Killer and Hard Boiled have in common? Lots of OTHER people who get killed. The chick who's along that's in danger. Or your buddy movies with one killer type and one intellectual (or even just not a killer, take Rush Hour) - the killer has to spend a lot of their time protecting/coaching/handling the less combat oriented person. One of the big risks of having a min-maxed PC in the group is the min-maxed bad guys the GM has to toss on, who can often terminate the non min-maxed PCs in a round. It becomes the combat monster PC's job to avoid that, or else the whole party dies and they say "new game, and be less of a goon this time please." This is of course advice for in-play. You should try to head this off ahead of time by disallowing (GM)/forgoing (player) total min-maxing by choice of system or GM guidance. Because as you note it ends up being unsatisfying even in your maxed area.
You could try adding other elements to the gun fights to make them more interesting (e.g. Environmental Hazards, Reinforcements, Timelimits etc). For example, imagine a gun-fight set in a chemical laboratory. You can have various explosive hazards or other dangers he needs to avoid while also fighting against his opponents. Maybe someone is trying to capture him, you could have more opponents arrive every few rounds so his only option is to run away and he has to figure out how to escape. Another idea: A smoke filled warehouse where no-one can see more than 5ft in front of themselves. He has to use his ears to hear where his opponents are and move quietly enough that they won't be able to locate him. You can add stealth and perception skills to the fight.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
This exact setup happens all the time in movies, so let's examine how they handle it. If they are the only character, then as a GM, completely tune the story to them. They shouldn't have to do hacking, or at best they have to shoot their way in to where the Russian hacker who already knows stuff is. James Bond doesn't use keyboards. Avoid his minimums except for once in a while for dramatic effect, or to introduce Bond Girls who have that skill set. As for addressing his strength - he's an expert shooter, but is always having to go places where he doesn't have a gun, or just has a pistol when others have machine guns, or has a machine gun when they have tanks. Or places where you can't just shoot the heck out of everyone (like a public casino) without having long term consequences. If they are not the only character, the other characters are in danger. What do The Killer and Hard Boiled have in common? Lots of OTHER people who get killed. The chick who's along that's in danger. Or your buddy movies with one killer type and one intellectual (or even just not a killer, take Rush Hour) - the killer has to spend a lot of their time protecting/coaching/handling the less combat oriented person. One of the big risks of having a min-maxed PC in the group is the min-maxed bad guys the GM has to toss on, who can often terminate the non min-maxed PCs in a round. It becomes the combat monster PC's job to avoid that, or else the whole party dies and they say "new game, and be less of a goon this time please." This is of course advice for in-play. You should try to head this off ahead of time by disallowing (GM)/forgoing (player) total min-maxing by choice of system or GM guidance. Because as you note it ends up being unsatisfying even in your maxed area.
Bob didn't get the character he wanted out of character creation. The GM should have helped Bob create the character he wanted to play. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- So, Bob went into character creation expecting to get a character who would be challenged by high-end gunplay and not worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Instead, he created a character who would not be challenged by high-end gunplay, but would be worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Something obviously went wrong there, whether it was Bob's lack of familiarity with the system (character creation or otherwise) or just a character creation system with poor player guidance from the jump. And in a more general sense, Bob should be comfortable straight-up telling the GM what he wants to get out of the game, and the GM should be comfortable helping Bob create a character that behaves as Bob would expect of them. The exact reason why is going to have to wait, because first we need to talk about why Bob's impulse didn't work out for him as well as he'd expect. ### How Cyberpunk Do There certainly is a Shooty McShootenstein in your average cyberpunk universe. A savant with firearms whose transportation, provision, and intrusion needs are all provided for so he can focus on the thing he does best, murder other human beings with guns, and never be bothered by everything else. **Just the way his corporate masters want it.** The kinds of characters PCs are expected to make, on the other hand, are cyberpunk protagonists, people who won't or can't fully participate in corporate society and as a result have to develop a more broad skill set. They're outside the support structure of corporate society that can cover for being a more narrowly skilled person. Not only that, but the corporate society forcibly imposes the chaos and hazard it doesn't want to deal with on them, either indirectly because their only meal ticket is Mr. Johnson at HappySmile Ltd who wants to make some bad PR for a competitor by hacking one of their self-driving toxic waste trucks, or directly because somebody hacked a self-driving toxic waste truck and it jackknifed into their squat and now everyone and everything they care about is at risk. What Bob wants to make is a freelancer who's survived for a decent time in this environment and, in addition to cultivating a personal specialty in the care and use of firearms, developed that broader skill base but not to a distinctive degree -- even if sometimes it's just "knowing who to ask", that's still got to be developed as a personal relationship and not an entry in a corporate directory. So the day-to-day isn't an issue for Bob, and he can still be challenged by high-end gunfights against the Shooty McShootensteins of the world, though his role in them might not be so much to absolutely outshoot the Shooty as to engage the Shooty for a significant length of time while other associates work to dump more chaos on Shooty than he can handle. Shooty McShootenstein can certainly be a cyberpunk protagonist, perhaps after he's been discarded by his corp in favor of the shiny new v2Shooty model, but the thing is that **weaknesses are at least as dramatically interesting as strengths**. As such, a natural part of Shooty's cyberpunk story is going to be about the day-to-day challenge of dealing with all the chaos and hazard that he was insulated from by his coddled corporate life, which is exactly the stuff Bob doesn't want to have to play out. ### How GMs Do But it's also important to talk about why Bob should tell the GM what kind of play experience he wants to have, and why the GM should help Bob make a character who will have that play experience. At its core it's about **being a good sport**. Being a good sport means that the GM is generally very restricted in what they **should** do, as compared to what the rules say they **can** do. They generally have absolute narrative control over everything outside the player characters and can, in fact, drown the world in nuclear fire any time they want, but sporting GM conduct means that you don't threaten the PCs with impossible obstacles but with dramatic ones (or at least impossible obstacles with dramatic workarounds). Players generally have fewer restrictions, at least compared to the scope of their possible actions. The GM is expected to adjudicate any reasonable course of action the players come up with, and sporting player conduct usually only means avoiding options which are in the rules but regarded as flawed somehow, such that the GM can't fairly adjudicate them. Because the scope of player action is so wide, the scope of expected GM reaction is also similarly wide and often falls outside the GM's session prep. As a result the GM often has to work out an appropriate next step from first principles, and usually what they work from is their understanding of game canon, in this case cyberpunk canon, even if that's just limited to the setting flavor and play examples in the rulebook. They have to improvise the next step in the story, and that's much easier to do if they can pull a fitting obstacle from the entirety of the cyberpunk day-to-day instead of having to come up with a reason to have an even more shootier guy show up. So it's also sporting conduct for the GM to help Bob create a character that performs as Bob will expect in the game as the GM will run it. ### Final Notes This all, of course, assumes that the GM understands how to fairly represent the challenges of the cyberpunk day-to-day in mechanical terms, and how to use the character creation system to create a sort of "baseline freelancer" who's capable of dealing with all of them. Ideally the system itself can create those sorts of characters without the GM having to worry, but if not, the GM needs enough understanding of the system that they can create a character template for people like Bob, who wants to be a baseline freelancer with a specialty in firearms.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
I'm not sure what to do once this has already happened, but it should be preventable. Don't let players begin the game at the peak of their ability, unless you're planning on running a very short campaign. Try using a system that lets characters buy additional choices instead of just static bonuses. 4e powers are a great example of this. I can't think of any games that do this for gun skills though.
You could try adding other elements to the gun fights to make them more interesting (e.g. Environmental Hazards, Reinforcements, Timelimits etc). For example, imagine a gun-fight set in a chemical laboratory. You can have various explosive hazards or other dangers he needs to avoid while also fighting against his opponents. Maybe someone is trying to capture him, you could have more opponents arrive every few rounds so his only option is to run away and he has to figure out how to escape. Another idea: A smoke filled warehouse where no-one can see more than 5ft in front of themselves. He has to use his ears to hear where his opponents are and move quietly enough that they won't be able to locate him. You can add stealth and perception skills to the fight.
11,144
Let's consider a player, whom we shall call Bob. Bob loves exciting gunfights and is a big John Woo fan. So he makes up "Shooty McShootenstein," who is a master with a gun. One thing that Bob is *not* interested in is the cyberpunk hacking trope. So Shooty doesn't really have any ability at that. From the player's choices, it seems they want a game with lots of gunplay but no hacking. But here's what happens in practice: * When Shooty gets into a gunfight, his high skill means he blows everyone away in a round or two, or a few minutes of table time. Bob's real choices during this time are largely restricted to taking actions to stack additional bonuses that are mostly unnecessary or making tactical choices that are often rote. Bob is left unsatisfied. * When Shooty finds he needs to hack a computer, suddenly his choices open up! He can hire a hacker, threaten the owner, bluff about already having the information, etc. This will take considerably more table time. The problem is that it's still indirectly all about hacking and is exactly what Bob didn't want to play. He ends up bored because he doesn't like this theme and his character is bad at it. Many proposed suggestions don't seem to help. Putting Shooty against better gunfighters is a good idea, except that in most systems, a gunfight between two characters with Firearms and Dodge skills at 20 have the same actions, probabilities, and modifier stacks as one between two sides with Firearms and Dodge at 2. Essentially, Bob might as well have played a much weaker character. Making the consequences for failing at the hacking-related stuff easier on the character might encourage Bob to experiment a bit, but fundamentally he's still going to be bored because his share of spotlight time was spent in 2 minutes about him being awesome with a gun and 2 hours about him being a lousy hacker. What techniques can be used to overcome this contradictory tendency in play, either as a game-master or as a player?
2011/12/03
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/11144", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/50/" ]
Provide Shooty with situations where he gets to use his shooting, but it isn't enough to just shoot. A gunfight doesn't just have to be some people shooting at each other. Letting the NPCs have a huge situational advantage, and using non-standard dirty tricks is a good way to introduce tension to gunfights that have gone stale. For a prime example, check out [Tucker's Kobolds](https://media.wizards.com/2014/downloads/dnd/TuckersKobolds.pdf).
Bob didn't get the character he wanted out of character creation. The GM should have helped Bob create the character he wanted to play. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- So, Bob went into character creation expecting to get a character who would be challenged by high-end gunplay and not worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Instead, he created a character who would not be challenged by high-end gunplay, but would be worried by the cyberpunk day-to-day. Something obviously went wrong there, whether it was Bob's lack of familiarity with the system (character creation or otherwise) or just a character creation system with poor player guidance from the jump. And in a more general sense, Bob should be comfortable straight-up telling the GM what he wants to get out of the game, and the GM should be comfortable helping Bob create a character that behaves as Bob would expect of them. The exact reason why is going to have to wait, because first we need to talk about why Bob's impulse didn't work out for him as well as he'd expect. ### How Cyberpunk Do There certainly is a Shooty McShootenstein in your average cyberpunk universe. A savant with firearms whose transportation, provision, and intrusion needs are all provided for so he can focus on the thing he does best, murder other human beings with guns, and never be bothered by everything else. **Just the way his corporate masters want it.** The kinds of characters PCs are expected to make, on the other hand, are cyberpunk protagonists, people who won't or can't fully participate in corporate society and as a result have to develop a more broad skill set. They're outside the support structure of corporate society that can cover for being a more narrowly skilled person. Not only that, but the corporate society forcibly imposes the chaos and hazard it doesn't want to deal with on them, either indirectly because their only meal ticket is Mr. Johnson at HappySmile Ltd who wants to make some bad PR for a competitor by hacking one of their self-driving toxic waste trucks, or directly because somebody hacked a self-driving toxic waste truck and it jackknifed into their squat and now everyone and everything they care about is at risk. What Bob wants to make is a freelancer who's survived for a decent time in this environment and, in addition to cultivating a personal specialty in the care and use of firearms, developed that broader skill base but not to a distinctive degree -- even if sometimes it's just "knowing who to ask", that's still got to be developed as a personal relationship and not an entry in a corporate directory. So the day-to-day isn't an issue for Bob, and he can still be challenged by high-end gunfights against the Shooty McShootensteins of the world, though his role in them might not be so much to absolutely outshoot the Shooty as to engage the Shooty for a significant length of time while other associates work to dump more chaos on Shooty than he can handle. Shooty McShootenstein can certainly be a cyberpunk protagonist, perhaps after he's been discarded by his corp in favor of the shiny new v2Shooty model, but the thing is that **weaknesses are at least as dramatically interesting as strengths**. As such, a natural part of Shooty's cyberpunk story is going to be about the day-to-day challenge of dealing with all the chaos and hazard that he was insulated from by his coddled corporate life, which is exactly the stuff Bob doesn't want to have to play out. ### How GMs Do But it's also important to talk about why Bob should tell the GM what kind of play experience he wants to have, and why the GM should help Bob make a character who will have that play experience. At its core it's about **being a good sport**. Being a good sport means that the GM is generally very restricted in what they **should** do, as compared to what the rules say they **can** do. They generally have absolute narrative control over everything outside the player characters and can, in fact, drown the world in nuclear fire any time they want, but sporting GM conduct means that you don't threaten the PCs with impossible obstacles but with dramatic ones (or at least impossible obstacles with dramatic workarounds). Players generally have fewer restrictions, at least compared to the scope of their possible actions. The GM is expected to adjudicate any reasonable course of action the players come up with, and sporting player conduct usually only means avoiding options which are in the rules but regarded as flawed somehow, such that the GM can't fairly adjudicate them. Because the scope of player action is so wide, the scope of expected GM reaction is also similarly wide and often falls outside the GM's session prep. As a result the GM often has to work out an appropriate next step from first principles, and usually what they work from is their understanding of game canon, in this case cyberpunk canon, even if that's just limited to the setting flavor and play examples in the rulebook. They have to improvise the next step in the story, and that's much easier to do if they can pull a fitting obstacle from the entirety of the cyberpunk day-to-day instead of having to come up with a reason to have an even more shootier guy show up. So it's also sporting conduct for the GM to help Bob create a character that performs as Bob will expect in the game as the GM will run it. ### Final Notes This all, of course, assumes that the GM understands how to fairly represent the challenges of the cyberpunk day-to-day in mechanical terms, and how to use the character creation system to create a sort of "baseline freelancer" who's capable of dealing with all of them. Ideally the system itself can create those sorts of characters without the GM having to worry, but if not, the GM needs enough understanding of the system that they can create a character template for people like Bob, who wants to be a baseline freelancer with a specialty in firearms.
27,340
The plan to produce the Kwisatz Haderach was that all Bene Gesserit would have daughters only, until the time was ready (and we know that Jessica Atreides disobeyed). All this stems from the idea of the Bene Gesserit *choosing* the gender of their offspring. How are they able to do that? Jessica gave birth before taking the spice, if I remember correctly, so, how is she able to decide she will have a son? Is that ever established?
2012/11/29
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/27340", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/224/" ]
Since the Bene Gesserit/Kwizatz Haderach are able to mentally control their metabolism and basically all the inner workings of their bodies, hence their ability to control aging, I always just assumed that when they got pregnant they manually made their babies girls. By either denying it the enzyme to become male or manually removing the Y-chromosome. All Bene Gesserit have this power; spice has almost nothing to do with it.
There are [several techniques](http://www.babycentre.co.uk/pregnancy/naming/choosingsexfolklore/) to influence the gender of the child, so I presume that the Bene Gesserit have perfected these. Most of these techniques are considered old wives' tales though.
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
Phrase your emails in a way that puts the onus on him to respond. So instead of asking: > > We have a problem. Should I do FOO or BAR? > > > Send an email saying something like: > > We have a problem. I'm going to do FOO this afternoon in order to solve it, but if you'd prefer me to do BAR then please let me know. > > > And if he doesn't respond, then you can do FOO rather than waiting and hoping that he'll get back to you.
> > "What should I do if my manager ignores my messages about a time > sensitive matter?" > > > Move on. Don't make assumptions. The responsibility is theirs, not yours.
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
Trust me – **managers are extremely busy.** Just ask again. Follow-up as seems appropriate. Especially, don't "over-think" the fact that you maybe didn't get an answer as quickly as you expected. ("You really have **no** idea, until you've actually held that job title!")
> > "What should I do if my manager ignores my messages about a time > sensitive matter?" > > > Move on. Don't make assumptions. The responsibility is theirs, not yours.
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
> > It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. > > > Just because the answer can be a simple yes/no, it doesn't mean the decision is necessarily a simple one. He may need to take time to consider the options, or he may need to check with someone else. > > He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. > > > As your line manager his job is to guide your work. He's not doing that if you have no regular lines of communication. Your boss should be managing those lines of communication, but if he's not you should suggest to him what form this could take. My team have a daily "Standup" meeting early in the day where we give a quick summary of what we've done, what we're planning to do and anything that is blocking us. This is standard practise in our industry (software development). The meeting is quick, so you don't necessarily do into the details of the blockers, but you do agree what the next step to unblock the problem is and who will take that action. Because the meetings are daily there is a regular opportunity to update on progress being made or deadlines getting tighter. Another common practise is to have a scheduled 1:1 meeting with your manager, maybe once per week. Working remotely that would take the form of a voice or video call. Because it's a conversation between two people your manager has to answer the questions you ask them. It might not be the immediate yes/no answer you're hoping for, but they can tell you what their next step will be (e.g. checking with someone else, or even just spending some time thinking about it). If that's going to cause problems you've got an immediate opportunity to let them know - e.g. if there's a deadline that has to be met. Another answer mentioned that managers are extremely busy. That's often true, but as with any role they need to balance their responsibilities and let their manager know if they have too much work for one person to manage. One of their responsibilities is to line manage you, and they need to find time to do that. Middle managers often have packed calendars, so you can help them to dedicate time to you by making sure that you've got a scheduled slot in that calendar.
> > "What should I do if my manager ignores my messages about a time > sensitive matter?" > > > Move on. Don't make assumptions. The responsibility is theirs, not yours.
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
Phrase your emails in a way that puts the onus on him to respond. So instead of asking: > > We have a problem. Should I do FOO or BAR? > > > Send an email saying something like: > > We have a problem. I'm going to do FOO this afternoon in order to solve it, but if you'd prefer me to do BAR then please let me know. > > > And if he doesn't respond, then you can do FOO rather than waiting and hoping that he'll get back to you.
Trust me – **managers are extremely busy.** Just ask again. Follow-up as seems appropriate. Especially, don't "over-think" the fact that you maybe didn't get an answer as quickly as you expected. ("You really have **no** idea, until you've actually held that job title!")
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
Phrase your emails in a way that puts the onus on him to respond. So instead of asking: > > We have a problem. Should I do FOO or BAR? > > > Send an email saying something like: > > We have a problem. I'm going to do FOO this afternoon in order to solve it, but if you'd prefer me to do BAR then please let me know. > > > And if he doesn't respond, then you can do FOO rather than waiting and hoping that he'll get back to you.
> > It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. > > > Just because the answer can be a simple yes/no, it doesn't mean the decision is necessarily a simple one. He may need to take time to consider the options, or he may need to check with someone else. > > He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. > > > As your line manager his job is to guide your work. He's not doing that if you have no regular lines of communication. Your boss should be managing those lines of communication, but if he's not you should suggest to him what form this could take. My team have a daily "Standup" meeting early in the day where we give a quick summary of what we've done, what we're planning to do and anything that is blocking us. This is standard practise in our industry (software development). The meeting is quick, so you don't necessarily do into the details of the blockers, but you do agree what the next step to unblock the problem is and who will take that action. Because the meetings are daily there is a regular opportunity to update on progress being made or deadlines getting tighter. Another common practise is to have a scheduled 1:1 meeting with your manager, maybe once per week. Working remotely that would take the form of a voice or video call. Because it's a conversation between two people your manager has to answer the questions you ask them. It might not be the immediate yes/no answer you're hoping for, but they can tell you what their next step will be (e.g. checking with someone else, or even just spending some time thinking about it). If that's going to cause problems you've got an immediate opportunity to let them know - e.g. if there's a deadline that has to be met. Another answer mentioned that managers are extremely busy. That's often true, but as with any role they need to balance their responsibilities and let their manager know if they have too much work for one person to manage. One of their responsibilities is to line manage you, and they need to find time to do that. Middle managers often have packed calendars, so you can help them to dedicate time to you by making sure that you've got a scheduled slot in that calendar.
177,938
My message is regarding a time-sensitive issue. It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. To set up a meeting with him, I have to message him, which wouldn't work because he's not replying in the first place. Calling him out of the blue may not be appropriate. I'm going to assume his answer is a "no" if he continues not replying to my message, but I don't know if this would be a safe assumption to make. What would be an appropriate action to take in this situation?
2021/08/27
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/177938", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/129170/" ]
Trust me – **managers are extremely busy.** Just ask again. Follow-up as seems appropriate. Especially, don't "over-think" the fact that you maybe didn't get an answer as quickly as you expected. ("You really have **no** idea, until you've actually held that job title!")
> > It's not a complicated question though, as it just requires a yes or no answer. > > > Just because the answer can be a simple yes/no, it doesn't mean the decision is necessarily a simple one. He may need to take time to consider the options, or he may need to check with someone else. > > He read my message on the chat program we use, but he did not make a reply. I sent a follow-up message a few days later, but I'm worried about what to do if he doesn't respond to this follow-up message either. We all work from home, so it's impossible for me to talk with him in person. > > > As your line manager his job is to guide your work. He's not doing that if you have no regular lines of communication. Your boss should be managing those lines of communication, but if he's not you should suggest to him what form this could take. My team have a daily "Standup" meeting early in the day where we give a quick summary of what we've done, what we're planning to do and anything that is blocking us. This is standard practise in our industry (software development). The meeting is quick, so you don't necessarily do into the details of the blockers, but you do agree what the next step to unblock the problem is and who will take that action. Because the meetings are daily there is a regular opportunity to update on progress being made or deadlines getting tighter. Another common practise is to have a scheduled 1:1 meeting with your manager, maybe once per week. Working remotely that would take the form of a voice or video call. Because it's a conversation between two people your manager has to answer the questions you ask them. It might not be the immediate yes/no answer you're hoping for, but they can tell you what their next step will be (e.g. checking with someone else, or even just spending some time thinking about it). If that's going to cause problems you've got an immediate opportunity to let them know - e.g. if there's a deadline that has to be met. Another answer mentioned that managers are extremely busy. That's often true, but as with any role they need to balance their responsibilities and let their manager know if they have too much work for one person to manage. One of their responsibilities is to line manage you, and they need to find time to do that. Middle managers often have packed calendars, so you can help them to dedicate time to you by making sure that you've got a scheduled slot in that calendar.