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26,961 | In sharepoint 2007, when you were looking at a list there was already a default drop down box to change the list view.
Now that we have upgraded to Sharepoint 2010, we have noticed that this drop down box is hidden in the ribbon control "List" tab which you have to click then you can select the drop down box value.
Is there a way to add the drop down box to the default view in Sharepoint 2010? | 2012/01/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/26961",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/6415/"
] | It is important that you get an understanding of how the SharePoint platform fits together. Have a look at the architecture and understand how different components relate to each other. This is a link to an architectural overview:
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg552610.aspx>
Setup a sandpit and play around with the environment. Gain an understanding of the different elements (lists, libraries, security, sites, central administration, services).
This link has some ideas for some courses/exams:
<http://blogs.msdn.com/b/pandrew/archive/2008/05/01/getting-started-with-sharepoint-development.aspx>
This link has some other detailed learning material such as videos and labs:
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/aa905692>
<http://www.learningsharepoint.com/2010/10/30/sharepoint-2010-development-tutorial-videos-2/>
<http://praveenbattula.blogspot.com/2010/05/free-sharepoint-2010-developer-tutorial.html>
The MSDN site is a great reference for SharePoint API information.
Setup a development environment for SharePoint and run through some tutorials - you need a local instance of SharePoint installed on your development environment.
Here are some tutorial links:
<http://dotnetguts.blogspot.com/2008/06/sharepoint-development-tutorial.html> | Welcome to the SharePoint world :)
When you're learning something new, it is important to get familiar with the new language and terms used in SharePoint environment.
Please spent some time Googling these terms to figure out what they mean. There are tons of [great resources available online](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc262880.aspx) for anything and everything SharePoint. For example:
**Site:** In SharePoint, sites are the building blocks, where users can share data in lists and libraries or view and edit Web Part pages. They're created for a specific purpose, so for example, a company may create an HR site, an Accounting site and a Project Management site.
**Site Collection:** A site collection is a group of sites that are related. These sites have the same owner and administration settings. Site collections have a hierarchy; there's always at least one top-level site in a site collection, with subsites underneath. Every Web application contains at least one site collection.
**Web applications:** They provide services, as opposed to Web sites, which typically just display information. Web applications are Web sites that run on IIS. They help create a company's information environment. They are hosted on the Web server.
**Assembly**: a partially compiled code library used in deployment, versioning and security within the .NET framework Uh, what? What's a code library? What is versioning? What's a .NET framework?
**APIs, or Application programming interfaces**: APIs are what let you do everything that you can do in the SharePoint user interface, like creating new sites or workspaces, uploading photos or documents, and creating tasks and alerts.
**Child**: This term helps show hierarchy within SharePoint, specifically within sites. A child site is a subsite of the top-level, or parent, site.
**Farm, or server farm:** A group of servers that share the same administrative tools and are part of the same organization or group.
**IIS, or Internet Information Services:** The Web server that Microsoft uses to host SharePoint. It runs on Windows Server 2003.
Edited to add: IIS doesn't necessarily run on Windows Server 2003. There are different versions of IIS depending on the operating system you have, such as Windows XP or Windows 2008. So for example, IIS 7.0 runs on Windows Server 2008, and IIS 6.0 runs on Windows 2003.
**Library:** Sites have libraries, which store data. The most common library in SharePoint is the document library, but you can use libraries to store any kind of files or data.
**List:** A table of data that is stored in a site. Lists help provide data like tasks, discussions and links.
**.NET Framework:** Versions 2 and 3 of this set of software installs ASP.NET and Windows Workflow Foundation (WF).
**Parent:** This term helps show hierarchy within SharePoint, specifically within sites. A parent site is the site located one level higher in site hierarchy; it can also have one parent, and one or several children (subsites).
**Root Site** Is the top-level site in site collection. There can be only one root site in the single site collection.
**Root Site Collection** Is the top-level site collection in web application.
Learn to step-up the SharePoint Development environments and start development!
happy SharePointing :) |
40,643,207 | I installed Phonegap Desktop on my Win 7 laptop.
Now I open it and click on "New project".
After selecting "Hello world" template I choose a directory on my local drive and fill in a name.
When I click on Create button, after some seconds, it show an error message "Project Create failed with code 1".
Any idea?
With thanks,
Matt | 2016/11/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40643207",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1961429/"
] | run phonegap as an administrator and it will work | first install [node.js](http://nodejs.org/)
next install [Git](https://git-scm.com/)
next install phonegap
note: ***all 32 or 64 bit os*** and **run phonegap as administrator** |
40,643,207 | I installed Phonegap Desktop on my Win 7 laptop.
Now I open it and click on "New project".
After selecting "Hello world" template I choose a directory on my local drive and fill in a name.
When I click on Create button, after some seconds, it show an error message "Project Create failed with code 1".
Any idea?
With thanks,
Matt | 2016/11/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40643207",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1961429/"
] | run phonegap as an administrator and it will work | today I started up again investigating on my old phonegap project so I updated the Phonegap Desktop application with the new version present on-line.... and magically it started working fine. |
227,159 | The below is a link to the post on Stack Overflow where I answered a users question.
[How to send data from fragment to fragment within same fragment activity?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/22653359/how-to-send-data-from-fragment-to-fragment-within-same-fragmentactivity/22653391#22653391)
I suggested an answer and posted links to the docs which has code snippets. The user accepted the answer before the suggested edit by the user himself was approved.
Then yesterday the user wanted to share something with me and instead of posting his code as an answer or a edit to the question edited my answer. The edit was approved.
So is the suggested edit approve right?. Should the user not post it as another answer altogether?
This is what the user posted
>
> this is what i got from doc & few searches so i want to share with you
>
>
>
And this is the link to the review suggested edits.
<https://stackoverflow.com/review/suggested-edits/4450296> | 2014/03/29 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/227159",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Ok, two points.
That suggested edit changed too much.
-------------------------------------
90% of the answer is new. The edit should have been rejected. But, well, it was approved. And your name is attached to it. Are you happy with it? Leave it alone. Not so much? Roll it back.
I wish this sort of thing didn't happen, but it happens all the time. Approval seems to be the default response to suggested edits. But, that's been discussed [many](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/155561/the-robo-approvers-are-killing-my-will-to-review-edits), [many](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/149621/the-current-review-system-encourages-fake-reviews-some-people-upvote-everything) times before, and there's not been a lot of activity directed towards dialing back access to either the queue, or reviews of the queue. [This](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/221832/moderators-should-be-able-to-manually-ban-users-from-suggesting-edits) change would be an awesome step.
Your answer wasn't really very good.
------------------------------------
Two sentences, and a link to some documentation, was your answer. At first glance, the suggested edit looks like a *pretty good change*. It's got some code. Assuming it works (bit rusty with Java), it'll help future visitors more than your answer would have. Do that, more often. | No. I don't think an edit should completely change the context of the answer. That edit completely changed the quality, and context of the answer to a degree that is so extreme it should not have been approved. |
550,682 | I found a very very old laptop in my garage (Acer Travelmate 613TXV) and I'm curious about how well it will work. My skills are above average but when I try to install Windows XP on it (on a 4 GB HDD from a friend) the laptop says that the HDD has 14000 MB and I can't format it.
I put the HDDon my laptop, formatted it, then made a partition. When I insert it in the old laptop it tells me that it has 14000 MB unallocated space and cannot be formatted.
Is there a hardware problem on that laptop? I installed Windows XP on older laptop than this and didn't have any problems.
In BIOS, the HDD is visible, but doesn't show the capacity of it. | 2013/02/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/550682",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Download and burn the bootable ISO for [Gnome Partition Editor](http://gparted.sourceforge.net/download.php) to a CD. Boot off that CD and use it to erase the hard drive and create a new partition. | It is difficult to discern if the problem is with the HDD itself (corrupt disc/ board) or with the Windows XP's ACHI driver for the system. I recommend trying another HDD in the laptop, if it works, you know the HDD is a no-go, otherwise I would recommend getting specific drivers for the laptop (if possible). |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | besides passmark and pcmark, i'm using **[GeekBench](http://www.primatelabs.ca/geekbench/)** for processor benchmarking, **[ATTO Disk Benchmark](http://downloads.guru3d.com/ATTO-Disk-Benchmark-v2.41-download-2343.html)** for hard drive and SSD performance checks.
if you need a stress tester, get **[Intel BurnTest](http://downloads.guru3d.com/IntelBurnTest-v2.3-download-2047.html)**. | I like SiSoft Sandra because there is some reference scores included for comparing hardware. Of course you should realize that those reference scores were probably collected on a totally different system than yours, but it is good for getting a rough idea of performance differences if you are thinking about an upgrade. |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | Some of the software I use include [3D Mark 06](http://www.futuremark.com/benchmarks/3dmark06/introduction/), [SuperPI](http://files.extremeoverclocking.com/file.php?f=36), [wPrime](http://www.wprime.net/), [SiSoft Sandra](http://www.sisoftware.net/)
For stress testing, [OCCT](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/191765-occt.html), [Orthos](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/138142-orthos.html) & [Prime95](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/137251-prime95.html) are good choices.
Related: 2D/3D Benchmarking software [list thread on Overclock.net](http://www.overclock.net/benchmarking-software-discussion/485683-2d-3d-benchmarking-stability-software-list.html) | besides passmark and pcmark, i'm using **[GeekBench](http://www.primatelabs.ca/geekbench/)** for processor benchmarking, **[ATTO Disk Benchmark](http://downloads.guru3d.com/ATTO-Disk-Benchmark-v2.41-download-2343.html)** for hard drive and SSD performance checks.
if you need a stress tester, get **[Intel BurnTest](http://downloads.guru3d.com/IntelBurnTest-v2.3-download-2047.html)**. |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | besides passmark and pcmark, i'm using **[GeekBench](http://www.primatelabs.ca/geekbench/)** for processor benchmarking, **[ATTO Disk Benchmark](http://downloads.guru3d.com/ATTO-Disk-Benchmark-v2.41-download-2343.html)** for hard drive and SSD performance checks.
if you need a stress tester, get **[Intel BurnTest](http://downloads.guru3d.com/IntelBurnTest-v2.3-download-2047.html)**. | on linux it is phoronix test suite. It makes a lot of different workloads available and there is also a life CD image |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | besides passmark and pcmark, i'm using **[GeekBench](http://www.primatelabs.ca/geekbench/)** for processor benchmarking, **[ATTO Disk Benchmark](http://downloads.guru3d.com/ATTO-Disk-Benchmark-v2.41-download-2343.html)** for hard drive and SSD performance checks.
if you need a stress tester, get **[Intel BurnTest](http://downloads.guru3d.com/IntelBurnTest-v2.3-download-2047.html)**. | My Weapon of Choice is [IOMETER](http://www.iometer.org/). It is used to test the HDD at the Block Level. |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | Some of the software I use include [3D Mark 06](http://www.futuremark.com/benchmarks/3dmark06/introduction/), [SuperPI](http://files.extremeoverclocking.com/file.php?f=36), [wPrime](http://www.wprime.net/), [SiSoft Sandra](http://www.sisoftware.net/)
For stress testing, [OCCT](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/191765-occt.html), [Orthos](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/138142-orthos.html) & [Prime95](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/137251-prime95.html) are good choices.
Related: 2D/3D Benchmarking software [list thread on Overclock.net](http://www.overclock.net/benchmarking-software-discussion/485683-2d-3d-benchmarking-stability-software-list.html) | I like SiSoft Sandra because there is some reference scores included for comparing hardware. Of course you should realize that those reference scores were probably collected on a totally different system than yours, but it is good for getting a rough idea of performance differences if you are thinking about an upgrade. |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | Some of the software I use include [3D Mark 06](http://www.futuremark.com/benchmarks/3dmark06/introduction/), [SuperPI](http://files.extremeoverclocking.com/file.php?f=36), [wPrime](http://www.wprime.net/), [SiSoft Sandra](http://www.sisoftware.net/)
For stress testing, [OCCT](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/191765-occt.html), [Orthos](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/138142-orthos.html) & [Prime95](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/137251-prime95.html) are good choices.
Related: 2D/3D Benchmarking software [list thread on Overclock.net](http://www.overclock.net/benchmarking-software-discussion/485683-2d-3d-benchmarking-stability-software-list.html) | on linux it is phoronix test suite. It makes a lot of different workloads available and there is also a life CD image |
73,055 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What are the best free(ware?) PC performance benchmarking options out there?](https://superuser.com/questions/22997/what-are-the-best-freeware-pc-performance-benchmarking-options-out-there)
>
>
>
Can anyone tell me some benchmark software for Windows? I'm using **PassMark PerformanceTest** & **PCMark**. I'm also looking for a stress software. | 2009/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/73055",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13391/"
] | Some of the software I use include [3D Mark 06](http://www.futuremark.com/benchmarks/3dmark06/introduction/), [SuperPI](http://files.extremeoverclocking.com/file.php?f=36), [wPrime](http://www.wprime.net/), [SiSoft Sandra](http://www.sisoftware.net/)
For stress testing, [OCCT](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/191765-occt.html), [Orthos](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/138142-orthos.html) & [Prime95](http://www.overclock.net/downloads/137251-prime95.html) are good choices.
Related: 2D/3D Benchmarking software [list thread on Overclock.net](http://www.overclock.net/benchmarking-software-discussion/485683-2d-3d-benchmarking-stability-software-list.html) | My Weapon of Choice is [IOMETER](http://www.iometer.org/). It is used to test the HDD at the Block Level. |
26,569 | My wife is a photographer (Nikon D700, edits in Win7 Adobe CS5 suite) and mentioned yesterday that she's out of hard drive space. When I inspected, I found *GIGANTIC* .TIF files on her drive, ranging anywhere in size from 100MB to 4 ***GIGABYTES***.
I told her to save her final edits off as JPEGS and delete the .TIFs, but she said she can't do that for two reasons:
* Her printing companies require TIF format
* If her clients want a picture redone or resized, she can't go back
to the JPEG as effectively as she could have with the tif format.
Both of these reasons seem more like the product of workflow issues to me, but I don't know enough about the art to make that call. As the financier of her operation, I have a few questions for the community:
1) Are file sizes like this normal? Is there a more friendly format that she can work in that doesn't require me to buy a new hard drive every few weeks?
2) Is it possible that there is a knowledge gap somewhere and that she's missing a crucial step in her workflow? She demonstrated for me, and I watched in disbelief as a brand new 10 MB raw file without any edits turned into a *105 MB* TIF file.
I ask because these file sizes seem absolutely ridiculous to me. At this rate, she'll practically have to add a hard drive surcharge to every one of her shoots from now on...
Thanks in advance! | 2012/08/26 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/26569",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2076/"
] | It sounds like she's saving uncompressed TIFs. Ps will give you various options such as LZW or ZIP compression when you save. Since TIFF is lossless you can safely choose any of them. JPEG is not a good alternative as it is lossy; you will lose image quality. | Saving TIFF files doesn't make sense to me. The original RAW is more space-efficient, and of course contains all the inforation to be had. I save the original RAW file and one or more post-processed JPG results. If I want to go back and make a version that's a little darker, more snappy contrast, more detail in the clouds, or whatever, I do that by going back to the RAW file and then making another JPG with the desired tradeoffs.
I'm guessing she is saving the data in 16 bit TIFF files. That is going to be a lot bigger than the RAW for two reasons. First, the RAW contains only one color per pixel. TIFF contains all three with the other two invented somehow from the RAW information. They don't contain any more information, but do take up at least 3x the space. Second, 16 bits is more per color per pixel than RAW data, at least currently. The Nikon D3S produces 14 bits/pixel raw, and I don't think other common cameras do more than that, most less. You don't gain any information by expanding the 14 or 12 bits of raw data into 16 bits, just more wasted space.
So basically a 16 bit TIFF file expands the raw 12 or 14 bits/pixel into 48 bits/pixel without any advantage in information content.
If the printer insists on TIFF file, probably to avoid JPG compression artifacts, send them a 8 bit TIFF file after the post processing. Personally I find JPG files with lossless compression disabled to the extent possible (often done with something like a "quality" setting at 100%) don't have visible compression artifact even when pixel peeping. That is how I store my post-processed images. If someone wanted a TIFF version of one of my pictures, I'd probably just make a TIFF version from the high quality JPG file.
I just checked one of my pictures at random. D025-1756 (for my reference) is 4288 x 2844 (12.2 Mpix) pixels in size. The RAW file is 25.9 Mbytes. The post-processed JPG is 4266 x 2844 pixels and 8.1 Mbytes. A 8 bit TIFF version with forward differencing and LZW compression of the JPG, which contains exactly the same information, is 18.9 Mbyte on the disk.
The details will vary from picture to picture, but the statistics for the above picture seem to be typical in my experience. |
26,569 | My wife is a photographer (Nikon D700, edits in Win7 Adobe CS5 suite) and mentioned yesterday that she's out of hard drive space. When I inspected, I found *GIGANTIC* .TIF files on her drive, ranging anywhere in size from 100MB to 4 ***GIGABYTES***.
I told her to save her final edits off as JPEGS and delete the .TIFs, but she said she can't do that for two reasons:
* Her printing companies require TIF format
* If her clients want a picture redone or resized, she can't go back
to the JPEG as effectively as she could have with the tif format.
Both of these reasons seem more like the product of workflow issues to me, but I don't know enough about the art to make that call. As the financier of her operation, I have a few questions for the community:
1) Are file sizes like this normal? Is there a more friendly format that she can work in that doesn't require me to buy a new hard drive every few weeks?
2) Is it possible that there is a knowledge gap somewhere and that she's missing a crucial step in her workflow? She demonstrated for me, and I watched in disbelief as a brand new 10 MB raw file without any edits turned into a *105 MB* TIF file.
I ask because these file sizes seem absolutely ridiculous to me. At this rate, she'll practically have to add a hard drive surcharge to every one of her shoots from now on...
Thanks in advance! | 2012/08/26 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/26569",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2076/"
] | It sounds like she's saving uncompressed TIFs. Ps will give you various options such as LZW or ZIP compression when you save. Since TIFF is lossless you can safely choose any of them. JPEG is not a good alternative as it is lossy; you will lose image quality. | The only thing that stands out to me is to ensure the final exported TIFFs are flattened--unless the customer or printer specifically requested layers for further processing.
Non-destructive editing is usually a necessity and thus preserving originals and/or intermediate work products in lossless formats. Working with high resolution images means you're going to need a lot of space. Just count yourself lucky your wife isn't into video production!
JPEG, even in the highest quality setting is only 8 bit and lossy, so by repeatedly importing and exporting JPEGs will result in increasingly visible artifacts and reduced flexibility due to the lower dynamic range of the 8-bit information versus the original 12-bit from the camera.
Software like Lightroom and Aperture has excellent features for managing and archiving large volumes of photos. If preserving backups of past projects is a must, then learn to use these tools, and accept that buying external hard drives now and then is par for the course in this business.
Personally, I go through three retention phases:
1. Back up all originals to DVD immediately upon importing the photos.
2. Mark all potential keepers and delete the rest.
3. After a while (a month, half a year, whenever I run out of space), delete all the potential keepers that didn't end up being used and archive the keepers on an external hard drive.
USB 2.0 is probably going to be around for yet another decade or two. With the current prices, external hard drives seems to be the most cost efficient solution for flexible long-term storage of large photo libraries. |
26,569 | My wife is a photographer (Nikon D700, edits in Win7 Adobe CS5 suite) and mentioned yesterday that she's out of hard drive space. When I inspected, I found *GIGANTIC* .TIF files on her drive, ranging anywhere in size from 100MB to 4 ***GIGABYTES***.
I told her to save her final edits off as JPEGS and delete the .TIFs, but she said she can't do that for two reasons:
* Her printing companies require TIF format
* If her clients want a picture redone or resized, she can't go back
to the JPEG as effectively as she could have with the tif format.
Both of these reasons seem more like the product of workflow issues to me, but I don't know enough about the art to make that call. As the financier of her operation, I have a few questions for the community:
1) Are file sizes like this normal? Is there a more friendly format that she can work in that doesn't require me to buy a new hard drive every few weeks?
2) Is it possible that there is a knowledge gap somewhere and that she's missing a crucial step in her workflow? She demonstrated for me, and I watched in disbelief as a brand new 10 MB raw file without any edits turned into a *105 MB* TIF file.
I ask because these file sizes seem absolutely ridiculous to me. At this rate, she'll practically have to add a hard drive surcharge to every one of her shoots from now on...
Thanks in advance! | 2012/08/26 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/26569",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2076/"
] | It sounds like she's saving uncompressed TIFs. Ps will give you various options such as LZW or ZIP compression when you save. Since TIFF is lossless you can safely choose any of them. JPEG is not a good alternative as it is lossy; you will lose image quality. | TIFF files saved with Perfectly Clear plugin for Lightroom in 16-bit format are 140 MB (from ~20-24 MB RAW files). Will definitely use 8-bit conversion in future! |
26,569 | My wife is a photographer (Nikon D700, edits in Win7 Adobe CS5 suite) and mentioned yesterday that she's out of hard drive space. When I inspected, I found *GIGANTIC* .TIF files on her drive, ranging anywhere in size from 100MB to 4 ***GIGABYTES***.
I told her to save her final edits off as JPEGS and delete the .TIFs, but she said she can't do that for two reasons:
* Her printing companies require TIF format
* If her clients want a picture redone or resized, she can't go back
to the JPEG as effectively as she could have with the tif format.
Both of these reasons seem more like the product of workflow issues to me, but I don't know enough about the art to make that call. As the financier of her operation, I have a few questions for the community:
1) Are file sizes like this normal? Is there a more friendly format that she can work in that doesn't require me to buy a new hard drive every few weeks?
2) Is it possible that there is a knowledge gap somewhere and that she's missing a crucial step in her workflow? She demonstrated for me, and I watched in disbelief as a brand new 10 MB raw file without any edits turned into a *105 MB* TIF file.
I ask because these file sizes seem absolutely ridiculous to me. At this rate, she'll practically have to add a hard drive surcharge to every one of her shoots from now on...
Thanks in advance! | 2012/08/26 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/26569",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2076/"
] | Saving TIFF files doesn't make sense to me. The original RAW is more space-efficient, and of course contains all the inforation to be had. I save the original RAW file and one or more post-processed JPG results. If I want to go back and make a version that's a little darker, more snappy contrast, more detail in the clouds, or whatever, I do that by going back to the RAW file and then making another JPG with the desired tradeoffs.
I'm guessing she is saving the data in 16 bit TIFF files. That is going to be a lot bigger than the RAW for two reasons. First, the RAW contains only one color per pixel. TIFF contains all three with the other two invented somehow from the RAW information. They don't contain any more information, but do take up at least 3x the space. Second, 16 bits is more per color per pixel than RAW data, at least currently. The Nikon D3S produces 14 bits/pixel raw, and I don't think other common cameras do more than that, most less. You don't gain any information by expanding the 14 or 12 bits of raw data into 16 bits, just more wasted space.
So basically a 16 bit TIFF file expands the raw 12 or 14 bits/pixel into 48 bits/pixel without any advantage in information content.
If the printer insists on TIFF file, probably to avoid JPG compression artifacts, send them a 8 bit TIFF file after the post processing. Personally I find JPG files with lossless compression disabled to the extent possible (often done with something like a "quality" setting at 100%) don't have visible compression artifact even when pixel peeping. That is how I store my post-processed images. If someone wanted a TIFF version of one of my pictures, I'd probably just make a TIFF version from the high quality JPG file.
I just checked one of my pictures at random. D025-1756 (for my reference) is 4288 x 2844 (12.2 Mpix) pixels in size. The RAW file is 25.9 Mbytes. The post-processed JPG is 4266 x 2844 pixels and 8.1 Mbytes. A 8 bit TIFF version with forward differencing and LZW compression of the JPG, which contains exactly the same information, is 18.9 Mbyte on the disk.
The details will vary from picture to picture, but the statistics for the above picture seem to be typical in my experience. | TIFF files saved with Perfectly Clear plugin for Lightroom in 16-bit format are 140 MB (from ~20-24 MB RAW files). Will definitely use 8-bit conversion in future! |
26,569 | My wife is a photographer (Nikon D700, edits in Win7 Adobe CS5 suite) and mentioned yesterday that she's out of hard drive space. When I inspected, I found *GIGANTIC* .TIF files on her drive, ranging anywhere in size from 100MB to 4 ***GIGABYTES***.
I told her to save her final edits off as JPEGS and delete the .TIFs, but she said she can't do that for two reasons:
* Her printing companies require TIF format
* If her clients want a picture redone or resized, she can't go back
to the JPEG as effectively as she could have with the tif format.
Both of these reasons seem more like the product of workflow issues to me, but I don't know enough about the art to make that call. As the financier of her operation, I have a few questions for the community:
1) Are file sizes like this normal? Is there a more friendly format that she can work in that doesn't require me to buy a new hard drive every few weeks?
2) Is it possible that there is a knowledge gap somewhere and that she's missing a crucial step in her workflow? She demonstrated for me, and I watched in disbelief as a brand new 10 MB raw file without any edits turned into a *105 MB* TIF file.
I ask because these file sizes seem absolutely ridiculous to me. At this rate, she'll practically have to add a hard drive surcharge to every one of her shoots from now on...
Thanks in advance! | 2012/08/26 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/26569",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/2076/"
] | The only thing that stands out to me is to ensure the final exported TIFFs are flattened--unless the customer or printer specifically requested layers for further processing.
Non-destructive editing is usually a necessity and thus preserving originals and/or intermediate work products in lossless formats. Working with high resolution images means you're going to need a lot of space. Just count yourself lucky your wife isn't into video production!
JPEG, even in the highest quality setting is only 8 bit and lossy, so by repeatedly importing and exporting JPEGs will result in increasingly visible artifacts and reduced flexibility due to the lower dynamic range of the 8-bit information versus the original 12-bit from the camera.
Software like Lightroom and Aperture has excellent features for managing and archiving large volumes of photos. If preserving backups of past projects is a must, then learn to use these tools, and accept that buying external hard drives now and then is par for the course in this business.
Personally, I go through three retention phases:
1. Back up all originals to DVD immediately upon importing the photos.
2. Mark all potential keepers and delete the rest.
3. After a while (a month, half a year, whenever I run out of space), delete all the potential keepers that didn't end up being used and archive the keepers on an external hard drive.
USB 2.0 is probably going to be around for yet another decade or two. With the current prices, external hard drives seems to be the most cost efficient solution for flexible long-term storage of large photo libraries. | TIFF files saved with Perfectly Clear plugin for Lightroom in 16-bit format are 140 MB (from ~20-24 MB RAW files). Will definitely use 8-bit conversion in future! |
39,743,189 | I have all necessary scales in my project:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6yBLz.png)
However, when I start my app, it doesn't seem to pick the best scaled Splash Screen. I'm starting in Release x86. It's always using the scale-100 splashscreen.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0t92N.png)
I used the right names for the SplashScreens and they are in the folder "Assets" in my project:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5IoQC.png)
Do I have to 'activate' an option to enable the usage of variable Splash Screens? Or why does it always pick a Splash Screen that's too small? | 2016/09/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/39743189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4825351/"
] | The reason Windows is using the scale-100 asset in your case is because your desktop environment is set to 100% scaling. There's no need for it to use a higher-resolution asset because of this. But that's not the reason why your asset isn't stretching to fill the window.
Splash screens in Windows Store apps (including UWP apps) are unlike most conventional splash screens in that their images aren't full screen images. Usually, what you put in a splash screen image for a UWP app is the app icon or logo, which is then centered on the variable-sized window and superimposed over an optional background color, rather than itself stretched (since windows can be of arbitrary size, whereas your splash screen image may require a specific aspect ratio to display correctly). From [Guidelines for splash screens](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/apps/hh465338.aspx):
>
> Putting an image and background color together to form the splash screen helps the splash screen look good regardless of the form factor of the device your app is installed on. When the splash screen is displayed, only the size of the background changes to compensate for a variety of screen sizes. Your image always remains intact.
>
>
> | If you really need to display a full-screen image instead of the small splash screen, you can fully omit these images and use an [extended splash screen](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/uwp/launch-resume/create-a-customized-splash-screen). |
6,335,946 | I need to transmit integral data types over the network but don't want to transfer all 32 (or 64) bits all the time - data fits into just one byte 99% of time - so it looks like it's need to compress it somehow: for example first bit of a byte is 0 if other 7 bits means just some value (0-127), otherwise (if first byte is 1) it's need to shift these 7 bytes left and read second byte to do the same process.
Is there some common way to do this? I don't want to reinvent a wheel...
Thank you. | 2011/06/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6335946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/322513/"
] | The scheme you describe (which is essentially a base-128 encoding: each byte is a 7-bit base-128 "digit" and a single bit flag to indicate whether or not it is the final digit) *is* a common way of doing this.
For example, see:
* the section on "LEB128" in the [DWARF spec](http://www.dwarfstd.org/doc/DWARF4.pdf) (§7.6);
* "Base 128 Varints" in [Google's protocol buffers](http://code.google.com/apis/protocolbuffers/docs/encoding.html);
* "Variable Width Integers" in the [LLVM bitcode format](http://llvm.org/docs/BitCodeFormat.html) (various different widths are used in various different places there). | Just about *any* data compression algorithm would be able to compress that kind of data stream very well. Use whatever compression libraries your language provides. |
515,763 | I would like to create a system in which anyone can hook up their email, and have all emails that come to them go through my server first. Anyone who signs up for this service, will have their email vetted by my servers filtration system. If it passes through the filters, I'd like to forward that email onto their inbox. | 2013/06/14 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/515763",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/177802/"
] | The vetting part will be quite simple. The difficult part will be ensuring that the user's email passes through your server first. This will either require the users installing some sort of software on their system to intercept the mail coming from their mailboxes, or it will require the users changing their email to a domain you host (maybe a subdomain of their primary domain delegated to you?) or it will require the admins of the mail systems forwarding mail to you when it arrives for your subscribed users.
None of these things are easy, simple to implement, or foolproof. | in the gmail settings you can add forward addresses and delete the original mail in the gmail inbox. forward the mail to a mailaddress on your server. on your server install the filters (spam, virus, content) you want. |
515,763 | I would like to create a system in which anyone can hook up their email, and have all emails that come to them go through my server first. Anyone who signs up for this service, will have their email vetted by my servers filtration system. If it passes through the filters, I'd like to forward that email onto their inbox. | 2013/06/14 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/515763",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/177802/"
] | The vetting part will be quite simple. The difficult part will be ensuring that the user's email passes through your server first. This will either require the users installing some sort of software on their system to intercept the mail coming from their mailboxes, or it will require the users changing their email to a domain you host (maybe a subdomain of their primary domain delegated to you?) or it will require the admins of the mail systems forwarding mail to you when it arrives for your subscribed users.
None of these things are easy, simple to implement, or foolproof. | Have a look at the script handlers in postfix (or exim), and Procmail. I did a quick google search for 'postfix script filtering' and found [this article about spam filtering](http://www.symantec.com/connect/articles/filtering-e-mail-postfix-and-procmail-part-three) based on content, using procmail.
Should be possible to do given your own wordlist. I know Exim has similar feature sets. |
515,763 | I would like to create a system in which anyone can hook up their email, and have all emails that come to them go through my server first. Anyone who signs up for this service, will have their email vetted by my servers filtration system. If it passes through the filters, I'd like to forward that email onto their inbox. | 2013/06/14 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/515763",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/177802/"
] | The vetting part will be quite simple. The difficult part will be ensuring that the user's email passes through your server first. This will either require the users installing some sort of software on their system to intercept the mail coming from their mailboxes, or it will require the users changing their email to a domain you host (maybe a subdomain of their primary domain delegated to you?) or it will require the admins of the mail systems forwarding mail to you when it arrives for your subscribed users.
None of these things are easy, simple to implement, or foolproof. | This is perfectly possible. There are plenty of services out there that make a business out of doing it. The difficult bit is not in configuring their email servers to send email via you, or configuring your servers to accept, and then forward their email but instead in producing useful filters that can't be done "locally" to the sending servers and therefore making it worth your and their effort.
You're effectively acting as a smarthost for the users - instead of publishing MX records to the net and sending email from their own servers, they publish your server(s) as the MX record for their incoming email and forward all their outgoing email to you from their edge SMTP server.
It's not exactly a difficult configuration on any reasonable email server. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Your Dhamma is to be yourself, obviously. To be yourself means to trust oneself. To trust oneself means, you can consult many books, and hear opinions of people, but the final decision is yours. You make it to the best of your ability, and then you take a stance on it. To trust oneself also means, to know oneself, to know when your own thought is sincere or when it is driven by anger or desire or by ego wanting to look better.
When you trust yourself like that, you can go forward without inner conflict, be spontaneously yourself without doubts, and create your own future. That's fulfilling your Dhamma. | So let us examine the one of Dhamma; "ashta loka dhamma"(eight worldly conditions) as example out of 84000 thousand Dhamma
Gain and non-gain, disrepute and fame,
blame and praise, happy and sorrow:
these conditions found among people
are impermanent, transient, subject to change.
so this is the behavior of nature.(or how it is operated or processed or any other better suggestions of the word) and it has wholesome and unwholesome aspects. it is obvious that we have to interact with above nature.Also prove that existence of wholesome and unwholesome. When some one say If you interpret natural as something that happens easily in nature, a robber wanting to steal is natural.Also stealing is not sustainable and harm the society and it can overcome by ethics. So Dhamma can't be explained as single isolated event it's a process and interconnected phenomena.
the initial question has a discrepancy by saying "your Dhamma" and "my Dhamma" pretend individuals and nature are two different things. Dhamma must be seen as a whole thing. E.g. one's experiences,realizations,way of reactions to outer world and all phenomena include in Dhamma.
In other way wholesome and unwholesome exists and unwholesome phenomena lack of sustainability and it can overcome by wholesome acts. This also a Dhamma. Purpose of Dhamma(As teaching of Buddha) is realizing things as it is and how to escape from suffering.
If simplified thief in today has potential to be Arahath in future.Think that hungry person steal food and someone understand the motive behind stealing and offer some food with kind way and convince him not to steal- which is the process of Dhamma.Just stealing and kindness are not. In same way; murderer today has potential to become Arahath in future (E.g motive behind killing as a blind faith on his teacher in Angulimala story) with the exact realization of Dhamma.
If we go further it obvious that existence of violence and non-violence and violence cease by non-violence. so that is the nature and Dhamma. so proper understanding of violence and non-violence (distinguish of two) is vital to get wholesome results. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Following the Dhamma towards the end of suffering, is not doing the natural thing. It's actually doing what's opposite to what's natural. It's going against the current. What is natural is to follow cravings.
From [Itivuttaka 109](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/iti/iti.4.106-112x.irel.html#iti-109):
>
> "Suppose, bhikkhus, a man was being borne along by the current of a
> river that seemed pleasant and agreeable. But upon seeing him, a
> keen-sighted man standing on the bank would call out to him: 'Hey,
> good man! Although you are being borne along by the current of a river
> that seems pleasant and agreeable, lower down there is a pool with
> turbulent waves and swirling eddies, with monsters and demons. On
> reaching that pool you will die or suffer close to death.' Then,
> bhikkhus, upon hearing the words of that person, that man would
> struggle against the current with hands and feet.
>
>
> "I have made use of this simile, bhikkhus, to illustrate the meaning.
> And this is the meaning here: 'The current of the river' is a synonym
> for craving. 'Seeming pleasant and agreeable' is a synonym for the six
> internal sense-bases. 'The pool lower down' is a synonym for the five
> lower fetters. 'Turbulent waves' is a synonym for anger and
> frustration. 'Swirling eddies' is a synonym for the five strands of
> sensual pleasure. 'Monsters and demons' is a synonym for
> womenfolk (i.e. sexual attraction).
> 'Against the current' is a synonym for renunciation. 'Struggling with
> hands and feet' is a synonym for instigating energy. 'The keen-sighted
> man standing on the bank' is a synonym for the Tathagata, the Arahant,
> the Fully Enlightened One."
>
>
>
The Buddha recognized in the [Ayacana Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn06/sn06.001.than.html) that the masses who delight in attachment, excited by attachment and enjoy attachment, would not easily understand the Dhamma.
>
> "This Dhamma that I have attained is deep, hard to see, hard to
> realize, peaceful, refined, beyond the scope of conjecture, subtle,
> to-be-experienced by the wise. But this generation delights in
> attachment, is excited by attachment, enjoys attachment. For a
> generation delighting in attachment, excited by attachment, enjoying
> attachment, this/that conditionality and dependent co-arising are hard
> to see. This state, too, is hard to see: the resolution of all
> fabrications, the relinquishment of all acquisitions, the ending of
> craving; dispassion; cessation; Unbinding. And if I were to teach the
> Dhamma and if others would not understand me, that would be tiresome
> for me, troublesome for me."
>
>
>
We should not underestimate how "natural" it is for the masses to indulge in sensual pleasures. From the [Magandiya Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.075x.than.html):
>
> "Now suppose that there was a leper covered with sores & infections,
> devoured by worms, picking the scabs off the openings of his wounds
> with his nails, cauterizing his body over a pit of glowing embers. The
> more he cauterized his body over the pit of glowing embers, the more
> disgusting, foul-smelling, & putrid the openings of his wounds would
> become, and yet he would feel a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction
> because of the itchiness of his wounds. In the same way, beings not
> free from passion for sensual pleasures — devoured by sensual craving,
> burning with sensual fever — indulge in sensual pleasures. The more
> they indulge in sensual pleasures, the more their sensual craving
> increases and the more they burn with sensual fever, and yet they feel
> a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction dependent on the five strings of
> sensuality.
>
>
>
[Ananda Sutta (SN22.83)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.83) paraphrased [here](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/hecker/wheel273.html), tells that the self ("I am") is also very natural, as long as one clings to the five aggregates.
>
> If somebody should want to see his reflection or image, he could do so
> only through a cause, namely a mirror or a clear body of water. In the
> same way do the five aggregates reflect the image of "I am." As
> long as one depends on them and is supported by them, so long will an
> "I" be reflected. Only when one does not rely on them any longer, will
> the image of "I" disappear.
>
>
>
In the [Mallikaa Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn03/sn03.008.wlsh.html), we find that another most natural thing is that the most dear person to oneself is oneself. So, it's also quite natural to be self-centered.
However, in general, people tend to feel an underlying sense of dissatisfaction, because despite pursuing pleasures, it never lasts, and ageing, disease, decay and death cannot be avoided. This sense of dissatisfaction, which is sensing suffering, is what drives some people to consider the Dhamma, and pursue the path that is not natural, going against the current of the river of samsara, towards the end of suffering.
What is my dhamma? I guess by that, you mean, what is my destiny?
By default, your "natural" destiny is to go along with the current of craving and clinging, on the river of samsara, towards the destination of suffering. It's up to you to decide to go against the current, and change your destiny, towards the end of suffering, which is on the stable river bank of Nirvana, where the Buddha stood.
In other words, instead of asking "what is my destiny?", you would have to ask "how can I change my destiny?", "how can I change my fate?".
Your dhamma is to decide your own destiny, for you are your own refuge, according to [Dhammapada 380](http://www.tipitaka.net/tipitaka/dhp/verseload.php?verse=379).
>
> [Dhp 160](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-160). One truly is the protector of oneself; who else could
> the protector be? With oneself fully controlled, one gains a mastery
> that is hard to gain.
>
>
> [Dhp 165](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-165). By oneself is evil done; by oneself is one defiled. By
> oneself is evil left undone; by oneself is one made pure. Purity and
> impurity depend on oneself; no one can purify another.
>
>
> [Dhp 380](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.25.budd.html#dhp-380). One is one's own protector, one is one's own refuge.
> Therefore, one should control oneself, even as a trader controls a
> noble steed.
>
>
> | Your Dhamma is to be yourself, obviously. To be yourself means to trust oneself. To trust oneself means, you can consult many books, and hear opinions of people, but the final decision is yours. You make it to the best of your ability, and then you take a stance on it. To trust oneself also means, to know oneself, to know when your own thought is sincere or when it is driven by anger or desire or by ego wanting to look better.
When you trust yourself like that, you can go forward without inner conflict, be spontaneously yourself without doubts, and create your own future. That's fulfilling your Dhamma. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Your Dhamma is to be yourself, obviously. To be yourself means to trust oneself. To trust oneself means, you can consult many books, and hear opinions of people, but the final decision is yours. You make it to the best of your ability, and then you take a stance on it. To trust oneself also means, to know oneself, to know when your own thought is sincere or when it is driven by anger or desire or by ego wanting to look better.
When you trust yourself like that, you can go forward without inner conflict, be spontaneously yourself without doubts, and create your own future. That's fulfilling your Dhamma. | I might get into trouble but imho fwiw;
"Hinduism" - Bunch of teachers more or less teaching Samatha Meditation, beliefs are traced to those meditative attainments and the interpretation of those.
"Buddhism" - Bunch of teachers more or less teaching based on the teachings of a Perfect being who fully explained the Samatha techniques and attainments and discovered a higher meditative state than what was not previously known to "Hindu teachers".
The practice leading to that exalted state is called the "8 Fold Path".
If you have confidence in that meditation techniques allow one to reach the special states and that one can learn valuable lessons from these experiences that would make one more or less of a Hindu or Buddhist depending on the level learning, poundering with reason, coming to agreement and personal verification. In regards to rebirth and other claims like that depend on conviction a lot so as i see it they dont really make or break a "buddhist" as most Buddhists have skeptical doubt periodically.
Id recommend taking a look at Brahmajāla Sutta: The All-embracing Net of Views <https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/dn/dn.01.0.bodh.html>
It is quite dense but im sure it will be illuminating. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Following the Dhamma towards the end of suffering, is not doing the natural thing. It's actually doing what's opposite to what's natural. It's going against the current. What is natural is to follow cravings.
From [Itivuttaka 109](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/iti/iti.4.106-112x.irel.html#iti-109):
>
> "Suppose, bhikkhus, a man was being borne along by the current of a
> river that seemed pleasant and agreeable. But upon seeing him, a
> keen-sighted man standing on the bank would call out to him: 'Hey,
> good man! Although you are being borne along by the current of a river
> that seems pleasant and agreeable, lower down there is a pool with
> turbulent waves and swirling eddies, with monsters and demons. On
> reaching that pool you will die or suffer close to death.' Then,
> bhikkhus, upon hearing the words of that person, that man would
> struggle against the current with hands and feet.
>
>
> "I have made use of this simile, bhikkhus, to illustrate the meaning.
> And this is the meaning here: 'The current of the river' is a synonym
> for craving. 'Seeming pleasant and agreeable' is a synonym for the six
> internal sense-bases. 'The pool lower down' is a synonym for the five
> lower fetters. 'Turbulent waves' is a synonym for anger and
> frustration. 'Swirling eddies' is a synonym for the five strands of
> sensual pleasure. 'Monsters and demons' is a synonym for
> womenfolk (i.e. sexual attraction).
> 'Against the current' is a synonym for renunciation. 'Struggling with
> hands and feet' is a synonym for instigating energy. 'The keen-sighted
> man standing on the bank' is a synonym for the Tathagata, the Arahant,
> the Fully Enlightened One."
>
>
>
The Buddha recognized in the [Ayacana Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn06/sn06.001.than.html) that the masses who delight in attachment, excited by attachment and enjoy attachment, would not easily understand the Dhamma.
>
> "This Dhamma that I have attained is deep, hard to see, hard to
> realize, peaceful, refined, beyond the scope of conjecture, subtle,
> to-be-experienced by the wise. But this generation delights in
> attachment, is excited by attachment, enjoys attachment. For a
> generation delighting in attachment, excited by attachment, enjoying
> attachment, this/that conditionality and dependent co-arising are hard
> to see. This state, too, is hard to see: the resolution of all
> fabrications, the relinquishment of all acquisitions, the ending of
> craving; dispassion; cessation; Unbinding. And if I were to teach the
> Dhamma and if others would not understand me, that would be tiresome
> for me, troublesome for me."
>
>
>
We should not underestimate how "natural" it is for the masses to indulge in sensual pleasures. From the [Magandiya Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.075x.than.html):
>
> "Now suppose that there was a leper covered with sores & infections,
> devoured by worms, picking the scabs off the openings of his wounds
> with his nails, cauterizing his body over a pit of glowing embers. The
> more he cauterized his body over the pit of glowing embers, the more
> disgusting, foul-smelling, & putrid the openings of his wounds would
> become, and yet he would feel a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction
> because of the itchiness of his wounds. In the same way, beings not
> free from passion for sensual pleasures — devoured by sensual craving,
> burning with sensual fever — indulge in sensual pleasures. The more
> they indulge in sensual pleasures, the more their sensual craving
> increases and the more they burn with sensual fever, and yet they feel
> a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction dependent on the five strings of
> sensuality.
>
>
>
[Ananda Sutta (SN22.83)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.83) paraphrased [here](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/hecker/wheel273.html), tells that the self ("I am") is also very natural, as long as one clings to the five aggregates.
>
> If somebody should want to see his reflection or image, he could do so
> only through a cause, namely a mirror or a clear body of water. In the
> same way do the five aggregates reflect the image of "I am." As
> long as one depends on them and is supported by them, so long will an
> "I" be reflected. Only when one does not rely on them any longer, will
> the image of "I" disappear.
>
>
>
In the [Mallikaa Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn03/sn03.008.wlsh.html), we find that another most natural thing is that the most dear person to oneself is oneself. So, it's also quite natural to be self-centered.
However, in general, people tend to feel an underlying sense of dissatisfaction, because despite pursuing pleasures, it never lasts, and ageing, disease, decay and death cannot be avoided. This sense of dissatisfaction, which is sensing suffering, is what drives some people to consider the Dhamma, and pursue the path that is not natural, going against the current of the river of samsara, towards the end of suffering.
What is my dhamma? I guess by that, you mean, what is my destiny?
By default, your "natural" destiny is to go along with the current of craving and clinging, on the river of samsara, towards the destination of suffering. It's up to you to decide to go against the current, and change your destiny, towards the end of suffering, which is on the stable river bank of Nirvana, where the Buddha stood.
In other words, instead of asking "what is my destiny?", you would have to ask "how can I change my destiny?", "how can I change my fate?".
Your dhamma is to decide your own destiny, for you are your own refuge, according to [Dhammapada 380](http://www.tipitaka.net/tipitaka/dhp/verseload.php?verse=379).
>
> [Dhp 160](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-160). One truly is the protector of oneself; who else could
> the protector be? With oneself fully controlled, one gains a mastery
> that is hard to gain.
>
>
> [Dhp 165](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-165). By oneself is evil done; by oneself is one defiled. By
> oneself is evil left undone; by oneself is one made pure. Purity and
> impurity depend on oneself; no one can purify another.
>
>
> [Dhp 380](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.25.budd.html#dhp-380). One is one's own protector, one is one's own refuge.
> Therefore, one should control oneself, even as a trader controls a
> noble steed.
>
>
> | >
> [What Is Natural?](http://sangham.net/index.php/topic,427.msg1031.html#msg1031)
>
>
> Claiming they want their practice to be "natural," some people complain that this way of life does not fit their nature.
>
>
> Nature is the tree in the forest. But if you build a house, it is no longer natural, is it? Yet if you learn to use the tree, making wood and building a house, it has more value to you. Or perhaps the dog is natural, running here and there, following its nose. Throw food to dogs and they rush to it, fighting each other. Is that what you want to be like?
>
>
> The true meaning of natural can be discovered with our discipline and practice. This natural is beyond our habits, our conditioning, our fears. If the human mind is left to so-called natural impulses, untrained, it is full of greed, hatred, and delusion and suffers accordingly. Yet through practice we can allow our wisdom and love to grow naturally until it blossoms in any surroundings.
>
>
>
To take refuge into the Three Gems means to seek refuge into the Buddha (Awakening and an Awakened), into his Dhamma (teaching and his advices to arrive there), and into the Sangha (those who followed him and practiced good, to have orientation on side).
When one sees the dangers in the world and comes to know someone knowing a way out, that is when one goes for refuge.
To take ones own ways of thoughts, ideas as refuge is normal, but as one could figure out, does as good as never leads out.
Only by taking refuge in the tripple gems and follow the advices, train one self, one might, by seeing the Dhamma for oneself, make it his own as well. From this point on, the way out has become naturally to that extend, that he is bound to reach the other shore within most seven existences.
Even then effort is the cause of reaching further paths and fruit and it goes all against the normal habits (the natural ones).
Beings take usually refuge in sign and eye, sound and ear, smell and nose, taste and tongue, touch and body, ideas and intelect. Buy since all of that is not real, not lasting, subject to decay, they are lost in their refuge, grasping after something without heartwood. Once seeing that this phenomenas are not real, one is open to see the unconditioned.
So it is said:
>
> [At Savatthi](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/tipitaka/sn/sn25/sn25.001.than_en.html). "Monks, the eye is inconstant, changeable, alterable. The ear... The nose... The tongue... The body... The mind is inconstant, changeable, alterable.
>
>
> "One who has conviction & belief that these phenomena are this way is called a faith-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who, after pondering with a modicum of discernment, has accepted that these phenomena are this way is called a Dhamma-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who knows and sees that these phenomena are this way is called a stream-enterer, steadfast, never again destined for states of woe, headed for self-awakening."
>
>
>
At this point your refuge grows firm and no more to slight far away. Nature, by given the cause for it, is now on your conductive side.
*[Note: This is a gift of Dhamma, not meant for commercial use or other lower wordily gains by ways of exchange or trade]* |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Following the Dhamma towards the end of suffering, is not doing the natural thing. It's actually doing what's opposite to what's natural. It's going against the current. What is natural is to follow cravings.
From [Itivuttaka 109](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/iti/iti.4.106-112x.irel.html#iti-109):
>
> "Suppose, bhikkhus, a man was being borne along by the current of a
> river that seemed pleasant and agreeable. But upon seeing him, a
> keen-sighted man standing on the bank would call out to him: 'Hey,
> good man! Although you are being borne along by the current of a river
> that seems pleasant and agreeable, lower down there is a pool with
> turbulent waves and swirling eddies, with monsters and demons. On
> reaching that pool you will die or suffer close to death.' Then,
> bhikkhus, upon hearing the words of that person, that man would
> struggle against the current with hands and feet.
>
>
> "I have made use of this simile, bhikkhus, to illustrate the meaning.
> And this is the meaning here: 'The current of the river' is a synonym
> for craving. 'Seeming pleasant and agreeable' is a synonym for the six
> internal sense-bases. 'The pool lower down' is a synonym for the five
> lower fetters. 'Turbulent waves' is a synonym for anger and
> frustration. 'Swirling eddies' is a synonym for the five strands of
> sensual pleasure. 'Monsters and demons' is a synonym for
> womenfolk (i.e. sexual attraction).
> 'Against the current' is a synonym for renunciation. 'Struggling with
> hands and feet' is a synonym for instigating energy. 'The keen-sighted
> man standing on the bank' is a synonym for the Tathagata, the Arahant,
> the Fully Enlightened One."
>
>
>
The Buddha recognized in the [Ayacana Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn06/sn06.001.than.html) that the masses who delight in attachment, excited by attachment and enjoy attachment, would not easily understand the Dhamma.
>
> "This Dhamma that I have attained is deep, hard to see, hard to
> realize, peaceful, refined, beyond the scope of conjecture, subtle,
> to-be-experienced by the wise. But this generation delights in
> attachment, is excited by attachment, enjoys attachment. For a
> generation delighting in attachment, excited by attachment, enjoying
> attachment, this/that conditionality and dependent co-arising are hard
> to see. This state, too, is hard to see: the resolution of all
> fabrications, the relinquishment of all acquisitions, the ending of
> craving; dispassion; cessation; Unbinding. And if I were to teach the
> Dhamma and if others would not understand me, that would be tiresome
> for me, troublesome for me."
>
>
>
We should not underestimate how "natural" it is for the masses to indulge in sensual pleasures. From the [Magandiya Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.075x.than.html):
>
> "Now suppose that there was a leper covered with sores & infections,
> devoured by worms, picking the scabs off the openings of his wounds
> with his nails, cauterizing his body over a pit of glowing embers. The
> more he cauterized his body over the pit of glowing embers, the more
> disgusting, foul-smelling, & putrid the openings of his wounds would
> become, and yet he would feel a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction
> because of the itchiness of his wounds. In the same way, beings not
> free from passion for sensual pleasures — devoured by sensual craving,
> burning with sensual fever — indulge in sensual pleasures. The more
> they indulge in sensual pleasures, the more their sensual craving
> increases and the more they burn with sensual fever, and yet they feel
> a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction dependent on the five strings of
> sensuality.
>
>
>
[Ananda Sutta (SN22.83)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.83) paraphrased [here](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/hecker/wheel273.html), tells that the self ("I am") is also very natural, as long as one clings to the five aggregates.
>
> If somebody should want to see his reflection or image, he could do so
> only through a cause, namely a mirror or a clear body of water. In the
> same way do the five aggregates reflect the image of "I am." As
> long as one depends on them and is supported by them, so long will an
> "I" be reflected. Only when one does not rely on them any longer, will
> the image of "I" disappear.
>
>
>
In the [Mallikaa Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn03/sn03.008.wlsh.html), we find that another most natural thing is that the most dear person to oneself is oneself. So, it's also quite natural to be self-centered.
However, in general, people tend to feel an underlying sense of dissatisfaction, because despite pursuing pleasures, it never lasts, and ageing, disease, decay and death cannot be avoided. This sense of dissatisfaction, which is sensing suffering, is what drives some people to consider the Dhamma, and pursue the path that is not natural, going against the current of the river of samsara, towards the end of suffering.
What is my dhamma? I guess by that, you mean, what is my destiny?
By default, your "natural" destiny is to go along with the current of craving and clinging, on the river of samsara, towards the destination of suffering. It's up to you to decide to go against the current, and change your destiny, towards the end of suffering, which is on the stable river bank of Nirvana, where the Buddha stood.
In other words, instead of asking "what is my destiny?", you would have to ask "how can I change my destiny?", "how can I change my fate?".
Your dhamma is to decide your own destiny, for you are your own refuge, according to [Dhammapada 380](http://www.tipitaka.net/tipitaka/dhp/verseload.php?verse=379).
>
> [Dhp 160](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-160). One truly is the protector of oneself; who else could
> the protector be? With oneself fully controlled, one gains a mastery
> that is hard to gain.
>
>
> [Dhp 165](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-165). By oneself is evil done; by oneself is one defiled. By
> oneself is evil left undone; by oneself is one made pure. Purity and
> impurity depend on oneself; no one can purify another.
>
>
> [Dhp 380](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.25.budd.html#dhp-380). One is one's own protector, one is one's own refuge.
> Therefore, one should control oneself, even as a trader controls a
> noble steed.
>
>
> | I might get into trouble but imho fwiw;
"Hinduism" - Bunch of teachers more or less teaching Samatha Meditation, beliefs are traced to those meditative attainments and the interpretation of those.
"Buddhism" - Bunch of teachers more or less teaching based on the teachings of a Perfect being who fully explained the Samatha techniques and attainments and discovered a higher meditative state than what was not previously known to "Hindu teachers".
The practice leading to that exalted state is called the "8 Fold Path".
If you have confidence in that meditation techniques allow one to reach the special states and that one can learn valuable lessons from these experiences that would make one more or less of a Hindu or Buddhist depending on the level learning, poundering with reason, coming to agreement and personal verification. In regards to rebirth and other claims like that depend on conviction a lot so as i see it they dont really make or break a "buddhist" as most Buddhists have skeptical doubt periodically.
Id recommend taking a look at Brahmajāla Sutta: The All-embracing Net of Views <https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/dn/dn.01.0.bodh.html>
It is quite dense but im sure it will be illuminating. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Your Dhamma is to be yourself, obviously. To be yourself means to trust oneself. To trust oneself means, you can consult many books, and hear opinions of people, but the final decision is yours. You make it to the best of your ability, and then you take a stance on it. To trust oneself also means, to know oneself, to know when your own thought is sincere or when it is driven by anger or desire or by ego wanting to look better.
When you trust yourself like that, you can go forward without inner conflict, be spontaneously yourself without doubts, and create your own future. That's fulfilling your Dhamma. | **I do not know what is my Dhamma anymore**
Part of the dhamma says that all dhammas are *anatta* (dhammas are not "me", and not "mine").
So the question, with the word "my" in it, looks wrong to me. Here it is again without "my":
>
> *I do not know what is Dhamma anymore; Can anyone help?*
>
>
> Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
>
>
> From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha (although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
>
>
> From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path, then Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning. According to this definition I have not yet discovered Dhamma.
>
>
> From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
>
>
> In short, I have become confused about Dhamma. Can anyone help me realize Dhamma?
>
>
>
Like that, without "my", I'd understand it as asking about the Buddha's Dhamma (i.e. "I don't know what the *Buddha*'s teaching is", not "I don't know what *my* Dharma is"), which might be clearer. People can't easily tell you what *your* Dhamma is, they might try to explain the (Buddha's) Dhamma[s].
Some people see the Buddha's dharma is [being true now](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/q/5565/254) which is why it's worth learning.
---
**But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned.**
I think it's seen as:
* A reality, a truth, a property of existence, a description of the world-as-it-is
* Discovered or understood by the Buddha
* The Buddha understood is so well that he was able to teach it (some people may have been able to understand or practice it but without teaching it as well as the Buddha did)
So it *is* natural (a property of the world). And it *is* learned (taught by the Buddha).
**Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally.**
Being able to swim (in water) instead of drowning is maybe natural too, also an acquired skill ... not everyone can swim (though maybe every can learn to swim if they're taught and if they practice).
**Wny naturally one believes in Self?**
Now you're starting to ask about (specifically) anatta instead of (more generally) dhamma.
I think an answer might be that one maybe usually doesn't believe in Self -- many hours, many instants might occur without that belief -- but when the belief does occur ([for example](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/24803/254), "That cookie is mine!") then that belief is *dukkha* so it's better to not hold that view.
Also, remember the [Three poisons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Three_poisons): ignorance, delusion, confusion are blamed as a root cause. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Your Dhamma is to be yourself, obviously. To be yourself means to trust oneself. To trust oneself means, you can consult many books, and hear opinions of people, but the final decision is yours. You make it to the best of your ability, and then you take a stance on it. To trust oneself also means, to know oneself, to know when your own thought is sincere or when it is driven by anger or desire or by ego wanting to look better.
When you trust yourself like that, you can go forward without inner conflict, be spontaneously yourself without doubts, and create your own future. That's fulfilling your Dhamma. | >
> [What Is Natural?](http://sangham.net/index.php/topic,427.msg1031.html#msg1031)
>
>
> Claiming they want their practice to be "natural," some people complain that this way of life does not fit their nature.
>
>
> Nature is the tree in the forest. But if you build a house, it is no longer natural, is it? Yet if you learn to use the tree, making wood and building a house, it has more value to you. Or perhaps the dog is natural, running here and there, following its nose. Throw food to dogs and they rush to it, fighting each other. Is that what you want to be like?
>
>
> The true meaning of natural can be discovered with our discipline and practice. This natural is beyond our habits, our conditioning, our fears. If the human mind is left to so-called natural impulses, untrained, it is full of greed, hatred, and delusion and suffers accordingly. Yet through practice we can allow our wisdom and love to grow naturally until it blossoms in any surroundings.
>
>
>
To take refuge into the Three Gems means to seek refuge into the Buddha (Awakening and an Awakened), into his Dhamma (teaching and his advices to arrive there), and into the Sangha (those who followed him and practiced good, to have orientation on side).
When one sees the dangers in the world and comes to know someone knowing a way out, that is when one goes for refuge.
To take ones own ways of thoughts, ideas as refuge is normal, but as one could figure out, does as good as never leads out.
Only by taking refuge in the tripple gems and follow the advices, train one self, one might, by seeing the Dhamma for oneself, make it his own as well. From this point on, the way out has become naturally to that extend, that he is bound to reach the other shore within most seven existences.
Even then effort is the cause of reaching further paths and fruit and it goes all against the normal habits (the natural ones).
Beings take usually refuge in sign and eye, sound and ear, smell and nose, taste and tongue, touch and body, ideas and intelect. Buy since all of that is not real, not lasting, subject to decay, they are lost in their refuge, grasping after something without heartwood. Once seeing that this phenomenas are not real, one is open to see the unconditioned.
So it is said:
>
> [At Savatthi](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/tipitaka/sn/sn25/sn25.001.than_en.html). "Monks, the eye is inconstant, changeable, alterable. The ear... The nose... The tongue... The body... The mind is inconstant, changeable, alterable.
>
>
> "One who has conviction & belief that these phenomena are this way is called a faith-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who, after pondering with a modicum of discernment, has accepted that these phenomena are this way is called a Dhamma-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who knows and sees that these phenomena are this way is called a stream-enterer, steadfast, never again destined for states of woe, headed for self-awakening."
>
>
>
At this point your refuge grows firm and no more to slight far away. Nature, by given the cause for it, is now on your conductive side.
*[Note: This is a gift of Dhamma, not meant for commercial use or other lower wordily gains by ways of exchange or trade]* |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Natural does not necessarily mean wholesome or proper. If you interpret natural as something that happens easily in nature, a robber wanting to steal is natural. A hateful person wanting to kill is natural. A lustful person wanting to rape is natural. A dumb person thinking ignorant thoughts is also natural. An animal wanting to kill another animal is natural.
The Buddha never taught doing what naturally comes to the mind leads to end of suffering.
*“Ye dhamma hetuppa bhava
tesam hetum tathagato aha
tesanca yo nirodho
evam vadi maha samano.
”* -
The Tathagata has declared the cause and also the cessation of all phenomena which arise from a cause. This is the doctrine held by the Great Samana. | >
> [What Is Natural?](http://sangham.net/index.php/topic,427.msg1031.html#msg1031)
>
>
> Claiming they want their practice to be "natural," some people complain that this way of life does not fit their nature.
>
>
> Nature is the tree in the forest. But if you build a house, it is no longer natural, is it? Yet if you learn to use the tree, making wood and building a house, it has more value to you. Or perhaps the dog is natural, running here and there, following its nose. Throw food to dogs and they rush to it, fighting each other. Is that what you want to be like?
>
>
> The true meaning of natural can be discovered with our discipline and practice. This natural is beyond our habits, our conditioning, our fears. If the human mind is left to so-called natural impulses, untrained, it is full of greed, hatred, and delusion and suffers accordingly. Yet through practice we can allow our wisdom and love to grow naturally until it blossoms in any surroundings.
>
>
>
To take refuge into the Three Gems means to seek refuge into the Buddha (Awakening and an Awakened), into his Dhamma (teaching and his advices to arrive there), and into the Sangha (those who followed him and practiced good, to have orientation on side).
When one sees the dangers in the world and comes to know someone knowing a way out, that is when one goes for refuge.
To take ones own ways of thoughts, ideas as refuge is normal, but as one could figure out, does as good as never leads out.
Only by taking refuge in the tripple gems and follow the advices, train one self, one might, by seeing the Dhamma for oneself, make it his own as well. From this point on, the way out has become naturally to that extend, that he is bound to reach the other shore within most seven existences.
Even then effort is the cause of reaching further paths and fruit and it goes all against the normal habits (the natural ones).
Beings take usually refuge in sign and eye, sound and ear, smell and nose, taste and tongue, touch and body, ideas and intelect. Buy since all of that is not real, not lasting, subject to decay, they are lost in their refuge, grasping after something without heartwood. Once seeing that this phenomenas are not real, one is open to see the unconditioned.
So it is said:
>
> [At Savatthi](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/tipitaka/sn/sn25/sn25.001.than_en.html). "Monks, the eye is inconstant, changeable, alterable. The ear... The nose... The tongue... The body... The mind is inconstant, changeable, alterable.
>
>
> "One who has conviction & belief that these phenomena are this way is called a faith-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who, after pondering with a modicum of discernment, has accepted that these phenomena are this way is called a Dhamma-follower: one who has entered the orderliness of rightness, entered the plane of people of integrity, transcended the plane of the run-of-the-mill. He is incapable of doing any deed by which he might be reborn in hell, in the animal womb, or in the realm of hungry shades. He is incapable of passing away until he has realized the fruit of stream-entry.
>
>
> "One who knows and sees that these phenomena are this way is called a stream-enterer, steadfast, never again destined for states of woe, headed for self-awakening."
>
>
>
At this point your refuge grows firm and no more to slight far away. Nature, by given the cause for it, is now on your conductive side.
*[Note: This is a gift of Dhamma, not meant for commercial use or other lower wordily gains by ways of exchange or trade]* |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Following the Dhamma towards the end of suffering, is not doing the natural thing. It's actually doing what's opposite to what's natural. It's going against the current. What is natural is to follow cravings.
From [Itivuttaka 109](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/iti/iti.4.106-112x.irel.html#iti-109):
>
> "Suppose, bhikkhus, a man was being borne along by the current of a
> river that seemed pleasant and agreeable. But upon seeing him, a
> keen-sighted man standing on the bank would call out to him: 'Hey,
> good man! Although you are being borne along by the current of a river
> that seems pleasant and agreeable, lower down there is a pool with
> turbulent waves and swirling eddies, with monsters and demons. On
> reaching that pool you will die or suffer close to death.' Then,
> bhikkhus, upon hearing the words of that person, that man would
> struggle against the current with hands and feet.
>
>
> "I have made use of this simile, bhikkhus, to illustrate the meaning.
> And this is the meaning here: 'The current of the river' is a synonym
> for craving. 'Seeming pleasant and agreeable' is a synonym for the six
> internal sense-bases. 'The pool lower down' is a synonym for the five
> lower fetters. 'Turbulent waves' is a synonym for anger and
> frustration. 'Swirling eddies' is a synonym for the five strands of
> sensual pleasure. 'Monsters and demons' is a synonym for
> womenfolk (i.e. sexual attraction).
> 'Against the current' is a synonym for renunciation. 'Struggling with
> hands and feet' is a synonym for instigating energy. 'The keen-sighted
> man standing on the bank' is a synonym for the Tathagata, the Arahant,
> the Fully Enlightened One."
>
>
>
The Buddha recognized in the [Ayacana Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn06/sn06.001.than.html) that the masses who delight in attachment, excited by attachment and enjoy attachment, would not easily understand the Dhamma.
>
> "This Dhamma that I have attained is deep, hard to see, hard to
> realize, peaceful, refined, beyond the scope of conjecture, subtle,
> to-be-experienced by the wise. But this generation delights in
> attachment, is excited by attachment, enjoys attachment. For a
> generation delighting in attachment, excited by attachment, enjoying
> attachment, this/that conditionality and dependent co-arising are hard
> to see. This state, too, is hard to see: the resolution of all
> fabrications, the relinquishment of all acquisitions, the ending of
> craving; dispassion; cessation; Unbinding. And if I were to teach the
> Dhamma and if others would not understand me, that would be tiresome
> for me, troublesome for me."
>
>
>
We should not underestimate how "natural" it is for the masses to indulge in sensual pleasures. From the [Magandiya Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.075x.than.html):
>
> "Now suppose that there was a leper covered with sores & infections,
> devoured by worms, picking the scabs off the openings of his wounds
> with his nails, cauterizing his body over a pit of glowing embers. The
> more he cauterized his body over the pit of glowing embers, the more
> disgusting, foul-smelling, & putrid the openings of his wounds would
> become, and yet he would feel a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction
> because of the itchiness of his wounds. In the same way, beings not
> free from passion for sensual pleasures — devoured by sensual craving,
> burning with sensual fever — indulge in sensual pleasures. The more
> they indulge in sensual pleasures, the more their sensual craving
> increases and the more they burn with sensual fever, and yet they feel
> a modicum of enjoyment & satisfaction dependent on the five strings of
> sensuality.
>
>
>
[Ananda Sutta (SN22.83)](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn22.83) paraphrased [here](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/hecker/wheel273.html), tells that the self ("I am") is also very natural, as long as one clings to the five aggregates.
>
> If somebody should want to see his reflection or image, he could do so
> only through a cause, namely a mirror or a clear body of water. In the
> same way do the five aggregates reflect the image of "I am." As
> long as one depends on them and is supported by them, so long will an
> "I" be reflected. Only when one does not rely on them any longer, will
> the image of "I" disappear.
>
>
>
In the [Mallikaa Sutta](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/sn/sn03/sn03.008.wlsh.html), we find that another most natural thing is that the most dear person to oneself is oneself. So, it's also quite natural to be self-centered.
However, in general, people tend to feel an underlying sense of dissatisfaction, because despite pursuing pleasures, it never lasts, and ageing, disease, decay and death cannot be avoided. This sense of dissatisfaction, which is sensing suffering, is what drives some people to consider the Dhamma, and pursue the path that is not natural, going against the current of the river of samsara, towards the end of suffering.
What is my dhamma? I guess by that, you mean, what is my destiny?
By default, your "natural" destiny is to go along with the current of craving and clinging, on the river of samsara, towards the destination of suffering. It's up to you to decide to go against the current, and change your destiny, towards the end of suffering, which is on the stable river bank of Nirvana, where the Buddha stood.
In other words, instead of asking "what is my destiny?", you would have to ask "how can I change my destiny?", "how can I change my fate?".
Your dhamma is to decide your own destiny, for you are your own refuge, according to [Dhammapada 380](http://www.tipitaka.net/tipitaka/dhp/verseload.php?verse=379).
>
> [Dhp 160](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-160). One truly is the protector of oneself; who else could
> the protector be? With oneself fully controlled, one gains a mastery
> that is hard to gain.
>
>
> [Dhp 165](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.12.budd.html#dhp-165). By oneself is evil done; by oneself is one defiled. By
> oneself is evil left undone; by oneself is one made pure. Purity and
> impurity depend on oneself; no one can purify another.
>
>
> [Dhp 380](https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/kn/dhp/dhp.25.budd.html#dhp-380). One is one's own protector, one is one's own refuge.
> Therefore, one should control oneself, even as a trader controls a
> noble steed.
>
>
> | **I do not know what is my Dhamma anymore**
Part of the dhamma says that all dhammas are *anatta* (dhammas are not "me", and not "mine").
So the question, with the word "my" in it, looks wrong to me. Here it is again without "my":
>
> *I do not know what is Dhamma anymore; Can anyone help?*
>
>
> Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
>
>
> From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha (although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
>
>
> From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path, then Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning. According to this definition I have not yet discovered Dhamma.
>
>
> From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
>
>
> In short, I have become confused about Dhamma. Can anyone help me realize Dhamma?
>
>
>
Like that, without "my", I'd understand it as asking about the Buddha's Dhamma (i.e. "I don't know what the *Buddha*'s teaching is", not "I don't know what *my* Dharma is"), which might be clearer. People can't easily tell you what *your* Dhamma is, they might try to explain the (Buddha's) Dhamma[s].
Some people see the Buddha's dharma is [being true now](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/q/5565/254) which is why it's worth learning.
---
**But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned.**
I think it's seen as:
* A reality, a truth, a property of existence, a description of the world-as-it-is
* Discovered or understood by the Buddha
* The Buddha understood is so well that he was able to teach it (some people may have been able to understand or practice it but without teaching it as well as the Buddha did)
So it *is* natural (a property of the world). And it *is* learned (taught by the Buddha).
**Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally.**
Being able to swim (in water) instead of drowning is maybe natural too, also an acquired skill ... not everyone can swim (though maybe every can learn to swim if they're taught and if they practice).
**Wny naturally one believes in Self?**
Now you're starting to ask about (specifically) anatta instead of (more generally) dhamma.
I think an answer might be that one maybe usually doesn't believe in Self -- many hours, many instants might occur without that belief -- but when the belief does occur ([for example](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/24803/254), "That cookie is mine!") then that belief is *dukkha* so it's better to not hold that view.
Also, remember the [Three poisons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Three_poisons): ignorance, delusion, confusion are blamed as a root cause. |
24,809 | In my previous question I discussed [what is your Dhamma](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24684/what-is-your-dhamma) which some people interpreted as what is your religion or whether you are a Buddhist. Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha , Dhamma and Sangha(although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path then my Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning.According to this definition I have not yet discovered my Dhamma.
From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
In short , I have become confused about my Dhamma.
Can anyone help me realize my Dhamma? | 2018/01/21 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/24809",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/11541/"
] | Natural does not necessarily mean wholesome or proper. If you interpret natural as something that happens easily in nature, a robber wanting to steal is natural. A hateful person wanting to kill is natural. A lustful person wanting to rape is natural. A dumb person thinking ignorant thoughts is also natural. An animal wanting to kill another animal is natural.
The Buddha never taught doing what naturally comes to the mind leads to end of suffering.
*“Ye dhamma hetuppa bhava
tesam hetum tathagato aha
tesanca yo nirodho
evam vadi maha samano.
”* -
The Tathagata has declared the cause and also the cessation of all phenomena which arise from a cause. This is the doctrine held by the Great Samana. | **I do not know what is my Dhamma anymore**
Part of the dhamma says that all dhammas are *anatta* (dhammas are not "me", and not "mine").
So the question, with the word "my" in it, looks wrong to me. Here it is again without "my":
>
> *I do not know what is Dhamma anymore; Can anyone help?*
>
>
> Some people said one discovers Dhamma when one walks on the Noble Eightfold Path. Some people said Dhamma is how the Nature operates.
>
>
> From religion point of view I am no longer a true believer of Hinduism. I neither a Buddhist because I have not adopted the Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha (although I believe in the Buddha). I am neither a Christian or Muslim.
>
>
> From Eightfold Path view : I am not aware whether I am following the Eightfold Path. If I believe in Eightfold Path, then Dhamma becomes to follow the Eightfold Path. But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned. Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally. According to this theory Dhamma is discovered. And the discovery is Eightfold Path. It is discovered through learning. According to this definition I have not yet discovered Dhamma.
>
>
> From natural order of things point of view: If Dhamma is natural order of things then why do we find people who do opposite of what Buddha discovered as natural dhamma? Wny naturally one believes in Self? Clearly if Dhamma means teachings of Buddha then Dhamma is not something innately present all the time.
>
>
> In short, I have become confused about Dhamma. Can anyone help me realize Dhamma?
>
>
>
Like that, without "my", I'd understand it as asking about the Buddha's Dhamma (i.e. "I don't know what the *Buddha*'s teaching is", not "I don't know what *my* Dharma is"), which might be clearer. People can't easily tell you what *your* Dhamma is, they might try to explain the (Buddha's) Dhamma[s].
Some people see the Buddha's dharma is [being true now](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/q/5565/254) which is why it's worth learning.
---
**But this Dhamma is not something natural. It is learned.**
I think it's seen as:
* A reality, a truth, a property of existence, a description of the world-as-it-is
* Discovered or understood by the Buddha
* The Buddha understood is so well that he was able to teach it (some people may have been able to understand or practice it but without teaching it as well as the Buddha did)
So it *is* natural (a property of the world). And it *is* learned (taught by the Buddha).
**Not everyone walks on this Dhamma naturally.**
Being able to swim (in water) instead of drowning is maybe natural too, also an acquired skill ... not everyone can swim (though maybe every can learn to swim if they're taught and if they practice).
**Wny naturally one believes in Self?**
Now you're starting to ask about (specifically) anatta instead of (more generally) dhamma.
I think an answer might be that one maybe usually doesn't believe in Self -- many hours, many instants might occur without that belief -- but when the belief does occur ([for example](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/24803/254), "That cookie is mine!") then that belief is *dukkha* so it's better to not hold that view.
Also, remember the [Three poisons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Three_poisons): ignorance, delusion, confusion are blamed as a root cause. |
72,757 | So on the net (one forum) I stumbled upon [this](http://resonance.is/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/1367405491-Haramein342013PRRI3363.pdf), and article by Nassim Haramein. Now, I researched this guy a bit, and I couldn't find any peer reviewed article (other than this in 'Physical Review & Research International', which tbh I've never heard of before).
What he's saying is:
>
> We find an exact quantized expression of the Schwarzschild solution to
> Einstein’s field equations utilizing spherical Planck units in a
> generalized holographic approach.
>
>
>
I went a bit through the 'article', and the whole 'derivation' is kinda... lacking? All he did was make an assumption (replaced surface area Planck unit with his 'spherical Planck unit'), and made series of 'derivations' comparing to the actual data (he used Cygnus X-1 as a reference, but I saw no uncertainties in his data, which was a bit odd).
So is this another 'crackpot' who 'invented' (or better yet simplified) a pretty complex existing theory? I am currently studying the correspondence principle (Kerr/CFT to be precise), and this is rather complicated area with some complicated math behind it (topology, symmetries, etc.), so when I stumbled on this, my inner crackpot meter went kinda on, since I've seen these kind of 'discoveries' before (usually ppl who found a working perpetuum mobile :D).
I'm asking, because I know there are physicists here who are experts in the field of general relativity and the holographic principles, so they are more qualified to say if this is nonsense or not.
I think it kinda is... | 2013/07/30 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/72757",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/3416/"
] | 1. [RationalWiki:Nassim Haramein](http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Nassim_Haramein) say's he is a crank. I would not entirely discount their opinion.
2. But I have had a look into: 2005 Haramein- Crossing the Event Horizon which consists of 4 DVDs worth of explanation (presentation) behind his reasoning. And I have to say it's funky, but it makes sense. Have not totally grasped it yet, but it vibes with my view that I have come up and other sources which he also goes into in the above video.
The core his core statements are: our universe is fractal and everything is a black hole.
Teaser:
The beginning of his reasoning is:
1. Dimension 0: point - does not exist
2. Dimension 1: line, made up of points - does not exist
3. Dimension 2: plane, made up of lines - does not exist
4. Dimension 3: space, made up of 6 planes - does exist
How do you get something that exists out of something that does not exist? You don't unless everything is made up of dot's. Turtles - no - dot's all the way down and all the way up.
The rest is about how he tries to combine this with Einsteins field theory, ancient texts, the planck length, the infinite amount of energy in a cm^2 of space which has been normalized by physicists in order to not having to deal with infinity, et. al. Also that waves are actually vortices in 3d space instead of 2d waves and that "we" know this but do not depict this in our textbooks, because it's easier this way.
Also why the universum is expanding. And if one thing is expanding, something else must contract, but what? The lungs of God?
He posits that since everything is a black hole that sucks stuff in (information) but also radiates energy (Hawking Radiation), which also contains information, that what we see as stars and atoms etc. are all just the radiative sides of black holes and that we are living inside a black hole, that's why the night sky is black. Only the outsides of the other black holes that are outside of us radiate light or energy. | I read this paper and looked into 'Physical Review and Research International' as well. You may have never heard of it before because it has only existed for 2 years, providing a high level peer review process internationally. I even noticed referees from Cambridge, UC Berkeley, University of Melbourne, which are some of the top schools in the world. The journal also publicized the peer review correspondences to include Haramein's responses to each referee. Have you read these answers? They may provide a better understanding to the paper as a whole. It seems as though the simplicity appeared to you as shocking and therefore negating the profound implications entirely. I encourage you take a closer look.
<http://www.sciencedomain.org/review-history.php?iid=224&id=4&aid=1298> |
72,757 | So on the net (one forum) I stumbled upon [this](http://resonance.is/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/1367405491-Haramein342013PRRI3363.pdf), and article by Nassim Haramein. Now, I researched this guy a bit, and I couldn't find any peer reviewed article (other than this in 'Physical Review & Research International', which tbh I've never heard of before).
What he's saying is:
>
> We find an exact quantized expression of the Schwarzschild solution to
> Einstein’s field equations utilizing spherical Planck units in a
> generalized holographic approach.
>
>
>
I went a bit through the 'article', and the whole 'derivation' is kinda... lacking? All he did was make an assumption (replaced surface area Planck unit with his 'spherical Planck unit'), and made series of 'derivations' comparing to the actual data (he used Cygnus X-1 as a reference, but I saw no uncertainties in his data, which was a bit odd).
So is this another 'crackpot' who 'invented' (or better yet simplified) a pretty complex existing theory? I am currently studying the correspondence principle (Kerr/CFT to be precise), and this is rather complicated area with some complicated math behind it (topology, symmetries, etc.), so when I stumbled on this, my inner crackpot meter went kinda on, since I've seen these kind of 'discoveries' before (usually ppl who found a working perpetuum mobile :D).
I'm asking, because I know there are physicists here who are experts in the field of general relativity and the holographic principles, so they are more qualified to say if this is nonsense or not.
I think it kinda is... | 2013/07/30 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/72757",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/3416/"
] | One thing he mentions is space torque. This feature is not included in general relativity. However space torque exists in the form of van der Waals or Casimir stress, both theoretically and experimentally. One measurement is
>
> Somers, D.A.T., Garrett, J.L., Palm, K.J. et al. Measurement of the Casimir torque. Nature 564, 386–389 (2018). <https://doi.org/10.1038/s41586-018-0777-8>
>
>
> | I read this paper and looked into 'Physical Review and Research International' as well. You may have never heard of it before because it has only existed for 2 years, providing a high level peer review process internationally. I even noticed referees from Cambridge, UC Berkeley, University of Melbourne, which are some of the top schools in the world. The journal also publicized the peer review correspondences to include Haramein's responses to each referee. Have you read these answers? They may provide a better understanding to the paper as a whole. It seems as though the simplicity appeared to you as shocking and therefore negating the profound implications entirely. I encourage you take a closer look.
<http://www.sciencedomain.org/review-history.php?iid=224&id=4&aid=1298> |
72,757 | So on the net (one forum) I stumbled upon [this](http://resonance.is/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/1367405491-Haramein342013PRRI3363.pdf), and article by Nassim Haramein. Now, I researched this guy a bit, and I couldn't find any peer reviewed article (other than this in 'Physical Review & Research International', which tbh I've never heard of before).
What he's saying is:
>
> We find an exact quantized expression of the Schwarzschild solution to
> Einstein’s field equations utilizing spherical Planck units in a
> generalized holographic approach.
>
>
>
I went a bit through the 'article', and the whole 'derivation' is kinda... lacking? All he did was make an assumption (replaced surface area Planck unit with his 'spherical Planck unit'), and made series of 'derivations' comparing to the actual data (he used Cygnus X-1 as a reference, but I saw no uncertainties in his data, which was a bit odd).
So is this another 'crackpot' who 'invented' (or better yet simplified) a pretty complex existing theory? I am currently studying the correspondence principle (Kerr/CFT to be precise), and this is rather complicated area with some complicated math behind it (topology, symmetries, etc.), so when I stumbled on this, my inner crackpot meter went kinda on, since I've seen these kind of 'discoveries' before (usually ppl who found a working perpetuum mobile :D).
I'm asking, because I know there are physicists here who are experts in the field of general relativity and the holographic principles, so they are more qualified to say if this is nonsense or not.
I think it kinda is... | 2013/07/30 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/72757",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/3416/"
] | 1. [RationalWiki:Nassim Haramein](http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Nassim_Haramein) say's he is a crank. I would not entirely discount their opinion.
2. But I have had a look into: 2005 Haramein- Crossing the Event Horizon which consists of 4 DVDs worth of explanation (presentation) behind his reasoning. And I have to say it's funky, but it makes sense. Have not totally grasped it yet, but it vibes with my view that I have come up and other sources which he also goes into in the above video.
The core his core statements are: our universe is fractal and everything is a black hole.
Teaser:
The beginning of his reasoning is:
1. Dimension 0: point - does not exist
2. Dimension 1: line, made up of points - does not exist
3. Dimension 2: plane, made up of lines - does not exist
4. Dimension 3: space, made up of 6 planes - does exist
How do you get something that exists out of something that does not exist? You don't unless everything is made up of dot's. Turtles - no - dot's all the way down and all the way up.
The rest is about how he tries to combine this with Einsteins field theory, ancient texts, the planck length, the infinite amount of energy in a cm^2 of space which has been normalized by physicists in order to not having to deal with infinity, et. al. Also that waves are actually vortices in 3d space instead of 2d waves and that "we" know this but do not depict this in our textbooks, because it's easier this way.
Also why the universum is expanding. And if one thing is expanding, something else must contract, but what? The lungs of God?
He posits that since everything is a black hole that sucks stuff in (information) but also radiates energy (Hawking Radiation), which also contains information, that what we see as stars and atoms etc. are all just the radiative sides of black holes and that we are living inside a black hole, that's why the night sky is black. Only the outsides of the other black holes that are outside of us radiate light or energy. | Nassim Haramein may be an outsider in the physics community, but his paper is worth a serious look. Some of his definitions are a bit lacking, nevertheless, the results from his paper are quite thought provoking. It is worth noting his calculations, derived from simple geometric and algebraic methods, have accurately predicted the proton radius months before the most recent experimental measurement had been made public, in the journal "Nature".
The comment posted by dingo\_d refers to a review of the original manuscript, after which two revised copies were submitted. The final revision was deemed acceptable for publication. |
72,757 | So on the net (one forum) I stumbled upon [this](http://resonance.is/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/1367405491-Haramein342013PRRI3363.pdf), and article by Nassim Haramein. Now, I researched this guy a bit, and I couldn't find any peer reviewed article (other than this in 'Physical Review & Research International', which tbh I've never heard of before).
What he's saying is:
>
> We find an exact quantized expression of the Schwarzschild solution to
> Einstein’s field equations utilizing spherical Planck units in a
> generalized holographic approach.
>
>
>
I went a bit through the 'article', and the whole 'derivation' is kinda... lacking? All he did was make an assumption (replaced surface area Planck unit with his 'spherical Planck unit'), and made series of 'derivations' comparing to the actual data (he used Cygnus X-1 as a reference, but I saw no uncertainties in his data, which was a bit odd).
So is this another 'crackpot' who 'invented' (or better yet simplified) a pretty complex existing theory? I am currently studying the correspondence principle (Kerr/CFT to be precise), and this is rather complicated area with some complicated math behind it (topology, symmetries, etc.), so when I stumbled on this, my inner crackpot meter went kinda on, since I've seen these kind of 'discoveries' before (usually ppl who found a working perpetuum mobile :D).
I'm asking, because I know there are physicists here who are experts in the field of general relativity and the holographic principles, so they are more qualified to say if this is nonsense or not.
I think it kinda is... | 2013/07/30 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/72757",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/3416/"
] | One thing he mentions is space torque. This feature is not included in general relativity. However space torque exists in the form of van der Waals or Casimir stress, both theoretically and experimentally. One measurement is
>
> Somers, D.A.T., Garrett, J.L., Palm, K.J. et al. Measurement of the Casimir torque. Nature 564, 386–389 (2018). <https://doi.org/10.1038/s41586-018-0777-8>
>
>
> | Nassim Haramein may be an outsider in the physics community, but his paper is worth a serious look. Some of his definitions are a bit lacking, nevertheless, the results from his paper are quite thought provoking. It is worth noting his calculations, derived from simple geometric and algebraic methods, have accurately predicted the proton radius months before the most recent experimental measurement had been made public, in the journal "Nature".
The comment posted by dingo\_d refers to a review of the original manuscript, after which two revised copies were submitted. The final revision was deemed acceptable for publication. |
5,379,603 | I use codefirst and I release version 1.0 of my app.
Now I change a bunch of table stuff and I want to upgrade 1.0 db of my application with 2.0.
How is this situation typically handled in entity framework? | 2011/03/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5379603",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/118154/"
] | EF doesn't have anything built-in for generating diff scripts [yet]. EF can drop and recreate the DB but that is not really usable in the real world... ...they seem to have plans for db migrations, but I don't know when/if that will be available ( <http://blogs.msdn.com/b/efdesign/archive/2010/10/22/code-first-database-evolution-aka-migrations.aspx> ).
If you want to make incremental changes (add/drop tables, columns, constraints, indexes etc), you will have to write SQL scripts that applies the changes needed to go from your version 1 DB to your version 2 db. It can be a good idea to store a db "version number" somewhere in the database to make it easier to apply the right scripts when you have a number of different versions running out "in the wild".
Alternatively there are 3rd party tools that can generate incremental diff scripts ("alter table ... " etc) based on EDMX/db diffs, e.g. my 'Model Comparer' for EF4: <http://huagati.blogspot.com/2010/07/introducing-model-comparer-for-entity.html> | One alternative we are using is keep two entity framework model, one with old and one with new. And with help of reflection, you can create a migration algorithm that suites best.
Old EF model can be serialized to XML or any such format. And you can then drop and recreate database and deserialize your EF model from XML and put them back in new DB. However there seems little issue with inserting identity but it can be managed.
But this solution is only for small database for larger databases you will need more advanced solution. |
9,071 | I'm currently applying for summer coop work-term jobs. The school recruiter told me to include a section called "Academic Projects" or simply "Projects" on my resume. However, I didn't do any real programming projects so far from my previous semester, so I'm not sure I have anything to put here.
My school recruiter also told me that I can include my assignments. Unfortunately, the assignments I did so far seems pretty useless and I'm not sure if it will do more harm than good. One such assignment is a custom-made Java buffered reader that reads each line of a text file while skipping comments.
I do have a programming blog that I used for posting some code snippets, technology news and algorithms. It is not very active, though.
* Is it a good idea to mention my blog on my resume?
* How can I represent academic projects on my resume and still look professional if the projects were tiny? | 2013/01/22 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/9071",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7369/"
] | As someone who's hired a few interns, I like the idea - having a place I could quickly brief myself on a potential interns projects would be a real win for me, and not something I see on most college resumes - so kudos to the recruiter at your school for some useful advice!
I'll contradict the recruiter slightly with the thought that I certainly *don't* want to see any minor homework projects that are so small you can't really talk about them. My metric would be:
* absolutely highlight any year long or half year long work (ie, a project that transcended the semester) - typically these are either self-motivated, or part of a graduation requirement
* hit 1-2 projects if they are whole semester/term projects
* skip anything half a term or less in scope
If you have 1-3 bullets in this section, you're doing great. The idea here is to give the person you'll be speaking to enough meat to ask a decent question. If there's not enough to the project to warrant talking about it, then skip it. The things I like to see most are projects that involved:
* work so big you weren't quite sure how to break it down at first
* examples of team work where you can talk a bit about group dynamics
* work so big that you had some major hurdles part way through and had to overcome some interesting obstacles
* if you managed to prove/disprove something surprising or brand new - even better
That's the kind of thing I'll probably ask about as we do an interview, so having a quick reference to the project, it's length, it's goal, and maybe 1-2 key techologies or topics involved in it, is the most useful, since I can quickly learn the topics if they are new to me.
What if I don't have any?
-------------------------
Then skip it. Highlight coursework, prior experience and job history.
At least when I went to school, many sophomores hadn't gotten there yet. But many Juniors had. In looking for a tech degree, I'd advise any college student to try to take advantage of the opportunity to do such a project before Junior year, as it shows a depth that will absolutely help with internships. But often many programs can't really accommodate this sort of complex work until after basic coursework has been accomplished, and that may be after sophomore year is over... | It depends on what else you have in your resume, and what kind of job you are applying for.
Considering the extreme cases: if you have lots of other good work experience, and you are applying for a job where Java or programming experience is not relevant, don't include those in "Projects"; if you *don't have any work* experience, and you're applying for a Java programming job, then ... include the "Projects" section and give it the best spin you can.
In balance, though: Hiring managers like to see 'accomplishments' listed in their applicant's resumes. For students with no prior work experience though, the closest thing you may have is just class projects (1). So, pick out 2~3 'accomplishments', whether they be class-projects or otherwise, and use whatever sections you need to to fit those into your resume.
---
Note 1. Other common 'accomplishments' for students would be extra-curricular activities, awards, scholarships, research, volunteer work, summer jobs, on-campus jobs, etc. Just make sure you have a story about how you achieved them and how that demonstrates the skills/qualities/values/etc that the employer is looking for. |
21,870 | After getting my degree, I joined a software company and have worked there for the past two years. Due to family issues, and my father's declining health, I went back to my native land and was unemployed there for the past three years.
After that I joined as a contract employee at a software company for four years. Now I have a total of six years of experience.
My question: If I search for a new job, will that three-year gap affect my experience and desirability to potential employers?
Thank you!! | 2014/04/01 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21870",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/17670/"
] | You should be prepared to explain where you were and what you were doing during that time. However it seems like the bulk of your experience (four years) is recent and the gap only divides your other two years of employment.
It is common for people to take time for family or health matters. As long as you are honest with the company you apply to you should not be adversely effected.
I once participated in an interview for a software developer who had a eight year gap in their work history but had been back for the last four years. We asked a single question about it and they answered that they wanted to be home while their children were young. That person got the job, no other questions about the gap they had. | As a hiring software manager, this will not affect your desirability. Recent experience is the most important and if you've been working four years at your latest gig you may not even get a question about the gap.
If you do get a question about the gap (potentially just out of curiosity), just answer briefly and honestly. A sense of responsibility is admirable in a candidate. The only reason it would be probed more is if someone gets worried that you'd leave their company if something similar happens - but a) that's an unreasonable fear (all kinds of things come up that cause people to leave employment) and b) if they are worried about that it probably signals a very family-unfriendly work environment (those are out there, in software) and may be a signal to you whether that's a good place to work or not. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | As with any rule of thumb, it's a rough guideline. It's very unlikely that anyone is going to categorically reject an applicant if their first job lasted 18 months rather than 24 months. On the other hand, short stays (where "short stay" is highly dependent on the type of job, the location, the local norms, etc.) certainly don't look good to future employers since it makes future employers suspect that you'll be leaving the new job relatively quickly.
Depending on the type of job, it can also mean that you've missed out on certain aspects of the job. For example, since your profile indicates that you may be a developer, in software development, you generally need to be in a role for a few years before you're in a position that you're trying to support a bunch of code that you wrote long enough ego to have forgotten lots of the details where you really learn which shortcuts you kick yourself for taking and which frameworks you made way more complicated than they needed to be. That sort of feedback loop is an important part of the learning process for new developers. You sometimes hear people talk about folks that "got 1 year of experience 5 times" rather than getting 5 years of experience. They're often referring to people that didn't stick around long enough to really do a lot of support of code they wrote and who therefore didn't learn a lot of lessons that you would expect someone with 5 years of experience to have.
If you do decide to look for other opportunities, I'd suggest that you be careful to only accept a position that you're willing to stay in for a while. Most people are willing to overlook a single short stint (particularly where the employer is known to be problematic). If you accumulate two or three short stays, however, you're creating a pattern that future employers are unlikely to ignore. | If someone is willing to offer you a better job, then you should take it. However, you need to make sure your next position is better.
>
> unable to properly learn industry standard technologies,
>
>
>
Be a little more diligent during the interview process and ask questions not just about what they use, but why they use it. Do they offer training? What processes to they use and how will you know if they really follow them? Are there good mentors?
>
> and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused
> by poor management.
>
>
>
This is going to be difficult to make sure your next job doesn't have poor management or something else you're not able to cope with. Maybe there are some telltale signs you've discovered in this job that you can recognize in the next.
You should consider networking with other developers in your area and get some inside information on how various companies and teams operate. You may find that most have problems in one form or another, so why hinder your career by leaving a job too soon only to take another one that is just as bad. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | There are no true "rules" when it comes to jobs and job hunting. I left my first job out of school almost exactly 6 months after starting.
I felt the same as you. My position was very unfulfilling, involved managing the maintenance of equipment built before I was born. If felt that if I stayed, it would impact my future career prospects.
I ended up changing jobs and my career has not suffered at all. I even left the company I moved too after only 2 1/2 years, which led to a series of company/title changes due to my company constantly getting bought and sold (2 sales in 5+ years I was there). After 5 years in the same role though, I interviewed with a massive corporation that has very strict hiring policies, and I got the position. So despite the job/companies changes after 8 years of my career, I have not had any issues, nor have I ever been asked "why did you leave you first job after 6 months".
In short, frequently changing jobs can be a red flag, it usually will not be an issue if you show that you do not make a habit of it. Leaving 1 job (even if it is your first) after 18 months is not a significant problem, but if you change every job after 18 months, it could be an issue later in your career. | The problem is giving off the perception of someone who will likely ditch the job soon, for whatever reason. While you can usually explain the short stays during the interview, that's not much use if you don't even get invited to the interview due to the CV.
In your case it's perfectly fine to look for a new job. There are lots of bad jobs and everyone with some experience is aware of that.
**The problem comes after changing the job.** Now you've got one relatively short job on the CV, which isn't much of a problem. But if the new job sucks and you'll quit the new job or are let go after say 6 months, the combination of the 2 will look rather bad. If you stayed on for 2-3 years in the first job it's less likely that the 6 month job afterwards would be seen as a red flag. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | As with any rule of thumb, it's a rough guideline. It's very unlikely that anyone is going to categorically reject an applicant if their first job lasted 18 months rather than 24 months. On the other hand, short stays (where "short stay" is highly dependent on the type of job, the location, the local norms, etc.) certainly don't look good to future employers since it makes future employers suspect that you'll be leaving the new job relatively quickly.
Depending on the type of job, it can also mean that you've missed out on certain aspects of the job. For example, since your profile indicates that you may be a developer, in software development, you generally need to be in a role for a few years before you're in a position that you're trying to support a bunch of code that you wrote long enough ego to have forgotten lots of the details where you really learn which shortcuts you kick yourself for taking and which frameworks you made way more complicated than they needed to be. That sort of feedback loop is an important part of the learning process for new developers. You sometimes hear people talk about folks that "got 1 year of experience 5 times" rather than getting 5 years of experience. They're often referring to people that didn't stick around long enough to really do a lot of support of code they wrote and who therefore didn't learn a lot of lessons that you would expect someone with 5 years of experience to have.
If you do decide to look for other opportunities, I'd suggest that you be careful to only accept a position that you're willing to stay in for a while. Most people are willing to overlook a single short stint (particularly where the employer is known to be problematic). If you accumulate two or three short stays, however, you're creating a pattern that future employers are unlikely to ignore. | There are no true "rules" when it comes to jobs and job hunting. I left my first job out of school almost exactly 6 months after starting.
I felt the same as you. My position was very unfulfilling, involved managing the maintenance of equipment built before I was born. If felt that if I stayed, it would impact my future career prospects.
I ended up changing jobs and my career has not suffered at all. I even left the company I moved too after only 2 1/2 years, which led to a series of company/title changes due to my company constantly getting bought and sold (2 sales in 5+ years I was there). After 5 years in the same role though, I interviewed with a massive corporation that has very strict hiring policies, and I got the position. So despite the job/companies changes after 8 years of my career, I have not had any issues, nor have I ever been asked "why did you leave you first job after 6 months".
In short, frequently changing jobs can be a red flag, it usually will not be an issue if you show that you do not make a habit of it. Leaving 1 job (even if it is your first) after 18 months is not a significant problem, but if you change every job after 18 months, it could be an issue later in your career. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | As with any rule of thumb, it's a rough guideline. It's very unlikely that anyone is going to categorically reject an applicant if their first job lasted 18 months rather than 24 months. On the other hand, short stays (where "short stay" is highly dependent on the type of job, the location, the local norms, etc.) certainly don't look good to future employers since it makes future employers suspect that you'll be leaving the new job relatively quickly.
Depending on the type of job, it can also mean that you've missed out on certain aspects of the job. For example, since your profile indicates that you may be a developer, in software development, you generally need to be in a role for a few years before you're in a position that you're trying to support a bunch of code that you wrote long enough ego to have forgotten lots of the details where you really learn which shortcuts you kick yourself for taking and which frameworks you made way more complicated than they needed to be. That sort of feedback loop is an important part of the learning process for new developers. You sometimes hear people talk about folks that "got 1 year of experience 5 times" rather than getting 5 years of experience. They're often referring to people that didn't stick around long enough to really do a lot of support of code they wrote and who therefore didn't learn a lot of lessons that you would expect someone with 5 years of experience to have.
If you do decide to look for other opportunities, I'd suggest that you be careful to only accept a position that you're willing to stay in for a while. Most people are willing to overlook a single short stint (particularly where the employer is known to be problematic). If you accumulate two or three short stays, however, you're creating a pattern that future employers are unlikely to ignore. | Some context: I'm building out a software development team right now, and I've rejected almost every candidate thus far. I've spent my entire career in the US.
I think it depends on the nature of the transition. If you go from "Software Engineer" to "Software Engineer" at a different company in a short span of time, that would raise the possibility of "job hopping" to me and I would ask about it. It wouldn't be an immediate disqualification in my mind, and a well-considered explanation would make me think no more of it. Some jobs just don't work out. Some jobs will use really underhanded tactics to get you on board, and then abuse you or just provide terrible work/environment.
However, if you're taking an obvious step up then I would completely ignore the short period of time at the prior job. My first job was a miserable one at a biotech startup, where I had a position much below my qualifications. I left that job less than a year later for a much more technical and satisfying job. It didn't cause any problems then, and to my knowledge it hasn't caused me any difficulties in finding new employment. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | If someone is willing to offer you a better job, then you should take it. However, you need to make sure your next position is better.
>
> unable to properly learn industry standard technologies,
>
>
>
Be a little more diligent during the interview process and ask questions not just about what they use, but why they use it. Do they offer training? What processes to they use and how will you know if they really follow them? Are there good mentors?
>
> and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused
> by poor management.
>
>
>
This is going to be difficult to make sure your next job doesn't have poor management or something else you're not able to cope with. Maybe there are some telltale signs you've discovered in this job that you can recognize in the next.
You should consider networking with other developers in your area and get some inside information on how various companies and teams operate. You may find that most have problems in one form or another, so why hinder your career by leaving a job too soon only to take another one that is just as bad. | Don't worry about it. If you receive an attractive offer take it. Lots of people are unhappy in their first job. But be careful not to just jump from one position to the next one that is slightly more attractive. Think about what you want and try to find a position that matches. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | As with any rule of thumb, it's a rough guideline. It's very unlikely that anyone is going to categorically reject an applicant if their first job lasted 18 months rather than 24 months. On the other hand, short stays (where "short stay" is highly dependent on the type of job, the location, the local norms, etc.) certainly don't look good to future employers since it makes future employers suspect that you'll be leaving the new job relatively quickly.
Depending on the type of job, it can also mean that you've missed out on certain aspects of the job. For example, since your profile indicates that you may be a developer, in software development, you generally need to be in a role for a few years before you're in a position that you're trying to support a bunch of code that you wrote long enough ego to have forgotten lots of the details where you really learn which shortcuts you kick yourself for taking and which frameworks you made way more complicated than they needed to be. That sort of feedback loop is an important part of the learning process for new developers. You sometimes hear people talk about folks that "got 1 year of experience 5 times" rather than getting 5 years of experience. They're often referring to people that didn't stick around long enough to really do a lot of support of code they wrote and who therefore didn't learn a lot of lessons that you would expect someone with 5 years of experience to have.
If you do decide to look for other opportunities, I'd suggest that you be careful to only accept a position that you're willing to stay in for a while. Most people are willing to overlook a single short stint (particularly where the employer is known to be problematic). If you accumulate two or three short stays, however, you're creating a pattern that future employers are unlikely to ignore. | The problem is giving off the perception of someone who will likely ditch the job soon, for whatever reason. While you can usually explain the short stays during the interview, that's not much use if you don't even get invited to the interview due to the CV.
In your case it's perfectly fine to look for a new job. There are lots of bad jobs and everyone with some experience is aware of that.
**The problem comes after changing the job.** Now you've got one relatively short job on the CV, which isn't much of a problem. But if the new job sucks and you'll quit the new job or are let go after say 6 months, the combination of the 2 will look rather bad. If you stayed on for 2-3 years in the first job it's less likely that the 6 month job afterwards would be seen as a red flag. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | The problem is giving off the perception of someone who will likely ditch the job soon, for whatever reason. While you can usually explain the short stays during the interview, that's not much use if you don't even get invited to the interview due to the CV.
In your case it's perfectly fine to look for a new job. There are lots of bad jobs and everyone with some experience is aware of that.
**The problem comes after changing the job.** Now you've got one relatively short job on the CV, which isn't much of a problem. But if the new job sucks and you'll quit the new job or are let go after say 6 months, the combination of the 2 will look rather bad. If you stayed on for 2-3 years in the first job it's less likely that the 6 month job afterwards would be seen as a red flag. | Don't worry about it. If you receive an attractive offer take it. Lots of people are unhappy in their first job. But be careful not to just jump from one position to the next one that is slightly more attractive. Think about what you want and try to find a position that matches. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | Some context: I'm building out a software development team right now, and I've rejected almost every candidate thus far. I've spent my entire career in the US.
I think it depends on the nature of the transition. If you go from "Software Engineer" to "Software Engineer" at a different company in a short span of time, that would raise the possibility of "job hopping" to me and I would ask about it. It wouldn't be an immediate disqualification in my mind, and a well-considered explanation would make me think no more of it. Some jobs just don't work out. Some jobs will use really underhanded tactics to get you on board, and then abuse you or just provide terrible work/environment.
However, if you're taking an obvious step up then I would completely ignore the short period of time at the prior job. My first job was a miserable one at a biotech startup, where I had a position much below my qualifications. I left that job less than a year later for a much more technical and satisfying job. It didn't cause any problems then, and to my knowledge it hasn't caused me any difficulties in finding new employment. | Don't worry about it. If you receive an attractive offer take it. Lots of people are unhappy in their first job. But be careful not to just jump from one position to the next one that is slightly more attractive. Think about what you want and try to find a position that matches. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | There are no true "rules" when it comes to jobs and job hunting. I left my first job out of school almost exactly 6 months after starting.
I felt the same as you. My position was very unfulfilling, involved managing the maintenance of equipment built before I was born. If felt that if I stayed, it would impact my future career prospects.
I ended up changing jobs and my career has not suffered at all. I even left the company I moved too after only 2 1/2 years, which led to a series of company/title changes due to my company constantly getting bought and sold (2 sales in 5+ years I was there). After 5 years in the same role though, I interviewed with a massive corporation that has very strict hiring policies, and I got the position. So despite the job/companies changes after 8 years of my career, I have not had any issues, nor have I ever been asked "why did you leave you first job after 6 months".
In short, frequently changing jobs can be a red flag, it usually will not be an issue if you show that you do not make a habit of it. Leaving 1 job (even if it is your first) after 18 months is not a significant problem, but if you change every job after 18 months, it could be an issue later in your career. | If someone is willing to offer you a better job, then you should take it. However, you need to make sure your next position is better.
>
> unable to properly learn industry standard technologies,
>
>
>
Be a little more diligent during the interview process and ask questions not just about what they use, but why they use it. Do they offer training? What processes to they use and how will you know if they really follow them? Are there good mentors?
>
> and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused
> by poor management.
>
>
>
This is going to be difficult to make sure your next job doesn't have poor management or something else you're not able to cope with. Maybe there are some telltale signs you've discovered in this job that you can recognize in the next.
You should consider networking with other developers in your area and get some inside information on how various companies and teams operate. You may find that most have problems in one form or another, so why hinder your career by leaving a job too soon only to take another one that is just as bad. |
54,635 | After graduating from university in the UK, I have heard multiple careers advisors say that it is inadvisable to leave your first career role before you have gained at least two years experience.
However I feel my current role is currently holding back my career progress as I am unable to properly learn industry standard technologies, and is affecting my health due to unbearable amount of stress caused by poor management.
I have worked nearly a year and a half at this company but it is still my first career job. Will this look bad to future employers? I work in a sector that currently has lots of job opportunities. | 2015/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/54635",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/27054/"
] | There are no true "rules" when it comes to jobs and job hunting. I left my first job out of school almost exactly 6 months after starting.
I felt the same as you. My position was very unfulfilling, involved managing the maintenance of equipment built before I was born. If felt that if I stayed, it would impact my future career prospects.
I ended up changing jobs and my career has not suffered at all. I even left the company I moved too after only 2 1/2 years, which led to a series of company/title changes due to my company constantly getting bought and sold (2 sales in 5+ years I was there). After 5 years in the same role though, I interviewed with a massive corporation that has very strict hiring policies, and I got the position. So despite the job/companies changes after 8 years of my career, I have not had any issues, nor have I ever been asked "why did you leave you first job after 6 months".
In short, frequently changing jobs can be a red flag, it usually will not be an issue if you show that you do not make a habit of it. Leaving 1 job (even if it is your first) after 18 months is not a significant problem, but if you change every job after 18 months, it could be an issue later in your career. | Don't worry about it. If you receive an attractive offer take it. Lots of people are unhappy in their first job. But be careful not to just jump from one position to the next one that is slightly more attractive. Think about what you want and try to find a position that matches. |
56,945,695 | I am developing a Student Self Assessment Application using HTML&JSP for UI...I have a question bank page where the admin can login and pre populate the Questions & Answers. Students will be provided with these Questions to answer....
It is required that the admin should be able to enter both text and image as input for Questions in the Questions TextBox....Because topics like maths,physics include small figures & diagrams in Question & solution part....
Is there any element / Script / Plugin available to handle this scenario.... | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/56945695",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4696950/"
] | I think CKeditor is what you are looking For [Go Here](https://ckeditor.com/) And Take A look. | Usual text input and textarea doesn't support image input, but you can add separate image input (type="file").
Step 1: add onchange on the file input and take event
Step 2: create a link from event - URL.createObjectURL(event.target.files[0])
Step 3: create img tag with a src={link above} to show it right after changing
Step 4: after sending form-data request, create image URL in the back-end
Step 5: after getting data from the back-end just show your text with an image below. |
56,945,695 | I am developing a Student Self Assessment Application using HTML&JSP for UI...I have a question bank page where the admin can login and pre populate the Questions & Answers. Students will be provided with these Questions to answer....
It is required that the admin should be able to enter both text and image as input for Questions in the Questions TextBox....Because topics like maths,physics include small figures & diagrams in Question & solution part....
Is there any element / Script / Plugin available to handle this scenario.... | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/56945695",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4696950/"
] | I think CKeditor is what you are looking For [Go Here](https://ckeditor.com/) And Take A look. | Another alternative is TinyMCE
<https://www.tiny.cloud/>
[Check out a demo](https://www.tiny.cloud/docs/demo/basic-example/)
[Here is image integration](https://www.tiny.cloud/docs/demo/image-tools/) which may potentially require a paid license if you can't host your own version |
276,596 | I have a function that uses information from a config file. How do I test the function? Ideally, I'd want to inject my own version of the config file and test from there, but I'm not using dependency injection. | 2015/03/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/276596",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/62683/"
] | You have to write a test that works independent of the config file, so you can test that depending on the "simulated configuration" the output of the function or behavior of that function is correct.
You would need to inject the configuration file, or the value that you are trying to simulate on your function under test. This is the only way to guarantee that whenever you have that value, your function behavior is the indicated by the configuration file.
Ideally, you would also isolate the class that contains and dictates the behavior of the configuration file to the class/function that reads this file. When writing testing one of the goals should be isolation of the code under test. | Depends on how you load data from your config file.
Ideally, write your program to be easily testable and reduce unnecessary dependencies. So make sure that if you change the location or format of your config file, that this affects as little code as possible. Then make sure that code can also deal with the testing.
If you have a single object or class or file or set of functions that deal(s) with the loading from the config file, change that so it can take a different config file or even just stub variables programmatically without needing a config file.
If you load the config file in multiple places and its path is hardcoded, it's a bit more difficult (you're also in a not so ideal situation). You could try to:
1. Before the test, save your actual config file to a different location (config.back or something)
2. Create a new config file with the values you want
3. After the test, delete your newly created config file and restore the old one. Make sure to take exceptions into account!
If you just define a bunch of values in a python file and that is your config, refactor: adapt your config file so that you can change which values it returns. For example, you could create a bunch of functions to return your config values that default to your hardcoded config, but could be edited for a test program. |
276,596 | I have a function that uses information from a config file. How do I test the function? Ideally, I'd want to inject my own version of the config file and test from there, but I'm not using dependency injection. | 2015/03/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/276596",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/62683/"
] | You have to write a test that works independent of the config file, so you can test that depending on the "simulated configuration" the output of the function or behavior of that function is correct.
You would need to inject the configuration file, or the value that you are trying to simulate on your function under test. This is the only way to guarantee that whenever you have that value, your function behavior is the indicated by the configuration file.
Ideally, you would also isolate the class that contains and dictates the behavior of the configuration file to the class/function that reads this file. When writing testing one of the goals should be isolation of the code under test. | Well, dependency injection comes to mind as a default sort of *boxed approach* to config testing.
However, there are other ways, specifically designing your code to eliminate the dependency on config file all together.
You can find more details in [a canonical example of dependency elimination](http://qualityisspeed.blogspot.com/2015/02/the-dependency-elimination-principle-a-canonical-example.html) by Brian Geihsler that talks specifically about config files. |
276,596 | I have a function that uses information from a config file. How do I test the function? Ideally, I'd want to inject my own version of the config file and test from there, but I'm not using dependency injection. | 2015/03/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/276596",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/62683/"
] | Depends on how you load data from your config file.
Ideally, write your program to be easily testable and reduce unnecessary dependencies. So make sure that if you change the location or format of your config file, that this affects as little code as possible. Then make sure that code can also deal with the testing.
If you have a single object or class or file or set of functions that deal(s) with the loading from the config file, change that so it can take a different config file or even just stub variables programmatically without needing a config file.
If you load the config file in multiple places and its path is hardcoded, it's a bit more difficult (you're also in a not so ideal situation). You could try to:
1. Before the test, save your actual config file to a different location (config.back or something)
2. Create a new config file with the values you want
3. After the test, delete your newly created config file and restore the old one. Make sure to take exceptions into account!
If you just define a bunch of values in a python file and that is your config, refactor: adapt your config file so that you can change which values it returns. For example, you could create a bunch of functions to return your config values that default to your hardcoded config, but could be edited for a test program. | Well, dependency injection comes to mind as a default sort of *boxed approach* to config testing.
However, there are other ways, specifically designing your code to eliminate the dependency on config file all together.
You can find more details in [a canonical example of dependency elimination](http://qualityisspeed.blogspot.com/2015/02/the-dependency-elimination-principle-a-canonical-example.html) by Brian Geihsler that talks specifically about config files. |
167,361 | We had a HydroRight in the toilet for several years (with the split, dual flush handle) and all of a sudden, water began trickling into the bowl, and the tank would refill every 10-15 minutes, which would take just a few seconds.
I thought maybe there was a rebuild kit for the HydroRight so I could replace some seals, but didn't find one. So, instead I bought all new internals, but this time a Fluidmaster Dual Flush. This one came with the angled adapter to change the bottom mounting point of the overflow tube from an angle to being level, onto which the complex flushing mechanism fit.
The toilet still had the same problem. It seemed to me that the leak must have been where the flushing mechanism attaches to bottom of the overflow tube. The new one attached via what I believe is plumber's putty. I thought maybe I hadn't cleaned the ring adequately where contact occurs or maybe didn't dry it well enough, so I took it apart, and threw away the putty that came with the Fluidmaster. I bought new plumber's putty (which is a very different consistency from what came on the Fluidmaster adapter), rolled it out, and, after cleaning the adapter and the contact point at the bottom (where the flapper would normally touch) very thoroughly and letting them dry, applied the putty to the adapter, then pushed it firmly into place. Then, I shoved the Fluidmaster flushing mechanism back into place on top of that adapter.
Just to be clear, when I cleaned the contact point at the bottom of the overflow tube, I observed that it appeared to be smooth, undamaged, and in perfect shape. I would've expected a good seal.
Still leaks. No idea what to try next. Suggestions? | 2019/06/16 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/167361",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/34196/"
] | It looks like you might have installed the valve too deep in the wall.
The tile goes behind the silver escutcheon and up to the gray plastic circle that you can see from behind.
Usually the face of the gray circle template is at the same plane as the face of the finished tile. What kind of rough in valve is that? We can look at the instructions and it'll say.
The round hole in your backer board isn't too big, that won't be a problem. The problem looks like you recessed the valve too far into the wall, and now the tile won't slide in between the silver escutcheon and the backer board. | That is not how it works and the trim goes over the tile for leaks and the tile installation would be easier. |
2,114 | Recently, a lawyer told me that if my company makes a product (in my case an electronic board) like another **patented product** on the market, but my product adds functionality to the original product, then my product would automatically be a “utility model” and not violate any patents.
But I read online that a utility model is itself a patent. And now I'm a little confused.
**What is the real difference between a patent and an utility model?**
Can my utility model can be replaced by another utility model?
>
> My jurisdiction is Italy but the patented product may be protected by
> patents in other countries including US.
>
>
> | 2013/01/06 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/2114",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/2041/"
] | The potpourri.
The patent claims potpourri as an element of the invention. In other words, in order to be anticipating prior art to the claims of this patent, the items you're thinking of would have to include potpourri and would also have to be in the shape of a fruit, vegetable, nut, tree, animal, sea creature, reptile, or star. (Kind of a ridiculous utility patent, imho, but there you go.) | Ah. I am confused then, because claims 10 through 20 of the patent all say decorative items rather than potpourri and define the item as a decorative holder, no longer just a potpourri holder. You are saying these claims listed are actually an abstract? Sorry if I'm missing something obvious here. |
49,279,713 | First, new to creating Bots so please be patient.
I created a KB using QnAMaker. Created new Bot in Azure Bot Service. New bot was created using Template for QnA. Followed the steps below per documentation:
>
> In Azure portal, open the newly created Web App Bot resource.
> Click on "Application Settings" and in the App Settings list, add QnASubscriptionKey and QnAKnowledgebaseId. The corresponding values can be obtained from the KB Settings page in <http://qnamaker.ai>.
> The QnAMaker-enabled Azure bot service app is now ready to use. To try it out click on "Test in Web Chat" to chat with your QnA bot.
>
>
>
**Test in Web Chat does not respond**
Also created new App, using Basic template. Made to other updates. Test in We Chat does send a response.
Again, new to the process but have read a great deal of documentation but nothing that speaks to this issue specifically. Any help would be greatly appreciated. | 2018/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49279713",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9491401/"
] | I created a QnAMaker bot this weekend with Bot Service. The documentation is a little confusing at the moment, although Microsoft generally refines it over time until it's quite good. Here's what I did to get this going.
1. Provisioned a QnAMaker service at qnamaker.ai. I created a knowledge base, saved and retrained, and published. To make sure everything is good on the QnAMaker service, go to the Test tab (<https://qnamaker.ai/Edit/Test?kbId=:your-service-id> to make sure you can chat with it and it responds as expected.
2. Created a new Web App bot by going to the portal, clicking "Create a resource", choosing "AI + Cognitive Services", then "Web App Bot".
3. When entering the Web App Bot settings, I made sure to choose a Basic C# bot, and chose the "Question and Answer".
4. Once you provision the Web App Bot service, you'll also have a Web App provisioned as well. You'll need to create a web application that will answer requests from the web, hand them to your QnAMaker service, and return the results. Navigate to your Web App Bot service, then choose the Build menu option under Bot Management. Then Download the zip file containing your starter code.
5. Open the starter code. You'll need to add some keys to your web.config file. Make sure that you have keys for the following, and that they're populated: MicrosoftAppId, MicrosoftAppPassword, QnaSubscriptionKey, QnAKnowledgebaseId, and AzureWebJobsStorage. If memory serves, these values are read within the code, but there's no empty stubs in the web.config that prompts you to enter them. This was a little frustrating.
6. After updating web.config, publish the web app to your Azure Web App instance associated with your bot.
7. Now go back to your Web App Bot in the portal. Under Bot Management, go to the Settings page. You're going to need to enter in the Messaging endpoint so that your bot service knows where to send HTTP requests to your web app, which will in turn talk to your QnAMaker service. In this example project, your messaging endpoint should be <https://[web> app name].azurewebsites.net/api/messages.
NOW you're ready to Test in Web Chat. Everything should link up then. | I had this issue just now. It was caused by having extraneous data at the end of my QNA service key, something like (format=json) which somehow ended up after the key. I suggest you re-copy and paste the knowledgebase id and key into the fields and make sure they are the correct length with no garbage.
Apart from not returning responses it gave no other clue as to what might be wrong. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | Civilization is the inevitable result of agriculture: people needed to band together in a fixed location to protect their crops before and after harvest, and they need written records to track who owns what.
This happened on our Earth about ten thousand years ago in three places roughly simultaneously: Central America (corn), the Middle East (wheat) and the Far East (rice). As those early civilizations grew, they spread north and south in search of more land for their crops—and discovered other crops to farm in the more temperate climates.
Within about four thousand years, most habitable regions of Earth were "civilized". Since there was no more free land, continued population growth (also a result of agriculture) resulted in wars to take existing farmland from others, and empires were born.
(Notice that Creation is usually placed somewhere between those two bounds, depending on when each civilization was founded and thus the start of their historical records.)
On a larger planet, agriculture will likely be discovered at more longitudes, but there will be more latitude for civilization to travel (assuming a similar ratio of land to sea), resulting in a slightly longer spread from each origin. That might be easier, though, since the climate should vary more slowly, and maybe (handwave) that cancels out.
Empires depend on the speed of communication and armies, so at least prior to industrialization, they would probably be similar in absolute size to our historical ones. Once you have mechanized travel and electronic communication, though, all bets are off. OTOH, more people means technology should progress much faster, so they may not have spent as long in the pre-industrial era as we did. | I always wonder why people ended up in Australia 50,000 years ago, when the world was almost empty. If Australia had been 5.8 times further away from the cradle in North Africa I'm sure humankind would have ended up there all the same. Not because scarcity dictated it but because they could.
Sedentarism was not driven by the first agriculturers being crowded out of the hunter-gatherer civilization. European states colonized because they could, not because they needed to. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | Yes and no, and possibly "it depends on what you mean by "civilization".
As L. Dutch already noted, *technological* development is more a function of available resources and population density.
On the one hand, it's quite believable that population density could increase at least as quickly as on our Earth, and indeed, perhaps faster given how much more real estate is available.
On the other hand, it's not entirely unreasonable to believe that people would tend to spread out more given the available space, which could lead to less socializing in general, towns and cities being slower to develop, etc. Also, even if this doesn't happen on a global scale, it's possible that globalization will be slower, that you'll have e.g. Europe with the technology level of today while Asia still doesn't have electricity.
In particular, note that your *oceans* are 5.8x as big, which makes them *significantly* harder to cross. There is a very real chance that Columbus did not "discover" the New World and South America was never exposed to Europeans. It's even possible that Vikings never found it either. (We'll probably still get there, though, but across either the Bering Strait or the island chain between Russia and Alaska.)
By the era of steam ships, "the West" should be accessible, but that's a *big* ocean to fly across. If you think trans-Atlantic flights are brutal in our world, *flying* from Europe to America takes days. ***Days***. And you have to stop multiple times to refuel. Iceland and possibly Greenland are ***huge*** transportation hubs. That, or no one even *tries* to cross the Atlantic ocean. (To put this in perspective, crossing the Atlantic in your world is on par with *circumnavigating the entire planet* in our world. Keep in mind there is nowhere to stop while you're doing this; you have to carry all your food/water/fuel with you. Crossing the *Pacific*? Australia to South America? Circumnavigating our world *twice*. Prior to the Space Age, there's a very real chance that the Pacific is still labeled "here be dragons"... and if dragons are dinosaurs, that label might even be *correct*.)
Hawaii is of particular note. It's pretty remote already, and shipping stuff there isn't cheap. In your world, it's quite possible that, if it's inhabited *at all*, they have to make do almost entirely off their own resources.
---
[Clearer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/2229) points out that humanity is believed to have started in the vicinity of what is now Kenya, an area not historically known for civil or technological development. It is, however, in the more hospitable part of Africa, from which one would expect humans to at least find Lake Victoria. Having accomplished as much, Lake Edward / Lake Albert are only (in your world) another 200-300 miles away, at which point you're on the upper bits of the Nile and can expect people to find Egypt and the Mediterranean... which *are* known for developing the earliest civilizations. Accordingly, you might be looking at a longer period before the *start* of civilization, but once those regions are settled, all the other information / answers apply. | I would imagine a slower pace in the beginning but later it would catch up very quickly and then exceed our current earth by far.
In the initial stone age, more available land to keep surviving with a hunter / gatherer lifestyle means less incentive to develop agriculture.
Later as agriculture is discovered, more available land means longer time until sufficient population density is reached to have large cities.
Once you reach the Renaissance era, the pace would still be slower because the larger oceans are harder / impossible to travel.
However eventually they would reach the industrial age, possibly much later but I see no reason why they wouldn't eventually get there as conflicts / trade drive knowledge forward.
I d say that once that giant earth reaches the industrial age, growth would be much faster.
They would zip past the current age much faster, with way more intense globalization and sheer higher number of researchers boosting research to levels way above ours.
Imagine where we would be if earth population was 40 billion instead 10B. We d already have cured cancer, mastered cold fusion, travelled to Mars etc.. with 5.8x ressources poured into R&D |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | Yes and no, and possibly "it depends on what you mean by "civilization".
As L. Dutch already noted, *technological* development is more a function of available resources and population density.
On the one hand, it's quite believable that population density could increase at least as quickly as on our Earth, and indeed, perhaps faster given how much more real estate is available.
On the other hand, it's not entirely unreasonable to believe that people would tend to spread out more given the available space, which could lead to less socializing in general, towns and cities being slower to develop, etc. Also, even if this doesn't happen on a global scale, it's possible that globalization will be slower, that you'll have e.g. Europe with the technology level of today while Asia still doesn't have electricity.
In particular, note that your *oceans* are 5.8x as big, which makes them *significantly* harder to cross. There is a very real chance that Columbus did not "discover" the New World and South America was never exposed to Europeans. It's even possible that Vikings never found it either. (We'll probably still get there, though, but across either the Bering Strait or the island chain between Russia and Alaska.)
By the era of steam ships, "the West" should be accessible, but that's a *big* ocean to fly across. If you think trans-Atlantic flights are brutal in our world, *flying* from Europe to America takes days. ***Days***. And you have to stop multiple times to refuel. Iceland and possibly Greenland are ***huge*** transportation hubs. That, or no one even *tries* to cross the Atlantic ocean. (To put this in perspective, crossing the Atlantic in your world is on par with *circumnavigating the entire planet* in our world. Keep in mind there is nowhere to stop while you're doing this; you have to carry all your food/water/fuel with you. Crossing the *Pacific*? Australia to South America? Circumnavigating our world *twice*. Prior to the Space Age, there's a very real chance that the Pacific is still labeled "here be dragons"... and if dragons are dinosaurs, that label might even be *correct*.)
Hawaii is of particular note. It's pretty remote already, and shipping stuff there isn't cheap. In your world, it's quite possible that, if it's inhabited *at all*, they have to make do almost entirely off their own resources.
---
[Clearer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/2229) points out that humanity is believed to have started in the vicinity of what is now Kenya, an area not historically known for civil or technological development. It is, however, in the more hospitable part of Africa, from which one would expect humans to at least find Lake Victoria. Having accomplished as much, Lake Edward / Lake Albert are only (in your world) another 200-300 miles away, at which point you're on the upper bits of the Nile and can expect people to find Egypt and the Mediterranean... which *are* known for developing the earliest civilizations. Accordingly, you might be looking at a longer period before the *start* of civilization, but once those regions are settled, all the other information / answers apply. | I always wonder why people ended up in Australia 50,000 years ago, when the world was almost empty. If Australia had been 5.8 times further away from the cradle in North Africa I'm sure humankind would have ended up there all the same. Not because scarcity dictated it but because they could.
Sedentarism was not driven by the first agriculturers being crowded out of the hunter-gatherer civilization. European states colonized because they could, not because they needed to. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | It depends. Remember that most (all?) historical civilizations developed within fairly limited areas: the Nile Valley, the area around Greece & later Rome, the eastern coast of China, &c. So they could perhaps happily develop their own civilizations on a larger planet, ignoring the rest of the world - as for all practical purposes most historical ones actually did.
Now what could cause a problem is that if you are just scaling up Earth, with all the geology & geography otherwise the same. The problem is that to have a Bronze Age, you need copper and tin in reasonable proximity; likewise, to have an iron age you need iron ore and coal. Are your world's Phoenicians going to be able to sail 5.8 times as far to bring back tin? | Even if the question is marked as answered I think that the main point is missing. The world population boomed when the use of tools and eventually the industry multiplied the capacity to transport and produce food and goods beyond what is possible with human and animal muscles. To transport and produce people need energy and if the weight is stronger people would need a lot more energy, however the fuels we know in a heavier world would have the same energy density. So to keep the same level of development we had in the last 200 yeard the population would need an amount of energy resource bigger by one or two order of magnitudes. Furthermore some tasks could even become impossible because they would require fuel with a very high energy density. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | Civilization is the inevitable result of agriculture: people needed to band together in a fixed location to protect their crops before and after harvest, and they need written records to track who owns what.
This happened on our Earth about ten thousand years ago in three places roughly simultaneously: Central America (corn), the Middle East (wheat) and the Far East (rice). As those early civilizations grew, they spread north and south in search of more land for their crops—and discovered other crops to farm in the more temperate climates.
Within about four thousand years, most habitable regions of Earth were "civilized". Since there was no more free land, continued population growth (also a result of agriculture) resulted in wars to take existing farmland from others, and empires were born.
(Notice that Creation is usually placed somewhere between those two bounds, depending on when each civilization was founded and thus the start of their historical records.)
On a larger planet, agriculture will likely be discovered at more longitudes, but there will be more latitude for civilization to travel (assuming a similar ratio of land to sea), resulting in a slightly longer spread from each origin. That might be easier, though, since the climate should vary more slowly, and maybe (handwave) that cancels out.
Empires depend on the speed of communication and armies, so at least prior to industrialization, they would probably be similar in absolute size to our historical ones. Once you have mechanized travel and electronic communication, though, all bets are off. OTOH, more people means technology should progress much faster, so they may not have spent as long in the pre-industrial era as we did. | A lot depends on how you want to define progress. Most answers seem to assume it is driven by population. But actually a lot of tech is driven by war.
In realistic terms conflict would take a lot longer to arise as humans populate the Earth before being dense enough to get into real conflict. Personally I think it's quite possible we may go extinct at one of the ancient population bottlenecks and Neandertals may still be around.
It's too broad a question to go into detail, but you could basically build several totally different stories from that same beginning. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | One big aspect to a bigger world is *stronger gravity*.
=======================================================
(For the long version: Go read "Dragon's Egg" and "StarQuake" by Robert L Forward. The gravity there is 67 billion times stronger than Earth's, but I think you'd find some of the ideas relevant.)
### Biology
Flying birds? Insects? Possibly not. Jumpers (fleas, grasshoppers, frogs)? The impact at the end of that jump will be significantly more dangerous.
Trees will be shorter. Climbing much harder. OTOH, dropping things out of that tree onto whatever is below will be disproportionately effective. Falling out of a tree would be certain death.
Bipeds probably wouldn't be a thing. Falling down in such potent gravity would be Very Bad.
### Geology
On the one hand I would expect mountains to be shorter. On the other hand I would expect tectonic forces to be stronger. More/stronger earthquakes, with more fault lines?
More gravity means stronger eruptions when they happen, though the blast wouldn't carry debris as far. Ash clouds would still be a thing... probably?
Waterfalls would hit considerably harder from a given height, though the heights available could be shorter.
Cliffs can't be as tall before collapsing.
### Civilization/Technology
Shorter buildings. A "2 story building" might be a modern miracle. Or a roof for that matter.
Mining is that much more dangerous from cave-ins. That means fewer available resources. Strip mining suddenly looks really good.
Flight and space flight won't happen until much further along the tech curve. No satellites (comm, spy, weather, etc) of any sort.
Falling rain could be dangerous. Rain could also be a better/viable power source. Hydroelectric would be more effective.
### Combat
Ranged combat will be at much shorter ranges, though I suspect it would still exist. Melee combat will be affected, in that overhead swings will be even more effective, but would require that much more strength to pull off. | Even if the question is marked as answered I think that the main point is missing. The world population boomed when the use of tools and eventually the industry multiplied the capacity to transport and produce food and goods beyond what is possible with human and animal muscles. To transport and produce people need energy and if the weight is stronger people would need a lot more energy, however the fuels we know in a heavier world would have the same energy density. So to keep the same level of development we had in the last 200 yeard the population would need an amount of energy resource bigger by one or two order of magnitudes. Furthermore some tasks could even become impossible because they would require fuel with a very high energy density. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | It depends. Remember that most (all?) historical civilizations developed within fairly limited areas: the Nile Valley, the area around Greece & later Rome, the eastern coast of China, &c. So they could perhaps happily develop their own civilizations on a larger planet, ignoring the rest of the world - as for all practical purposes most historical ones actually did.
Now what could cause a problem is that if you are just scaling up Earth, with all the geology & geography otherwise the same. The problem is that to have a Bronze Age, you need copper and tin in reasonable proximity; likewise, to have an iron age you need iron ore and coal. Are your world's Phoenicians going to be able to sail 5.8 times as far to bring back tin? | A lot depends on how you want to define progress. Most answers seem to assume it is driven by population. But actually a lot of tech is driven by war.
In realistic terms conflict would take a lot longer to arise as humans populate the Earth before being dense enough to get into real conflict. Personally I think it's quite possible we may go extinct at one of the ancient population bottlenecks and Neandertals may still be around.
It's too broad a question to go into detail, but you could basically build several totally different stories from that same beginning. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | I would imagine a slower pace in the beginning but later it would catch up very quickly and then exceed our current earth by far.
In the initial stone age, more available land to keep surviving with a hunter / gatherer lifestyle means less incentive to develop agriculture.
Later as agriculture is discovered, more available land means longer time until sufficient population density is reached to have large cities.
Once you reach the Renaissance era, the pace would still be slower because the larger oceans are harder / impossible to travel.
However eventually they would reach the industrial age, possibly much later but I see no reason why they wouldn't eventually get there as conflicts / trade drive knowledge forward.
I d say that once that giant earth reaches the industrial age, growth would be much faster.
They would zip past the current age much faster, with way more intense globalization and sheer higher number of researchers boosting research to levels way above ours.
Imagine where we would be if earth population was 40 billion instead 10B. We d already have cured cancer, mastered cold fusion, travelled to Mars etc.. with 5.8x ressources poured into R&D | I always wonder why people ended up in Australia 50,000 years ago, when the world was almost empty. If Australia had been 5.8 times further away from the cradle in North Africa I'm sure humankind would have ended up there all the same. Not because scarcity dictated it but because they could.
Sedentarism was not driven by the first agriculturers being crowded out of the hunter-gatherer civilization. European states colonized because they could, not because they needed to. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | It depends. Remember that most (all?) historical civilizations developed within fairly limited areas: the Nile Valley, the area around Greece & later Rome, the eastern coast of China, &c. So they could perhaps happily develop their own civilizations on a larger planet, ignoring the rest of the world - as for all practical purposes most historical ones actually did.
Now what could cause a problem is that if you are just scaling up Earth, with all the geology & geography otherwise the same. The problem is that to have a Bronze Age, you need copper and tin in reasonable proximity; likewise, to have an iron age you need iron ore and coal. Are your world's Phoenicians going to be able to sail 5.8 times as far to bring back tin? | Even if the density of that planet is smaller than that of Earth, so that the surface gravity is the same, the gravitational well is deeper. This means space travel is much more difficult. Crewed spaceflight possibly would not be achieved at this technological level and the number of automatic satellites is much smaller. Putting just a tiny can in the orbit is a huge endeavor. |
171,154 | **EDIT:**
Calculations were incorrect, the earth in my comic is not 5.8x larger, it is 2.4x larger. Its surface area is 5.8x larger but the diameter is 2.4x larger.
Anyway
I'm working on a comic that is set in an alternate earth that is 2.4x larger than the real world in an effort to incorporate numerous fictional locations that could not fit on a real-world map due to their sizes.
I am wondering if earth that is 2.4x larger would slow down human progress to a significant degree due to the fact that travel times would be extended, thus slowing trade, immigration, and colonialism.
This comic aims to be set in a modern world albeit on a larger Earth. The USA still exists but it's a much larger country. New Jersey, for example, is now the size of England. Likewise, the repercussions of this larger earth may inhibit the USA from ever coming into existence.
If the answers result in any conflict with the goals of the comic, I may just resort to pure fantasy but it will be fun to learn how this stuff works regardless. | 2020/03/12 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/171154",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/61496/"
] | One big aspect to a bigger world is *stronger gravity*.
=======================================================
(For the long version: Go read "Dragon's Egg" and "StarQuake" by Robert L Forward. The gravity there is 67 billion times stronger than Earth's, but I think you'd find some of the ideas relevant.)
### Biology
Flying birds? Insects? Possibly not. Jumpers (fleas, grasshoppers, frogs)? The impact at the end of that jump will be significantly more dangerous.
Trees will be shorter. Climbing much harder. OTOH, dropping things out of that tree onto whatever is below will be disproportionately effective. Falling out of a tree would be certain death.
Bipeds probably wouldn't be a thing. Falling down in such potent gravity would be Very Bad.
### Geology
On the one hand I would expect mountains to be shorter. On the other hand I would expect tectonic forces to be stronger. More/stronger earthquakes, with more fault lines?
More gravity means stronger eruptions when they happen, though the blast wouldn't carry debris as far. Ash clouds would still be a thing... probably?
Waterfalls would hit considerably harder from a given height, though the heights available could be shorter.
Cliffs can't be as tall before collapsing.
### Civilization/Technology
Shorter buildings. A "2 story building" might be a modern miracle. Or a roof for that matter.
Mining is that much more dangerous from cave-ins. That means fewer available resources. Strip mining suddenly looks really good.
Flight and space flight won't happen until much further along the tech curve. No satellites (comm, spy, weather, etc) of any sort.
Falling rain could be dangerous. Rain could also be a better/viable power source. Hydroelectric would be more effective.
### Combat
Ranged combat will be at much shorter ranges, though I suspect it would still exist. Melee combat will be affected, in that overhead swings will be even more effective, but would require that much more strength to pull off. | I always wonder why people ended up in Australia 50,000 years ago, when the world was almost empty. If Australia had been 5.8 times further away from the cradle in North Africa I'm sure humankind would have ended up there all the same. Not because scarcity dictated it but because they could.
Sedentarism was not driven by the first agriculturers being crowded out of the hunter-gatherer civilization. European states colonized because they could, not because they needed to. |
106,039 | I run two campaigns and decided to run them differently based on the PC desires. In the combat-heavy war-torn campaign I expend all points except those over the leveling up threshold to make it longer and tougher thereby giving the players more combat. The narrative heavy campaign I have been maintaining the accumulation of all XP so as to make it more fun because they wanted to find items and combat isn't such a high priority. Both groups have decided they want to join forces and create a single campaign but I can't until I can make them close to equals so I wondered which version is the correct ruling. | 2017/08/28 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/106039",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/39028/"
] | XP continues to stack.
----------------------
PHB 12 states,
>
> Also record your experience points. A 1st-level character has 0
> XP. A higher-level character typically begins with the minimum amount of XP required to reach that level (see “Beyond 1st Level” later in this chapter).
>
>
>
If XP reset after each level, then a 1st-level character and a higher level character would both start with 0 XP.
You might have noticed that under this system, the XP curve is a little weird because characters level up a lot faster after level 10. However, this is intentional ([from a designer tweet](https://twitter.com/mikemearls/status/619616658584264705)):
>
> it's an intentional bump - higher levels are meant to move a little faster than first 10
>
>
>
There's some more discussion of this issue at [this question](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/62346/why-does-the-experience-to-next-level-not-change-between-some-levels). | XP accumulate throughout the "life" of the character - they only ever go up, they never go down.
A character's level is known by looking up their total XP in the table. |
13,492 | I am planning to drive over the [Curonian Spit](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curonian_Spit) from the Lithuanian side in 2013. I would love to travel on into the Russian side and visit Kaliningrad. Is there a border crossing on the Spit? If not, will I have to travel back up the Lithuanian side and find an alternative crossing into Russian/Kaliningrad? | 2013/02/12 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/13492",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4419/"
] | As you say you're going to pass the border at Curonian Spit, you'll be in Klaipeda before this. @Marcel C. already said about the Nida station, but I want to add some information which can be useful for you and others who will view this question.
So, you have two different ways to get from Klaipeda to Curonian Spit and Kaliningrad with your car:
1. As @Marcel C. said, border station Nida - Morskoe is the best variant for you, if you want to get on Spit. Note that the quality of the road very differs between Lithuanian and Russian sides. Border station works all the time, note that you can't pass it by walk, but you can do that on bicycle.
Note that you must use [ship](http://www.keltas.lt/eng/Price-list) to get from Klaipeda to the Spit and to some activities in Klaipeda, say Seamuseum and Dophinarium.
2. By ship [Lisco Patria](http://baltfinn.ru/), as I know, they still operating and you can sail with your car.
3. If you are traveling across the Lithuania, you can use two other border stations for foreigners:
* [Chernyshevskoye](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chernyshevskoye) - [Kybartai](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kybartai). Border station works all the time, and there are no restrictions about way you travel. In 2009 border station was opened after the reconstruction.
* [Sovetsk](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sovetsk,_Kaliningrad_Oblast) - [Panemunė](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panemun%C4%97) via the Queen Luise bridge. Border station works all the time, and there are no restrictions about way you travel.
I should note that where are other way to get to the Kaliningrad from Klaipeda, if you don't want to use your car - international buses are operating between two cities on daily basis.
You can find information [here](http://vokzal39.ru/bus-klaypeda.html) (site about the Kaliningrad bus station) and [here](http://www.kenigauto.com/schedule/kaliningrad-klaipeda/) (site about the international bus line from Kaliningrad). Note that various buses have various stops - some of them will move you across the Klaipeda's bay, some of them will not. | There is a border crossing from Lithuania to Russia on the Curonian Spit. It is just south of the village of [Nida](http://wikitravel.org/en/Nida). You can see the station via the [google maps satellite view](http://maps.google.be/maps?ll=55.278455,20.962944&spn=0.01672,0.042529&t=h&z=15).
If you are not a Russian citizen, you need a Russian visa. This has to be arranged before going there. They won't issue a visa at the Nida border. |
9,682,938 | Currently, I am dealing with database structure and I would like to get a piece of advice.
I have 2 objects: banner and ad.
For them I may create banner table and ad table, which will hold all the info about each entity. As main advantage I see that everything related to 1 entity is in this entity table.
On the other hand, I may some table like:
entity\_properties.
It will hold value\_id entity\_id property value. The main advantage is that for entities I need only some basic fields, other fields can be put in this table.
But I am not sure which is the better practice and performance?
Thanks in advance. | 2012/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9682938",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/737629/"
] | For the sake of normalization it is always better to have 1 table per 1 entity. Normalization is an aim or an approach to minimize redundancy and dependency in relational databases . In your case banner and ad are different entities. For now it seems that you can use them in same table. So "redundancy" is not the case. However, what if you want to add some additional fields later?
In addition code complexity and readability is another issue. For instance, when you add different types of object in same table you need to add an internal logic to differentiate them in your code. This means you have complex and probably less readable code. | That depends on the exact use of your system and the attributes/values you're trying to store.
As I see it, I think it would be good to save the important and required information in one table, your 'ad' table, and the rest in the 'ad\_entities' table, with an ad\_id, entity\_name, entity\_value, or something similar for your application.
This is a good performance choice since you'll be able to get all the information about the current Ad or all Ads using just one quite simple query, which your objects can easily figure out. |
49,135 | I am trying to replace a 15A electrical outlet. The existing one is attached to 12 gauge copper wire. There is a ground connection, one set of wire on the bottom screws, two sets of wire going into the holes in the back. Obviously, the existing one can accept 12 gauge wire in the holes in the back.
The new one cannot accept 12 gauge wire in the back (I read that code doesn't allow this anymore), so am I not sure what I should do. | 2014/09/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/49135",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/25413/"
] | The best way is to use a pigtail. Use a large wire nut to join four 12 awg hot wires in the back of the electrical box. One of these four wires is the pig tail that will come out and join to the outlet at the screws. Do a similar arrangement for the four neutrals (one a pigtail) and bring out the single neutral to the outlet.
This arrangement also makes it far easier to mount the outlet after the wires are attached.
Don't forget the GND wire attached to the green terminal on the outlet. | You can pick up a 20-amp duplex outlet with push-in terminals that will accept 12ga wire, that way it can be a drip-in replacement. 20 amp outlets have a t-shaped slot on the wider pin.
However, the pigtail method is just as valid. Really a question of which one is easier / cleaner / more convenient. Personally I would go the 20-amp duplex route if I had one handy (unlikely) or I was going to Home Depot for something else anyway. If I have a pocket full of the right size wire nuts I wouldn't bother. |
19,002,707 | When I say window manager, I'm talking about KDE, Gnome, lxde, xfce, etc.
I never build a windowed application except with Qt, but my guess is that not all application use Qt, some use wx, but when ubuntu's repos has one application, it's released for all window managers.
How are those app made compatible with all window managers ? Is it up the app developer to link his app with all window managers, or is there a common ground for making windowed app with Xorg or other ? Does Qt or wx solve those problems ? I think I remember seeing some application which were released only for gnome or KDE, but I'm not sure.
I always wondered about this, and it made me wonder about the fragmentation of the linux applications realm... | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19002707",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/414063/"
] | There used to be the [ICCCM](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inter-Client_Communication_Conventions_Manual) standard, but now you should at least target [EWMH](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extended_Window_Manager_Hints) and other [freedesktop](http://www.freedesktop.org) standards (including [dbus](http://www.freedesktop.org/wiki/Software/dbus/)).
Of course, recent toolkits like GTK3 or Qt5 should help, since they support a lot of them.
(and the details are complex, so starting from scratch is not realistic) | AFAIK the Qt application will run everywhere, where Qt libraries are provided. It has something to do with the Linux distribution and not Window Manager.
Another question is menu and system tray integration or desktop messaging stuff. This is different from one Window Manager to another.
See <http://www.freedesktop.org/wiki/Software/dbus/> |
19,002,707 | When I say window manager, I'm talking about KDE, Gnome, lxde, xfce, etc.
I never build a windowed application except with Qt, but my guess is that not all application use Qt, some use wx, but when ubuntu's repos has one application, it's released for all window managers.
How are those app made compatible with all window managers ? Is it up the app developer to link his app with all window managers, or is there a common ground for making windowed app with Xorg or other ? Does Qt or wx solve those problems ? I think I remember seeing some application which were released only for gnome or KDE, but I'm not sure.
I always wondered about this, and it made me wonder about the fragmentation of the linux applications realm... | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19002707",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/414063/"
] | Your application is linked against a GUI library, not a specific window manager. The common base for such libraries is, in case of X11, the Xlib.
If an application is available for some specific window managers only, the reason is that it also links against some functionality specific for that window manager (eg. KWallet or gnome-keyring). Such additional libraries are automatically installed, if you install that application from the distribution software repository. | AFAIK the Qt application will run everywhere, where Qt libraries are provided. It has something to do with the Linux distribution and not Window Manager.
Another question is menu and system tray integration or desktop messaging stuff. This is different from one Window Manager to another.
See <http://www.freedesktop.org/wiki/Software/dbus/> |
5,216,662 | I would like to develop in PHP using Doctrine as the ORM, assuming that Doctrine act as the Model. I know that there's a web framework such as Symfony which uses Doctrine as default, but I need to know if there's a good solution to deploy PHP + Doctrine in MVC. | 2011/03/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5216662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/560468/"
] | [Zend Framework](http://framework.zend.com/) is a great PHP framework and there are many good resources for integrating Doctrine and ZF.
In particular, for Doctrine 1, check out the Zendcast:
<http://www.zendcasts.com/introducing-doctrine-1-2-integration/2009/11/>
For Doctrine 2, check out the the application resource and bootstrap code in:
<https://github.com/guilhermeblanco/ZendFramework1-Doctrine2>
or
<https://github.com/marsbomber/zf1-doctrine2> | I think you need to find appropriate place in your MVC solution to put Doctrine initialization code. Example from our framework: <https://github.com/ysubach/mvcskel/blob/master/lib/MvcSkel/Filter/DoctrineInit.php>
Once it's done you can easily call model methods from controller classes. |
5,216,662 | I would like to develop in PHP using Doctrine as the ORM, assuming that Doctrine act as the Model. I know that there's a web framework such as Symfony which uses Doctrine as default, but I need to know if there's a good solution to deploy PHP + Doctrine in MVC. | 2011/03/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5216662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/560468/"
] | [Zend Framework](http://framework.zend.com/) is a great PHP framework and there are many good resources for integrating Doctrine and ZF.
In particular, for Doctrine 1, check out the Zendcast:
<http://www.zendcasts.com/introducing-doctrine-1-2-integration/2009/11/>
For Doctrine 2, check out the the application resource and bootstrap code in:
<https://github.com/guilhermeblanco/ZendFramework1-Doctrine2>
or
<https://github.com/marsbomber/zf1-doctrine2> | Here is the github skeleton project I used, it did the doctrine 2 initialisation with Zend Franework 1.11.2 in the bootstrap, nice and clean, using model for entities & model repository for business logic. Unit tests & ant build script too for you TDD developers out there.
<https://github.com/eddiejaoude/Zend-Framework--Doctrine-ORM--PHPUnit--Ant--Jenkins-CI--TDD->
ZF is an awesome php framework & combining it with doctrine makes it a very powerful combination.
Enjoy |
13,465,297 | I am trying to write my own email (imap) app for android plattforms.
There for I search for a library to help me by getting imap-folders and help me by sending emails or getting emails from the server with methods anf classes.
* I looked in the source code of k9 -> its to complex for me.
* I looked in the source code of the official email-app of android -> its to complex for me, but iI had seen the package emailcommon, but without a documentation.
* I find the library javamail, but no documentation for using it with android.
What is the best library for writing an email-app for android? | 2012/11/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13465297",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1837386/"
] | as I cannot comment so writing as answer.. To me Javamail is a very good one. you can find following links helpful
for android javamail project you can try
<http://code.google.com/p/javamail-android/>
here is the javamail api doc
<http://javamail.kenai.com/nonav/javadocs/index.html>
and i found a doc file helpful. can not give the link for limitation. search using javamail doc. | I found someone library and I still read the code.
You can check [this one](https://github.com/kristijandraca/BackgroundMailLibrary). |
13,465,297 | I am trying to write my own email (imap) app for android plattforms.
There for I search for a library to help me by getting imap-folders and help me by sending emails or getting emails from the server with methods anf classes.
* I looked in the source code of k9 -> its to complex for me.
* I looked in the source code of the official email-app of android -> its to complex for me, but iI had seen the package emailcommon, but without a documentation.
* I find the library javamail, but no documentation for using it with android.
What is the best library for writing an email-app for android? | 2012/11/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13465297",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1837386/"
] | Jakarta Commons Net library works fine: <http://nilvec.com/sending-email-without-user-interaction-in-android.html>
I used it and for me it's good enough. | I found someone library and I still read the code.
You can check [this one](https://github.com/kristijandraca/BackgroundMailLibrary). |
5,791 | A number of our CMS users are experiencing problems uploading PDFs and images to Tridion using Chrome Version 35.0.1916.114 m on Windows 7. Is this a known issue? Are there any workarounds or fixes for this?
Other browsers and Mac Chrome are working fine. Looking at the requests trace, it seems like the form fails to submit/post on PC chrome. We are in the process of submitting a support ticket with SDL but curious to know why no one else is seeing this problem.
Thanks | 2014/06/09 | [
"https://tridion.stackexchange.com/questions/5791",
"https://tridion.stackexchange.com",
"https://tridion.stackexchange.com/users/593/"
] | I've had file upload problems with Chrome 34, didn't try with Chrome 35 yet - it was fixed by applying hotfix CME\_2013.1.0.87586 (available from SDL Tridion World) | I can confirm you that even on Chrome 35 this issue is coming up. This issue is there (along with many others) after Chrome version 33 onwards. You can apply the hot-fix suggested by Nuno or downgrade to a earlier version of Chrome or just discard the chrome and use some other browser as the above hotfix may fix this issue but there are few other which it might not:
1. Videos put in html using embed tag will not be played in version 34
2. Changing Template Icons shown during Inline Editing might not work with Chrome 34+ |
4,398,233 | I'm encoding a short integer with value 0 and XMLEncoder does not encode it.
How can I force it? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4398233",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/398491/"
] | XMLEncoder does not encode *default* values. It saves space. It works. | I switched to another library: XStream (<http://x-stream.github.io/>)
Much simpler and it works. |
134,868 | I'm creating a web page with a lot of text, and elements that animate in once the user scrolls past a certain threshold. I need to determine exactly how far the user should scroll before triggering an animation, and I realized I don't have a clear picture of how users scroll as they read.
When reading a long passage such as a lengthy blog post or news article, do users tend to:
1. Read until they reach the button of their window, then scroll down a full viewport height and continue reading from the top of the window?
2. Read until they reach the bottom of their window, then continue scrolling in small increments, such that they're usually looking at the bottom of the window?
3. Scroll continuously while reading, in small increments, so they're usually looking at the center of their window?
4. Something else, or a combination of the above?
As I thought about this, I realized I'm not even sure what *I* do, myself! I tend to follow behavior #1 when I'm thinking about it, but I'm pretty sure that's not how I'd scroll under normal circumstances.
My own research on scroll behavior kept turning up articles on how far users scroll, rather than *how* they scroll. I know that a lot of people won't read long passages to begin with, but I want to optimize for those users who do.
I'd ideally like to see some type of eye tracking study, and especially one which has data for different screen sizes and/or types of users. Lacking that, however, anecdotal experience would also be extremely welcome—even anecdotes about yourself, If you're better at observing your natural behavior than I am. | 2020/09/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/134868",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/123409/"
] | Without any previous study or search, a simple analysis of the type of movement of the eyes when reading on a screen, with the head in the correct position, can help to find a *generic* answer, that is, without attending to any particular specifications.
* In a text on the screen the reader is forced to perform eye movement from left to right (western reading)
* The movement from top to bottom is restricted by the line break.
* Eye movements to the corners are infrequent.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FmSu5.png)
In other words, the movement to be analyzed is the one from top to bottom, and when the reader decides to stop doing it without moving his head.
The maximum possible angle is defined by the top and bottom of the screen.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I0d9e.png)
This field is further reduced with the text height:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/muyrr.png)
If the reader is forced to make an eye movement from left to right, up and down, without moving his head and with as little eye effort as possible, I think the field is greatly reduced.
Taking the line that marks the axis of the normal position of the view on the screen as a reference, the angle defined by the upper part of the text to the highest possible angle below that line, determine the "comfortable" field of vision.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DBx5i.png)
Once this angle is covered, the reader will look for the possibility of returning to the starting position (scrolling) to try to move his eyes as little as possible from that *normal position* line:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/StIrF.gif)
My *personal opinion* is that generally scrolling is performed when the central axis of the comfortable viewing angle begins to move away from the limits of the angle itself. | It's quite easy to monitor your own behaviour in doing this so I'd just ask some people what they do:
Personally, I look in the same place on the screen and scroll the text up to it (3)
Take a sample of users and see what you get. |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | >
> Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does it's use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word toffee-nosed today, actually "toffee-nosed", that is, pretentious?)
>
>
>
I'd say it's mainly used by people who wouldn't be considered toffee-nosed, usually against those considered posh or acting in a snobbish manner, and it's rarely a compliment.
Here's a few tweets:
* . . I very much doubt that even the toffee nosed, pompous arses who do stumble across my page will share your views." ([source](https://twitter.com/CarlTidy/status/532662984649506816))
* Oh how sad...I just got a press release saying 'Britain's stately home owners living in fuel poverty'. My poor heart is bleeding for aristos
+ sell up then u bunch of toffee nosed eejits ([source](https://twitter.com/Jcqdnld/status/532545198627495936))
* she called Craig a toffee nosed pretty boy. Wtf? ([source](https://twitter.com/robingrimmer/status/532148573992148992))
* Watch out for my rant half hour in i was surrounded by posh snobby money obsessed toffee nosed snobs & i had to say my bit. ([source](https://twitter.com/CodyDoorman1/status/532101522474422272))
* It was horrible Ry! I shan't be using public transport again.
+ mahaa....toffee nosed cow....oh,i finished coven tonight, hmmm.... ([source](https://twitter.com/ryanhair86/status/531949560093216768))
* George Osborne on The Agenda
+ Can't stand his politics but he's actually coming across as less toffee-nosed and robotic than normal. ([source](https://twitter.com/smadeley_star/status/531942222972076032))
So here one is referring to stately-home owners; another person is calling a friend toffee-nosed for not wanting to travel on the bus due to other noisy passengers; another is referring to the privately-educated, Conservative chancellor of the exchequor with an estimated personal fortune of around £4 million. | Regarding the illustration.
It does look rather like a pineapple but I suspect it is just the clipart creator's idea of a [jabot](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/jabot). These were worn by upper-class men at various times in the 17th, 18th and 19th centuries and are still sometimes worn with formal Scottish attire. ([illustations](http://shadyislepirates.com/?q=node/158))
At various times either a stand-up collar or a jabot was in fashion for upper-class men. Wearing both at the same time would not be usual, but perhaps that is the point of the illustration. It's use suggests that a toffee-nosed person feels he is so superior that just one or other of these signs of status is not enough - he has to wear both. |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | >
> Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does it's use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word toffee-nosed today, actually "toffee-nosed", that is, pretentious?)
>
>
>
I'd say it's mainly used by people who wouldn't be considered toffee-nosed, usually against those considered posh or acting in a snobbish manner, and it's rarely a compliment.
Here's a few tweets:
* . . I very much doubt that even the toffee nosed, pompous arses who do stumble across my page will share your views." ([source](https://twitter.com/CarlTidy/status/532662984649506816))
* Oh how sad...I just got a press release saying 'Britain's stately home owners living in fuel poverty'. My poor heart is bleeding for aristos
+ sell up then u bunch of toffee nosed eejits ([source](https://twitter.com/Jcqdnld/status/532545198627495936))
* she called Craig a toffee nosed pretty boy. Wtf? ([source](https://twitter.com/robingrimmer/status/532148573992148992))
* Watch out for my rant half hour in i was surrounded by posh snobby money obsessed toffee nosed snobs & i had to say my bit. ([source](https://twitter.com/CodyDoorman1/status/532101522474422272))
* It was horrible Ry! I shan't be using public transport again.
+ mahaa....toffee nosed cow....oh,i finished coven tonight, hmmm.... ([source](https://twitter.com/ryanhair86/status/531949560093216768))
* George Osborne on The Agenda
+ Can't stand his politics but he's actually coming across as less toffee-nosed and robotic than normal. ([source](https://twitter.com/smadeley_star/status/531942222972076032))
So here one is referring to stately-home owners; another person is calling a friend toffee-nosed for not wanting to travel on the bus due to other noisy passengers; another is referring to the privately-educated, Conservative chancellor of the exchequor with an estimated personal fortune of around £4 million. | You are correct that it is archaic.
An interest in archaic language could in itself be an indication of middle-class status, although not an infallible one.
See Kate Fox's very well-observed book "[Watching the English](http://www.amazon.co.uk/Watching-English-Hidden-Rules-Behaviour/dp/0340818867)" for more class indicators.
Oh, and I have no idea about the pineapple. That's just weird. |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | >
> Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does it's use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word toffee-nosed today, actually "toffee-nosed", that is, pretentious?)
>
>
>
I'd say it's mainly used by people who wouldn't be considered toffee-nosed, usually against those considered posh or acting in a snobbish manner, and it's rarely a compliment.
Here's a few tweets:
* . . I very much doubt that even the toffee nosed, pompous arses who do stumble across my page will share your views." ([source](https://twitter.com/CarlTidy/status/532662984649506816))
* Oh how sad...I just got a press release saying 'Britain's stately home owners living in fuel poverty'. My poor heart is bleeding for aristos
+ sell up then u bunch of toffee nosed eejits ([source](https://twitter.com/Jcqdnld/status/532545198627495936))
* she called Craig a toffee nosed pretty boy. Wtf? ([source](https://twitter.com/robingrimmer/status/532148573992148992))
* Watch out for my rant half hour in i was surrounded by posh snobby money obsessed toffee nosed snobs & i had to say my bit. ([source](https://twitter.com/CodyDoorman1/status/532101522474422272))
* It was horrible Ry! I shan't be using public transport again.
+ mahaa....toffee nosed cow....oh,i finished coven tonight, hmmm.... ([source](https://twitter.com/ryanhair86/status/531949560093216768))
* George Osborne on The Agenda
+ Can't stand his politics but he's actually coming across as less toffee-nosed and robotic than normal. ([source](https://twitter.com/smadeley_star/status/531942222972076032))
So here one is referring to stately-home owners; another person is calling a friend toffee-nosed for not wanting to travel on the bus due to other noisy passengers; another is referring to the privately-educated, Conservative chancellor of the exchequor with an estimated personal fortune of around £4 million. | >
> And why is this illustration of a man with a pineapple (ananas) on his
> chest found with the definition of toffee-nosed? Does it imply
> anything about language?
>
>
>
I believe I have found the connection between the pineapple on the man's shirt and *toffee-nosed*, in the end, the easiest explanation was the most logical. In Victorian England, and elsewhere in Europe, the pineapple fruit was a symbol of wealth and great status. Nowadays a pineapple costs £1.72 in British money, but in 1862 it sold for 5s - the equivalent of £149 in real terms.
The illustration is therefore a caricature, the ascot tie has taken on the semblance of a pineapple, and by doing so the illustrator is telling us about the man's social position, class and wealth.
>
> *[**Pineapple cultivation in Britain**](http://www.buildingconservation.com/articles/pineapples/pineapples.htm)*
>
>
> Its introduction to Europe resulted in a veritable mania for growing
> pineapples and parading them at the dinner table became a fashion
> requisite of 18th century nobility. In Britain and the Netherlands the
> practice was not the preserve of the aristocracy but also extended to
> the gentry. The pineapple was a representation of owners’ wealth but
> also a testimony to their gardeners’ skill and experience. Producing a
> crop of tropical fruit in the colder climes of Europe before the
> advent of the hot water heating system in 1816 was a remarkable
> achievement and was, perhaps not unjustly, described as ‘artistry’.
>
>
> The founding of horticultural societies during the Victorian period
> brought new opportunities for the display of pineapples at
> horticultural shows, a tradition that lasted until the beginning of
> the 20th century. However, the inevitable demise of the pineapple as
> horticultural status symbol began with the arrival of imported fruit
> from the Azores at the end of the 19th century.
>
>
>
Sources: [BBC Business](http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-16450526), Building Conservation and Pinterest
---
**Notes on 19th and early 20th century men fashion**
The gentleman in the image appears to be wearing an *[imperial collar](https://s-media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/originals/a8/da/11/a8da111e2ff20b3249e7fd1f16507375.jpg)*, *a very high (3-inch) stiff, standing detachable collar. This style was known as an Imperial "lap-front" or "poke" collar*. Clicking on the link will lead you to a photo of a young man, you'll notice that he isn't wearing a jabot but instead an *[ascot tie](http://www.gentlemansemporium.com/how_to_tie_an_ascot.php)*, the typical accompaniment for that type of collar, which became a popular combination from the 1880s and was usually worn with men's morning dress.
Basically, the illustration was chosen to illustrate *toffee nosed* because the man is evidently wealthy; appears to be [hoity-toity](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/hoity-toity); *snotty*; *snooty*; *uppish*; and has the airs of a proper ***toff***. He personifies the image of the clichèd British upper-classes before the end of the First World War.
---
**Pineapple idiom**
The only thing I found which could possibly connect the gentleman's elegant attire with this exotic fruit was this Australian idiom:
[Oxford Dictionaries](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/the-rough-end-of-the-pineapple) says
>
> (Aus) *informal*
>
> ***The rough end of the pineapple*** A situation in which someone receives unfair or harsh treatment
>
> Example: *The workers, so far from being emancipated, would continue to get the rough end of the pineapple, as they had from the beginning of time.*
>
>
> |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | >
> Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does it's use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word toffee-nosed today, actually "toffee-nosed", that is, pretentious?)
>
>
>
I'd say it's mainly used by people who wouldn't be considered toffee-nosed, usually against those considered posh or acting in a snobbish manner, and it's rarely a compliment.
Here's a few tweets:
* . . I very much doubt that even the toffee nosed, pompous arses who do stumble across my page will share your views." ([source](https://twitter.com/CarlTidy/status/532662984649506816))
* Oh how sad...I just got a press release saying 'Britain's stately home owners living in fuel poverty'. My poor heart is bleeding for aristos
+ sell up then u bunch of toffee nosed eejits ([source](https://twitter.com/Jcqdnld/status/532545198627495936))
* she called Craig a toffee nosed pretty boy. Wtf? ([source](https://twitter.com/robingrimmer/status/532148573992148992))
* Watch out for my rant half hour in i was surrounded by posh snobby money obsessed toffee nosed snobs & i had to say my bit. ([source](https://twitter.com/CodyDoorman1/status/532101522474422272))
* It was horrible Ry! I shan't be using public transport again.
+ mahaa....toffee nosed cow....oh,i finished coven tonight, hmmm.... ([source](https://twitter.com/ryanhair86/status/531949560093216768))
* George Osborne on The Agenda
+ Can't stand his politics but he's actually coming across as less toffee-nosed and robotic than normal. ([source](https://twitter.com/smadeley_star/status/531942222972076032))
So here one is referring to stately-home owners; another person is calling a friend toffee-nosed for not wanting to travel on the bus due to other noisy passengers; another is referring to the privately-educated, Conservative chancellor of the exchequor with an estimated personal fortune of around £4 million. | No one has yet discussed the derivation of the word *toff* (the source of *toffee-nosed*)—presumably because medica didn't ask. But in case anyone is interested, I offer the explanation that appears in Eric Partridge, *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, Fifth Edition (1961):
>
> **toff.** A 'swell' ; a 'nob' (well-to-do person) : proletarian : from 1850's ; slightly ob[solete]. Ca. 1868, there was a music-hall song entitled *The Shoreditch Toff*, by Arthur Lloyd ; ... Ex *tuft* ["A titled undergraduate: 1755, in *tuft-hunter*, one who, at Oxford or Cambridge, toadies to the young noblemen ; ... Ex the *tuft* or gold tassel worn on their caps by aristocratic students"] via *toft* ["A variant, prob. the imm. source of *toff*, ... ca. 1850–1910. ... If not *toff* debased—and the dates seem to preclude this—then *tuft* corrupted"]
>
>
>
As this derivation suggests, *toff* was generally applied to males. Partridge includes a note on this point:
>
> Augustus Mayhew, *Paved with Gold*, 1858, records that among London crossing-sweepers (of the 1850's–1860's) 'the insulting epithet of "doll" was applied every aged female'—precisely as 'the rather degrading appellation of "toff" was given to all persons of the male gender'.
>
>
>
One wonders, though, how crossing-sweepers became conversant with Oxbridge college slang.
As for *toffee-nosed*, Partridge traces a winding path from *toff* to *tofficky* ("Showy ; vulgarly dressed ; low : ca.1860–1914") to *toffish/toffy* {"Stylish ; 'swell' : resp. from ca. 1873, when *toffishness* occurs in Greenwood's *Strange Company*") to *toffee-nosed* ("Supercilious ; too proud ; conceited : lower classes : C. 20 ; ob[solete]"). The obsolete tag appeared in the 1937 edition of Partridge, but the 1961 edition notes that during World War II, *toffee-nosed* and the noun *toffee-nose* were "very popular"—so this is an instance in which a moribund slang term gains new life at a later period.
Partridge also includes entries for *toff-omee* ("the superlative of toff [1909]"), *toff-shoving* ("'Pushing about well-dressed men in a crowd' : London roughs : ca. 1882–1900"), and *toffer* ("A fashionable whore : low : ca. 1860–1914"). |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | Regarding the illustration.
It does look rather like a pineapple but I suspect it is just the clipart creator's idea of a [jabot](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/jabot). These were worn by upper-class men at various times in the 17th, 18th and 19th centuries and are still sometimes worn with formal Scottish attire. ([illustations](http://shadyislepirates.com/?q=node/158))
At various times either a stand-up collar or a jabot was in fashion for upper-class men. Wearing both at the same time would not be usual, but perhaps that is the point of the illustration. It's use suggests that a toffee-nosed person feels he is so superior that just one or other of these signs of status is not enough - he has to wear both. | You are correct that it is archaic.
An interest in archaic language could in itself be an indication of middle-class status, although not an infallible one.
See Kate Fox's very well-observed book "[Watching the English](http://www.amazon.co.uk/Watching-English-Hidden-Rules-Behaviour/dp/0340818867)" for more class indicators.
Oh, and I have no idea about the pineapple. That's just weird. |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | Regarding the illustration.
It does look rather like a pineapple but I suspect it is just the clipart creator's idea of a [jabot](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/jabot). These were worn by upper-class men at various times in the 17th, 18th and 19th centuries and are still sometimes worn with formal Scottish attire. ([illustations](http://shadyislepirates.com/?q=node/158))
At various times either a stand-up collar or a jabot was in fashion for upper-class men. Wearing both at the same time would not be usual, but perhaps that is the point of the illustration. It's use suggests that a toffee-nosed person feels he is so superior that just one or other of these signs of status is not enough - he has to wear both. | >
> And why is this illustration of a man with a pineapple (ananas) on his
> chest found with the definition of toffee-nosed? Does it imply
> anything about language?
>
>
>
I believe I have found the connection between the pineapple on the man's shirt and *toffee-nosed*, in the end, the easiest explanation was the most logical. In Victorian England, and elsewhere in Europe, the pineapple fruit was a symbol of wealth and great status. Nowadays a pineapple costs £1.72 in British money, but in 1862 it sold for 5s - the equivalent of £149 in real terms.
The illustration is therefore a caricature, the ascot tie has taken on the semblance of a pineapple, and by doing so the illustrator is telling us about the man's social position, class and wealth.
>
> *[**Pineapple cultivation in Britain**](http://www.buildingconservation.com/articles/pineapples/pineapples.htm)*
>
>
> Its introduction to Europe resulted in a veritable mania for growing
> pineapples and parading them at the dinner table became a fashion
> requisite of 18th century nobility. In Britain and the Netherlands the
> practice was not the preserve of the aristocracy but also extended to
> the gentry. The pineapple was a representation of owners’ wealth but
> also a testimony to their gardeners’ skill and experience. Producing a
> crop of tropical fruit in the colder climes of Europe before the
> advent of the hot water heating system in 1816 was a remarkable
> achievement and was, perhaps not unjustly, described as ‘artistry’.
>
>
> The founding of horticultural societies during the Victorian period
> brought new opportunities for the display of pineapples at
> horticultural shows, a tradition that lasted until the beginning of
> the 20th century. However, the inevitable demise of the pineapple as
> horticultural status symbol began with the arrival of imported fruit
> from the Azores at the end of the 19th century.
>
>
>
Sources: [BBC Business](http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-16450526), Building Conservation and Pinterest
---
**Notes on 19th and early 20th century men fashion**
The gentleman in the image appears to be wearing an *[imperial collar](https://s-media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/originals/a8/da/11/a8da111e2ff20b3249e7fd1f16507375.jpg)*, *a very high (3-inch) stiff, standing detachable collar. This style was known as an Imperial "lap-front" or "poke" collar*. Clicking on the link will lead you to a photo of a young man, you'll notice that he isn't wearing a jabot but instead an *[ascot tie](http://www.gentlemansemporium.com/how_to_tie_an_ascot.php)*, the typical accompaniment for that type of collar, which became a popular combination from the 1880s and was usually worn with men's morning dress.
Basically, the illustration was chosen to illustrate *toffee nosed* because the man is evidently wealthy; appears to be [hoity-toity](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/hoity-toity); *snotty*; *snooty*; *uppish*; and has the airs of a proper ***toff***. He personifies the image of the clichèd British upper-classes before the end of the First World War.
---
**Pineapple idiom**
The only thing I found which could possibly connect the gentleman's elegant attire with this exotic fruit was this Australian idiom:
[Oxford Dictionaries](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/the-rough-end-of-the-pineapple) says
>
> (Aus) *informal*
>
> ***The rough end of the pineapple*** A situation in which someone receives unfair or harsh treatment
>
> Example: *The workers, so far from being emancipated, would continue to get the rough end of the pineapple, as they had from the beginning of time.*
>
>
> |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | Regarding the illustration.
It does look rather like a pineapple but I suspect it is just the clipart creator's idea of a [jabot](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/jabot). These were worn by upper-class men at various times in the 17th, 18th and 19th centuries and are still sometimes worn with formal Scottish attire. ([illustations](http://shadyislepirates.com/?q=node/158))
At various times either a stand-up collar or a jabot was in fashion for upper-class men. Wearing both at the same time would not be usual, but perhaps that is the point of the illustration. It's use suggests that a toffee-nosed person feels he is so superior that just one or other of these signs of status is not enough - he has to wear both. | No one has yet discussed the derivation of the word *toff* (the source of *toffee-nosed*)—presumably because medica didn't ask. But in case anyone is interested, I offer the explanation that appears in Eric Partridge, *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, Fifth Edition (1961):
>
> **toff.** A 'swell' ; a 'nob' (well-to-do person) : proletarian : from 1850's ; slightly ob[solete]. Ca. 1868, there was a music-hall song entitled *The Shoreditch Toff*, by Arthur Lloyd ; ... Ex *tuft* ["A titled undergraduate: 1755, in *tuft-hunter*, one who, at Oxford or Cambridge, toadies to the young noblemen ; ... Ex the *tuft* or gold tassel worn on their caps by aristocratic students"] via *toft* ["A variant, prob. the imm. source of *toff*, ... ca. 1850–1910. ... If not *toff* debased—and the dates seem to preclude this—then *tuft* corrupted"]
>
>
>
As this derivation suggests, *toff* was generally applied to males. Partridge includes a note on this point:
>
> Augustus Mayhew, *Paved with Gold*, 1858, records that among London crossing-sweepers (of the 1850's–1860's) 'the insulting epithet of "doll" was applied every aged female'—precisely as 'the rather degrading appellation of "toff" was given to all persons of the male gender'.
>
>
>
One wonders, though, how crossing-sweepers became conversant with Oxbridge college slang.
As for *toffee-nosed*, Partridge traces a winding path from *toff* to *tofficky* ("Showy ; vulgarly dressed ; low : ca.1860–1914") to *toffish/toffy* {"Stylish ; 'swell' : resp. from ca. 1873, when *toffishness* occurs in Greenwood's *Strange Company*") to *toffee-nosed* ("Supercilious ; too proud ; conceited : lower classes : C. 20 ; ob[solete]"). The obsolete tag appeared in the 1937 edition of Partridge, but the 1961 edition notes that during World War II, *toffee-nosed* and the noun *toffee-nose* were "very popular"—so this is an instance in which a moribund slang term gains new life at a later period.
Partridge also includes entries for *toff-omee* ("the superlative of toff [1909]"), *toff-shoving* ("'Pushing about well-dressed men in a crowd' : London roughs : ca. 1882–1900"), and *toffer* ("A fashionable whore : low : ca. 1860–1914"). |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | >
> And why is this illustration of a man with a pineapple (ananas) on his
> chest found with the definition of toffee-nosed? Does it imply
> anything about language?
>
>
>
I believe I have found the connection between the pineapple on the man's shirt and *toffee-nosed*, in the end, the easiest explanation was the most logical. In Victorian England, and elsewhere in Europe, the pineapple fruit was a symbol of wealth and great status. Nowadays a pineapple costs £1.72 in British money, but in 1862 it sold for 5s - the equivalent of £149 in real terms.
The illustration is therefore a caricature, the ascot tie has taken on the semblance of a pineapple, and by doing so the illustrator is telling us about the man's social position, class and wealth.
>
> *[**Pineapple cultivation in Britain**](http://www.buildingconservation.com/articles/pineapples/pineapples.htm)*
>
>
> Its introduction to Europe resulted in a veritable mania for growing
> pineapples and parading them at the dinner table became a fashion
> requisite of 18th century nobility. In Britain and the Netherlands the
> practice was not the preserve of the aristocracy but also extended to
> the gentry. The pineapple was a representation of owners’ wealth but
> also a testimony to their gardeners’ skill and experience. Producing a
> crop of tropical fruit in the colder climes of Europe before the
> advent of the hot water heating system in 1816 was a remarkable
> achievement and was, perhaps not unjustly, described as ‘artistry’.
>
>
> The founding of horticultural societies during the Victorian period
> brought new opportunities for the display of pineapples at
> horticultural shows, a tradition that lasted until the beginning of
> the 20th century. However, the inevitable demise of the pineapple as
> horticultural status symbol began with the arrival of imported fruit
> from the Azores at the end of the 19th century.
>
>
>
Sources: [BBC Business](http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-16450526), Building Conservation and Pinterest
---
**Notes on 19th and early 20th century men fashion**
The gentleman in the image appears to be wearing an *[imperial collar](https://s-media-cache-ak0.pinimg.com/originals/a8/da/11/a8da111e2ff20b3249e7fd1f16507375.jpg)*, *a very high (3-inch) stiff, standing detachable collar. This style was known as an Imperial "lap-front" or "poke" collar*. Clicking on the link will lead you to a photo of a young man, you'll notice that he isn't wearing a jabot but instead an *[ascot tie](http://www.gentlemansemporium.com/how_to_tie_an_ascot.php)*, the typical accompaniment for that type of collar, which became a popular combination from the 1880s and was usually worn with men's morning dress.
Basically, the illustration was chosen to illustrate *toffee nosed* because the man is evidently wealthy; appears to be [hoity-toity](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/hoity-toity); *snotty*; *snooty*; *uppish*; and has the airs of a proper ***toff***. He personifies the image of the clichèd British upper-classes before the end of the First World War.
---
**Pineapple idiom**
The only thing I found which could possibly connect the gentleman's elegant attire with this exotic fruit was this Australian idiom:
[Oxford Dictionaries](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/the-rough-end-of-the-pineapple) says
>
> (Aus) *informal*
>
> ***The rough end of the pineapple*** A situation in which someone receives unfair or harsh treatment
>
> Example: *The workers, so far from being emancipated, would continue to get the rough end of the pineapple, as they had from the beginning of time.*
>
>
> | You are correct that it is archaic.
An interest in archaic language could in itself be an indication of middle-class status, although not an infallible one.
See Kate Fox's very well-observed book "[Watching the English](http://www.amazon.co.uk/Watching-English-Hidden-Rules-Behaviour/dp/0340818867)" for more class indicators.
Oh, and I have no idea about the pineapple. That's just weird. |
208,165 | Not being a speaker of British English, I was much amused on discovering the new adjective *toffee-nosed*. The American Heritage dictionary doesn't list it at all, but I found a definition in Collins:
>
> snobbish; pretentiously superior
>
>
>
The Phrase Finder (UK) goes on to [explain](http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/toffee-nosed.html) that it derives from *toff*, a slang term given by the lower-classes to stylishly-dressed upper-class gentlemen. So immediately there is a classist aspect to it. Apparently it is also >150 years old, and not used throughout the UK.
I have two (well, more technically) questions about this word.
Is the word itself still understood as being used by the lower class, or does its use connote something about the user other than disdain for the upper class? (Rephrased, is someone who uses the word *toffee-nosed* today, actually *"toffee-nosed"*, that is, pretentious?)
And why is this illustration of a man with a *pineapple* (*ananas*) on his chest found with the definition of *toffee-nosed*? Does it imply anything about language?
 | 2014/11/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/208165",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58761/"
] | No one has yet discussed the derivation of the word *toff* (the source of *toffee-nosed*)—presumably because medica didn't ask. But in case anyone is interested, I offer the explanation that appears in Eric Partridge, *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, Fifth Edition (1961):
>
> **toff.** A 'swell' ; a 'nob' (well-to-do person) : proletarian : from 1850's ; slightly ob[solete]. Ca. 1868, there was a music-hall song entitled *The Shoreditch Toff*, by Arthur Lloyd ; ... Ex *tuft* ["A titled undergraduate: 1755, in *tuft-hunter*, one who, at Oxford or Cambridge, toadies to the young noblemen ; ... Ex the *tuft* or gold tassel worn on their caps by aristocratic students"] via *toft* ["A variant, prob. the imm. source of *toff*, ... ca. 1850–1910. ... If not *toff* debased—and the dates seem to preclude this—then *tuft* corrupted"]
>
>
>
As this derivation suggests, *toff* was generally applied to males. Partridge includes a note on this point:
>
> Augustus Mayhew, *Paved with Gold*, 1858, records that among London crossing-sweepers (of the 1850's–1860's) 'the insulting epithet of "doll" was applied every aged female'—precisely as 'the rather degrading appellation of "toff" was given to all persons of the male gender'.
>
>
>
One wonders, though, how crossing-sweepers became conversant with Oxbridge college slang.
As for *toffee-nosed*, Partridge traces a winding path from *toff* to *tofficky* ("Showy ; vulgarly dressed ; low : ca.1860–1914") to *toffish/toffy* {"Stylish ; 'swell' : resp. from ca. 1873, when *toffishness* occurs in Greenwood's *Strange Company*") to *toffee-nosed* ("Supercilious ; too proud ; conceited : lower classes : C. 20 ; ob[solete]"). The obsolete tag appeared in the 1937 edition of Partridge, but the 1961 edition notes that during World War II, *toffee-nosed* and the noun *toffee-nose* were "very popular"—so this is an instance in which a moribund slang term gains new life at a later period.
Partridge also includes entries for *toff-omee* ("the superlative of toff [1909]"), *toff-shoving* ("'Pushing about well-dressed men in a crowd' : London roughs : ca. 1882–1900"), and *toffer* ("A fashionable whore : low : ca. 1860–1914"). | You are correct that it is archaic.
An interest in archaic language could in itself be an indication of middle-class status, although not an infallible one.
See Kate Fox's very well-observed book "[Watching the English](http://www.amazon.co.uk/Watching-English-Hidden-Rules-Behaviour/dp/0340818867)" for more class indicators.
Oh, and I have no idea about the pineapple. That's just weird. |
29,076,112 | I am currently using Kibana 3, configured with Elasticsearch.
Is there any possibilities to use same Elasticsearch index with Grafana.
I searched a lot, but all are redirecting me to use graphite.
Why is it not possible to use Elasticsearch instead of graphite ?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks.
(I am using Windows 7, just FYI) | 2015/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29076112",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4676163/"
] | Grafana 1.9 does not support elasticsearch as a datasource.
You may try to using Version v2.0. This version allows to set elasticsearch like a datasource. | * Grafana is a frontend to Graphite.
* Kibana is a frontend to
elasticsearch.
>
> Why is it not possible to use Elasticsearch instead of graphite ?
>
>
>
Graphite stores only timeseries pair of data [time, value] whereas
Elasticsearch can store large complex json documents. Grafana is written to *understand* just time series data and cannot 'understand' json.
FYI- Whatever your usecase, elasticsearch can handle it. |
611,030 | I have 200 digital sensors that I need to read its state from a arduino.
What I was thinking about is to make something like digital leds, where i connect 200 IC's in series. the first IC gets a "start" signal over a input pin, and outputs a "done" over one pin, and its state over another pin for (as example) 0.1ms. the next ic, reads the done, and does the same as the pervious chip.. this way each chip outputs its state one after the other to a "main line" that can be read by the arduino instantly.
this has multiple problems:
* its expensive to buy 200 programmable ICs,
* its expensive to program 200 ICs.
* its expensive to buy 200 additional components that are needed to drive the ics.
I was wondering if I am trying to reinvent the wheel.. Is there already a similar product that does the same thing, maybe over a standard protocol? I was not able to find anything.
I am not searching for a specific product, as it would be against the rules, but rather a name for this kind of components that could help me to find something online.
Thank you | 2022/03/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/611030",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/45267/"
] | Shift registers are really cheap; an 8-bit device costs around US $0.10.
If you get a device with parallel-in, serial-in & serial-out capability (such as the 74HC165) then you can just chain the serial output from one device to the input of the next. Toggle a single 'strobe' line to load in the parallel data on all the devices, then just generate 200 SPI clock cycles and you'll receive your 200-bit data. A modest clock speed of 100 kHz would give you a 2 millisecond sample time, well within your requirements.
If this circuitry is operating in an area with a lot of electrical interference, you might need to take some defensive measures; the data rate is sufficiently low that you could just add a simple low-pass filter, or opto-isolate the sensors from your arduino. | Quite understandable that you don't want to use MCUs, with all the overhead costs of developing, testing, proving and manufacturing such a thing.
To meet your wider goal rather than your sketched-out protocol, you can use the 1-Wire bus protocol and COTS ICs.
Each 1-wire bus device can (a) be bus powered or have local power and (b) has a 64-bit unique device ID assigned during manufacture.
Your bus master can use a device discovery procedure to obtain the IDs of all connected devices. You can then address and access each device in turn. You can also add and remove devices and your bus master software can adjust dynamically.
You can either hang all devices off of the single 1-wire bus or split them across multiple 1-wire buses. The single bus uses least wires but has the slowest access (one device at a time) and the highest fault susceptibility (one short and everything's gone). Split buses reduce the effect of a single short on the whole network and allow for multiple device access simultaneously, using suitable software. You don't specify those requirements in your question, so that's all something for you to assess as a system designer.
The [1-wire bus](https://www.maximintegrated.com/en/products/ibutton-one-wire/one-wire.html) was originally developed by Dallas Semiconductor, now Maxim. They publish an standard for it. |
1,753,209 | I'm trying to script configuration of the notification area on the Windows taskbar.
Windows has a GUI that will do it:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W85bB.png)
That puts icons in the notification area, like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mRdrM.png)
How can this be done from the command line (cmd.exe or Powershell)? | 2022/11/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1753209",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/543032/"
] | For Windows 11 (I am using it) the version should be Pro, wireless connections must be Private, and then set Network Discovery, File and Print Sharing and Password Protected sharing all ON.
I connect freely between Windows 10 and 11 and between 11 and Linux. So Windows 11 connects and shares well. –
**You may wish to upgrade to Pro. As I noted, Windows 11 (Pro) connects very well.** Make sure your Windows 11 Firewall is set to default.
Now you (@OP) said that upgrading to Pro did the trick, then this is the answer to your question. | The Computer could be accessed after upgrading to Windows 11 Pro. Even with a running Firewall. |
1,529,769 | I would like to acces my Home-Server via my DynDNS Adress from inside my local network. I can configure the etc/hosts file on each PC but I also have SmartPhones on which I can not do so.
So I figured I need a Dnsmasq on my Server, configure my router to use the server as DNS and configure Dnsmasq.
The only purpose of this is to access the DynDNS address within my network without editing host files.
So far I installed it on my debian 10 Server. Following this guide:
<https://wiki.ubuntuusers.de/Dnsmasq/>
I have to edit /etc/resolve.conf but it is managed by Network Manager, so I can not do it.
I run the server without desktop and I am not familiar how to use nm-cli to achieve my goal.
Maybe someone who has done similiar things can help me configuring dnsmasq, because I am not really familiar with setting up a DNS-Server. | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1529769",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1145801/"
] | You should be looking at motherboards for TPM support, not CPUs.
Some of them come with a header for a TPM device to be added to the system.
Intel chipsets that support [Intel Management Engine](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intel_Management_Engine#Modules) come with a firmware implementation of TPM.
**Update:**
It is also worth noting that CPUs do come with TPM functions built-in these days. Some budget boards with low end chipsets still might not utilize the TPM functionality in the CPU though. | It's on the list shown on this web site:
<https://mspoweruser.com/microsoft-support-windows-11-intel-amd-qualcomm-processors/> |
329,579 | I am just getting started using QGIS 3.6.3. I added a Google satelite imagery using QuickMapServices, which is projected using EPSG:3857 - WGS84/Pseudo-Mercator. Then, while importing some points in a .csv file, I thought that I should choose the same CRS so it lines up with the basemap. But that puts my data on the other side of the world. When I select ESPG:4326 - WGS 84, it lines up whith the basemap.
Are coordinates taken with an handheld GPS device inherently saved in ESPG:4326 and then reprojected when added to a Google EPSG:3857 - WGS84/Pseudo-Mercator basemap? | 2019/07/22 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/329579",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/146541/"
] | Short answer is no. EPSG:4326 is used by default in GPS devices, but most devices have option to change the reference system. In that case, the data will be in the set reference system.
When you add the data in QGIS, it will reproject the data in any known reference system to the map's projection system (in this case EPSG:3857) | As a rough rule of thumb, yes, must consumer GPS devices (especially Garmin) will default to WGS84, and it tends to be a safe assumption that a shapefile or other spatial data without a defined CRS is likely in WGS84, even in industrial/agricultural settings.
On some devices, you can explicitly set the CRS used for the saved data, but without knowing what hardware you're using, I can't help you more that way.
In general terms, yes, QGIS will do on the fly CRS/GRS transformation unless you explicitly disable it/change it from the default behavior. |
109,260 | I want to make pixel art in Gimp, but the grid that I pull up is only a filter. I'd like to get a perfect fill for each pixel instead of having to measure the pixel and line it up each time. Is it possible to get a grid that can do this? Thanks! | 2018/05/11 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/109260",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/121198/"
] | No grid is needed, use real pixels for pixel art. Define your new image for example to be 60 pixel wide and 40 pixel high. Then draw with 1 pixel wide pencil.
If you want a copy with higher pixel dimensions, make a copy and scale it (Image > Scale). Define interpolation method = None to keep it sharp | *Image → Configure Grid...* and *View → Show grid* or *View → Snap to grid.* |
44,104 | In age 1, the only resource you buy are the grey ones, because: in age 1, the brown ones produce only one resource at a time, but in age 2 they produce 2. This means you profit more from buying brown cards in age 2 than 1. So it costs a coin, big deal. No matter what, age 1 or 2, when you buy a grey card, it produces one item. This means when the worse cards are in play, you should buy the ones that will be the same.
Note: It also helps to choose your playing style early right? | 2018/11/19 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/44104",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/25568/"
] | The analysis is technically correct, but practically kind of wrong.
Every choice of card in 7 Wonders comes with an *opportunity cost*, which is to say, "What are you giving up by choosing this card instead?"
It is true that the brown resource cards in Age 2 give you access to twice as many resources as their Age 1 counterparts, for the cost of a single coin which is usually not huge as far as things go. However, if you decide that this means you should ignore the brown cards in Age 1 and just wait until Age 2 to get them, then:
1. You run the risk of never getting the resources you will need, especially if your opponents are paying attention and carefully deprive you of key cards.
2. You spend less of Age 2 building more useful cards (e.g. Science and Military cards, especially the ones that enable you to build stuff in Age 3).
3. You potentially have to spend more coins building things in Age 1, if you're relying on neighbours to provide the resources.
4. Conversely, your neighbours will not be buying resources from you, denying you a source of income.
It's easy to be flippant and say "It all depends on the cards", but really that's the point - 7 Wonders is a game of making lots of decisions, and there is rarely a singular strategy that you can follow blindly to success. | I think your asking "is it worth buying brown resource cards in age one when they improve in age two whilst grey ones do not"?
The answer is (as it should be for all board games) is "it depends".
yes Age 2 brown cards are better value but you do want to spend a third of the game not getting resources?
Is your choice of what cards you take influenced by what resource yours and neighbours wonder produces.
Do you need to collect lots of the same or a variety of resource for your wonder?
What resources can I get from yellow cards?
So in answer to your question.... Yes age 2 brown cards are better than age 1 brown cards but I personally wouldn't base my strategies on that fact.. However, as in all games, there is never one winning strategy that always works and you should always do what you feel is best in that situation. |
44,104 | In age 1, the only resource you buy are the grey ones, because: in age 1, the brown ones produce only one resource at a time, but in age 2 they produce 2. This means you profit more from buying brown cards in age 2 than 1. So it costs a coin, big deal. No matter what, age 1 or 2, when you buy a grey card, it produces one item. This means when the worse cards are in play, you should buy the ones that will be the same.
Note: It also helps to choose your playing style early right? | 2018/11/19 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/44104",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/25568/"
] | I think your asking "is it worth buying brown resource cards in age one when they improve in age two whilst grey ones do not"?
The answer is (as it should be for all board games) is "it depends".
yes Age 2 brown cards are better value but you do want to spend a third of the game not getting resources?
Is your choice of what cards you take influenced by what resource yours and neighbours wonder produces.
Do you need to collect lots of the same or a variety of resource for your wonder?
What resources can I get from yellow cards?
So in answer to your question.... Yes age 2 brown cards are better than age 1 brown cards but I personally wouldn't base my strategies on that fact.. However, as in all games, there is never one winning strategy that always works and you should always do what you feel is best in that situation. | >
> This means when the worse cards are in play, you should buy the ones that will be the same.
>
>
>
That doesn't make sense. If they're worse, then they aren't the same.
Age I brown cards, Age II brown cards, and Age I silver cards are incomparable; no one is clearly better than the other. Yes, Age II brown cards give more resources than Age I brown cards, but an brown card obtained in Age I can be used to buy things for two more ages, while a brown card obtained during Age I can be used to buy things for one more age (and if you buy military in Age I, that military gives you benefits for all three ages). Silver cards can be used to buy high-value cards, but those cards don't show up until later ages; a silver card obtained in Age I can't be used to buy anything in that age.
Your argument, which you aren't articulating completely explicitly and so I have to read between the lines a bit, is that if you first have a choice between one resource of Type A or one resource of Type B, and then later a choice between two resources of Type A or one resource of Type B, then you should first choose Type B and then Type A. While there are some valid intuitions motivating that reasoning, it is not a conclusive. One motivation would be the assumption that the game makers designed the game to be balanced, so if they give you a choice between one of Type B and two of Type A, then one of Type B must be worth two of Type A. But the very fact that you think there is a clear strategy means that you are implicitly accepting that it *isn't* completely balanced. Furthermore, you are assuming that the relative worth of the two types of resources are the same in both ages, so if one silver resource is worth two brown resources in Age II, then it must be worth two in Age I. But as I argued above, that argument does not hold, because there are things available in later ages that require silver resources, and thus silver resources are worth more in later ages.
>
> So it costs a coin, big deal.
>
>
>
You can't spend coins on resources unless your neighbors have those resources. |
44,104 | In age 1, the only resource you buy are the grey ones, because: in age 1, the brown ones produce only one resource at a time, but in age 2 they produce 2. This means you profit more from buying brown cards in age 2 than 1. So it costs a coin, big deal. No matter what, age 1 or 2, when you buy a grey card, it produces one item. This means when the worse cards are in play, you should buy the ones that will be the same.
Note: It also helps to choose your playing style early right? | 2018/11/19 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/44104",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/25568/"
] | The analysis is technically correct, but practically kind of wrong.
Every choice of card in 7 Wonders comes with an *opportunity cost*, which is to say, "What are you giving up by choosing this card instead?"
It is true that the brown resource cards in Age 2 give you access to twice as many resources as their Age 1 counterparts, for the cost of a single coin which is usually not huge as far as things go. However, if you decide that this means you should ignore the brown cards in Age 1 and just wait until Age 2 to get them, then:
1. You run the risk of never getting the resources you will need, especially if your opponents are paying attention and carefully deprive you of key cards.
2. You spend less of Age 2 building more useful cards (e.g. Science and Military cards, especially the ones that enable you to build stuff in Age 3).
3. You potentially have to spend more coins building things in Age 1, if you're relying on neighbours to provide the resources.
4. Conversely, your neighbours will not be buying resources from you, denying you a source of income.
It's easy to be flippant and say "It all depends on the cards", but really that's the point - 7 Wonders is a game of making lots of decisions, and there is rarely a singular strategy that you can follow blindly to success. | >
> This means when the worse cards are in play, you should buy the ones that will be the same.
>
>
>
That doesn't make sense. If they're worse, then they aren't the same.
Age I brown cards, Age II brown cards, and Age I silver cards are incomparable; no one is clearly better than the other. Yes, Age II brown cards give more resources than Age I brown cards, but an brown card obtained in Age I can be used to buy things for two more ages, while a brown card obtained during Age I can be used to buy things for one more age (and if you buy military in Age I, that military gives you benefits for all three ages). Silver cards can be used to buy high-value cards, but those cards don't show up until later ages; a silver card obtained in Age I can't be used to buy anything in that age.
Your argument, which you aren't articulating completely explicitly and so I have to read between the lines a bit, is that if you first have a choice between one resource of Type A or one resource of Type B, and then later a choice between two resources of Type A or one resource of Type B, then you should first choose Type B and then Type A. While there are some valid intuitions motivating that reasoning, it is not a conclusive. One motivation would be the assumption that the game makers designed the game to be balanced, so if they give you a choice between one of Type B and two of Type A, then one of Type B must be worth two of Type A. But the very fact that you think there is a clear strategy means that you are implicitly accepting that it *isn't* completely balanced. Furthermore, you are assuming that the relative worth of the two types of resources are the same in both ages, so if one silver resource is worth two brown resources in Age II, then it must be worth two in Age I. But as I argued above, that argument does not hold, because there are things available in later ages that require silver resources, and thus silver resources are worth more in later ages.
>
> So it costs a coin, big deal.
>
>
>
You can't spend coins on resources unless your neighbors have those resources. |
516,314 | Does ASP.NET MVC provide a standard validator functionality or do you have to create your own validation manually? If the latter, is there any third party validator available that you can use on ASP.NET MVC web applications? | 2009/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/516314",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3713/"
] | Shortly after I posted this answer I found [xval](http://xval.codeplex.com/) which is a validation framework for ASP.NET MVC. | David Hayden [wrote an article](http://codebetter.com/blogs/david.hayden/archive/2009/02/03/an-aha-moment-on-mvc-validation-extensibility-in-defaultmodelbinder-bye-to-idataerrorinfo.aspx) over at www.codebetter.com describing a great way to handle validation. Of course xVal is an option but it's always great to have an understanding. |
516,314 | Does ASP.NET MVC provide a standard validator functionality or do you have to create your own validation manually? If the latter, is there any third party validator available that you can use on ASP.NET MVC web applications? | 2009/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/516314",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3713/"
] | Shortly after I posted this answer I found [xval](http://xval.codeplex.com/) which is a validation framework for ASP.NET MVC. | I implemented a variant of the code I found on Stephen Walther's [blog](http://www.stephenwalther.com/blog/archive/2008/09/09/asp-net-mvc-application-building-forums-4-1-2-validation-revisited.aspx). I use it with LINQ2SQL models by defining an IValidatedEntity interface that includes the GetRuleViolations() method and implementing the partial OnValidate method that calls GetRuleViolations() and throws a custom exception if the number of violations is non-zero. In the controller, this fires on SubmitChanges for the data context. If I get an exception I requery the model via the GetRuleViolations() method to build model errors to pass back to the view. |
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