qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
859 | Would organizing a DF succession game on meta be off-topic? | 2010/08/18 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/859",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/39/"
] | I don't quite know what a succession game is, but this sounds along the lines of any manner of scheduling for net-gaming matches or organizing collaborative play.
In which the answer is **it is off-topic**. Related: [Oak's answer here](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/712/is-oak-actually-a-pokemon-professor-in-disguise/713#713 "On Gaming discussions in Meta").
The site Meta is the place to ask questions and house discussion about the *site*. When we get our own Third Place, then that will be an option for this kind of thing. For now, we can still leech off of chat.meta.stackoverflow. | You could set up a [Dwarf Fortress room](http://chat.meta.stackoverflow.com/rooms/198/dwarf-fortress-succession) in [chat](http://chat.meta.stackoverflow.com/) (currently only beta at meta.SO however). |
253,367 | After upgrading my iPhone 5 from iOS 9 directly to iOS 10.0.1, all my icloud calendars are gone.
They don't show up in the `calendars` list in the Calendar app, and dragging said list down to force syncing of the calendars doesn't even show the usual spinning loading bar indicator – the whole iCloud section is just missing from the list. Rebooting didn't fix the issue. | 2016/09/19 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/253367",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/46418/"
] | The following finally fixed the issue for me:
1. Sign out of iCloud (Settings -> iCloud -> Sign Out)
2. choosing "delete all iCloud data from iPhone"
3. sign in again
4. wait a couple of minutes | If you are missing past events, try this: go to Settings>Calendar>Sync. After an iOS upgrade, it defaulted to Events 2 weeks Back, which is why you may not see other older events. You can change it to 1, 3, 6 months back, or All Events.
That restored my missing older events. |
2,737 | After a month or two of playing, the strings will often have grime and skin oil stuck to the underside, and the frets will eventually start building up dirt. Add to that all the dust that accumulates on the guitar, since I have it on a wall mount, and you end up with a relatively nasty instrument that is not quite as enjoyable to play.
When and how often is it best to clean your guitar? And what are some techniques and cleaning products that will help the instrument look good as new? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/2737",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/424/"
] | Cleaning guitars comes in two flavours: everyday maintenance and the occasional full-on scrub-down.
As Dave says, prevention is the first thing you should be doing. Keep a cleaning cloth handy and give the whole guitar a good wipe every time you finish playing. Slip the cloth under the strings (I find it's best to do this one string at a time) and run it across the full length of the string, bridge to nut, a couple of times. Wipe the body and the neck as well. You may want to use separate cloths for the strings and the body, because cleaning strings will make holes in the cloth pretty quickly. Plus, that's where most of the grime accumulates when playing. A painting brush is also useful, for getting dust particles out of hard-to-reach places, such as bridge saddles.
Every once in a while, however, you'll want to give your guitar a good cleaning and the best time to do this is when changing strings. To do this, you'll have to remove the whole set (a pain with floating-bridge tremolos, but worth the extra effort) and have some cleaning agents handy for the various parts of the guitar.
What you use to clean the body will depend on the finish. Most electric guitars have synthetic finishes, which are fairly robust and resistant to environmental insults, but some higher-priced guitars - Gibsons for example - have nitrocelulose finishes that require a little more care in choosing what you clean them with. French-polished classical guitars are even more demanding in this respect, since the finish is so delicate. When in doubt, get a purpose-made cleaner/polish from a music store.
Unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise, apply a small amount of the cleaning agent (which may be as simple as water with a bit detergent, if the finish has no special requirements) and wipe down the body and all other finished parts (which will probably include the headstock and maybe the neck). Pay special attention to the cutaways, since that's where grime tends to accumulate, and work into the light to see whether you've missed anything. Once you're satisfied that the guitar is clean, dry and buff the finish with a clean cloth.
Fingerboards deserve separate attention, which will depend on whether they've been lacquered or not. Rosewood or ebony fingerboards tend to be unfinished and should be cleaned either with a purpose-made fretboard cleaner or with a small quantity of lemon oil. Again, apply a bit to your cleaning cloth (a different one than the one you used for the body - obviously) and rub down the whole fretboard, taking special care to remove any dirt that has accumulated around the frets. If you have trouble removing this, try wrapping the cloth around a fingernail or pick. Having done that, wipe off any excess cleaner or oil and leave the wood to soak it in for a bit.
Lacquered fingerboards can be cleaned in a similar way as other finished guitar parts, but check the manufacturer's recommendations just in case. For unfinished necks, it would probably be best to simply use a moist cloth.
Any dust can be removed with either a cloth or a painting brush (as mentioned above). Chrome parts may be cleaned with a purpose-made cleaning agent, but this is seldom necessary. Remember to remove them from the guitar, if you intend to do so.
Always remember to read the instructions from the manufacturer of the guitar and any cleaning agents you use. When in doubt, keep cleaning agents away from exposed wood (including any chips in the finish) and use small amounts of cleaner. | The excellent Frets.com site:
<http://www.frets.com/FretsPages/pagelist.html#Musician>
has a wealth of information. Check out the "general maintenance" section. |
2,737 | After a month or two of playing, the strings will often have grime and skin oil stuck to the underside, and the frets will eventually start building up dirt. Add to that all the dust that accumulates on the guitar, since I have it on a wall mount, and you end up with a relatively nasty instrument that is not quite as enjoyable to play.
When and how often is it best to clean your guitar? And what are some techniques and cleaning products that will help the instrument look good as new? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/2737",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/424/"
] | Cleaning guitars comes in two flavours: everyday maintenance and the occasional full-on scrub-down.
As Dave says, prevention is the first thing you should be doing. Keep a cleaning cloth handy and give the whole guitar a good wipe every time you finish playing. Slip the cloth under the strings (I find it's best to do this one string at a time) and run it across the full length of the string, bridge to nut, a couple of times. Wipe the body and the neck as well. You may want to use separate cloths for the strings and the body, because cleaning strings will make holes in the cloth pretty quickly. Plus, that's where most of the grime accumulates when playing. A painting brush is also useful, for getting dust particles out of hard-to-reach places, such as bridge saddles.
Every once in a while, however, you'll want to give your guitar a good cleaning and the best time to do this is when changing strings. To do this, you'll have to remove the whole set (a pain with floating-bridge tremolos, but worth the extra effort) and have some cleaning agents handy for the various parts of the guitar.
What you use to clean the body will depend on the finish. Most electric guitars have synthetic finishes, which are fairly robust and resistant to environmental insults, but some higher-priced guitars - Gibsons for example - have nitrocelulose finishes that require a little more care in choosing what you clean them with. French-polished classical guitars are even more demanding in this respect, since the finish is so delicate. When in doubt, get a purpose-made cleaner/polish from a music store.
Unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise, apply a small amount of the cleaning agent (which may be as simple as water with a bit detergent, if the finish has no special requirements) and wipe down the body and all other finished parts (which will probably include the headstock and maybe the neck). Pay special attention to the cutaways, since that's where grime tends to accumulate, and work into the light to see whether you've missed anything. Once you're satisfied that the guitar is clean, dry and buff the finish with a clean cloth.
Fingerboards deserve separate attention, which will depend on whether they've been lacquered or not. Rosewood or ebony fingerboards tend to be unfinished and should be cleaned either with a purpose-made fretboard cleaner or with a small quantity of lemon oil. Again, apply a bit to your cleaning cloth (a different one than the one you used for the body - obviously) and rub down the whole fretboard, taking special care to remove any dirt that has accumulated around the frets. If you have trouble removing this, try wrapping the cloth around a fingernail or pick. Having done that, wipe off any excess cleaner or oil and leave the wood to soak it in for a bit.
Lacquered fingerboards can be cleaned in a similar way as other finished guitar parts, but check the manufacturer's recommendations just in case. For unfinished necks, it would probably be best to simply use a moist cloth.
Any dust can be removed with either a cloth or a painting brush (as mentioned above). Chrome parts may be cleaned with a purpose-made cleaning agent, but this is seldom necessary. Remember to remove them from the guitar, if you intend to do so.
Always remember to read the instructions from the manufacturer of the guitar and any cleaning agents you use. When in doubt, keep cleaning agents away from exposed wood (including any chips in the finish) and use small amounts of cleaner. | Prevention is the best approach for this. Slip a microfibre cloth between the strings and fretboard and run it up and down the neck a few times after you're finished playing. Dust and grime aren't going to accumulate on the string when you aren't playing, and if you've wiped your sweat off corrosion won't happen as fast either.
If you've got really corrosive sweat, you might find that something like "Fast Fret" is useful, it's just mineral oil but it should provide some defence against corrosion. It also lessens the effects once it's happened. |
2,737 | After a month or two of playing, the strings will often have grime and skin oil stuck to the underside, and the frets will eventually start building up dirt. Add to that all the dust that accumulates on the guitar, since I have it on a wall mount, and you end up with a relatively nasty instrument that is not quite as enjoyable to play.
When and how often is it best to clean your guitar? And what are some techniques and cleaning products that will help the instrument look good as new? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/2737",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/424/"
] | Cleaning guitars comes in two flavours: everyday maintenance and the occasional full-on scrub-down.
As Dave says, prevention is the first thing you should be doing. Keep a cleaning cloth handy and give the whole guitar a good wipe every time you finish playing. Slip the cloth under the strings (I find it's best to do this one string at a time) and run it across the full length of the string, bridge to nut, a couple of times. Wipe the body and the neck as well. You may want to use separate cloths for the strings and the body, because cleaning strings will make holes in the cloth pretty quickly. Plus, that's where most of the grime accumulates when playing. A painting brush is also useful, for getting dust particles out of hard-to-reach places, such as bridge saddles.
Every once in a while, however, you'll want to give your guitar a good cleaning and the best time to do this is when changing strings. To do this, you'll have to remove the whole set (a pain with floating-bridge tremolos, but worth the extra effort) and have some cleaning agents handy for the various parts of the guitar.
What you use to clean the body will depend on the finish. Most electric guitars have synthetic finishes, which are fairly robust and resistant to environmental insults, but some higher-priced guitars - Gibsons for example - have nitrocelulose finishes that require a little more care in choosing what you clean them with. French-polished classical guitars are even more demanding in this respect, since the finish is so delicate. When in doubt, get a purpose-made cleaner/polish from a music store.
Unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise, apply a small amount of the cleaning agent (which may be as simple as water with a bit detergent, if the finish has no special requirements) and wipe down the body and all other finished parts (which will probably include the headstock and maybe the neck). Pay special attention to the cutaways, since that's where grime tends to accumulate, and work into the light to see whether you've missed anything. Once you're satisfied that the guitar is clean, dry and buff the finish with a clean cloth.
Fingerboards deserve separate attention, which will depend on whether they've been lacquered or not. Rosewood or ebony fingerboards tend to be unfinished and should be cleaned either with a purpose-made fretboard cleaner or with a small quantity of lemon oil. Again, apply a bit to your cleaning cloth (a different one than the one you used for the body - obviously) and rub down the whole fretboard, taking special care to remove any dirt that has accumulated around the frets. If you have trouble removing this, try wrapping the cloth around a fingernail or pick. Having done that, wipe off any excess cleaner or oil and leave the wood to soak it in for a bit.
Lacquered fingerboards can be cleaned in a similar way as other finished guitar parts, but check the manufacturer's recommendations just in case. For unfinished necks, it would probably be best to simply use a moist cloth.
Any dust can be removed with either a cloth or a painting brush (as mentioned above). Chrome parts may be cleaned with a purpose-made cleaning agent, but this is seldom necessary. Remember to remove them from the guitar, if you intend to do so.
Always remember to read the instructions from the manufacturer of the guitar and any cleaning agents you use. When in doubt, keep cleaning agents away from exposed wood (including any chips in the finish) and use small amounts of cleaner. | Seconding Dave's comment, recommending suggestion. Wiping down with a microfiber cloth following each playing will significantly increase the life of the strings. Take a look at The String Cleaner (http://thestringcleaner.com). Affordable microfiber cloth unit that gets all 6 strings at once. Quicker and more effective than a cloth alone. |
17,170 | How can I create a gear system which keeps, say, 60 rpm stable on output wheel, when I don't care about force? I am using a hand-turned crank as an input wheel.
I know a flywheel could be used, but it is weak to small accelerations and slowdowns over time. | 2017/09/18 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/17170",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/12964/"
] | Since this is fully analog, if you don't want to delve into extremely complex devices like a continuously variable transmission with ratio governed by deviation of output speed, your best bet would be to ballpark the input torque range and provide a strongly non-linear speed governor creating extra friction on output exceeding rated value.
Go with a [centrifugal governor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Centrifugal_governor) that upon exceeding preset speed activates a brake on the input shaft, with friction climbing rapidly as output speed is exceeded - say, the weights of the governor move jaws of a brake, engaging them as friction reaches the limit.
A somewhat simpler mechanism, frequently used in music boxes, uses viscous friction of air; a little fan driven by a set of gears increasing its speed relative to input, responds with torque of air resistance proportional to square of rotary speed. This is less accurate, but simpler and suffer less wear over time. | The keyword you are looking for is a [governor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Governor_(device))
The most simple type is a parted circle that are hinged to be able to move outward into a ring by centrifugal force and the friction counteracts the increased speed. |
535 | What institutions and organizations existed in the United States before the structured and recognizable labor unions formed as a visible sign of organizations to come? How did these predecessor organizations pave the way for powerful labor organizations as recognized in the twentieth century? | 2011/10/25 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/535",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/18/"
] | The earliest form of unions were guilds which identified people who specialized in certain skills. These guilds would consist of masters, journeymen, and apprentices, each with different levels of experience. As cities became more urbanized, many industries found it more practical to hire unskilled labor and train them to have the necessary skills.
The earliest form of organized unions were called craft unions, and they consisted of workers within a specific industry who possessed critical skills. They found that by removing these critical workers they could make demands on their employers that would often be met in order to resume production. These generally did little to help unskilled workers, but they did establish a model upon which future unions would be built.
In the late 19th century, trade unions started popping up. These were very similar to craft unions in that they focused on workers with skills in a particular trade. Another form of union that began to appear was industrial unions, which organized workers without regard to trade.
Perhaps the earliest organized union to represent a mass of unskilled workers in the US was a group called the Knights of Labor (KOL). They were formed in Philadelphia in 1869 and grew to a million members by the end of the century. The KOL united workers without consideration of occupation, industry, race or gender.
*All information taken from [Labor Unions in the United States](http://eh.net/encyclopedia/article/friedman.unions.us) by Gerald Friedman, University of Massachusetts at Amherst.* | Its common to see union histories begun in the late 19th century, but the institutional precursors for labor unions--even unions that organize workers regardless of trade or craft--goes back to the founding of the country. The earliest I know of is the [General Society of Mechanics and Tradesman](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Society_of_Mechanics_and_Tradesmen_of_the_City_of_New_York), founded as a mutual aid society for skilled workers in New York City in 1785.
The first wave of formal organization of wage earners started in the 1820s. In Philadelphia, different trades were organized by the [Mechanics' Union of Trade Associations](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mechanics%27_Union_of_Trade_Associations#Legacy), founded in 1827. A similar organization called the [General Trades Union](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Trades_Union) was founded in New York City.
Just as important were the political vehicles of the working class, the [Working Men's Parties](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Working_Men%27s_Party). First founded in 1828, state-by-state experiences varied quite a bit. However, they generally ended up being absorbed by the Democratic Party.
The Panic of 1837 hit these labor organizations hard. Many native workers gave up their political goals and focused on immediate problems like subsistence. During this period, labor activism was kept alive by Irish and German immigrants, who imported their homelands' radical labor culture (Wilentz 1984, pp. 252-253).
In response to these immigrants, a whole new wave of labor organizations were founded in the 1840s and 1850s. These organizations often exhibited a pronounced nativism. They include the Mechanics Mutual Protection Association (Buffalo, 1841), the Order of United American Mechanics (Philadelphia, 1845), and the [American Laboring Confederacy](https://books.google.com/books?id=0I91Iht_tWsC&pg=PA345&lpg=PA345&dq=american%20laboring%20confederacy&source=bl&ots=O8PftJE5AN&sig=BnnXGsUTWfg4rIXkWaA0q0QyLsw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDgQ6AEwBGoVChMI6fvQqsaexwIVAXQ-Ch1KIAr1#v=onepage&q=american%20laboring%20confederacy&f=false). There were also umbrella organizations such as New York's [Industrial Congress](https://books.google.com/books?id=zOUJEpTBYNsC&pg=PA376&lpg=PA376&dq=new%20york%20industrial%20congress&source=bl&ots=KVoaayYwSu&sig=9c7uz9QtexRhQwx2cqSPe4yVz44&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CEcQ6AEwCjgKahUKEwjo-dftxJ7HAhWBSj4KHUxVCiw#v=onepage&q=new%20york%20industrial%20congress&f=false), which during the 1850s and 1860s received delegates from labor organizations all across the city and met in City Hall.
---
Source: Sean Wilentz's *Chants Democratic* is the best single-volume study I know for antebellum labor history. |
535 | What institutions and organizations existed in the United States before the structured and recognizable labor unions formed as a visible sign of organizations to come? How did these predecessor organizations pave the way for powerful labor organizations as recognized in the twentieth century? | 2011/10/25 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/535",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/18/"
] | The earliest form of unions were guilds which identified people who specialized in certain skills. These guilds would consist of masters, journeymen, and apprentices, each with different levels of experience. As cities became more urbanized, many industries found it more practical to hire unskilled labor and train them to have the necessary skills.
The earliest form of organized unions were called craft unions, and they consisted of workers within a specific industry who possessed critical skills. They found that by removing these critical workers they could make demands on their employers that would often be met in order to resume production. These generally did little to help unskilled workers, but they did establish a model upon which future unions would be built.
In the late 19th century, trade unions started popping up. These were very similar to craft unions in that they focused on workers with skills in a particular trade. Another form of union that began to appear was industrial unions, which organized workers without regard to trade.
Perhaps the earliest organized union to represent a mass of unskilled workers in the US was a group called the Knights of Labor (KOL). They were formed in Philadelphia in 1869 and grew to a million members by the end of the century. The KOL united workers without consideration of occupation, industry, race or gender.
*All information taken from [Labor Unions in the United States](http://eh.net/encyclopedia/article/friedman.unions.us) by Gerald Friedman, University of Massachusetts at Amherst.* | The origins of American labor unions took place shortly after the founding of the country, beginning in key cities like [Philadelphia](http://www.history.com/topics/labor). These were initially trade and craft unions. Later, a group of unions formed the Mechanical Union ("guild, actually) of Trade Associations in Philadephia in 1827.
In the middle and later part of the 19th century, immigrants from central and eastern Europe flooded the country, brought their own labor Union heritage with them, and joined the American strains. This led, in 1886 to the formation of the American Federation of Labor under [Samuel Gompers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samuel_Gompers), an immigrant from England who spent a lot of time with German immigrant workers, acted as a "bridge" between American- and foreign born laborers. |
535 | What institutions and organizations existed in the United States before the structured and recognizable labor unions formed as a visible sign of organizations to come? How did these predecessor organizations pave the way for powerful labor organizations as recognized in the twentieth century? | 2011/10/25 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/535",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/18/"
] | Its common to see union histories begun in the late 19th century, but the institutional precursors for labor unions--even unions that organize workers regardless of trade or craft--goes back to the founding of the country. The earliest I know of is the [General Society of Mechanics and Tradesman](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Society_of_Mechanics_and_Tradesmen_of_the_City_of_New_York), founded as a mutual aid society for skilled workers in New York City in 1785.
The first wave of formal organization of wage earners started in the 1820s. In Philadelphia, different trades were organized by the [Mechanics' Union of Trade Associations](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mechanics%27_Union_of_Trade_Associations#Legacy), founded in 1827. A similar organization called the [General Trades Union](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Trades_Union) was founded in New York City.
Just as important were the political vehicles of the working class, the [Working Men's Parties](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Working_Men%27s_Party). First founded in 1828, state-by-state experiences varied quite a bit. However, they generally ended up being absorbed by the Democratic Party.
The Panic of 1837 hit these labor organizations hard. Many native workers gave up their political goals and focused on immediate problems like subsistence. During this period, labor activism was kept alive by Irish and German immigrants, who imported their homelands' radical labor culture (Wilentz 1984, pp. 252-253).
In response to these immigrants, a whole new wave of labor organizations were founded in the 1840s and 1850s. These organizations often exhibited a pronounced nativism. They include the Mechanics Mutual Protection Association (Buffalo, 1841), the Order of United American Mechanics (Philadelphia, 1845), and the [American Laboring Confederacy](https://books.google.com/books?id=0I91Iht_tWsC&pg=PA345&lpg=PA345&dq=american%20laboring%20confederacy&source=bl&ots=O8PftJE5AN&sig=BnnXGsUTWfg4rIXkWaA0q0QyLsw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDgQ6AEwBGoVChMI6fvQqsaexwIVAXQ-Ch1KIAr1#v=onepage&q=american%20laboring%20confederacy&f=false). There were also umbrella organizations such as New York's [Industrial Congress](https://books.google.com/books?id=zOUJEpTBYNsC&pg=PA376&lpg=PA376&dq=new%20york%20industrial%20congress&source=bl&ots=KVoaayYwSu&sig=9c7uz9QtexRhQwx2cqSPe4yVz44&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CEcQ6AEwCjgKahUKEwjo-dftxJ7HAhWBSj4KHUxVCiw#v=onepage&q=new%20york%20industrial%20congress&f=false), which during the 1850s and 1860s received delegates from labor organizations all across the city and met in City Hall.
---
Source: Sean Wilentz's *Chants Democratic* is the best single-volume study I know for antebellum labor history. | The origins of American labor unions took place shortly after the founding of the country, beginning in key cities like [Philadelphia](http://www.history.com/topics/labor). These were initially trade and craft unions. Later, a group of unions formed the Mechanical Union ("guild, actually) of Trade Associations in Philadephia in 1827.
In the middle and later part of the 19th century, immigrants from central and eastern Europe flooded the country, brought their own labor Union heritage with them, and joined the American strains. This led, in 1886 to the formation of the American Federation of Labor under [Samuel Gompers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samuel_Gompers), an immigrant from England who spent a lot of time with German immigrant workers, acted as a "bridge" between American- and foreign born laborers. |
3,054 | I would like to have a [Profit Points](http://www.open-org.com/profit-sharing) <-> Bitcoins exchange. The exchange could either be developed and run by contributors of Open-org.com or be created by an existing Bitcoin exchange. I have, however, already contacted [World Bitcoin Exchange](http://www.worldbitcoinexchange.com), to ask if they are interested in creating such an exchange without getting an answer. To develop the exchange ourselves seems like quite a task, due to the need for security even if we would base it upon the [open source](https://github.com/dooglus/intersango/commits/aud) of the World Bitcoin Exchange.
The reason why I am so interested in creating a Bitcoin exchange is that the spirit of Bitcoins really match the spirit of [Open-org.com](http://Open-org.com). We both want to take on conservative systems and innovate to create something better. In the case of Open-org.com the main aim would be to create an alternative to the large established and utterly closed corporations, who feel like they own their employees. | 2012/03/02 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/3054",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/6/"
] | All valid transactions are relayed through the network. A client does not know which transactions will be a part of a block, so it stores and relays both double-spent transactions. If you regularly poll your bitcoind, you can see every transaction before it is put in a block. Then it is just a matter of checking txin data for duplicate inputs. | The bitcoin network does NOT relay unconfirmed transactions that double spend other unconfirmed transactions, so neither blockchain.info not anyone else sees most unconfirmed double-spends. Nodes do not store two conflicting spends - they store only the first one they see.
This is becoming a bigger challenge for merchants because they need to connect to thousands of nodes in the hope of spotting double-spends.
The [Bitcoin XT](https://github.com/bitcoinxt/bitcoinxt/releases) patch set is an early release of functions that are proposed for Bitcoin Core. It does relay double spends, and notifies the wallet of double-spend attempts that affect it. |
211,867 | In first picture, you can see an image of a lake(Bellandur lake, bengaluru, india). In second picture, you can see the flow accumulation data for the same area I made(after "fill"ing the sinks). As you can see, the water accumulates rightward of the lake where there are houses and city.
Why is this happening?
Instead of flowing rightward, shouldn't the water flow inward the lake?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fuFGj.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pc6tn.png) | 2016/09/24 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/211867",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/82795/"
] | To understand why, have a look at your flow direction raster. In a flat filled area such as this, the flow direction is limited to the flat filled surface regardless of whatever topography may have been present there before filling. There are alternatives to this that either apply a downstream trend to the filled surface (helps a bit) or better yet, you could decrement (breach) the DEM instead of filling to preserve the inherent topography of the area. | As to why is this happening, look at the actual values of the DEM in the area it is filling up. As the previous answer stated, if the land there is fairly flat and not far above the surface of the lake, it will flood. If it doesn't meet those two points, then there is probably an error in the way you worked it. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | Perhaps you are referring to [the Free Rider problem](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/free-rider/)? A *free rider*, most broadly speaking, is a person who receives a benefit without contributing towards the cost of its production. | An alternative answer is that these are all examples of the prisoner's dilemma. In all cases the expenditure of political capital produces no effect for those spending it unless everyone does this.
To explain, if you have city A and city B, if only one city attempts a program then both cities slightly improve. But the politicians who implemented the program spent all their effort for only a little improvement, not a positive trade off for them. From this you can see that unless cities A and B have a reason to trust each other (or a reason for the politicians to trust each other to commit) then it may always be a better payoff for any politician to defect and not commit to the program. Leading to a Nash equilibrium that nobody approaches the problem.
You can resolve this problem with several strategies, but when you have more than two players it becomes vastly more complicated to get cooperation unless there are some players (or subgroups of players) who benefit for one reason or another without anyone else contributing. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | Perhaps you are referring to [the Free Rider problem](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/free-rider/)? A *free rider*, most broadly speaking, is a person who receives a benefit without contributing towards the cost of its production. | In a more general sense, the program *backfired*.
A problem was identified. Someone came up with a solution. The solution was implemented. The problem got worse. The solution backfired (etymology: if a gun "backfires" it shoots you in the face - think of Bugs Bunny plugging Elmer Fudd's shotgun and it exploding in his face) |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | In Spanish it is common the use of the *efecto llamada*, by which some event causes people or resources to move (I have seen used for the examples that you post, but also for people investing into some market that is becoming "hot").
I have seen it translated as:
* call effect, which is the most direct translation
* pull/pulling effect
* beacon effect | If the a problem is solved locally, only to be redistributed to surrounding areas, this is called the *Waterbed Effect*. The analogy is clear: if you push down on one spot on a waterbed, the water moves away to other parts. The one spot becomes lower, but the amount of water remains the same.
What you're describing seems akin to that, but not quite. If I were to translate from Dutch ("aanzuigende werking"), I'd say it is an *Attracting Effect*. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | Perhaps you are referring to [the Free Rider problem](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/free-rider/)? A *free rider*, most broadly speaking, is a person who receives a benefit without contributing towards the cost of its production. | In Spanish it is common the use of the *efecto llamada*, by which some event causes people or resources to move (I have seen used for the examples that you post, but also for people investing into some market that is becoming "hot").
I have seen it translated as:
* call effect, which is the most direct translation
* pull/pulling effect
* beacon effect |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | [Induced Demand](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_demand) works for the homelessness example and may well be a general answer.
Is there a third example where you think it doesn't fit? | If the a problem is solved locally, only to be redistributed to surrounding areas, this is called the *Waterbed Effect*. The analogy is clear: if you push down on one spot on a waterbed, the water moves away to other parts. The one spot becomes lower, but the amount of water remains the same.
What you're describing seems akin to that, but not quite. If I were to translate from Dutch ("aanzuigende werking"), I'd say it is an *Attracting Effect*. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | While these examples may seem like the same phenomenon, they're meaningfully distinct. That said, there's a whole slew of terms that cover a variety of cases including these and others.
In order of the examples:
1 & 2 are forms of the [Rebound Effect](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rebound_effect_(conservation)#:%7E:text=In%20conservation%20and%20energy%20economics,behavioral%20or%20other%20systemic%20responses.), where efforts to improve a system have reduced benefits because use of that system now increases.
Case #1 is also a matter of [Perverse Incentives](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perverse_incentive), wherein the needed solution has a powerful negative feedback against whoever implements it.
As mentioned in another answer, Case #2 is classic [Induced Demand](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_demand), a special case of Rebound Effect which is due to an increase in supply lowering the marginal cost of the product and thereby attracting more consumers.
Case #3 (Climate) is broad enough that numerous terms could apply, depending on the specific mechanisms you wanted to examine. Some good candidates:
If you're the country who wants to implement strict climate policy and thus face emigration of businesses to less restrictive countries, we're back at Perverse Incentives. If you're the country seeing this and hoping to boost your economy by *eliminating* your climate policy, committing the world to more severe climate change, you're participating in the [Race To The Bottom](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_to_the_bottom)
Generally it's a matter of [non-rival](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rivalry_(economics)), [non-excludable](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Excludability), [public goods](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_good_(economics)) which are chronically afflicted by the free-rider problem where if one person solves the issue, all benefit even if they don't contribute to the solution (more perverse incentives). In NR/NE Public Goods this is frequently described under the umbrella term [Tragedy of the Commons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tragedy_of_the_commons).
From @CanadianFriendly: Another thing all the examples have in common is a "parochial" mindset. Parochialism is the political tendency to look to collaboration within rather than collaboration without to solve problems. It can describe this tendency at a city, province/state, or [national scale](https://nature.com/articles/s41467-021-24787-1). It's a thinking of, "We'll look after our own, and they can look after theirs." | Perhaps you are referring to [the Free Rider problem](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/free-rider/)? A *free rider*, most broadly speaking, is a person who receives a benefit without contributing towards the cost of its production. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | Perhaps [Global problems need global solutions](https://www.un.org/en/desa/global-problems-need-global-solutions-un-officials-tell-ministers-development). This phrase has been repeatedly repeated. | If the a problem is solved locally, only to be redistributed to surrounding areas, this is called the *Waterbed Effect*. The analogy is clear: if you push down on one spot on a waterbed, the water moves away to other parts. The one spot becomes lower, but the amount of water remains the same.
What you're describing seems akin to that, but not quite. If I were to translate from Dutch ("aanzuigende werking"), I'd say it is an *Attracting Effect*. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | Perhaps [Global problems need global solutions](https://www.un.org/en/desa/global-problems-need-global-solutions-un-officials-tell-ministers-development). This phrase has been repeatedly repeated. | In a more general sense, the program *backfired*.
A problem was identified. Someone came up with a solution. The solution was implemented. The problem got worse. The solution backfired (etymology: if a gun "backfires" it shoots you in the face - think of Bugs Bunny plugging Elmer Fudd's shotgun and it exploding in his face) |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | While these examples may seem like the same phenomenon, they're meaningfully distinct. That said, there's a whole slew of terms that cover a variety of cases including these and others.
In order of the examples:
1 & 2 are forms of the [Rebound Effect](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rebound_effect_(conservation)#:%7E:text=In%20conservation%20and%20energy%20economics,behavioral%20or%20other%20systemic%20responses.), where efforts to improve a system have reduced benefits because use of that system now increases.
Case #1 is also a matter of [Perverse Incentives](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perverse_incentive), wherein the needed solution has a powerful negative feedback against whoever implements it.
As mentioned in another answer, Case #2 is classic [Induced Demand](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_demand), a special case of Rebound Effect which is due to an increase in supply lowering the marginal cost of the product and thereby attracting more consumers.
Case #3 (Climate) is broad enough that numerous terms could apply, depending on the specific mechanisms you wanted to examine. Some good candidates:
If you're the country who wants to implement strict climate policy and thus face emigration of businesses to less restrictive countries, we're back at Perverse Incentives. If you're the country seeing this and hoping to boost your economy by *eliminating* your climate policy, committing the world to more severe climate change, you're participating in the [Race To The Bottom](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_to_the_bottom)
Generally it's a matter of [non-rival](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rivalry_(economics)), [non-excludable](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Excludability), [public goods](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_good_(economics)) which are chronically afflicted by the free-rider problem where if one person solves the issue, all benefit even if they don't contribute to the solution (more perverse incentives). In NR/NE Public Goods this is frequently described under the umbrella term [Tragedy of the Commons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tragedy_of_the_commons).
From @CanadianFriendly: Another thing all the examples have in common is a "parochial" mindset. Parochialism is the political tendency to look to collaboration within rather than collaboration without to solve problems. It can describe this tendency at a city, province/state, or [national scale](https://nature.com/articles/s41467-021-24787-1). It's a thinking of, "We'll look after our own, and they can look after theirs." | What you describe essentially fits in the phenomenon known as the [tragedy of the commons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tragedy_of_the_commons): users of a shared resource will act in their own self interest until the resource is fully depleted, way beyond the point where the resource utilisation is optimal. This happens because the actions of a single user are not sufficient to preserve the resource, but can be sufficient to harm that user by depriving them from the resource they need.
Notably, this situation is impossible if the resource has a single user, who has all the interest to optimize its use and has effective means for its preservation.
In the first example, the resource is the budget that is ought to be spent to help the homeless, and users are cities. Indeed a city cannot take other cities' budgets, but it can take money away from its own homeless relief program and spend it on something else, even though a nation-wide homeless relief program would have improved the quality of life for every citizen.
Similarly, in the second example the common resource is the budget for affordable housing subventions, and in the third example it's the budget on air purification or green energy programs. |
76,534 | Examples:
* City has a homelessness problem. They increase services for the homeless, but because all the surrounding cities also have homelessness problems, homeless people from those cities move in until services are at or above capacity again. Although net good was done in the world (more homeless people fed / treated), from the perspective of a local voter who wants to see less tents in their parks, the program was a failure.
* City has a housing crisis. They implement a simple solution of building more housing. But because the entire country has a housing crisis, people from outside the city move in, and the housing will first go to those who can pay more, ie tech workers. As a result, the cost of housing does not notably improve for service workers, and there is even more demand for services.
* Edit: Another example - climate action. It's in everyone's best interest to reduce emissions, as climate change causes worldwide economic damage. However, if one country takes significantly more costly climate action that its neighbors, businesses will likely move production into countries with more permissive emissions laws, and our example country will take that economic hit and still suffer the consequences of those emissions, as greenhouse gases do not respect borders.
I feel like this dynamic pops up a lot in many of the problems we face today, but I don't have a good way to express it or talk about it. I've heard the term *induced demand* for housing specifically, but I'm reaching for something more general. | 2022/11/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/76534",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/44840/"
] | If the a problem is solved locally, only to be redistributed to surrounding areas, this is called the *Waterbed Effect*. The analogy is clear: if you push down on one spot on a waterbed, the water moves away to other parts. The one spot becomes lower, but the amount of water remains the same.
What you're describing seems akin to that, but not quite. If I were to translate from Dutch ("aanzuigende werking"), I'd say it is an *Attracting Effect*. | In a more general sense, the program *backfired*.
A problem was identified. Someone came up with a solution. The solution was implemented. The problem got worse. The solution backfired (etymology: if a gun "backfires" it shoots you in the face - think of Bugs Bunny plugging Elmer Fudd's shotgun and it exploding in his face) |
53,692,223 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6JA1M.png)
When I set 1.next to point to 3, will the 2 be deleted because there's nothing pointing to it, or will it stay in memory because its next points to 3? | 2018/12/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/53692223",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | It's unreachable, so will be collected. References only work one way in Java - given a reference to '3' you cannot get hold of '2'.
If nothing other than '1', '2' and '3' referenced '1', '2' and '3' then they would all be unreachable, even if they had cyclic references between them. | 2 will be deleted by the garbage collector if nothing points to it. It will make no difference if it is there or not, when it is not reachable by any other value. |
16,129 | I'm trying to build a very simple rhythm game (as a one-off art installation, not a commercial project) demonstrating a novel controller, but I've got an extremely short timeframe to do it in. Are there any open-source rhythm games or frameworks out there that I could use instead of writing such a game from scratch?
I could probably bang the code together in PyGame or Processing over a few days, but any time I can save on programming can be spent instead on the physical build, which would make the overall installation better. The requirements for the game itself are super simple -- I just need to scroll notes across the screen, register points based on how well the player matches them, and play a song (ducking one of the channels when a note is missed).
The custom controller is Arduino-based, sending its data as bytes over a serial port, so I don't need any fancy DirectX support. Just something that can run with <60ms latency. | 2011/08/18 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/16129",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/1573/"
] | It probably would be more effort to strip them down, but if you're curious both [StepMania](http://sourceforge.net/projects/stepmania/) and [Frets on Fire](http://sourceforge.net/projects/fretsonfire/) are open source. | Demo programming opensource, also links to some other demo/game engines : <http://elsewhere.stc.cx/demoprogramming/> |
43,935 | I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
I am on TV in different forms every night
I died but am soon to be resurrected
I am never dirty
What am I?
Hint:
>
> I am a well known Game Character
>
>
>
Big Hint
>
> I am used to clean
>
>
> | 2016/10/07 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/43935",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/30371/"
] | Are you (the pretty obscure) -
>
> Sheen Genus (シン・ジーナス?) - Also known as the "Rising Tiger" from the videogame 'Aggressors of Dark Kombat'? (Mr Sheen is a cleaning product and sheen is a word that you might use to describe the glare on a TV screen)
>
>
> | Could you be ...
>
> Kirby?
>
>
>
I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
>
> Lots of people own Kirby vacuums, so they're used every day, by both gamers and non-gamers alike.
>
>
>
I am on TV in different forms every night
>
> There are commercials for Kirby vacuum cleaners.
>
> The video game character has an anime, Kirby: Right Back at Ya!
>
> Finally, the Disney show The Suite Life on Deck has a character named Kirby.
>
> I'd guess one or more of these airs somewhere on TV every night...
>
>
>
I died but am soon to be resurrected
>
> The Suite Life on Deck character Kirby's actor recently died.
>
> The Kirby video game franchise will launch a new title soon.
>
>
>
I am never dirty
>
> You're a vacuum cleaner. Or a shiny pink game character that never seems to be dirty.
>
>
>
Hint:
>
> I am a well known Game Character
>
> ... Kirby is that, certainly.
>
>
>
Big Hint:
>
> I am used to clean
>
> ... Kirby vacuum cleaners are, certainly.
>
>
>
The clues feel a little iffy, but the hints seem to point squarely in this direction, so giving it a shot here. |
43,935 | I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
I am on TV in different forms every night
I died but am soon to be resurrected
I am never dirty
What am I?
Hint:
>
> I am a well known Game Character
>
>
>
Big Hint
>
> I am used to clean
>
>
> | 2016/10/07 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/43935",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/30371/"
] | You are
>
> "soap" (the bar, and the COD character John "Soap" MacTavish)
>
>
>
I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
>
> gamers play COD, and everyone uses (or should be using) soap to clean themselves
>
>
>
I am on TV in different forms every night
>
> people use TVs to play COD on console, and there are often commercials for different soaps
>
>
>
I died but am soon to be resurrected
>
> John "Soap" MacTavish died in COD: Modern Warfare 3, and will return in COD: Ghosts
>
>
>
I am never dirty
>
> usually something that cleans (like soap or shampoo) is not considered dirty
>
>
> | Are you (the pretty obscure) -
>
> Sheen Genus (シン・ジーナス?) - Also known as the "Rising Tiger" from the videogame 'Aggressors of Dark Kombat'? (Mr Sheen is a cleaning product and sheen is a word that you might use to describe the glare on a TV screen)
>
>
> |
43,935 | I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
I am on TV in different forms every night
I died but am soon to be resurrected
I am never dirty
What am I?
Hint:
>
> I am a well known Game Character
>
>
>
Big Hint
>
> I am used to clean
>
>
> | 2016/10/07 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/43935",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/30371/"
] | You are
>
> "soap" (the bar, and the COD character John "Soap" MacTavish)
>
>
>
I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
>
> gamers play COD, and everyone uses (or should be using) soap to clean themselves
>
>
>
I am on TV in different forms every night
>
> people use TVs to play COD on console, and there are often commercials for different soaps
>
>
>
I died but am soon to be resurrected
>
> John "Soap" MacTavish died in COD: Modern Warfare 3, and will return in COD: Ghosts
>
>
>
I am never dirty
>
> usually something that cleans (like soap or shampoo) is not considered dirty
>
>
> | Could you be ...
>
> Kirby?
>
>
>
I am used by both Gamers and non-gamers alike every day.
>
> Lots of people own Kirby vacuums, so they're used every day, by both gamers and non-gamers alike.
>
>
>
I am on TV in different forms every night
>
> There are commercials for Kirby vacuum cleaners.
>
> The video game character has an anime, Kirby: Right Back at Ya!
>
> Finally, the Disney show The Suite Life on Deck has a character named Kirby.
>
> I'd guess one or more of these airs somewhere on TV every night...
>
>
>
I died but am soon to be resurrected
>
> The Suite Life on Deck character Kirby's actor recently died.
>
> The Kirby video game franchise will launch a new title soon.
>
>
>
I am never dirty
>
> You're a vacuum cleaner. Or a shiny pink game character that never seems to be dirty.
>
>
>
Hint:
>
> I am a well known Game Character
>
> ... Kirby is that, certainly.
>
>
>
Big Hint:
>
> I am used to clean
>
> ... Kirby vacuum cleaners are, certainly.
>
>
>
The clues feel a little iffy, but the hints seem to point squarely in this direction, so giving it a shot here. |
43,157 | When people talk about illness, they tend to say they have *lung cancer* instead of *lung tumours*, or *brain tumours* instead of *brain cancer*. Why is this? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/43157",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/11834/"
] | Tumors in the lung are much more likely to be cancerous than a tumor in the brain. Further, the lung is much easier to biopsy than the brain, so you're much more likely to know for sure that a lung tumor is cancerous than a brain tumor.
I think people are just being accurate. When they know the tumors in their lungs are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as "lung cancer" or "cancer of the lung". When they have one or more tumors in their brain and are not sure the tumors are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as a "brain tumor". You certainly do hear the term "brain cancer", and it's generally used when one knows the tumors are cancerous.
For example, if someone says "I have a pituitary tumor", that means that they have a tumor in (or on) their pituitary gland. Likely they don't know if it's cancerous, and often they're non-cancerous.
A person with [hamartoma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hamartoma#Lung) of the lung has one or more lung tumors. But they do not have lung cancer. | I am not a doctor, but!
A tumour has to be malignant to be called a cancer.
Lungs may have a few small tumours without affecting the quality of life at all (depending on the locations of the tumours, of course). I suppose people may have some lung tumours without ever knowing about them.
Even a small tumour in the brain is more likely to have very adverse effects. Impaired cognition, paralysis and hormone imbalances are just a few examples. A brain tumour is bad enough even if isn't cancerous. The number of people with brain cancer is a small subset of the people with brain tumour. I guess this is why you've heard "brain tumour" more often than "brain cancer". |
43,157 | When people talk about illness, they tend to say they have *lung cancer* instead of *lung tumours*, or *brain tumours* instead of *brain cancer*. Why is this? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/43157",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/11834/"
] | Tumors in the lung are much more likely to be cancerous than a tumor in the brain. Further, the lung is much easier to biopsy than the brain, so you're much more likely to know for sure that a lung tumor is cancerous than a brain tumor.
I think people are just being accurate. When they know the tumors in their lungs are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as "lung cancer" or "cancer of the lung". When they have one or more tumors in their brain and are not sure the tumors are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as a "brain tumor". You certainly do hear the term "brain cancer", and it's generally used when one knows the tumors are cancerous.
For example, if someone says "I have a pituitary tumor", that means that they have a tumor in (or on) their pituitary gland. Likely they don't know if it's cancerous, and often they're non-cancerous.
A person with [hamartoma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hamartoma#Lung) of the lung has one or more lung tumors. But they do not have lung cancer. | Others have pointed the possibility of a tumor not being necessarily cancerous. I would have thought that another difference is that a tumor is always localized to a small part of the body, but cancer can (and unfortunately often will) spread out. Lung cancer at least has the tendency not to be confined to a small part of the lung.
The difference is, of course, even clearer in the case of leukemia. |
43,157 | When people talk about illness, they tend to say they have *lung cancer* instead of *lung tumours*, or *brain tumours* instead of *brain cancer*. Why is this? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/43157",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/11834/"
] | Tumors in the lung are much more likely to be cancerous than a tumor in the brain. Further, the lung is much easier to biopsy than the brain, so you're much more likely to know for sure that a lung tumor is cancerous than a brain tumor.
I think people are just being accurate. When they know the tumors in their lungs are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as "lung cancer" or "cancer of the lung". When they have one or more tumors in their brain and are not sure the tumors are cancerous, they accurately refer to it as a "brain tumor". You certainly do hear the term "brain cancer", and it's generally used when one knows the tumors are cancerous.
For example, if someone says "I have a pituitary tumor", that means that they have a tumor in (or on) their pituitary gland. Likely they don't know if it's cancerous, and often they're non-cancerous.
A person with [hamartoma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hamartoma#Lung) of the lung has one or more lung tumors. But they do not have lung cancer. | On a neuroscience perspective, cancer cells are carcinogenic, often characterized by metastasis, pervading throughout the human body. These cancer cells are often malign and estranged to human body. On the other hand, tumors come in either lenient, innocuous form or malign, detrimental form. In some health conditions, doctors would only give recommendation for a patient to undergo an operation, until the cancer cells already incur severe damage to a particular body organ.
If the tumor doesn't lead to cell mutation, or noticeable physiological changes, the doctor will not give the recommendation for a surgery or any forms of treatment.It seems common for individuals to have certain forms of tumors these days without receiving a treatment, because some tumors are innocuous to be left untreated. A person needs to get tested to see if the tumor is positive or negative.
So for cancers, most cancer cells are metastatic and often uncontrollably propagate to the rest of the body organs. The earlier the detection, the more promising the results. It's unlikely cancer cells can be left untouched. Even after chemo and operations, cancer cells share a common feature to retrogress.
in general, cancer cells and tumor cells mutate and differ in their severity in damaging human body, so one shouldn't mix up a tumor with a cancer. |
43,157 | When people talk about illness, they tend to say they have *lung cancer* instead of *lung tumours*, or *brain tumours* instead of *brain cancer*. Why is this? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/43157",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/11834/"
] | I am not a doctor, but!
A tumour has to be malignant to be called a cancer.
Lungs may have a few small tumours without affecting the quality of life at all (depending on the locations of the tumours, of course). I suppose people may have some lung tumours without ever knowing about them.
Even a small tumour in the brain is more likely to have very adverse effects. Impaired cognition, paralysis and hormone imbalances are just a few examples. A brain tumour is bad enough even if isn't cancerous. The number of people with brain cancer is a small subset of the people with brain tumour. I guess this is why you've heard "brain tumour" more often than "brain cancer". | On a neuroscience perspective, cancer cells are carcinogenic, often characterized by metastasis, pervading throughout the human body. These cancer cells are often malign and estranged to human body. On the other hand, tumors come in either lenient, innocuous form or malign, detrimental form. In some health conditions, doctors would only give recommendation for a patient to undergo an operation, until the cancer cells already incur severe damage to a particular body organ.
If the tumor doesn't lead to cell mutation, or noticeable physiological changes, the doctor will not give the recommendation for a surgery or any forms of treatment.It seems common for individuals to have certain forms of tumors these days without receiving a treatment, because some tumors are innocuous to be left untreated. A person needs to get tested to see if the tumor is positive or negative.
So for cancers, most cancer cells are metastatic and often uncontrollably propagate to the rest of the body organs. The earlier the detection, the more promising the results. It's unlikely cancer cells can be left untouched. Even after chemo and operations, cancer cells share a common feature to retrogress.
in general, cancer cells and tumor cells mutate and differ in their severity in damaging human body, so one shouldn't mix up a tumor with a cancer. |
43,157 | When people talk about illness, they tend to say they have *lung cancer* instead of *lung tumours*, or *brain tumours* instead of *brain cancer*. Why is this? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/43157",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/11834/"
] | Others have pointed the possibility of a tumor not being necessarily cancerous. I would have thought that another difference is that a tumor is always localized to a small part of the body, but cancer can (and unfortunately often will) spread out. Lung cancer at least has the tendency not to be confined to a small part of the lung.
The difference is, of course, even clearer in the case of leukemia. | On a neuroscience perspective, cancer cells are carcinogenic, often characterized by metastasis, pervading throughout the human body. These cancer cells are often malign and estranged to human body. On the other hand, tumors come in either lenient, innocuous form or malign, detrimental form. In some health conditions, doctors would only give recommendation for a patient to undergo an operation, until the cancer cells already incur severe damage to a particular body organ.
If the tumor doesn't lead to cell mutation, or noticeable physiological changes, the doctor will not give the recommendation for a surgery or any forms of treatment.It seems common for individuals to have certain forms of tumors these days without receiving a treatment, because some tumors are innocuous to be left untreated. A person needs to get tested to see if the tumor is positive or negative.
So for cancers, most cancer cells are metastatic and often uncontrollably propagate to the rest of the body organs. The earlier the detection, the more promising the results. It's unlikely cancer cells can be left untouched. Even after chemo and operations, cancer cells share a common feature to retrogress.
in general, cancer cells and tumor cells mutate and differ in their severity in damaging human body, so one shouldn't mix up a tumor with a cancer. |
10,767,878 | I am trying to understand how the database access model works in asp.net mvc, some examples has the work in the controller but other has examples in the model.
I want to know how to do it using ado.net, the best practices is use a class in the model layer and try my database access there?
all examples are with EF and LINQ, I want to know the best way to do it using ado.net.
the database access is in model or controller? | 2012/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10767878",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1382868/"
] | Here is an architectural design to consider:
1. The Views and Controllers are in the **MVC website**.
2. The **Models** are in a separate project.
3. The **data access** code is in a third project called DataAccess or
Repository.
The website has references to the Models and DataAccess projects. The DataAccess project also has a reference to the Models project.
This way, the data access code is separate. It is easier to find and maintain. It could be used in another solution. You could even swap it out for a completely different data access layer -- say, switching from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework or classic ADO.Net.
By keeping the Models in a separate project, they can be referenced by both the website and the data access layer. In addition, the Models project could be used in other solutions, just like the loosely-coupled data access layer.
Separating the layers this way makes it easier to add **testing**, too. That would be made easier if the data access layer/repository utilizes interfaces and dependency injection. | Database access should be done in the controller. I'm not sure specifically what EF examples you've seen, but in many the EF entities themselves are the Model (This is typically a quick and easy way to get started with a website, but isn't viable for big websites). Basically, the controller is responsible for fetching/generating the model, which it then passes to the view. |
559,920 | When reading the translation of the Hildebrandslied by Francis A. Wood, I came across a word I have never seen before, **Weirdwielder**.
I searched online and found nothing, the only links that show up are either unrelated, or link back to the archive.org where I got the book from. I searched 3 dictionaries and also came up empty.
I have read it several times but can't figure out what is meant by this, it is only mentioned once.
Feel free to edit my question and tags if necessary.
>
> 40 With untruth art thou come to old age, for trickery
> clings to thee ever.
>
>
> It was said to me by seafarers
>
>
> Coming west over the wave that war slew him.
>
>
> Dead is Hildebrand, Heribrand's son."
>
>
> "**Great Weirdwielder**, woe worth the day!
>
>
> 45 For sixty winters and summers I wander'd,
>
>
> Battling with foemen where blows keen fell.
>
>
> From the scarped wall unscathed I came.
>
>
> Now the son of my loins with the sword will hew
>
>
>
[link to book here on archive.org](https://archive.org/stream/hildebrandslied00woodiala/hildebrandslied00woodiala_djvu.txt) | 2021/02/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/559920",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/384179/"
] | This doesn’t add a whole lot to what you’ve already learned from others since posing your question, but I thought I would add some details for reference.
The *Hildebrandslied*, a much studied Old High German alliterative poem, was transcribed by a couple of eighth-century monks working from an earlier manuscript based on an oral recounting. (Lots could go wrong there, but that is for another question.)
Some translations of this work offer literal interpretations, not attempting to retain the meter or alliteration. Others, like that of Francis A. Wood, try to capture the effect of the original. Wood notes in his [poem introduction](https://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/source/830hildebrandslied.asp) that his translation “aims to give the spirit as well as the meter of the Hildebrandslied. . . . Though not a literal translation, it nevertheless closely follows the thought of the [Old High German] poem.” (Wood even makes up the lost ending.)
By comparing a literal translation with Wood’s, we can see that *weirdwielder* is Wood’s own fanciful, clever, need-some-*W*s-stat [nonce word](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonce_word) (and a [hapax legomenon](https://wordrecursion.com/hapax-legomenon/)).
To start, we can look at part of the OED entry (and an example usage) for *weird* the noun:
>
> **weird**, *n.*
> **Etymology:** Old English *wyrd* (feminine), = Old Saxon *wurd* (plural *wurdi*), Old High German *wurt*, Old Norse *urð-r*, from the weak grade of the stem *werþ-*, *warþ-*, *wurþ-* to become: see WORTH *v.1*
>
>
> **1. a.** The principle, power, or agency by which events are predetermined; fate, destiny.
> 1895 W. MORRIS & A. J.
> WYATT tr. *Tale of Beowulf* 17 Weird swept them away.
>
>
> Source: [Oxford English Dictionary](https://oed.com) (login
> required)
>
>
>
A number of other related definitions appear there—magical power, witchery, prophecy—but here, *weird* = *fate*. Note in the etymology *worth* (to come to be, come to pass, come about, happen, take place), as Wood plays with this in the line in question.
Next we can look at the original line of the poem in Old High German. Note the four alliterative *W*s:
>
> “welaga nu, waltant got [quad Hiltibrant], wewurt skihit.
>
>
>
> Source: [The
> Hildebrandslied](http://www.geocities.ws/reginheim/hildebrand.html).
> This article brings up an interesting point: the Christianization of
> “heathen” works. Those monks! Were it not for God’s appearance
> elsewhere in Wood’s translation, I might have thought Wood was
> re-heathenizing the work by turning God into a weirdwielder.
>
>
>
Compare this literal translation by Michaela Macha, who notes, “I have translated into free verse, staying literal where possible, not attempting to reproduce the original meter or alliteration.” Note the lone *W*:
>
> “Well now, mighty god”, spoke Hildebrand, “sorrowful fate (*woe wyrd*)
> happens.
>
>
> Source: [Historical & Classical Poetry ~
> Hildebrandslied](http://www.odins-gift.com/pclass/hildebrandslay.htm)
>
>
>
And here’s Wood’s interpretation. Note again: four *W*s:
>
> Great Weirdwielder, woe worth the day!
>
>
>
This is pretty tricky on Wood’s part. He turns the two-*W* [*wewurt*](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/wewurt) + *skihit*—literally “woe fate happens”—into [*woe worth*](http://www.finedictionary.com/Woe%20worth.html), meaning “woe be to.” Woe be to the day. Woe happens to the day.
Lest there be any question about the *wurt*/*fate* part, Wood leverages the *W*s from *welaga nu, waltant got* (well now, mighty god) for a mashup of *weird* and *wielder*. A wielder of weird. A wielder of fate. Someone or something with the mighty power to control destiny.
Great Weirdwielder. | This is speculation here, but it seems to me that *weirdwielder* is a [kenning](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/kenning) for God (or maybe personified Fate) that Francis A. Wood came up with. *[Weird](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/weird)* (sometimes spelled *wyrd* for this meaning) can mean *fate*, and a *weirdwielder* would then be somebody manipulating people's fates, in other words, God. In [this translation](http://www.odins-gift.com/pclass/hildebrandslay.htm) by Michaela Macha, shortly before "sixty summers and winters" Hildebrand says
>
> Well now, mighty god, sorrowful fate happens.
>
>
>
I believe
>
> Great Weirdwielder, woe worth the day!
>
>
>
is the corresponding line in Wood's translation.
[*Kennings*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kenning#Old_English_and_other_kennings) in Old English and Old Norse poetry were generally two-word phrases, often alliterative, that were used instead of the name of something. For example, "hwæl-weg" (whale-way) could be used instead of "the ocean".
If you're translating Old English or Old High German poetry, and you want to reproduce the feel of the poetry rather than translate the words, why not come up with your own kennings? It's clear from the alliteration that the translator isn't just giving a word-for-word translation but trying to preserve the feel of the original. The original possibly had lots of kennings (you'd have to ask somebody who know some Old High German to figure this out), many of which won't translate well. So why not come up with new ones to replace the ones that can't be translated? |
435,177 | My understanding of the correct use of the apostrophe would be:
* the posessive form, e.g. ApostropheLover's obsession with the apostrophe
* a contraction: don't, it's, there's
* an abbreviation, my id' badge is in my backpack
Is the third case correct? How should one punctuate an abbreviated word like "id" (identification) or "repo'" (repository)? | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/435177",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5511/"
] | *Here is a list of words that may suit your need, ordered by relevance*:
* "**Stock**"
* "**Acquirables**"
* "**Attainables**"
* "**Item**"
* "**Consumables**" | * Inventory
+ Gear
+ Weapon
+ Item
Seriously, don't overthink your naming conventions; you only have 3 classes of objects here, so it's not like you're going to get confused over the difference between an Item and a Weapon. "Inventory" and "Item" are acceptably self-documenting, could shorthand "Inventory" as "Inv," etc. Bonus: less characters to typo, ftw.
* (Inventory.Properties? If you had properties applicable to all inventory objects, this would make potentially make sense)
+ Inventory.Gear
- Inventory.Gear.Properties
+ Inventory.Weapon
- Inventory.Weapon.Properties
+ Inventory.Item
- Inventory.Item.Properties |
435,177 | My understanding of the correct use of the apostrophe would be:
* the posessive form, e.g. ApostropheLover's obsession with the apostrophe
* a contraction: don't, it's, there's
* an abbreviation, my id' badge is in my backpack
Is the third case correct? How should one punctuate an abbreviated word like "id" (identification) or "repo'" (repository)? | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/435177",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5511/"
] | I have decided to go with "articles", and keep calling items items. So now weapons, gears and items are all referred to as articles.
You are still welcome to post better answers. | * Inventory
+ Gear
+ Weapon
+ Item
Seriously, don't overthink your naming conventions; you only have 3 classes of objects here, so it's not like you're going to get confused over the difference between an Item and a Weapon. "Inventory" and "Item" are acceptably self-documenting, could shorthand "Inventory" as "Inv," etc. Bonus: less characters to typo, ftw.
* (Inventory.Properties? If you had properties applicable to all inventory objects, this would make potentially make sense)
+ Inventory.Gear
- Inventory.Gear.Properties
+ Inventory.Weapon
- Inventory.Weapon.Properties
+ Inventory.Item
- Inventory.Item.Properties |
435,177 | My understanding of the correct use of the apostrophe would be:
* the posessive form, e.g. ApostropheLover's obsession with the apostrophe
* a contraction: don't, it's, there's
* an abbreviation, my id' badge is in my backpack
Is the third case correct? How should one punctuate an abbreviated word like "id" (identification) or "repo'" (repository)? | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/435177",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5511/"
] | Please note "gear" in this context is a collective term made up of "pieces of gear" or "items of gear", not "gears", which are things you find in machinery. | * Inventory
+ Gear
+ Weapon
+ Item
Seriously, don't overthink your naming conventions; you only have 3 classes of objects here, so it's not like you're going to get confused over the difference between an Item and a Weapon. "Inventory" and "Item" are acceptably self-documenting, could shorthand "Inventory" as "Inv," etc. Bonus: less characters to typo, ftw.
* (Inventory.Properties? If you had properties applicable to all inventory objects, this would make potentially make sense)
+ Inventory.Gear
- Inventory.Gear.Properties
+ Inventory.Weapon
- Inventory.Weapon.Properties
+ Inventory.Item
- Inventory.Item.Properties |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | [photo.net](http://photo.net) allows them in public galleries. There are a lot of good pros there that show excellent work in all categories, including nudes.
There paying and free memberships. The free membership limits the gallery size and number of uploads. | >
> Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found
> that they explicitly forbid nudity.
>
>
>
I had the same problem on Google+. Then I decided to create a photo blog on [Tumblr](https://www.tumblr.com/):
<https://www.tumblr.com/docs/en/nsfw>
Here's a sample created by a professional photographer, Andre Brito:
<http://nude-abrito.tumblr.com/> |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | If you want a very high quality gallery site, where artistic nudes are very appreciated, 1x.com is a great option. Warning: their standards are SUpER high! | >
> Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found
> that they explicitly forbid nudity.
>
>
>
I had the same problem on Google+. Then I decided to create a photo blog on [Tumblr](https://www.tumblr.com/):
<https://www.tumblr.com/docs/en/nsfw>
Here's a sample created by a professional photographer, Andre Brito:
<http://nude-abrito.tumblr.com/> |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | * DeviantArt
* Flickr
* ModelMayhem
* 1x
* 500px
* jpgmag
* (.com to all the above)
* eroticsignature.ning.com | I agree with DeviantArt being a good option for sharing your pictures (although I'm personally tired of seeing mostly nude photos there). The good thing with it is that the settings are personal for each user, that is you can allow nudity and mature contents pictures to appear on your page, or you can choose to hide them. Thus a lot of people can see your image if they have the proper settings, even if like me, their primary interest is not nude photos. I sometimes find photos that I like on my main page, although I would never search for nude photos on my own. |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | I have a friend who switched from Flickr to DeviantArt after shooting at a fetish photography workshop. DeviantArt allows nude images, but requires the viewers to have an account so they can change their settings to view adult-rated material. (This works even when both the poster and the viewer have free accounts only).
This friend then stayed with DeviantArt for all kinds of photography and stopped using Flickr, because he said that on DeviantArt, there is a higher chance of random people seeing his pictures and offering constructive critique. So I suppose it can be a good option. | The best website I recommend is <http://www.imageshot.eu>. You can create private or public albums and classified by categories, this great. greetings |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | [Flickr](http://www.flickr.com/) allows nudes as long as you change the image's "safety level" so kiddos and people at work don't get them popping up on a search; you're perfectly within the ToS. You can also make groups and galleries private if you'd rather limit who can see the photos and/or comment on them... | You're allowed to host them on SmugMug as long as it's a non-public gallery (Note: I am affiliated w/said site :)) |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | [photo.net](http://photo.net) allows them in public galleries. There are a lot of good pros there that show excellent work in all categories, including nudes.
There paying and free memberships. The free membership limits the gallery size and number of uploads. | You're allowed to host them on SmugMug as long as it's a non-public gallery (Note: I am affiliated w/said site :)) |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | I agree with DeviantArt being a good option for sharing your pictures (although I'm personally tired of seeing mostly nude photos there). The good thing with it is that the settings are personal for each user, that is you can allow nudity and mature contents pictures to appear on your page, or you can choose to hide them. Thus a lot of people can see your image if they have the proper settings, even if like me, their primary interest is not nude photos. I sometimes find photos that I like on my main page, although I would never search for nude photos on my own. | The best website I recommend is <http://www.imageshot.eu>. You can create private or public albums and classified by categories, this great. greetings |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | [Flickr](http://www.flickr.com/) allows nudes as long as you change the image's "safety level" so kiddos and people at work don't get them popping up on a search; you're perfectly within the ToS. You can also make groups and galleries private if you'd rather limit who can see the photos and/or comment on them... | I have a friend who switched from Flickr to DeviantArt after shooting at a fetish photography workshop. DeviantArt allows nude images, but requires the viewers to have an account so they can change their settings to view adult-rated material. (This works even when both the poster and the viewer have free accounts only).
This friend then stayed with DeviantArt for all kinds of photography and stopped using Flickr, because he said that on DeviantArt, there is a higher chance of random people seeing his pictures and offering constructive critique. So I suppose it can be a good option. |
9,112 | Our photography group recently held a figure photography session, with a nude model. We want to share our photos, but don't want to fall foul of strict site rules regarding nudity. Normally I'd use Picasa, but after trawling through their FAQ I found that they [explicitly forbid nudity](http://picasa.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=39524). Where's the best place to share (tasteful) nude shots? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9112",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4014/"
] | In addition to SmugMug being a great host they also are involved with DGrin which has a Go Figure Forum that is a good place to get comments that are constructive.
You also can try SmugMug for a 14 day trial if you want. | The best website I recommend is <http://www.imageshot.eu>. You can create private or public albums and classified by categories, this great. greetings |
182,873 | A lot of services today still recommend the implicit flow for an OpenID Connect/Oauth2 token exchange when developing Single-Page Apps. (See [Okta](https://developer.okta.com/authentication-guide/auth-overview/#is-your-client-a-spa-or-native) - now recommends PKCE w/ implicit fallback, [Google](https://developers.google.com/identity/protocols/OAuth2UserAgent), [Auth0](https://auth0.com/docs/architecture-scenarios/spa-api/part-1#implicit-grant))
Some [newer guidance](https://aaronparecki.com/oauth-2-simplified/#single-page-apps) out there points towards using the Authorization Code Flow without a client\_secret in the token exchange step, which I can agree makes sense for the reasons cited in the article (e.g. tokens don't live within browser history, ~~web logs~~, etc.). Why isn't this concept taken a step further with PKCE? Instead of omitting the client\_secret completely, why not utilize a dynamic one as it is recommended for native applications? SPAs and Native Apps are both considered "public clients" where a secret cannot be safely kept, but only Native Apps get the PKCE recommendation while SPAs seem to be kept in the past.
I understand the security implications PKCE is trying to solve doesn't directly relate to a browser only context, but couldn't this be viewed as a defense-in-depth mechanism and utilized anyway? I know from experience Google won't let you generate a Web Application Credential and try to use anything but implicit for a SPA (see [this issue](https://issuetracker.google.com/issues/77764959)), the Authorization Code flow will expect a client\_secret and the PKCE exchange only works if you choose a native app credential type but then you can't specify https redirect\_uri's for your application.
Other providers allow PKCE with Authorization Code flow in a web-context, but it isn't recommended from them. Am I wrong in wanting this and utilizing it? It seems fairly trivial to add the additional steps of generating and passing around the code challenges with the [Web Crypto APIs](https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/Web_Crypto_API) available ([targeting](https://caniuse.com/#feat=cryptography) newer browsers and shimming as needed). | 2018/04/03 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/182873",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/91191/"
] | @catanman makes excellent points regarding the technical considerations around PKCE in SPAs, however just recently the IETF Oauth working group has published a [best current practice document](https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/draft-ietf-oauth-security-topics-11#section-2.1.1) (December 28, 2018) stating:
>
> Note: although PKCE so far was recommended as a mechanism to
> protect native apps, this advice applies to all kinds of OAuth
> clients, including web applications.
>
>
> | SPAs would not benefit from PKCE. PKCE solves a different problem than the one you're describing.
First of all, for **SPAs** the current best practice is still to use the **implicit flow**, not the authorization code flow. With the implicit flow, the access token is included in the **hash fragment (#)** of the redirect URI instead of in a query component (?). Since the browser never includes the hash fragment portion of a URI when it makes a request, the token **does not** appear in browser history, web logs...
When it comes to **native apps**, [rfc8252 section 6](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-6) says the following:
>
> Public native app clients MUST implement the Proof Key for Code Exchange (PKCE RFC7636])
>
>
>
---
On a side note, notice that the PKCE requirement is for *public* native clients. You may be wondering how it can be possible for a native app to *not* be public. The answer is in [section 8.4](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-8.4):
>
> Except when using a mechanism like Dynamic Client Registration [RFC7591] to provision per-instance secrets, native apps are classified as public clients
>
>
>
I'm not exactly sure how to refer to these clients since I've never seen *confidential native client* mentioned anywhere. Maybe *non-public native client* works :)
---
To answer your question: So why is the authorization code flow with PKCE required for public native apps and not SPAs?
The logic is as follows:
1. One of the main purposes of OAuth2 is to prevent the exposure of user credentials to clients.
2. For native apps to meet this requirement, the user must not enter credentials anywhere that the native app has access. Therefore native login screens and webviews must be avoided.
3. The solution is for native apps to launch an external user-agent (see [rfc8252 appendix B](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#appendix-B)) where the user will authenticate with the authorization server and authorize the application. Native apps have no access to the external user-agent, so the user's credentials are safe.
4. However, a new complication has been introduced which did not exist with SPAs: The external user-agent must now communicate the authorization server's response back to the native app? The answer is inter-app communication (see [section 5](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-5) and [section 7](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-7))
5. Unfortunately, several types of inter-app communication can be intercepted by malicious 3rd party apps! With the implicit flow, this means that the access token could be stolen by a malicious app, which would be a very bad thing. This is one of the main reasons why the implicit flow is not used for native apps.
6. But even if the authorization code flow is used instead, the malicious 3rd party app can still intercept the authorization code, and use it to obtain an access token since there is no client secret. So it seems useless to use the authorization code flow instead of implicit flow for public native apps.
7. This is where PKCE comes in. PKCE makes it so that even if a malicious app intercepts an authorization code, it will not be able to exchange it for an access token. This is accomplished by requiring the entity that is requesting the access token prove that it is the same entity that requested the authorization code in the first place.
Hopefully now you understand why:
* SPAs would not benefit at all from PKCE since with SPAs everything occurs
within the browser. PKCE is only useful when there is inter-app communication.
* Public native apps should not use the implicit flow because inter-app communication can sometimes be insecure.
* Public native apps should use the authorization code flow + PKCE
Here is a good blog post that can provide more info:
<https://medium.com/@justinsecurity/mobile-apps-and-oauths-implicit-flow-68e72c6515a1> |
182,873 | A lot of services today still recommend the implicit flow for an OpenID Connect/Oauth2 token exchange when developing Single-Page Apps. (See [Okta](https://developer.okta.com/authentication-guide/auth-overview/#is-your-client-a-spa-or-native) - now recommends PKCE w/ implicit fallback, [Google](https://developers.google.com/identity/protocols/OAuth2UserAgent), [Auth0](https://auth0.com/docs/architecture-scenarios/spa-api/part-1#implicit-grant))
Some [newer guidance](https://aaronparecki.com/oauth-2-simplified/#single-page-apps) out there points towards using the Authorization Code Flow without a client\_secret in the token exchange step, which I can agree makes sense for the reasons cited in the article (e.g. tokens don't live within browser history, ~~web logs~~, etc.). Why isn't this concept taken a step further with PKCE? Instead of omitting the client\_secret completely, why not utilize a dynamic one as it is recommended for native applications? SPAs and Native Apps are both considered "public clients" where a secret cannot be safely kept, but only Native Apps get the PKCE recommendation while SPAs seem to be kept in the past.
I understand the security implications PKCE is trying to solve doesn't directly relate to a browser only context, but couldn't this be viewed as a defense-in-depth mechanism and utilized anyway? I know from experience Google won't let you generate a Web Application Credential and try to use anything but implicit for a SPA (see [this issue](https://issuetracker.google.com/issues/77764959)), the Authorization Code flow will expect a client\_secret and the PKCE exchange only works if you choose a native app credential type but then you can't specify https redirect\_uri's for your application.
Other providers allow PKCE with Authorization Code flow in a web-context, but it isn't recommended from them. Am I wrong in wanting this and utilizing it? It seems fairly trivial to add the additional steps of generating and passing around the code challenges with the [Web Crypto APIs](https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/Web_Crypto_API) available ([targeting](https://caniuse.com/#feat=cryptography) newer browsers and shimming as needed). | 2018/04/03 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/182873",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/91191/"
] | While all the other answers are correct, the latest [OAuth 2.0 for Browser-Based Apps Best Practices Doc](https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/draft-ietf-oauth-browser-based-apps-00) (January 29, 2019) states that (emphasis mine):
>
> 4. Overview
>
>
> For authorizing users within a browser-based application, the best
>
> current practice is to
>
>
> o Use the OAuth 2.0 authorization code flow **with the PKCE
> extension**
>
>
> ...
>
>
>
As well as
>
> 7.1. Initiating the Authorization Request from a Browser-Based
> Application
>
>
> **Public browser-based apps MUST implement the Proof Key for Code
>
> Exchange (PKCE [RFC7636])** extension to OAuth, and authorization
>
> servers MUST support PKCE for such clients.
>
>
> The PKCE extension prevents an attack where the authorization code
> is intercepted and exchanged for an access token by a malicious
> client, by providing the authorization server with a way to verify
> the same client instance that exchanges the authorization code is
> the same one that initiated the flow.
>
>
>
I assume there are some minor benefits that are worth the while of doing it as a defense in depth, even for browser based apps. | SPAs would not benefit from PKCE. PKCE solves a different problem than the one you're describing.
First of all, for **SPAs** the current best practice is still to use the **implicit flow**, not the authorization code flow. With the implicit flow, the access token is included in the **hash fragment (#)** of the redirect URI instead of in a query component (?). Since the browser never includes the hash fragment portion of a URI when it makes a request, the token **does not** appear in browser history, web logs...
When it comes to **native apps**, [rfc8252 section 6](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-6) says the following:
>
> Public native app clients MUST implement the Proof Key for Code Exchange (PKCE RFC7636])
>
>
>
---
On a side note, notice that the PKCE requirement is for *public* native clients. You may be wondering how it can be possible for a native app to *not* be public. The answer is in [section 8.4](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-8.4):
>
> Except when using a mechanism like Dynamic Client Registration [RFC7591] to provision per-instance secrets, native apps are classified as public clients
>
>
>
I'm not exactly sure how to refer to these clients since I've never seen *confidential native client* mentioned anywhere. Maybe *non-public native client* works :)
---
To answer your question: So why is the authorization code flow with PKCE required for public native apps and not SPAs?
The logic is as follows:
1. One of the main purposes of OAuth2 is to prevent the exposure of user credentials to clients.
2. For native apps to meet this requirement, the user must not enter credentials anywhere that the native app has access. Therefore native login screens and webviews must be avoided.
3. The solution is for native apps to launch an external user-agent (see [rfc8252 appendix B](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#appendix-B)) where the user will authenticate with the authorization server and authorize the application. Native apps have no access to the external user-agent, so the user's credentials are safe.
4. However, a new complication has been introduced which did not exist with SPAs: The external user-agent must now communicate the authorization server's response back to the native app? The answer is inter-app communication (see [section 5](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-5) and [section 7](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8252#section-7))
5. Unfortunately, several types of inter-app communication can be intercepted by malicious 3rd party apps! With the implicit flow, this means that the access token could be stolen by a malicious app, which would be a very bad thing. This is one of the main reasons why the implicit flow is not used for native apps.
6. But even if the authorization code flow is used instead, the malicious 3rd party app can still intercept the authorization code, and use it to obtain an access token since there is no client secret. So it seems useless to use the authorization code flow instead of implicit flow for public native apps.
7. This is where PKCE comes in. PKCE makes it so that even if a malicious app intercepts an authorization code, it will not be able to exchange it for an access token. This is accomplished by requiring the entity that is requesting the access token prove that it is the same entity that requested the authorization code in the first place.
Hopefully now you understand why:
* SPAs would not benefit at all from PKCE since with SPAs everything occurs
within the browser. PKCE is only useful when there is inter-app communication.
* Public native apps should not use the implicit flow because inter-app communication can sometimes be insecure.
* Public native apps should use the authorization code flow + PKCE
Here is a good blog post that can provide more info:
<https://medium.com/@justinsecurity/mobile-apps-and-oauths-implicit-flow-68e72c6515a1> |
53,534 | I'm from Singapore and planning trip to Eastern Europe, landing at Romania and taking a train to Bulgaria and back to Singapore.
If I buy a one-way Singapore-Romania ticket and another one-way Bulgaria-Singapore ticket, is that sufficient proof of onward travel out of the non-Schengen area or do I need a ticket out of Romania?
I understand it's okay for between Schengen to another Schengen area, but these is between non-Schengen and non-Schengen.
On top of that, how about Schengen to non-Schengen and vice versa? | 2015/08/24 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/53534",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/33223/"
] | You don't need an onward ticket neither when entering Romania, nor when entering the Schengen area. Even if Romania is not yet a member of the Schengen area, they have already implemented the Schengen regulations in national law as a preparation for the accession, meaning that you face the same requirements as a foreigner when entering Romania as when entering the Schengen area.
What you *do* need is proof of means of subsistence, both for the period you are planning to stay, as well as for onward travel. You can find further documentation on [this information page of the Romanian Ministry of Foreign Affairs](http://mae.ro/en/node/30320).
For both Bulgaria and Romania, the [reference amount](http://ec.europa.eu/dgs/home-affairs/e-library/documents/policies/borders-and-visas/schengen/docs/handbook-annex_25_en.pdf) for means of subsistence is 50€/day with a minimum of 500€ per visit. Considering the price level in Romania and Bulgaria, be aware that this amount is unusually high compared to the actual living costs and even higher than in many West European countries like Germany, Netherlands or Denmark. | You do not need to proof that you have an onward or return ticket... So you can just fly to Bucharest Int. Airport. The Romanian officer will ask you ''what's your purpose of stay?" You will tell that you will make a Eastern Europe trip. Actually you can say just I'll stay just for a week in Romania... This is really not important. Such a country like Bulgaria or Romania, there is not tight border controls.
Just be relax and enjoy your vacation. |
41,372 | I have a scene where a character is applying to be released from prison pending trial. I want an arbitrary / unfair reason for the judge to dislike him. It has to be something that is not justified to keep him in prison (ie, risk of committing further offences, running away, or interfering with witnesses).
I was thinking something like he is rude to the judge/police, he has some character flaw that people don't tend to like etc.
EDIT: In response to the helpful answer below, it occurred to me that I should have pointed out that it would be good for it to be something that the readers wouldn't like either.
I'd really appreciate any ideas! | 2019/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/41372",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/36147/"
] | Have you considered racism? May not fit with your story, but maybe some kind of societal objection ... like wrong accent, hair too long, tattoos ... all arbitrary, but could influence someone to be more harsh/unfair. | You don't need a valid/justifiable reason to dislike someone.
Maybe the judge didn't even care.
Maybe he was just watching porn on his smart phone and decided to reject the appeal, because that's his default answer...
The point is, it is hard work to explain why the judge dislikes him.. ;)
All you want to do is to have the guy stay in prison for the wrong reasons, and have the judge be the 'bad' guy...
So why not just go for it?
You can throw in whatever you want the readers to not like about him in the story.. And it didn't even matter ... |
41,372 | I have a scene where a character is applying to be released from prison pending trial. I want an arbitrary / unfair reason for the judge to dislike him. It has to be something that is not justified to keep him in prison (ie, risk of committing further offences, running away, or interfering with witnesses).
I was thinking something like he is rude to the judge/police, he has some character flaw that people don't tend to like etc.
EDIT: In response to the helpful answer below, it occurred to me that I should have pointed out that it would be good for it to be something that the readers wouldn't like either.
I'd really appreciate any ideas! | 2019/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/41372",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/36147/"
] | In a modern setting, the prosecution may submit something like blogs or emails intended to prove the defendant was involved in some crime or had knowledge of it.
But the judge, in reading these blogs, finds the defendant's *other* opinions repellent, even though legal. These could be talking about a callous attitude toward women, for example, or how he insisted his girlfriend have an abortion, or a liberal attitude about drugs or immigrants, or any number of other things allowed as free speech, that grates on the judge.
In any case by reading the defendant's communications, the judge just *doesn't like* the defendant as a person or human being, even though the behavior itself does not rise to the level of criminal activity; it is just an "ick" factor for the judge and the reader. | You don't need a valid/justifiable reason to dislike someone.
Maybe the judge didn't even care.
Maybe he was just watching porn on his smart phone and decided to reject the appeal, because that's his default answer...
The point is, it is hard work to explain why the judge dislikes him.. ;)
All you want to do is to have the guy stay in prison for the wrong reasons, and have the judge be the 'bad' guy...
So why not just go for it?
You can throw in whatever you want the readers to not like about him in the story.. And it didn't even matter ... |
9,149,145 | I don't know if some one asked this but I have a problem that I am working on this tutorial [Hello World Example with annotation driven Spring 3 MVC in Eclipse](http://www.raistudies.com/spring/spring-mvc/hello-world-example-spring-mvc-eclipse-annotation/) .Now I am very embarrassed to say that how can I make war file to deploy on tomcat. Please guide me in this regard. Thank you
P.S: Just to inform you that I have Tomcat 6.0 and eclipse indigo 3.7 | 2012/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9149145",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134935/"
] | You have many options depending on the environment you're using; the more simple ways can be:
* for testing purpose you can reference a Tomcat installation inside your Eclipse in the Severs tab of the J2EE perspective and add your Dynamic Web Project to it; then you can control (start/stop/debug) your server from Eclipse
* to build a war to deploy, you can right click the Dynamic Web Project and choose Export War File | I would recommend using Apache Maven as it will help you much as you project will get bigger and your will have a lot of dependencies. You can try it as Eclipse plugin (m2eclipse) or use it from command line. |
9,017,557 | I want to develop a web application,I work alone (not with a team),so I should choose my tools alone, I want to have a advice about what should I use.
I am thinking about using Java EE:
JSF and primefaces for the presentation layer
tomcat as the server
eclipse as the IDE
JPA/Hibernate for the mapping
Oracle as the database
and I wonder should I use spring? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9017557",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171143/"
] | There are many different tools for developing web applications. All have their strengths and their weaknesses.
It really boils down to which you are most comfortable with.
If you're a programmer then pick a tool which uses a language that is closest to what you are most proficient in.
If you're not a programmer then choose an all in one tool that will generate the code for you, leaving you to design the look and feel of it.
Then there is cost. Some of the tools are open source and free, many are not, but if your pockets aren't deep then you may have to pick a language that you're not comfortable with.
You don't say whether you're developing this as a private individual or as an employee.
I would guess if you're looking at Oracle as a database rather than MySQL or an SQL Server derivative then you're working as an employee. Some companies will restrict what tools you can use so that they can ensure support after you've left.
Bear in mind that the user doesn't care what has been used to implement the application, but the host may - espcially if it requires specific libraries/tools installed to run. | If you want to build a Java EE application that among others uses JSF and JPA, a MUCH easier choice than Tomcat is to download a server that already includes all of this.
Examples of those are GlassFish, JBoss AS, TomEE and Resin.
With Java EE 6, there is no need for Spring anymore. |
9,017,557 | I want to develop a web application,I work alone (not with a team),so I should choose my tools alone, I want to have a advice about what should I use.
I am thinking about using Java EE:
JSF and primefaces for the presentation layer
tomcat as the server
eclipse as the IDE
JPA/Hibernate for the mapping
Oracle as the database
and I wonder should I use spring? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9017557",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171143/"
] | There are many different tools for developing web applications. All have their strengths and their weaknesses.
It really boils down to which you are most comfortable with.
If you're a programmer then pick a tool which uses a language that is closest to what you are most proficient in.
If you're not a programmer then choose an all in one tool that will generate the code for you, leaving you to design the look and feel of it.
Then there is cost. Some of the tools are open source and free, many are not, but if your pockets aren't deep then you may have to pick a language that you're not comfortable with.
You don't say whether you're developing this as a private individual or as an employee.
I would guess if you're looking at Oracle as a database rather than MySQL or an SQL Server derivative then you're working as an employee. Some companies will restrict what tools you can use so that they can ensure support after you've left.
Bear in mind that the user doesn't care what has been used to implement the application, but the host may - espcially if it requires specific libraries/tools installed to run. | You can use Oracle JDeveloper 11g. It is all in one IDE which will help you from Design to development and till debugging. You can also design and model databases required etc.
Visit <http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/developer-tools/jdev/downloads/index.html> |
9,017,557 | I want to develop a web application,I work alone (not with a team),so I should choose my tools alone, I want to have a advice about what should I use.
I am thinking about using Java EE:
JSF and primefaces for the presentation layer
tomcat as the server
eclipse as the IDE
JPA/Hibernate for the mapping
Oracle as the database
and I wonder should I use spring? | 2012/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9017557",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171143/"
] | If you want to build a Java EE application that among others uses JSF and JPA, a MUCH easier choice than Tomcat is to download a server that already includes all of this.
Examples of those are GlassFish, JBoss AS, TomEE and Resin.
With Java EE 6, there is no need for Spring anymore. | You can use Oracle JDeveloper 11g. It is all in one IDE which will help you from Design to development and till debugging. You can also design and model databases required etc.
Visit <http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/developer-tools/jdev/downloads/index.html> |
54,788 | I came across the idiom "be first in Maths". But I couldn't find any with other school subjects.
Is it possible to say "be first in Geography/Physics"? Or the preposition "in" goes only whith Maths?
When did this idiom "be first in Maths" come to be? | 2015/04/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/54788",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/18871/"
] | The short answer is that it is equivalent to:
>
> Be (ranked) first in math
>
>
>
And so it is possible to be first in other subjects, so long as there is some way to rank participants. | In this situation, "Maths" is referring to the group (i.e. Maths class), not the subject of the lesson.
* You can be first **in** the group - first in Maths.
* You can be the best **at** the subject - best at Maths.
* You can also be the best **in** the group - best in Maths.
* But you **can't** be the first **at** the subject - first at Maths. X
The same rules apply for other classes/subjects. |
30,341,792 | A1/ I have installed sonarqube (Versions - 4.0, 4.5.1, 5.1) & configured sonar properties
A2/ Installed Mysql
A3/ Created database sonar, user sonar and granted privileges.
A4/Sonarqube works perfectly fine.
when I try to access <http://localhost:9000/setup> it says "Database is up-to-date. "
but when I follow the link <http://www.sonarqube.org/screencasts2/installation-of-sonar/> I am getting error "unable to connect to database"
the steps I performed are
1/ installed sonarqube and configured mysql JDBC URL, user, password, and sonarport.
2/ installed and started mysql (have not created database 'sonar' and user 'sonar')
3/ launched setup url ( please see step A3 for the URL, as I can not post more than 2 links)
I am getting error (unable to connect to database) instead of the "setup database" screen showed in the video.
can you please throw some more pointers on how to setup mysql database for sonarqube as shown in the video? | 2015/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30341792",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4918428/"
] | Allright Raj, maybe SonarSource did not precise 'database schema' in this screen, but the way to do it is
1. install database like MySQL or Oracle
2. create a database user, like indicated here: <http://docs.sonarqube.org/display/SONAR/Installing#Installing-installingDatabaseInstallingtheDatabase>
Once you have installed SonarQube, the page you see in the video is where it will install the whole schema, tables and other database objects, on the user you have previously created.
If you want some help on installing and configuring SonarQube, I have a whole section about it on my blog <http://qualilogy.com/en/category/sonar/sonar-installation/>
Don't hesitate to ask for precision.
Regards. | As it's a fresh installation, you need to create first the database sonar and user sonar. Please be sure you can connect to it before trying to start SonarQube. Be sure to follow requirements for MySQL : <http://docs.sonarqube.org/display/SONAR/Requirements>
Once the database is ready, start SonarQube and it will create the tablee, index, ...
In the video we suppose the database is already created and we don't believe this part is specific to SonarQube installation. |
30,341,792 | A1/ I have installed sonarqube (Versions - 4.0, 4.5.1, 5.1) & configured sonar properties
A2/ Installed Mysql
A3/ Created database sonar, user sonar and granted privileges.
A4/Sonarqube works perfectly fine.
when I try to access <http://localhost:9000/setup> it says "Database is up-to-date. "
but when I follow the link <http://www.sonarqube.org/screencasts2/installation-of-sonar/> I am getting error "unable to connect to database"
the steps I performed are
1/ installed sonarqube and configured mysql JDBC URL, user, password, and sonarport.
2/ installed and started mysql (have not created database 'sonar' and user 'sonar')
3/ launched setup url ( please see step A3 for the URL, as I can not post more than 2 links)
I am getting error (unable to connect to database) instead of the "setup database" screen showed in the video.
can you please throw some more pointers on how to setup mysql database for sonarqube as shown in the video? | 2015/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30341792",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4918428/"
] | Allright Raj, maybe SonarSource did not precise 'database schema' in this screen, but the way to do it is
1. install database like MySQL or Oracle
2. create a database user, like indicated here: <http://docs.sonarqube.org/display/SONAR/Installing#Installing-installingDatabaseInstallingtheDatabase>
Once you have installed SonarQube, the page you see in the video is where it will install the whole schema, tables and other database objects, on the user you have previously created.
If you want some help on installing and configuring SonarQube, I have a whole section about it on my blog <http://qualilogy.com/en/category/sonar/sonar-installation/>
Don't hesitate to ask for precision.
Regards. | Raj,
SonarQube does not create the database automatically.
It would need a specific creation script for each database as you don't create a database for Oracle or MySQL or SQLServer or ... in the same way.
The parameters of the DB would also change according to the environment: I can have DBA privileges on a DB on my laptop but I sysadmins will let you have them on a DB in production. |
6,975,922 | Hey I have a program written exclusively in Java where users can make a username-password account where they send messages to a server that then sends messages back to according users kind of like an AIM or Skype chatroom. I want to have a videochat option, but I have no clue how to go about doing it. Should I have users directly connect to other users over a TCP connection that's attached to a video stream or have it sort of echo back the same way that the messages are sent to the server then back to the clients? I have no clue could someone point me in the right direction? | 2011/08/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6975922",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/775355/"
] | In my opinion, you should help the clients establish their own point-to-point connection, but definitely not echo back. Just imagine the amount of bandwidth you would use :D | I would suggest to consider using a selfwritten UDP based protocol for speed gain |
7,599 | Visual Studio 2010 introduces [database projects](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee70aty.aspx) and a whole array of related features that supposedly facilitate database development. I've used SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) for many years to do my database development without issue.
* Why should I bother with VS2010 when SSMS works for me? What, specifically, does it do better than SSMS?
* But perhaps my premise is incorrect and SSMS still trumps VS for database development. If so, in what specific ways is that true? | 2011/11/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/7599",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/2660/"
] | There is no best practice, but with VS 2010 database project and source code controller (VSS 2010, Subversion, etc.) you can version your database.
I recommend that you first design your database directly into SSMS. After your database is almost ready, import it into a VS 2010 database project. Once the import is done, you must always add new script into your database project to keep track of all modifications. You can use the compare feature of database project to get all changes from development server and import all those scripts directly into your project. You now just have to "commit" your change into your source code controller.
With this method, you can have a versioned database. You can spot the version of each modification and roll back your changes.
This is not the only advantage. With this kind of project, you can compare any databases to your project to script the changes and with SQL PowerShell command prompt, you can update all of your databases with the same script: this script is an XML schema of your database. It will execute only the needed commands to update your databases. You also have the possibility to make [unit test](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa833148.aspx) in your database. An other good article for database project is available [here](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee70aty.aspx). With the deploy feature, you can have pre-script and post-script. With those scripts you can had validation nor insert data into your system tables.
[Here](http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=548) is a good step by step procedure for database project. | I use SSMS more than I do VS2010 because it is there when I install SQL Server. That is probably the most important thing why SSMS is used more than VS2010, IMHO.
I did also find that vendors like Red-Gate are putting out tools that integrate with SSMS and not necessarily VS2010. This can be positive in that it allows you to improve SSMS where Microsoft has not. One example of this is Red-Gate's SQL Source Control, which is an add-on to SSMS that allows you to connect SSMS up to your company's Source Control system whether it be Visual Team Foundation or what have you. VS2010 has this built-in but compared to the price of Reg-Gate's tool I just saved a bunch of money without having to buy VS2010.
I think overall it comes down to preference, you work with what you are comfortable in. If you are training a new person and you train them on VS2010 then that is going to become their preference because they know how to get around with it.
If you started playing with SQL Server 2012 you may have noticed that SSMS is getting the makeup of VS2010 slowly but surely. So eventually you may not be able to tell the difference between them. |
7,599 | Visual Studio 2010 introduces [database projects](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee70aty.aspx) and a whole array of related features that supposedly facilitate database development. I've used SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) for many years to do my database development without issue.
* Why should I bother with VS2010 when SSMS works for me? What, specifically, does it do better than SSMS?
* But perhaps my premise is incorrect and SSMS still trumps VS for database development. If so, in what specific ways is that true? | 2011/11/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/7599",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/2660/"
] | Actually I was a bit underwhelmed with VS2010, to be honest. I think an old-school create table script and files for stored procedures are easier to work with. If you need schema management then you can get Redgate SQL Compare Pro for a few hundred dollars.
If you really need a database modelling tool then Powerdesigner or even Erwin does a much better job, although they're not particularly cheap.
Although I prefer SSMS I've used both. Some pros and cons:
* SSMS has a user interface that 'just works' well for SQL development. Just building and using creation scripts is much more convenient than the hoops VS2010 forces you to jump through. Much, much more flexible (+ SSMS).
* VS2010 has basic schema management (i.e. difference/patch script generation) (+ VS2010). However it's not all that good and has some flaws. For example it matches constraints on name. If you have check or default constraints on a column without naming them, SQL Server generates a random name behind the scenes. This will confuse VS2010 if you install the script on a different machine as the constraints may have different names. Redgate is cheaper and better. (+ VS2010, but flawed).
* VS2010 is really clumsy - you need to have one file for each table or other DB object. Essentially you have to do things the VS2010 way, which is quite cumbersome. (- VS2010)
* VS2010 Is also somewhat fragile and source control integration is flaky. Even on a simple database every table, constraint, stored procedure, index and other database object is its own file. Files get added to the project all the time, much faster than a typical programming project with (say) C#. With optimistic concurrency it has a tendency to silently drop files from the project as check-ins get out of sync. Even with good team discipline the feedback from the UI about status is very poor. This would be a disaster on a complex model. (-VS2010 - I'd almost consider that a show-stopping flaw for a large project).
* SSMS comes with SQL Server - can't beat the price (+ SSMS).
* VS2010 still does not have a proper repository like (say) PowerDesigner or Oracle Designer. You can't easily query the data model without installing it into a database. (- VS2010).
On the whole, I would rate VS2010 about a B-. It was clumsy on a relatively simple database project with two fact tables and around 15 dimensions.
The largest data model I ever did was for a court case management system, which had around 560 tables. I would not recommend VS2010 for a project that size (I did that on Oracle Designer). Essentially it's trying to be clever and the paradigm doesn't really work all that well. You're better off with a best-of-breed modelling tool like PowerDesigner or just using create table scripts by hand.
SSMS is simple and reliable but manual. You have pretty much infinite control over how you want to manage the model. Combine it with a schema manager such as Redgate SQL Compare and maybe a decent modelling tool such as PowerDesigner and you have a much better package than VS2010.
**Summary**
I'm not sure I could quote any killer features or benefits apart from (perhaps) integration with VS solutions containing other projects. If you already have VS2010 premium or ultimate then you get a somewhat flawed database development tool thrown in with your .Net tool chain. It will integrate DB projects into your VS solution, so you can use it to make sproc deployment scripts at least.
However, VS has no modelling tool to speak of, so PowerDesigner or even Erwin is better on that count. Redgate's schema management is much better and SQL Compare Pro is quite cheap (about £400 IIRC). IMHO SSMS works much better for T-SQL development but you can certainly do it with VS2010.
VS2010 premium isn't much cheaper than a best-of-breed database modelling tool and VS2010 ultimate is at least as expensive. At the expense of tight integration with your VS project you could probably do better with third party tools.
**An alternative**
I guess one shouldn't slag off VS2010 too much without suggesting at least one alternative and outlining its pros and cons. For the purposes of this I'll assume a large project. Although I mainly do A/P work these days I have been involved in a 100+ staff year project where I did the data model (and some development work) and a couple of others in the 10 staff-year range, where I mainly worked as an analyst or a developer. Mostly I work on data warehouse systems these days but the larger projects were mainly applications. Based on my experiences with various tools, here are some suggestions for an alternative tool chain:
* VS2010 professional or higher. You may or may not want to use project management features of premium or ultimate.
* Subversion, AnkhSVN and TortoiseSVN - Better than TFS any day and plays nicely with VS. It's also quite amenable to farming off local repositories for concurrent development workstreams.
* SSMS for T-SQL development - Project management and SC integration not so good but works well for DB development work.
* VS2010 DB project for tracking sproc files - slightly clumsy if you're using SSMS but works OK. It will also generate deployment scripts.
* PowerDesigner - Way better at modelling a database and managing DB schema items. It also does UML if you want to get heavily into MDA. If you want to drive your DB design from an object model you might consider Sparx EA instead. It does the best job of Meta CASE (extensible meta model) of any CASE tool I've seen, although its database modelling leaves something to be desired.
* SQL Compare pro - Use this to generate DB patch scripts or to test manual patch scripts (see 1 below).
* Framemaker - Much more stable and better groupware features than Word if you have multiple analysts working on a spec. It also supports conditional inclusion, so you can have versioned releases of a spec with WIP changes hidden off. MIF and MML make it fairly easy to integrate API docs and data dictionaries into the spec documents. It's quite useful to do this as you can then cross-reference them in the spec. Textual label anchors make cross-references stable across re-imports. You can also use TCS to single-source the document to PDF, HTML and CHM output.
* Open-source issue tracker - Many good open-source ones (e.g. TRAC, Bugzilla to name a couple I've used). Open-source ones are easier to modify or integrate into a custom workflow and you can't beat the price.
* NUnit or other testing tools - whatever automated testing tools are most appropriate to your requirements.
* Anything but MS project - Considered harmful. MS project is very inward looking and forces project plans into a model that does not effectively represent uncertainty, risk or dependencies on stakeholders or other third parties (see 2 below).
**Pros:** Better database modelling and schema management than VS2010, better version control system, easier to customise the build and project work flow, better management of specs and documentation.
**Cons:** More effort to integrate tools, limited DB integration into build process.
**Assumptions:** Assumes that control of change/release process in more important than automated or tightly integrated release management for DB schemas. Also assumes that automated DB schema management is not 100% reliable.
Not terribly high tech or slickly integrated, but for a complex project you're probably more interested in control than cute automated features. I'd argue that you're better off with a set of best of breed tools and whatever home brew build and test scripting is necessary to integrate them. Just try to keep the build (a) relatively simple to understand and (b) fully automated.
1. QA on DB patches. On a large schema you may want to have a manual patching process for live systems, particularly if the patches involve data migration. For example, it may be desirable to have roll-forward and roll-back scripts to support backing out a change if necessary. In this case you will want to have a facility to test that the patch actually works properly. If you manage the database schema in a repository you can test the scripts by setting up before databases and generating a reference database from the repository. Running the patch script on the before database should synchronise it with the repositiry model. A schema compare tool can be used to test this.
2. I've done a lot more data warehouse and integration work than bespoke application development lately, so I encounter this more often than a development team will in most cases. However, project management tools and methodologies do a very poor job of managing external stakeholders. In an integration project such as a data warehouse I really want to see a project management tool that really pushes external dependencies (i.e. ones I don't control) in the face of programme management. On any non-trivial integration project the external dependencies are by far the biggest drivers of wasted time. | I use Visual Studio extensively (well, BIDS) for SSRS report design, and SSIS packages. I couldn't do either very well, if at all, in Management Studio. Visual Studio is a much more complete and integrated development environment, and it hooks into Source Control systems much better too. And that's all reflected in the price! |
7,599 | Visual Studio 2010 introduces [database projects](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee70aty.aspx) and a whole array of related features that supposedly facilitate database development. I've used SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) for many years to do my database development without issue.
* Why should I bother with VS2010 when SSMS works for me? What, specifically, does it do better than SSMS?
* But perhaps my premise is incorrect and SSMS still trumps VS for database development. If so, in what specific ways is that true? | 2011/11/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/7599",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/2660/"
] | I use Visual Studio extensively (well, BIDS) for SSRS report design, and SSIS packages. I couldn't do either very well, if at all, in Management Studio. Visual Studio is a much more complete and integrated development environment, and it hooks into Source Control systems much better too. And that's all reflected in the price! | I use SSMS more than I do VS2010 because it is there when I install SQL Server. That is probably the most important thing why SSMS is used more than VS2010, IMHO.
I did also find that vendors like Red-Gate are putting out tools that integrate with SSMS and not necessarily VS2010. This can be positive in that it allows you to improve SSMS where Microsoft has not. One example of this is Red-Gate's SQL Source Control, which is an add-on to SSMS that allows you to connect SSMS up to your company's Source Control system whether it be Visual Team Foundation or what have you. VS2010 has this built-in but compared to the price of Reg-Gate's tool I just saved a bunch of money without having to buy VS2010.
I think overall it comes down to preference, you work with what you are comfortable in. If you are training a new person and you train them on VS2010 then that is going to become their preference because they know how to get around with it.
If you started playing with SQL Server 2012 you may have noticed that SSMS is getting the makeup of VS2010 slowly but surely. So eventually you may not be able to tell the difference between them. |
7,599 | Visual Studio 2010 introduces [database projects](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee70aty.aspx) and a whole array of related features that supposedly facilitate database development. I've used SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) for many years to do my database development without issue.
* Why should I bother with VS2010 when SSMS works for me? What, specifically, does it do better than SSMS?
* But perhaps my premise is incorrect and SSMS still trumps VS for database development. If so, in what specific ways is that true? | 2011/11/04 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/7599",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/2660/"
] | VS may appear great if you don't know SSMS or have used 3rd party tools. The gaps in VS stand out if you use Red Gate tools for schema comparison etc. And the free SSMS plug-ins too.
The source control bits is misleading: what is in the production database is your reference copy. Not what the developer is using. See
* <https://stackoverflow.com/q/1597085/27535>
* <https://stackoverflow.com/q/4433153/27535> | I use SSMS more than I do VS2010 because it is there when I install SQL Server. That is probably the most important thing why SSMS is used more than VS2010, IMHO.
I did also find that vendors like Red-Gate are putting out tools that integrate with SSMS and not necessarily VS2010. This can be positive in that it allows you to improve SSMS where Microsoft has not. One example of this is Red-Gate's SQL Source Control, which is an add-on to SSMS that allows you to connect SSMS up to your company's Source Control system whether it be Visual Team Foundation or what have you. VS2010 has this built-in but compared to the price of Reg-Gate's tool I just saved a bunch of money without having to buy VS2010.
I think overall it comes down to preference, you work with what you are comfortable in. If you are training a new person and you train them on VS2010 then that is going to become their preference because they know how to get around with it.
If you started playing with SQL Server 2012 you may have noticed that SSMS is getting the makeup of VS2010 slowly but surely. So eventually you may not be able to tell the difference between them. |
75,964 | Is the following use of Contingency legal?
You are a Wild Mage Sorcerer with Wizard levels. You cast Contingency with the following trigger condition: any time wild magic causes you to cast fireball on yourself, OR you turn to a plant, OR you are banished, etc, listing all negative Wild Magic Surge effects.
The contingent spell: dispel magic on yourself.
Restating to avoid enumeration (and the OR operation), could the trigger condition be: *if Wild Magic Surge affects me or my allies in a harmful or disadvantageous way, except a self-fireball*. Would this be legal, though it is quite a general condition?
It does remove the need to enumerate every instance, though. But in this way, a single sentence summarizes the intent of the contingency without spelling out every condition. | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/75964",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **This could only work for some effects.**
*Dispel Magic* will only mitigate some Wild Magic Surge effects; specifically those that have a persistent effect on you personally. For example, *dispel magic* won't help against a *fireball* you cast on yourself. *Fireball* would need to be *counterspell*ed, but *contingency* only works spells with a casting time of one action, and *counterspell* has a casting time of one reaction.
Another important thing to note about *dispel magic* is that it's indiscriminate:
>
> Choose one creature, object, or magical effect within range. **Any spell** of 3rd level or lower on the target ends. **For each spell** of 4th level or higher on the target, make an ability check using your spellcasting ability. The DC equals 10 + the spell’s level. On a successful check, the spell ends.
>
>
>
A spellcaster doesn't get to pick and choose which effects get dispelled, so the contingent *dispel magic* will also affect any defensive or protective spells that are affecting them.
Further, while there are no limits in the PHB on the complexity of the condition that can be defined for *contingency*, the DM might not allow overly long or convoluted conditions. For example, in order to prevent abuse, they might require that a player whose character is casting *contingency* verbally express the triggering condition without recourse to notes. Or they might only allow simple conditions without any kind of logical conjunctions (*and*, *or*, *if*, etc).
In this particular case, the DM might rule that the player doesn't know all of the possible outcomes from a Wild Magic Surge, and so there's no way they can enumerate them all in order to protect themselves.
>
> ... "what if the condition instead was: if Wild Magic Surge affects me or my allies in a harmful or disadvantageous way, except a self-fireball?"
>
>
>
The DM might also limit the amount of decision-making that a *contingency* can perform. Conditions that include phrases like "in a harmful or disadvantageous way" might not be possible, or (worse) not be reliable; the *contingency* spell might (for example) decide that turning into a potted plant is advantageous under some circumstances.
Additionally, remember that *contingency* only casts the spell on the *caster*, not on any other targets. If you really want to cast *dispel magic* on yourself any time a Wild Magic Surge affects your allies, you can, but that's probably not what you want. | Seems too meta to be allowed. How would the sorceror know about the table and what effects are on it unless they've experienced them or researched other sorceror (even then the effects should only be a guess, legend and rumor that Bob died because of a self inflicted fireball). If the contingency was set to harmful who decides that? Trying to turn yourself invisible and accidentally becoming a potted plant doesn't seem too bad but while trying to cast feather fall it seems much worse. |
75,964 | Is the following use of Contingency legal?
You are a Wild Mage Sorcerer with Wizard levels. You cast Contingency with the following trigger condition: any time wild magic causes you to cast fireball on yourself, OR you turn to a plant, OR you are banished, etc, listing all negative Wild Magic Surge effects.
The contingent spell: dispel magic on yourself.
Restating to avoid enumeration (and the OR operation), could the trigger condition be: *if Wild Magic Surge affects me or my allies in a harmful or disadvantageous way, except a self-fireball*. Would this be legal, though it is quite a general condition?
It does remove the need to enumerate every instance, though. But in this way, a single sentence summarizes the intent of the contingency without spelling out every condition. | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/75964",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **This could only work for some effects.**
*Dispel Magic* will only mitigate some Wild Magic Surge effects; specifically those that have a persistent effect on you personally. For example, *dispel magic* won't help against a *fireball* you cast on yourself. *Fireball* would need to be *counterspell*ed, but *contingency* only works spells with a casting time of one action, and *counterspell* has a casting time of one reaction.
Another important thing to note about *dispel magic* is that it's indiscriminate:
>
> Choose one creature, object, or magical effect within range. **Any spell** of 3rd level or lower on the target ends. **For each spell** of 4th level or higher on the target, make an ability check using your spellcasting ability. The DC equals 10 + the spell’s level. On a successful check, the spell ends.
>
>
>
A spellcaster doesn't get to pick and choose which effects get dispelled, so the contingent *dispel magic* will also affect any defensive or protective spells that are affecting them.
Further, while there are no limits in the PHB on the complexity of the condition that can be defined for *contingency*, the DM might not allow overly long or convoluted conditions. For example, in order to prevent abuse, they might require that a player whose character is casting *contingency* verbally express the triggering condition without recourse to notes. Or they might only allow simple conditions without any kind of logical conjunctions (*and*, *or*, *if*, etc).
In this particular case, the DM might rule that the player doesn't know all of the possible outcomes from a Wild Magic Surge, and so there's no way they can enumerate them all in order to protect themselves.
>
> ... "what if the condition instead was: if Wild Magic Surge affects me or my allies in a harmful or disadvantageous way, except a self-fireball?"
>
>
>
The DM might also limit the amount of decision-making that a *contingency* can perform. Conditions that include phrases like "in a harmful or disadvantageous way" might not be possible, or (worse) not be reliable; the *contingency* spell might (for example) decide that turning into a potted plant is advantageous under some circumstances.
Additionally, remember that *contingency* only casts the spell on the *caster*, not on any other targets. If you really want to cast *dispel magic* on yourself any time a Wild Magic Surge affects your allies, you can, but that's probably not what you want. | You can certainly use a *contingency* spell to have *dispel magic* cast on yourself and it would end any ***spell*** you had affecting you. Unfortunately, Wild Surges are not necessarily spells, only those that would have text indicating that "you cast X" would be spells and thus subject to *Dispel Magic* assuming a duration of not instantaneous. As stated [here](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2016/04/04/does-a-wild-magic-sorcerer-need-to-maintain-concentration-on-wild-magic-surge-spell/) they would require no concentration nor are they intended to cost a spell slot as indicated [here](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/05/13/wild-magic-surge-table/).
Consider the text of *dispel magic*
>
> Choose one creature, object, or magical effect within range. **Any spell**
> of 3rd level or lower on the target ends. **For each spell** of 4th level
> or higher on the target.... (PHB p.234, emphasis mine)
>
>
>
The "Creature, object, or magical effect" indicates what you can target with the spell and any spell on that target ends. I know of no magical effect that can have a spell active on it to be honest and I think this verbiage is the confusing part in its interpretation but I believe the second and third sentences are clear. I know that in our group we have fallen victim to what previous versions allowed and have been stopped short by taking that for granted.
But we have details of the question posted in [SageAdvice](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/SA-Compendium.pdf) below:
>
> **Can you use dispel magic to dispel a magical effect like a vampire’s Charm ability?** Dispel magic has a particular purpose: to break other
> spells. It has ***no effect on a vampire’s Charm ability or any other
> magical effect that isn’t a spell***. It also does nothing to the
> properties of a magic item. It can, however, end a spell cast from a
> magic item or from another source. Spells—they’re what dispel magic is
> about. For example, if you cast dispel magic on a staff of power, the
> spell fails to disrupt the staff’s magical properties, but if the
> staff’s wielder casts hold monster from the staff, dispel magic can
> end that spell if cast on the target of hold monster. There are
> abilities and other spells that can end or suspend magical effects
> that aren’t spells. For example, the greater restoration spell can end
> a charm effect of any sort on a target (such as a vampire’s Charm or a
> dryad’s Fey Charm), and a paladin’s Aura of Devotion can prevent or
> suspend such an effect. Three of the most versatile spells for ending
> certain magical effects are lesser restoration, greater restoration,
> and remove curse.
>
>
>
There have been a number of posts by Mearls and crew about this spell and what it specifically does and all of them have started with "Dispel Magic dispels spells, X is not a spell". This has been the answer to such things as [Arcane Ward](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/11/25/does-dispell-magic-effect-an-arcane-ward/), [Wild Shape](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2016/06/21/what-happens-to-a-wildshaped-druid-that-enters-an-antimagic-field-and-dispel-magic/) and [so on](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/04/23/dispel-magic-vs-stormborn/) (thank you nitsua60 for helping with potential downvotes).
You can also not use *Counterspell* in this scenario as the target is a creature, moreover the reaction would not be triggered because there are no spells being cast.
>
> You attempt to interrupt a creature in the process of casting a
> spell. PHB p228
>
>
> |
75,964 | Is the following use of Contingency legal?
You are a Wild Mage Sorcerer with Wizard levels. You cast Contingency with the following trigger condition: any time wild magic causes you to cast fireball on yourself, OR you turn to a plant, OR you are banished, etc, listing all negative Wild Magic Surge effects.
The contingent spell: dispel magic on yourself.
Restating to avoid enumeration (and the OR operation), could the trigger condition be: *if Wild Magic Surge affects me or my allies in a harmful or disadvantageous way, except a self-fireball*. Would this be legal, though it is quite a general condition?
It does remove the need to enumerate every instance, though. But in this way, a single sentence summarizes the intent of the contingency without spelling out every condition. | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/75964",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You can certainly use a *contingency* spell to have *dispel magic* cast on yourself and it would end any ***spell*** you had affecting you. Unfortunately, Wild Surges are not necessarily spells, only those that would have text indicating that "you cast X" would be spells and thus subject to *Dispel Magic* assuming a duration of not instantaneous. As stated [here](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2016/04/04/does-a-wild-magic-sorcerer-need-to-maintain-concentration-on-wild-magic-surge-spell/) they would require no concentration nor are they intended to cost a spell slot as indicated [here](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/05/13/wild-magic-surge-table/).
Consider the text of *dispel magic*
>
> Choose one creature, object, or magical effect within range. **Any spell**
> of 3rd level or lower on the target ends. **For each spell** of 4th level
> or higher on the target.... (PHB p.234, emphasis mine)
>
>
>
The "Creature, object, or magical effect" indicates what you can target with the spell and any spell on that target ends. I know of no magical effect that can have a spell active on it to be honest and I think this verbiage is the confusing part in its interpretation but I believe the second and third sentences are clear. I know that in our group we have fallen victim to what previous versions allowed and have been stopped short by taking that for granted.
But we have details of the question posted in [SageAdvice](http://media.wizards.com/2016/downloads/DND/SA-Compendium.pdf) below:
>
> **Can you use dispel magic to dispel a magical effect like a vampire’s Charm ability?** Dispel magic has a particular purpose: to break other
> spells. It has ***no effect on a vampire’s Charm ability or any other
> magical effect that isn’t a spell***. It also does nothing to the
> properties of a magic item. It can, however, end a spell cast from a
> magic item or from another source. Spells—they’re what dispel magic is
> about. For example, if you cast dispel magic on a staff of power, the
> spell fails to disrupt the staff’s magical properties, but if the
> staff’s wielder casts hold monster from the staff, dispel magic can
> end that spell if cast on the target of hold monster. There are
> abilities and other spells that can end or suspend magical effects
> that aren’t spells. For example, the greater restoration spell can end
> a charm effect of any sort on a target (such as a vampire’s Charm or a
> dryad’s Fey Charm), and a paladin’s Aura of Devotion can prevent or
> suspend such an effect. Three of the most versatile spells for ending
> certain magical effects are lesser restoration, greater restoration,
> and remove curse.
>
>
>
There have been a number of posts by Mearls and crew about this spell and what it specifically does and all of them have started with "Dispel Magic dispels spells, X is not a spell". This has been the answer to such things as [Arcane Ward](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/11/25/does-dispell-magic-effect-an-arcane-ward/), [Wild Shape](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2016/06/21/what-happens-to-a-wildshaped-druid-that-enters-an-antimagic-field-and-dispel-magic/) and [so on](http://www.sageadvice.eu/2015/04/23/dispel-magic-vs-stormborn/) (thank you nitsua60 for helping with potential downvotes).
You can also not use *Counterspell* in this scenario as the target is a creature, moreover the reaction would not be triggered because there are no spells being cast.
>
> You attempt to interrupt a creature in the process of casting a
> spell. PHB p228
>
>
> | Seems too meta to be allowed. How would the sorceror know about the table and what effects are on it unless they've experienced them or researched other sorceror (even then the effects should only be a guess, legend and rumor that Bob died because of a self inflicted fireball). If the contingency was set to harmful who decides that? Trying to turn yourself invisible and accidentally becoming a potted plant doesn't seem too bad but while trying to cast feather fall it seems much worse. |
194,648 | I'm a phd student in number theory, and I'm required (by the funding council) to publish any article I write in open access journals. The problem is that all journals I can find are either out of my league (but open access), or at the right level (but not open access). So I was wondering:
>
> Is there a list of good open access journals specialised in or biased towards number theory? If not, what are good open access journals (with a rough ranking in terms of quality and/or prestige) for number theorists?
>
>
> | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/194648",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/66266/"
] | Here are a few thoughts:
* As several posters have already pointed out in the comments, many funding agencies are happy to accept an Arxiv preprint version as satisfying their "open access" requirement. This is certainly true for the big funders in the UK such as EPSRC, although you should check what your funder's rules are. (This is what's sometimes called "green open access".)
* Lots of publishers now offer the option called "gold open access". This is where you pay some extra fee at the time of publication to make your article freely available online. This is regarded with suspicion by many researchers, but that's another story. The point is that some institutions/funders have special pots of money available to pay these open-access fees, so it may end up costing you (and your research budget) little or nothing; it's worth looking into.
* A special case of the previous point is for journals that are published by your own funder. In this case the article-processing fees may be heavily discounted or waived entirely; if I remember correctly, this applies in the UK with the Royal Society, which allows holders of Royal Society grants to publish open-access in their journals without paying the usual fees.
That said, there are some excellent journals that are fully open-access and publish many number theory papers. "Documenta Mathematica" springs to mind, as does "LMS Journal of Computational Mathematics" for computational number theory. | The New York Journal of Mathematics (<http://nyjm.albany.edu/>) is a peer reviewed and free online general math journal that has published lots of papers in number theory. It has been publishing since the mid-1990s. It is not an ArXiv overlay journal. Published articles appear on the journal website as free downloadable PDF files. However, it is an *electronic only* journal, so if your funding requires a hard-copy print journal, it would not be allowed. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | **"Stand back", when used metaphorically, means to disengage**, or to allow events to take their course. A doctor, arriving at the scene of an accident might tell passers by to "stand back", meaning not just literally backing away from the victim but also to stop taking action and allow the doctor to work unimpeded.
**"Stand by" means to be ready to take some action.** If soldiers are told to "stand by" they will make ready. The expectation is that an order for action will be given soon. Slightly differently, if the soldiers report that their attack target is in sight, if told to "stand by" will not attack, but will stay ready to attack.
Both are completely different from "stand down", which means to cease action. Soldiers told to "stand down" stop fighting and carries no implication of maintaining readiness.
As is usual what the President of the United States actually meant is anybody's guess. The Proud Boys (who are violent right wing extremists) absolutely took "stand by" as meaning "wait for the call to action". | The context here is the 2020 first US Presidential debate, in which Pres. Trump was asked to denounce militant white nationalist groups who have promised violence to guarantee his reelection (or in retaliation if he isn’t re-elected). He refused to denounce those groups and instead told them to “stand back and stand by.”
In a military context, the meaning of “stand back” is to *stay back*, and the meaning of “stand by” is to *stay ready to act on further orders*.
Trump’s representatives claim that isn’t what he meant, but that is almost certainly how those groups have interpreted it. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | **"Stand back", when used metaphorically, means to disengage**, or to allow events to take their course. A doctor, arriving at the scene of an accident might tell passers by to "stand back", meaning not just literally backing away from the victim but also to stop taking action and allow the doctor to work unimpeded.
**"Stand by" means to be ready to take some action.** If soldiers are told to "stand by" they will make ready. The expectation is that an order for action will be given soon. Slightly differently, if the soldiers report that their attack target is in sight, if told to "stand by" will not attack, but will stay ready to attack.
Both are completely different from "stand down", which means to cease action. Soldiers told to "stand down" stop fighting and carries no implication of maintaining readiness.
As is usual what the President of the United States actually meant is anybody's guess. The Proud Boys (who are violent right wing extremists) absolutely took "stand by" as meaning "wait for the call to action". | I agree that "stand by" means "wait in readiness", and typically that means that action will soon be triggered by an order. Sometimes with news broadcasts, the term "stand by" means "wait because some important news is coming in." |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | **"Stand back", when used metaphorically, means to disengage**, or to allow events to take their course. A doctor, arriving at the scene of an accident might tell passers by to "stand back", meaning not just literally backing away from the victim but also to stop taking action and allow the doctor to work unimpeded.
**"Stand by" means to be ready to take some action.** If soldiers are told to "stand by" they will make ready. The expectation is that an order for action will be given soon. Slightly differently, if the soldiers report that their attack target is in sight, if told to "stand by" will not attack, but will stay ready to attack.
Both are completely different from "stand down", which means to cease action. Soldiers told to "stand down" stop fighting and carries no implication of maintaining readiness.
As is usual what the President of the United States actually meant is anybody's guess. The Proud Boys (who are violent right wing extremists) absolutely took "stand by" as meaning "wait for the call to action". | Stand back and stand by: can't be separated in the statement of Donald Trump; he meant be prepared to do what I'll ask you to do. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | **"Stand back", when used metaphorically, means to disengage**, or to allow events to take their course. A doctor, arriving at the scene of an accident might tell passers by to "stand back", meaning not just literally backing away from the victim but also to stop taking action and allow the doctor to work unimpeded.
**"Stand by" means to be ready to take some action.** If soldiers are told to "stand by" they will make ready. The expectation is that an order for action will be given soon. Slightly differently, if the soldiers report that their attack target is in sight, if told to "stand by" will not attack, but will stay ready to attack.
Both are completely different from "stand down", which means to cease action. Soldiers told to "stand down" stop fighting and carries no implication of maintaining readiness.
As is usual what the President of the United States actually meant is anybody's guess. The Proud Boys (who are violent right wing extremists) absolutely took "stand by" as meaning "wait for the call to action". | "Stand by," by itself, can have multiple meanings. To stand by can mean "to do nothing." Indeed, it would be a common phrase to state that someone "stood by and did nothing" (a bit of a tautology), especially in contexts where the person could have taken some action that the speaker believes would have been proper. However, as an imperative, an instruction to "stand by" almost always carries the connotation of readiness, doing nothing at the moment but being prepared to take action when instructed.
"Stand back" has been well explained by DJClayworth, above.
The two phrases are not usually put together in this way. Like many of Donald Trump's public statements, the meaning is not clear. This is what Trump said when he was asked to demand that white supremacists and militias "stand down," with an intended meaning that was also explained by DJClayworth. It's entirely possible that Trump really meant to tell the groups to "stand down." If so, this is exactly the kind of error Trump made recently when, intending to discuss "herd immunity," he referred to a "herd mentality." But Trump never acknowledges an error; this is the man who insisted "covfefe" had some hidden meaning when he most likely fell asleep on his keyboard. So by refusing to address the contents of his previous statements, Trump has allowed the Proud Boys to seize on the "readiness" implications of "stand by," and the media has largely followed that narrative. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | I agree that "stand by" means "wait in readiness", and typically that means that action will soon be triggered by an order. Sometimes with news broadcasts, the term "stand by" means "wait because some important news is coming in." | The context here is the 2020 first US Presidential debate, in which Pres. Trump was asked to denounce militant white nationalist groups who have promised violence to guarantee his reelection (or in retaliation if he isn’t re-elected). He refused to denounce those groups and instead told them to “stand back and stand by.”
In a military context, the meaning of “stand back” is to *stay back*, and the meaning of “stand by” is to *stay ready to act on further orders*.
Trump’s representatives claim that isn’t what he meant, but that is almost certainly how those groups have interpreted it. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | The context here is the 2020 first US Presidential debate, in which Pres. Trump was asked to denounce militant white nationalist groups who have promised violence to guarantee his reelection (or in retaliation if he isn’t re-elected). He refused to denounce those groups and instead told them to “stand back and stand by.”
In a military context, the meaning of “stand back” is to *stay back*, and the meaning of “stand by” is to *stay ready to act on further orders*.
Trump’s representatives claim that isn’t what he meant, but that is almost certainly how those groups have interpreted it. | Stand back and stand by: can't be separated in the statement of Donald Trump; he meant be prepared to do what I'll ask you to do. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | I agree that "stand by" means "wait in readiness", and typically that means that action will soon be triggered by an order. Sometimes with news broadcasts, the term "stand by" means "wait because some important news is coming in." | Stand back and stand by: can't be separated in the statement of Donald Trump; he meant be prepared to do what I'll ask you to do. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | I agree that "stand by" means "wait in readiness", and typically that means that action will soon be triggered by an order. Sometimes with news broadcasts, the term "stand by" means "wait because some important news is coming in." | "Stand by," by itself, can have multiple meanings. To stand by can mean "to do nothing." Indeed, it would be a common phrase to state that someone "stood by and did nothing" (a bit of a tautology), especially in contexts where the person could have taken some action that the speaker believes would have been proper. However, as an imperative, an instruction to "stand by" almost always carries the connotation of readiness, doing nothing at the moment but being prepared to take action when instructed.
"Stand back" has been well explained by DJClayworth, above.
The two phrases are not usually put together in this way. Like many of Donald Trump's public statements, the meaning is not clear. This is what Trump said when he was asked to demand that white supremacists and militias "stand down," with an intended meaning that was also explained by DJClayworth. It's entirely possible that Trump really meant to tell the groups to "stand down." If so, this is exactly the kind of error Trump made recently when, intending to discuss "herd immunity," he referred to a "herd mentality." But Trump never acknowledges an error; this is the man who insisted "covfefe" had some hidden meaning when he most likely fell asleep on his keyboard. So by refusing to address the contents of his previous statements, Trump has allowed the Proud Boys to seize on the "readiness" implications of "stand by," and the media has largely followed that narrative. |
261,715 | I understand that "stand back and stand by" means leave, stay off the way and stay there.
But by reaction of media I suspect that this is not exactly correct? In context of recent (2020) US presidential debate. | 2020/10/02 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/261715",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/122981/"
] | "Stand by," by itself, can have multiple meanings. To stand by can mean "to do nothing." Indeed, it would be a common phrase to state that someone "stood by and did nothing" (a bit of a tautology), especially in contexts where the person could have taken some action that the speaker believes would have been proper. However, as an imperative, an instruction to "stand by" almost always carries the connotation of readiness, doing nothing at the moment but being prepared to take action when instructed.
"Stand back" has been well explained by DJClayworth, above.
The two phrases are not usually put together in this way. Like many of Donald Trump's public statements, the meaning is not clear. This is what Trump said when he was asked to demand that white supremacists and militias "stand down," with an intended meaning that was also explained by DJClayworth. It's entirely possible that Trump really meant to tell the groups to "stand down." If so, this is exactly the kind of error Trump made recently when, intending to discuss "herd immunity," he referred to a "herd mentality." But Trump never acknowledges an error; this is the man who insisted "covfefe" had some hidden meaning when he most likely fell asleep on his keyboard. So by refusing to address the contents of his previous statements, Trump has allowed the Proud Boys to seize on the "readiness" implications of "stand by," and the media has largely followed that narrative. | Stand back and stand by: can't be separated in the statement of Donald Trump; he meant be prepared to do what I'll ask you to do. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | A sports hybrid is named for being a hybrid of a mountain and a road bike. One advantage of a hybrid is the upright cycling style where your face is pointed more straight ahead rather than looking up with drops. This can also be achieved with drop handlebars by raising them until they are at a level or slightly higher than the seat. This is easier to do with older bikes which no not have the threadless headsets. A 5-mile commute would be fine on this type of bike but I think that a 20-mile ride would begin to suck pretty quickly since you can really move your hands around. A second advantage is that the hybrid's relatively thicker tires will allow you more advantages than traditional 700c 'skinny' road tires. They can handle gravel and potholes and pretty much anything else that you might encounter on a city street.
Having said that, to me the biggest disadvantage of the hybrid is that it is a compromise from two 'focused' efforts to be something that by definition is unfocused but tries to be everything to everybody and achieves being nothing. Technically, I think the lack of hand placement is the biggest impediment.
If you still have your Trek, I might recommend raising the handlebars a bit and mounting the fattest Schwalbe tires you can on it. They are bombproof and comfy though they are heavy. Stick some fenders on it and you are good for 4-season riding.
I think both Surly and Civia make some very nice and reasonably affordable (this is always in the eye of the beholder) bikes that would suit this purpose. | I have an Opus Legato, which is a 27 speed drop handle bar road bike. The roads in my town are terrible also. My solution was to put rather fat nearly slick tires on it (700mmx38mm). I did this with a circa 1997 Devinci Caribou as well. It can bounce through potholes and I jump kerbs all the time. The tire depth prevents bottoming out on the rim. Works well for medium rough off road riding as well. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | If you're dealing with rough roads, a bike with slightly wider tires will be more comfortable, less likely to throw you with small obstacles/ruts, and probably have a wider selection of puncture-resistant tires.
Most road bikes are designed for very narrow tires and can't accomodate anything much wider. Narrow tires on rough roads are more likely to get caught on small ruts (etc).
You could always put the widest puncture resistant tires possible on your old road bike (maybe also a tire liner, puncture resistant tubes, etc) and pack a decent repair kit (2 tire levers, 1 tube, a few patches) into a seat bag.
I think the definition of a "sport hybrid" is fairly flexible (vague, inconsistent). "Hybrid" almost always means a bike with flat handlebars (like a mountain bike), but with larger thin wheels like a typical road bike. A "sport" hybrid is one that's a little more geared for speed than comfort (possibly even the same as a "flat bar road bike"), so maybe has you leaned a bit more forward and has some higher end components and probably no suspension stuff.
For a less than 5 mile commute on relatively flat ground, any bike you like will do, as long as it's capable of carrying whatever you want to carry and ride comfortably over the roads. For your longer ride you're more likely to want the drop handlebars, mostly to have more positions for your hands, but also to go faster. You can add extensions or replace the bars on a flat-bar bike to get more hand positions, though.
For the somewhat longer rides, if you want to be able to go relatively fast and you have to deal with bad roads, I'd look at:
* Sport hybrids
* Cyclocross bikes (made for racing on mixed trails/mud/pavement)
* Touring bikes (road bike designed for long trips in possibly terrible conditions. wide tires, tough frame)
* "Commuter" bikes (hybrids optimized for commutes).
* any number of more basic less specifically named "flat handlebar road bikes" or "hybrids"
For all of those, you're likely to want to replace the stock tires with something more puncture resistant (for the glass you don't see), and maybe have those be wider tires, too.
From your description of liking drop handlebars, I'm thinking a cyclocross bike might be the best option. Cyclocross frames tend to be very similar to road frames, but can handle wider tires. There's other less important differences that could be asked in another question. Probably won't come with handlebars as low as many modern road bikes, but that is likely to be fixable. The cheaper cyclocross bikes often have the stuff to make it easy to mount a rack and/or fenders, too. | I feel a strong need to come to the defence of decent hybrids!
I ride a Specialized Hybrid sport bike. I live in the South of the Netherlands and I chose a hybrid because I ride a combination of roads, asphalt bike paths, gravel paths and forest trails. The trails range from soft sand to mud and everything in the middle. The only thing we lack is hills...
I replaced the original tyres with Schwalbe Smart Sam tyres which have enough grip for the trails but run quickly on smooth paths.
It is a compromise and the narrower tyres are not ideal in dry soft sand. But it's a great bike and I comfortably ride 80 - 100 km on mixed paths with no real problems..
By definition a hybrid is a compromise, but not necessarily a bad one... |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | I feel a strong need to come to the defence of decent hybrids!
I ride a Specialized Hybrid sport bike. I live in the South of the Netherlands and I chose a hybrid because I ride a combination of roads, asphalt bike paths, gravel paths and forest trails. The trails range from soft sand to mud and everything in the middle. The only thing we lack is hills...
I replaced the original tyres with Schwalbe Smart Sam tyres which have enough grip for the trails but run quickly on smooth paths.
It is a compromise and the narrower tyres are not ideal in dry soft sand. But it's a great bike and I comfortably ride 80 - 100 km on mixed paths with no real problems..
By definition a hybrid is a compromise, but not necessarily a bad one... | I was going to say that a 'cross bike or tourer might be a good option. (though considerably more expensive than the typical hybrid)
Both can easily be equipped with rather gnarly tires which should take just about anything you can throw at them.
The problem with upright-position hybrid or "fitness" or "comfort" bikes is that they are not particularly efficient. 10-20 miles a day is not "serious" mileage, but still turning in that distance constantly with essentially all your weight on your....Fundamental bits can be a strain... Such bikes are intended for more casual use. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | If you're dealing with rough roads, a bike with slightly wider tires will be more comfortable, less likely to throw you with small obstacles/ruts, and probably have a wider selection of puncture-resistant tires.
Most road bikes are designed for very narrow tires and can't accomodate anything much wider. Narrow tires on rough roads are more likely to get caught on small ruts (etc).
You could always put the widest puncture resistant tires possible on your old road bike (maybe also a tire liner, puncture resistant tubes, etc) and pack a decent repair kit (2 tire levers, 1 tube, a few patches) into a seat bag.
I think the definition of a "sport hybrid" is fairly flexible (vague, inconsistent). "Hybrid" almost always means a bike with flat handlebars (like a mountain bike), but with larger thin wheels like a typical road bike. A "sport" hybrid is one that's a little more geared for speed than comfort (possibly even the same as a "flat bar road bike"), so maybe has you leaned a bit more forward and has some higher end components and probably no suspension stuff.
For a less than 5 mile commute on relatively flat ground, any bike you like will do, as long as it's capable of carrying whatever you want to carry and ride comfortably over the roads. For your longer ride you're more likely to want the drop handlebars, mostly to have more positions for your hands, but also to go faster. You can add extensions or replace the bars on a flat-bar bike to get more hand positions, though.
For the somewhat longer rides, if you want to be able to go relatively fast and you have to deal with bad roads, I'd look at:
* Sport hybrids
* Cyclocross bikes (made for racing on mixed trails/mud/pavement)
* Touring bikes (road bike designed for long trips in possibly terrible conditions. wide tires, tough frame)
* "Commuter" bikes (hybrids optimized for commutes).
* any number of more basic less specifically named "flat handlebar road bikes" or "hybrids"
For all of those, you're likely to want to replace the stock tires with something more puncture resistant (for the glass you don't see), and maybe have those be wider tires, too.
From your description of liking drop handlebars, I'm thinking a cyclocross bike might be the best option. Cyclocross frames tend to be very similar to road frames, but can handle wider tires. There's other less important differences that could be asked in another question. Probably won't come with handlebars as low as many modern road bikes, but that is likely to be fixable. The cheaper cyclocross bikes often have the stuff to make it easy to mount a rack and/or fenders, too. | I was going to say that a 'cross bike or tourer might be a good option. (though considerably more expensive than the typical hybrid)
Both can easily be equipped with rather gnarly tires which should take just about anything you can throw at them.
The problem with upright-position hybrid or "fitness" or "comfort" bikes is that they are not particularly efficient. 10-20 miles a day is not "serious" mileage, but still turning in that distance constantly with essentially all your weight on your....Fundamental bits can be a strain... Such bikes are intended for more casual use. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | It sounds like we have similar needs in bikes. I'm new to having a "real" bike (not just a $150 break-it-in-a-year bike), so my first stop was a number of local bike shops.
At the shops I tried to honestly answer what I planned on doing with the bike (~3 mile commute daily, weekend leisure/exercise rides, and running errands) and let the staff guide me towards a style, unanimously they steered me towards a hybrid--and all three shops advised me on the Trek Fx line (as well as other hybrids).
The main reason for the hybrid was:
* I was used to low-end mountain bikes, with "regular" handlebars, and an upright sitting position.
* I had no desire to do "real" mountain biking. 99% of my rides are on roads, bike-paths, or well packed dirt roads. Shocks, big tires, etc had very little benefit for my actual usage.
* The hybrid tires compromise on size, pressure, and durability between mountain and road. The middle-road between the wide/knobby mountain and skinny/slick road tires leaves you with some traction for loose gravel (on the road or on dirt trails), are more durable than road tires, and still much lighter/faster than mountain tires.
* I wanted to be able to run errands and lug home a load of stuff, maybe up to ~50lbs.
I settled on a Trek Fx 7.3 and aside from a couple small shortcomings am very happy. I've had it for about a month, and have put about 150 miles on it--I use it as often as possible for my commute and errands and am trying to go on at least a couple 20+ mile rides in the week. The seat and grips are about the only things I plan on swapping out. I've added a rack and bag, and plan on a set of fenders shortly.
Overall, despite friends insisting "hybrid means terrible at everything" I've found it to be a very good balance between mountain and road. I may experiment with skinnier tires and/or drop-bars, but in both cases it's out of curiousity rather than deficiency. I rarely wish for either more top-end gears or bottom-end. | I have an Opus Legato, which is a 27 speed drop handle bar road bike. The roads in my town are terrible also. My solution was to put rather fat nearly slick tires on it (700mmx38mm). I did this with a circa 1997 Devinci Caribou as well. It can bounce through potholes and I jump kerbs all the time. The tire depth prevents bottoming out on the rim. Works well for medium rough off road riding as well. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | I feel a strong need to come to the defence of decent hybrids!
I ride a Specialized Hybrid sport bike. I live in the South of the Netherlands and I chose a hybrid because I ride a combination of roads, asphalt bike paths, gravel paths and forest trails. The trails range from soft sand to mud and everything in the middle. The only thing we lack is hills...
I replaced the original tyres with Schwalbe Smart Sam tyres which have enough grip for the trails but run quickly on smooth paths.
It is a compromise and the narrower tyres are not ideal in dry soft sand. But it's a great bike and I comfortably ride 80 - 100 km on mixed paths with no real problems..
By definition a hybrid is a compromise, but not necessarily a bad one... | I have an Opus Legato, which is a 27 speed drop handle bar road bike. The roads in my town are terrible also. My solution was to put rather fat nearly slick tires on it (700mmx38mm). I did this with a circa 1997 Devinci Caribou as well. It can bounce through potholes and I jump kerbs all the time. The tire depth prevents bottoming out on the rim. Works well for medium rough off road riding as well. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | A sports hybrid is named for being a hybrid of a mountain and a road bike. One advantage of a hybrid is the upright cycling style where your face is pointed more straight ahead rather than looking up with drops. This can also be achieved with drop handlebars by raising them until they are at a level or slightly higher than the seat. This is easier to do with older bikes which no not have the threadless headsets. A 5-mile commute would be fine on this type of bike but I think that a 20-mile ride would begin to suck pretty quickly since you can really move your hands around. A second advantage is that the hybrid's relatively thicker tires will allow you more advantages than traditional 700c 'skinny' road tires. They can handle gravel and potholes and pretty much anything else that you might encounter on a city street.
Having said that, to me the biggest disadvantage of the hybrid is that it is a compromise from two 'focused' efforts to be something that by definition is unfocused but tries to be everything to everybody and achieves being nothing. Technically, I think the lack of hand placement is the biggest impediment.
If you still have your Trek, I might recommend raising the handlebars a bit and mounting the fattest Schwalbe tires you can on it. They are bombproof and comfy though they are heavy. Stick some fenders on it and you are good for 4-season riding.
I think both Surly and Civia make some very nice and reasonably affordable (this is always in the eye of the beholder) bikes that would suit this purpose. | A hybrid isn't necessarily the bike you should be looking for. Most of them have knobby tires, which are awful for riding on streets. They use flat handlebars, which (IMHO) are less useful than drops. You can *only* ride on flat handlebars in the one position, but you can ride drops in a similar position (on the hoods), plus you have more options for changing positions for comfort on longer rides.
A commuter-style road bike, however, should come equipped with wider road tires (which have better grip than knobby ones, especially in corners) that should have a greater resistance to punctures. For instance, I've ridden on 28C [Panaracer Ribmos](http://www.panaracer.com/urban.php#ribmo_pt) for over 3,800 miles without a puncture or flat. It should also have fenders to protect you when it rains, and possibly a rack on which to carry cargo.
Maybe I'm biased, but hybrid bikes have always seemed to me like the wrong tool for any job. They're not good off-road, they're not good on roads, and in my experience they're often manufactured extremely poorly. Something like a [Surly Cross Check](http://surlybikes.com/bikes/cross_check_complete/) is a good place to start looking, although you don't necessarily need to spend that much money. Especially if you can find a good deal on something from Craigslist or eBay. But a solid bike like that will last you hell of a lot longer of solid use than a crappy hybrid will. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | It sounds like we have similar needs in bikes. I'm new to having a "real" bike (not just a $150 break-it-in-a-year bike), so my first stop was a number of local bike shops.
At the shops I tried to honestly answer what I planned on doing with the bike (~3 mile commute daily, weekend leisure/exercise rides, and running errands) and let the staff guide me towards a style, unanimously they steered me towards a hybrid--and all three shops advised me on the Trek Fx line (as well as other hybrids).
The main reason for the hybrid was:
* I was used to low-end mountain bikes, with "regular" handlebars, and an upright sitting position.
* I had no desire to do "real" mountain biking. 99% of my rides are on roads, bike-paths, or well packed dirt roads. Shocks, big tires, etc had very little benefit for my actual usage.
* The hybrid tires compromise on size, pressure, and durability between mountain and road. The middle-road between the wide/knobby mountain and skinny/slick road tires leaves you with some traction for loose gravel (on the road or on dirt trails), are more durable than road tires, and still much lighter/faster than mountain tires.
* I wanted to be able to run errands and lug home a load of stuff, maybe up to ~50lbs.
I settled on a Trek Fx 7.3 and aside from a couple small shortcomings am very happy. I've had it for about a month, and have put about 150 miles on it--I use it as often as possible for my commute and errands and am trying to go on at least a couple 20+ mile rides in the week. The seat and grips are about the only things I plan on swapping out. I've added a rack and bag, and plan on a set of fenders shortly.
Overall, despite friends insisting "hybrid means terrible at everything" I've found it to be a very good balance between mountain and road. I may experiment with skinnier tires and/or drop-bars, but in both cases it's out of curiousity rather than deficiency. I rarely wish for either more top-end gears or bottom-end. | A hybrid isn't necessarily the bike you should be looking for. Most of them have knobby tires, which are awful for riding on streets. They use flat handlebars, which (IMHO) are less useful than drops. You can *only* ride on flat handlebars in the one position, but you can ride drops in a similar position (on the hoods), plus you have more options for changing positions for comfort on longer rides.
A commuter-style road bike, however, should come equipped with wider road tires (which have better grip than knobby ones, especially in corners) that should have a greater resistance to punctures. For instance, I've ridden on 28C [Panaracer Ribmos](http://www.panaracer.com/urban.php#ribmo_pt) for over 3,800 miles without a puncture or flat. It should also have fenders to protect you when it rains, and possibly a rack on which to carry cargo.
Maybe I'm biased, but hybrid bikes have always seemed to me like the wrong tool for any job. They're not good off-road, they're not good on roads, and in my experience they're often manufactured extremely poorly. Something like a [Surly Cross Check](http://surlybikes.com/bikes/cross_check_complete/) is a good place to start looking, although you don't necessarily need to spend that much money. Especially if you can find a good deal on something from Craigslist or eBay. But a solid bike like that will last you hell of a lot longer of solid use than a crappy hybrid will. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | I feel a strong need to come to the defence of decent hybrids!
I ride a Specialized Hybrid sport bike. I live in the South of the Netherlands and I chose a hybrid because I ride a combination of roads, asphalt bike paths, gravel paths and forest trails. The trails range from soft sand to mud and everything in the middle. The only thing we lack is hills...
I replaced the original tyres with Schwalbe Smart Sam tyres which have enough grip for the trails but run quickly on smooth paths.
It is a compromise and the narrower tyres are not ideal in dry soft sand. But it's a great bike and I comfortably ride 80 - 100 km on mixed paths with no real problems..
By definition a hybrid is a compromise, but not necessarily a bad one... | A hybrid isn't necessarily the bike you should be looking for. Most of them have knobby tires, which are awful for riding on streets. They use flat handlebars, which (IMHO) are less useful than drops. You can *only* ride on flat handlebars in the one position, but you can ride drops in a similar position (on the hoods), plus you have more options for changing positions for comfort on longer rides.
A commuter-style road bike, however, should come equipped with wider road tires (which have better grip than knobby ones, especially in corners) that should have a greater resistance to punctures. For instance, I've ridden on 28C [Panaracer Ribmos](http://www.panaracer.com/urban.php#ribmo_pt) for over 3,800 miles without a puncture or flat. It should also have fenders to protect you when it rains, and possibly a rack on which to carry cargo.
Maybe I'm biased, but hybrid bikes have always seemed to me like the wrong tool for any job. They're not good off-road, they're not good on roads, and in my experience they're often manufactured extremely poorly. Something like a [Surly Cross Check](http://surlybikes.com/bikes/cross_check_complete/) is a good place to start looking, although you don't necessarily need to spend that much money. Especially if you can find a good deal on something from Craigslist or eBay. But a solid bike like that will last you hell of a lot longer of solid use than a crappy hybrid will. |
3,170 | **Main Question:** What should one look for on a sport hybrid if the primary use will be commuting and riding around 10 - 20 miles a day for exercise?
**Motivation:** I was a resident of Chicago (which was absolutely beautiful for biking along the shore and such) and I had a 1977 Trek road bike that I loved. Now I live around the New Orleans area and the roads are absolutely terrible to bike on; I have replaced tires, tubes, and rim tape a number of times, but it never quite works; it's getting to the point where I'm worried about going farther distances because I'd be stuck there if my tube popped (and this has, in fact, happened a few times...). I went to my LBS and they told me that I should think about getting a sport hybrid --- and if this term is not standard, it seems like a hybrid which doesn't have shocks.
I am reluctant to buy one because I don't know all that much about bikes yet and I'm not sure what to look for in this type of bike; moreover, I am used to drop handlebars which are not standard in sport hybrids. Does anyone have any experience with these kinds of bikes or from going from a road bike to a sport hybrid? Are these kinds of bikes good for commuting to work ( < 5 miles) and for longer exercise rides (10 - 20 miles), or would a different bicycle be more fitted for these purposes? | 2011/03/10 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/3170",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/911/"
] | If you're dealing with rough roads, a bike with slightly wider tires will be more comfortable, less likely to throw you with small obstacles/ruts, and probably have a wider selection of puncture-resistant tires.
Most road bikes are designed for very narrow tires and can't accomodate anything much wider. Narrow tires on rough roads are more likely to get caught on small ruts (etc).
You could always put the widest puncture resistant tires possible on your old road bike (maybe also a tire liner, puncture resistant tubes, etc) and pack a decent repair kit (2 tire levers, 1 tube, a few patches) into a seat bag.
I think the definition of a "sport hybrid" is fairly flexible (vague, inconsistent). "Hybrid" almost always means a bike with flat handlebars (like a mountain bike), but with larger thin wheels like a typical road bike. A "sport" hybrid is one that's a little more geared for speed than comfort (possibly even the same as a "flat bar road bike"), so maybe has you leaned a bit more forward and has some higher end components and probably no suspension stuff.
For a less than 5 mile commute on relatively flat ground, any bike you like will do, as long as it's capable of carrying whatever you want to carry and ride comfortably over the roads. For your longer ride you're more likely to want the drop handlebars, mostly to have more positions for your hands, but also to go faster. You can add extensions or replace the bars on a flat-bar bike to get more hand positions, though.
For the somewhat longer rides, if you want to be able to go relatively fast and you have to deal with bad roads, I'd look at:
* Sport hybrids
* Cyclocross bikes (made for racing on mixed trails/mud/pavement)
* Touring bikes (road bike designed for long trips in possibly terrible conditions. wide tires, tough frame)
* "Commuter" bikes (hybrids optimized for commutes).
* any number of more basic less specifically named "flat handlebar road bikes" or "hybrids"
For all of those, you're likely to want to replace the stock tires with something more puncture resistant (for the glass you don't see), and maybe have those be wider tires, too.
From your description of liking drop handlebars, I'm thinking a cyclocross bike might be the best option. Cyclocross frames tend to be very similar to road frames, but can handle wider tires. There's other less important differences that could be asked in another question. Probably won't come with handlebars as low as many modern road bikes, but that is likely to be fixable. The cheaper cyclocross bikes often have the stuff to make it easy to mount a rack and/or fenders, too. | I have an Opus Legato, which is a 27 speed drop handle bar road bike. The roads in my town are terrible also. My solution was to put rather fat nearly slick tires on it (700mmx38mm). I did this with a circa 1997 Devinci Caribou as well. It can bounce through potholes and I jump kerbs all the time. The tire depth prevents bottoming out on the rim. Works well for medium rough off road riding as well. |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Currently it's not possible within Outlook, but if you are using Exchange Server you can schedule them all in advance. | I don't think this is possible. I am not sure you can schedule OOO at all in Outlook 2007. It is a puzzling omission. |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Here's how you do recurring Out-of-Office
1. Create a new Calendar Invite/appointment
2. Put some subject - optional
3. Make it recurring as desired
4. In the "Show as" change the default "Busy" to "Out-of-office"
5. Save the Calendar event
Done!
I've put 4-5 everyday, when I commute as Out-Of-Office
Hope this helps! | I hope I don't break any stackoverflow / superuser rules and it's also not the intention to shamelessly advertise my application.
But I have developed an online application where I try to solve this exact problem.
The tool can help you with the following situations:
* recurring out of office's for specific days / hours
* plan upfront on or more one-off out of office's
* manage multiple out of office messages
More info, [https://www.notin.today](https://www.notin.today/?utm_source=superuser.com&utm_medium=referral&utm_campaign=early_access)
bob
note: I am now looking for people who want to use this tool and give feedback. Hands-on feedback so that I can further improve the tool. Thanks! |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Why not just mark all day on Mondays as "out of the office" in your calendar? That status will show up in Outlook and Communicator. People shouldn't expect an "instant" response to email anyway.
Otherwise, it looks like you could get something close to work with either VBA or a custom add-in.
**EDIT:** Looks like you can get really close by using the Exchange Web Service, see [SetUserOofSettings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa580294.aspx). | I hope I don't break any stackoverflow / superuser rules and it's also not the intention to shamelessly advertise my application.
But I have developed an online application where I try to solve this exact problem.
The tool can help you with the following situations:
* recurring out of office's for specific days / hours
* plan upfront on or more one-off out of office's
* manage multiple out of office messages
More info, [https://www.notin.today](https://www.notin.today/?utm_source=superuser.com&utm_medium=referral&utm_campaign=early_access)
bob
note: I am now looking for people who want to use this tool and give feedback. Hands-on feedback so that I can further improve the tool. Thanks! |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Why not just mark all day on Mondays as "out of the office" in your calendar? That status will show up in Outlook and Communicator. People shouldn't expect an "instant" response to email anyway.
Otherwise, it looks like you could get something close to work with either VBA or a custom add-in.
**EDIT:** Looks like you can get really close by using the Exchange Web Service, see [SetUserOofSettings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa580294.aspx). | I don't think this is possible. I am not sure you can schedule OOO at all in Outlook 2007. It is a puzzling omission. |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | I have been trying to figure this out myself all day, searching forums, and messing around with my outlook.
Finally, I figure out a work around using the rules in Outlook. Below are step by step instructions for the rule I created for an out of office reply to be sent on Tuesdays. I did test this and it did work.
This will only work as a weekly re-occurrence. I am not the most tech savvy, so someone else may be able to create a better work around for nonspecific days of the week re-occurrences.
1. Go to Rules – Then select Manage Rules and Alerts
2. Select “New Rule”
3. Select the Option “Apply rule on messages I receive” Under the category “Start from a blank rule” click next.
4. Put a check in the box – with specific words in the message header.
5. Click on the blue underlined words “specific words” a new box will pop up. In this box, type the abbreviation for the day of the week you want this to apply to. I have it set for an out of office reply on Tuesdays, the abbreviation for the days of the week are the first 3 letters, Tuesday = Tue click add, then click ok.
6. It will take you back to the previous screen, just click next.
7. Now select “have server reply using a specific message”
8. Click on the words “a specific message” in the step 2 box.
This will open an untitled message. Leave the to, cc, and bcc blank. Fill in the subject line and the body of the email. Below is an example. Then click save and close.
My current schedule has me out of the office on Tuesdays. I will return all calls and emails on Wednesday when I return.
Thank you,
Crystal Clifford
9. This will take you back to the prior window. Make sure the information is how you want it, then click next.
10. I ran into a little snag, got caught in a loop with IT because we both had an auto reply set up. You can probably do the “except if it is an automatic reply” box only, but I hate bugging my IT department and I don’t want to risk another loop, so I put in a few extras.
11. Now you are at the final screen. Check your information again. You can name the rule. Make sure there is a check in the box “Turn on This Rule. Then click Finish. | Create a normal rule that looks at the header of a received email to see if it contains "Mon", and have the server reply with your OOO message.
[example OOO rule](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SdNXn.png)
if you want to include the weekend just add "Sat" and "Sun" |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Create a normal rule that looks at the header of a received email to see if it contains "Mon", and have the server reply with your OOO message.
[example OOO rule](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SdNXn.png)
if you want to include the weekend just add "Sat" and "Sun" | I don't think this is possible. I am not sure you can schedule OOO at all in Outlook 2007. It is a puzzling omission. |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | I hope I don't break any stackoverflow / superuser rules and it's also not the intention to shamelessly advertise my application.
But I have developed an online application where I try to solve this exact problem.
The tool can help you with the following situations:
* recurring out of office's for specific days / hours
* plan upfront on or more one-off out of office's
* manage multiple out of office messages
More info, [https://www.notin.today](https://www.notin.today/?utm_source=superuser.com&utm_medium=referral&utm_campaign=early_access)
bob
note: I am now looking for people who want to use this tool and give feedback. Hands-on feedback so that I can further improve the tool. Thanks! | Currently it's not possible within Outlook, but if you are using Exchange Server you can schedule them all in advance. |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Why not just mark all day on Mondays as "out of the office" in your calendar? That status will show up in Outlook and Communicator. People shouldn't expect an "instant" response to email anyway.
Otherwise, it looks like you could get something close to work with either VBA or a custom add-in.
**EDIT:** Looks like you can get really close by using the Exchange Web Service, see [SetUserOofSettings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa580294.aspx). | Create a normal rule that looks at the header of a received email to see if it contains "Mon", and have the server reply with your OOO message.
[example OOO rule](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SdNXn.png)
if you want to include the weekend just add "Sat" and "Sun" |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | I hope I don't break any stackoverflow / superuser rules and it's also not the intention to shamelessly advertise my application.
But I have developed an online application where I try to solve this exact problem.
The tool can help you with the following situations:
* recurring out of office's for specific days / hours
* plan upfront on or more one-off out of office's
* manage multiple out of office messages
More info, [https://www.notin.today](https://www.notin.today/?utm_source=superuser.com&utm_medium=referral&utm_campaign=early_access)
bob
note: I am now looking for people who want to use this tool and give feedback. Hands-on feedback so that I can further improve the tool. Thanks! | Create a normal rule that looks at the header of a received email to see if it contains "Mon", and have the server reply with your OOO message.
[example OOO rule](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SdNXn.png)
if you want to include the weekend just add "Sat" and "Sun" |
58,405 | In Outlook, is there a way (or an add-on that can do it) to schedule a recurring out-of-office message? I work 4 10's, so I'm out of the office every Monday, and it's a bit of a pain to have to reset my out-of-office message every single week. | 2009/10/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/58405",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1305/"
] | Why not just mark all day on Mondays as "out of the office" in your calendar? That status will show up in Outlook and Communicator. People shouldn't expect an "instant" response to email anyway.
Otherwise, it looks like you could get something close to work with either VBA or a custom add-in.
**EDIT:** Looks like you can get really close by using the Exchange Web Service, see [SetUserOofSettings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa580294.aspx). | Currently it's not possible within Outlook, but if you are using Exchange Server you can schedule them all in advance. |
299,817 | I have been watching some videos on YouTube in order to improve my listening skills. But, at some point, I found myself struggling with the sentence below:
>
> We have the refrigerator or the fridge, where you can keep food cold.
>
>
>
Why is the adjective placed after the noun "food"? I know the rules about postpositive and prepositive adjectives, but I still don't get it right. "Cold food" sounds pretty much better to my ears, which is the attributive form.
Does the sentence below function the same way as the first one?
>
> I need to keep my car warm
>
>
> | 2021/10/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/299817",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/144668/"
] | The verb "keep" can have a predicative adjective following its object. Only a few verbs have this pattern: "make" and "keep" are the usual examples:
>
> The card made him happy
>
>
>
>
> The job kept him busy.
>
>
>
>
> I need to keep my car warm.
>
>
>
There is the verb [to keep] an object [my car] and a predictive adjective [warm]. The adjective links to the verb (keep) not the noun.
The meaning is causative.
>
> I need to cause my car to keep warm.
>
>
>
Predicative adjectives are more common for intransitive verbs
>
> He seems happy.
>
>
>
>
> He looks busy.
>
>
> | Both the sentence with "keep food cold" and with "keep cold food" are natural English and good grammar, but they have different meanings.
James K's answer covers the structure of the original sentence.
I'll explain the other version:
>
> We have the refrigerator or the fridge, where you can keep ***cold food***.
>
>
>
Here, "cold food" means "food that is cold", which we understand from the context to mean, "food that is normally stored in temperatures just above freezing". This would contrast with:
>
> We have the cupboard, where you can keep non-refrigerated food.
>
>
> |
1,459,805 | I need to remotely spawn WCF services on a remote machine from a client. I cannot use IIS (no HTTP) or WAS (no Windows Server 2008).
Was wondering if there's a way to do it apart from these hosting environments without having to create a service on the remote machine responsible for the spawning of other WCF services.
If a Windows Service host is the only way, can someone point me to a good article or book for an efficient architecture for doing this (including lifecycle management of spawned WCF services).
Thanks
Riko | 2009/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1459805",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/177117/"
] | If you cannot use IIS/WAS, then you're only option left is self-hosting.
You can host your WCF service in either a Windows (NT) Service, or a console app, or any other app you like to have.
The point though is: other than IIS/WAS which will load your service class as needed, when a request comes in and needs to be processed, in a self-hosting environment, you have to have your host app up and running - that's why a NT Service seems like the best choice at least for production environments, a service that can be run even if no one is logged on to the machine. Console or other apps require a user being logged on, and the app must be running.
Hope this helps a bit.
Marc | There is one additional option you can use on Server 2003 - hosting WCF services in COM+:
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb735856.aspx>
This is not as easy as hosting non-HTTP services in WAS on Server 2008, but provides a better supported monitoring and deployment model than hosting as an NT Service. Generally in my experience, though, most people I know have used NT services since is fairly straightforward to generate one in .NET, and then they perf counters or something similar to monitor them in production. |
779,642 | We had a file in our repository that we deleted several revisions ago. How do we get it back using TortoiseSVN without reverting our entire repository? | 2009/04/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/779642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72631/"
] | In the repo browser, there is a menu that says some to the effect of goto version. From here you can browse the field that was available in that revision and drag and drop the file out. i would check the actual program bur I'm currently on my phone.
Hope this helps | Once you know the revision number where the file was deleted (using the repository browser is probably the easiest way to find this). Do a check out to a new location before that revision. |
779,642 | We had a file in our repository that we deleted several revisions ago. How do we get it back using TortoiseSVN without reverting our entire repository? | 2009/04/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/779642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72631/"
] | The other answers appear to focus on restoring an entire *revision* (using a different location), so here's how to only restore a single file, without having to check out an entire revision, using TortoiseSVN:
1. Open the revision log for the revision that deleted the file.
2. Find the file in the changelist.
3. Right-click the file and select "Revert changes from this revision...". Answer yes.
The file is restored and re-added to the repository. I am not 100% certain if Subversion will treat it as a different file, or as a new revision of the file. | In the repo browser, there is a menu that says some to the effect of goto version. From here you can browse the field that was available in that revision and drag and drop the file out. i would check the actual program bur I'm currently on my phone.
Hope this helps |
779,642 | We had a file in our repository that we deleted several revisions ago. How do we get it back using TortoiseSVN without reverting our entire repository? | 2009/04/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/779642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72631/"
] | Go to the Show Log screen, and search for the revision when the file was deleted, then right click the file and select **Save revision to...**
 | In the repo browser, there is a menu that says some to the effect of goto version. From here you can browse the field that was available in that revision and drag and drop the file out. i would check the actual program bur I'm currently on my phone.
Hope this helps |
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