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280,792 | So there is the sentence:
"The current environment is not conducive *to achieving* the best results"
The usage of "to verb+ing" is very confusing.
What is the difference between "to achieving" and "to achieve"?
Thank you!
----------
Thank you Ricky! I mistakenly typed the wrong word "conductive". You are totally right.
Thank you sooeithdk! You answered my question here. Now I have a clear sense of the gerund phase :) | 2015/10/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/280792",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/143214/"
] | Conducive, not conductive. It is usually followed by a gerund ("ing").
"The current environment is hardly conducive to achieving the best possible results."
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/conducive?s=t>
Conducive: tending to produce; contributive; helpful; favorable (usually followed by to).
Conductive: having a property or capability of conducting, like a cable. | >
> The current environment is not conductive to achieving the best
> results.
>
>
>
Here, this "achieving" is used as a gerund, an ing-ending noun. This gerund is not a verb, even though it has some verbal characteristics. The rest of the gerund "the best results" finishes this gerund phrase. For more information, click <http://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/gerund_phrase.htm>.
This use of gerund phrase is similar to using noun in this place instead.
>
> The current environment is not conductive to the *survival of wild
> animals*.
>
>
>
In this sentence, as you can see, "to" is used as a preposition, not a to-infinitive.
>
> The current environment is not conductive to achieve the best
> results.
>
>
>
In this sentence, this "to" is used as a to-infinitive, and also as an adverb phrase. Now, this achieve is a verb. This sentence means that environment is not conductive in order to achieve the best results. To is used to describe the purpose. Therefore, meaning perfectly changes. Some information about to-infinitive and adverb phrase: <https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/en/english-grammar/verbs/verbs-followed-infinitive>, <http://web2.uvcs.uvic.ca/elc/studyzone/410/grammar/advphr.htm>.
I am not sure if "conductive" is the right word here..."helpful" would fit better. |
316,123 | The FILESTREAM feature of SQL Server 2008, allows storage of and efficient access to BLOB data using a combination of SQL Server 2008 and the NTFS file system.
When insert a row on a table which contains varbinary column with filestream attribute, the file (data) is stored directly on the file system and assigned the new name (e.g. 00000016-00000079-0006).
Is any API of TSQL can check that which file on the file system is associated with the particular row? | 2008/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/316123",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/40474/"
] | The file name is that 00000016-00000079-0006 that you found - look for it in the directory where you configured the FileStream storage. Just do a select \* from your filestream-enabled table, and you'll get the file name for each row. | SQL Server and Filestream do not expose the physical path, as it may change at any time based on partition splits and similar operations. You can get the logical path with the PathName() method and open it through the various Filestream capable functions. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | PCI (and PCI-Express) were designed to fit into cases that also contained ISA cards, but still use the same brackets. This lead to them being create with the opposite handedness.
I.e. the answer is historical reasons. | It is my understanding that usually it's because the CPU is above the slots, so they are trying to keep the heat-producing components as separated as possible. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | It is my understanding that usually it's because the CPU is above the slots, so they are trying to keep the heat-producing components as separated as possible. | To add what everyone else is saying -- hot air rises; you want the coldest air in the case flowing into your video card. And that air is the air at the bottom of the case, away from the CPU. This is why the fan faces downward. HTH! |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | It is my understanding that usually it's because the CPU is above the slots, so they are trying to keep the heat-producing components as separated as possible. | 1. you can buy inverted cases that flip the cards.
2. It is true that the coolest air comes into the bottom of the case, and a downward-facing fan could take advantage of that air, however i'm not sure this is a REASON for this design so much as a circumstantial benefit.
3. Having GPU below CPU keeps the GPU from getting more heat from the CPU, inverted boards/cases (mentioned above) are dumb unless you're more concerned about CPU temps than GPU temps, which you shouldn't be.
4. The alignment of the bays in the CPU is such that the space granted for a slot lies beneath it on the rear panel, so it is necessary to put the components (including the cooling fan) beneath, simply because of the historical design of PCI/VGA slots. Why THEY had THEIR components (transistors, etc.) facing downard is a mystery, as this design does trap warm air generated by the components, however heat was a non-issue with most early computers using these slots. Enthusiasts didn't come along until well after the slot design had been established.
So if you REEEEALLY want your fans facing up, buy an inverted case with board on the left...but this will put your GPU above your CPU with any normal mobo layout so air management is important to ensure your GPU fans get cool air. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | It is my understanding that usually it's because the CPU is above the slots, so they are trying to keep the heat-producing components as separated as possible. | I think a very key point has been missed by the OP.
GPU fans typically pull air INTO the GPU, not blow it away! The fans are designed to be pulling the coldest air INTO the GPU to actively cool it. The coldest air is at the bottom of your case. See image:
[GPU fan orientation](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5jcwr.jpg)
So the air IS going in the direction you're describing, its routing the air up AFTER it has hit the GPU, which is when the air gets warmed. So even though it may look to you like the fans are blowing "down" they are not. They are sucking in the cold air from the bottom of your case and releasing air at their sides, which then floats or is blown by your other case fans, out the top/sides of the case. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | PCI (and PCI-Express) were designed to fit into cases that also contained ISA cards, but still use the same brackets. This lead to them being create with the opposite handedness.
I.e. the answer is historical reasons. | To add what everyone else is saying -- hot air rises; you want the coldest air in the case flowing into your video card. And that air is the air at the bottom of the case, away from the CPU. This is why the fan faces downward. HTH! |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | PCI (and PCI-Express) were designed to fit into cases that also contained ISA cards, but still use the same brackets. This lead to them being create with the opposite handedness.
I.e. the answer is historical reasons. | 1. you can buy inverted cases that flip the cards.
2. It is true that the coolest air comes into the bottom of the case, and a downward-facing fan could take advantage of that air, however i'm not sure this is a REASON for this design so much as a circumstantial benefit.
3. Having GPU below CPU keeps the GPU from getting more heat from the CPU, inverted boards/cases (mentioned above) are dumb unless you're more concerned about CPU temps than GPU temps, which you shouldn't be.
4. The alignment of the bays in the CPU is such that the space granted for a slot lies beneath it on the rear panel, so it is necessary to put the components (including the cooling fan) beneath, simply because of the historical design of PCI/VGA slots. Why THEY had THEIR components (transistors, etc.) facing downard is a mystery, as this design does trap warm air generated by the components, however heat was a non-issue with most early computers using these slots. Enthusiasts didn't come along until well after the slot design had been established.
So if you REEEEALLY want your fans facing up, buy an inverted case with board on the left...but this will put your GPU above your CPU with any normal mobo layout so air management is important to ensure your GPU fans get cool air. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | PCI (and PCI-Express) were designed to fit into cases that also contained ISA cards, but still use the same brackets. This lead to them being create with the opposite handedness.
I.e. the answer is historical reasons. | I think a very key point has been missed by the OP.
GPU fans typically pull air INTO the GPU, not blow it away! The fans are designed to be pulling the coldest air INTO the GPU to actively cool it. The coldest air is at the bottom of your case. See image:
[GPU fan orientation](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5jcwr.jpg)
So the air IS going in the direction you're describing, its routing the air up AFTER it has hit the GPU, which is when the air gets warmed. So even though it may look to you like the fans are blowing "down" they are not. They are sucking in the cold air from the bottom of your case and releasing air at their sides, which then floats or is blown by your other case fans, out the top/sides of the case. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | To add what everyone else is saying -- hot air rises; you want the coldest air in the case flowing into your video card. And that air is the air at the bottom of the case, away from the CPU. This is why the fan faces downward. HTH! | 1. you can buy inverted cases that flip the cards.
2. It is true that the coolest air comes into the bottom of the case, and a downward-facing fan could take advantage of that air, however i'm not sure this is a REASON for this design so much as a circumstantial benefit.
3. Having GPU below CPU keeps the GPU from getting more heat from the CPU, inverted boards/cases (mentioned above) are dumb unless you're more concerned about CPU temps than GPU temps, which you shouldn't be.
4. The alignment of the bays in the CPU is such that the space granted for a slot lies beneath it on the rear panel, so it is necessary to put the components (including the cooling fan) beneath, simply because of the historical design of PCI/VGA slots. Why THEY had THEIR components (transistors, etc.) facing downard is a mystery, as this design does trap warm air generated by the components, however heat was a non-issue with most early computers using these slots. Enthusiasts didn't come along until well after the slot design had been established.
So if you REEEEALLY want your fans facing up, buy an inverted case with board on the left...but this will put your GPU above your CPU with any normal mobo layout so air management is important to ensure your GPU fans get cool air. |
111,400 | This is something that has always bugged me - when I install a card into a desktop (ie mini tower) case, the fan is always facing down. Surely, making the card so the components and fan is on the top would help a lot with cooling, allowing those whiney fans to spin a little slower.
I know some card manufacturers tried to mitigate this by adding heat pipes and big heatsinks on the back of the card.. but they still put the bits on the same way as everyone else!
So, does anyone know why they're all upside-down? | 2010/02/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/111400",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/7131/"
] | I think a very key point has been missed by the OP.
GPU fans typically pull air INTO the GPU, not blow it away! The fans are designed to be pulling the coldest air INTO the GPU to actively cool it. The coldest air is at the bottom of your case. See image:
[GPU fan orientation](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5jcwr.jpg)
So the air IS going in the direction you're describing, its routing the air up AFTER it has hit the GPU, which is when the air gets warmed. So even though it may look to you like the fans are blowing "down" they are not. They are sucking in the cold air from the bottom of your case and releasing air at their sides, which then floats or is blown by your other case fans, out the top/sides of the case. | 1. you can buy inverted cases that flip the cards.
2. It is true that the coolest air comes into the bottom of the case, and a downward-facing fan could take advantage of that air, however i'm not sure this is a REASON for this design so much as a circumstantial benefit.
3. Having GPU below CPU keeps the GPU from getting more heat from the CPU, inverted boards/cases (mentioned above) are dumb unless you're more concerned about CPU temps than GPU temps, which you shouldn't be.
4. The alignment of the bays in the CPU is such that the space granted for a slot lies beneath it on the rear panel, so it is necessary to put the components (including the cooling fan) beneath, simply because of the historical design of PCI/VGA slots. Why THEY had THEIR components (transistors, etc.) facing downard is a mystery, as this design does trap warm air generated by the components, however heat was a non-issue with most early computers using these slots. Enthusiasts didn't come along until well after the slot design had been established.
So if you REEEEALLY want your fans facing up, buy an inverted case with board on the left...but this will put your GPU above your CPU with any normal mobo layout so air management is important to ensure your GPU fans get cool air. |
67,319 | Why would owners of a particular share want to sell if they see that there is an increasing demand and that the price is going to increase?
Wouldn't holding onto it and selling at a later time when demand is slowing maximize their profits? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/67319",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/33162/"
] | You are assuming the price increase will continue. The people selling are assuming that the price increase will *not* continue.
Ultimately that's what a share transaction is: one person would rather have the cash at a particular price / time, and one person would rather have the share. | If the price has gone up from what it was when the person bought, he may sell to collect his profit and spend the money.
If someone intends to keep his money in the market, the trick is that you don't know when the price of a given stock will peak. If you could tell the future, sure, you'd buy when the stock was at its lowest point, just before it started up, and then sell at the highest point, just before it started down. But no one knows for sure what those points are. If a stockholder really KNOWS that demand is increasing and the price WILL go up, sure, it would be foolish to sell. But you can never KNOW that. (Or if you have some way that you do know that, please call me and share your knowledge.) |
13,757 | I am a US green card holder and working in Detroit, US. My partner is a foreign student in Windsor, Canada.
I am a citizen of Iran. Is it legal for me to reside in Canada and commute to US daily? | 2018/05/02 | [
"https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/13757",
"https://expatriates.stackexchange.com",
"https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/users/15085/"
] | Technically this is possible. However in your case you are going to run into some difficulties.
The first difficulty is that you require a visa to live in Canada. A visitor visa is technically what you want, since it covers 'temporary residence'. (Technically your partner will be in Canada on a visitor visa, coupled with a 'study permit'.) Getting a visitor visa for one or two years is possible if you explain that you want to be with your partner.
The second difficulty is that if you live outside the US you are putting your US Permanent Residence status at risk. It depends on the length of time you will be living in Canada. Anything up to six months is probably OK, but more than that is a problem. There is a "Permanent Resident - In Commuter" status, which is for residents of Canada (or Mexico). You would need to convert your Green Card to that status, and be aware that it does not carry all the privileges of a full Green Card - particularly that time spent in Commuter status does not count towards citizenship requirements. You would probably need to get your Canadian visa before converting your US Green Card.
Assuming that both those difficulties are overcome there is nothing preventing you making daily border crossings. A fair number of Canadian and US citizens do this. A NEXUS card would absolutely help the process.
I would strongly recommend consulting lawyers with Canadian and US immigration experience before embarking on this. Alternatively you and your partner having separate residences, one in each country, and visiting each other on a frequent basis would be a simpler solution. | It's possible.
You may want to apply for NEXUS if you are eligible. This will let you use the NEXUS lanes which tend to move much more quickly and are usually less busy. It will also reduce the amount of screening to which you are subject, because you will be pre-screened during the application process.
Carefully research the border wait times at the times you intend to cross, to get a sense of the delays involved at the border crossings. These are the busiest crossings at the Canada/US border and delays can be significant at times. |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | The scripture says that Jesus "gave up his spirit" in Mt 27:50 and Jn 19:30 (it is implied in Luke). The description in John is particularly enlightening because it says that Jesus got a drink and gave up his spirit because he knew "that everything had now been finished, and so that scripture would be fulfilled". Jesus chose to give up his life at that moment, and he chose precisely the right moment in order to fulfill prophecy. It was not a matter of fitness or being in shape, but rather fulfilling God's will. This is further reinforced by the fact that before letting go of his life he said, "It is finished".
From a physiological perspective, it's also reasonable that Jesus would die faster because of what he suffered prior to crucifixion. He was beaten (Mt 26:67-68), flogged (Mt 27:26), given a crown of thorns (Mt 27:28-29), and struck over the head repeatedly (Mt 27:30). | This answer is from an LDS perspective.
James E. Talmage wrote [Jesus the Christ](https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ?lang=eng) which contains an in-depth look into Jesus' life and contains answers to your questions. In answer to the first question, the answer is because He had to and did allow His spirit to leave.
>
> A natural effect of [Jesus’s] immortal origin, as the earth-born Son of an immortal Sire, was that **He was immune to death except as He surrendered thereto. The life of Jesus the Christ could not be taken save as He willed and allowed. The power to lay down His life was inherent in Himself, as was the power to take up His slain body in an immortalized state**.1
>
>
>
Further on he says:
>
> Fully realizing that He was no longer forsaken, but that **His atoning sacrifice had been accepted by the Father, and that His mission in the flesh had been carried to glorious consummation**, He exclaimed in a loud voice of holy triumph: “It is finished.” In reverence, resignation, and relief, He addressed the Father saying: “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit.” **He bowed His head, and voluntarily gave up His life.**
>
>
> Jesus the Christ was dead. **His life had not been taken from Him except as He had willed to permit.** Sweet and welcome as would have been the relief of death in any of the earlier stages of His suffering from Gethsemane to the cross, He lived until all things were accomplished as had been appointed.2
>
>
>
He goes on to say:
>
> Christ, the great Passover sacrifice, of whom all altar victims had been but suggestive prototypes, died through violence yet without a bone of His body being broken, as was a prescribed condition of the slain paschal lambs.2
>
>
>
Which refers to [John 19:31-37](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/nt/john/19.31-37?lang=eng#30) (and the OP referenced)
>
> 31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
>
>
> 32 Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him.
>
>
> 33 But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:
>
>
> 34 But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
> 35 And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe.
>
>
> 36 **For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken.**
>
>
> 37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.
>
>
>
While Jesus didn't die because He was in worse shape, He was still in worse shape as He was finishing the majority of the [Atonement](https://www.lds.org/topics/atonement-of-jesus-christ?lang=eng) and had just:
>
> 11 For, behold, the Lord your Redeemer suffered death in the flesh; wherefore he **suffered the pain of all men**, that all men might repent and come unto him.3
>
>
>
1 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-25.p48?lang=eng&_r=1>
2 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-35?lang=eng>
3 <https://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/18.11?lang=eng> |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | This answer is from an LDS perspective.
James E. Talmage wrote [Jesus the Christ](https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ?lang=eng) which contains an in-depth look into Jesus' life and contains answers to your questions. In answer to the first question, the answer is because He had to and did allow His spirit to leave.
>
> A natural effect of [Jesus’s] immortal origin, as the earth-born Son of an immortal Sire, was that **He was immune to death except as He surrendered thereto. The life of Jesus the Christ could not be taken save as He willed and allowed. The power to lay down His life was inherent in Himself, as was the power to take up His slain body in an immortalized state**.1
>
>
>
Further on he says:
>
> Fully realizing that He was no longer forsaken, but that **His atoning sacrifice had been accepted by the Father, and that His mission in the flesh had been carried to glorious consummation**, He exclaimed in a loud voice of holy triumph: “It is finished.” In reverence, resignation, and relief, He addressed the Father saying: “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit.” **He bowed His head, and voluntarily gave up His life.**
>
>
> Jesus the Christ was dead. **His life had not been taken from Him except as He had willed to permit.** Sweet and welcome as would have been the relief of death in any of the earlier stages of His suffering from Gethsemane to the cross, He lived until all things were accomplished as had been appointed.2
>
>
>
He goes on to say:
>
> Christ, the great Passover sacrifice, of whom all altar victims had been but suggestive prototypes, died through violence yet without a bone of His body being broken, as was a prescribed condition of the slain paschal lambs.2
>
>
>
Which refers to [John 19:31-37](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/nt/john/19.31-37?lang=eng#30) (and the OP referenced)
>
> 31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
>
>
> 32 Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him.
>
>
> 33 But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:
>
>
> 34 But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
> 35 And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe.
>
>
> 36 **For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken.**
>
>
> 37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.
>
>
>
While Jesus didn't die because He was in worse shape, He was still in worse shape as He was finishing the majority of the [Atonement](https://www.lds.org/topics/atonement-of-jesus-christ?lang=eng) and had just:
>
> 11 For, behold, the Lord your Redeemer suffered death in the flesh; wherefore he **suffered the pain of all men**, that all men might repent and come unto him.3
>
>
>
1 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-25.p48?lang=eng&_r=1>
2 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-35?lang=eng>
3 <https://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/18.11?lang=eng> | It was necessary that Jesus legs **NOT** be broken so that Old Testament scripture about Him as the Passover Lamb would be fulfilled. As [John 19:36](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+19%3A36&version=KJV) says "For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken." apparently referencing [Exodus 12:46](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+12%3A46&version=KJV) and [Numbers 9:12](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Numbers+9%3A12&version=KJV).
See also the answers to [Did the Romans not breaking Jesus' legs fulfill a prophecy?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3853/did-the-romans-not-breaking-jesus-legs-fulfill-a-prophecy) |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | Physiological Perspective
=========================
Some scholars like [W Reid Litchfield](https://byustudies.byu.edu/file/3549/download?token=2d4CgejN) believe that Jesus may have actually died from a [myocardial rupture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myocardial_rupture) which was caused by [takotsubo cardiomyopathy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Takotsubo_cardiomyopathy), more poetically known as *broken heart syndrome*. In this case, the emotional distress would have triggered heart failure and lead to a laceration of His atria or ventricles.
Often following internal bleeding, the blood that fills the chest cavity will separate leaving a distinctly clear portion that looks like water but is actually serum. This is consistent with the scripture in John 19:34:
>
> But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
>
Jesus was crucified by the Romans at the request of the Sanhedrin, a Jewish judicial body. Since it took place on a Friday, in order to keep Sabbath holy, those being crucified must be taken down before sunset. Typically, a crucified individual will die from asphyxiation following exhaustion, which can take days. In order to hurry it along, their legs will sometimes be broken. **Jesus however, likely died of a heart attack, meaning he died before his fellow condemned and didn't need his legs to be broken.**
It seems like this theory was popularized by Dr. William Stroud in 1847 from his publication entitled *Treatise on the Physical Death of Jesus Christ and its Relation to the principles and Practice of Christianity* | This answer is from an LDS perspective.
James E. Talmage wrote [Jesus the Christ](https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ?lang=eng) which contains an in-depth look into Jesus' life and contains answers to your questions. In answer to the first question, the answer is because He had to and did allow His spirit to leave.
>
> A natural effect of [Jesus’s] immortal origin, as the earth-born Son of an immortal Sire, was that **He was immune to death except as He surrendered thereto. The life of Jesus the Christ could not be taken save as He willed and allowed. The power to lay down His life was inherent in Himself, as was the power to take up His slain body in an immortalized state**.1
>
>
>
Further on he says:
>
> Fully realizing that He was no longer forsaken, but that **His atoning sacrifice had been accepted by the Father, and that His mission in the flesh had been carried to glorious consummation**, He exclaimed in a loud voice of holy triumph: “It is finished.” In reverence, resignation, and relief, He addressed the Father saying: “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit.” **He bowed His head, and voluntarily gave up His life.**
>
>
> Jesus the Christ was dead. **His life had not been taken from Him except as He had willed to permit.** Sweet and welcome as would have been the relief of death in any of the earlier stages of His suffering from Gethsemane to the cross, He lived until all things were accomplished as had been appointed.2
>
>
>
He goes on to say:
>
> Christ, the great Passover sacrifice, of whom all altar victims had been but suggestive prototypes, died through violence yet without a bone of His body being broken, as was a prescribed condition of the slain paschal lambs.2
>
>
>
Which refers to [John 19:31-37](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/nt/john/19.31-37?lang=eng#30) (and the OP referenced)
>
> 31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
>
>
> 32 Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him.
>
>
> 33 But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:
>
>
> 34 But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
> 35 And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe.
>
>
> 36 **For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken.**
>
>
> 37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.
>
>
>
While Jesus didn't die because He was in worse shape, He was still in worse shape as He was finishing the majority of the [Atonement](https://www.lds.org/topics/atonement-of-jesus-christ?lang=eng) and had just:
>
> 11 For, behold, the Lord your Redeemer suffered death in the flesh; wherefore he **suffered the pain of all men**, that all men might repent and come unto him.3
>
>
>
1 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-25.p48?lang=eng&_r=1>
2 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-35?lang=eng>
3 <https://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/18.11?lang=eng> |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | This answer is from an LDS perspective.
James E. Talmage wrote [Jesus the Christ](https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ?lang=eng) which contains an in-depth look into Jesus' life and contains answers to your questions. In answer to the first question, the answer is because He had to and did allow His spirit to leave.
>
> A natural effect of [Jesus’s] immortal origin, as the earth-born Son of an immortal Sire, was that **He was immune to death except as He surrendered thereto. The life of Jesus the Christ could not be taken save as He willed and allowed. The power to lay down His life was inherent in Himself, as was the power to take up His slain body in an immortalized state**.1
>
>
>
Further on he says:
>
> Fully realizing that He was no longer forsaken, but that **His atoning sacrifice had been accepted by the Father, and that His mission in the flesh had been carried to glorious consummation**, He exclaimed in a loud voice of holy triumph: “It is finished.” In reverence, resignation, and relief, He addressed the Father saying: “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit.” **He bowed His head, and voluntarily gave up His life.**
>
>
> Jesus the Christ was dead. **His life had not been taken from Him except as He had willed to permit.** Sweet and welcome as would have been the relief of death in any of the earlier stages of His suffering from Gethsemane to the cross, He lived until all things were accomplished as had been appointed.2
>
>
>
He goes on to say:
>
> Christ, the great Passover sacrifice, of whom all altar victims had been but suggestive prototypes, died through violence yet without a bone of His body being broken, as was a prescribed condition of the slain paschal lambs.2
>
>
>
Which refers to [John 19:31-37](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/nt/john/19.31-37?lang=eng#30) (and the OP referenced)
>
> 31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
>
>
> 32 Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him.
>
>
> 33 But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:
>
>
> 34 But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
> 35 And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe.
>
>
> 36 **For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken.**
>
>
> 37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.
>
>
>
While Jesus didn't die because He was in worse shape, He was still in worse shape as He was finishing the majority of the [Atonement](https://www.lds.org/topics/atonement-of-jesus-christ?lang=eng) and had just:
>
> 11 For, behold, the Lord your Redeemer suffered death in the flesh; wherefore he **suffered the pain of all men**, that all men might repent and come unto him.3
>
>
>
1 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-25.p48?lang=eng&_r=1>
2 <https://www.lds.org/manual/jesus-the-christ/chapter-35?lang=eng>
3 <https://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/18.11?lang=eng> | While others alluded to this, it's important to note that [most depictions of Jesus's beating are tame](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecce_homo). They show Jesus with simple whip marks on him. In reality Jesus [had been severely beaten with a Roman flagellum](http://www.truthmagazine.com/archives/volume44/v440106010.htm), sometimes called a Cat of Nine Tails.
>
> Scourging, called verberatio by the Romans, was possibly the worst kind of flogging administered by ancient courts.
>
>
> The instrument used to deliver this form of punishment was called in Latin a flagellum or a flagrum. This was much different from the bull whip that is more common in our culture. It was instead more like the old British cat o’ nine tails, except that the flagellum was not designed merely to bruise or leave welts on the victim. The flagellum was a whip with several (at least three) thongs or strands, each perhaps as much as three feet long, and the strands were weighted with lead balls or pieces of bone. This instrument was designed to lacerate. The weighed thongs struck the skin so violently that it broke open. The church historian Eusebius of Caesarea recounts with vivid, horrible detail a scene of scourging. He says, “For they say that the bystanders were struck with amazement when they saw them lacerated with scourges even to the innermost veins and arteries, so that the hidden inward parts of the body, both their bowels and their members, were exposed to view” (Ecclesiastical History, Book 4, chap. 15).
>
>
> The victim of a scourging was bound to a post or frame, stripped of his clothing, and beaten with the flagellum from the shoulders to the loins. The beating left the victim bloody and weak, in unimaginable pain, and near the point of death. It is no doubt that weakness from his scourging was largely the reason Jesus was unable to carry his cross all the way to Golgotha (Matt. 27:32 and parallels).
>
>
>
Ignoring the divine backdrop for just a moment, Jesus was already in severe physical distress when they put him on the cross. This image from *The Passion of the Christ* is probably the most realistic portrayal I've seen (and even then is still probably tamer than history)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SM8YA.jpg)
Pontius Pilate likely thought this would save Jesus from crucifixion, assuming the Jews would be moved by the sight of the man savagely beaten and near death. It was in this state that Pilate presents him
>
> When Jesus came out wearing the crown of thorns and the purple robe, Pilate said to them, "Here is the man!" [John 19:5 NIV]
>
>
>
Once he was on the cross, Jesus now had to keep himself in a position to breathe. This required pushing yourself up (hence the need for legs). It was physically exhausting for a whole man, let alone one who was probably bleeding a great deal from open wounds on his back. |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | The scripture says that Jesus "gave up his spirit" in Mt 27:50 and Jn 19:30 (it is implied in Luke). The description in John is particularly enlightening because it says that Jesus got a drink and gave up his spirit because he knew "that everything had now been finished, and so that scripture would be fulfilled". Jesus chose to give up his life at that moment, and he chose precisely the right moment in order to fulfill prophecy. It was not a matter of fitness or being in shape, but rather fulfilling God's will. This is further reinforced by the fact that before letting go of his life he said, "It is finished".
From a physiological perspective, it's also reasonable that Jesus would die faster because of what he suffered prior to crucifixion. He was beaten (Mt 26:67-68), flogged (Mt 27:26), given a crown of thorns (Mt 27:28-29), and struck over the head repeatedly (Mt 27:30). | It was necessary that Jesus legs **NOT** be broken so that Old Testament scripture about Him as the Passover Lamb would be fulfilled. As [John 19:36](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+19%3A36&version=KJV) says "For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken." apparently referencing [Exodus 12:46](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+12%3A46&version=KJV) and [Numbers 9:12](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Numbers+9%3A12&version=KJV).
See also the answers to [Did the Romans not breaking Jesus' legs fulfill a prophecy?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3853/did-the-romans-not-breaking-jesus-legs-fulfill-a-prophecy) |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | The scripture says that Jesus "gave up his spirit" in Mt 27:50 and Jn 19:30 (it is implied in Luke). The description in John is particularly enlightening because it says that Jesus got a drink and gave up his spirit because he knew "that everything had now been finished, and so that scripture would be fulfilled". Jesus chose to give up his life at that moment, and he chose precisely the right moment in order to fulfill prophecy. It was not a matter of fitness or being in shape, but rather fulfilling God's will. This is further reinforced by the fact that before letting go of his life he said, "It is finished".
From a physiological perspective, it's also reasonable that Jesus would die faster because of what he suffered prior to crucifixion. He was beaten (Mt 26:67-68), flogged (Mt 27:26), given a crown of thorns (Mt 27:28-29), and struck over the head repeatedly (Mt 27:30). | Physiological Perspective
=========================
Some scholars like [W Reid Litchfield](https://byustudies.byu.edu/file/3549/download?token=2d4CgejN) believe that Jesus may have actually died from a [myocardial rupture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myocardial_rupture) which was caused by [takotsubo cardiomyopathy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Takotsubo_cardiomyopathy), more poetically known as *broken heart syndrome*. In this case, the emotional distress would have triggered heart failure and lead to a laceration of His atria or ventricles.
Often following internal bleeding, the blood that fills the chest cavity will separate leaving a distinctly clear portion that looks like water but is actually serum. This is consistent with the scripture in John 19:34:
>
> But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
>
Jesus was crucified by the Romans at the request of the Sanhedrin, a Jewish judicial body. Since it took place on a Friday, in order to keep Sabbath holy, those being crucified must be taken down before sunset. Typically, a crucified individual will die from asphyxiation following exhaustion, which can take days. In order to hurry it along, their legs will sometimes be broken. **Jesus however, likely died of a heart attack, meaning he died before his fellow condemned and didn't need his legs to be broken.**
It seems like this theory was popularized by Dr. William Stroud in 1847 from his publication entitled *Treatise on the Physical Death of Jesus Christ and its Relation to the principles and Practice of Christianity* |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | The scripture says that Jesus "gave up his spirit" in Mt 27:50 and Jn 19:30 (it is implied in Luke). The description in John is particularly enlightening because it says that Jesus got a drink and gave up his spirit because he knew "that everything had now been finished, and so that scripture would be fulfilled". Jesus chose to give up his life at that moment, and he chose precisely the right moment in order to fulfill prophecy. It was not a matter of fitness or being in shape, but rather fulfilling God's will. This is further reinforced by the fact that before letting go of his life he said, "It is finished".
From a physiological perspective, it's also reasonable that Jesus would die faster because of what he suffered prior to crucifixion. He was beaten (Mt 26:67-68), flogged (Mt 27:26), given a crown of thorns (Mt 27:28-29), and struck over the head repeatedly (Mt 27:30). | While others alluded to this, it's important to note that [most depictions of Jesus's beating are tame](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecce_homo). They show Jesus with simple whip marks on him. In reality Jesus [had been severely beaten with a Roman flagellum](http://www.truthmagazine.com/archives/volume44/v440106010.htm), sometimes called a Cat of Nine Tails.
>
> Scourging, called verberatio by the Romans, was possibly the worst kind of flogging administered by ancient courts.
>
>
> The instrument used to deliver this form of punishment was called in Latin a flagellum or a flagrum. This was much different from the bull whip that is more common in our culture. It was instead more like the old British cat o’ nine tails, except that the flagellum was not designed merely to bruise or leave welts on the victim. The flagellum was a whip with several (at least three) thongs or strands, each perhaps as much as three feet long, and the strands were weighted with lead balls or pieces of bone. This instrument was designed to lacerate. The weighed thongs struck the skin so violently that it broke open. The church historian Eusebius of Caesarea recounts with vivid, horrible detail a scene of scourging. He says, “For they say that the bystanders were struck with amazement when they saw them lacerated with scourges even to the innermost veins and arteries, so that the hidden inward parts of the body, both their bowels and their members, were exposed to view” (Ecclesiastical History, Book 4, chap. 15).
>
>
> The victim of a scourging was bound to a post or frame, stripped of his clothing, and beaten with the flagellum from the shoulders to the loins. The beating left the victim bloody and weak, in unimaginable pain, and near the point of death. It is no doubt that weakness from his scourging was largely the reason Jesus was unable to carry his cross all the way to Golgotha (Matt. 27:32 and parallels).
>
>
>
Ignoring the divine backdrop for just a moment, Jesus was already in severe physical distress when they put him on the cross. This image from *The Passion of the Christ* is probably the most realistic portrayal I've seen (and even then is still probably tamer than history)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SM8YA.jpg)
Pontius Pilate likely thought this would save Jesus from crucifixion, assuming the Jews would be moved by the sight of the man savagely beaten and near death. It was in this state that Pilate presents him
>
> When Jesus came out wearing the crown of thorns and the purple robe, Pilate said to them, "Here is the man!" [John 19:5 NIV]
>
>
>
Once he was on the cross, Jesus now had to keep himself in a position to breathe. This required pushing yourself up (hence the need for legs). It was physically exhausting for a whole man, let alone one who was probably bleeding a great deal from open wounds on his back. |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | Physiological Perspective
=========================
Some scholars like [W Reid Litchfield](https://byustudies.byu.edu/file/3549/download?token=2d4CgejN) believe that Jesus may have actually died from a [myocardial rupture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myocardial_rupture) which was caused by [takotsubo cardiomyopathy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Takotsubo_cardiomyopathy), more poetically known as *broken heart syndrome*. In this case, the emotional distress would have triggered heart failure and lead to a laceration of His atria or ventricles.
Often following internal bleeding, the blood that fills the chest cavity will separate leaving a distinctly clear portion that looks like water but is actually serum. This is consistent with the scripture in John 19:34:
>
> But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
>
Jesus was crucified by the Romans at the request of the Sanhedrin, a Jewish judicial body. Since it took place on a Friday, in order to keep Sabbath holy, those being crucified must be taken down before sunset. Typically, a crucified individual will die from asphyxiation following exhaustion, which can take days. In order to hurry it along, their legs will sometimes be broken. **Jesus however, likely died of a heart attack, meaning he died before his fellow condemned and didn't need his legs to be broken.**
It seems like this theory was popularized by Dr. William Stroud in 1847 from his publication entitled *Treatise on the Physical Death of Jesus Christ and its Relation to the principles and Practice of Christianity* | It was necessary that Jesus legs **NOT** be broken so that Old Testament scripture about Him as the Passover Lamb would be fulfilled. As [John 19:36](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+19%3A36&version=KJV) says "For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken." apparently referencing [Exodus 12:46](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+12%3A46&version=KJV) and [Numbers 9:12](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Numbers+9%3A12&version=KJV).
See also the answers to [Did the Romans not breaking Jesus' legs fulfill a prophecy?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3853/did-the-romans-not-breaking-jesus-legs-fulfill-a-prophecy) |
60,905 | Jesus was put to death by [crucifixion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion), between two "real" criminals, on a Friday.
Because the Jews wanted the execution to be over by the Sabbath, they had the Roman soldiers "speed up" the process by breaking the legs of the two (still-living) criminals. But they didn't need to do this to Jesus because he was already dead, meaning that his body was "whole" when it was buried.
Why did Jesus die before the other two, who "survived" him? Was it because he was in worse shape than them? (Of note is the fact the he fainted while carrying the cross.) | 2017/11/27 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/60905",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/418/"
] | Physiological Perspective
=========================
Some scholars like [W Reid Litchfield](https://byustudies.byu.edu/file/3549/download?token=2d4CgejN) believe that Jesus may have actually died from a [myocardial rupture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myocardial_rupture) which was caused by [takotsubo cardiomyopathy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Takotsubo_cardiomyopathy), more poetically known as *broken heart syndrome*. In this case, the emotional distress would have triggered heart failure and lead to a laceration of His atria or ventricles.
Often following internal bleeding, the blood that fills the chest cavity will separate leaving a distinctly clear portion that looks like water but is actually serum. This is consistent with the scripture in John 19:34:
>
> But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water.
>
>
>
Jesus was crucified by the Romans at the request of the Sanhedrin, a Jewish judicial body. Since it took place on a Friday, in order to keep Sabbath holy, those being crucified must be taken down before sunset. Typically, a crucified individual will die from asphyxiation following exhaustion, which can take days. In order to hurry it along, their legs will sometimes be broken. **Jesus however, likely died of a heart attack, meaning he died before his fellow condemned and didn't need his legs to be broken.**
It seems like this theory was popularized by Dr. William Stroud in 1847 from his publication entitled *Treatise on the Physical Death of Jesus Christ and its Relation to the principles and Practice of Christianity* | While others alluded to this, it's important to note that [most depictions of Jesus's beating are tame](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecce_homo). They show Jesus with simple whip marks on him. In reality Jesus [had been severely beaten with a Roman flagellum](http://www.truthmagazine.com/archives/volume44/v440106010.htm), sometimes called a Cat of Nine Tails.
>
> Scourging, called verberatio by the Romans, was possibly the worst kind of flogging administered by ancient courts.
>
>
> The instrument used to deliver this form of punishment was called in Latin a flagellum or a flagrum. This was much different from the bull whip that is more common in our culture. It was instead more like the old British cat o’ nine tails, except that the flagellum was not designed merely to bruise or leave welts on the victim. The flagellum was a whip with several (at least three) thongs or strands, each perhaps as much as three feet long, and the strands were weighted with lead balls or pieces of bone. This instrument was designed to lacerate. The weighed thongs struck the skin so violently that it broke open. The church historian Eusebius of Caesarea recounts with vivid, horrible detail a scene of scourging. He says, “For they say that the bystanders were struck with amazement when they saw them lacerated with scourges even to the innermost veins and arteries, so that the hidden inward parts of the body, both their bowels and their members, were exposed to view” (Ecclesiastical History, Book 4, chap. 15).
>
>
> The victim of a scourging was bound to a post or frame, stripped of his clothing, and beaten with the flagellum from the shoulders to the loins. The beating left the victim bloody and weak, in unimaginable pain, and near the point of death. It is no doubt that weakness from his scourging was largely the reason Jesus was unable to carry his cross all the way to Golgotha (Matt. 27:32 and parallels).
>
>
>
Ignoring the divine backdrop for just a moment, Jesus was already in severe physical distress when they put him on the cross. This image from *The Passion of the Christ* is probably the most realistic portrayal I've seen (and even then is still probably tamer than history)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SM8YA.jpg)
Pontius Pilate likely thought this would save Jesus from crucifixion, assuming the Jews would be moved by the sight of the man savagely beaten and near death. It was in this state that Pilate presents him
>
> When Jesus came out wearing the crown of thorns and the purple robe, Pilate said to them, "Here is the man!" [John 19:5 NIV]
>
>
>
Once he was on the cross, Jesus now had to keep himself in a position to breathe. This required pushing yourself up (hence the need for legs). It was physically exhausting for a whole man, let alone one who was probably bleeding a great deal from open wounds on his back. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | You should be certain that the airline is correct about going through passport control during the transit. Find out which parts of the airport your flights will be using and whether it is possible to pass from one to the other without clearing passport control.
If the information is correct, then you will need another Schengen visa or to book a different flight. The stamp in your passport will use up the single entry permitted by your present visa, and you will not be able to use it again.
If, however, the airline is wrong, you can make the trip using the visas you presently have. The airport's [web page](https://www.ifly.com/athens-greece-airport/terminal-map) seems to suggest that all non-Schengen flights are in the same part of the airport, so the airline's statement is puzzling.
I've been to Athens airport a few times in the last three or four years, but always transferring between a non-Schengen flight and a domestic flight or vice versa, so I have not paid much attention to the non-Schengen-to-non-Schengen situation.
If you check luggage and the airline cannot check it through, you will definitely have to clear passport control to pick up your luggage and transfer it. | This is related to [My passport was stamped with an exit stamp while transiting to another Schengen country via Turkey. Was this a mistake?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/q/146771/19560)
You should apply for a double entry Schengen visa. This allows you to enter Greece and exit it two times even if only for transit. This will be suitable for both your transit and visit.
As you leave the transit areas you need a full visa according to [Do I need a visa to transit (or layover) in the Schengen area?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/30569/do-i-need-a-visa-to-transit-or-layover-in-the-schengen-area) so this option is suitable. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | [Aegean Airlines has a web page](https://en.aegeanair.com/travel-information/at-the-airport/connecting-passengers/) about transiting/connecting passengers at the Athens airport. Under Extra Schengen to Extra Schengen:
>
> If you fly to and from airports outside the Schengen Zone, after
> passing through passport control, head to Gates A1-A23.
>
>
>
That seems to imply that you will enter the Schengen area, if only briefly. | This is related to [My passport was stamped with an exit stamp while transiting to another Schengen country via Turkey. Was this a mistake?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/q/146771/19560)
You should apply for a double entry Schengen visa. This allows you to enter Greece and exit it two times even if only for transit. This will be suitable for both your transit and visit.
As you leave the transit areas you need a full visa according to [Do I need a visa to transit (or layover) in the Schengen area?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/30569/do-i-need-a-visa-to-transit-or-layover-in-the-schengen-area) so this option is suitable. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | Unlike at most international airports, transit passport control is performed by border police in Athens. However, passports are not stamped and visas don't get "activated" at this point, so provided your trip is on a single ticket, you can do this trip. | This is related to [My passport was stamped with an exit stamp while transiting to another Schengen country via Turkey. Was this a mistake?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/q/146771/19560)
You should apply for a double entry Schengen visa. This allows you to enter Greece and exit it two times even if only for transit. This will be suitable for both your transit and visit.
As you leave the transit areas you need a full visa according to [Do I need a visa to transit (or layover) in the Schengen area?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/30569/do-i-need-a-visa-to-transit-or-layover-in-the-schengen-area) so this option is suitable. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | You should be certain that the airline is correct about going through passport control during the transit. Find out which parts of the airport your flights will be using and whether it is possible to pass from one to the other without clearing passport control.
If the information is correct, then you will need another Schengen visa or to book a different flight. The stamp in your passport will use up the single entry permitted by your present visa, and you will not be able to use it again.
If, however, the airline is wrong, you can make the trip using the visas you presently have. The airport's [web page](https://www.ifly.com/athens-greece-airport/terminal-map) seems to suggest that all non-Schengen flights are in the same part of the airport, so the airline's statement is puzzling.
I've been to Athens airport a few times in the last three or four years, but always transferring between a non-Schengen flight and a domestic flight or vice versa, so I have not paid much attention to the non-Schengen-to-non-Schengen situation.
If you check luggage and the airline cannot check it through, you will definitely have to clear passport control to pick up your luggage and transfer it. | A single entry Schengen Visa may not be used to enter Croatia
* a **dual** or **multiple** entry is required
[MVEP • Visa requirements overview](http://www.mvep.hr/en/consular-information/visas/visa-requirements-overview/)
>
> Third-country nationals who are holders of:
>
>
> * uniform visa (C) for two or multiple entries, valid for all Schengen Area Member States;
>
>
>
You may be **refused to board the plane in Athens** to Croatia, since you do not fulfill the requirement of being allowed to return back to the Schengen area.
When entering the Schengen Area at the airport you will recieve an entry stamp
* general A-Visa (Transit) are no longered issued by Counslates
When leaving Greece, you would recieve an exit stamp, thus your single entry visa has been used and cannot be used for reentry, whereas a dual or multi-entry can.
---
In cases where the traveler has a Croatia Visa together with a Schengen Single entry Visa
* only 1 entry into the Schengen Area is allowed
* either entering or leaving Croatia once **directly** from/to a non-Schengen Country is needed
It would be wise to prepare a valid answer for the question that the Croatia Immigration may ask
* when and how will you be leaving Croatia?
Especially when you do **not** have a Schengen Visa that can be used.
---
It is very likely that when the Airline used the word *transit*, they indended it to be understood in the context of *transfering from one flight to another* and not in the context of an immigration status. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | [Aegean Airlines has a web page](https://en.aegeanair.com/travel-information/at-the-airport/connecting-passengers/) about transiting/connecting passengers at the Athens airport. Under Extra Schengen to Extra Schengen:
>
> If you fly to and from airports outside the Schengen Zone, after
> passing through passport control, head to Gates A1-A23.
>
>
>
That seems to imply that you will enter the Schengen area, if only briefly. | A single entry Schengen Visa may not be used to enter Croatia
* a **dual** or **multiple** entry is required
[MVEP • Visa requirements overview](http://www.mvep.hr/en/consular-information/visas/visa-requirements-overview/)
>
> Third-country nationals who are holders of:
>
>
> * uniform visa (C) for two or multiple entries, valid for all Schengen Area Member States;
>
>
>
You may be **refused to board the plane in Athens** to Croatia, since you do not fulfill the requirement of being allowed to return back to the Schengen area.
When entering the Schengen Area at the airport you will recieve an entry stamp
* general A-Visa (Transit) are no longered issued by Counslates
When leaving Greece, you would recieve an exit stamp, thus your single entry visa has been used and cannot be used for reentry, whereas a dual or multi-entry can.
---
In cases where the traveler has a Croatia Visa together with a Schengen Single entry Visa
* only 1 entry into the Schengen Area is allowed
* either entering or leaving Croatia once **directly** from/to a non-Schengen Country is needed
It would be wise to prepare a valid answer for the question that the Croatia Immigration may ask
* when and how will you be leaving Croatia?
Especially when you do **not** have a Schengen Visa that can be used.
---
It is very likely that when the Airline used the word *transit*, they indended it to be understood in the context of *transfering from one flight to another* and not in the context of an immigration status. |
147,075 | My route is as follows:
Cairo -> Athens ( Transit ) -> Croatia ( Vacation ) -> Athens ( Rest Of Vacation ). I have a single entry Schengen visa
As per the Airlines instructions I'll be going through passport control at Athens while at transit, will that count as "entering" the Schengen Area ? will my passport by stamped for Entry/Exit ? What does actually happen in the Greece passport control ?
Will I be able to "re-enter" Athens coming from Croatia since the first time should be considered as transit only ? | 2019/09/18 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/147075",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/103813/"
] | Unlike at most international airports, transit passport control is performed by border police in Athens. However, passports are not stamped and visas don't get "activated" at this point, so provided your trip is on a single ticket, you can do this trip. | A single entry Schengen Visa may not be used to enter Croatia
* a **dual** or **multiple** entry is required
[MVEP • Visa requirements overview](http://www.mvep.hr/en/consular-information/visas/visa-requirements-overview/)
>
> Third-country nationals who are holders of:
>
>
> * uniform visa (C) for two or multiple entries, valid for all Schengen Area Member States;
>
>
>
You may be **refused to board the plane in Athens** to Croatia, since you do not fulfill the requirement of being allowed to return back to the Schengen area.
When entering the Schengen Area at the airport you will recieve an entry stamp
* general A-Visa (Transit) are no longered issued by Counslates
When leaving Greece, you would recieve an exit stamp, thus your single entry visa has been used and cannot be used for reentry, whereas a dual or multi-entry can.
---
In cases where the traveler has a Croatia Visa together with a Schengen Single entry Visa
* only 1 entry into the Schengen Area is allowed
* either entering or leaving Croatia once **directly** from/to a non-Schengen Country is needed
It would be wise to prepare a valid answer for the question that the Croatia Immigration may ask
* when and how will you be leaving Croatia?
Especially when you do **not** have a Schengen Visa that can be used.
---
It is very likely that when the Airline used the word *transit*, they indended it to be understood in the context of *transfering from one flight to another* and not in the context of an immigration status. |
31,998 | When two objects collide and undergo a partially inelastic collision (so every one we experience in every-day life), they rebound to a certain degree, but kinetic energy is not conserved. Thus, the energy of motion must be converted to another type of energy. Thus, when two object collide, the most common forms of energy that kinetic energy is converted to are sound energy and thermal energy.
Some collisions are louder than others just because they cause a bigger local variation of pressure (which then propagates through air until finally gets heard). So, why some objects, even if the velocity before and after the collision seems to be the same, are louder than others? I mean, how do the different material properties enter in the phenomenon?
How and why, by means of solid and fluid mechanics or with an heuristical microscopical reasoning, can this process be explained? | 2012/07/14 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/31998",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/9942/"
] | Sound is longitudinal pressure waves in the air, It can be produced in a couple of ways in a collision.
1. The impact can set up pressure waves and or ringing in the bodies themselves which then interact with the surrounding medium to produce audible sounds. This is the mechanism of a bell.
2. If enough air is forced out of the space between the two bodies as they approach sound can be made either directly (the displacement is the initiating event) or a secondary effect of that out-rushing air interacting with the edges of the bodies. This mechanism is rare enough in everyday life that I can't think of an example off the top of my head. | The sound is generated by pressure wave of air and collision provides energy to transform into sound. |
31,998 | When two objects collide and undergo a partially inelastic collision (so every one we experience in every-day life), they rebound to a certain degree, but kinetic energy is not conserved. Thus, the energy of motion must be converted to another type of energy. Thus, when two object collide, the most common forms of energy that kinetic energy is converted to are sound energy and thermal energy.
Some collisions are louder than others just because they cause a bigger local variation of pressure (which then propagates through air until finally gets heard). So, why some objects, even if the velocity before and after the collision seems to be the same, are louder than others? I mean, how do the different material properties enter in the phenomenon?
How and why, by means of solid and fluid mechanics or with an heuristical microscopical reasoning, can this process be explained? | 2012/07/14 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/31998",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/9942/"
] | Sound is longitudinal pressure waves in the air, It can be produced in a couple of ways in a collision.
1. The impact can set up pressure waves and or ringing in the bodies themselves which then interact with the surrounding medium to produce audible sounds. This is the mechanism of a bell.
2. If enough air is forced out of the space between the two bodies as they approach sound can be made either directly (the displacement is the initiating event) or a secondary effect of that out-rushing air interacting with the edges of the bodies. This mechanism is rare enough in everyday life that I can't think of an example off the top of my head. | >
> So, why some objects, even if the velocity before and after the collision seems to be the same, are louder than others? I mean, how do the different material properties enter in the phenomenon?
>
>
>
As dmckee stated
>
> Sound is longitudinal pressure waves in the air...
>
>
> 1. The impact can set up pressure waves and or ringing in the bodies themselves which then interact with the surrounding medium to produce audible sounds. This is the mechanism of a bell.
>
>
>
However, what was implied but not necessarily apparent is that size and shape will change how loud the sound is. I.e. Given a bell and a block of the same metal of the same mass, the bell will be louder due to the larger surface area (it will also sound for longer due to harmonic resonance, which stores the 'ringing' energy).
>
> 2. If enough air is forced out of the space between the two bodies as they approach sound can be made either directly (the displacement is the initiating event) or a secondary effect of that out-rushing air interacting with the edges of the bodies. This mechanism is rare enough in everyday life that I can't think of an example off the top of my head.
>
>
>
Hand clapping and a squash ball hitting a wall are two examples. Unfortunately, there are two sources of sound
1. the 'ringing' as described in dmckee's 1st point. I.e. the vibration of the skin that isn't between the two hands, the vibration within the squash ball.
2. the sudden expulsion/ratification of the air. I.e. the air between the two hands, the deformation of the squash ball against a wall.
dmckee's 2nd point are not elastic collisions. In fact, I would say that any such collision is not close enough to being ideally elastic to actually qualify to be called elastic. Such a collision will cause too much energy to be lost fighting against suction forces and thermal heat loss. |
31,998 | When two objects collide and undergo a partially inelastic collision (so every one we experience in every-day life), they rebound to a certain degree, but kinetic energy is not conserved. Thus, the energy of motion must be converted to another type of energy. Thus, when two object collide, the most common forms of energy that kinetic energy is converted to are sound energy and thermal energy.
Some collisions are louder than others just because they cause a bigger local variation of pressure (which then propagates through air until finally gets heard). So, why some objects, even if the velocity before and after the collision seems to be the same, are louder than others? I mean, how do the different material properties enter in the phenomenon?
How and why, by means of solid and fluid mechanics or with an heuristical microscopical reasoning, can this process be explained? | 2012/07/14 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/31998",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/9942/"
] | >
> So, why some objects, even if the velocity before and after the collision seems to be the same, are louder than others? I mean, how do the different material properties enter in the phenomenon?
>
>
>
As dmckee stated
>
> Sound is longitudinal pressure waves in the air...
>
>
> 1. The impact can set up pressure waves and or ringing in the bodies themselves which then interact with the surrounding medium to produce audible sounds. This is the mechanism of a bell.
>
>
>
However, what was implied but not necessarily apparent is that size and shape will change how loud the sound is. I.e. Given a bell and a block of the same metal of the same mass, the bell will be louder due to the larger surface area (it will also sound for longer due to harmonic resonance, which stores the 'ringing' energy).
>
> 2. If enough air is forced out of the space between the two bodies as they approach sound can be made either directly (the displacement is the initiating event) or a secondary effect of that out-rushing air interacting with the edges of the bodies. This mechanism is rare enough in everyday life that I can't think of an example off the top of my head.
>
>
>
Hand clapping and a squash ball hitting a wall are two examples. Unfortunately, there are two sources of sound
1. the 'ringing' as described in dmckee's 1st point. I.e. the vibration of the skin that isn't between the two hands, the vibration within the squash ball.
2. the sudden expulsion/ratification of the air. I.e. the air between the two hands, the deformation of the squash ball against a wall.
dmckee's 2nd point are not elastic collisions. In fact, I would say that any such collision is not close enough to being ideally elastic to actually qualify to be called elastic. Such a collision will cause too much energy to be lost fighting against suction forces and thermal heat loss. | The sound is generated by pressure wave of air and collision provides energy to transform into sound. |
14,613 | How can I split a video every X minutes using iMovie or some other Mac software, outputting the split videos to a folder, named by section (e.g. "video1of4", "video2of4")? | 2011/05/22 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/14613",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4729/"
] | QuickTime Pro does a great job using the Trim feature. It's intuitive too. | Movie Splitter
==============
If you are splitting `mpeg4` movies and prefer a graphical application, you can use [Movie Splitter](https://miln.eu/moviesplitter/). I wrote the application to split my movies by chapter marker but duration based splitting is supported:
>
> * Automatically by chapter marker
> * Into two halves
> * Into four quarters
> * Into unlimited custom sections
> * Into regular durations; 1 second to multi-hour sections
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ylmM9.jpg) |
14,613 | How can I split a video every X minutes using iMovie or some other Mac software, outputting the split videos to a folder, named by section (e.g. "video1of4", "video2of4")? | 2011/05/22 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/14613",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4729/"
] | QuickTime Pro does a great job using the Trim feature. It's intuitive too. | I used to do splits using ffmpeg on Fedora . I don't have the exact command handy though.
You could install ffmpeg and mplayer tools on OS X . |
14,613 | How can I split a video every X minutes using iMovie or some other Mac software, outputting the split videos to a folder, named by section (e.g. "video1of4", "video2of4")? | 2011/05/22 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/14613",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4729/"
] | QuickTime Pro does a great job using the Trim feature. It's intuitive too. | VLC has an "Exporting Wizard" that will let you subset. VLC also has a CLI interface so you should be able to automate it. |
368 | This seems pretty cool
<https://stats.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1467/tag-map-for-crossvalidated>
Our brothers at Chem.SE have something of the sort
<https://chemistry.meta.stackexchange.com/q/192/57> | 2012/11/27 | [
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/368",
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com/users/389/"
] | So, here it is for Biology.SE:
Some more description e.g. on [a respective post on meta.math.SE](https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6479/a-graph-map-of-math-se). In particular, colours stand for graph communities (groups of nodes which have a lot of connections between each other).
The project is on GitHub: <https://github.com/stared/tag-graph-map-of-stackexchange/wiki> (feel invited to tweak the plot to your taste).
I hope you like it! :)
EDIT
====
A newer, interactive and always up-to-date version is here: [**TagOverflow**](http://stared.github.io/tagoverflow/?site=biology&size=32).
[Code and a more detailed description is on GitHub](https://github.com/stared/tagoverflow#tagoverflow).
 | For fun, here's the updated January 5, 2017 Update:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zoqLG.png)
I tried to arrange the dots in a way that mirrored Piotr's [2015 update](https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com/a/371/16866).
Unsurprisingly, there is minimal change. |
368 | This seems pretty cool
<https://stats.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1467/tag-map-for-crossvalidated>
Our brothers at Chem.SE have something of the sort
<https://chemistry.meta.stackexchange.com/q/192/57> | 2012/11/27 | [
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/368",
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.meta.stackexchange.com/users/389/"
] | So, here it is for Biology.SE:
Some more description e.g. on [a respective post on meta.math.SE](https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6479/a-graph-map-of-math-se). In particular, colours stand for graph communities (groups of nodes which have a lot of connections between each other).
The project is on GitHub: <https://github.com/stared/tag-graph-map-of-stackexchange/wiki> (feel invited to tweak the plot to your taste).
I hope you like it! :)
EDIT
====
A newer, interactive and always up-to-date version is here: [**TagOverflow**](http://stared.github.io/tagoverflow/?site=biology&size=32).
[Code and a more detailed description is on GitHub](https://github.com/stared/tagoverflow#tagoverflow).
 | Here is manually-done one. Each color indicate a highly related field of study.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gNehg.png) |
14,489 | I work with a team lead who is dismissive about other races. This person is an American and has no respect for people from other nations. He isn't open about it but his demeanor and candor show his opinions - which are obvious to co-workers and topic of hushed discussions in cubicles.
My company also conducts employee exchange programs and workers from other countries are around all the time. In important technical meetings, the team lead just chooses to ignore any participation from any one who is not an American. IMO, this is causing great loss of ideas to the application we are building and the inherent cascading effect it has. For ex this one guy came up with a brilliant approach to monitor maintaining of the application state on distributed servers. But all the lead said was 'hold that thought' and went about with the meeting. That thought unfortunately never got implemented.
Although, role wise, I know this shouldn't bother me, but is there something I can do which will increase the overall participation AND make the valid inputs count ? Neither am I conducting the meetings nor am I the organizer - just a participant. I am nearly sure this happens all the time in other workplaces. In this case its racial prejudice, else where it might be something else.
I have asked a manager over water cooler chat asking him to come be a part of the meeting and and to *lend* their 'creative thoughts' secretly hoping the meeting would be efficiently moderated. The manager made it to the meeting - but they are busy with their blackberries and probably deaf to the conversations.
I searched on this site for an existing answer but did not find anything and [this](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/8819/how-to-convince-colleagues-about-my-point-of-view-in-a-meeting) is a completely different question primarily since the people I am talking about are developers who present a valid point (or sometimes are cut off while presenting as soon as the outline of the idea is clear) which isn't given its due consideration. Most of them are alien workers and will not push their genuine and sometimes brilliant ideas lest it upset their American counterparts.
**EDIT** : I was not particularly talking just about Indian coworkers, but colleagues from world over. | 2013/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14489",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7978/"
] | Ok, so you have concluded that other Managers cannot be of help.
I'll go with your assumption that there is some sort of systematic condescension or prejudice going on here. I'll also assume that you are more concerned about effective meetings, and less concerned about the prejudice itself. Thus, I won't need to suggest you go to HR and discuss this leader's attitude toward non-Americans in general.
You could try encouraging more (non-American) people to speak at meetings and offer their suggestions. Sometimes just increasing the frequency can either cause the meeting organizer to reconsider their approach, or at least make it more obvious to the audience that there is "selective consideration" going on. That could pay dividends later.
You could also try to encourage some of the Americans in the audience to push further on a rejected topic. This is often effective in public meetings, and I've seen it turn into a ground-swell of support that is hard to ignore. "Yeah, Mr. Team Lead. Ms. Non-American here has a good point - why *don't* we try X?"
[If you do decide that you need to do something about the overall prejudice, confirm that others see this situation the way you do, before you go to HR or higher-up management. You don't want to be slinging around the prejudice card if that isn't what's actually happening. I've seen before that what one person perceived as prejudice against his race, was actually just mild dismissal of all "newbies". This one person reacted way out of proportion to the real problem and it hurt his career at that company.] | You may not be able to get the manager to change his style of working, but you may be able to help the people from other cultures change to adapt to his style so they are more able to be heard and respected.
One thing we require at our company is for everyone to read:
Speaking of India by Craig Storti
Not only did it help those of us in the US understand how people in India work, but it really helped the Indian employees understand why the tactics they effectively used at home were not working. We also bring Indian employees to the US for a period of time and that helps build relationships. The truth is that whatever culture you are from, you will likely need to adapt to the way your boss works not the way you were brought up to work. Even if all your foreign nationals are not Indian, it has a good description of how the American work culture works which could help people from many cultures.
However, he may not even realize he is dismissing their ideas because their work cultures are so different. You could tell him that you read this really helpful book and see if he wants to read it.
Also if you feel people are not being heard, then bring up their ideas again. Sometimes the only way to get the idea paid attention to is for someone of the right group to bring it up. When I was young, women were not common in professional roles and at meeting after meeting every word I said was ignored and then some man would say the exact same thing and suddenly it was a good idea. I started giving my ideas to some of the better guys so that they would have a chance to be implemented. Then once the idea is accepted, then bring up whose idea it really was so they will start to get some credit.
And depending on your relationship with this manager, you could bring up the problem to him directly, that in your observation, he appears dismissive of people from other cultures. Sometimes people have to be confronted that their way of working is wrong and is causing organizational harm. This is a risky move so I would think about how he might react or possibly hold on to the thought for an exit interview (Or ask some of the foreign nationals to bring it up in their exist interviews when they move on to other jobs). Be ready with examples, especially of where he dismissed an idea from someone foreign and then accepted the same idea from someone American. Or you could try to discuss this with HR and let them have this conversation (This greatly depends on your HR as to how risky that move is.) |
14,489 | I work with a team lead who is dismissive about other races. This person is an American and has no respect for people from other nations. He isn't open about it but his demeanor and candor show his opinions - which are obvious to co-workers and topic of hushed discussions in cubicles.
My company also conducts employee exchange programs and workers from other countries are around all the time. In important technical meetings, the team lead just chooses to ignore any participation from any one who is not an American. IMO, this is causing great loss of ideas to the application we are building and the inherent cascading effect it has. For ex this one guy came up with a brilliant approach to monitor maintaining of the application state on distributed servers. But all the lead said was 'hold that thought' and went about with the meeting. That thought unfortunately never got implemented.
Although, role wise, I know this shouldn't bother me, but is there something I can do which will increase the overall participation AND make the valid inputs count ? Neither am I conducting the meetings nor am I the organizer - just a participant. I am nearly sure this happens all the time in other workplaces. In this case its racial prejudice, else where it might be something else.
I have asked a manager over water cooler chat asking him to come be a part of the meeting and and to *lend* their 'creative thoughts' secretly hoping the meeting would be efficiently moderated. The manager made it to the meeting - but they are busy with their blackberries and probably deaf to the conversations.
I searched on this site for an existing answer but did not find anything and [this](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/8819/how-to-convince-colleagues-about-my-point-of-view-in-a-meeting) is a completely different question primarily since the people I am talking about are developers who present a valid point (or sometimes are cut off while presenting as soon as the outline of the idea is clear) which isn't given its due consideration. Most of them are alien workers and will not push their genuine and sometimes brilliant ideas lest it upset their American counterparts.
**EDIT** : I was not particularly talking just about Indian coworkers, but colleagues from world over. | 2013/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14489",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7978/"
] | Ok, so you have concluded that other Managers cannot be of help.
I'll go with your assumption that there is some sort of systematic condescension or prejudice going on here. I'll also assume that you are more concerned about effective meetings, and less concerned about the prejudice itself. Thus, I won't need to suggest you go to HR and discuss this leader's attitude toward non-Americans in general.
You could try encouraging more (non-American) people to speak at meetings and offer their suggestions. Sometimes just increasing the frequency can either cause the meeting organizer to reconsider their approach, or at least make it more obvious to the audience that there is "selective consideration" going on. That could pay dividends later.
You could also try to encourage some of the Americans in the audience to push further on a rejected topic. This is often effective in public meetings, and I've seen it turn into a ground-swell of support that is hard to ignore. "Yeah, Mr. Team Lead. Ms. Non-American here has a good point - why *don't* we try X?"
[If you do decide that you need to do something about the overall prejudice, confirm that others see this situation the way you do, before you go to HR or higher-up management. You don't want to be slinging around the prejudice card if that isn't what's actually happening. I've seen before that what one person perceived as prejudice against his race, was actually just mild dismissal of all "newbies". This one person reacted way out of proportion to the real problem and it hurt his career at that company.] | >
> will not push their genuine and sometimes brilliant ideas lest it
> upset their American counterparts.
>
>
>
Sorry, but I think this is a part of the problem and the area you can change the most. They American who won't listen to people from other parts of the world, probably doesn't listen to a lot of people. You won't change him directly, but you can let him know that you will push for your ideas if you think they are better.
In a fair and open group everyone should have equal opportunities to be heard, but in some places you have to jump up and down and scream to be heard. I'm not saying it is right, but apparently it takes more that just a calm quiet suggestion.
If your responses are dismissed, ask why. You deserve an explanation. The current meeting may not be the place, so ask when and where it can be discussed further. You're going to have to interupt and hold your ground until you get a satisfied answer. Otherwise, he'll just ignore you because you make it so easy.
You can't help it if your ideas upset someone. I would expect this person to get very upset, but that's too bad. Eventually, he'll get over it. |
14,489 | I work with a team lead who is dismissive about other races. This person is an American and has no respect for people from other nations. He isn't open about it but his demeanor and candor show his opinions - which are obvious to co-workers and topic of hushed discussions in cubicles.
My company also conducts employee exchange programs and workers from other countries are around all the time. In important technical meetings, the team lead just chooses to ignore any participation from any one who is not an American. IMO, this is causing great loss of ideas to the application we are building and the inherent cascading effect it has. For ex this one guy came up with a brilliant approach to monitor maintaining of the application state on distributed servers. But all the lead said was 'hold that thought' and went about with the meeting. That thought unfortunately never got implemented.
Although, role wise, I know this shouldn't bother me, but is there something I can do which will increase the overall participation AND make the valid inputs count ? Neither am I conducting the meetings nor am I the organizer - just a participant. I am nearly sure this happens all the time in other workplaces. In this case its racial prejudice, else where it might be something else.
I have asked a manager over water cooler chat asking him to come be a part of the meeting and and to *lend* their 'creative thoughts' secretly hoping the meeting would be efficiently moderated. The manager made it to the meeting - but they are busy with their blackberries and probably deaf to the conversations.
I searched on this site for an existing answer but did not find anything and [this](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/8819/how-to-convince-colleagues-about-my-point-of-view-in-a-meeting) is a completely different question primarily since the people I am talking about are developers who present a valid point (or sometimes are cut off while presenting as soon as the outline of the idea is clear) which isn't given its due consideration. Most of them are alien workers and will not push their genuine and sometimes brilliant ideas lest it upset their American counterparts.
**EDIT** : I was not particularly talking just about Indian coworkers, but colleagues from world over. | 2013/09/17 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/14489",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7978/"
] | You may not be able to get the manager to change his style of working, but you may be able to help the people from other cultures change to adapt to his style so they are more able to be heard and respected.
One thing we require at our company is for everyone to read:
Speaking of India by Craig Storti
Not only did it help those of us in the US understand how people in India work, but it really helped the Indian employees understand why the tactics they effectively used at home were not working. We also bring Indian employees to the US for a period of time and that helps build relationships. The truth is that whatever culture you are from, you will likely need to adapt to the way your boss works not the way you were brought up to work. Even if all your foreign nationals are not Indian, it has a good description of how the American work culture works which could help people from many cultures.
However, he may not even realize he is dismissing their ideas because their work cultures are so different. You could tell him that you read this really helpful book and see if he wants to read it.
Also if you feel people are not being heard, then bring up their ideas again. Sometimes the only way to get the idea paid attention to is for someone of the right group to bring it up. When I was young, women were not common in professional roles and at meeting after meeting every word I said was ignored and then some man would say the exact same thing and suddenly it was a good idea. I started giving my ideas to some of the better guys so that they would have a chance to be implemented. Then once the idea is accepted, then bring up whose idea it really was so they will start to get some credit.
And depending on your relationship with this manager, you could bring up the problem to him directly, that in your observation, he appears dismissive of people from other cultures. Sometimes people have to be confronted that their way of working is wrong and is causing organizational harm. This is a risky move so I would think about how he might react or possibly hold on to the thought for an exit interview (Or ask some of the foreign nationals to bring it up in their exist interviews when they move on to other jobs). Be ready with examples, especially of where he dismissed an idea from someone foreign and then accepted the same idea from someone American. Or you could try to discuss this with HR and let them have this conversation (This greatly depends on your HR as to how risky that move is.) | >
> will not push their genuine and sometimes brilliant ideas lest it
> upset their American counterparts.
>
>
>
Sorry, but I think this is a part of the problem and the area you can change the most. They American who won't listen to people from other parts of the world, probably doesn't listen to a lot of people. You won't change him directly, but you can let him know that you will push for your ideas if you think they are better.
In a fair and open group everyone should have equal opportunities to be heard, but in some places you have to jump up and down and scream to be heard. I'm not saying it is right, but apparently it takes more that just a calm quiet suggestion.
If your responses are dismissed, ask why. You deserve an explanation. The current meeting may not be the place, so ask when and where it can be discussed further. You're going to have to interupt and hold your ground until you get a satisfied answer. Otherwise, he'll just ignore you because you make it so easy.
You can't help it if your ideas upset someone. I would expect this person to get very upset, but that's too bad. Eventually, he'll get over it. |
41,878,335 | I'm not sure if something just changed with dev tools with an update or if I accidentally pressed something on the settings but I no longer get the circle mouse indicator inside the mobile emulator. Is there a way to get it back?
Steps to replicate:
1. Open dev tools (press F12 key)
2. Toggle the device tool bar (Ctrl + Shift + M, the focused window must be the dev tool bar for this shortcut to work or just click the device icon)
3. Select "iPhone 6" from the drop down
4. Mouse into the mobile emulator window
5. In my case the mouse disappears, how to get it back so I know where I'm clicking? | 2017/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41878335",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | So not a real solution but the workaround was to switch monitors. Apparently if you are using a dual monitor set up switching the dev tools from the problem monitor to the other cases the mouse to show up. Don't think this is a dev tools problem but more of an issue with how multi monitor set ups work. I am on windows so maybe windows specific. | If you have Intel Graphics. Just go here
>
> Intel Display settings > General > [Display Name] > Quantization Range
>
>
>
Change it from "default" to "full" and the problem will disappear! |
6,851,161 | There are [several](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1697716/exposing-wcf-services-via-http-when-not-hosted-in-iis) [questions](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2521950/wcf-selfhosted-service-installer-class-and-netsh) around how to allow a self-hosted WCF application to use BasicHttpBinding with HTTP.SYS without requiring administrative privileges. It boils down to needing to grant permission (from an admin context) to the URL, then the user can host whatever at the specified URL.
*netsh http add urlacl url=[http://+:80/MyService](http://+:80/MyService_)*
I would like to be able to query and add registered URLs without resorting to parsing commandline output of the "netsh" or "httpconfig" commandline tools.
**Is there is a public Win32 or .NET API that I can call for this functionality?** | 2011/07/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6851161",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/533907/"
] | The Win32 API to use is [HttpSetServiceConfiguration](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa364503%28v=vs.85%29.aspx). | I have exactly this problem in my bug list but it has currently low priority so I didn't deal with it yet. Anyway we found [this tool](http://www.stevestechspot.com/HttpConfigNowWorksProperlyWithUAC.aspx) (download the source) which uses mentioned function and it has all needed code to work (it is long way from having Win32 function and having working solution). |
3,344 | I've recently became interested in starting some outdoor planters this coming spring. After searching around, I found an interesting idea off of Popular Mechanics using [5 gallon drywall buckets](http://www.popularmechanics.com/home/improvement/lawn-garden/drywall-bucket-flower-pot-garden) as planters. What appealed to me was the low cost to setup and more space (depth-wise) for plants to grow.
My questions is: Has anybody has success with using a 5 gallon buckets as planters? If so, what setup would you recommend as far as soil type/composition, fertilizers, placement, other tips, etc?
For what its worth, I am think of growing green-leafy herbs like mint or basil and tomato plants. I live in Grand Forks, ND (USDA Plant Hardiness Zone 4, more climate info [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Grand_Forks,_North_Dakota)). Any help or reference would be greatly appreciated! Thanks in advance!
**EDIT:** Also, I forgot to mention that I live in an apartment/townhouse building (front and back door but no porch/yard) with not a lot of room out back. I may be able to fit in a self watering system with the kiddie pool, but would prefer individual buckets lined against the apartment wall. Sorry for any confusion! | 2012/02/01 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/3344",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/924/"
] | **Quick and Dirty Self-Watering 5-Gallon Bucket Garden**
--------------------------------------------------------
\_\_
**Parts List**
1 Kiddie Pool [example](http://www.fleetfarm.com/catalog/product_detail/lawn-garden/outdoor-play/swimming-pools/summer-escapes-big-wader-pool)
7 Clean 5-Gallon Buckets [example](http://www.fleetfarm.com/catalog/product_detail/farm-livestock/livestock-supplies-equipment/watering-feeding/mills-fleet-farm-5-gallon-pail) (or however many will fit comfortably in the Kiddie pool you just bought)
7 Clean (Read: Bleached) Bath Towels
Asbestos free vermiculite. [example](http://www.lowes.com/pd_180541-1321-50801727_0_?masthead=true&selectedLocalStoreBeanArray=) - [info](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vermiculite)
[Your favorite potting soil](https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/721/recipe-for-a-long-lasting-fast-draining-container-soil-mix-with-good-aeration)
**Instructions**
---
1. Drill/Cut 4 Holes on 4 Sides, 2 Inches from the bottom of each container. Each hole should be at least 1 Inch in diameter (big enough to pull a bit of towel through). Use the compass as your guide.
2. Put a 1 inch layer of vermiculite on the bottom of each container. It will expand.
3. Lay the towel over the vermiculite and pull the corners through the holes you opened in the buckets. Pull enough through so that the corner lays on the ground.
4. Mix **2 Parts** vermiculite with **1 Part** [Your favorite potting soil here] and fill the buckets to the half way point. Add rocks to buckets with big plants to keep them from blowing over.
5. Mix **1 Part** vermiculite with **2 Parts** [Your favorite potting soil here] and fill the buckets leaving adequate room at the top.
6. Put the buckets in the pool and fill it with a few inches of water.
---
What can you grow in a bucket?
From [SurvivalistBoards.com](http://www.survivalistboards.com/showthread.php?t=51322)
>
> per 5 gal bucket
>
>
> 1 tomato
>
>
> 3 corn
>
>
> 6-8 carrots
>
>
> 2-3 peppers
>
>
> 1 cucumber/melon
>
>
> 2-3 leafy greens per bucket
>
>
> | Yes, I have had quite a bit of success using 25 litre buckets on my balcony, planting some plants "upside down" and others at the top of the bucket.
I cut a small hole in the bottom of the bucket and gently push the roots of my seedling through the hole. I keep the roots in place with a small square of landscaping fabric with a slit cut into one side, or else a piece of foam (those ones that come in some vitamin bottles) with a slit cut in the side - the stem is pushed into the slit, and the foam/fabric covers the hole with the rest of the plant sticking out the bottom. I fill the bucket with the same mix I use for square-foot gardening (1:1:1 compost:peat most:vermiculite). I plant a companion plant at the top and cover with bark mulch.
Plants I have had success with (upside down) include tomatoes and bell peppers. Strangely, my patty pan squashes and gem squashes aren't really doing all that well, and sugar-snap peas never took off. At the top, plants that grow well for me are marigolds, mint (regular and chocolate), lemon balm, thyme, oreganum. Things that have not grown well for me in the buckets include sweet basil, pick-and-come-again lettuces, mustard greens and borage. (The thyme does really really well!) I think anything with a reasonably shallow root system works ok. Lemon basil doesn't seem to thrive either - it grows, but it stays quite small.
I have the buckets hanging from the security bars outside the window, with some under the others so the runoff from the top row waters the bottom row.
FYI: I live in Cape Town, South Africa. Don't know what that works out to in US Hardiness zone equivalents, but we have a "mediterranean climate".
[UPDATE]: Here is a pic. From left to right:
* bucket 1: top - lemon basil, bottom - heinz tomato;
* bucket 2: top - thyme and marigolds, bottom - heinz tomato;
* bucket 3: top - chilli (don't know which yet) and marigold; bottom - needs replanting
* bucket 4: top - thyme; bottom - needs replanting
 |
3,344 | I've recently became interested in starting some outdoor planters this coming spring. After searching around, I found an interesting idea off of Popular Mechanics using [5 gallon drywall buckets](http://www.popularmechanics.com/home/improvement/lawn-garden/drywall-bucket-flower-pot-garden) as planters. What appealed to me was the low cost to setup and more space (depth-wise) for plants to grow.
My questions is: Has anybody has success with using a 5 gallon buckets as planters? If so, what setup would you recommend as far as soil type/composition, fertilizers, placement, other tips, etc?
For what its worth, I am think of growing green-leafy herbs like mint or basil and tomato plants. I live in Grand Forks, ND (USDA Plant Hardiness Zone 4, more climate info [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Climate_of_Grand_Forks,_North_Dakota)). Any help or reference would be greatly appreciated! Thanks in advance!
**EDIT:** Also, I forgot to mention that I live in an apartment/townhouse building (front and back door but no porch/yard) with not a lot of room out back. I may be able to fit in a self watering system with the kiddie pool, but would prefer individual buckets lined against the apartment wall. Sorry for any confusion! | 2012/02/01 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/3344",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/924/"
] | **Quick and Dirty Self-Watering 5-Gallon Bucket Garden**
--------------------------------------------------------
\_\_
**Parts List**
1 Kiddie Pool [example](http://www.fleetfarm.com/catalog/product_detail/lawn-garden/outdoor-play/swimming-pools/summer-escapes-big-wader-pool)
7 Clean 5-Gallon Buckets [example](http://www.fleetfarm.com/catalog/product_detail/farm-livestock/livestock-supplies-equipment/watering-feeding/mills-fleet-farm-5-gallon-pail) (or however many will fit comfortably in the Kiddie pool you just bought)
7 Clean (Read: Bleached) Bath Towels
Asbestos free vermiculite. [example](http://www.lowes.com/pd_180541-1321-50801727_0_?masthead=true&selectedLocalStoreBeanArray=) - [info](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vermiculite)
[Your favorite potting soil](https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/721/recipe-for-a-long-lasting-fast-draining-container-soil-mix-with-good-aeration)
**Instructions**
---
1. Drill/Cut 4 Holes on 4 Sides, 2 Inches from the bottom of each container. Each hole should be at least 1 Inch in diameter (big enough to pull a bit of towel through). Use the compass as your guide.
2. Put a 1 inch layer of vermiculite on the bottom of each container. It will expand.
3. Lay the towel over the vermiculite and pull the corners through the holes you opened in the buckets. Pull enough through so that the corner lays on the ground.
4. Mix **2 Parts** vermiculite with **1 Part** [Your favorite potting soil here] and fill the buckets to the half way point. Add rocks to buckets with big plants to keep them from blowing over.
5. Mix **1 Part** vermiculite with **2 Parts** [Your favorite potting soil here] and fill the buckets leaving adequate room at the top.
6. Put the buckets in the pool and fill it with a few inches of water.
---
What can you grow in a bucket?
From [SurvivalistBoards.com](http://www.survivalistboards.com/showthread.php?t=51322)
>
> per 5 gal bucket
>
>
> 1 tomato
>
>
> 3 corn
>
>
> 6-8 carrots
>
>
> 2-3 peppers
>
>
> 1 cucumber/melon
>
>
> 2-3 leafy greens per bucket
>
>
> | I have had a great deal of success growing vegetables in a 5 gallon bucket. I live in FL and we are about to enter the "off season" for vegetable gardening as choices are somewhat limited because of our warm evenings. Many veggies need a cooler part of the day to do their best. But things I am harvesting now include many types of peppers, eggplant and pole beans. I am going to try okra, summer squash and corn. I use a sub-irrigated planter that is built into a five gallon bucket. |
148,765 | Running virtualbox on a pc. I have virtualization enabled in BIOS. Installed Ubuntu 12.04 32 bit on virtualbox without 3d acceleration enabled and it works fine, but when I enable it and restart, the desktop shows up but there is nothing on it or on the top menu bar. Things are clickable where they should be but you can't see what you're clicking. What's wrong? | 2012/06/09 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/148765",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/69586/"
] | You need to install the VirtualBox additions for your virtual machine and also enable the 3d support in your virtual box settings.
Have you done both? | I have also experienced this problem on a Windows 7 host, and as 3D acceleration is default for VirtualBox, it took me ages to find the solution. In my experience, it is an intermittent problem - most of the time it did not work, occasionally it did work.
I installed VirtualBox additions but it did not resolve the issue.
This is what worked for me:
>
> Untick the "Enable 3d acceleration" under display, and Ubuntu on VirtualBox is stable although slightly less glossy.
>
>
> |
45,264,957 | I am implementing language model as a personal challenge, as a part of simple web application. Still I've avoided using NLTK, however was faced with MemoryError with enough big corpus (vocabulary about 50000 and amount of trigrams was about 440000 - I've used standard python dictionary and after tried numpy array to store all word-ngram probabilities as matrix). So it seems the solution is to use more efficient data structure, something that was mentioned here [train a language model using Google Ngrams](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/38264636/train-a-language-model-using-google-ngrams) Or store model on disk. In General, could you advise what approach could be better for storing ngram model (in memory or disk space) and after using it as a part of web-app? | 2017/07/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/45264957",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6774689/"
] | You are not the first to try an N-gram language model and you won't be the last.
As another solution notes, we can store a large dictionary in a tree-type structure so that all n-grams that share the first k words (k < n) use the same nodes. It is easy to implement something akin to the VocabTreeNode that I use in the following post:
[Building a Vocab Tree](https://stackoverflow.com/a/62823597/8249836)
If you have, a priori stored the n-grams in this format, it is often prudent to prune it. I.e., if you append a count variable to the model, we can remove elements with low frequency. If your data is messy, then low-frequency n-grams often correspond to incorrectly spelled words or real-word errors.
Even with the efficiency of the tree structure, it is difficult to efficiently extend the above for n-grams for n > 3 unless you have a small vocab like characters. For moderately high values of n like n=6, a popular solution uses (modified) Kneser-Ney smoothing. A library like
<https://github.com/kpu/kenlm>
is efficient and has a python interface. Although for large corpora, pruning is still recommended when building your own model as well as Trie-like compression to create a binary from the ARPA model. This produces the log-probabilities as a score. My first 6-gram model was 11Gb from a 7Gb corpus. I pruned and compressed this to get a reasonable 400Mb model. It was very fast once loaded. By judiciously focusing your corpus, it should be easy to get a model that works for a web application.
Similar purely python-based methods for Kneser-Ney based interpolation are available via a pip install. The canonical paper for implementing a model yourself can be found here:
[An empirical study of smoothing techniques for
language modeling](http://u.cs.biu.ac.il/~yogo/courses/mt2013/papers/chen-goodman-99.pdf)
For very large n where the above methods fail, you could use your corpus to create an embedding and use a recurrent neural network like an LSTM or GRU based network to output either the log-probabilities of the tuple or the probabilities themselves. It is not that hard if you have a handle of Keras or Pytorch. Something like the structure of a 2 layer LSTM with attention should work well. There a chasm of things one could be doing in the neural network direction to encode n-grams. | I'll split my answer into two parts, the first being why storing it in the form of dictionaries is a bad idea, and the second is the optimal data structure for storing ngrams.
Consider storing the following words in a dictionary: "Bond", "Boat", "Build", the size of a dictionary containing these keys hashed to some integer would roughly be proportional to the number of words + their characters. So, we're technically spending additional space to store certain letters which may repeat themselves. Now, the problem becomes apparent, we're spending a lot of additional memory in storing parts of strings that we need not re-store.
The question remains, what is the ideal data structure that can be used here. The requisites for this data structure are:
1. Efficient Storage
2. Retrieval of values (roughly constant time)
If we consider which data structure fits these requirements, one, which immediately comes to mind is a **Trie**, or, more precisely a *Prefix Trie*. The inherent structure of the Trie is helpful because we would be saving space on single characters that we would otherwise store several times over. With a small set of words like in my example above, the problem is not very damning. However, as the length of our set of words increases, we will soon run out of space by using a Hash Table/ Dictionary.
Hope this helped. |
120,625 | I got this error when I checked out my database from source control. It might sounds weird to check in the sql server database, but this was what I have done because this is just a personal project.
Anyone knows how to fix this? | 2008/09/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/120625",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3834/"
] | Did you take a copy of the log file (.ldf) as well as the ".mdf" file? You need the matching set of both to re-attach the database | This sounds like the data files do not match the structure files of your database.
Shortly spoken, the files where your data (i.e. table rows) resides in are (mostly) not the files the structure of your data (i.e. the description of the tables) is stored. At least in "modern" RDBMS systems. So you checked out your data and the database recognized some changes in the structure which happened till then (you altered a table or something like that).
The way "to fix this" would be to check in all files your database relies on, but I think that is not really what you wanted to achieve. Better (as mentioned above) to do backups and then drop / restore the database from them. |
120,625 | I got this error when I checked out my database from source control. It might sounds weird to check in the sql server database, but this was what I have done because this is just a personal project.
Anyone knows how to fix this? | 2008/09/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/120625",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3834/"
] | Here's my finding.
As mentioned by other posters, you really don't want to check database files into and out of the source control.
But if you absolutely need to, and you have done check in the database files and you are encountering the same error that I encountered, here is a workaround:
First, detach the database, then, delete the ldf file, reattach the database again.
This is how I solved my problem. | Did you take a copy of the log file (.ldf) as well as the ".mdf" file? You need the matching set of both to re-attach the database |
120,625 | I got this error when I checked out my database from source control. It might sounds weird to check in the sql server database, but this was what I have done because this is just a personal project.
Anyone knows how to fix this? | 2008/09/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/120625",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3834/"
] | Here's my finding.
As mentioned by other posters, you really don't want to check database files into and out of the source control.
But if you absolutely need to, and you have done check in the database files and you are encountering the same error that I encountered, here is a workaround:
First, detach the database, then, delete the ldf file, reattach the database again.
This is how I solved my problem. | This sounds like the data files do not match the structure files of your database.
Shortly spoken, the files where your data (i.e. table rows) resides in are (mostly) not the files the structure of your data (i.e. the description of the tables) is stored. At least in "modern" RDBMS systems. So you checked out your data and the database recognized some changes in the structure which happened till then (you altered a table or something like that).
The way "to fix this" would be to check in all files your database relies on, but I think that is not really what you wanted to achieve. Better (as mentioned above) to do backups and then drop / restore the database from them. |
5,891 | This is my first shot at homebrewing, using Northern Brewer's American Wheat Beer kit which is based on liquid malt extract, Willamette and Cascade hops, and a packet of dry yeast. I brewed and put the hopped wort into fermentation on Friday. By Sunday morning (~40 hours later), fermentation seemed to be moving along at a good clip -- I could see bubbles traveling through the airlock about once every 2 seconds.
However, by Monday morning, bubbling had completely stopped. The weather (and my house) had gotten considerably cooler overnight, so thinking the cold was to blame, I moved the fermenter into the warmest room in the house (which still probably never goes over 70 Fahrenheit). Still, no bubbling as of Tuesday evening.
I was under the impression that fermentation should be vigorous for at least a few days.
I've been doing some research and realize now that when I was brewing I didn't really understand the importance of aerating the wort. I shook it around for a minute or so in the fermenter on brewing day, but maybe that wasn't enough? Also, I didn't realize until brewing day that I should have been keeping the dry yeast packet in the fridge/freezer -- it had been sitting out in my basement (60-75 Fahrenheit) for at least a month. Oops.
Any thoughts on if I screwed something up or if there's a way to fix it (if it really needs fixed)?
I'd appreciate any help. Thanks!
**Update:**
At the suggestion of Denny (and some other homebrewers I talked to in person), I decided to just let the fermentation run its course and I'm happy to report that fermentation seems to have worked -- my original gravity was 1.041 (possibly slightly higher as the reading was taken warm) and after two weeks on bottling day I was at 1.016 = 60% attenuation (right?). Although the Safale US-05 Ale Yeast I used doesn't give attenuation specs, some folks on a forum said they usually get at least 70% from that strain, so it's possible that fermentation might have been a little stunted from the yeast not being refrigerated.
The beer is conditioning in the bottles now, so hopefully it will taste good when I crack one open in a couple weeks. Thanks everyone for all the input -- if nothing else I've learned the importance of taking good care of the yeast. | 2012/01/04 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/5891",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/1993/"
] | Bubbling really tells you nothing other than CO2 is being released. It's not a reliable indicator of fermentation.
In addition, if you ferment in a bucket and have a loose seal you won't see bubbles. Aeration is needed so that the yeast can use the O2 to synthesize sterols to build new cells. Because the cell count in dry yeast is so much higher than liquid yeast, aeration is much less important. Your yeast should have been kept refrigerated, though, so the cell count may be down a bit. It probably wasn't a fatal mistake.
In short, I wouldn't worry. Give it a week or so, then take a gravity reading to see where you're at. | Previously I was mistaken. Yeast do not abide by the same rules as mammalian cells which I am familiar, who prefer aerobic respiration when there is oxygen. Instead when yeast are introduced into the wort (which is over 1% by weight sugar), regardless of the presence of oxygen, they immediately enter fermentation and begin producing ethanol. This is called the Crabtree effect and is probably induced because they yeast want to use the O2 create sterols that are required to make more yeast. Apparently the yeast trade off a more efficient respiratory process for growth.
The sugar from the wort is thus fermented and during this process CO2 is released in the final step where lactic acid is converted into ethanol and CO2. For each of the glucose molecules produces 2 molecules of ethanol and CO2. Thus the bubbling observed in beer fermentation comes from fermentation which is initiated at pitching of the yeast. The yeast are using primarily anaerobic respiration and also dividing simultaneously.
In answer to your question your beer is likely going to be fine. I typically wait till the yeast has dropped out of suspension (flocculated) to make a layer on the bottom of the fermenter. That usually means the yeast are done and it is time to bottle. Just make sure to take hydrometer readings after a week or so and bottle or keg when it reaches the final gravity you want. |
5,891 | This is my first shot at homebrewing, using Northern Brewer's American Wheat Beer kit which is based on liquid malt extract, Willamette and Cascade hops, and a packet of dry yeast. I brewed and put the hopped wort into fermentation on Friday. By Sunday morning (~40 hours later), fermentation seemed to be moving along at a good clip -- I could see bubbles traveling through the airlock about once every 2 seconds.
However, by Monday morning, bubbling had completely stopped. The weather (and my house) had gotten considerably cooler overnight, so thinking the cold was to blame, I moved the fermenter into the warmest room in the house (which still probably never goes over 70 Fahrenheit). Still, no bubbling as of Tuesday evening.
I was under the impression that fermentation should be vigorous for at least a few days.
I've been doing some research and realize now that when I was brewing I didn't really understand the importance of aerating the wort. I shook it around for a minute or so in the fermenter on brewing day, but maybe that wasn't enough? Also, I didn't realize until brewing day that I should have been keeping the dry yeast packet in the fridge/freezer -- it had been sitting out in my basement (60-75 Fahrenheit) for at least a month. Oops.
Any thoughts on if I screwed something up or if there's a way to fix it (if it really needs fixed)?
I'd appreciate any help. Thanks!
**Update:**
At the suggestion of Denny (and some other homebrewers I talked to in person), I decided to just let the fermentation run its course and I'm happy to report that fermentation seems to have worked -- my original gravity was 1.041 (possibly slightly higher as the reading was taken warm) and after two weeks on bottling day I was at 1.016 = 60% attenuation (right?). Although the Safale US-05 Ale Yeast I used doesn't give attenuation specs, some folks on a forum said they usually get at least 70% from that strain, so it's possible that fermentation might have been a little stunted from the yeast not being refrigerated.
The beer is conditioning in the bottles now, so hopefully it will taste good when I crack one open in a couple weeks. Thanks everyone for all the input -- if nothing else I've learned the importance of taking good care of the yeast. | 2012/01/04 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/5891",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/1993/"
] | Bubbling really tells you nothing other than CO2 is being released. It's not a reliable indicator of fermentation.
In addition, if you ferment in a bucket and have a loose seal you won't see bubbles. Aeration is needed so that the yeast can use the O2 to synthesize sterols to build new cells. Because the cell count in dry yeast is so much higher than liquid yeast, aeration is much less important. Your yeast should have been kept refrigerated, though, so the cell count may be down a bit. It probably wasn't a fatal mistake.
In short, I wouldn't worry. Give it a week or so, then take a gravity reading to see where you're at. | If you used a plastic bucket and lid for primary fermentation, there are basically two types of buckets and lids. The cheaper ones are designed without a rubber gasket or o-ring in the lid. I used these for a while and experienced what you did every time. As pressure builds in the bucket, CO2 escapes through the seal between the lid & the bucket. Thus reducing the visual effect through your airlock. When I purchased the set up with an o-ring in the lid, fermentation was visible through the air lock for 5-7 days although the visual effect slowed down considerably. I have since replaced all my buckets with lid types as the visual effect lets me know when fermentation is really winding down. |
5,891 | This is my first shot at homebrewing, using Northern Brewer's American Wheat Beer kit which is based on liquid malt extract, Willamette and Cascade hops, and a packet of dry yeast. I brewed and put the hopped wort into fermentation on Friday. By Sunday morning (~40 hours later), fermentation seemed to be moving along at a good clip -- I could see bubbles traveling through the airlock about once every 2 seconds.
However, by Monday morning, bubbling had completely stopped. The weather (and my house) had gotten considerably cooler overnight, so thinking the cold was to blame, I moved the fermenter into the warmest room in the house (which still probably never goes over 70 Fahrenheit). Still, no bubbling as of Tuesday evening.
I was under the impression that fermentation should be vigorous for at least a few days.
I've been doing some research and realize now that when I was brewing I didn't really understand the importance of aerating the wort. I shook it around for a minute or so in the fermenter on brewing day, but maybe that wasn't enough? Also, I didn't realize until brewing day that I should have been keeping the dry yeast packet in the fridge/freezer -- it had been sitting out in my basement (60-75 Fahrenheit) for at least a month. Oops.
Any thoughts on if I screwed something up or if there's a way to fix it (if it really needs fixed)?
I'd appreciate any help. Thanks!
**Update:**
At the suggestion of Denny (and some other homebrewers I talked to in person), I decided to just let the fermentation run its course and I'm happy to report that fermentation seems to have worked -- my original gravity was 1.041 (possibly slightly higher as the reading was taken warm) and after two weeks on bottling day I was at 1.016 = 60% attenuation (right?). Although the Safale US-05 Ale Yeast I used doesn't give attenuation specs, some folks on a forum said they usually get at least 70% from that strain, so it's possible that fermentation might have been a little stunted from the yeast not being refrigerated.
The beer is conditioning in the bottles now, so hopefully it will taste good when I crack one open in a couple weeks. Thanks everyone for all the input -- if nothing else I've learned the importance of taking good care of the yeast. | 2012/01/04 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/5891",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/1993/"
] | Previously I was mistaken. Yeast do not abide by the same rules as mammalian cells which I am familiar, who prefer aerobic respiration when there is oxygen. Instead when yeast are introduced into the wort (which is over 1% by weight sugar), regardless of the presence of oxygen, they immediately enter fermentation and begin producing ethanol. This is called the Crabtree effect and is probably induced because they yeast want to use the O2 create sterols that are required to make more yeast. Apparently the yeast trade off a more efficient respiratory process for growth.
The sugar from the wort is thus fermented and during this process CO2 is released in the final step where lactic acid is converted into ethanol and CO2. For each of the glucose molecules produces 2 molecules of ethanol and CO2. Thus the bubbling observed in beer fermentation comes from fermentation which is initiated at pitching of the yeast. The yeast are using primarily anaerobic respiration and also dividing simultaneously.
In answer to your question your beer is likely going to be fine. I typically wait till the yeast has dropped out of suspension (flocculated) to make a layer on the bottom of the fermenter. That usually means the yeast are done and it is time to bottle. Just make sure to take hydrometer readings after a week or so and bottle or keg when it reaches the final gravity you want. | If you used a plastic bucket and lid for primary fermentation, there are basically two types of buckets and lids. The cheaper ones are designed without a rubber gasket or o-ring in the lid. I used these for a while and experienced what you did every time. As pressure builds in the bucket, CO2 escapes through the seal between the lid & the bucket. Thus reducing the visual effect through your airlock. When I purchased the set up with an o-ring in the lid, fermentation was visible through the air lock for 5-7 days although the visual effect slowed down considerably. I have since replaced all my buckets with lid types as the visual effect lets me know when fermentation is really winding down. |
680,039 | My earphones only work when I plug them halfway, but only on the laptop. When I do that on my Iphone 4s there is no sound and If I plug the whole thing in I only hear the background noise. I think its something from the jack, but when I move the wire closely to the jack it works for a second and then disappear again.
Where do you think the problem is? | 2013/11/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/680039",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/276164/"
] | Have you tested another earphone? Sometimes when the wires are broken or in a short circuit in earphones, earphones exhibit this behavior. If that is the case, it should be replaced. | It sounds like (no pun intended) you have a problem in at least one of the wires in the headphone cable - most likely the ground connection.
Unless those 'phones are particularly valuable it's likely easiest to just replace them.
If the break is near the plug, a technician can fit a new plug for may be $30-$50, so if they're expensive 'phones that might be worthwhile. |
680,039 | My earphones only work when I plug them halfway, but only on the laptop. When I do that on my Iphone 4s there is no sound and If I plug the whole thing in I only hear the background noise. I think its something from the jack, but when I move the wire closely to the jack it works for a second and then disappear again.
Where do you think the problem is? | 2013/11/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/680039",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/276164/"
] | I thought my headphones were messed up. Tried them in 2 computers, and they would only work when halfway unplugged.
I tried cleaning them off by wiping the plug and it didn't help, but then I tried again another day, cleaning the plug more thoroughly and now they work great again.
They are the 3 conductor band type with 2 little insulator sections between. It seems that conductive dust or something can get on the insulator that isn't even visible and make them not work. Try this first before more drastic steps. Hope it helps. | It sounds like (no pun intended) you have a problem in at least one of the wires in the headphone cable - most likely the ground connection.
Unless those 'phones are particularly valuable it's likely easiest to just replace them.
If the break is near the plug, a technician can fit a new plug for may be $30-$50, so if they're expensive 'phones that might be worthwhile. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | I suggest you watch Josh Bloch's "Performance Anxiety" talk on Parleys.com. <http://www.parleys.com/#st=5&id=2103&sl=1>
\*\*update \*\* sadly, after some years the link is not valid anymore | you could try writing a small program with say 100000 bitwise ops, use the timer function to determine the runtime. Then do the same thing for the logical ops. Run them a few times and check out the results. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | >
> I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to logical operators if possible?
>
>
>
Strange, you went from asking a trivia question about performance to asking if you should actually do it in your code. Well the second one is easy. No. The costs to you as a developer writing less legible code will overwhelm the nanosecond difference in CPU cost. If you need to optimize this much anyway use C or C++. | Like schrodinger's cat **Yes and No** at the same time.
It depends on what you're doing really ! I once did a sudoku solver with and without bitwise operation. Here my benchmark :
* With : 0.9 millis
* Without : 50 millis
I was using backtracking algorithm so it explain a lot why it was so much faster with bitwise operation since sodoku is a NP-Complete (maybe NP-Hard) problem.
But, like other already told you, it is really difficult to read and maintain (I'll never go back in my sudoku solver to make any changes, I wouldn't understand at some place what I did).
In ***general***, bitwise operation are always faster then any counterpart but unless what you're doing is the bottle neck of an critical software, I wouldn't recommends using it for no reason other than that one. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | Bitwise operators avoid branching instructions, even in Java code execution. As a result you have no expensive branch prediction misses and no jumps at all.
From my experience, they *can* be measurably faster when used in code that is executed often enough. Keep in mind, though, that the bitwise operators are not short-circuiting ones, which may actually have a negative impact on performance in some cases.
That said, such micro-optimizations should only be used as a last resort and only after a profiler tells you to do so - readability and maintainability comes first. | The Java compiler just compiles to byte code which is rather far from actual machine code. It is the responsibility of the JVM to do that, and modern JVM's like HotSpot are quite good at doing so. Hence write the simplest, clearest code that does what you need to do.
In short, you will most likely not be able to measure any difference.
To see the actual machine code generated you need to ask the JVM to show you. This is vendor dependent. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | I suggest you watch Josh Bloch's "Performance Anxiety" talk on Parleys.com. <http://www.parleys.com/#st=5&id=2103&sl=1>
\*\*update \*\* sadly, after some years the link is not valid anymore | Like schrodinger's cat **Yes and No** at the same time.
It depends on what you're doing really ! I once did a sudoku solver with and without bitwise operation. Here my benchmark :
* With : 0.9 millis
* Without : 50 millis
I was using backtracking algorithm so it explain a lot why it was so much faster with bitwise operation since sodoku is a NP-Complete (maybe NP-Hard) problem.
But, like other already told you, it is really difficult to read and maintain (I'll never go back in my sudoku solver to make any changes, I wouldn't understand at some place what I did).
In ***general***, bitwise operation are always faster then any counterpart but unless what you're doing is the bottle neck of an critical software, I wouldn't recommends using it for no reason other than that one. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | Bitwise operators avoid branching instructions, even in Java code execution. As a result you have no expensive branch prediction misses and no jumps at all.
From my experience, they *can* be measurably faster when used in code that is executed often enough. Keep in mind, though, that the bitwise operators are not short-circuiting ones, which may actually have a negative impact on performance in some cases.
That said, such micro-optimizations should only be used as a last resort and only after a profiler tells you to do so - readability and maintainability comes first. | No.
First, using bitwise operators in contrast to logical operators is prone to error (e.g., doing a right-shift by 1 is NOT equivalent to multiplying by two).
Second, the performance benefit is negligible (if any).
Last but not least, using logical operators conveys meaning much better. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | Most of that would just be optimized by the compiler anyway. A quick Google shows [this handy guide](http://weblogs.java.net/blog/kohsuke/archive/2008/03/deep_dive_into.html) to viewing your Java as assembler. I've always been of the opinion that legible, human-readable code is more important than a few fewer nanoseconds of CPU time.
Java isn't the greatest language to pull extreme speed from thanks to the extra layer of the JVM. If you're interested in such precise optimizations, you may want to move to another language such as C/C++. [This list](http://benchmarksgame.alioth.debian.org/) shows what languages you may want to look into. | No.
First, using bitwise operators in contrast to logical operators is prone to error (e.g., doing a right-shift by 1 is NOT equivalent to multiplying by two).
Second, the performance benefit is negligible (if any).
Last but not least, using logical operators conveys meaning much better. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | I suggest you watch Josh Bloch's "Performance Anxiety" talk on Parleys.com. <http://www.parleys.com/#st=5&id=2103&sl=1>
\*\*update \*\* sadly, after some years the link is not valid anymore | >
> I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to logical operators if possible?
>
>
>
Strange, you went from asking a trivia question about performance to asking if you should actually do it in your code. Well the second one is easy. No. The costs to you as a developer writing less legible code will overwhelm the nanosecond difference in CPU cost. If you need to optimize this much anyway use C or C++. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | Bitwise operators avoid branching instructions, even in Java code execution. As a result you have no expensive branch prediction misses and no jumps at all.
From my experience, they *can* be measurably faster when used in code that is executed often enough. Keep in mind, though, that the bitwise operators are not short-circuiting ones, which may actually have a negative impact on performance in some cases.
That said, such micro-optimizations should only be used as a last resort and only after a profiler tells you to do so - readability and maintainability comes first. | Like schrodinger's cat **Yes and No** at the same time.
It depends on what you're doing really ! I once did a sudoku solver with and without bitwise operation. Here my benchmark :
* With : 0.9 millis
* Without : 50 millis
I was using backtracking algorithm so it explain a lot why it was so much faster with bitwise operation since sodoku is a NP-Complete (maybe NP-Hard) problem.
But, like other already told you, it is really difficult to read and maintain (I'll never go back in my sudoku solver to make any changes, I wouldn't understand at some place what I did).
In ***general***, bitwise operation are always faster then any counterpart but unless what you're doing is the bottle neck of an critical software, I wouldn't recommends using it for no reason other than that one. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | Most of that would just be optimized by the compiler anyway. A quick Google shows [this handy guide](http://weblogs.java.net/blog/kohsuke/archive/2008/03/deep_dive_into.html) to viewing your Java as assembler. I've always been of the opinion that legible, human-readable code is more important than a few fewer nanoseconds of CPU time.
Java isn't the greatest language to pull extreme speed from thanks to the extra layer of the JVM. If you're interested in such precise optimizations, you may want to move to another language such as C/C++. [This list](http://benchmarksgame.alioth.debian.org/) shows what languages you may want to look into. | The Java compiler just compiles to byte code which is rather far from actual machine code. It is the responsibility of the JVM to do that, and modern JVM's like HotSpot are quite good at doing so. Hence write the simplest, clearest code that does what you need to do.
In short, you will most likely not be able to measure any difference.
To see the actual machine code generated you need to ask the JVM to show you. This is vendor dependent. |
11,052,362 | Cut and dry... while I never have enough logical operations for it to be a performance bottleneck - I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to the same-named logical operators (&& and ||) if possible? Perhaps the question can be prefaced by the fact that I don't know of a library to convert Java to assembly to see the # of operations. | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11052362",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1222564/"
] | >
> I wonder, would I be better off using bitwise and (&) and bitwise or (|) as opposed to logical operators if possible?
>
>
>
Strange, you went from asking a trivia question about performance to asking if you should actually do it in your code. Well the second one is easy. No. The costs to you as a developer writing less legible code will overwhelm the nanosecond difference in CPU cost. If you need to optimize this much anyway use C or C++. | you could try writing a small program with say 100000 bitwise ops, use the timer function to determine the runtime. Then do the same thing for the logical ops. Run them a few times and check out the results. |
7,626 | Is wearing ring a Sunnah of the Prophet (PBUH) for men?
**If yes:**
>
> What are the etiquettes in that(ie,which type of ring, in which hand,
> in which finger...)?
>
>
>
**If NO:**
>
> Why many of the muslim scholars and brothers are wearing ring?
>
>
>
Please, provide some references from hadiths. | 2013/03/07 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7626",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/532/"
] | **NOTE:**
---------
Some scholars say that \*Wearing any ring is not Sunnah since the Prophet Mohammed (PBUH) used to wear a ring for signing letters sent to other kings. Because they told him that kings would not accept any letter that has not been signed. Hence, Scholars say it is Sunnah for those who use it to sign papers and documents. And some say it is Sunnah even for normal people
* **Hanafi:** For Rulers, it is Sunnah.
* **Maliki:** It is permissible and recommended to wear a ring since you want to imitate the Prophet (PBUH). and Haram if you wear a ring to show off
* **Hanbli:** It is permissible and **NOT recommended**
* **Shafi:** Sunnah for Rulers and Normal Muslims
---
The Prophet used to wear a ring but scholars have differed about which finger should the person put his ring on because there are many authentic hadiths that tells us that the prophet used to wear it in different fingers and different hands.
**1- Left hand - Maliki, Hanafi, and Hanbali**
**2- Right hand - Shafi**
But Ibn al Qayim said: "There are different hadiths about wearing the ring in the right or left hand but all of them are authentic(correct)".
And Sheikh Ibn Uthaymeen said: "It is considered a Sunnah if you wear the ring in the right hand or the left hand"
Now this is a Hadith that answers all of your questions:
>
> Thabit narrated that : They asked Anas about the ring of the Messenger of Allah [SAW] and he said: "It is as if I can see the shining of his silver ring, and he raised his right little finger."
>
>
>
An-Nasai (Sahih)
---
More Hadiths:
>
> Anas reported that the ring of Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) was on this, and he pointed toward the little finger of his left hand.
>
>
>
Sahih Muslim
>
> Nafi' said that Ibn 'Umar used to wear his signet-ring on his left hand.
>
>
>
Abi Dawud
>
> Yahya related to me from Malik that Sadaqa ibn Yasar said, "I asked Said ibn al-Musayyab about wearing a ring. He said, 'Wear it, and tell people that I gave you that decision.' "
>
>
>
Muwata Malik
**The ring was made from:**
>
> Anas b. Malik reported that the ring of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) was made of silver and it had an Abyssinian stone in it.
>
>
>
Sahih Muslim
>
> Narrated Anas:
> The ring of the Prophet was of silver, and its stone was of silver too.
>
>
>
Bukhary
>
> Narrated Anas: The signet-ring of the Prophet (saws) was all of silver as was also its stone.
>
>
>
Sunan Abi-Dawud
**it is permissible to wear a ring of iron**
>
> In al-Saheehayn it is narrated from Sahl ibn Sa’d al-Ansaari (RA) that the Prophet (PBUH) said to the one who proposed marriage to the woman who had offered herself in marriage to the Prophet (PBUH):
> "Look for something (to give as a dowry), even if it is a ring of iron."
>
>
>
[Abu Dawood] and [al-Nasaa’i]
Thus it is clear that the more correct view is that it is not makrooh (discourage) to wear a ring of iron. But wearing a ring of silver is better, because the ring of the Prophet (PBUH) was made of silver, as is proven in al-Saheehayn.
---
However, you are **not allowed to wear a golden ring:**
>
> Abu Huraira reported that Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) forbade the wearing of gold signet ring.
>
>
>
Sahih Muslim
>
> It was narrated from 'Abidah, from 'Ali, he said: "He forbade red Al-Mayathir, wearing Al-Qassi, and gold rings."
>
>
>
An-Nasai (Sahih)
>
> It was narrated that Ibn 'Umar said: "The Messenger of Allah [SAW] started to wear a gold ring, and the people started to wear gold rings. The Messenger of Allah [SAW] said: 'I was wearing this ring, but I will never wear it again.' He threw it away and the people threw their rings away.'"
>
>
>
An-Nasai(Sahih)
Another thing, the prophet **used to remove his ring** when entering the bathroom because it was written on it (There is not God but allah, Mohammed is the messenger of Allah)
>
> Narrated Anas bin Malik (rad): Allah’s Messenger (saw) used to remove his ring when entering the lavatory.[Reported by Al-Arba’a and it is defective].
>
>
>
Buligh Al-Maram
**Another prohibition** is that you must not wear it in these 2 fingers
>
> 'Ali reported: Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) forbade me that I should wear a ring in this and that finger of mine, and he pointed to the middle finger and the next one.
>
>
>
Sahih Muslim | **According to the viewpoint of the Prophet (pbuh) and Shia (narrations), it is a tradition to wear a ring.** The design, material and appearance of the ring have all been mentioned in the hadiths. On the other hand, It has also been pointed out to wear the ring on the right hand. Of course it is not a Wajib (indispensable) act, it is just a Mustahab act.
**For instance, our hadiths have mentioned regarding Aghigh:**
>
> aghigh (a type of stone, mostly found in Yemen, normally dark red or
> brown) has been recommended and it has been said to bring abundance
> and protection from disaster and catastrophe.[1]
>
>
>
For further information and to find your complete answer ( regarding the types of rings, stones, and likewise which hand and finger..), I strongly recommend you to see the following links.
Wasa’el-ul-Shia, v.5, pg.91.
Source(s):
<http://islamquest.net/en/archive/question/fa1144>
<http://islamquest.net/en/archive/question/fa1962> |
71,194 | I'm planning to change my kit and move to Sony SLT system (I have special, personal reasons).
I currently own the above mentioned flash. I would like to know how I possibly could use it on a Sony SLT camera, like the Alpha 58 or Alpha 77 II for example. Can I even use it? If yes, what are the limitations? For example does the E-TTL feature work in some way?
Thank you for the answers in advance. | 2015/11/24 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/71194",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46595/"
] | For photographic images and when a not too high level of compression is used, the loss of quality in the JPEG format is negligible and invisible. You'll pretty much only be able to notice it by directly comparing individual pixels around sharp edges or in very smooth color gradients.
This is why JPEG is so popular. If it always resulted in noticeable loss of quality, people would not be using it so much. | For the following answer: when referring to a file that contains the contents of a disk image file we will use "IMG". When referring to a file that contains a picture in an actual visual image format, we will use "image".
If the information in your question is taken at face value
----------------------------------------------------------
It appears to be mainly due to the limited resolution of the original image file contained in the IMG file, or to the resolution your application used when it converted the IMG file to an image file, be it .png or .jpeg. 4.5MB is not very large for a raw image file. It is quite possible the image file contained in the IMG file was already in a compressed format such as jpeg.
IMG is not a visual image file format per se. It is a format for creating an IMAGE (or copy) of a digital storage drive.
If your question is really about converting files downloaded from NASA's Planetary Data System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The 4.5MB file you downloaded appears to have been the "IMG2PNG" application used to convert image files from NASA's Planetary Data Systems network to .png files. That is the size of the file of the convertor written by Bjorn Jonsson and popularly available on the internet.
If the image file you downloaded was also 4.5MB, then it was not a very high resolution file to begin with. It is likely that the .jpeg version released by NASA was minimally compressed and contained just as much visual information that can be perceived by human vision as the original file you downloaded from PDS.
Also note that when used in the context of imagery from a NASA probe sent to investigate other bodies in the Solar System, referring to a "raw" image does not mean the same thing as when we refer to a "raw" image from a typical digital camera. It just means that NASA has released an image to the public without it first being highly processed and scientifically calibrated to correct for things such as optical distortion of the camera system on the probe, color variations, etc. Most "raw" images released to the public by NASA that are of pictures produced by planetary probes are released in the .jpeg format. Please see [this link](http://www.planetary.org/explore/space-topics/space-imaging/data.html?referrer=https://www.google.com/) for more. |
7,371 | I have an old device that I am sure works on either 1200,2400,4800 or 9600 bauds (actual setting is controlled by physical switches that I don't have access to)
What's the most efficient method (other than brute force) to try all the possible permutations of:
* Baud rate
* Data bits
* Stop bits
* Parity
* Flow control
What I'm really hoping is one of the following:
1. Do all settings matter? (If you can tell me that some settings are
optional I don't even have to permutate those in my trial and error)
2. Do some settings give me an indication that I'm on the right track
(for example I got partial output on baud rate 9600 - continuous
solid white squares that looks like ascii 178 .. by the way how do I know what I'm getting in Putty other than visually trying to match it to ASCII table? Is there a better tool that displays the raw bits coming in?
3. Some other tricks that will help me figure it out (Ex. I'm using
putty on windows right now, but maybe there is linux script that can
connect to all different permutations one by one?)
4. Some "smell" that tells me about what to try next. Ex. Let's say I
get output that scrambled in a particular way, what does that tell
me that I need to try next?
5. Relationship between settings and input/output functionality. (For
example, my attempt with 9600 bauds gave me that scrambled output
upon hitting the enter key - but only once. After that I had to
reboot the device to see that again. It's almost as though input
stopped working after the first try. Does that tell me anything?)
6. Anything else that can help? Special program? Special tool? Some
kind of a measurement?
Note: Yes I tried looking for this information in the manual/online. It's not documented for some reason. And even if I find the actual answer, I'm still curious if this is a problem that can be fixed without a manual with enough perserverence. This device was manufactured between 1990 to 2000 if that helps. (maybe some options were not common at that time and I can eliminate them from my permutations)
Edit: I left out the device name on purpose to see if I could get the most general response. I'm not really THAT interested in figuring out this device, I am interested in steps to reverse engineer this in general. (So far I like the answers I'm getting - thank you!) Nevertheless this is a Liebert RAC2-8-EK auto changeover control panel. Once I figure it out I will add the settings so that others don't have to fight with it. The reason I can't change the baud rate switches is because even though they are listed in the manual, I just can't see them. I see all the other switches, but not those ones. I am guessing they are "deeper in" and I don't want to take it apart just to see. Or maybe I'm just blind ... I spent one hour staring at the manual and at the board and I just can't see them. I'm sure this is a text protocol (not binary). About the echo question, it's weird because only reboot can show those white squares. Once it's booted it's hit and miss. Sometimes there is nothing echoed. (Right now it's connected to live equipment so I can't keep rebooting it, but I will take it out of operation next week so I hope to be able to reboot it many times then). I do not have a logic analyzer or oscilloscope. All I have is USB->Serial adapter | 2018/08/24 | [
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/7371",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/users/10428/"
] | First: Concentrate on one thing and one data direction at a time to be able to work systematically - Don't change more than one setting between tries.
RS-232 interface lines work in pairs, TX/RX, RTS/CTS, DTR/DSR (and maybe DCD) are the pairs that need to be interconnected. DTR/DSR/DCD exchange somewhat "static" information ("this device is switched on and ready to receive/send"), while the RTS/CTS pair typically signals dynamic capability ("ready to receive/send the next character").
1. Get the wiring right. A serial device can work, in theory, with only three connected wires: TX, RX, Signal ground. In practice, it sometimes doesn't. Start with connecting these three wires in order to at least get *something* across. We don't care for now whether the characters transferred are garbled or lost, we just want *something* to show up. Make sure your known testing equipment (the PC you are testing with) is not the culprit. Locally connecting CTS and RTS, DSR and DTR should enable most PC interfaces to send and receive independently from the connected device. When sending and receiving now and nothing shows up on the other end, your device "wants" some more of the handshake lines to enable receive and send. (Remember we don't care yet **what** shows up on the other end, we're happy if *something* is transferred. Baud rate, XON/XOFF handshake, even garbled characters are irrelevant at this point.
2. In case you don't get anything to transfer, do the same local bridging on the device end. If that doesn't help, add an additional local bridge between DCD and DSR on both ends. If you still can't receive or send, your device is either broken or uses non-standard lines for the handshake. Try various settings on your known device on parity bits and stop bits until you can get, again, *something* back and forth.
3. As soon as you can get *anything* across the line with the above methods, you can start removing the local bridges one after the other and extend the signals to the corresponding remote end - start with RTS/CTS, remove the local bridges for these signals and connect them to the remote counterpart. As soon as the transmission stops working, revert that step.
4. At this point, the wiring should be OK. We can start trying to work out getting characters across *properly* by fixing baud rate, parity and stop bits to the proper values. Try baud rates of 300, 1200, 2400, and (on more modern devices) 9600 and 19200. Once you see at least some non-garbled characters, you very probably have the baud rate right. Older equipment tends to use 2 stop bits as the hardware needed the time to process the received character. Devices that simply stop working when overrun or detect framing errors are the most devilish - There's not much more you can do than to power cycle the device between tests and try out a new combination.
5. After you got comms at least basically working, take note of te settings and wiring. If you don't experience any problems, even with higher data volumes, you are probably fine. In case the comms tend to lose character or characters are sometimes garbled, you need to fix the handshake. RTS/CTS or XON/XOFF come to mind - A good terminal program on the PC end should detect incoming XOFF characters and that should tell you whether you need to enable software handshake on the PC. | The way I do it (and I've had to do it quite a few times) is to hook it up to a storage oscilloscope.
Then just hook onto pin 7 (ground) and 2 or 3 (TX or RX, one at a time) and type on the keyboard, or otherwise get the device to generate ASCII.
If you know how to use an oscilloscope, you can easily see the pulses, measure their timing (to figure out the bit rate) and count the number of bits and parity. |
44,516 | I am attempting to build mocoLUFA under OS X el Capitan 10.11.6.
[Editor: [mocoLUFA (MIDI firmware for Arduino Uno)]](https://github.com/kuwatay/mocolufa)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eFF2f.jpg)
I am using the specified LUFA version (LUFA101122) and I have tried building with both brew avr-gcc and also Crosspack-AVR.
The problem I am facing isn't with the build or the install. It's just that as soon as I install the hex file, I get no midi messages at all.
What does work - the OSX machine recognises the MIDI device and the MIDI device appears in DAW's, however MIDI Monitor registers no messages at all.
I have tried downloading [a custom-built mocoLUFA](https://moco-lufa-web-client.herokuapp.com/) and I am able to install this and it works fine. I see midi messages coming across from my sketch.
Crosspack-AVR installs avr-gcc 4.8.1.
My question is - what is the correct build environment in order to achieve a working mocoLUFA under OSX? I have tried both mocoLUFA and dualMoco and I get the same result with each.
My purpose for this is to modify mocoLUFA so that it can support sending MTC over USB. At present, it appears that mocoLUFA does not support System Common messages.
UPDATE: Built fresh Ubuntu VM. Installed avr-gcc, avr-libc, LUFA-100807 and mocoulfa. Same result. hex builds fine, no response from the atmega16u2. TX light flashing, sketch on the 2560 running, but no midi messages down the usb cable. | 2017/09/07 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/44516",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/37919/"
] | This is Franco, from Yaeltex, the guys who put up that site for custom MocoLUFA compiling.
Our site works on an Ubuntu server, and the build environment can be seen at the bottom of the site, which is as follows:
1. Ubuntu Server Setup
* avr-gcc: avr-gcc (GCC) 4.9.2
* avrdude: Version 6.3, compiled on Mar 15 2016 at 21:26:45
* LUFA: 100807
* dualMocoLUFA: custom Yaeltex based on 2013/09/22
On the other hand, I use Windows 10 to build locally in my computer, and I have a similar setup with sligthly older versions of avr-gcc and avrdude:
2. Windows 10 Server Setup
* avr-gcc: avr-gcc (GCC) 4.3.3
* avrdude: Version 5.10, compiled on Mar 15 2016 at 21:26:45
* LUFA: 100807
* dualMocoLUFA: custom Yaeltex based on 2013/09/22
Here is a link to the [fork we made to mocoLUFA](https://github.com/Yaeltex/mocolufa-ytx), it has minor changes, that were very useful to us and our hardware.
Regarding your problem, I am really lost on the cause of it, but we can start with some questions to get closer to a solution.
* What kind of MIDI messages are you trying to send/receive?
* Can you share the code you are using?
* Are you using Arduino MIDI Library (Last version is v4.3.1)?
* If not, are you sure you are using 31.250 bps as baud rate?
* Do you have something else connected to TX or RX lines in your circuit?
Let's start with these. Cheers! | I see that you are reading the MIDI messages from your iPad. If so, it is to be noted that LUFA reports 500mA for power requirements. So you could try self powering your USB-HUB.
Source: <http://morecatlab.akiba.coocan.jp/morecat_lab/MocoLUFA.html> |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | Right-click on the Desktop and choose the option for "Configure switchable graphics". In the dialog that appears, you will see an option for "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery". This option controls whether the graphics switch automatically. If you uncheck the box, then the GPU should only switch when you manually change it using the specific buttons.
(Note, this is the procedure on my HP laptop with ATI switchable graphics. I assume it is the same or similar for your Acer, as the drivers should be the same, but I can't guarantee that it'll work.) | 1. Go to graphic properties, "catalyst control center"
2. Click on the *Power* tab
3. Click on "Disable Power Play" |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | Right-click on the Desktop and choose the option for "Configure switchable graphics". In the dialog that appears, you will see an option for "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery". This option controls whether the graphics switch automatically. If you uncheck the box, then the GPU should only switch when you manually change it using the specific buttons.
(Note, this is the procedure on my HP laptop with ATI switchable graphics. I assume it is the same or similar for your Acer, as the drivers should be the same, but I can't guarantee that it'll work.) | I solved it by uninstalling Acer Powersmart Manager |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | Right-click on the Desktop and choose the option for "Configure switchable graphics". In the dialog that appears, you will see an option for "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery". This option controls whether the graphics switch automatically. If you uncheck the box, then the GPU should only switch when you manually change it using the specific buttons.
(Note, this is the procedure on my HP laptop with ATI switchable graphics. I assume it is the same or similar for your Acer, as the drivers should be the same, but I can't guarantee that it'll work.) | /EDIT: for 4820TG and 5820TG laptops, you have an INSYDE bios, so the tutorial below won't work (it works only for Phoenix BIOS like in 3820TG). To check the BIOS you have, you can just type in the Start Menu: "System Information" and open the application that shows up. Inside the list, you should find "BIOS version/date".
If you have the INSYDE bios, you can flash your BIOS using this mod (works directly from Windows, it's a simple executable, and you can always reflash the old bios if something goes wrong):
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-timelinex-4820tg-5820tg-modded-bios-insyde.568951/>
It will add several hidden entries, one of those will be an option "Integrated" for the GPU. I tested and it works great. And indeed, disabling the high-power GPU from the BIOS is the only way to prevent it from sucking energy and from overheating your CPU (because it logically disconnect the card, so that it's just like as if you physically removed it). You can always re-enable it later from the BIOS when you want to use it.
Here's an additional tutorial to learn how to mod your BIOS by yourself to show the hidden menus:
<https://web.archive.org/web/20110830060039/http://forum.notebookreview.com/6124996-post38.html>
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-5740g-bios-hacking-switchable-graphics-not-yet.513877/>
/OLD POST:
An alternative is to mod the BIOS to unlock the hidden Intel menu (it seems to be a classic in Acer products line). There are two ways:
1- by temporarily overwriting the BIOS in NVRAM. For this you need to use a floppy disk or an USB key to boot into DOS and then use a program called SYMCMOS.exe. This is a very good solution because you don't risk very much: if you do a bad manipulation, you can just reinit the bios (either from the bios menu by blindly hitting the shortcut keys to restore the default config, or either by hardware reset of the CMOS battery) and the bios will be back to factory defaults without your NVRAM modifications.
2- by really modifying your BIOS by flashing it with a modded BIOS. This is riskier because there's no way back if it goes wrong.
Using this hidden Intel menu, you can force set either the high power gpu or the low power integrated gpu or switchable graphics (auto, the default).
To my knowledge, this is the most foolproof way to fix the issue, and it works for all OSes since you do the modification at the BIOS level.
For more infos, see: <http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1787312>
Alternatively, before trying the bios approach, you can try on Windows to disable the high power gpu in the Device Manager and uninstall Acer Powersmart Manager (otherwise this software will still force switch to high power gpu even if it's disabled! Making the OS crash).
Also, you may need to disable "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery", and if this option doesn't appear in your Catalyst panel, then it's because your driver doesn't support it. But you can install one that does from leshcatlabs's UniFL drivers list (select one with "Fixed Mode" driver): <http://leshcatlabs.net/downloads_unfil/> |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | I solved it by uninstalling Acer Powersmart Manager | 1. Go to graphic properties, "catalyst control center"
2. Click on the *Power* tab
3. Click on "Disable Power Play" |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | /EDIT: for 4820TG and 5820TG laptops, you have an INSYDE bios, so the tutorial below won't work (it works only for Phoenix BIOS like in 3820TG). To check the BIOS you have, you can just type in the Start Menu: "System Information" and open the application that shows up. Inside the list, you should find "BIOS version/date".
If you have the INSYDE bios, you can flash your BIOS using this mod (works directly from Windows, it's a simple executable, and you can always reflash the old bios if something goes wrong):
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-timelinex-4820tg-5820tg-modded-bios-insyde.568951/>
It will add several hidden entries, one of those will be an option "Integrated" for the GPU. I tested and it works great. And indeed, disabling the high-power GPU from the BIOS is the only way to prevent it from sucking energy and from overheating your CPU (because it logically disconnect the card, so that it's just like as if you physically removed it). You can always re-enable it later from the BIOS when you want to use it.
Here's an additional tutorial to learn how to mod your BIOS by yourself to show the hidden menus:
<https://web.archive.org/web/20110830060039/http://forum.notebookreview.com/6124996-post38.html>
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-5740g-bios-hacking-switchable-graphics-not-yet.513877/>
/OLD POST:
An alternative is to mod the BIOS to unlock the hidden Intel menu (it seems to be a classic in Acer products line). There are two ways:
1- by temporarily overwriting the BIOS in NVRAM. For this you need to use a floppy disk or an USB key to boot into DOS and then use a program called SYMCMOS.exe. This is a very good solution because you don't risk very much: if you do a bad manipulation, you can just reinit the bios (either from the bios menu by blindly hitting the shortcut keys to restore the default config, or either by hardware reset of the CMOS battery) and the bios will be back to factory defaults without your NVRAM modifications.
2- by really modifying your BIOS by flashing it with a modded BIOS. This is riskier because there's no way back if it goes wrong.
Using this hidden Intel menu, you can force set either the high power gpu or the low power integrated gpu or switchable graphics (auto, the default).
To my knowledge, this is the most foolproof way to fix the issue, and it works for all OSes since you do the modification at the BIOS level.
For more infos, see: <http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1787312>
Alternatively, before trying the bios approach, you can try on Windows to disable the high power gpu in the Device Manager and uninstall Acer Powersmart Manager (otherwise this software will still force switch to high power gpu even if it's disabled! Making the OS crash).
Also, you may need to disable "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery", and if this option doesn't appear in your Catalyst panel, then it's because your driver doesn't support it. But you can install one that does from leshcatlabs's UniFL drivers list (select one with "Fixed Mode" driver): <http://leshcatlabs.net/downloads_unfil/> | 1. Go to graphic properties, "catalyst control center"
2. Click on the *Power* tab
3. Click on "Disable Power Play" |
298,383 | I've an Acer laptop with Windows 7 64 bit and an ATI Radeon HD 6550M Graphics card. Whenever I connect the power to charge the battery it automatically switches to the high-power GPU (ATI) instead of the low-power (Intel) GPU.
There's an option in the bios to stop such thing but it makes the GPU runs always on high-power and I can't switch to the low-power GPU.
How can I prevent the switchable graphics from automatically using the high-power GPU when charging? | 2011/06/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/298383",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/41437/"
] | I solved it by uninstalling Acer Powersmart Manager | /EDIT: for 4820TG and 5820TG laptops, you have an INSYDE bios, so the tutorial below won't work (it works only for Phoenix BIOS like in 3820TG). To check the BIOS you have, you can just type in the Start Menu: "System Information" and open the application that shows up. Inside the list, you should find "BIOS version/date".
If you have the INSYDE bios, you can flash your BIOS using this mod (works directly from Windows, it's a simple executable, and you can always reflash the old bios if something goes wrong):
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-timelinex-4820tg-5820tg-modded-bios-insyde.568951/>
It will add several hidden entries, one of those will be an option "Integrated" for the GPU. I tested and it works great. And indeed, disabling the high-power GPU from the BIOS is the only way to prevent it from sucking energy and from overheating your CPU (because it logically disconnect the card, so that it's just like as if you physically removed it). You can always re-enable it later from the BIOS when you want to use it.
Here's an additional tutorial to learn how to mod your BIOS by yourself to show the hidden menus:
<https://web.archive.org/web/20110830060039/http://forum.notebookreview.com/6124996-post38.html>
<http://forum.notebookreview.com/threads/acer-aspire-5740g-bios-hacking-switchable-graphics-not-yet.513877/>
/OLD POST:
An alternative is to mod the BIOS to unlock the hidden Intel menu (it seems to be a classic in Acer products line). There are two ways:
1- by temporarily overwriting the BIOS in NVRAM. For this you need to use a floppy disk or an USB key to boot into DOS and then use a program called SYMCMOS.exe. This is a very good solution because you don't risk very much: if you do a bad manipulation, you can just reinit the bios (either from the bios menu by blindly hitting the shortcut keys to restore the default config, or either by hardware reset of the CMOS battery) and the bios will be back to factory defaults without your NVRAM modifications.
2- by really modifying your BIOS by flashing it with a modded BIOS. This is riskier because there's no way back if it goes wrong.
Using this hidden Intel menu, you can force set either the high power gpu or the low power integrated gpu or switchable graphics (auto, the default).
To my knowledge, this is the most foolproof way to fix the issue, and it works for all OSes since you do the modification at the BIOS level.
For more infos, see: <http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1787312>
Alternatively, before trying the bios approach, you can try on Windows to disable the high power gpu in the Device Manager and uninstall Acer Powersmart Manager (otherwise this software will still force switch to high power gpu even if it's disabled! Making the OS crash).
Also, you may need to disable "Automatically select power-saving GPU when on battery", and if this option doesn't appear in your Catalyst panel, then it's because your driver doesn't support it. But you can install one that does from leshcatlabs's UniFL drivers list (select one with "Fixed Mode" driver): <http://leshcatlabs.net/downloads_unfil/> |
12,930,457 | I've been given a task where I must generate a PDF file, then the customer performs an electronic signature in a certain area on the document.
It will be used on a tablet (I don't know much about it). It must be also be a part of web application, and I've been told that HTML5 can handle this nicely.
Could anyone give me a tip how to start working on this? I have hardly any experience with HTML5. | 2012/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12930457",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1535068/"
] | Sorry for the "very" late reply but I got the same work recently
I am using sencha 2 touch, in which am using a PDF viewer in js Itself try this
<https://github.com/SunboX/st2_pdf_panel>
For the signature part try using this
<https://github.com/SimFla/SimFla-signaturePad>
mind you signature pad needed a lot of changes.
else another solution would be using Mozilla's pdf.js, display that on the canvas and use the same canvas to draw on the signature.
Thanks. Do share if you have already solved this. | There are also commercial solutions, with an API that allows integration into your environments. Check out Namirial.com (former xyzmo), on www.xyzmo.com or www.significant.com |
21,497 | If there are an odd number of competitors at any stage of a single-elimination tournament, one player is excused from play and continues on as if he had defeated his (nonexistent) opponent. This is called "getting a by". Or "getting a bye". Who knows, maybe it's even "getting a buy", although I doubt it.
My dictionary lists *by* as meaning "pass" in card-games, so that suggests that spelling. On the other hand, the image of the referee looking from the single player, to the empty and undefended far side of the field, and then back to the player, shrugging, and saying "Bye", is too strong to easily discard.
Like other parts of the anatomy, everyone's got an opinion. I'm looking for *a cite*. | 2011/04/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/21497",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4040/"
] | Here's what you get:
>
> **bye** 1 |bī|
> *noun*
> 1 the transfer of a competitor directly to the next round of a competition in the absence of an assigned opponent.
>
>
>
[From the New Oxford American Dictionary.] | [According to the OED](http://www.oed.com/view/Entry/25545?rskey=UNee87&result=2&isAdvanced=false#eid), *bye* is correct word.
>
> b. The position of an individual,
> who, in consequence of the numbers
> being odd, is left without a
> competitor after the rest have been
> drawn in pairs.
>
>
>
(OED also points out a few other uses of *bye* in sports, but with different meanings.)
And while it specifically doesn't clarify whether the competitor advances, [the American Heritage Dictionary does point that out](http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/bye).
>
> The position of one who draws no
> opponent for a round in a tournament
> and so advances to the next round.
>
>
> |
21,497 | If there are an odd number of competitors at any stage of a single-elimination tournament, one player is excused from play and continues on as if he had defeated his (nonexistent) opponent. This is called "getting a by". Or "getting a bye". Who knows, maybe it's even "getting a buy", although I doubt it.
My dictionary lists *by* as meaning "pass" in card-games, so that suggests that spelling. On the other hand, the image of the referee looking from the single player, to the empty and undefended far side of the field, and then back to the player, shrugging, and saying "Bye", is too strong to easily discard.
Like other parts of the anatomy, everyone's got an opinion. I'm looking for *a cite*. | 2011/04/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/21497",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4040/"
] | Here's what you get:
>
> **bye** 1 |bī|
> *noun*
> 1 the transfer of a competitor directly to the next round of a competition in the absence of an assigned opponent.
>
>
>
[From the New Oxford American Dictionary.] | I thought it was *bye* from my chess tournament days, and it appears it is [from Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bye_%28sports%29). |
21,497 | If there are an odd number of competitors at any stage of a single-elimination tournament, one player is excused from play and continues on as if he had defeated his (nonexistent) opponent. This is called "getting a by". Or "getting a bye". Who knows, maybe it's even "getting a buy", although I doubt it.
My dictionary lists *by* as meaning "pass" in card-games, so that suggests that spelling. On the other hand, the image of the referee looking from the single player, to the empty and undefended far side of the field, and then back to the player, shrugging, and saying "Bye", is too strong to easily discard.
Like other parts of the anatomy, everyone's got an opinion. I'm looking for *a cite*. | 2011/04/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/21497",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4040/"
] | Here's what you get:
>
> **bye** 1 |bī|
> *noun*
> 1 the transfer of a competitor directly to the next round of a competition in the absence of an assigned opponent.
>
>
>
[From the New Oxford American Dictionary.] | *Bye* refers to the practice of allowing a player or team to advance to the next round of a playoff tournament without playing. This is from The New Meriram-Webster's Dictionary. Since tournament is what has been asked for, so for me it is "bye". |
21,497 | If there are an odd number of competitors at any stage of a single-elimination tournament, one player is excused from play and continues on as if he had defeated his (nonexistent) opponent. This is called "getting a by". Or "getting a bye". Who knows, maybe it's even "getting a buy", although I doubt it.
My dictionary lists *by* as meaning "pass" in card-games, so that suggests that spelling. On the other hand, the image of the referee looking from the single player, to the empty and undefended far side of the field, and then back to the player, shrugging, and saying "Bye", is too strong to easily discard.
Like other parts of the anatomy, everyone's got an opinion. I'm looking for *a cite*. | 2011/04/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/21497",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4040/"
] | [According to the OED](http://www.oed.com/view/Entry/25545?rskey=UNee87&result=2&isAdvanced=false#eid), *bye* is correct word.
>
> b. The position of an individual,
> who, in consequence of the numbers
> being odd, is left without a
> competitor after the rest have been
> drawn in pairs.
>
>
>
(OED also points out a few other uses of *bye* in sports, but with different meanings.)
And while it specifically doesn't clarify whether the competitor advances, [the American Heritage Dictionary does point that out](http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/bye).
>
> The position of one who draws no
> opponent for a round in a tournament
> and so advances to the next round.
>
>
> | I thought it was *bye* from my chess tournament days, and it appears it is [from Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bye_%28sports%29). |
21,497 | If there are an odd number of competitors at any stage of a single-elimination tournament, one player is excused from play and continues on as if he had defeated his (nonexistent) opponent. This is called "getting a by". Or "getting a bye". Who knows, maybe it's even "getting a buy", although I doubt it.
My dictionary lists *by* as meaning "pass" in card-games, so that suggests that spelling. On the other hand, the image of the referee looking from the single player, to the empty and undefended far side of the field, and then back to the player, shrugging, and saying "Bye", is too strong to easily discard.
Like other parts of the anatomy, everyone's got an opinion. I'm looking for *a cite*. | 2011/04/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/21497",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4040/"
] | [According to the OED](http://www.oed.com/view/Entry/25545?rskey=UNee87&result=2&isAdvanced=false#eid), *bye* is correct word.
>
> b. The position of an individual,
> who, in consequence of the numbers
> being odd, is left without a
> competitor after the rest have been
> drawn in pairs.
>
>
>
(OED also points out a few other uses of *bye* in sports, but with different meanings.)
And while it specifically doesn't clarify whether the competitor advances, [the American Heritage Dictionary does point that out](http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/bye).
>
> The position of one who draws no
> opponent for a round in a tournament
> and so advances to the next round.
>
>
> | *Bye* refers to the practice of allowing a player or team to advance to the next round of a playoff tournament without playing. This is from The New Meriram-Webster's Dictionary. Since tournament is what has been asked for, so for me it is "bye". |
194,443 | Recently in my android smartphone, while toggling GPS the notification popping up "in.android.location.PROVIDERS\_CHANGED".
Why this is happening recently & not before and how to disable it? | 2018/04/10 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/194443",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/17910/"
] | Resolved by uninstalling the NoBroker app. | There are some apps that give debug messages for location, as in my case one assistant app. As soon as I uninstalled the app, the messages disappeared. |
426 | Mantras in Hinduism are sacrosanct and must not be uttered/chanted injudiciously nor should they be heard or given outside proper procedure. There is rampant disregard for this rule on this forum and people indiscriminately provide all mantras including the gayatri in their answers. I think questions seeking mantras must be deleted as should answers containing them. For this purpose, the definition of mantra should be
1. Anything that contains a beejakshara
2. Any portion of scripture that requires a certain procedural chanting and initiation (like the devi bhagavatam/chandi saptasati or sundarakanda)
This rule must be enforced if the purpose of this SE is indeed upholding and propagating Hinduism in its true form.
Kamakoti peetham offers some advice on mantrAdhikAra and dIkSAdhikAra.
<http://www.kamakotimandali.com/blog/index.php?p=112&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1> | 2015/12/02 | [
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/426",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | We should not be overly restrictive on Hinduism.SE; people will find other avenues where they can ask/answer questions that you delete from here.
From [A Soldier's Dialogue with Swami Chinmayananda](http://www.allreadable.com/ccccSoK):
>
> When you say "Don't", his intellect asks the question, "why not?"
>
>
> It is natural, in schools and colleges. You say that "Don't"
>
>
> In the lawns write there a board "Don't walk on the lawns."
>
>
> Within three days you will find a footpath there.
>
>
> When you give an order, and all army people know it,
> the orders must be positive not negative language.
>
>
> Don't tell "Don't do it!"
>
>
> Tell them, what to do.
>
>
> Please walk on the cemented walk path, walk way. They will walk.
>
>
> But if you say don't walk on the grass everybody will start walking.
>
>
> Now the moralists have been going on..."Thou shalt not, thou shalt not"
> and everybody thinks, "why not?"
>
>
> | Then printing of books should also be stopped because it is also open for open purchase.
If quoting mantras is not allowed then it will defeat the whole purpose of this forum. Because we have to quote references from Vedas. The samhitas are mantras themselves.
Just giving the mantra is not harmful. There are many practical aspects which are related to it. We are no one to judge for others if they are wishing to try out mantra they then will.
When new age is progressive towards digitalization, this idea can drag us back to nomadic age. Because of improper preservation several texts are lost.
It was some foreigners and broad minded Indians who tried to preserve the manuscripts by preserving it and publishing it.
Isn't it good if more people become aware of special mantras like "balatibala". Isn't it good if more mantras get more visibility? |
426 | Mantras in Hinduism are sacrosanct and must not be uttered/chanted injudiciously nor should they be heard or given outside proper procedure. There is rampant disregard for this rule on this forum and people indiscriminately provide all mantras including the gayatri in their answers. I think questions seeking mantras must be deleted as should answers containing them. For this purpose, the definition of mantra should be
1. Anything that contains a beejakshara
2. Any portion of scripture that requires a certain procedural chanting and initiation (like the devi bhagavatam/chandi saptasati or sundarakanda)
This rule must be enforced if the purpose of this SE is indeed upholding and propagating Hinduism in its true form.
Kamakoti peetham offers some advice on mantrAdhikAra and dIkSAdhikAra.
<http://www.kamakotimandali.com/blog/index.php?p=112&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1> | 2015/12/02 | [
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/426",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | We should not be overly restrictive on Hinduism.SE; people will find other avenues where they can ask/answer questions that you delete from here.
From [A Soldier's Dialogue with Swami Chinmayananda](http://www.allreadable.com/ccccSoK):
>
> When you say "Don't", his intellect asks the question, "why not?"
>
>
> It is natural, in schools and colleges. You say that "Don't"
>
>
> In the lawns write there a board "Don't walk on the lawns."
>
>
> Within three days you will find a footpath there.
>
>
> When you give an order, and all army people know it,
> the orders must be positive not negative language.
>
>
> Don't tell "Don't do it!"
>
>
> Tell them, what to do.
>
>
> Please walk on the cemented walk path, walk way. They will walk.
>
>
> But if you say don't walk on the grass everybody will start walking.
>
>
> Now the moralists have been going on..."Thou shalt not, thou shalt not"
> and everybody thinks, "why not?"
>
>
> | I have already used that Kamakoti article in one of my answers that emphasized the purpose and role of a Guru.
But you need also have to check which are the Scriptures that the article is quoting from.
To name a few among them :
>
> Rudra Yamala, Kularnava Tantram, Shakti Yamala, Meru Tantram, Yogini
> Tantram, Hamsa Maheswara, Dattatreya Yamala etc.
>
>
>
**Now these are all Agama Texts.**
And, the same Agama Texts also claim that Vedas, Puranas and other Shastras should be ( or can be ) revealed. In case of the Agamas however, the clear instruction is that they should be kept as secret.
For example, see the following verses from Kularnava Tantram , a Text that the Kamakoti article have used as a reference :
>
> **VedaShastra PurAnani PrakasyAni Kulesvari|**
> ShaivashAktAgamAha Sarve RahasyAh Parikirthitha||
>
>
> Meaning
> -------
>
>
>
> >
> > **Kulesvari, Vedas, Puranas, other Shastras can be revealed.** But all Shaiva & Shakta Agamas are famous as being secret .
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> **Kularnava Tantram 3.4.**
>
>
>
So, my point is, there is no need to edit Veda Mantras out of posts. Same goes for the Pouranic Mantras as well.
As long as someone is not revealing the secret Mantras from the Agamas there is nothing to be too concerned about. |
426 | Mantras in Hinduism are sacrosanct and must not be uttered/chanted injudiciously nor should they be heard or given outside proper procedure. There is rampant disregard for this rule on this forum and people indiscriminately provide all mantras including the gayatri in their answers. I think questions seeking mantras must be deleted as should answers containing them. For this purpose, the definition of mantra should be
1. Anything that contains a beejakshara
2. Any portion of scripture that requires a certain procedural chanting and initiation (like the devi bhagavatam/chandi saptasati or sundarakanda)
This rule must be enforced if the purpose of this SE is indeed upholding and propagating Hinduism in its true form.
Kamakoti peetham offers some advice on mantrAdhikAra and dIkSAdhikAra.
<http://www.kamakotimandali.com/blog/index.php?p=112&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1> | 2015/12/02 | [
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/426",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **We should allow the posting of mantras.** It's important to note that Hinduism Stackexchange is a website about Hinduism, not a Hindu website as such. This is a website where anyone, Hindu and non-Hindu alike, can ask and answer questions about Hinduism. So this site doesn't enforce the rules of Hinduism on its members. If a student of Indology wants to know what mantras to Kali are found in the Kaula Tantras, and a professor of Indology wants to answer that, Hinduism Stackexchange can facilitate that.
Now having said that, as a Hindu I would definitely tell my fellow Hindus not to violate any Hindu rules about revealing mantras which you've received Diksha (initiation) for and which you've promised not to reveal. But that's your obligation as a Hindu, not your obligation as a member of this site. This site's policies don't revolve around such things. | Then printing of books should also be stopped because it is also open for open purchase.
If quoting mantras is not allowed then it will defeat the whole purpose of this forum. Because we have to quote references from Vedas. The samhitas are mantras themselves.
Just giving the mantra is not harmful. There are many practical aspects which are related to it. We are no one to judge for others if they are wishing to try out mantra they then will.
When new age is progressive towards digitalization, this idea can drag us back to nomadic age. Because of improper preservation several texts are lost.
It was some foreigners and broad minded Indians who tried to preserve the manuscripts by preserving it and publishing it.
Isn't it good if more people become aware of special mantras like "balatibala". Isn't it good if more mantras get more visibility? |
426 | Mantras in Hinduism are sacrosanct and must not be uttered/chanted injudiciously nor should they be heard or given outside proper procedure. There is rampant disregard for this rule on this forum and people indiscriminately provide all mantras including the gayatri in their answers. I think questions seeking mantras must be deleted as should answers containing them. For this purpose, the definition of mantra should be
1. Anything that contains a beejakshara
2. Any portion of scripture that requires a certain procedural chanting and initiation (like the devi bhagavatam/chandi saptasati or sundarakanda)
This rule must be enforced if the purpose of this SE is indeed upholding and propagating Hinduism in its true form.
Kamakoti peetham offers some advice on mantrAdhikAra and dIkSAdhikAra.
<http://www.kamakotimandali.com/blog/index.php?p=112&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1> | 2015/12/02 | [
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/426",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **We should allow the posting of mantras.** It's important to note that Hinduism Stackexchange is a website about Hinduism, not a Hindu website as such. This is a website where anyone, Hindu and non-Hindu alike, can ask and answer questions about Hinduism. So this site doesn't enforce the rules of Hinduism on its members. If a student of Indology wants to know what mantras to Kali are found in the Kaula Tantras, and a professor of Indology wants to answer that, Hinduism Stackexchange can facilitate that.
Now having said that, as a Hindu I would definitely tell my fellow Hindus not to violate any Hindu rules about revealing mantras which you've received Diksha (initiation) for and which you've promised not to reveal. But that's your obligation as a Hindu, not your obligation as a member of this site. This site's policies don't revolve around such things. | I have already used that Kamakoti article in one of my answers that emphasized the purpose and role of a Guru.
But you need also have to check which are the Scriptures that the article is quoting from.
To name a few among them :
>
> Rudra Yamala, Kularnava Tantram, Shakti Yamala, Meru Tantram, Yogini
> Tantram, Hamsa Maheswara, Dattatreya Yamala etc.
>
>
>
**Now these are all Agama Texts.**
And, the same Agama Texts also claim that Vedas, Puranas and other Shastras should be ( or can be ) revealed. In case of the Agamas however, the clear instruction is that they should be kept as secret.
For example, see the following verses from Kularnava Tantram , a Text that the Kamakoti article have used as a reference :
>
> **VedaShastra PurAnani PrakasyAni Kulesvari|**
> ShaivashAktAgamAha Sarve RahasyAh Parikirthitha||
>
>
> Meaning
> -------
>
>
>
> >
> > **Kulesvari, Vedas, Puranas, other Shastras can be revealed.** But all Shaiva & Shakta Agamas are famous as being secret .
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> **Kularnava Tantram 3.4.**
>
>
>
So, my point is, there is no need to edit Veda Mantras out of posts. Same goes for the Pouranic Mantras as well.
As long as someone is not revealing the secret Mantras from the Agamas there is nothing to be too concerned about. |
426 | Mantras in Hinduism are sacrosanct and must not be uttered/chanted injudiciously nor should they be heard or given outside proper procedure. There is rampant disregard for this rule on this forum and people indiscriminately provide all mantras including the gayatri in their answers. I think questions seeking mantras must be deleted as should answers containing them. For this purpose, the definition of mantra should be
1. Anything that contains a beejakshara
2. Any portion of scripture that requires a certain procedural chanting and initiation (like the devi bhagavatam/chandi saptasati or sundarakanda)
This rule must be enforced if the purpose of this SE is indeed upholding and propagating Hinduism in its true form.
Kamakoti peetham offers some advice on mantrAdhikAra and dIkSAdhikAra.
<http://www.kamakotimandali.com/blog/index.php?p=112&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1> | 2015/12/02 | [
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/426",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Then printing of books should also be stopped because it is also open for open purchase.
If quoting mantras is not allowed then it will defeat the whole purpose of this forum. Because we have to quote references from Vedas. The samhitas are mantras themselves.
Just giving the mantra is not harmful. There are many practical aspects which are related to it. We are no one to judge for others if they are wishing to try out mantra they then will.
When new age is progressive towards digitalization, this idea can drag us back to nomadic age. Because of improper preservation several texts are lost.
It was some foreigners and broad minded Indians who tried to preserve the manuscripts by preserving it and publishing it.
Isn't it good if more people become aware of special mantras like "balatibala". Isn't it good if more mantras get more visibility? | I have already used that Kamakoti article in one of my answers that emphasized the purpose and role of a Guru.
But you need also have to check which are the Scriptures that the article is quoting from.
To name a few among them :
>
> Rudra Yamala, Kularnava Tantram, Shakti Yamala, Meru Tantram, Yogini
> Tantram, Hamsa Maheswara, Dattatreya Yamala etc.
>
>
>
**Now these are all Agama Texts.**
And, the same Agama Texts also claim that Vedas, Puranas and other Shastras should be ( or can be ) revealed. In case of the Agamas however, the clear instruction is that they should be kept as secret.
For example, see the following verses from Kularnava Tantram , a Text that the Kamakoti article have used as a reference :
>
> **VedaShastra PurAnani PrakasyAni Kulesvari|**
> ShaivashAktAgamAha Sarve RahasyAh Parikirthitha||
>
>
> Meaning
> -------
>
>
>
> >
> > **Kulesvari, Vedas, Puranas, other Shastras can be revealed.** But all Shaiva & Shakta Agamas are famous as being secret .
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> **Kularnava Tantram 3.4.**
>
>
>
So, my point is, there is no need to edit Veda Mantras out of posts. Same goes for the Pouranic Mantras as well.
As long as someone is not revealing the secret Mantras from the Agamas there is nothing to be too concerned about. |
28,424 | It seems really odd that China annexed Tibet but left Sikkim. Sikkim is present on the Chinese borders and was an independent nation until 1975 when it joined India as one of its states.
What might have been possible reasons to not capture Sikkim in contrast to China's decision to capture Tibet, even when China could have easily annexed Sikkim? | 2018/03/10 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/28424",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I'm using UK data, as it is easier for me to obtain. I'm also assuming that "XTC" is your slang for "ecstacy" or MDMA, a proscribed drug from the amphetamine family.
In the UK in the years 2007-2016 there was an [average of 38 deaths per year](https://www.ons.gov.uk/peoplepopulationandcommunity/birthsdeathsandmarriages/deaths/datasets/deathsrelatedtodrugpoisoningenglandandwalesreferencetable) (see table 6b)in which MDMA/ecstacy was named on the death certificate as a cause of death. There may have been other deaths in which MDMA was taken but was not mentioned on the certificate for other reasons. The Netherlands has a demographically similar population to the UK, so it is reasonable to suppose that the danger from MDMA is similar in the Netherlands. Thus your assertion "Almost nobody dies from XTC" is false.
It is classified as a hard drug due to the potential for harm, as assessed by the Netherlands government, advised by a committee of experts.
Similar classifications exist in other European countries, for example in the UK, MDMA is a category A controlled substance. | Why it was added I can't say, but why they keep it on that list... the number of incidents *at events* involving ecstasy might be a reason (ecstacy accounts for nearly half of those), or even overall usage (NL leads EU on that):
>
> The Netherlands has the highest last year prevalence rate of ecstasy of all EU countries.
>
>
>
Although [the EU review](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) says that, it only gives some numbers to compare for *lifetime* prevalence, in which indeed the NL with 8.4% is well above EU average of 2.9%; the paper also gives the last-year prevalence, but only for NL (that was 3.4%). All these [three] figures are for 2015.
Anyway, they also say this about the high occurrence of ecstasy-related incidents at events:
>
> In 2014, the Monitor Drugsincidenten (drug-related emergencies) (MDI) of the Trimbos
> Institute reported 3797 drugs incidents. In 47% of these cases ecstasy was used, in 19%
> of the cases cannabis was used and in 11% cocaine-HCL was used. The number of
> ecstasy related incidents has not increased since 2012, however the severity of ecstasy
> incidents reported by First Aid Posts at major events continues to increase in 2014.
>
>
>
However, there were few admissions to hospitals for ecstasy (actually psychostimulants in general, they don't break these down beyond that):
>
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered almost 2 million admissions in 2012, of
> which in 538 cases drug abuse and drug addiction was the primary diagnosis. Of these
> admissions, 14% these were related to cannabis and 16% to cocaine.
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered 2938 cases in which drug abuse and
> drug addiction the secondary diagnosis, of which 26% was related to cocaine and 25% is
> related to cannabis. The most common primary diagnoses in these secondary diagnoses
> were: accidents; intoxication; heart-disease; abuse or dependence on alcohol; diseases of
> the respiratory tract; abuse or dependence on drugs; psychosis.
>
>
> The LMR registered few annual admissions to general hospitals with psychostimulants as the diagnosis: 67 in 2012 as primary diagnosis and 196 admissions in 2012 as secondary diagnosis.
>
>
>
My quotes are from ["A review and assessment of EU drug policy"](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) (2016).
I looked at a [Dutch MDI study](https://assets.trimbos.nl/docs/e3bb0514-3ee8-4418-9a5d-01199a4e18a2.pdf), but it doesn't seem to get into details as to what those first-aid incidents involved specifically/typically in terms of health/symptoms. But it does have this combined graph of problems by drug, and this reinforces the impression that the main negative impact of ecstasy on users seem to be of the first-aid-required kind.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KzRqX.png)
The "ziekenhuizen" bars are hospital admissions (primary/secondary reasons, I think); EHBO is first aid. The other bars should be self-evident (police arrests and ambulance need). They later have a breakdown of comorbidities for the ecstacy first-aid incidents. My google translated version of that says that in 45% of cases alcohol was also involved, and that 32% of cases also involved another illegal drug (i.e. a "cocktail"); this comorbidity data is only for 2016, which is probably why the "cocktail" figure is different from the 8-year cumulative data in the graph above. |
28,424 | It seems really odd that China annexed Tibet but left Sikkim. Sikkim is present on the Chinese borders and was an independent nation until 1975 when it joined India as one of its states.
What might have been possible reasons to not capture Sikkim in contrast to China's decision to capture Tibet, even when China could have easily annexed Sikkim? | 2018/03/10 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/28424",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In 2011, the *'expert committee on list systems'* came up with a report, *'Drugs in lists'* (unfortunately I cannot find the full report). That report was offered to the minister for health and a [news item by the government](https://www.government.nl/latest/news/2011/06/24/committee-the-current-system-of-the-opium-act-does-not-have-to-be-changed) contained the following part on keeping XTC on List I (i.e. classifying it as a hard drug):
>
> *"As regards MDMA, better known as XTC, the committee concludes that investigations show that damage to the health of the individual in the long term is less serious than was initially assumed. But the extent of the illegal production and involvement of organised crime leads to damage to society, including damage to the image of the Netherlands abroad. This argues in favour of maintaining MDMA on List I."*
>
>
> Source: [government.nl](https://www.government.nl/latest/news/2011/06/24/committee-the-current-system-of-the-opium-act-does-not-have-to-be-changed)
>
>
>
It specifically names the illegal production causing damage to society and the country's status internationally as an argument for keeping it as a hard drug. I am not a lawyer, but I imagine this gives the police broader power in combating the production and distribution of the drugs. | Why it was added I can't say, but why they keep it on that list... the number of incidents *at events* involving ecstasy might be a reason (ecstacy accounts for nearly half of those), or even overall usage (NL leads EU on that):
>
> The Netherlands has the highest last year prevalence rate of ecstasy of all EU countries.
>
>
>
Although [the EU review](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) says that, it only gives some numbers to compare for *lifetime* prevalence, in which indeed the NL with 8.4% is well above EU average of 2.9%; the paper also gives the last-year prevalence, but only for NL (that was 3.4%). All these [three] figures are for 2015.
Anyway, they also say this about the high occurrence of ecstasy-related incidents at events:
>
> In 2014, the Monitor Drugsincidenten (drug-related emergencies) (MDI) of the Trimbos
> Institute reported 3797 drugs incidents. In 47% of these cases ecstasy was used, in 19%
> of the cases cannabis was used and in 11% cocaine-HCL was used. The number of
> ecstasy related incidents has not increased since 2012, however the severity of ecstasy
> incidents reported by First Aid Posts at major events continues to increase in 2014.
>
>
>
However, there were few admissions to hospitals for ecstasy (actually psychostimulants in general, they don't break these down beyond that):
>
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered almost 2 million admissions in 2012, of
> which in 538 cases drug abuse and drug addiction was the primary diagnosis. Of these
> admissions, 14% these were related to cannabis and 16% to cocaine.
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered 2938 cases in which drug abuse and
> drug addiction the secondary diagnosis, of which 26% was related to cocaine and 25% is
> related to cannabis. The most common primary diagnoses in these secondary diagnoses
> were: accidents; intoxication; heart-disease; abuse or dependence on alcohol; diseases of
> the respiratory tract; abuse or dependence on drugs; psychosis.
>
>
> The LMR registered few annual admissions to general hospitals with psychostimulants as the diagnosis: 67 in 2012 as primary diagnosis and 196 admissions in 2012 as secondary diagnosis.
>
>
>
My quotes are from ["A review and assessment of EU drug policy"](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) (2016).
I looked at a [Dutch MDI study](https://assets.trimbos.nl/docs/e3bb0514-3ee8-4418-9a5d-01199a4e18a2.pdf), but it doesn't seem to get into details as to what those first-aid incidents involved specifically/typically in terms of health/symptoms. But it does have this combined graph of problems by drug, and this reinforces the impression that the main negative impact of ecstasy on users seem to be of the first-aid-required kind.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KzRqX.png)
The "ziekenhuizen" bars are hospital admissions (primary/secondary reasons, I think); EHBO is first aid. The other bars should be self-evident (police arrests and ambulance need). They later have a breakdown of comorbidities for the ecstacy first-aid incidents. My google translated version of that says that in 45% of cases alcohol was also involved, and that 32% of cases also involved another illegal drug (i.e. a "cocktail"); this comorbidity data is only for 2016, which is probably why the "cocktail" figure is different from the 8-year cumulative data in the graph above. |
28,424 | It seems really odd that China annexed Tibet but left Sikkim. Sikkim is present on the Chinese borders and was an independent nation until 1975 when it joined India as one of its states.
What might have been possible reasons to not capture Sikkim in contrast to China's decision to capture Tibet, even when China could have easily annexed Sikkim? | 2018/03/10 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/28424",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I'd like to offer an alternative reason: The Netherlands signed the UN [Convention on Psychotropic Substances](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convention_on_Psychotropic_Substances), in which the UN committee added MDMA to the Schedule I category.
There are claims that the committee made that decision under pressure from the US, for example in the German Wikipedia: "Die Vereinten Nationen wurden von der Regierung der USA unter Druck gesetzt, die Droge wegen massenhafter Beschlagnahmungen unter Kontrolle zu stellen" ("The United Nations were pressured by the US-government to regulate the drug"), but I couldn't find sources to support them.
National law appears to closely follow that categorization in member states. | Why it was added I can't say, but why they keep it on that list... the number of incidents *at events* involving ecstasy might be a reason (ecstacy accounts for nearly half of those), or even overall usage (NL leads EU on that):
>
> The Netherlands has the highest last year prevalence rate of ecstasy of all EU countries.
>
>
>
Although [the EU review](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) says that, it only gives some numbers to compare for *lifetime* prevalence, in which indeed the NL with 8.4% is well above EU average of 2.9%; the paper also gives the last-year prevalence, but only for NL (that was 3.4%). All these [three] figures are for 2015.
Anyway, they also say this about the high occurrence of ecstasy-related incidents at events:
>
> In 2014, the Monitor Drugsincidenten (drug-related emergencies) (MDI) of the Trimbos
> Institute reported 3797 drugs incidents. In 47% of these cases ecstasy was used, in 19%
> of the cases cannabis was used and in 11% cocaine-HCL was used. The number of
> ecstasy related incidents has not increased since 2012, however the severity of ecstasy
> incidents reported by First Aid Posts at major events continues to increase in 2014.
>
>
>
However, there were few admissions to hospitals for ecstasy (actually psychostimulants in general, they don't break these down beyond that):
>
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered almost 2 million admissions in 2012, of
> which in 538 cases drug abuse and drug addiction was the primary diagnosis. Of these
> admissions, 14% these were related to cannabis and 16% to cocaine.
> The National Medical Registration (LMR) registered 2938 cases in which drug abuse and
> drug addiction the secondary diagnosis, of which 26% was related to cocaine and 25% is
> related to cannabis. The most common primary diagnoses in these secondary diagnoses
> were: accidents; intoxication; heart-disease; abuse or dependence on alcohol; diseases of
> the respiratory tract; abuse or dependence on drugs; psychosis.
>
>
> The LMR registered few annual admissions to general hospitals with psychostimulants as the diagnosis: 67 in 2012 as primary diagnosis and 196 admissions in 2012 as secondary diagnosis.
>
>
>
My quotes are from ["A review and assessment of EU drug policy"](http://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/STUD/2016/571400/IPOL_STU(2016)571400_EN.pdf) (2016).
I looked at a [Dutch MDI study](https://assets.trimbos.nl/docs/e3bb0514-3ee8-4418-9a5d-01199a4e18a2.pdf), but it doesn't seem to get into details as to what those first-aid incidents involved specifically/typically in terms of health/symptoms. But it does have this combined graph of problems by drug, and this reinforces the impression that the main negative impact of ecstasy on users seem to be of the first-aid-required kind.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KzRqX.png)
The "ziekenhuizen" bars are hospital admissions (primary/secondary reasons, I think); EHBO is first aid. The other bars should be self-evident (police arrests and ambulance need). They later have a breakdown of comorbidities for the ecstacy first-aid incidents. My google translated version of that says that in 45% of cases alcohol was also involved, and that 32% of cases also involved another illegal drug (i.e. a "cocktail"); this comorbidity data is only for 2016, which is probably why the "cocktail" figure is different from the 8-year cumulative data in the graph above. |
4,180 | I would like to know, what is the ruling in performing a Sajde-e-sahu (the sajde required to offer at the end of salat in case of mistake)? What situations in `salat` might make them obligatory ? | 2012/10/24 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4180",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | According to the Malikiyah and Shafi'iyah Sajdatu Sahu is Sunnah, but according to the Hanafiyah and Hanabalah it is wajidb, and the Mussali (one who prays) has made an error if he leaves it.
You make Sajdatul Sahu for three reasons:
1. If you do not do a Sunnah Mu'akadah.
2. If you added something to the salat that is not originaly of the salat, like an extra Rakat.
3. If you added and took away something from the salat for example one forgets to say a surah out loud and makes an extra Rakah.
Source: Al Fiqh Al maliki Al Muyassar by Dr. Wahbat Azuhayli | Sajda Sahv means genuflection of mistake and is for indemnity of a non-intentional mistake in prayer.
According to [Fiqh](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ja%27fari_jurisprudence) of [Shia Islam](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shia_Islam) Sajda Sahv is for doing a mistake in obligatory prayers.
>
> If any of the following five types of mistakes occurs forgetfully
> during a wajib salat, then it is wajib to perform Sajdah Sahv
> immediately after completing the salat.
>
>
> (1) Talking forgetfully during
> salat (or even uttering a single word which has a meaning, e.g. saying
> ‘Ah’ in pain).
>
>
> (2) Reciting Salam forgetfully at a wrong place during salat. (For
> example, if you recite Salam after Tashahhud in 2nd rakat in a 4-rakat
> salat). Salam in a salat has three parts. Sajdah Sahv becomes wajib if
> 2nd or 3rd part of Salam is recited forgetfully. If only 1st part is
> recited forgetfully, then Sajdah Sahv is not wajib, but it is mustahab
> to perform.
>
>
> (3) Forgetting to recite Tashahhud during salat. If you forget
> Tashahhud after 2nd rakat, but remember it before the ruku of next
> rakat, then you should return and perform it. And after the salat,
> perform Sajdah Sahv for performing additional standing (qiyam).
>
>
> (4) Adding or omitting something forgetfully during salat, but that
> addition or omission does not make salat void. (Examples: (i)
> reciting Tashahhud after 1st rakat or after 3rd rakat in a 4-rakat
> salat; (ii) doing an extra sajda by mistake; (iii) forgetting zikr
> in a sajdah or ruku, (iv) forgetting second surah in 1st rakat or 2nd
> rakat, etc).
>
>
> (5) When doubts occurs in the number of rakats in a 4-rakat salat, if
> it is 4th or 5th rakat, or it is 4th or 6th rakat, or it is 4th or
> more rakat (as explained in Fiqh Notes #2).
>
>
> **Lecture #3 Maulana Abul Qasim Rizvi, Panjtan Ctr, Melb rev 160107 5**
>
>
>
---
**References:**
[SAJDAH SAHV, NOTES OF LECTURES ON FIQH - By Maulana Abul Qasim Rizvi](http://www.islamic-laws.com/sajda_sahv.htm) |
226,448 | I am currently working on automating/improving the release process for packaging my shop's entire product. Currently the product is a combination of:
* Java server-side codebase
* XML configuration and application files
* Shell and batch scripts for administrators
* Statically served HTML pages
* and some other stuff, but that's most of it
All or most of which have various versioning information contained in them, used for varying purposes. Part of the release packaging process involves doing a lot of finding, grep'ing and sed'ing (in scripts) to update the information. This glue that packages the product seems to have been cobbled together in an organic, just-in-time manner, and is pretty horrible to maintain. For example, some Java methods create Date objects for the time of release, the arguments for which are updated by a textual replacement, without compiler validation... just, urgh.
I'm trying avoid giving examples of actual software used (i.e. CVS, SVN, ant, etc.) because I'd like to avoid the "use xyz's feature to do this" and concentrate more on general practices. I'd like to blame shoddy design for the problem, but if I had to start again, still using varying technologies, I'd be unsure how best to go about handling this, beyond laying down conventions.
My questions is, are there any best practices or hints and tips for maintaining and updating versioning information across different technologies, filetypes, platforms and version control systems? | 2008/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/226448",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4120/"
] | Indeed, to complete Craig Angus's answer, the rule of thumb here should be to ***not include any meta-informations in your normal delivery files***, but to report those meta-data (version number, release date, and so on) into *one* special file -- included in the release --.
That helps when you use one VCS (Version Control System) tool from the development to homologation to pre-production.
That means whenever you load a workspace (either for developing, or for testing or for preparing a release into production), it is the versionning tool which gives you all the details.
When you prepare a delivery (a set of packaged files), you should ask that VCS tool about every meta-information you want to keep, and write them in a special file itself included into the said set of files.
That delivery should be packaged in an external directory (outside any workspace) and:
* copied to a shared directory (or a maven repository) if it is a *non-official* release (but just a quick packaging for helping the team next door who is waiting for your delivery). That way you can make 10 or 20 delivers a day, it does not matter: they are easily disposable.
* imported into the VCS in order to serve as official deliveries, and in order to be deployed easily since all you need is to ask the versionning tool for the right version of the right deliver, and you can begin to deploy it.
Note: I just described a release management process mostly used for many inter-dependant projects. For one small single project, you can skip the import in the VCS tool and store your deliveries elsewhere. | Create a properties file that contains the version number and have all of the different components reference the properties file
* Java files can reference the properties through
* XML can use includes?
* HTML can use a JavaScript to write the version number from the properties in the HTML
* Shell scripts can read in the file |
226,448 | I am currently working on automating/improving the release process for packaging my shop's entire product. Currently the product is a combination of:
* Java server-side codebase
* XML configuration and application files
* Shell and batch scripts for administrators
* Statically served HTML pages
* and some other stuff, but that's most of it
All or most of which have various versioning information contained in them, used for varying purposes. Part of the release packaging process involves doing a lot of finding, grep'ing and sed'ing (in scripts) to update the information. This glue that packages the product seems to have been cobbled together in an organic, just-in-time manner, and is pretty horrible to maintain. For example, some Java methods create Date objects for the time of release, the arguments for which are updated by a textual replacement, without compiler validation... just, urgh.
I'm trying avoid giving examples of actual software used (i.e. CVS, SVN, ant, etc.) because I'd like to avoid the "use xyz's feature to do this" and concentrate more on general practices. I'd like to blame shoddy design for the problem, but if I had to start again, still using varying technologies, I'd be unsure how best to go about handling this, beyond laying down conventions.
My questions is, are there any best practices or hints and tips for maintaining and updating versioning information across different technologies, filetypes, platforms and version control systems? | 2008/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/226448",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4120/"
] | Create a properties file that contains the version number and have all of the different components reference the properties file
* Java files can reference the properties through
* XML can use includes?
* HTML can use a JavaScript to write the version number from the properties in the HTML
* Shell scripts can read in the file | In addition to Craig Angus' ones include the version of tools used. |
226,448 | I am currently working on automating/improving the release process for packaging my shop's entire product. Currently the product is a combination of:
* Java server-side codebase
* XML configuration and application files
* Shell and batch scripts for administrators
* Statically served HTML pages
* and some other stuff, but that's most of it
All or most of which have various versioning information contained in them, used for varying purposes. Part of the release packaging process involves doing a lot of finding, grep'ing and sed'ing (in scripts) to update the information. This glue that packages the product seems to have been cobbled together in an organic, just-in-time manner, and is pretty horrible to maintain. For example, some Java methods create Date objects for the time of release, the arguments for which are updated by a textual replacement, without compiler validation... just, urgh.
I'm trying avoid giving examples of actual software used (i.e. CVS, SVN, ant, etc.) because I'd like to avoid the "use xyz's feature to do this" and concentrate more on general practices. I'd like to blame shoddy design for the problem, but if I had to start again, still using varying technologies, I'd be unsure how best to go about handling this, beyond laying down conventions.
My questions is, are there any best practices or hints and tips for maintaining and updating versioning information across different technologies, filetypes, platforms and version control systems? | 2008/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/226448",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4120/"
] | Indeed, to complete Craig Angus's answer, the rule of thumb here should be to ***not include any meta-informations in your normal delivery files***, but to report those meta-data (version number, release date, and so on) into *one* special file -- included in the release --.
That helps when you use one VCS (Version Control System) tool from the development to homologation to pre-production.
That means whenever you load a workspace (either for developing, or for testing or for preparing a release into production), it is the versionning tool which gives you all the details.
When you prepare a delivery (a set of packaged files), you should ask that VCS tool about every meta-information you want to keep, and write them in a special file itself included into the said set of files.
That delivery should be packaged in an external directory (outside any workspace) and:
* copied to a shared directory (or a maven repository) if it is a *non-official* release (but just a quick packaging for helping the team next door who is waiting for your delivery). That way you can make 10 or 20 delivers a day, it does not matter: they are easily disposable.
* imported into the VCS in order to serve as official deliveries, and in order to be deployed easily since all you need is to ask the versionning tool for the right version of the right deliver, and you can begin to deploy it.
Note: I just described a release management process mostly used for many inter-dependant projects. For one small single project, you can skip the import in the VCS tool and store your deliveries elsewhere. | In addition to Craig Angus' ones include the version of tools used. |
70,637 | There is a lot of talk these days about how to best take care of the planet but Revelation 11:18 specifically singles out those who destroy it for destruction themselves. Here is the citation in its immediate context.
>
> 15Then the seventh angel sounded; and there were loud voices in
> heaven, saying,
> “The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.” 16And the
> twenty-four elders, who sit on their thrones before God, fell on their
> faces and worshiped God, 17saying,
> “We give You thanks, O Lord God, the Almighty, who are and who were, because You have taken Your great power and have begun to reign.
> **18“And the nations were enraged, and Your wrath came, and the time came for the dead to be judged, and the time to reward Your
> bond-servants the prophets and the saints and those who fear Your
> name, the small and the great, and to destroy those who destroy the
> earth.”**
>
>
>
Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth? | 2021/10/29 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70637",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/44735/"
] | Taking the text of the BLB, we might set out Rev 11:18 as follows:
>
> And the nations were enraged,
>
>
> * **and** Your wrath came,
> * **and** the time for the dead to be judged,
> * **and** to give the reward to Your servants, the prophets,
> * **and** to the saints,
> * **and** to those fearing Your name, the small and the great,
> * **and** to destroy those who are destroying the earth."
>
>
>
There are several things things we can observe about this somewhat enigmatic verse.
**The Verb διαφθείρω (diaphtheiró = "destroy")**
This verb occurs twice in the final clause of Rev 11:18, as well as the following:
* Rev 8:9 a third of the living creatures in the sea died, and a third of the ships were **destroyed**. [Note that this is also part of the 2nd trumpet.]
* 1 Tim 6:5 - and constant friction between men of **depraved** [literally "destroyed"] mind who are devoid of the truth. These men regard godliness as a means of gain.
* 2 Cor 4:16 - Therefore we do not lose heart. Though our outer self is **wasting away** [Literally "being destroyed"], yet our inner self is being renewed day by day.
* Luke 12:33 - Sell your possessions and give to the poor. Provide yourselves with purses that will not wear out, an inexhaustible treasure in heaven, where no thief approaches and no moth **destroys**.
Note that this word is used in moth a metaphoric sense and a literal sense. Indeed, BDAG recognizes two basic meanings of this word as follows:
1. **to cause the destruction of something, *spoil, destroy***, eg, Luke 12:33, Rev 11:18a, 2 Cor 4:6, Rev 8:9
2. **to cause to become morally corrupt, *deprave, ruin***, eg, the eartyh (ie, its people) Rev 11:18b (compare Rev 19:2), 1 Tim 6:5.
Thus, we might paraphraistically translate the final clause of Rev 11:18 as:
>
> ... destroy those who corrupted the people of the earth
>
>
>
While this understanding of the respected BDAG lexicon is helpful (especially in view of Rev 19:2 !!), I would not wish to exclude the meaning that God's wrath is also directed at people who despoil the earth in the sense of polluting and wasting the resources of the earth granted by God to man at the creation. See appendix below.
**APPENDIX: Environmental Stewardship**
While the terms “Environment” and “Ecology” are modern, the ideas they represent are ancient. The Bible sets out moral principles about the responsibility for the environment. Such human responsibility was given to mankind soon after the creation as part of the Edenic covenant of God with mankind:
* Human kind is responsible for the environment. “The LORD God took the man and put him in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it.” (Gen 2:15)
* The world and all else belongs to God alone. “The earth is the Lord's, and everything in it, the world, and all who live in it.” (Psalm 24:1) “The heavens are yours, and yours also the earth; you founded the world and all that is in it.” (Psalm 89:11) “Every animal of the forest is mine, and the cattle on a thousand hills.” (Psalm 50:10) This means that mankind does not own the earth but we are placed here as stewards and will be held accountable when Jesus returns. (See Luke 12:22-48, Matt 24:45-51, 25:14-30, Luke 19:12-28)
* Humans are also responsible for the damage done to the environment. “The earth will become desolate because of its inhabitants, as the result of their deeds.” (Micah 7:13) “There is only cursing, lying and murder, stealing and adultery; they break all bounds, and bloodshed follows bloodshed. Because of this the land mourns, and all who live in it waste away; the beasts of the field and the birds of the air and the fish of the sea are dying.” (Hos 4:2, 3) See also 2 Chron 7:13, 14.
* The wicked will be punished for the damage done to the environment. “The time has come … for destroying those who destroy the earth.” (Rev 11:18)
* Despite the above, forgiveness and healing is possible. “When I shut up the heavens so that there is no rain, or command locusts to devour the land or send a plague among my people, if my people, who are called by my name, will humble themselves and pray and seek my face and turn from their wicked ways, then will I hear from heaven and will forgive their sin and will heal their land.” (2 Chron 7:13, 14)
Thus, our care and responsibility for the environment was decreed in Eden (Gen 2:15) and remains in force. | >
> **REV 11:18** *The nations were angry, and your wrath has come. The time has come for judging the dead, and for rewarding your servants the prophets
> and your people who revere your name, both great and small—and for destroying those who destroy the earth.”*
>
>
>
Destroy - diaphtheirō - to change for the worse, to corrupt.
“\*Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth?\*\*” -
First, we need to understand what the *context* is. And, that ‘context’ can *not* ‘just’ be taken from Revelation. And, neither can it be ‘tainted’ by our western worldview. The ‘environment’ may be a relevant theme for us, but it *shouldn’t* be read into this verse.
So let’s examine the context …
>
> **PSALM 2:2** *The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying,*
>
>
>
>
> **PSALM 82:2** *How long will you judge unjustly, And show partiality to the wicked?*
>
>
>
The ‘legitimate’ [for now] rulers of the nations have been ruling ‘unjustly’. They have corrupted the earth. Exactly as the Greek word ‘diaphtheirō’ - means … *to change for the worse, to corrupt.*.
The nations were handed over - Deuteronomy 8:32. But those ‘over’ the nations have corrupted the earth. And Revelation outlays how Jesus will ‘win the nations back’. In this, ‘judgement’ is coming to those rulers of the nations. Exactly as Psalm 82 outlines. And, they *are not people*! But that is another Q. |
70,637 | There is a lot of talk these days about how to best take care of the planet but Revelation 11:18 specifically singles out those who destroy it for destruction themselves. Here is the citation in its immediate context.
>
> 15Then the seventh angel sounded; and there were loud voices in
> heaven, saying,
> “The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.” 16And the
> twenty-four elders, who sit on their thrones before God, fell on their
> faces and worshiped God, 17saying,
> “We give You thanks, O Lord God, the Almighty, who are and who were, because You have taken Your great power and have begun to reign.
> **18“And the nations were enraged, and Your wrath came, and the time came for the dead to be judged, and the time to reward Your
> bond-servants the prophets and the saints and those who fear Your
> name, the small and the great, and to destroy those who destroy the
> earth.”**
>
>
>
Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth? | 2021/10/29 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70637",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/44735/"
] | Taking the text of the BLB, we might set out Rev 11:18 as follows:
>
> And the nations were enraged,
>
>
> * **and** Your wrath came,
> * **and** the time for the dead to be judged,
> * **and** to give the reward to Your servants, the prophets,
> * **and** to the saints,
> * **and** to those fearing Your name, the small and the great,
> * **and** to destroy those who are destroying the earth."
>
>
>
There are several things things we can observe about this somewhat enigmatic verse.
**The Verb διαφθείρω (diaphtheiró = "destroy")**
This verb occurs twice in the final clause of Rev 11:18, as well as the following:
* Rev 8:9 a third of the living creatures in the sea died, and a third of the ships were **destroyed**. [Note that this is also part of the 2nd trumpet.]
* 1 Tim 6:5 - and constant friction between men of **depraved** [literally "destroyed"] mind who are devoid of the truth. These men regard godliness as a means of gain.
* 2 Cor 4:16 - Therefore we do not lose heart. Though our outer self is **wasting away** [Literally "being destroyed"], yet our inner self is being renewed day by day.
* Luke 12:33 - Sell your possessions and give to the poor. Provide yourselves with purses that will not wear out, an inexhaustible treasure in heaven, where no thief approaches and no moth **destroys**.
Note that this word is used in moth a metaphoric sense and a literal sense. Indeed, BDAG recognizes two basic meanings of this word as follows:
1. **to cause the destruction of something, *spoil, destroy***, eg, Luke 12:33, Rev 11:18a, 2 Cor 4:6, Rev 8:9
2. **to cause to become morally corrupt, *deprave, ruin***, eg, the eartyh (ie, its people) Rev 11:18b (compare Rev 19:2), 1 Tim 6:5.
Thus, we might paraphraistically translate the final clause of Rev 11:18 as:
>
> ... destroy those who corrupted the people of the earth
>
>
>
While this understanding of the respected BDAG lexicon is helpful (especially in view of Rev 19:2 !!), I would not wish to exclude the meaning that God's wrath is also directed at people who despoil the earth in the sense of polluting and wasting the resources of the earth granted by God to man at the creation. See appendix below.
**APPENDIX: Environmental Stewardship**
While the terms “Environment” and “Ecology” are modern, the ideas they represent are ancient. The Bible sets out moral principles about the responsibility for the environment. Such human responsibility was given to mankind soon after the creation as part of the Edenic covenant of God with mankind:
* Human kind is responsible for the environment. “The LORD God took the man and put him in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it.” (Gen 2:15)
* The world and all else belongs to God alone. “The earth is the Lord's, and everything in it, the world, and all who live in it.” (Psalm 24:1) “The heavens are yours, and yours also the earth; you founded the world and all that is in it.” (Psalm 89:11) “Every animal of the forest is mine, and the cattle on a thousand hills.” (Psalm 50:10) This means that mankind does not own the earth but we are placed here as stewards and will be held accountable when Jesus returns. (See Luke 12:22-48, Matt 24:45-51, 25:14-30, Luke 19:12-28)
* Humans are also responsible for the damage done to the environment. “The earth will become desolate because of its inhabitants, as the result of their deeds.” (Micah 7:13) “There is only cursing, lying and murder, stealing and adultery; they break all bounds, and bloodshed follows bloodshed. Because of this the land mourns, and all who live in it waste away; the beasts of the field and the birds of the air and the fish of the sea are dying.” (Hos 4:2, 3) See also 2 Chron 7:13, 14.
* The wicked will be punished for the damage done to the environment. “The time has come … for destroying those who destroy the earth.” (Rev 11:18)
* Despite the above, forgiveness and healing is possible. “When I shut up the heavens so that there is no rain, or command locusts to devour the land or send a plague among my people, if my people, who are called by my name, will humble themselves and pray and seek my face and turn from their wicked ways, then will I hear from heaven and will forgive their sin and will heal their land.” (2 Chron 7:13, 14)
Thus, our care and responsibility for the environment was decreed in Eden (Gen 2:15) and remains in force. | The prophesy of Revelation is the fulfillment of the OT prophesies for the woes pronounced against Israel for their sins, and especially Judea /Jerusalem. This was the fulfillment of the destruction of Israel foretold in Deu. 32, and of the 7 woes promised for their sins in Lev. 26:24ff. In prophetic language the "earth" was used for the land and the people of that land to whom the prophet was sent.
Look at Isa. 13 for the destruction prophesied against Babylon. Vs. 1, *"the burden of Babylon"* sets the context of that chapter.
>
> *"5 They come from a far country, from the end of heaven, even the Lord, and the weapons of his indignation, to destroy the whole land."* (Isa. 13:5, KJV)
>
>
>
The mighty ones God called in vs. 4 to destroy Babylon were coming from outside the borders of that kingdom, from a far country. The end of heaven was the border of the king's dominion as the king's rule and power only extended to the borders of Babylon. The foreign army from outside Babylon would come against the whole land of Babylon.
Vs. 9, *"to lay the land desolate, and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it"* is still speaking only of the prophesy against Babylon.
>
> "*13 Therefore I will shake the heavens, and the earth shall remove out of her place, in the wrath of the Lord of hosts, and in the day of his fierce anger."* (Isa. 13:13, KJV)
>
>
>
The heavens that were to be shaken were not God's heaven above, but the king's dominion over Babylon. The king's authority over the air above the land of Babylon was the king's heaven. See previous question and answer [here](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70282/why-was-the-devil-satan-not-chained-and-kept-in-darkness-like-the-other-fallen-a/70290#70290) which explains the use of heaven(s) in OT prophesy.
Removing the earth from her place was speaking specifically of the land of Babylon. Destroying that nation would be removing that nation from her place among all the other nations.
Revelation was Jesus' prophesy revealed to John for the destruction of the land of Judea, and the city of Jerusalem. Rev. 11:1 sets the context of that chapter with the instruction to John to measure the temple. The temple was located in Jerusalem.
Vs. 8 confirms it.
>
> *"And their dead bodies shall lie in the street of the great city, which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also our Lord was crucified."* (Rev. 11:8, KJV)
>
>
>
Our Lord was crucified outside of Jerusalem. There can be no doubt that the great city to be destroyed as Sodom and Egypt had been was Jerusalem. The "earth" or land of this prophesy was the same land / people to whom Jesus was sent to prophesy (Matt. 15:24) which was in Judea, and Jerusalem to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Those who were destroying the earth of Rev. 11:18 were those evil, wicked rulers of Judea - the Sanhedrin, the scribes and Pharisees - who crucified Christ and were persecuting the Christians under the full authority and power of the Roman Caesars.
This is not a discussion of modern day pollution, nor the current political atmosphere of earth management. We cannot take the prophesy out of time and place. It was specifically concerning the wicked people of Judea and Jerusalem, and the destruction of that old Mosaic animal sacrificial temple. That judgment day against Jerusalem has already happened when that temple was torn down in AD 70.
For more scriptural proof see my post "Revelation: The Four Corners of the Earth" at [ShreddingTheVeil](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2017/05/29/revelation-the-four-corners-of-the-earth/), and "Heaven and Earth Have Passed Away" [here](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2015/08/26/heaven-earth-have-passed-away/), as well as "Frequent Mistakes - Part IV: Where Was All the World?" [here](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2018/02/01/frequent-mistakes-part-iv-where-was-all-the-world/).
Revelation was not written to us. It was written almost 2,000 years ago to the first century Christians in the 7 churches of Asia. It is recorded so that we can know and be assured that Christ won, and He has been ruling at the right hand of the Father ever since. |
70,637 | There is a lot of talk these days about how to best take care of the planet but Revelation 11:18 specifically singles out those who destroy it for destruction themselves. Here is the citation in its immediate context.
>
> 15Then the seventh angel sounded; and there were loud voices in
> heaven, saying,
> “The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.” 16And the
> twenty-four elders, who sit on their thrones before God, fell on their
> faces and worshiped God, 17saying,
> “We give You thanks, O Lord God, the Almighty, who are and who were, because You have taken Your great power and have begun to reign.
> **18“And the nations were enraged, and Your wrath came, and the time came for the dead to be judged, and the time to reward Your
> bond-servants the prophets and the saints and those who fear Your
> name, the small and the great, and to destroy those who destroy the
> earth.”**
>
>
>
Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth? | 2021/10/29 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70637",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/44735/"
] | In terms of responsibility for destroying the earth, every single person on earth today is guilty, to some degree or other. We have all contributed towards global warming / climate change. Even those who advocate drastic steps to stop the world reaching a tipping point are guilty of using cars / aeroplanes, of wasting materials / resources, and I could go on. But this scripture text would draw our attention to a distinct difference God makes between two specific groups of people, for singling out one for destruction, and the other for salvation.
Further, the two categories involve ***all people who have ever lived***, not just people who will be alive at the point of Christ's return (which is still future). The Big Clue lies in, "and the time came for the dead to be judged". We know from John 5:25-29 and Revelation 20:11-12 that ***all the dead will be resurrected***, not just some of them:
>
> "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when
> the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear
> shall live. For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given
> to the Son to have life in himself; and hath given him authority to
> execute judgment also, because he is Son of man. Marvel not at this:
> for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall
> hear his voice, and shall come forth; they that have done good, unto
> the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the
> resurrection of damnation."
>
>
> "And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose
> face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place
> for them. And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and
> the books were opened..."
>
>
>
Notice in Rev. 11:18 that the angry nations are one group, and God's faithful servants / prophets / saints are another group. And notice from John 5:25 that **it is only those who "hear the voice of the Son of God" who arise to life, and not damnation. This covers all people, at all times**. Therefore, the ones who will be destroyed for destroying the earth ***cannot possibly be restricted to only the generation that will see Christ's spectacular ushering in of the Day of Resurrection and Judgment.***
Destroying God's good creation, in this case, the earth, began with the entrance of sin via disobedient humanity who chose to listen to the voice of the Serpent instead of the voice of God. That holds good throughout all of history. There is one group of people who do not hear his voice, but who hear and follow the voice of the deceiver. Sin is that which first corrupts, then destroys. That is why "the whole creation groans and travails in pain together until now... waiting for the adoption, the redemption of our body" (Romans 8:22-23).
Therefore, I suggest that **those who will be destroyed on that awful Day, are all those who did not hear the voice of the Lord, but who heard, and obeyed, the voice of the deceiver.** Those who will not be included are all those who heard the voice of the Lord, and obeyed him. For, no matter now much they may have contributed towards sin, corruption and destruction, they were forgiven and cleansed with the blood of the Lamb, transformed by grace to newness of life through obedient faith in the Son of God.
Finally, this harmonises with Revelation showing that, just before that awful Day, an angel is sent to fly above the earth, in mid-heaven, to proclaim the everlasting gospel to the whole world of humanity. His message is to fear God, to give him the glory, and to worship him. (Rev. 14:6) But the nations are angry (Rev.11:18). They do not listen to the angelic spokesperson for the Lamb (Rev. 14:1) let alone obey the command! All such will experience the anger and wrath of God. All such are those who do not hear the voice of the risen Christ that enables rising to eternal life, but who discover (too late) that they are judged adversely - because they did not hear and obey the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. Their sin remains, their sinful corruption that results in destruction is laid at their feet, and so they are justly brought to ruin, as one translation puts it: "...and to bring to ruin those ruining the earth" (NWT). | >
> **REV 11:18** *The nations were angry, and your wrath has come. The time has come for judging the dead, and for rewarding your servants the prophets
> and your people who revere your name, both great and small—and for destroying those who destroy the earth.”*
>
>
>
Destroy - diaphtheirō - to change for the worse, to corrupt.
“\*Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth?\*\*” -
First, we need to understand what the *context* is. And, that ‘context’ can *not* ‘just’ be taken from Revelation. And, neither can it be ‘tainted’ by our western worldview. The ‘environment’ may be a relevant theme for us, but it *shouldn’t* be read into this verse.
So let’s examine the context …
>
> **PSALM 2:2** *The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying,*
>
>
>
>
> **PSALM 82:2** *How long will you judge unjustly, And show partiality to the wicked?*
>
>
>
The ‘legitimate’ [for now] rulers of the nations have been ruling ‘unjustly’. They have corrupted the earth. Exactly as the Greek word ‘diaphtheirō’ - means … *to change for the worse, to corrupt.*.
The nations were handed over - Deuteronomy 8:32. But those ‘over’ the nations have corrupted the earth. And Revelation outlays how Jesus will ‘win the nations back’. In this, ‘judgement’ is coming to those rulers of the nations. Exactly as Psalm 82 outlines. And, they *are not people*! But that is another Q. |
70,637 | There is a lot of talk these days about how to best take care of the planet but Revelation 11:18 specifically singles out those who destroy it for destruction themselves. Here is the citation in its immediate context.
>
> 15Then the seventh angel sounded; and there were loud voices in
> heaven, saying,
> “The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.” 16And the
> twenty-four elders, who sit on their thrones before God, fell on their
> faces and worshiped God, 17saying,
> “We give You thanks, O Lord God, the Almighty, who are and who were, because You have taken Your great power and have begun to reign.
> **18“And the nations were enraged, and Your wrath came, and the time came for the dead to be judged, and the time to reward Your
> bond-servants the prophets and the saints and those who fear Your
> name, the small and the great, and to destroy those who destroy the
> earth.”**
>
>
>
Are there any clues from the text or the context as to how people would be destroying the earth? | 2021/10/29 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70637",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/44735/"
] | In terms of responsibility for destroying the earth, every single person on earth today is guilty, to some degree or other. We have all contributed towards global warming / climate change. Even those who advocate drastic steps to stop the world reaching a tipping point are guilty of using cars / aeroplanes, of wasting materials / resources, and I could go on. But this scripture text would draw our attention to a distinct difference God makes between two specific groups of people, for singling out one for destruction, and the other for salvation.
Further, the two categories involve ***all people who have ever lived***, not just people who will be alive at the point of Christ's return (which is still future). The Big Clue lies in, "and the time came for the dead to be judged". We know from John 5:25-29 and Revelation 20:11-12 that ***all the dead will be resurrected***, not just some of them:
>
> "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when
> the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear
> shall live. For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given
> to the Son to have life in himself; and hath given him authority to
> execute judgment also, because he is Son of man. Marvel not at this:
> for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall
> hear his voice, and shall come forth; they that have done good, unto
> the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the
> resurrection of damnation."
>
>
> "And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose
> face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place
> for them. And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and
> the books were opened..."
>
>
>
Notice in Rev. 11:18 that the angry nations are one group, and God's faithful servants / prophets / saints are another group. And notice from John 5:25 that **it is only those who "hear the voice of the Son of God" who arise to life, and not damnation. This covers all people, at all times**. Therefore, the ones who will be destroyed for destroying the earth ***cannot possibly be restricted to only the generation that will see Christ's spectacular ushering in of the Day of Resurrection and Judgment.***
Destroying God's good creation, in this case, the earth, began with the entrance of sin via disobedient humanity who chose to listen to the voice of the Serpent instead of the voice of God. That holds good throughout all of history. There is one group of people who do not hear his voice, but who hear and follow the voice of the deceiver. Sin is that which first corrupts, then destroys. That is why "the whole creation groans and travails in pain together until now... waiting for the adoption, the redemption of our body" (Romans 8:22-23).
Therefore, I suggest that **those who will be destroyed on that awful Day, are all those who did not hear the voice of the Lord, but who heard, and obeyed, the voice of the deceiver.** Those who will not be included are all those who heard the voice of the Lord, and obeyed him. For, no matter now much they may have contributed towards sin, corruption and destruction, they were forgiven and cleansed with the blood of the Lamb, transformed by grace to newness of life through obedient faith in the Son of God.
Finally, this harmonises with Revelation showing that, just before that awful Day, an angel is sent to fly above the earth, in mid-heaven, to proclaim the everlasting gospel to the whole world of humanity. His message is to fear God, to give him the glory, and to worship him. (Rev. 14:6) But the nations are angry (Rev.11:18). They do not listen to the angelic spokesperson for the Lamb (Rev. 14:1) let alone obey the command! All such will experience the anger and wrath of God. All such are those who do not hear the voice of the risen Christ that enables rising to eternal life, but who discover (too late) that they are judged adversely - because they did not hear and obey the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. Their sin remains, their sinful corruption that results in destruction is laid at their feet, and so they are justly brought to ruin, as one translation puts it: "...and to bring to ruin those ruining the earth" (NWT). | The prophesy of Revelation is the fulfillment of the OT prophesies for the woes pronounced against Israel for their sins, and especially Judea /Jerusalem. This was the fulfillment of the destruction of Israel foretold in Deu. 32, and of the 7 woes promised for their sins in Lev. 26:24ff. In prophetic language the "earth" was used for the land and the people of that land to whom the prophet was sent.
Look at Isa. 13 for the destruction prophesied against Babylon. Vs. 1, *"the burden of Babylon"* sets the context of that chapter.
>
> *"5 They come from a far country, from the end of heaven, even the Lord, and the weapons of his indignation, to destroy the whole land."* (Isa. 13:5, KJV)
>
>
>
The mighty ones God called in vs. 4 to destroy Babylon were coming from outside the borders of that kingdom, from a far country. The end of heaven was the border of the king's dominion as the king's rule and power only extended to the borders of Babylon. The foreign army from outside Babylon would come against the whole land of Babylon.
Vs. 9, *"to lay the land desolate, and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it"* is still speaking only of the prophesy against Babylon.
>
> "*13 Therefore I will shake the heavens, and the earth shall remove out of her place, in the wrath of the Lord of hosts, and in the day of his fierce anger."* (Isa. 13:13, KJV)
>
>
>
The heavens that were to be shaken were not God's heaven above, but the king's dominion over Babylon. The king's authority over the air above the land of Babylon was the king's heaven. See previous question and answer [here](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/70282/why-was-the-devil-satan-not-chained-and-kept-in-darkness-like-the-other-fallen-a/70290#70290) which explains the use of heaven(s) in OT prophesy.
Removing the earth from her place was speaking specifically of the land of Babylon. Destroying that nation would be removing that nation from her place among all the other nations.
Revelation was Jesus' prophesy revealed to John for the destruction of the land of Judea, and the city of Jerusalem. Rev. 11:1 sets the context of that chapter with the instruction to John to measure the temple. The temple was located in Jerusalem.
Vs. 8 confirms it.
>
> *"And their dead bodies shall lie in the street of the great city, which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also our Lord was crucified."* (Rev. 11:8, KJV)
>
>
>
Our Lord was crucified outside of Jerusalem. There can be no doubt that the great city to be destroyed as Sodom and Egypt had been was Jerusalem. The "earth" or land of this prophesy was the same land / people to whom Jesus was sent to prophesy (Matt. 15:24) which was in Judea, and Jerusalem to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Those who were destroying the earth of Rev. 11:18 were those evil, wicked rulers of Judea - the Sanhedrin, the scribes and Pharisees - who crucified Christ and were persecuting the Christians under the full authority and power of the Roman Caesars.
This is not a discussion of modern day pollution, nor the current political atmosphere of earth management. We cannot take the prophesy out of time and place. It was specifically concerning the wicked people of Judea and Jerusalem, and the destruction of that old Mosaic animal sacrificial temple. That judgment day against Jerusalem has already happened when that temple was torn down in AD 70.
For more scriptural proof see my post "Revelation: The Four Corners of the Earth" at [ShreddingTheVeil](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2017/05/29/revelation-the-four-corners-of-the-earth/), and "Heaven and Earth Have Passed Away" [here](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2015/08/26/heaven-earth-have-passed-away/), as well as "Frequent Mistakes - Part IV: Where Was All the World?" [here](https://shreddingtheveil.org/2018/02/01/frequent-mistakes-part-iv-where-was-all-the-world/).
Revelation was not written to us. It was written almost 2,000 years ago to the first century Christians in the 7 churches of Asia. It is recorded so that we can know and be assured that Christ won, and He has been ruling at the right hand of the Father ever since. |
143,437 | I am thinking about rooting my phone and removing some bloatware apps (like google+ and so on) that come with it. Are there any other ways to limit Google's information about that specific phone? | 2016/11/24 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/143437",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/123886/"
] | Doing the following would help in controlling the data being sent out.
1. Root your phone
2. Install a firewall (Eg: **Comodo Antivirus**, **Avast Mobile Security**)
3. Turn on firewall for applications which you don't want to communicate with the server.
4. Uninstall bloatware and unnecessary google apps using **System app remover [ROOT]** [ Make sure that the services you uninstall are absolutely unnecessary for the operation of the phone] | Some options allow you to opt out of sending various data sources to google. I'd suggest however limit linking your accounts or switch data off entirely |
14,564 | In the past 3-4 months I've noticed that on the main site, there is a ratio of about 5:1 referring Nvidia graphics questions than anything else, and I'm wondering why? I do understand that NVidia being a very large distributor, there will be more people asking questions, but even with comparison to questions relating FGLRX (Or even AMD cards in general,) NVidia are around 8x more prominent and visible. Is this because NVidia drivers are more complicated, or that less people use AMD? It's also getting annoying with the 100 questions a day on the same "NVIDIA DRIVERS NOT INSTALLING.. HELLLLLPPPPPPPP" and then marking duplicate after duplicate. This is a kind of rant, and I'm sorry for that but I really don't know why so many people have questions on NVidia! | 2015/10/21 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/14564",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/431864/"
] | We should have a canonical question that we can point people to which exhausts the list of how to install Nvidia drivers using the new blessed Nvidia driver ppa. | Agreed, I see many of these questions across the Internet, not just here. Someone should just create a wiki page that we could link people to. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | Generally when people ask these kinds of questions, they're just trying to get to know what sort of person you are. Your answer gives them a sense of your interests, and how you spend your time. Beyond that, whether consciously, or unconsciously, they're feeling out your soft skills. Small talk gives people a sense of how approachable you are, your sense of humor, your personality.
The way you choose to answer a simple question about what you study ends up telling the person a lot more than your field of study. So, you'll have to ask yourself what sort of impression you want to leave on your conversation partner. Are you intellectually smug? Are you intelligent, yet grounded? Are you nerdy, but quick with a joke? Would you rather not be bothered?
What you actually study has little to do with that impression, unless the person has a similar background or interests. Granted, high level math has a rather small target audience, and most people won't understand what you're studying, but you can choose to think less of them, or you can navigate the conversation with a little more skill and find some common ground. Once you've found common ground, you'll probably leave a much better impression.
Rather than focusing on your field, you could segue into campus life, student loan debt, the cost of textbooks, or pretty much anything that's study/university adjacent. These are topics that a much wider audience will be familiar with, and will likely lead to a more natural conversation.
For instance, my brother is an electrical engineer. Most people, in the small town we grew up in, would have a hard time understanding what he was studying, but he went to a university with a rather well known football team. This made for an easy place to segue to. He could tell a story about going to see a game, or the school's hyper focus on its sports program and shift the conversation towards something that people could relate to and have a light conversation about.
Think of small talk like tennis or ping-pong, but rather than trying to score points, you're looking for a volley. Nice gentle serves that people can return. If you're the guy who spikes the ball at every opportunity, and complains that people can't return the serve, you'll eventually be limited to a very small set of people who are interested in playing. | So is the question really about what you study? Because you answer *What do you study* with **Math**.
Or is this question on how to explain what you are studying? So after you respond with **math** they follow up with question *and what do you do exactly*?
In the latter, from personal experience, people don't want to know what you do exactly. It is, as you stated, just a conversation starter. So you can just say "theorems and proofs". It may not be true but any other answer will give the same impression.
Also from personal experience, you can just say that the whole field is big as universe and your section is closer in size to solar system.
I don't go into detail about my work, unless my interlocutor shows me they knows something we can talk about.
Also I picked up few "tricks" that look amazing but are actually totally useless. In math department I think it may be those "Asian" way of multiplying large numbers. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | I agree with the answers saying this is basically small talk, but have a different approach on how to respond.
In my experience (biomedical electrical engineering), nobody cares what exactly you do (programming an algorithm to extract stuff from signals, calculating electrical fields, simulating a circuit), they simply want to be entertained.
In my case, I say we do stuff like pace makers, mri, ct, etc. That's enough for 90% of people, because they don't even care how exactly you do that. It's enough to **visualize what you do** though.
I'd recommend the same to you. Don't say “bayesian summarizing of unexplicable vectorized vodoo data“, make it so the other person can “touch“ what you do. Say for example
>
> I could calculate credit scores based on how your friends behave on social media.
>
>
>
Or
>
> I can consult with firms that don't know why they produce so much waste instead of product by analyzing how much waste is created at the different stations and predicting how changes will improve that.
>
>
>
Or whatever floats your boat. Just don't make it about math. Frame it differently. Understandable.
If someone insists (but doesn't have the knowledge to understand it), you can still throw the 7-dimensional integration of qubit-quarks at them. Then they can say “ohhh wow, that sounds hard“ and you're over it. I've never come across someone who was interested in more details.
Details are boring. A conversation is entertainment. Think about a few standard lines that sound cool and you're fine. They don't want a clear picture. If you're just into theoretical stuff without application, you can still say
>
> I invent the stuff the engineers can use in a 100 years to make flying cars. Just like Einstein invented the theory of relativity which helped us get to space.
>
>
>
(Accuracy = details = boring). If you want something more accurate, spend some time finding something equally catchy. | So is the question really about what you study? Because you answer *What do you study* with **Math**.
Or is this question on how to explain what you are studying? So after you respond with **math** they follow up with question *and what do you do exactly*?
In the latter, from personal experience, people don't want to know what you do exactly. It is, as you stated, just a conversation starter. So you can just say "theorems and proofs". It may not be true but any other answer will give the same impression.
Also from personal experience, you can just say that the whole field is big as universe and your section is closer in size to solar system.
I don't go into detail about my work, unless my interlocutor shows me they knows something we can talk about.
Also I picked up few "tricks" that look amazing but are actually totally useless. In math department I think it may be those "Asian" way of multiplying large numbers. |
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