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18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | So is the question really about what you study? Because you answer *What do you study* with **Math**.
Or is this question on how to explain what you are studying? So after you respond with **math** they follow up with question *and what do you do exactly*?
In the latter, from personal experience, people don't want to know what you do exactly. It is, as you stated, just a conversation starter. So you can just say "theorems and proofs". It may not be true but any other answer will give the same impression.
Also from personal experience, you can just say that the whole field is big as universe and your section is closer in size to solar system.
I don't go into detail about my work, unless my interlocutor shows me they knows something we can talk about.
Also I picked up few "tricks" that look amazing but are actually totally useless. In math department I think it may be those "Asian" way of multiplying large numbers. | Another way to answer this question is what do you plan to do with your math degree.
I study computer science which often leads to the joking (or sometimes serious) question "Can you fix my computer/printer/wifi?"
I usually use this stereotype to segue into what I hope to do with my degree.
"Oh, I'm not a IT/hardware/networking expert. I'm studying so that I can later ..." Then finish up with what you plan to do with you degree
This addresses why studying math is practical (you are planning a career), any stereotypes they might have about math careers (you reorient the conversation around your goals and interests, not ten-year old protégées), and usually stops teasing (because you give a serious reply).
For example, if someone asks "What do you study", you would reply, "I'm studying math, so that I can later..."
* Teach math
* Consult on X/Y or Z
* Become an actuary
* Become a day trader
* Whatever it is that you hope to do in math
Talking about what your future plans are is another way to make your degree accessible. Like many of the other answers, people have a mental picture of day traders, actuaries and consultants, while they might not understand the theoretical basic of their jobs, so they can continue the conversation in a relevant direction.
The one disclaimer for this answer is if you hope to become a theorist. No one knows what theorists do (joke). Then I would suggest using DonQuiKong's answer to flesh out what area you hope to contribute to in theory. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | Generally when people ask these kinds of questions, they're just trying to get to know what sort of person you are. Your answer gives them a sense of your interests, and how you spend your time. Beyond that, whether consciously, or unconsciously, they're feeling out your soft skills. Small talk gives people a sense of how approachable you are, your sense of humor, your personality.
The way you choose to answer a simple question about what you study ends up telling the person a lot more than your field of study. So, you'll have to ask yourself what sort of impression you want to leave on your conversation partner. Are you intellectually smug? Are you intelligent, yet grounded? Are you nerdy, but quick with a joke? Would you rather not be bothered?
What you actually study has little to do with that impression, unless the person has a similar background or interests. Granted, high level math has a rather small target audience, and most people won't understand what you're studying, but you can choose to think less of them, or you can navigate the conversation with a little more skill and find some common ground. Once you've found common ground, you'll probably leave a much better impression.
Rather than focusing on your field, you could segue into campus life, student loan debt, the cost of textbooks, or pretty much anything that's study/university adjacent. These are topics that a much wider audience will be familiar with, and will likely lead to a more natural conversation.
For instance, my brother is an electrical engineer. Most people, in the small town we grew up in, would have a hard time understanding what he was studying, but he went to a university with a rather well known football team. This made for an easy place to segue to. He could tell a story about going to see a game, or the school's hyper focus on its sports program and shift the conversation towards something that people could relate to and have a light conversation about.
Think of small talk like tennis or ping-pong, but rather than trying to score points, you're looking for a volley. Nice gentle serves that people can return. If you're the guy who spikes the ball at every opportunity, and complains that people can't return the serve, you'll eventually be limited to a very small set of people who are interested in playing. | I agree with the answers saying this is basically small talk, but have a different approach on how to respond.
In my experience (biomedical electrical engineering), nobody cares what exactly you do (programming an algorithm to extract stuff from signals, calculating electrical fields, simulating a circuit), they simply want to be entertained.
In my case, I say we do stuff like pace makers, mri, ct, etc. That's enough for 90% of people, because they don't even care how exactly you do that. It's enough to **visualize what you do** though.
I'd recommend the same to you. Don't say “bayesian summarizing of unexplicable vectorized vodoo data“, make it so the other person can “touch“ what you do. Say for example
>
> I could calculate credit scores based on how your friends behave on social media.
>
>
>
Or
>
> I can consult with firms that don't know why they produce so much waste instead of product by analyzing how much waste is created at the different stations and predicting how changes will improve that.
>
>
>
Or whatever floats your boat. Just don't make it about math. Frame it differently. Understandable.
If someone insists (but doesn't have the knowledge to understand it), you can still throw the 7-dimensional integration of qubit-quarks at them. Then they can say “ohhh wow, that sounds hard“ and you're over it. I've never come across someone who was interested in more details.
Details are boring. A conversation is entertainment. Think about a few standard lines that sound cool and you're fine. They don't want a clear picture. If you're just into theoretical stuff without application, you can still say
>
> I invent the stuff the engineers can use in a 100 years to make flying cars. Just like Einstein invented the theory of relativity which helped us get to space.
>
>
>
(Accuracy = details = boring). If you want something more accurate, spend some time finding something equally catchy. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | Generally when people ask these kinds of questions, they're just trying to get to know what sort of person you are. Your answer gives them a sense of your interests, and how you spend your time. Beyond that, whether consciously, or unconsciously, they're feeling out your soft skills. Small talk gives people a sense of how approachable you are, your sense of humor, your personality.
The way you choose to answer a simple question about what you study ends up telling the person a lot more than your field of study. So, you'll have to ask yourself what sort of impression you want to leave on your conversation partner. Are you intellectually smug? Are you intelligent, yet grounded? Are you nerdy, but quick with a joke? Would you rather not be bothered?
What you actually study has little to do with that impression, unless the person has a similar background or interests. Granted, high level math has a rather small target audience, and most people won't understand what you're studying, but you can choose to think less of them, or you can navigate the conversation with a little more skill and find some common ground. Once you've found common ground, you'll probably leave a much better impression.
Rather than focusing on your field, you could segue into campus life, student loan debt, the cost of textbooks, or pretty much anything that's study/university adjacent. These are topics that a much wider audience will be familiar with, and will likely lead to a more natural conversation.
For instance, my brother is an electrical engineer. Most people, in the small town we grew up in, would have a hard time understanding what he was studying, but he went to a university with a rather well known football team. This made for an easy place to segue to. He could tell a story about going to see a game, or the school's hyper focus on its sports program and shift the conversation towards something that people could relate to and have a light conversation about.
Think of small talk like tennis or ping-pong, but rather than trying to score points, you're looking for a volley. Nice gentle serves that people can return. If you're the guy who spikes the ball at every opportunity, and complains that people can't return the serve, you'll eventually be limited to a very small set of people who are interested in playing. | Another way to answer this question is what do you plan to do with your math degree.
I study computer science which often leads to the joking (or sometimes serious) question "Can you fix my computer/printer/wifi?"
I usually use this stereotype to segue into what I hope to do with my degree.
"Oh, I'm not a IT/hardware/networking expert. I'm studying so that I can later ..." Then finish up with what you plan to do with you degree
This addresses why studying math is practical (you are planning a career), any stereotypes they might have about math careers (you reorient the conversation around your goals and interests, not ten-year old protégées), and usually stops teasing (because you give a serious reply).
For example, if someone asks "What do you study", you would reply, "I'm studying math, so that I can later..."
* Teach math
* Consult on X/Y or Z
* Become an actuary
* Become a day trader
* Whatever it is that you hope to do in math
Talking about what your future plans are is another way to make your degree accessible. Like many of the other answers, people have a mental picture of day traders, actuaries and consultants, while they might not understand the theoretical basic of their jobs, so they can continue the conversation in a relevant direction.
The one disclaimer for this answer is if you hope to become a theorist. No one knows what theorists do (joke). Then I would suggest using DonQuiKong's answer to flesh out what area you hope to contribute to in theory. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | Generally when people ask these kinds of questions, they're just trying to get to know what sort of person you are. Your answer gives them a sense of your interests, and how you spend your time. Beyond that, whether consciously, or unconsciously, they're feeling out your soft skills. Small talk gives people a sense of how approachable you are, your sense of humor, your personality.
The way you choose to answer a simple question about what you study ends up telling the person a lot more than your field of study. So, you'll have to ask yourself what sort of impression you want to leave on your conversation partner. Are you intellectually smug? Are you intelligent, yet grounded? Are you nerdy, but quick with a joke? Would you rather not be bothered?
What you actually study has little to do with that impression, unless the person has a similar background or interests. Granted, high level math has a rather small target audience, and most people won't understand what you're studying, but you can choose to think less of them, or you can navigate the conversation with a little more skill and find some common ground. Once you've found common ground, you'll probably leave a much better impression.
Rather than focusing on your field, you could segue into campus life, student loan debt, the cost of textbooks, or pretty much anything that's study/university adjacent. These are topics that a much wider audience will be familiar with, and will likely lead to a more natural conversation.
For instance, my brother is an electrical engineer. Most people, in the small town we grew up in, would have a hard time understanding what he was studying, but he went to a university with a rather well known football team. This made for an easy place to segue to. He could tell a story about going to see a game, or the school's hyper focus on its sports program and shift the conversation towards something that people could relate to and have a light conversation about.
Think of small talk like tennis or ping-pong, but rather than trying to score points, you're looking for a volley. Nice gentle serves that people can return. If you're the guy who spikes the ball at every opportunity, and complains that people can't return the serve, you'll eventually be limited to a very small set of people who are interested in playing. | I personally think that the right answer for you will depend strongly on your mathematical philosophy. If you are a platonist, then mathematics is completely about **discovering truths** (not about **evaluating mathematical expressions** as per your point 3). If you are a formalist, then mathematics is just about **proving theorems** within your chosen foundational system, and whether they are 'nice' or not is a matter of mathematical aesthetics. If you are a finitist, then almost all higher abstract mathematics taught in university are meaningless to begin with, and you may not have a good answer. If you are unconcerned with foundations and philosophy of mathematics, then I think you should at least figure out what **you** personally believe in and wish to gain from mathematics, because that ought to drive your mathematical exploration, and hence how you explain that exploration to others.
To specifically address your points:
>
> I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs.
>
>
>
As long as you are not anti-platonist, phrase it not as "theorems and proofs" but as "facts and justifications".
>
> There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra).
>
>
>
You can if you wish mention very basic results like the intermediate value theorem, but phrased in a layman way or even weakened. For example:
>
> If you draw a curve from one corner of a square to the opposite corner through the interior of the square, without lifting your pen, you must at some point cross the diagonal between the other two corners.
>
>
>
Yes, I know that this is not accurate; it is only about piecewise smooth curves, and does not convey the complexity of continuous curves. But it is just to get the point across that it is a fact that can actually be **proven** and not just left to intuition or guesswork.
>
> My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies.
>
>
>
Well image processing is not on the pure mathematics side, so if you are a pure mathematics student then clearly using such examples might not sit well with explaining what **you** study. So instead try to find examples in your specializations.
>
> They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
>
>
>
If you like game theory, you can try to use simpler examples. There is no need to explain the most complicated knowledge that you have gained from university. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | I agree with the answers saying this is basically small talk, but have a different approach on how to respond.
In my experience (biomedical electrical engineering), nobody cares what exactly you do (programming an algorithm to extract stuff from signals, calculating electrical fields, simulating a circuit), they simply want to be entertained.
In my case, I say we do stuff like pace makers, mri, ct, etc. That's enough for 90% of people, because they don't even care how exactly you do that. It's enough to **visualize what you do** though.
I'd recommend the same to you. Don't say “bayesian summarizing of unexplicable vectorized vodoo data“, make it so the other person can “touch“ what you do. Say for example
>
> I could calculate credit scores based on how your friends behave on social media.
>
>
>
Or
>
> I can consult with firms that don't know why they produce so much waste instead of product by analyzing how much waste is created at the different stations and predicting how changes will improve that.
>
>
>
Or whatever floats your boat. Just don't make it about math. Frame it differently. Understandable.
If someone insists (but doesn't have the knowledge to understand it), you can still throw the 7-dimensional integration of qubit-quarks at them. Then they can say “ohhh wow, that sounds hard“ and you're over it. I've never come across someone who was interested in more details.
Details are boring. A conversation is entertainment. Think about a few standard lines that sound cool and you're fine. They don't want a clear picture. If you're just into theoretical stuff without application, you can still say
>
> I invent the stuff the engineers can use in a 100 years to make flying cars. Just like Einstein invented the theory of relativity which helped us get to space.
>
>
>
(Accuracy = details = boring). If you want something more accurate, spend some time finding something equally catchy. | Another way to answer this question is what do you plan to do with your math degree.
I study computer science which often leads to the joking (or sometimes serious) question "Can you fix my computer/printer/wifi?"
I usually use this stereotype to segue into what I hope to do with my degree.
"Oh, I'm not a IT/hardware/networking expert. I'm studying so that I can later ..." Then finish up with what you plan to do with you degree
This addresses why studying math is practical (you are planning a career), any stereotypes they might have about math careers (you reorient the conversation around your goals and interests, not ten-year old protégées), and usually stops teasing (because you give a serious reply).
For example, if someone asks "What do you study", you would reply, "I'm studying math, so that I can later..."
* Teach math
* Consult on X/Y or Z
* Become an actuary
* Become a day trader
* Whatever it is that you hope to do in math
Talking about what your future plans are is another way to make your degree accessible. Like many of the other answers, people have a mental picture of day traders, actuaries and consultants, while they might not understand the theoretical basic of their jobs, so they can continue the conversation in a relevant direction.
The one disclaimer for this answer is if you hope to become a theorist. No one knows what theorists do (joke). Then I would suggest using DonQuiKong's answer to flesh out what area you hope to contribute to in theory. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | I agree with the answers saying this is basically small talk, but have a different approach on how to respond.
In my experience (biomedical electrical engineering), nobody cares what exactly you do (programming an algorithm to extract stuff from signals, calculating electrical fields, simulating a circuit), they simply want to be entertained.
In my case, I say we do stuff like pace makers, mri, ct, etc. That's enough for 90% of people, because they don't even care how exactly you do that. It's enough to **visualize what you do** though.
I'd recommend the same to you. Don't say “bayesian summarizing of unexplicable vectorized vodoo data“, make it so the other person can “touch“ what you do. Say for example
>
> I could calculate credit scores based on how your friends behave on social media.
>
>
>
Or
>
> I can consult with firms that don't know why they produce so much waste instead of product by analyzing how much waste is created at the different stations and predicting how changes will improve that.
>
>
>
Or whatever floats your boat. Just don't make it about math. Frame it differently. Understandable.
If someone insists (but doesn't have the knowledge to understand it), you can still throw the 7-dimensional integration of qubit-quarks at them. Then they can say “ohhh wow, that sounds hard“ and you're over it. I've never come across someone who was interested in more details.
Details are boring. A conversation is entertainment. Think about a few standard lines that sound cool and you're fine. They don't want a clear picture. If you're just into theoretical stuff without application, you can still say
>
> I invent the stuff the engineers can use in a 100 years to make flying cars. Just like Einstein invented the theory of relativity which helped us get to space.
>
>
>
(Accuracy = details = boring). If you want something more accurate, spend some time finding something equally catchy. | I personally think that the right answer for you will depend strongly on your mathematical philosophy. If you are a platonist, then mathematics is completely about **discovering truths** (not about **evaluating mathematical expressions** as per your point 3). If you are a formalist, then mathematics is just about **proving theorems** within your chosen foundational system, and whether they are 'nice' or not is a matter of mathematical aesthetics. If you are a finitist, then almost all higher abstract mathematics taught in university are meaningless to begin with, and you may not have a good answer. If you are unconcerned with foundations and philosophy of mathematics, then I think you should at least figure out what **you** personally believe in and wish to gain from mathematics, because that ought to drive your mathematical exploration, and hence how you explain that exploration to others.
To specifically address your points:
>
> I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs.
>
>
>
As long as you are not anti-platonist, phrase it not as "theorems and proofs" but as "facts and justifications".
>
> There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra).
>
>
>
You can if you wish mention very basic results like the intermediate value theorem, but phrased in a layman way or even weakened. For example:
>
> If you draw a curve from one corner of a square to the opposite corner through the interior of the square, without lifting your pen, you must at some point cross the diagonal between the other two corners.
>
>
>
Yes, I know that this is not accurate; it is only about piecewise smooth curves, and does not convey the complexity of continuous curves. But it is just to get the point across that it is a fact that can actually be **proven** and not just left to intuition or guesswork.
>
> My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies.
>
>
>
Well image processing is not on the pure mathematics side, so if you are a pure mathematics student then clearly using such examples might not sit well with explaining what **you** study. So instead try to find examples in your specializations.
>
> They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
>
>
>
If you like game theory, you can try to use simpler examples. There is no need to explain the most complicated knowledge that you have gained from university. |
18,236 | Background: I’m completing a BSc Mathematics, currently in year 4.
A lot of people who have almost no mathematical background ask me what I study in university. I understand that this is a very common way (at least in my country) to start a conversation to an undergraduate, but I think that this is inappropriate.
I am not going to blame them because I believe that they truly don’t understand what mathematicians are doing (perhaps I don’t either). Also, explaining what to study in other majors appears to be much easier (at least for me). For example, a CS student may explain with an applied course (such as mobile app development). This is even easier for job-oriented subjects (law, social work etc).
I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs. There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra). My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies. They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
Worse still, they
1. start feeling that studying maths is useless (and I believe that a lot of people think so).
2. start by teasing at people who study math. That’s fine because it is OK for me to simply ignore them after a detailed explanation (e.g. studying math trains one’s reasoning skills), but this is in no way a good situation.
3. start by saying something irrelevant, especially for those who entirely don’t know advanced maths. For example, they think that a 10-year-old child who won in a competition by correctly doing a large number of mental arithmetic calculation in a short time is very good at maths.
I usually try to explain in detail, slowly and patiently, but in vain. Any hint? | 2018/09/05 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/18236",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/4332/"
] | I personally think that the right answer for you will depend strongly on your mathematical philosophy. If you are a platonist, then mathematics is completely about **discovering truths** (not about **evaluating mathematical expressions** as per your point 3). If you are a formalist, then mathematics is just about **proving theorems** within your chosen foundational system, and whether they are 'nice' or not is a matter of mathematical aesthetics. If you are a finitist, then almost all higher abstract mathematics taught in university are meaningless to begin with, and you may not have a good answer. If you are unconcerned with foundations and philosophy of mathematics, then I think you should at least figure out what **you** personally believe in and wish to gain from mathematics, because that ought to drive your mathematical exploration, and hence how you explain that exploration to others.
To specifically address your points:
>
> I usually start by saying that MATH students study rigorous maths like theorems and proofs.
>
>
>
As long as you are not anti-platonist, phrase it not as "theorems and proofs" but as "facts and justifications".
>
> There are several domains like PDE and applied maths (I’m not going to talk about analysis and algebra because the discussion will soon go into chaos, and I believe they know nothing about elementary calculus and linear algebra).
>
>
>
You can if you wish mention very basic results like the intermediate value theorem, but phrased in a layman way or even weakened. For example:
>
> If you draw a curve from one corner of a square to the opposite corner through the interior of the square, without lifting your pen, you must at some point cross the diagonal between the other two corners.
>
>
>
Yes, I know that this is not accurate; it is only about piecewise smooth curves, and does not convey the complexity of continuous curves. But it is just to get the point across that it is a fact that can actually be **proven** and not just left to intuition or guesswork.
>
> My most “real-life” example is image processing (and perhaps, no other examples). However, I think emphasising such an example does not give a very clear picture of what a math student studies.
>
>
>
Well image processing is not on the pure mathematics side, so if you are a pure mathematics student then clearly using such examples might not sit well with explaining what **you** study. So instead try to find examples in your specializations.
>
> They may even have difficulty understanding cooperative strategy in game theory.
>
>
>
If you like game theory, you can try to use simpler examples. There is no need to explain the most complicated knowledge that you have gained from university. | Another way to answer this question is what do you plan to do with your math degree.
I study computer science which often leads to the joking (or sometimes serious) question "Can you fix my computer/printer/wifi?"
I usually use this stereotype to segue into what I hope to do with my degree.
"Oh, I'm not a IT/hardware/networking expert. I'm studying so that I can later ..." Then finish up with what you plan to do with you degree
This addresses why studying math is practical (you are planning a career), any stereotypes they might have about math careers (you reorient the conversation around your goals and interests, not ten-year old protégées), and usually stops teasing (because you give a serious reply).
For example, if someone asks "What do you study", you would reply, "I'm studying math, so that I can later..."
* Teach math
* Consult on X/Y or Z
* Become an actuary
* Become a day trader
* Whatever it is that you hope to do in math
Talking about what your future plans are is another way to make your degree accessible. Like many of the other answers, people have a mental picture of day traders, actuaries and consultants, while they might not understand the theoretical basic of their jobs, so they can continue the conversation in a relevant direction.
The one disclaimer for this answer is if you hope to become a theorist. No one knows what theorists do (joke). Then I would suggest using DonQuiKong's answer to flesh out what area you hope to contribute to in theory. |
48,397 | Let's say player rolled a glitch and weapon is jammed. What skill should he roll to unjam it?
I tried to find this info in core rulebook but I failed. It makes no sense to me to use Armorer (Logic) skill here. Maybe it's just a matter of spending complex action? | 2014/09/24 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/48397",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/4094/"
] | All editions of D&D (and indeed, almost all RPGs) are written with us and our knowledge of the world as the baseline, only adding to and altering that where it needs to and says so.
So when the game says "flammable objects", it's relying on the words "flammable" and "objects" to have their dictionary meanings, and the set of flammable objects is the same as in the real world except where the game specifically adds or removes objects from that set. Thus, a summer forest may\* contain dry tinder that may\* catch on fire, and normal cotton robes† may catch on fire. A cask of high-proof liquor is *potentially* flammable, just like in real life, but also just like in real life, it's not going to be lit by a momentary gout of flame because solid wood staves don't light instantly — to blow up a volatile liquid in a wooden cask, you have to expose it to intense heat for more than a few seconds.
\* I say "may" twice, because unless you previously establish that the target is standing in dry tinder, it's only possible that the *burning hands* fan also hits something that could catch on fire; and because even if some tinder catches on fire, you're not guaranteed that the whole forest goes up in flames. This is where your discretion as a DM comes in: decide what a sensible chance is, and ask the dice.
† Speaking of things altered by the game rules though: if a flammable object is worn or carried by someone, it does *not* automatically catch on fire just because *burning hands* says flammable objects catch fire. Worn and carried objects always grant a saving throw against that kind of outcome. | If it would burn in real life, then it burns in the gameworld. The forest is flammable; the cultists' robes are flammable; the casks and alchemical liquids are all likely to be flammable. And, of course, many things the PC is carrying are flammable too.
However. 3e introduced a saving throw for burning hands, so if the cultists make theirs the normal ruling is that their items are safe. 1e had item saving throws, so if your system has those then perhaps the trees and the casks etc. will have make a save too.
But, yes, careful use of burning hands can cause havok among your enemies while careless use can cause them equal levels of amusement. |
197,604 | I am building a little home network, and bought a 6U server rack.
Right now, it's sitting in the attic, and I am trying to think how to best hang it up.
I am pretty new to this, and I am bit concerned about drilling anything in attic, as not to compromise the integrity of the structure.
The weight of the rack is about 20KG, currently. I am thinking it will be around 50-70 KG a few years down the line, as I add more stuff.
Any recommendations how to best hang it in, based on the picture below?
I can provide more pictures if below doesn't make sense.
Thanks!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mWH4i.jpg) | 2020/07/14 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/197604",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/119829/"
] | Last place I'd put one, as a network/wiring pro. Basements (off the floor/above flood levels) are good, attics not so much, and anywhere you plan to inhabit is usually a poor choice (the noise gets very tedious very quickly.) Thus, an attic that you think will be cool enough because you'll convert it to a room that you will use is still not a good choice.
Apart from the background temperature of the space on whatever a hot day is in your mild climate, have you considered how you will deal with the heat this will be pumping out continuously when you've loaded it up with 70 KG of stuff that uses power?
As for mounting it, either drill into the masonry wall and use appropriate masonry anchors and bolts, or put planks across the framing it's sitting next to and use lag bolts. If planks on the front of the framing would upset your finishing plans, mount a plank (roughly 37mm or 1.5 inch thick) between framing members to be behind the finish layer you plan, and get that finish layer (or a piece of plywood the same thickness as your planned finish layer) in place behind the rack, before mounting it. | All that wood is oversized (this is how buildings are designed), making 6mm holes for lag bolts, coach bolts, or structural screws will not compromise the structure significantly.
Others have suggested that it may be too hot in the attic, adding a vent to the roof
will help, then adding a duct from the eaves to the server cabinet will then feed outside air to the cabinet which should keep the temperature in the cabinet down. |
107,118 | I'll confess that I have a real issue with iron--it rusts quickly. In fact, the History Channel program *Life After People* constantly states that, left to its own devices, the iron that makes up a skyscraper's skeleton would have a standing lifespan of 100-150 years before rust weakens the skeleton into pieces.
Long ago, I asked a question [regarding the construction of metal weapons without the use of iron at all.](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/84592/a-non-iron-elvish-steel/84669?noredirect=1#comment324718_84669) In the answers selection, many candidates have been suggested, and they are:
1. Titanium Alumnide
2. Nickel Superalloy
3. Nickel Alumnide
4. Stellite
5. Tungsten Carbide
6. Zirconium Carbide
7. An alloy of Titanium and Tungsten
What makes this list relevant to the question is that steel or any other kind of alloy had been used to make weapons before their use in construction, so the principle would be identical.
In an alternate, cyber-or-steam-punk New York, Chicago, Dallas or any of the United States' biggest cities, these listed metals and alloys had been considered for construction of mega-towers (a little like [this](https://steamcommunity.com/sharedfiles/filedetails/?id=868797945) or [this](https://wallhere.com/en/wallpaper/221588) or, if you want to go more historical, [the artworks of Hugh Ferriss](https://untappedcities.com/2011/11/16/the-new-york-city-that-never-was-a-visionary-dream-of-the-1916-zoning-resolution/).) Using the science involved, which of the listed metals would be strongest in regards to tension, compression and resistance to corrosion?
*Oh, and before anyone asks, this question stresses on* quality, *not* quantity. | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/107118",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/10274/"
] | If rust is the problem, **why not trade iron for stainless steel?**
A quick look at [coefficients of thermal expansion](https://www.engineeringtoolbox.com/linear-expansion-coefficients-d_95.html) suggests that you can get stainless steel with a similar coefficient to that of concrete, and because it's so similar to iron, you won't have to change your construction methods much, if at all. | Researchers at MIT have used graphene to develop a lightweight material that’s 10 times stronger than steel that could potentially be used to manufacture vehicles and devices, as well as in building construction.
A team of researchers in MIT’s Department of Civil and Environmental Engineering (CEE) designed the 3D material—one of the most lightweight and strongest ever developed—by compressing and fusing flakes of graphene, a two-dimensional form of carbon. The result is a sponge-like configuration with a density of just 5% that is incredibly strong, they said.
Graphene, in 2D form, is believed to be one of the strongest of known materials, but its strength in the 2D world has been difficult to translate in a 3D material. Graphene has exceptional strength, but because of its extraordinary thinness, it is not very useful for making 3D bulk materials that could be used in vehicles, buildings, or devices without first translating graphene into three-dimensional structures.
The geometrical configuration of the is the dominant factor in their characteristics and the success in using graphene to design them.
Researchers developed the material by compressing small flakes of graphene using a combination of heat and pressure. This process produced a strong, stable structure with shapes that resembled some corals and microscopic creatures called diatoms
~credit: "designnews.com" and "MIT.com/CEE" respectively |
107,118 | I'll confess that I have a real issue with iron--it rusts quickly. In fact, the History Channel program *Life After People* constantly states that, left to its own devices, the iron that makes up a skyscraper's skeleton would have a standing lifespan of 100-150 years before rust weakens the skeleton into pieces.
Long ago, I asked a question [regarding the construction of metal weapons without the use of iron at all.](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/84592/a-non-iron-elvish-steel/84669?noredirect=1#comment324718_84669) In the answers selection, many candidates have been suggested, and they are:
1. Titanium Alumnide
2. Nickel Superalloy
3. Nickel Alumnide
4. Stellite
5. Tungsten Carbide
6. Zirconium Carbide
7. An alloy of Titanium and Tungsten
What makes this list relevant to the question is that steel or any other kind of alloy had been used to make weapons before their use in construction, so the principle would be identical.
In an alternate, cyber-or-steam-punk New York, Chicago, Dallas or any of the United States' biggest cities, these listed metals and alloys had been considered for construction of mega-towers (a little like [this](https://steamcommunity.com/sharedfiles/filedetails/?id=868797945) or [this](https://wallhere.com/en/wallpaper/221588) or, if you want to go more historical, [the artworks of Hugh Ferriss](https://untappedcities.com/2011/11/16/the-new-york-city-that-never-was-a-visionary-dream-of-the-1916-zoning-resolution/).) Using the science involved, which of the listed metals would be strongest in regards to tension, compression and resistance to corrosion?
*Oh, and before anyone asks, this question stresses on* quality, *not* quantity. | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/107118",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/10274/"
] | If rust is the problem, **why not trade iron for stainless steel?**
A quick look at [coefficients of thermal expansion](https://www.engineeringtoolbox.com/linear-expansion-coefficients-d_95.html) suggests that you can get stainless steel with a similar coefficient to that of concrete, and because it's so similar to iron, you won't have to change your construction methods much, if at all. | Why metals at all? Concrete and **[composite rebar](https://www.compositesworld.com/articles/a-hidden-revolution-frp-rebar-gains-strength)** (carbon fiber reinforced plastic, glass FRP, aramid FRP) construction is now used in structures such as bridges precisely because they do not rust, and are light. Such technology could be applied to [concrete skyscrapers](http://www.constructionweekonline.com/article-9184-top-10-worlds-tallest-concrete-buildings/).
The same technology applies to [truss structures](https://www.compositesworld.com/articles/composite-trusses-for-large-structures). There is a clear path today towards replacing structural steel with composites. |
219,524 | I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead (I know the LHC has a different setup but I believe the underlying principle is the same). So my question is why are electrons preferred in synchrotrons?
I figured that an electron would be a better choice because its mass is small. Therefore, less energy would be expended to accelerate the electrons to relativistic speeds.
Any other suggestions would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/11/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219524",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/99076/"
] | >
> I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead..
>
>
>
The first thing that you should know is that there are two completely different uses for synchrotrons. There are (1) "collider" synchrotrons used for the study of elementary particles, and there are (2) synchrotron light sources, which are synchrotrons designed purely to give off intense x-ray beams which can be used for x-ray diffraction and other experiments. These are two entirely different animals.
"Collider" synchrotrons came first. These types of synchrotrons accelerate particles such as electrons or protons in opposite directions around a circular "racetrack" and observe what new particles are created when the beams collide. At Cornell University where I was a grad student, we had a synchrotron which sent electrons in one direction and positrons in the opposite direction and then studied the new particles created from their collisions. I was told that an advantage of using electrons-positron collisions rather than something like proton-antiproton collisions was that the electrons-positron collisions were "cleaner" and easier to analyze. Proton-antiproton collisions are apparently more difficult to analyze because each proton (or antiproton) is actually made up of three quarks, so there are actually six elementary particles involved in every proton-antiproton collision. On the other hand, I think that an advantage to using proton-antiproton collisions for elementary particle studies is that it's easier to get very high energy collisions between between proton-antiproton pairs than electron-positron pairs because protons have a higher rest mass than electrons and not as much energy is lost to synchrotron radiation when accelerating protons as opposed to electrons.
For the other type of synchrotrons, synchrotron light sources, generating a lot of synchrotron radiation is actually desired for x-ray and other experiments, so electrons have an advantage over protons because they give off a lot more radiation than protons when accelerated to a given energy. There is no need or desire to study particle collisions with this type of synchrotron, so only an electron beam circulating around the synchrotron ring in one direction is generated. There is no electron or positron beam circulating in the opposite direction.
A final note: The Cornell "collider" synchrotron that operated while I was a student there was apparently retired in 2008. However, the machine lives on in its new role as a dedicated synchrotron light source that provides intense x-rays for experiments performed by visiting scientists. | When you use electrons, you can produce a source of extremely high intensity light called synchrotron light. This light is produced mainly in the X ray part of the spectrum and can be up to 10 billion times brighter than solar light. Using this light allows a study of matter at a better resolution than using protons.
Electrons can probe matter to smaller scales and with less "by-products" reactions than more complicated protons.
Also, as far as I know, it's cheaper to build and run an electron synchrotron because the magnetic and electrical power needed is not as great as when using protons, as in the LHC. |
219,524 | I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead (I know the LHC has a different setup but I believe the underlying principle is the same). So my question is why are electrons preferred in synchrotrons?
I figured that an electron would be a better choice because its mass is small. Therefore, less energy would be expended to accelerate the electrons to relativistic speeds.
Any other suggestions would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/11/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219524",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/99076/"
] | When you use electrons, you can produce a source of extremely high intensity light called synchrotron light. This light is produced mainly in the X ray part of the spectrum and can be up to 10 billion times brighter than solar light. Using this light allows a study of matter at a better resolution than using protons.
Electrons can probe matter to smaller scales and with less "by-products" reactions than more complicated protons.
Also, as far as I know, it's cheaper to build and run an electron synchrotron because the magnetic and electrical power needed is not as great as when using protons, as in the LHC. | Very good answers above! I would just add one simple point to be more specific to your question. The LHC uses anything it can smash together just to see whats inside. The other Synchrotrons use electrons because its easy to shake radiation out of them and Synchrotron radiation is what they want to produce. The same way bumping electrons will produce photons for radio signals or exciting electrons in a filament will produce photons for light. |
219,524 | I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead (I know the LHC has a different setup but I believe the underlying principle is the same). So my question is why are electrons preferred in synchrotrons?
I figured that an electron would be a better choice because its mass is small. Therefore, less energy would be expended to accelerate the electrons to relativistic speeds.
Any other suggestions would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/11/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219524",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/99076/"
] | >
> I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead..
>
>
>
The first thing that you should know is that there are two completely different uses for synchrotrons. There are (1) "collider" synchrotrons used for the study of elementary particles, and there are (2) synchrotron light sources, which are synchrotrons designed purely to give off intense x-ray beams which can be used for x-ray diffraction and other experiments. These are two entirely different animals.
"Collider" synchrotrons came first. These types of synchrotrons accelerate particles such as electrons or protons in opposite directions around a circular "racetrack" and observe what new particles are created when the beams collide. At Cornell University where I was a grad student, we had a synchrotron which sent electrons in one direction and positrons in the opposite direction and then studied the new particles created from their collisions. I was told that an advantage of using electrons-positron collisions rather than something like proton-antiproton collisions was that the electrons-positron collisions were "cleaner" and easier to analyze. Proton-antiproton collisions are apparently more difficult to analyze because each proton (or antiproton) is actually made up of three quarks, so there are actually six elementary particles involved in every proton-antiproton collision. On the other hand, I think that an advantage to using proton-antiproton collisions for elementary particle studies is that it's easier to get very high energy collisions between between proton-antiproton pairs than electron-positron pairs because protons have a higher rest mass than electrons and not as much energy is lost to synchrotron radiation when accelerating protons as opposed to electrons.
For the other type of synchrotrons, synchrotron light sources, generating a lot of synchrotron radiation is actually desired for x-ray and other experiments, so electrons have an advantage over protons because they give off a lot more radiation than protons when accelerated to a given energy. There is no need or desire to study particle collisions with this type of synchrotron, so only an electron beam circulating around the synchrotron ring in one direction is generated. There is no electron or positron beam circulating in the opposite direction.
A final note: The Cornell "collider" synchrotron that operated while I was a student there was apparently retired in 2008. However, the machine lives on in its new role as a dedicated synchrotron light source that provides intense x-rays for experiments performed by visiting scientists. | Very good answers above! I would just add one simple point to be more specific to your question. The LHC uses anything it can smash together just to see whats inside. The other Synchrotrons use electrons because its easy to shake radiation out of them and Synchrotron radiation is what they want to produce. The same way bumping electrons will produce photons for radio signals or exciting electrons in a filament will produce photons for light. |
219,524 | I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead (I know the LHC has a different setup but I believe the underlying principle is the same). So my question is why are electrons preferred in synchrotrons?
I figured that an electron would be a better choice because its mass is small. Therefore, less energy would be expended to accelerate the electrons to relativistic speeds.
Any other suggestions would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/11/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219524",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/99076/"
] | >
> I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead..
>
>
>
The first thing that you should know is that there are two completely different uses for synchrotrons. There are (1) "collider" synchrotrons used for the study of elementary particles, and there are (2) synchrotron light sources, which are synchrotrons designed purely to give off intense x-ray beams which can be used for x-ray diffraction and other experiments. These are two entirely different animals.
"Collider" synchrotrons came first. These types of synchrotrons accelerate particles such as electrons or protons in opposite directions around a circular "racetrack" and observe what new particles are created when the beams collide. At Cornell University where I was a grad student, we had a synchrotron which sent electrons in one direction and positrons in the opposite direction and then studied the new particles created from their collisions. I was told that an advantage of using electrons-positron collisions rather than something like proton-antiproton collisions was that the electrons-positron collisions were "cleaner" and easier to analyze. Proton-antiproton collisions are apparently more difficult to analyze because each proton (or antiproton) is actually made up of three quarks, so there are actually six elementary particles involved in every proton-antiproton collision. On the other hand, I think that an advantage to using proton-antiproton collisions for elementary particle studies is that it's easier to get very high energy collisions between between proton-antiproton pairs than electron-positron pairs because protons have a higher rest mass than electrons and not as much energy is lost to synchrotron radiation when accelerating protons as opposed to electrons.
For the other type of synchrotrons, synchrotron light sources, generating a lot of synchrotron radiation is actually desired for x-ray and other experiments, so electrons have an advantage over protons because they give off a lot more radiation than protons when accelerated to a given energy. There is no need or desire to study particle collisions with this type of synchrotron, so only an electron beam circulating around the synchrotron ring in one direction is generated. There is no electron or positron beam circulating in the opposite direction.
A final note: The Cornell "collider" synchrotron that operated while I was a student there was apparently retired in 2008. However, the machine lives on in its new role as a dedicated synchrotron light source that provides intense x-rays for experiments performed by visiting scientists. | The principal advantage of using electrons is that the electron is a fundamental particle so electron-electron (or electron-positron) collisions are are well defined process that is relatively eay to describe mathematically, and very accurate measurements can be made.
By contrast the proton is a composite particle. We normally describe the proton as being made up from three quarks but the internal structure is a lot more complicated than this implies. When you collide two protons (or a proton and antiproton) you are colliding two objects with lots of internal structure. The resulting collision is much messier and harder to describe than an electron-electron collision. Accurate measurements can still be made, but it needs much more data and takes far longer.
The principal disadvantage of using electrons is that when you move an electron in a circle it radiates energy in a process called [bremsstrahlung](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bremsstrahlung) or synchotron radiation and you need to pump in more energy to make up for the energy lost as radiation. At LHC energies this would make the collider prohibitively expensive to run. If you're interested there is more on this in [Why doesn't the LHC accelerate electrons?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/112483/why-doesnt-the-lhc-accelerate-electrons).
Although future high energy electron colliders are planned they will be linear colliders, which don't produce bremsstrahlung radiation because they don't move the electrons in a circle. The downside is that it's much harder to get high energies in a linear collider. |
219,524 | I'm researching synchrotrons for a class project, but I can't seem to find a decent answer to one of my questions. It appears that most synchrotrons use electrons as opposed to some other charged particle, while the Large Hadron Collider uses protons instead (I know the LHC has a different setup but I believe the underlying principle is the same). So my question is why are electrons preferred in synchrotrons?
I figured that an electron would be a better choice because its mass is small. Therefore, less energy would be expended to accelerate the electrons to relativistic speeds.
Any other suggestions would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/11/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219524",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/99076/"
] | The principal advantage of using electrons is that the electron is a fundamental particle so electron-electron (or electron-positron) collisions are are well defined process that is relatively eay to describe mathematically, and very accurate measurements can be made.
By contrast the proton is a composite particle. We normally describe the proton as being made up from three quarks but the internal structure is a lot more complicated than this implies. When you collide two protons (or a proton and antiproton) you are colliding two objects with lots of internal structure. The resulting collision is much messier and harder to describe than an electron-electron collision. Accurate measurements can still be made, but it needs much more data and takes far longer.
The principal disadvantage of using electrons is that when you move an electron in a circle it radiates energy in a process called [bremsstrahlung](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bremsstrahlung) or synchotron radiation and you need to pump in more energy to make up for the energy lost as radiation. At LHC energies this would make the collider prohibitively expensive to run. If you're interested there is more on this in [Why doesn't the LHC accelerate electrons?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/112483/why-doesnt-the-lhc-accelerate-electrons).
Although future high energy electron colliders are planned they will be linear colliders, which don't produce bremsstrahlung radiation because they don't move the electrons in a circle. The downside is that it's much harder to get high energies in a linear collider. | Very good answers above! I would just add one simple point to be more specific to your question. The LHC uses anything it can smash together just to see whats inside. The other Synchrotrons use electrons because its easy to shake radiation out of them and Synchrotron radiation is what they want to produce. The same way bumping electrons will produce photons for radio signals or exciting electrons in a filament will produce photons for light. |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | There is no single instruction exchange. However, using [stloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.stloc.aspx), [pop](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.pop.aspx), and [ldloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.ldloc.aspx), you should be able to accomplish your exchange. | Looking at a [list of CIL instructions](http://en.csharp-online.net/CIL_Instruction_Set) there doesn't appear to be a single instruction that exchanges the two elements at the top of the stack. You'll have to do it the old pop/push way. |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | There is no single instruction exchange. However, using [stloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.stloc.aspx), [pop](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.pop.aspx), and [ldloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.ldloc.aspx), you should be able to accomplish your exchange. | For future reference, you can create an assembly that does what you want to learn the IL for, then view the assembly in Reflector. You can select the language you wish the code to be in, and IL is one of the options. I did this when trying to figure out how to code a dynamic method... |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | There is no single instruction exchange. However, using [stloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.stloc.aspx), [pop](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.pop.aspx), and [ldloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.reflection.emit.opcodes.ldloc.aspx), you should be able to accomplish your exchange. | No. The only way to swap elements is to pop the top two elements to locals, then push them in reverse order. |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | Looking at a [list of CIL instructions](http://en.csharp-online.net/CIL_Instruction_Set) there doesn't appear to be a single instruction that exchanges the two elements at the top of the stack. You'll have to do it the old pop/push way. | For future reference, you can create an assembly that does what you want to learn the IL for, then view the assembly in Reflector. You can select the language you wish the code to be in, and IL is one of the options. I did this when trying to figure out how to code a dynamic method... |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | No. The only way to swap elements is to pop the top two elements to locals, then push them in reverse order. | Looking at a [list of CIL instructions](http://en.csharp-online.net/CIL_Instruction_Set) there doesn't appear to be a single instruction that exchanges the two elements at the top of the stack. You'll have to do it the old pop/push way. |
191,946 | Is there a CIL instruction to exchange the first two elements in the stack? | 2008/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/191946",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26054/"
] | No. The only way to swap elements is to pop the top two elements to locals, then push them in reverse order. | For future reference, you can create an assembly that does what you want to learn the IL for, then view the assembly in Reflector. You can select the language you wish the code to be in, and IL is one of the options. I did this when trying to figure out how to code a dynamic method... |
5,318,699 | How is it possible that JVM compiles bytecode into native code dynamically and then executes it? I can imagine that it is possible to write data values into memory but if I remember correctly, a program can't write to the memory that contains instructions (otherwise viruses could use this feature and proliferate quickly). | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5318699",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1908482/"
] | Very few architectures implement the level of memory protection (only the OS has write access to memory areas containing code) you're talking about, the ones where Java uses a JIT definitely don't.
And viruses do use this feature and even more to proliferate quickly. But when you think about it, there's nothing inherently dangerous in a process modifying its own code. It isn't any more dangerous than being able to write to a file and then load a library. | Normally, you can't write to the section of memory that contains code directly, but there are ways to override that. For JITs, often what is done is to have some read-write data space on the heap and then use an operation such as `mprotect` to make it executable. |
5,318,699 | How is it possible that JVM compiles bytecode into native code dynamically and then executes it? I can imagine that it is possible to write data values into memory but if I remember correctly, a program can't write to the memory that contains instructions (otherwise viruses could use this feature and proliferate quickly). | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5318699",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1908482/"
] | Very few architectures implement the level of memory protection (only the OS has write access to memory areas containing code) you're talking about, the ones where Java uses a JIT definitely don't.
And viruses do use this feature and even more to proliferate quickly. But when you think about it, there's nothing inherently dangerous in a process modifying its own code. It isn't any more dangerous than being able to write to a file and then load a library. | OSes do provide facilities to allocate "executable" memory. The JVM needs to allocate the target memory in a different way than standard malloc() when generating JITed code.
For example, on Windows, use [VirtualAlloc](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa366887%28v=vs.85%29.aspx) with [PAGE\_EXECUTE](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa366786%28v=vs.85%29.aspx). Similar functions exist in Linux, AIX, etc... |
1,023 | Is there an expectation that questions posted should be factual? I've noticed a relatively new user who consistently posts questions based on contradictory claims. The questions therefore are clearly fabricated.
I've flagged a couple of these questions, but the user has not been removed, and most of the questions are still active.
These claims include the following...
>
> My daughter is 14.
>
>
>
and
>
> My children range in age from 3 to 10
>
>
>
and
>
> I am recently divorced and have full custody of our six children.
>
>
>
and
>
> I can't afford to send all my four children to private school.
>
>
>
In the most recent question she claimed to be a widow with only 1 child. That question however was removed. | 2016/03/07 | [
"https://parenting.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1023",
"https://parenting.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.meta.stackexchange.com/users/14484/"
] | *"Is there an expectation that questions posted should be factual?"*
Sort of. From [What types of questions should I avoid asking](https://parenting.stackexchange.com/help/dont-ask):
>
> You should only ask practical, answerable questions based on actual problems that you face.
>
>
>
Generally, that's interpreted broadly. Users don't need to have actually encountered a situation yet (for example, I can ask a breastfeeding before giving birth in order to plan ahead), and have also asked on behalf of others (for example, asking on behalf of a friend or relative). Sometimes users change details to obfuscate their identity, or leave out things they aren't comfortable sharing, or even to make themselves look better.
Just because a question is hypothetical doesn't mean it is automatically a problem.
---
*"most of the questions are still active"*
Parenting (and all StackExchange sites) aren't just about helping the OP; they function as an archive of questions, thereby providing fast answers to other people who have a similar question. Interestingly, [How To Ask](https://parenting.stackexchange.com/help/how-to-ask) could be read to imply that a hypothetical question (*if asked well*) is useful for the community.
>
> Make it clear how your question is *relevant to more people than just you*, and more of us will be interested in your question and willing to look into it.
>
>
>
So removing questions depends (to some extent) on whether is there potential value to somebody else in the questions. At some point a divorced mom who wants to change to a different discipline style from corporal punishment may visit the site, read the imaginary question, and potentially find a useful answer. The OP lying about their own situation doesn't affect the content of the answers.
---
**All that being said, a question still needs to be asked well to have value** and members of Parenting.SE should treat other users with respect. Not only does this include a reasonable background description, but it also needs the OP to be engaged in the process: answering clarifying questions raised in comments, providing feedback to answers, and accepting the best one. Repeated failure to properly engage in the process is a bigger deal in my opinion than whether their question topics are fully based in reality, because it's devaluing the thoughtful answers being provided.
*"the user has not been removed"*
Account deletion is generally reserved for spammers or extremely abusive users. For less serious rule infractions, deletion is a last resort. I'm not going to get into the details of this case unless the user in question wants to discuss it. | No, there isn't an implicit expectation that 100% of the content of questions is factual. Theoretical questions can be acceptable, plus some users may want to deliberately change the actual facts a bit in order to preserve their real life privacy (it can be scary sharing the intimate details of your life, particularly in areas where you feel like you may not be parenting as well as you think you could be). Some users may even post multiple questions on behalf of, or as if they were, various other people that they know or interact with. These are all perfectly valid, so long as the questions meet all other criteria for quality.
I'm going to copy [Robert Cartaino's answer about seeding questions](https://parenting.meta.stackexchange.com/a/428/420), as I think it directly addresses this question:
-- Begin Quote:
"Seed questions" become harmful when folks come to believe that the author doesn't really care about the answer; or worse, the author doesn't even need any help at all! I wrote a blog post about this cited below, but worth a full read:
*From [**Your New Site: Asking the First Questions …**](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/07/area-51-asking-the-first-questions/)*
>
> ### Seeding the Site
>
>
> I was a bit put off by the context implied by “seeding the site.” The word seeding suggests to me that we’re coming up with questions just for the sake of asking questions. My concern is, if people feel that the author doesn’t really care about the answer, the whole exercise would likely be perceived as a waste of time. …
>
>
> The downside is that those hypothetical questions tend to be somewhat pedestrian for an expert Q&A site. When put on the spot to post content, we’re likely come up with uninspired questions that anyone would ask. And they’ve all been asked 100 times before on every other site on that subject.
>
>
>
One of the motivations driving this site the belief that you are helping others. Folks love to help others… but folks do not want to be given homework assignments or busy work.
If you have particularly interesting information to share, it's okay to [share your knowledge, Q&A-style](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2011/07/its-ok-to-ask-and-answer-your-own-questions/). If you have a particularly *intriguing* question asked out of ***genuine*** curiosity; that's okay, too. But I would stop short of flipping open that book of oft-asked questions to start seeding the site here.
So ask about problems you actually face. Encourage others to do the same. When you encounter obviously "seeded" questions, always moderate for quality. Questions with little effort or research should be closed with helpful guidance. But try not to let it devolve into endless interrogations of the author. They're likely just trying to help the site in good faith. But we have to continue to attract the experts we need… and the best way to do that is to keep the quality on that front page high.
--End Quote |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | You might ask them, “Have you checked your facts?”
With some people, expressing any doubt at all is going to offend them. But expressing an alternative theory, without commenting on the proffered conspiracy theory, might work. Just quote [Hanlon's razor](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanlon%27s_razor), “Never attribute to malice that which is adequately explained by stupidity”, or Heinlein's variant, “You have attributed conditions to villainy that simply result from stupidity”, or a possibly-Bonaparte variant, “Never ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by incompetence”.
Also:
>
> Many journalists have fallen for the conspiracy theory of government. I do assure you that they would produce more accurate work if they adhered to the cock-up theory.
> —Sir Bernard Ingham
>
>
> | Much of what is called 'conspiracy theory' is really just a radically-different account to the conventionally-accepted version of things.
Many of these have been vindicated as true in the past, and if a person wants to be as objective as possible in their research, they should learn to properly assess all given explanations.
So a term such as "revisionist position" or "revisionist history" is not only more polite, but also more accurate. |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | There is no polite way to say it, because it's not polite.
"Conspiracy Theory" is just a way to shrug off an idea you find threatening, it doesn't really matter the words used.
The idea the the moon landings were staged is bunkum, because the facts clearly contradict it. Not because someone else has labelled it a conspiracy theory. | Much of what is called 'conspiracy theory' is really just a radically-different account to the conventionally-accepted version of things.
Many of these have been vindicated as true in the past, and if a person wants to be as objective as possible in their research, they should learn to properly assess all given explanations.
So a term such as "revisionist position" or "revisionist history" is not only more polite, but also more accurate. |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | since "conspiracy theory" has a bad connotation, simply don't use that phrase. fundamentally a conspiracy theory is just an explanation of observed phenomenon that relies on several people working together in secrecy (aka conspiring). simply explain how their theory relies on that assumption, without using the word conspiracy.
examples
>
> so you are saying bob, joe and jane got together and agreed to never call you? and they kept the agreement secret from you for years?
>
>
>
or
>
> are you suggesting there is a large group of people opposed to the construction of the new mall, but none of them are willing to admit it publicly at the town hall meetings?
>
>
>
some people (mis)use "conspiracy theory", when they really mean "outlandish theory". in that case, perhaps you could simply explain what about the theory you find "outlandish".
example:
>
> i find it highly unlikely that your father drove across five states just to buy an in-and-out burger. i realize he's a big fan of animal style, but perhaps you just don't want to accept the fact that he is dating your professor.
>
>
> | Much of what is called 'conspiracy theory' is really just a radically-different account to the conventionally-accepted version of things.
Many of these have been vindicated as true in the past, and if a person wants to be as objective as possible in their research, they should learn to properly assess all given explanations.
So a term such as "revisionist position" or "revisionist history" is not only more polite, but also more accurate. |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | You might ask them, “Have you checked your facts?”
With some people, expressing any doubt at all is going to offend them. But expressing an alternative theory, without commenting on the proffered conspiracy theory, might work. Just quote [Hanlon's razor](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanlon%27s_razor), “Never attribute to malice that which is adequately explained by stupidity”, or Heinlein's variant, “You have attributed conditions to villainy that simply result from stupidity”, or a possibly-Bonaparte variant, “Never ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by incompetence”.
Also:
>
> Many journalists have fallen for the conspiracy theory of government. I do assure you that they would produce more accurate work if they adhered to the cock-up theory.
> —Sir Bernard Ingham
>
>
> | There is no polite way to say it, because it's not polite.
"Conspiracy Theory" is just a way to shrug off an idea you find threatening, it doesn't really matter the words used.
The idea the the moon landings were staged is bunkum, because the facts clearly contradict it. Not because someone else has labelled it a conspiracy theory. |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | You might ask them, “Have you checked your facts?”
With some people, expressing any doubt at all is going to offend them. But expressing an alternative theory, without commenting on the proffered conspiracy theory, might work. Just quote [Hanlon's razor](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanlon%27s_razor), “Never attribute to malice that which is adequately explained by stupidity”, or Heinlein's variant, “You have attributed conditions to villainy that simply result from stupidity”, or a possibly-Bonaparte variant, “Never ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by incompetence”.
Also:
>
> Many journalists have fallen for the conspiracy theory of government. I do assure you that they would produce more accurate work if they adhered to the cock-up theory.
> —Sir Bernard Ingham
>
>
> | since "conspiracy theory" has a bad connotation, simply don't use that phrase. fundamentally a conspiracy theory is just an explanation of observed phenomenon that relies on several people working together in secrecy (aka conspiring). simply explain how their theory relies on that assumption, without using the word conspiracy.
examples
>
> so you are saying bob, joe and jane got together and agreed to never call you? and they kept the agreement secret from you for years?
>
>
>
or
>
> are you suggesting there is a large group of people opposed to the construction of the new mall, but none of them are willing to admit it publicly at the town hall meetings?
>
>
>
some people (mis)use "conspiracy theory", when they really mean "outlandish theory". in that case, perhaps you could simply explain what about the theory you find "outlandish".
example:
>
> i find it highly unlikely that your father drove across five states just to buy an in-and-out burger. i realize he's a big fan of animal style, but perhaps you just don't want to accept the fact that he is dating your professor.
>
>
> |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | You might ask them, “Have you checked your facts?”
With some people, expressing any doubt at all is going to offend them. But expressing an alternative theory, without commenting on the proffered conspiracy theory, might work. Just quote [Hanlon's razor](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanlon%27s_razor), “Never attribute to malice that which is adequately explained by stupidity”, or Heinlein's variant, “You have attributed conditions to villainy that simply result from stupidity”, or a possibly-Bonaparte variant, “Never ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by incompetence”.
Also:
>
> Many journalists have fallen for the conspiracy theory of government. I do assure you that they would produce more accurate work if they adhered to the cock-up theory.
> —Sir Bernard Ingham
>
>
> | A good starting-point would be to look at how the people who believe the theory describe it in their own words. Unless your friend uses very bizarre terms, you can often use the same vocabulary they do. There’s a risk of miscommunication, if true believers read different implications into those words, but you aren’t going to insult them. (As long as you can keep a straight face.)
In general, words like “plot,” “secret history,” “cover-up” and “hidden” don’t have the same negative connotations as “conspiracy theory.” Although note that people often say they believe in a “conspiracy,” just not a “conspiracy theory.” |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | There is no polite way to say it, because it's not polite.
"Conspiracy Theory" is just a way to shrug off an idea you find threatening, it doesn't really matter the words used.
The idea the the moon landings were staged is bunkum, because the facts clearly contradict it. Not because someone else has labelled it a conspiracy theory. | since "conspiracy theory" has a bad connotation, simply don't use that phrase. fundamentally a conspiracy theory is just an explanation of observed phenomenon that relies on several people working together in secrecy (aka conspiring). simply explain how their theory relies on that assumption, without using the word conspiracy.
examples
>
> so you are saying bob, joe and jane got together and agreed to never call you? and they kept the agreement secret from you for years?
>
>
>
or
>
> are you suggesting there is a large group of people opposed to the construction of the new mall, but none of them are willing to admit it publicly at the town hall meetings?
>
>
>
some people (mis)use "conspiracy theory", when they really mean "outlandish theory". in that case, perhaps you could simply explain what about the theory you find "outlandish".
example:
>
> i find it highly unlikely that your father drove across five states just to buy an in-and-out burger. i realize he's a big fan of animal style, but perhaps you just don't want to accept the fact that he is dating your professor.
>
>
> |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | There is no polite way to say it, because it's not polite.
"Conspiracy Theory" is just a way to shrug off an idea you find threatening, it doesn't really matter the words used.
The idea the the moon landings were staged is bunkum, because the facts clearly contradict it. Not because someone else has labelled it a conspiracy theory. | A good starting-point would be to look at how the people who believe the theory describe it in their own words. Unless your friend uses very bizarre terms, you can often use the same vocabulary they do. There’s a risk of miscommunication, if true believers read different implications into those words, but you aren’t going to insult them. (As long as you can keep a straight face.)
In general, words like “plot,” “secret history,” “cover-up” and “hidden” don’t have the same negative connotations as “conspiracy theory.” Although note that people often say they believe in a “conspiracy,” just not a “conspiracy theory.” |
107,352 | "Conspiracy" has ~~acquired~~ a negative connotation.
[Edit: As pointed out in the comments, it has always had a negative connotation.]
If you tell or even insinuate to someone that what they are saying is a conspiracy theory you can be assured that the conversation will soon be coming to an end and the person might begin to dislike you.
Perhaps there is a conspiracy in this, but the word itself has become tainted with terrible imagery. When you hear "conspiracy" you start thinking of a bearded crackpot wearing a tinfoil hat living in a cabin the woods with no internet connection and a shotgun by the bed.
If you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory they will start to think you are seeing them as the bearded crackpot. They might think you do not respect them (who respects that type of character?) which can lead to resentment and eventually dislike. This is fine if you are talking to someone you don't like, don't know or have no intention of becoming friends with. But when you are talking to friends and / or family members this is not the desired outcome. Even when you don't think this about your friend of family member they can still become offended.
**So the question is**, how can you tell someone that you think what they are saying is a conspiracy theory without offending them?
Thank you. | 2013/03/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/107352",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/33544/"
] | since "conspiracy theory" has a bad connotation, simply don't use that phrase. fundamentally a conspiracy theory is just an explanation of observed phenomenon that relies on several people working together in secrecy (aka conspiring). simply explain how their theory relies on that assumption, without using the word conspiracy.
examples
>
> so you are saying bob, joe and jane got together and agreed to never call you? and they kept the agreement secret from you for years?
>
>
>
or
>
> are you suggesting there is a large group of people opposed to the construction of the new mall, but none of them are willing to admit it publicly at the town hall meetings?
>
>
>
some people (mis)use "conspiracy theory", when they really mean "outlandish theory". in that case, perhaps you could simply explain what about the theory you find "outlandish".
example:
>
> i find it highly unlikely that your father drove across five states just to buy an in-and-out burger. i realize he's a big fan of animal style, but perhaps you just don't want to accept the fact that he is dating your professor.
>
>
> | A good starting-point would be to look at how the people who believe the theory describe it in their own words. Unless your friend uses very bizarre terms, you can often use the same vocabulary they do. There’s a risk of miscommunication, if true believers read different implications into those words, but you aren’t going to insult them. (As long as you can keep a straight face.)
In general, words like “plot,” “secret history,” “cover-up” and “hidden” don’t have the same negative connotations as “conspiracy theory.” Although note that people often say they believe in a “conspiracy,” just not a “conspiracy theory.” |
5,342 | Assuming that a "12 oz bottle" means that the bottle filled to the brim holds 12 ounces then how many ounces do most breweries put in a bottle?
Does the difference between the bottle size and actual amount stay constant, regardless of bottle-size (e.g. assuming a 12 oz bottle has 11 oz of content, would a 22 oz bottle have 21 oz), or is it a ratio?
---
Or: if a beer bottle *holds* twelve ounces in a normal fill, then what is the actual capacity of the bottle? | 2011/10/17 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/5342",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/737/"
] | The bottle I just checked has a tiny 13 imprinted in the mold, and filled to overflowing, it held 13 fl. oz. It appears that a 12oz bottle of beer is a 13oz bottle with 12 oz of beer in it. | I'd say they hold 12oz.
While I can't speak for the rest of the world, here in Oz bottles are labelled according to the quantity of the product you're paying for. If you buy a bottle of beer (with the beer in it) that says "375mL" and it's only half full, containing say 200mL, you get your money back. If the vendor is doing this on a large scale, we have government controlled organisations that will bust some ass for misleading consumers.
It may be different for a store that sells empty, unused bottles with a *capacity* of XYZ mL/oz, but I doubt it. You'd likely get away with calling them misleading if they did.
If you've got doubt about your bottles, measure out 12oz of water, pour it into an empty bottle and see where it gets to. Post your results back here! |
361,840 | I have an Intel DG965RY motherboard and its specification says it supports 8GB with 533 or 667Mhz RAM sticks and only 4GB with 800Mhz RAM sticks. I am running a 64bit OS.
I earlier had 2 X 1GB sticks (800Mhz), so I bought 2 X 2GB sticks (800Mhz) and I underclocked them in the settings to run at 667Mhz. Shouldn't it support all 6GB RAM now?
It would be a bummer if I will specifically need 667Mhz sticks thinking that at the worst they will underclock and then run at 667Mhz. I tried this because I saw someone posted at some forum that he put in 4GB+ of RAM in the same board @ 800Mhz and the system uses it all.
In my case (On Ubuntu), it only shows 3.2GB as of now ([link to Question](https://askubuntu.com/questions/82917/ubuntu-detects-only-3-2gb-ram-on-a-64bit-os#question)) so needed to confirm if this is a hardware limitation.
 | 2011/11/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/361840",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/51291/"
] | From your question on the Ubuntu site, I see in your `lshw` output that your 2GB DIMMs are Nanya NT2GT64U8HD0BY-ADs.
From the data sheet for those ([PDF] <http://www.nanya.com/NanyaAdmin/GetFiles.ashx?ID=435>):
"14/10/2 Addressing (row/column/rank) – 2GB"
2 rank addressing == they have two ranks == they're dual rank.
From the motherboard spec:
"Double-sided DIMMs with x16 organization are not supported."
<http://www.intel.com/support/motherboards/desktop/dg965ry/sb/CS-026602.htm>
I'm not sure what that means, but I see there's a confusing tradition of describing dual rank memory as "dual-sided" or as having a lot of chips (<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DIMM#Ranking>).
'JEDEC decided that the terms "dual-sided," "double-sided," or "dual-banked" were not correct when applied to registered DIMMs.' Oooh, tantalizingly close to just putting a consistent naming standard right into the spec.
Why can't Intel just give the numbers of rows/columns/ranks they support? Are the specs written by tech writers who don't know any better? (that idea is kind of silly... A couple seconds of googling found me a nice presentation on DIMM addressing: <http://www.ece.umd.edu/courses/enee759h.S2003/lectures/Lecture3.pdf>). | The official [system specs for DG965RY motherboards](http://downloadmirror.intel.com/15056/eng/DG965RY_TechProdSpec.pdf) say :
* Four 240-pin DDR2 SDRAM Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM) sockets
* Support for DDR2 800, DDR2 667, or DDR2 533 MHz DIMMs
* Support for up to **8 GB of system memory using DDR2 667 or DDR2 533 DIMMs**
* Support for up to **4 GB of system memory using DDR2 800 DIMMs**
So yes, this is a hardware limitation :
Since all your sticks are at 800Mhz, then your usable RAM is limited to 4 GB,
which is what you are seeing.
The 3.2GB are probably what is left after device memory was allocated.
I see no other solution (apart from changing the motherboard),
except underclocking to 667Mhz some or all of the sticks.
The manual is unclear as regarding the mixing of RAM sticks,
and my understanding is that you only underclocked the 2GB sticks while leaving the 1GB at 800Mhz,
so you might need to underclock all of them.
Note: By "underclocking" I mean getting 667Mhz RAM sticks, rather than lowering the frequency through the BIOS. Going by your screenshot, changing the frequency does not still prevent the BIOS from detecting the sticks as being 800Mhz in nature. |
31,502 | There's a route I usually do that has some specific parts that look uphill but ride and feel as flat, and some parts that look flat but feel as uphill.
Besides this being an optical illusion, which is my pet theory so far, are there any other possible causes for this phenomenon, like type of road, for example? | 2015/06/25 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/31502",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/2261/"
] | Our sense of gravity/balance is not very precise on its own and it is combined in the brain with visual clues and other information. For example, it is really difficult to hang a picture straight on a large wall if you don't have a level tool or can align it parallel to the floor/ceiling. There are a few effects that can distort your sense of what is "horizontal".
The Ames room is an optical illusion where you think lines to be perpendicular where in reality they aren't. If the surrounding hills, trees etc. form lines at certain angles (e.g. a ridge on the horizon that your brain expects to be horizontal but that really slopes), you can get a similar effect in nature. [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ames_room) explains it in relation to "magnetic mountains" or "gravity hills":
>
> Ames' original design also contained a groove that was positioned such that a ball in it appears to roll uphill, against gravity. Richard Gregory regards this apparent "anti-gravity" effect as more amazing than the apparent size changes, although today it is often not shown when an Ames room is exhibited.
>
>
> He speculates that "magnetic hills" (also known as "gravity hills") can be explained by this principle. For a magic mountain at an unnamed location in Scotland, he found that a row of trees form a background similar to the setting of an Ames room, making the water in a creek appear to flow uphill.
>
>
>
Also, your brain adjusts the sense of balance over time. You often get this when you cycle up a long steep hill followed by a less steep road with very little inclination. The flatter road may look like actually going downhills (even though it's still uphills) because on the steep climb your brain adjusts and your sense of what is "horizontal" gets tilted a bit. Often, its only when you turn around that you actually get a real sense of the inclination. | The most common cause in my vicinity is headwind / tailwind.
However, there are places where the background gives subtle clues indicating an inclination (or lack thereof) at odds with gravity. This is sometimes known as a 'gravity hill' or 'magnetic mountain', or something similar. There's a long list of places in the [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_gravity_hills)
These external clues can be of varied nature - trees growing at an angle to the ground due to prevailing winds, stratified rock formations with a slight slope or long sloping hills in the distance. |
31,502 | There's a route I usually do that has some specific parts that look uphill but ride and feel as flat, and some parts that look flat but feel as uphill.
Besides this being an optical illusion, which is my pet theory so far, are there any other possible causes for this phenomenon, like type of road, for example? | 2015/06/25 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/31502",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/2261/"
] | The most common cause in my vicinity is headwind / tailwind.
However, there are places where the background gives subtle clues indicating an inclination (or lack thereof) at odds with gravity. This is sometimes known as a 'gravity hill' or 'magnetic mountain', or something similar. There's a long list of places in the [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_gravity_hills)
These external clues can be of varied nature - trees growing at an angle to the ground due to prevailing winds, stratified rock formations with a slight slope or long sloping hills in the distance. | I have experienced three types of this kind of missperception where visual clues and psychology play a big role:
An almost uniform slope but curvy road designed for cars. Obviously, when cycling you go on one side of the road. This, combined with the banked turns makes you feel like turns towards one side are much easier than opposite turns. Naturally the banking alters the actual slope angle at the sides of the road, but also the perspective of the road against the presumed vertical pines around it accentuates the difference between the expected effort and the actual effort of riding each next curve.
Another case is a short stretch of road that first goes down and then goes up. When traveling by car on that place, you feel that the first part is a steep descent and the second part is a steep ascent. But when traveling by bike, the "feel" is not as much. First in the descent you don't get as much "free speed" as you expect, so you "pedal hard" to help overcome the following ascent, but when you actually climb, you feel like if you where 2 or 3 gears lower than you are (effort wise). In this case, the lack of a visual reference of a horizontal line in the traveling direction fools the brain.
The third case is a coastal road that leads to a climb but before the beginning of the climb, there is a diversion that goes down to a boating club. Since both the main road and the diverted exit go along for a few meters, when you go over the main road you visually feel like you are ascending, but with very low effort. I.e. the brain is fooled into thinking the climb starts sooner then it actually does.
However, I have also experienced "temporal" delusions that Include wind effects, bike condition and physical condition.
Wind effects are pretty obvious. I know places where winds regularly change during the day, so you may have better luck climbing in the morning than late in the afternoon.
Sloppy maintenance on the bike can lead to more perceived effort, thus leading to feel a flat like it was a climb. At least in my case, I do my own bike maintenance, but sometimes I'm less careful and omit some revisions. So I take my bike (fooling myself) thinking it is in perfect working order while in reality, hubs, chain or derailleur pulleys needed deeper cleaning...
Finally, something that has happened to me a lot, is that riding a route, I feel pretty energetic the whole time, but the truth is I'm more tired by the end of it, so the sloped in the last part of the route are perceived steeper than they actually are. With flats it means you'd feel them like climbs. This can be proved with large looped routes. If you start in what usually is the middle point of the route, at first you will feel like the climbs have been flattened (respect to your memory of them) and at the end, you'll feel the opposite. |
31,502 | There's a route I usually do that has some specific parts that look uphill but ride and feel as flat, and some parts that look flat but feel as uphill.
Besides this being an optical illusion, which is my pet theory so far, are there any other possible causes for this phenomenon, like type of road, for example? | 2015/06/25 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/31502",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/2261/"
] | Our sense of gravity/balance is not very precise on its own and it is combined in the brain with visual clues and other information. For example, it is really difficult to hang a picture straight on a large wall if you don't have a level tool or can align it parallel to the floor/ceiling. There are a few effects that can distort your sense of what is "horizontal".
The Ames room is an optical illusion where you think lines to be perpendicular where in reality they aren't. If the surrounding hills, trees etc. form lines at certain angles (e.g. a ridge on the horizon that your brain expects to be horizontal but that really slopes), you can get a similar effect in nature. [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ames_room) explains it in relation to "magnetic mountains" or "gravity hills":
>
> Ames' original design also contained a groove that was positioned such that a ball in it appears to roll uphill, against gravity. Richard Gregory regards this apparent "anti-gravity" effect as more amazing than the apparent size changes, although today it is often not shown when an Ames room is exhibited.
>
>
> He speculates that "magnetic hills" (also known as "gravity hills") can be explained by this principle. For a magic mountain at an unnamed location in Scotland, he found that a row of trees form a background similar to the setting of an Ames room, making the water in a creek appear to flow uphill.
>
>
>
Also, your brain adjusts the sense of balance over time. You often get this when you cycle up a long steep hill followed by a less steep road with very little inclination. The flatter road may look like actually going downhills (even though it's still uphills) because on the steep climb your brain adjusts and your sense of what is "horizontal" gets tilted a bit. Often, its only when you turn around that you actually get a real sense of the inclination. | I have experienced three types of this kind of missperception where visual clues and psychology play a big role:
An almost uniform slope but curvy road designed for cars. Obviously, when cycling you go on one side of the road. This, combined with the banked turns makes you feel like turns towards one side are much easier than opposite turns. Naturally the banking alters the actual slope angle at the sides of the road, but also the perspective of the road against the presumed vertical pines around it accentuates the difference between the expected effort and the actual effort of riding each next curve.
Another case is a short stretch of road that first goes down and then goes up. When traveling by car on that place, you feel that the first part is a steep descent and the second part is a steep ascent. But when traveling by bike, the "feel" is not as much. First in the descent you don't get as much "free speed" as you expect, so you "pedal hard" to help overcome the following ascent, but when you actually climb, you feel like if you where 2 or 3 gears lower than you are (effort wise). In this case, the lack of a visual reference of a horizontal line in the traveling direction fools the brain.
The third case is a coastal road that leads to a climb but before the beginning of the climb, there is a diversion that goes down to a boating club. Since both the main road and the diverted exit go along for a few meters, when you go over the main road you visually feel like you are ascending, but with very low effort. I.e. the brain is fooled into thinking the climb starts sooner then it actually does.
However, I have also experienced "temporal" delusions that Include wind effects, bike condition and physical condition.
Wind effects are pretty obvious. I know places where winds regularly change during the day, so you may have better luck climbing in the morning than late in the afternoon.
Sloppy maintenance on the bike can lead to more perceived effort, thus leading to feel a flat like it was a climb. At least in my case, I do my own bike maintenance, but sometimes I'm less careful and omit some revisions. So I take my bike (fooling myself) thinking it is in perfect working order while in reality, hubs, chain or derailleur pulleys needed deeper cleaning...
Finally, something that has happened to me a lot, is that riding a route, I feel pretty energetic the whole time, but the truth is I'm more tired by the end of it, so the sloped in the last part of the route are perceived steeper than they actually are. With flats it means you'd feel them like climbs. This can be proved with large looped routes. If you start in what usually is the middle point of the route, at first you will feel like the climbs have been flattened (respect to your memory of them) and at the end, you'll feel the opposite. |
263,283 | The following phrase
>
> I ain't got no money
>
>
>
Is it meant to be used for a past action (*I didn't get no money*) or is it used to mean (*I don't get no money right now*)?
What confuses me is the usage of *got* (past tense of *get*). I understand that *ain't* can be used ad a substitution of *am not*, *did not*, *do not*, *is/are not*, etc. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/263283",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/128651/"
] | "I ain't got no money" means "I don't have any money." It's spoken slang usage. You can check urbandictionary.com for explanation (type in "ain't got no"). Or this link ["I ain't got no money"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/47527/i-aint-got-no-money)
for longer explanation.
Also, the verb *got* here means "have." So the idea is that you don't have money, not that you are not getting money. | I agree with cmcf and I will add that in the UK "ain't" should really be used only for the present of the verbs "to be" and "to have" (negative, of course). |
263,283 | The following phrase
>
> I ain't got no money
>
>
>
Is it meant to be used for a past action (*I didn't get no money*) or is it used to mean (*I don't get no money right now*)?
What confuses me is the usage of *got* (past tense of *get*). I understand that *ain't* can be used ad a substitution of *am not*, *did not*, *do not*, *is/are not*, etc. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/263283",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/128651/"
] | The clause is in the present tense.
Although *got* is a past form of *get,* it is also
>
> used for saying "have" in informal speech
>
>
> *What you got there?
>
> You got to be careful what you say to him.*
>
>
>
--<http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/american/got_1>
It means: *I have no money.* | "I ain't got no money" means "I don't have any money." It's spoken slang usage. You can check urbandictionary.com for explanation (type in "ain't got no"). Or this link ["I ain't got no money"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/47527/i-aint-got-no-money)
for longer explanation.
Also, the verb *got* here means "have." So the idea is that you don't have money, not that you are not getting money. |
263,283 | The following phrase
>
> I ain't got no money
>
>
>
Is it meant to be used for a past action (*I didn't get no money*) or is it used to mean (*I don't get no money right now*)?
What confuses me is the usage of *got* (past tense of *get*). I understand that *ain't* can be used ad a substitution of *am not*, *did not*, *do not*, *is/are not*, etc. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/263283",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/128651/"
] | "I ain't got no money" means "I don't have any money." It's spoken slang usage. You can check urbandictionary.com for explanation (type in "ain't got no"). Or this link ["I ain't got no money"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/47527/i-aint-got-no-money)
for longer explanation.
Also, the verb *got* here means "have." So the idea is that you don't have money, not that you are not getting money. | In your sentence "ain't" stands for "haven't", so your sentence is
* I haven't got no money.
Grammatically "have got/ haven't got" is present perfect. But in BrE "have got" serves as a paraphrase for to have in the sense of to possess/to own.
If you have got a letter, the consequence is that you have a letter. That's the way how a grammatical perfect can develop the sense of a present tense.
Why a paraphrase for to have? In most cases " have" is shortened to 've. That is one sound, /v/. You can't stress it. Compare:
* 1 Yes, I've a car, - 2 Yes, I've got a car.
In 2 you can give weight to the word got. In 1 you can't give weight to /v/. |
263,283 | The following phrase
>
> I ain't got no money
>
>
>
Is it meant to be used for a past action (*I didn't get no money*) or is it used to mean (*I don't get no money right now*)?
What confuses me is the usage of *got* (past tense of *get*). I understand that *ain't* can be used ad a substitution of *am not*, *did not*, *do not*, *is/are not*, etc. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/263283",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/128651/"
] | The clause is in the present tense.
Although *got* is a past form of *get,* it is also
>
> used for saying "have" in informal speech
>
>
> *What you got there?
>
> You got to be careful what you say to him.*
>
>
>
--<http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/american/got_1>
It means: *I have no money.* | I agree with cmcf and I will add that in the UK "ain't" should really be used only for the present of the verbs "to be" and "to have" (negative, of course). |
263,283 | The following phrase
>
> I ain't got no money
>
>
>
Is it meant to be used for a past action (*I didn't get no money*) or is it used to mean (*I don't get no money right now*)?
What confuses me is the usage of *got* (past tense of *get*). I understand that *ain't* can be used ad a substitution of *am not*, *did not*, *do not*, *is/are not*, etc. | 2015/07/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/263283",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/128651/"
] | The clause is in the present tense.
Although *got* is a past form of *get,* it is also
>
> used for saying "have" in informal speech
>
>
> *What you got there?
>
> You got to be careful what you say to him.*
>
>
>
--<http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/american/got_1>
It means: *I have no money.* | In your sentence "ain't" stands for "haven't", so your sentence is
* I haven't got no money.
Grammatically "have got/ haven't got" is present perfect. But in BrE "have got" serves as a paraphrase for to have in the sense of to possess/to own.
If you have got a letter, the consequence is that you have a letter. That's the way how a grammatical perfect can develop the sense of a present tense.
Why a paraphrase for to have? In most cases " have" is shortened to 've. That is one sound, /v/. You can't stress it. Compare:
* 1 Yes, I've a car, - 2 Yes, I've got a car.
In 2 you can give weight to the word got. In 1 you can't give weight to /v/. |
60,599,764 | I'm new to Flutter and I wanted to know what is the best practice to ship the flutter app with pre-populated SQLite DB data ( default data ).
Also in future app updates, I may update the default data. Means, if someone installs the app for the first time, the new default data should install. And if someone updates the app, it should update the existing data in his SQLite DB accordingly.
What should be the right way? | 2020/03/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60599764",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2609021/"
] | I would look at moor, it has a MigrationStrategy, there is a callback onCreate and beforeOpen that has some goodies like wasCreated which you could use to precreate tables and prepopulate data on first run. Take a look at the docs and the source code for more details.
<https://moor.simonbinder.eu/docs/advanced-features/migrations/> | 1. You can put loading data to onCreate callback, after all tables are initialized.
2. If you have to update data from time to time from the files, but don't want to increase db version, you can put it to onOpen callback and do check before returning database, like if number rows in tableA <= 10 do table update.
3. You can use onUpgrade callback to run table updates, but in this case you have to increate db version every time you do data update. |
5,297,449 | I'm looking at the options for building an invoice and ordervoucher generator in PHP. I've created several PDF's for other occasions before with FPDF and TCPDF and both work fine but are sooooo verbose that i'm getting sick of it.
I get a feeling that generating PDF's in any programming language is super verbose.
Is there any way at all to generate a PDF-blueprint with Adobe Acrobat and use that as a template with variable fields/area's? That way i could for example allow the designers overhere create me a letterhead and overall invoice theme and i would only write the content of the variable parts (order lines, totals, due date, buyer details) into the pdf.
To put it simple, a barebones templating system that reads a pdf and outputs it again after variable substitution. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5297449",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/187018/"
] | You can create a PDF with formfields and replace the content of those fields in the source. You have to replace the exact number of characters though, otherwise the PDF might get corrupted. In your case, where you want to add whole tables, that might not be feasible.
We did something very similar but used a different approach. Using <http://www.setasign.de/products/pdf-php-solutions/fpdi/> we loaded the PDF, and put the content we wanted on top (FPDI extends TCPDF or FPDF). | You could use the Zend PDF module which is free: <http://framework.zend.com/manual/en/zend.pdf.html>
See this question for editing existing files or creating placeholders to swap out using PHP: [PDF Editing in PHP?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/7364/pdf-editing-in-php)
You can use FPDF for creating new PDF files although it has it's flaws (but it very quick to get something created: <http://www.fpdf.org/> |
5,297,449 | I'm looking at the options for building an invoice and ordervoucher generator in PHP. I've created several PDF's for other occasions before with FPDF and TCPDF and both work fine but are sooooo verbose that i'm getting sick of it.
I get a feeling that generating PDF's in any programming language is super verbose.
Is there any way at all to generate a PDF-blueprint with Adobe Acrobat and use that as a template with variable fields/area's? That way i could for example allow the designers overhere create me a letterhead and overall invoice theme and i would only write the content of the variable parts (order lines, totals, due date, buyer details) into the pdf.
To put it simple, a barebones templating system that reads a pdf and outputs it again after variable substitution. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5297449",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/187018/"
] | You can create a PDF with formfields and replace the content of those fields in the source. You have to replace the exact number of characters though, otherwise the PDF might get corrupted. In your case, where you want to add whole tables, that might not be feasible.
We did something very similar but used a different approach. Using <http://www.setasign.de/products/pdf-php-solutions/fpdi/> we loaded the PDF, and put the content we wanted on top (FPDI extends TCPDF or FPDF). | It is much simpler to hold templates in some kind of meta-language (like for FPDF) and generate documents as to fiddle with binary streams and lone glyphs in PDFs.
Since /dev/null exists, verbosity should be not a problem. |
5,297,449 | I'm looking at the options for building an invoice and ordervoucher generator in PHP. I've created several PDF's for other occasions before with FPDF and TCPDF and both work fine but are sooooo verbose that i'm getting sick of it.
I get a feeling that generating PDF's in any programming language is super verbose.
Is there any way at all to generate a PDF-blueprint with Adobe Acrobat and use that as a template with variable fields/area's? That way i could for example allow the designers overhere create me a letterhead and overall invoice theme and i would only write the content of the variable parts (order lines, totals, due date, buyer details) into the pdf.
To put it simple, a barebones templating system that reads a pdf and outputs it again after variable substitution. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5297449",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/187018/"
] | You can create a PDF with formfields and replace the content of those fields in the source. You have to replace the exact number of characters though, otherwise the PDF might get corrupted. In your case, where you want to add whole tables, that might not be feasible.
We did something very similar but used a different approach. Using <http://www.setasign.de/products/pdf-php-solutions/fpdi/> we loaded the PDF, and put the content we wanted on top (FPDI extends TCPDF or FPDF). | Sounds like you want Form Fields. There are two flavors of forms in PDF:
AcroForms: Forms created with the tech originally built into Acrobat 4.x & 5. It's been extended quite a bit along the way. Lots of software out there can read and write AcroForm-based PDFs.
XFA: The New Hotness. Adobe LiveCycle Designer (ships with Acrobat Pro) can build you some really spiffy forms that can only be processed with a few libraries... mostly Adobe's own. Adobe's server products are *Not Cheap*.
Your PDF library du jur may also let you import pages from existing PDFs. You build your PDF "boilerplate" in whatever app you like, export to PDF, and then draw on top of it with your PDF library. This lets you draw anything you want, not just what fields let you display (line art, images, *and* text, not mostly-just-text).
---
There are also quite a few HTML->PDF libraries floating around. You could build your reports in HTML then translate them to PDF if you feel more comfortable going that route. Some are better at it than others, and only one I know of will take HTML script into account (wkhtmltopdf). |
4,413,296 | I have an LWUIT app that has a few components that don't display correctly in the simulator. I need to take some screen captures for docs and was hoping I could do it in code (running on the handset) by either invoking an Image method or a Form method.
No luck so far. | 2010/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4413296",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/202044/"
] | 1. Simple alternative try another emulator... or change your code slightly so it looks better in the emulators.
2. Use something like <http://deviceanywhere.com> or any other real world device emulation programs and take a screen shot using standard means. ;)
3. There are ways... they all seem to involve hacks though.
You can override the paint method of your particular form.. Create an image get graphics object from said image pass that into paint method... save image to phones SD card or post it to a server.
You might need to call the paint method another time using the original graphics object if you intend to see what is drawn on the screen. | Dont know if this is available to you in LWUIT, but check out: [link text](http://tips4java.wordpress.com/2008/10/13/screen-image/) |
546,762 | I have a Wi-Fi access point with six antennas: three for 2.4GHz, and three others for 5GHz. The spec of the access point indicates that the gain is 4 dBi for 2.4GHz antennas, and 6 dBi for 5GHz ones (see the last line on page 2 of [the datasheet](http://content.us.dlink.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/03/DAP-2695_REVA_DATASHEET_1.01_EN_US.pdf)).
I tried to see what would happen if I replace three antennas by the ones rated 8 dBi (such as [these](https://www.aliexpress.com/item/1005001478729805.html)), first replacing the 2.4GHz 4 dBi ones, and then doing the same with the 5GHz 6 dBi ones. During the experiment, I positioned a mobile phone in a different room (on the same floor), and checked the dBm indication with Network Analyzer app. The antennas were positioned to point towards the ceiling.
I expected that once the antennas were replaced, it would make the signal more directional, which means that my neighbors on other floors would receive less of it, while my Wi-Fi devices situated at the same floor would get a stronger signal.
In practice, for 2.4GHz, the signal was just slightly stronger, but not by much: 55 dBm instead of 60 dBm. 5GHz signal was *weaker*—59 dBm with old antennas, 61 dBm with the new ones.
What could explain that? | 2021/02/05 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/546762",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/4944/"
] | Directional antennas work well for Line of Sight applications (where both Tx and Rx antennas can see each other). If you are indoors it means you will have reflections which will create unpredictable hotspots in gain. My advice is to try moving the access point position to see the variations in received signal. Remember you may have to move it on the same scale as a wavelength at the frequency you are transmitting to see a significant change.
I can see directional antennas for WiFi working well in situations where you need to extend outdoor coverage (like needing WiFi access in a back garden) but not indoors.
Hope that helps. | It is not uncommon to point off-LOS (off Line-Of-Sight) to get the best reception, if there is no visual LOS.
Incidentally, 2.4GHz penetrates walls better than 5GHz, and 5GHz *indoor* reception strength is therefore even less susceptible to antenna directionality, even though we can expect better *outdoor* directionality at the higher 5GHz frequency.
Depending on the specific ray-tracing scenario in a deployment, a directional antenna may provide poorer received signal strength and more severe multi-path fading across a WiFi band of, say, 20MHz.
Indoor directionality is applied to keep most of the signal indoors by pointing the antenna generally *away* from doors, windows and nearby exterior walls, rather than attempting to point them in the direction of the receiver.
As a related case in point, RF uplinks from TV Uplink Vans are highly directional, and in deployments in civic centres (areas with tall office buildings) often the signal is intentionally bounced off the buildings, sometimes taking a few reflections, to work itself out of the built-up area and reach its final free line to the intended satellite receiver.
If you find yourself in one of those tall buildings looking down at such a TV uplink van, take a close look at the direction of the dishes, and hope your office windows are metal coated. |
27,220 | I saw [this question](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/27184/are-there-real-world-recipes-for-middle-earth), and it made me think about a similar question regarding the A Song of Ice and Fire universe. **Are there some resources** (online or otherwise) **that you can suggest regarding recipes for food items for the ASOIAF series?** | 2012/11/26 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/27220",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/6365/"
] | There used to be a blog specifically for this called Cooking Ice and Fire, but unfortunately it's down.
However, there is an official cook book called [Feast of Ice and Fire](http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&ved=0CDMQFjAA&url=http://www.amazon.com/Feast-Ice-Fire-Official-Companion/dp/0345534492&ei=OPKzUKegNs3oiwLv-4HYBw&usg=AFQjCNFReJGZSCQCKfHHUaQslENf3lqWpg&sig2=n4F2rpp8fsUv0iclmuVfdw&cad=rja). | There are two really good recipe books, one of which is already listed here (*[A Feast of Ice and Fire](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0345534492)*). The other is *[The Unofficial Game of Thrones Cookbook](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1440538727)*. They're both works of art and I enjoy comparing the recipes in both books.
### *A Feast of Ice and Fire*
This book is endorsed by George R. R. Martin and is the better book in my opinion due to its inclusion of pictures. *A Feast of Ice and Fire* also typically has two versions of each recipe, one that's more historically accurate and one "modern" recipe that is perhaps better suited to the typical Western palate.
### *The Unofficial Game of Thrones Cookbook*
There have been some issues with *The Unofficial Game of Thrones Cookbook* with plagiarism — some people say that the recipes are copied from other unofficial cookbooks and slapped with a new GoT-inspired title.
---
For a diehard fan, you need both cookbooks, but if you're interested in just tasting a few recipes or getting a present for a GoT fan, the official Feast of Ice and Fire is the one to go with. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | [Anysoft keyboard](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.menny.android.anysoftkeyboard&hl=en) from Google Play Store allows you to hide the onscreen keyboard automatically. | I had the same problem with my GN10.1
I use samsung keyboard dock and the popup keyboard just annoyed me.
Because, I'm Lithuanian, I need a special characters (ąčęėįšųūž) for typing.
There is a <https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.apedroid.hwkeyboardhelper>
advanced null keyboard with multilanguage support (basic one works just with english).
Off course, it's very easy to find it for free by using google.
It closes the pop-up software keyboard and I can touch the screeen and enter text without any problem. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | [Anysoft keyboard](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.menny.android.anysoftkeyboard&hl=en) from Google Play Store allows you to hide the onscreen keyboard automatically. | I have been trying to figure this out for my new Galaxy Note 8.0, and have a workaround that works 98% of the time, which is a huge improvement. I started using Bluetooth Keep Active fro mthe play store. It has been mostly successful in tricking my tablet into thinking it was using the bluetooth even when it is asleep and prevented the awful Samsung default on-screen keyboard from turning itself on as the default. I set the timer at a one minute setting. I have been trying it with Null Keyboard, Anysoft Keyboard, Perfect Keyboard, and even turning off all on-screen keyboards. I'm not sure which default is the best to use with Keep Active yet - still fooling with it. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | [Anysoft keyboard](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.menny.android.anysoftkeyboard&hl=en) from Google Play Store allows you to hide the onscreen keyboard automatically. | On Galaxy S10, In settings you turn on show keyboard button. This gives you a handy little button at the bottom of the screen which you can use to switch between different installed keyboards. Touch this, and there is a setting "On-screen keyboard" Just turn this off. No need to install any app. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | [Anysoft keyboard](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.menny.android.anysoftkeyboard&hl=en) from Google Play Store allows you to hide the onscreen keyboard automatically. | I was able to disable on-screen keyboards in Android "settings" on my Samsung Tab3. Now I can use my Logitech K810 finally with no annoying on-screen keyboards constantly popping up and obscuring 50% of my viewable area on my already smallish tablet screen. I'm running Android 4.2.2. In settings choose "Language and Input" and click on "default" keyboard option. When the popup menu appears, slide the "use on-screen keyboard" slider to the "NO" position. It's not much hassle to go back to settings to slide it back to the "YES" position when my external keyboard is not available. I assume this is an easier fix than installing 3d party software like that "Null keyboard" app. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | You would be better off accessing the Physical Keyboard settings. Settings>General Management>Language and input>Physical Keyboard.
In this settings menu, you can set "Show on-screen keyboard" to off by tapping the toggle.
Hope this helps! | I have been trying to figure this out for my new Galaxy Note 8.0, and have a workaround that works 98% of the time, which is a huge improvement. I started using Bluetooth Keep Active fro mthe play store. It has been mostly successful in tricking my tablet into thinking it was using the bluetooth even when it is asleep and prevented the awful Samsung default on-screen keyboard from turning itself on as the default. I set the timer at a one minute setting. I have been trying it with Null Keyboard, Anysoft Keyboard, Perfect Keyboard, and even turning off all on-screen keyboards. I'm not sure which default is the best to use with Keep Active yet - still fooling with it. |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | After endless frustration with this issue, I have finally solved it without rooting the device.
The solution for me has been External Keyboard Helper Pro, a $2.45 app on the play store (a demo version is also available).
It detects when a bluetooth keyboard connects, and brings up a pop-up menu allowing you to select "External Keyboard" with two quick taps on the screen, which is definitely tolerable. This completely disables the on-screen keyboard, so I can type in peace (like having the Null keyboard installed).
A few seconds after powering off the bluetooth keyboard, the same dialog pops up, allowing me to equally quickly select my favorite Swype. After months of not being able to use my Bluetooth keyboard because of Samsung's inexplicably annoying implementation, I'm in heaven.
Note that in order to get it to work, I had to go into the Advanced Settings of External Keyboard Helper and enable "Old style detection." | Hi so I was checking my settings after reading this, and I found the solution. (I'm not sure if this will work on other Samsung devices tho, I use a Galaxy Tab A 10.1)
1. Go to Settings>General Management>Language and Input.
2. Go to Physical Keyboard.
3. If your software keyboard keeps popping up, it's most likely because the "Show on-screen keyboard" toggle is on. Switch it off to stop the keyboard from popping up.
this may or may not have been said in the comments but I just wanted to offer some assistance. hope this helped! |
42,842 | Models: Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1, GT-N8013 (WiFi) and SCH-I925 (4G LTE)
Android version 4.1.2
I've been experiencing problems with the overly aggressive Samsung soft keyboard popping up whenever I touch the screen to select an input field, even though I am using a Bluetooth keyboard, and only intend to use a Bluetooth keyboard with this device.
Constantly having to dismiss the soft keyboard is a major hindrance to filling out complex forms.
In an attempt to work around the problem, I tried installing the *Null Keyboard* app from Google Play.
This works for a while, however whenever the Bluetooth connection is lost and reestablished, the Samsung soft keyboard, even though not selected as the default, pops up the following message:
>
> Change input Method. To use Bluetooth keyboard, change input method to
> Samsung QWERTY
>
>
>
The Samsung soft keyboard then resets itself as default input method.
I have tried other workarounds, such as using the *Perfect Keyboard* app and decreasing its size to the bare minimum, but unfortunately the Samsung keyboard still watches like a hawk and pops up its insipid dialog and resets itself as the default every time a Bluetooth keyboard connection is established...and then proceeds to pop itself up at the first opportunity. This is irresponsible behavior. The Samsung soft keyboard *knows* the Bluetooth keyboard is there, yet not only can't it just go away when the Bluetooth keyboard is active, it insists on resetting itself as the default input method regardless of which alternative keyboard you may have selected.
Yes, I know I could root it and disable the otherwise undisableable Samsung keyboard, but unfortunately I need to be able to deal with this solution on about two dozen units in field deployment, so I pretty much need to keep things safe and simple. I'm not trying to do anything crazy - just use a Bluetooth keyboard for one of the primary reasons for which they were created - to be able to type without taking up screen real estate with a soft keyboard.
***Has anybody found a workaround for this yet?*** | 2013/04/02 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/42842",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31472/"
] | It is simple to remove on-screen keyboard when you have Bluetooth keyboard.
To remove on-screen keyboard, follow 5 simple steps.
1. Go to "Settings"
2. Select "Language and Input"
3. Select "Default Samsung keyboard" under "Keyboards and input methods" section
4. Turn off "Use on-screen keyboard"
5. push "Setup input methods" button | The best bet, if you are using the chrome browser is to use "tab" to select the field (if you want to select the url bar to search). Another way (if your keyboard has is) is to use the "magnifying glass" quick search button. I noticed that this selects the url and allows you to type a new entry and search. |
24,121,947 | Druid is used for both real time and batch processing. But can it totally replace hadoop?
If not why? As in what is the advantage of hadoop over druid?
I have read that druid is used along with hadoop. So can the use of Hadoop be avoided? | 2014/06/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24121947",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3240601/"
] | We are talking about two slightly related but very different technologies here.
Druid is a real-time analytics system and is a perfect fit for timeseries and time based events aggregation.
Hadoop is HDFS (a distributed file system) + Map Reduce (a paradigm for executing distributed processes), which together have created an eco system for distributed processing and act as underlying/influencing technology for many other open source projects.
You can setup druid to use Hadoop; that is to fire MR jobs to index batch data and to read its indexed data from HDFS (of course it will cache them locally on the local disk)
If you want to ignore Hadoop, you can do your indexing and loading from a local machine as well, of course with the penalty of being limited to one machine. | Can you avoid using Hadoop with Druid? Yes, you can stream data in real-time into a Druid cluster rather than batch-loading it with Hadoop. One way to do this is to stream data into [Kafka](http://kafka.apache.org), which will handle incoming events and pass them into [Storm](https://storm.incubator.apache.org/), which can then process and load them into Druid Realtime nodes.
Typically this setup *is* used with Hadoop in parallel, because streamed real-time data comes with its own baggage and often needs to be fixed up and backfilled. That whole architecture has been dubbed ["Lambda"](http://lambda-architecture.net/) by some. |
24,121,947 | Druid is used for both real time and batch processing. But can it totally replace hadoop?
If not why? As in what is the advantage of hadoop over druid?
I have read that druid is used along with hadoop. So can the use of Hadoop be avoided? | 2014/06/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24121947",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3240601/"
] | We are talking about two slightly related but very different technologies here.
Druid is a real-time analytics system and is a perfect fit for timeseries and time based events aggregation.
Hadoop is HDFS (a distributed file system) + Map Reduce (a paradigm for executing distributed processes), which together have created an eco system for distributed processing and act as underlying/influencing technology for many other open source projects.
You can setup druid to use Hadoop; that is to fire MR jobs to index batch data and to read its indexed data from HDFS (of course it will cache them locally on the local disk)
If you want to ignore Hadoop, you can do your indexing and loading from a local machine as well, of course with the penalty of being limited to one machine. | >
> Druid is used for both real time and batch processing. But can it totally replace hadoop? If not why?
>
>
>
It depends on your cases. Have a look at [Druid](https://druid.apache.org/docs/latest/design/index.html) official website documentation.
*Druid is good choice* for below use cases:
1. Insert rates are very high, but updates are less common
2. Most of queries are aggregation and reporting with low latency of 100ms to a few seconds.
3. Data has a time component
4. Load data from Kafka, HDFS, flat files, or object storage like Amazon S3
*Druid is not good choince* for below use cases
1. Need low-latency updates of existing records using a primary key. Druid supports streaming inserts, but not streaming updates
2. Building an offline reporting system where query latency is not very important.
3. In case of big joins
So if you are looking for offline reporting system where query latency is not important, Hadoop may score in that scenario. |
24,121,947 | Druid is used for both real time and batch processing. But can it totally replace hadoop?
If not why? As in what is the advantage of hadoop over druid?
I have read that druid is used along with hadoop. So can the use of Hadoop be avoided? | 2014/06/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24121947",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3240601/"
] | Can you avoid using Hadoop with Druid? Yes, you can stream data in real-time into a Druid cluster rather than batch-loading it with Hadoop. One way to do this is to stream data into [Kafka](http://kafka.apache.org), which will handle incoming events and pass them into [Storm](https://storm.incubator.apache.org/), which can then process and load them into Druid Realtime nodes.
Typically this setup *is* used with Hadoop in parallel, because streamed real-time data comes with its own baggage and often needs to be fixed up and backfilled. That whole architecture has been dubbed ["Lambda"](http://lambda-architecture.net/) by some. | >
> Druid is used for both real time and batch processing. But can it totally replace hadoop? If not why?
>
>
>
It depends on your cases. Have a look at [Druid](https://druid.apache.org/docs/latest/design/index.html) official website documentation.
*Druid is good choice* for below use cases:
1. Insert rates are very high, but updates are less common
2. Most of queries are aggregation and reporting with low latency of 100ms to a few seconds.
3. Data has a time component
4. Load data from Kafka, HDFS, flat files, or object storage like Amazon S3
*Druid is not good choince* for below use cases
1. Need low-latency updates of existing records using a primary key. Druid supports streaming inserts, but not streaming updates
2. Building an offline reporting system where query latency is not very important.
3. In case of big joins
So if you are looking for offline reporting system where query latency is not important, Hadoop may score in that scenario. |
179,809 | I appreciate you can't start an open source project with just an idea but would just a design be enough? Has anyone ever seen that done where a designer posts a design and developers join to start the coding? | 2012/12/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/179809",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/75346/"
] | If you don't find a programmer directly, like knowing somebody and "talking them into it", then I don't think that project will work.
I have seen many projects with complete designs and a framework, that never even generate a prototype.
It is difficult to attract developers to "dead" projects. So I wouldn't suggest starting a (complete) design if you don't have anybody to code, yet.
Of course, having a general architecture might help starting a team. | I would say you've got a good start. If you have an idea of what the final product should look like and how each button / user interaction should be handled you're probably closer than you think.. NOW, getting someone to jump on board and code it out might take some time and maybe never happen.. depending on your product, you might be able to "shop it around" and get some traction.
In my experience, the "final design" is often missing from the stakeholders project plan. In my opinion having the functionality "flushed out" so that the user interactions and program / process flow is laid out it's a huge step in the right direction. If you are intent on going open source then create the documentation on how the final product should behave and you'll be creating (i say this loosely) a user acceptance test which is much easier to develop.
I think the biggest challenge is getting a programmer (or community) on board because we are all probably working on our own projects which we think is the "next big thing".
Or it would be a great project / opportunity for you to learn to code. |
79,606 | I know that companies such as Lockheed Martin and Boeing design and build planes for the US Air Force. However, when I was thinking about this, I realized the Air force has no part in designing the thousands of aircraft they own (or am I wrong). Does the Air force basically act as a consumer or do they help in the process of designing the jets? (I know there is a job of an aircraft mechanic but they act as maintenance people and don't design the jet.) | 2020/07/17 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79606",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/50132/"
] | While the Air Force (or other military unit) does not design their own jets, they do release specifications and have contests (e.g. the [ATF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Tactical_Fighter) that selected the F-22). This is basically the way it works (and not just for fighter procurement):
* A design specification is released, these include things like range, mission, weapons.
* A "paper" design is submitted from companies like Boeing and Lockheed Martin. These may be based off of existing designs or "clean sheet" designs.
* The military funds the development of one or two prototype aircraft from a number of paper designs.
* The military evaluates each design against the specification and selects a "winner".
* A larger contract is awarded
So it's not really up to companies like Boeing or Lockheed Martin to come up with their own designs and sell that to the military. They work under strict program requirements to develop something "to spec" and then demonstrate the capability. The military has a hand in the design process as this goes along, so they are not entirely "out of the loop".
The secondary market is different though. Boeing may sell (with the approval of the US Government) these aircraft to certain foreign military groups. These work more like selecting something from available stock in the *dealer lot*. | The answer to your question largely depends on your definition of "design", as well as the specifics of the procurement program.
In general, the Department of Defense (DOD) does not have *engineering authority* over the equipment it procures. That is, Pentagon employees do not produce and sign engineering drawings for hardware built by contractors. However, almost all such data is reviewed by the DOD in detail before being implemented.
More broadly, though, the final configuration of a military aircraft is the result of a continuous back-and-forth between the supplier and the DOD. In my experience, this interface occasionally borders on collaboration. Sometimes a Pentagon requirement is broad and it is expected that the contractor use its expertise to come up with a creative implementation independently. Sometimes the DOD uses a so-called "directed solution", which tells the contractor almost exactly what the final product should look like in practice. And everything in between.
Your parenthetical actually illustrates a very important example. I spent years working on teams tasked with figuring out how to design military aircraft to be as friendly as possible to the mechanics and maintainers. Without the input of DOD mechanics in the field, we could not have done our job well, and the final design of the systems was certainly different than it would have been without that input. |
79,606 | I know that companies such as Lockheed Martin and Boeing design and build planes for the US Air Force. However, when I was thinking about this, I realized the Air force has no part in designing the thousands of aircraft they own (or am I wrong). Does the Air force basically act as a consumer or do they help in the process of designing the jets? (I know there is a job of an aircraft mechanic but they act as maintenance people and don't design the jet.) | 2020/07/17 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79606",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/50132/"
] | While the Air Force (or other military unit) does not design their own jets, they do release specifications and have contests (e.g. the [ATF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Tactical_Fighter) that selected the F-22). This is basically the way it works (and not just for fighter procurement):
* A design specification is released, these include things like range, mission, weapons.
* A "paper" design is submitted from companies like Boeing and Lockheed Martin. These may be based off of existing designs or "clean sheet" designs.
* The military funds the development of one or two prototype aircraft from a number of paper designs.
* The military evaluates each design against the specification and selects a "winner".
* A larger contract is awarded
So it's not really up to companies like Boeing or Lockheed Martin to come up with their own designs and sell that to the military. They work under strict program requirements to develop something "to spec" and then demonstrate the capability. The military has a hand in the design process as this goes along, so they are not entirely "out of the loop".
The secondary market is different though. Boeing may sell (with the approval of the US Government) these aircraft to certain foreign military groups. These work more like selecting something from available stock in the *dealer lot*. | I suppose this depends largely on how broadly you define "help design." If you're limiting the scope to an actual aircraft design project, the other answers cover that well: the USAF determines what it needs, Congress changes it to something that brings business to their districts and approves funding for it, and then the USAF issues detailed requests for proposals from the likes of Boeing, Lockheed Martin, Northrop Grumman, etc.
*However*, the Air Force does do a ton of research that develops a lot of the technologies that will eventually be included in those airplanes. It also does a ton of verification testing, as well as overseeing development contracts. This is pretty much the entire mission of the [Air Force Materiel Command](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_Force_Materiel_Command), which employs approximately 80,000 people. AFMC is the most-funded major command within the Air Force, representing 31% of USAF outlays, according to Wikipedia.
The [Air Force Research Laboratory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_Force_Research_Laboratory) oversees early-stage research projects, as well as conducting a good deal of its own research that will eventually end up in USAF hardware, though it typically doesn't design or produce the actual production hardware itself.
Bases like Eglin, Edwards, Arnold, Holloman, and others perform aerodynamics testing and flight testing for experimental aircraft as well as for production aircraft and engines for all branches of the military. For example, [Arnold conducts most of the wind tunnel testing for U.S. military aviation](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/a/27032/755), as well as testing jet engines, rocket motors, and space vehicles. While their mission is primarily military, they also do a lot of contract testing for civilian projects, including commercial projects as well as NASA projects. There's a good chance that the engine powering your airliner was tested there at some point during its development.
So, if your definition of "help design" includes conducting a lot of the early research that ultimately makes the production technologies possible and design verification testing (including flight testing, wind tunnel testing, engine testing, etc.,) then, yes, the USAF does participate quite heavily in developing its aircraft. However, if you're excluding these activities and also excluding developing the detailed requests for proposals, overseeing the bidding, overseeing the development efforts of the winning bidder, etc., then you could argue that it doesn't "help design" them to a large extent. The latter would seem to be a short-sighted view of what "help design" means in my personal opinion as an engineer, though. |
79,606 | I know that companies such as Lockheed Martin and Boeing design and build planes for the US Air Force. However, when I was thinking about this, I realized the Air force has no part in designing the thousands of aircraft they own (or am I wrong). Does the Air force basically act as a consumer or do they help in the process of designing the jets? (I know there is a job of an aircraft mechanic but they act as maintenance people and don't design the jet.) | 2020/07/17 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79606",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/50132/"
] | While the Air Force (or other military unit) does not design their own jets, they do release specifications and have contests (e.g. the [ATF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Tactical_Fighter) that selected the F-22). This is basically the way it works (and not just for fighter procurement):
* A design specification is released, these include things like range, mission, weapons.
* A "paper" design is submitted from companies like Boeing and Lockheed Martin. These may be based off of existing designs or "clean sheet" designs.
* The military funds the development of one or two prototype aircraft from a number of paper designs.
* The military evaluates each design against the specification and selects a "winner".
* A larger contract is awarded
So it's not really up to companies like Boeing or Lockheed Martin to come up with their own designs and sell that to the military. They work under strict program requirements to develop something "to spec" and then demonstrate the capability. The military has a hand in the design process as this goes along, so they are not entirely "out of the loop".
The secondary market is different though. Boeing may sell (with the approval of the US Government) these aircraft to certain foreign military groups. These work more like selecting something from available stock in the *dealer lot*. | In short: the US Air Force does not do any design work, primarily because they have deliberately decided not to maintain the necessary expertise. Other DoD entities do, to a greater or lesser extent. This has been true for the past couple decades, but was not true historically.
As other answers have stated though, a detailed answer depends what you consider "design," "aircraft," "does," and "help" to mean.
"Aircraft" is probably the easiest: it is fairly common to require specific systems be put on a platform. For example, you might see a requirement for a specific IFF transponder (or the prime contractor might select a specific IFF transponder), which might be provided as Government Furnished Equipment (GFE - essentially the government is supplying their own parts to be installed). That box is then part of the design of the aircraft, and the prime contractor is relying on the government to ensure it works as required. Small avionics boxes like that are more likely to have more design influence from the government side. So, if exerting design influence on that box counts as exerting design influence on the "aircraft," then the USAF does do design work. It is overwhelmingly common to have a random assortment of configuration items (especially avionics) provided as GFE, usually as a misguided attempt to save money.
"Does" is next. The USAF got out of the design business. I am not aware of any specific policy decision that drove this, but anecdotally it seems to have happened in the '90s. Before that, it was much more hit or miss. E.g. the SR-71 was built based on a half-page of requirements while Lockheed stiff-armed the USAF away from any design insight, But John Boyd famously drove the overall capability requirement for lightweight fighters and exerted tremendous design influence on the F-15.
"Design" and "helps" are a bit sticky. At a 50,000 foot view, the idealized modern US acquisition process goes something like this: combatant commanders (the heads of CENTCOM, PACOM, etc.) plan constantly for campaigns they might need to execute. As part of that, they note gaps in the capabilities available. E.g. maybe PACOM is concerned about pirates, and wants a capability to conduct small boat boarding operations from fast-mover aircraft. That capability need gets rounded with all the others and sent up to the Pentagon, where the Joint Requirements Oversight Council figures out how to address it (see: DOTMILPF), and racks-and-stacks it into a package of capabilities. If that package has a materiel component (i.e. if you need to buy stuff, not just re-train or whatever), it goes into the budget request and gets money allocated to it. Then the money and capability requirements go to one of the acquisition commands (AF Materiel Command, IIRC), which takes that crazy wishlist, turns it into a specification (usually. USAF does much less specifying than other branches), and goes and buys the thing specified. As part of the "goes and buys" process, the government usually takes control of various design elements after they are complete. The degree of control and degree of insight the government has varies wildly from program to program, but the AF tends to rely on prime contractors much more than the other services. Finally for any major weapon system and many other systems, there is an "operational evaluation," where real users really test it out to see that it meets the capability needs that JROC described. The feedback from that might well influence design. |
79,606 | I know that companies such as Lockheed Martin and Boeing design and build planes for the US Air Force. However, when I was thinking about this, I realized the Air force has no part in designing the thousands of aircraft they own (or am I wrong). Does the Air force basically act as a consumer or do they help in the process of designing the jets? (I know there is a job of an aircraft mechanic but they act as maintenance people and don't design the jet.) | 2020/07/17 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79606",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/50132/"
] | The answer to your question largely depends on your definition of "design", as well as the specifics of the procurement program.
In general, the Department of Defense (DOD) does not have *engineering authority* over the equipment it procures. That is, Pentagon employees do not produce and sign engineering drawings for hardware built by contractors. However, almost all such data is reviewed by the DOD in detail before being implemented.
More broadly, though, the final configuration of a military aircraft is the result of a continuous back-and-forth between the supplier and the DOD. In my experience, this interface occasionally borders on collaboration. Sometimes a Pentagon requirement is broad and it is expected that the contractor use its expertise to come up with a creative implementation independently. Sometimes the DOD uses a so-called "directed solution", which tells the contractor almost exactly what the final product should look like in practice. And everything in between.
Your parenthetical actually illustrates a very important example. I spent years working on teams tasked with figuring out how to design military aircraft to be as friendly as possible to the mechanics and maintainers. Without the input of DOD mechanics in the field, we could not have done our job well, and the final design of the systems was certainly different than it would have been without that input. | In short: the US Air Force does not do any design work, primarily because they have deliberately decided not to maintain the necessary expertise. Other DoD entities do, to a greater or lesser extent. This has been true for the past couple decades, but was not true historically.
As other answers have stated though, a detailed answer depends what you consider "design," "aircraft," "does," and "help" to mean.
"Aircraft" is probably the easiest: it is fairly common to require specific systems be put on a platform. For example, you might see a requirement for a specific IFF transponder (or the prime contractor might select a specific IFF transponder), which might be provided as Government Furnished Equipment (GFE - essentially the government is supplying their own parts to be installed). That box is then part of the design of the aircraft, and the prime contractor is relying on the government to ensure it works as required. Small avionics boxes like that are more likely to have more design influence from the government side. So, if exerting design influence on that box counts as exerting design influence on the "aircraft," then the USAF does do design work. It is overwhelmingly common to have a random assortment of configuration items (especially avionics) provided as GFE, usually as a misguided attempt to save money.
"Does" is next. The USAF got out of the design business. I am not aware of any specific policy decision that drove this, but anecdotally it seems to have happened in the '90s. Before that, it was much more hit or miss. E.g. the SR-71 was built based on a half-page of requirements while Lockheed stiff-armed the USAF away from any design insight, But John Boyd famously drove the overall capability requirement for lightweight fighters and exerted tremendous design influence on the F-15.
"Design" and "helps" are a bit sticky. At a 50,000 foot view, the idealized modern US acquisition process goes something like this: combatant commanders (the heads of CENTCOM, PACOM, etc.) plan constantly for campaigns they might need to execute. As part of that, they note gaps in the capabilities available. E.g. maybe PACOM is concerned about pirates, and wants a capability to conduct small boat boarding operations from fast-mover aircraft. That capability need gets rounded with all the others and sent up to the Pentagon, where the Joint Requirements Oversight Council figures out how to address it (see: DOTMILPF), and racks-and-stacks it into a package of capabilities. If that package has a materiel component (i.e. if you need to buy stuff, not just re-train or whatever), it goes into the budget request and gets money allocated to it. Then the money and capability requirements go to one of the acquisition commands (AF Materiel Command, IIRC), which takes that crazy wishlist, turns it into a specification (usually. USAF does much less specifying than other branches), and goes and buys the thing specified. As part of the "goes and buys" process, the government usually takes control of various design elements after they are complete. The degree of control and degree of insight the government has varies wildly from program to program, but the AF tends to rely on prime contractors much more than the other services. Finally for any major weapon system and many other systems, there is an "operational evaluation," where real users really test it out to see that it meets the capability needs that JROC described. The feedback from that might well influence design. |
79,606 | I know that companies such as Lockheed Martin and Boeing design and build planes for the US Air Force. However, when I was thinking about this, I realized the Air force has no part in designing the thousands of aircraft they own (or am I wrong). Does the Air force basically act as a consumer or do they help in the process of designing the jets? (I know there is a job of an aircraft mechanic but they act as maintenance people and don't design the jet.) | 2020/07/17 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/79606",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/50132/"
] | I suppose this depends largely on how broadly you define "help design." If you're limiting the scope to an actual aircraft design project, the other answers cover that well: the USAF determines what it needs, Congress changes it to something that brings business to their districts and approves funding for it, and then the USAF issues detailed requests for proposals from the likes of Boeing, Lockheed Martin, Northrop Grumman, etc.
*However*, the Air Force does do a ton of research that develops a lot of the technologies that will eventually be included in those airplanes. It also does a ton of verification testing, as well as overseeing development contracts. This is pretty much the entire mission of the [Air Force Materiel Command](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_Force_Materiel_Command), which employs approximately 80,000 people. AFMC is the most-funded major command within the Air Force, representing 31% of USAF outlays, according to Wikipedia.
The [Air Force Research Laboratory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_Force_Research_Laboratory) oversees early-stage research projects, as well as conducting a good deal of its own research that will eventually end up in USAF hardware, though it typically doesn't design or produce the actual production hardware itself.
Bases like Eglin, Edwards, Arnold, Holloman, and others perform aerodynamics testing and flight testing for experimental aircraft as well as for production aircraft and engines for all branches of the military. For example, [Arnold conducts most of the wind tunnel testing for U.S. military aviation](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/a/27032/755), as well as testing jet engines, rocket motors, and space vehicles. While their mission is primarily military, they also do a lot of contract testing for civilian projects, including commercial projects as well as NASA projects. There's a good chance that the engine powering your airliner was tested there at some point during its development.
So, if your definition of "help design" includes conducting a lot of the early research that ultimately makes the production technologies possible and design verification testing (including flight testing, wind tunnel testing, engine testing, etc.,) then, yes, the USAF does participate quite heavily in developing its aircraft. However, if you're excluding these activities and also excluding developing the detailed requests for proposals, overseeing the bidding, overseeing the development efforts of the winning bidder, etc., then you could argue that it doesn't "help design" them to a large extent. The latter would seem to be a short-sighted view of what "help design" means in my personal opinion as an engineer, though. | In short: the US Air Force does not do any design work, primarily because they have deliberately decided not to maintain the necessary expertise. Other DoD entities do, to a greater or lesser extent. This has been true for the past couple decades, but was not true historically.
As other answers have stated though, a detailed answer depends what you consider "design," "aircraft," "does," and "help" to mean.
"Aircraft" is probably the easiest: it is fairly common to require specific systems be put on a platform. For example, you might see a requirement for a specific IFF transponder (or the prime contractor might select a specific IFF transponder), which might be provided as Government Furnished Equipment (GFE - essentially the government is supplying their own parts to be installed). That box is then part of the design of the aircraft, and the prime contractor is relying on the government to ensure it works as required. Small avionics boxes like that are more likely to have more design influence from the government side. So, if exerting design influence on that box counts as exerting design influence on the "aircraft," then the USAF does do design work. It is overwhelmingly common to have a random assortment of configuration items (especially avionics) provided as GFE, usually as a misguided attempt to save money.
"Does" is next. The USAF got out of the design business. I am not aware of any specific policy decision that drove this, but anecdotally it seems to have happened in the '90s. Before that, it was much more hit or miss. E.g. the SR-71 was built based on a half-page of requirements while Lockheed stiff-armed the USAF away from any design insight, But John Boyd famously drove the overall capability requirement for lightweight fighters and exerted tremendous design influence on the F-15.
"Design" and "helps" are a bit sticky. At a 50,000 foot view, the idealized modern US acquisition process goes something like this: combatant commanders (the heads of CENTCOM, PACOM, etc.) plan constantly for campaigns they might need to execute. As part of that, they note gaps in the capabilities available. E.g. maybe PACOM is concerned about pirates, and wants a capability to conduct small boat boarding operations from fast-mover aircraft. That capability need gets rounded with all the others and sent up to the Pentagon, where the Joint Requirements Oversight Council figures out how to address it (see: DOTMILPF), and racks-and-stacks it into a package of capabilities. If that package has a materiel component (i.e. if you need to buy stuff, not just re-train or whatever), it goes into the budget request and gets money allocated to it. Then the money and capability requirements go to one of the acquisition commands (AF Materiel Command, IIRC), which takes that crazy wishlist, turns it into a specification (usually. USAF does much less specifying than other branches), and goes and buys the thing specified. As part of the "goes and buys" process, the government usually takes control of various design elements after they are complete. The degree of control and degree of insight the government has varies wildly from program to program, but the AF tends to rely on prime contractors much more than the other services. Finally for any major weapon system and many other systems, there is an "operational evaluation," where real users really test it out to see that it meets the capability needs that JROC described. The feedback from that might well influence design. |
11,129 | Morning All,
Why is only the Big Blind used in measuring stack size? It ignores the effect of the Small Blind and antes in each round of play, If you have 20 BBs you only have 12.5 rounds of play before being blinded out. I realize formats have changed somewhat, still curious about the BB to stack size ratio reasoning. | 2020/06/21 | [
"https://poker.stackexchange.com/questions/11129",
"https://poker.stackexchange.com",
"https://poker.stackexchange.com/users/7776/"
] | Since small blind is often just half a big blind, its effect is implicitely taken into account.
For games with antes, you may want to learn about Harrington's M (ratio between stack and initial pot) | The reasoning behind BB being used as a measuring unit of stacks is three-fold:
1. It is stake-agnostic. No matter the stake, you can easily perform measurements and analytics of most hands, players and games in relation to their BB or BB/100. Additionally, it allows us to abstract theory and develop technique that can then be practically transferred to almost any other stake. This is especially useful in conditions where the blinds change.
2. It is the minimum possible raise on any street. Not even the small-blind can raise 0.5BB. For them to perform a raise, they must pay a minimum of 1.5BB (if no other player has raised). This makes it the most recognizable unit.
3. Since it is stake-agnostic and the minimum possible raise, this allows it to utilized across most formats, as well, whether they involve cash or not.
It's also important to note that it can (and is in some cases) also used to measure bets, pots and profitability. If one learns to think in terms of BB, they can then compare, contrast and further inform their performances across stakes and formats. And this is true whether or not they theorize and share or not. |
51,547 | Here's a sentence written in my textbook.
>
> The problem isn't just confined to **roads**, but also the subway systems that are packed with commuters in the morning or evening peak hours. It is next to impossible to move in the subway cars **at these times**.
>
>
>
1. In this sentence, roads is simply referring to unspecific roads. But, if I rephrase it as '**the roads**', it is more likely to refer to the class of objects called road. So, no matter which one I use, there's no big difference. I'd like to know the difference between 'roads' and 'the roads'.
2. I know that depending on what I want to use, I can choose the word between 'at' and 'in' to tell time phrases. At the end of the sentence, if I want to use 'in' not 'at', how can I rephrase it? **'In these times'** is just okay?
I'd like to know the difference between 'at' and 'in'. | 2015/02/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/51547",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15584/"
] | 1) *roads* as used here is a mass noun (roads in general cause some problem). So no article is used.
2) When you say:
>
> **at these times**
>
>
>
it is referring to specific time based occasions. So you would use *at*. Same as:
>
> Sometimes the train is late. **At these times**...
>
> **At** the end of the class...
>
>
>
This applies to the example you provided.
As for:
>
> In these times
>
>
>
Here *in* is like *during*, so it would be referring to a period of time. For example:
>
> Life was difficult during the Great Depression. **In those times**, there were many people who were unemployed.
>
>
> | @user3169's answer is correct. However, I'll just add…
The use of a definite article before *roads* is optional, and there is only a subtle distinction, if any, if it is included. It is also possible to insert *the* there, like this:
>
> Seoul suffers huge economic losses due to inadequate transportation infrastructure. The problem isn't just confined to the roads, but also the subway systems that are packed with commuters in the morning or evening peak hours.
>
>
>
In that context, "the roads" refers to the roads of Seoul. |
50,270 | The federal budget in the US is proposed and approved annually. However, analysts and commentators very often explain budgetary measures "will cost X USD over 10 years" or "cuts program P by X USD over 10 years".
A few examples:
* [A question here on Poitics.SE](https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/7854/how-can-obamas-free-community-college-plan-budget-only-60b-for-10-years).
* An article in [The Washington Post](https://www.washingtonpost.com/business/2020/02/09/trump-budget-plan-would-fail-eliminate-deficit-over-10-years-briefing-document-shows/) about the proposed federal budget.
* Estimates of the effect of the 2018 tax cut on [Bloomberg](https://www.bloomberg.com/graphics/2018-tax-plan-consequences/).
Is there some actual significance to these 10-year periods? Or is it just a way of mutiplying numbers by 10 for greater dramatic effect? | 2020/02/14 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/50270",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7643/"
] | There are several reason that projections are over 10 years. The primary reason is that many initiatives take several years to implement, so using a 10 year period can more accurately capture the effects. For example, building a four lane bridge takes years of planning and construction, and will likely cost billions. After it's built their are possible tolls and increases to economic activity that offset some or of that cost, three or 5 year projections may only capture the construction phase and no benefits. 10 years is a bit of a compromise between long enough to capture effects and short enough to still have some accuracy.
A more nefarious reason to use the 10 year standard is to hide the true costs of doing something. Many bills that claim to be "budget neutral" over ten years are front loaded with spending in the first few years, then have some combination of new taxes, economic increase, or fees balance out those first years of spending. Then in the later years the proposed tax is canceled or the income is reallocated to some other project, or the growth never happened so money was spent and the ROI never happens. Additionally by using a 10 year window a bill that is really 9 billion over two years in spending can be called a 10 billion over ten years by spending a nominal amount for the latter years with most being spent early on. | Interestingly a 10 year period is also important in a process known as budget reconciliation. This is, however, probably not the primary reason for using a 10 year period.
Normally passing a bill in the Senate requires 60 votes in order to avoid a filibuster. A process known as budget reconciliation allows the Senate to pass a single bill each year that changes revenue and spending with only a simple majority. They can however only do this if the bill is revenue neutral over a 10-year period. |
50,270 | The federal budget in the US is proposed and approved annually. However, analysts and commentators very often explain budgetary measures "will cost X USD over 10 years" or "cuts program P by X USD over 10 years".
A few examples:
* [A question here on Poitics.SE](https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/7854/how-can-obamas-free-community-college-plan-budget-only-60b-for-10-years).
* An article in [The Washington Post](https://www.washingtonpost.com/business/2020/02/09/trump-budget-plan-would-fail-eliminate-deficit-over-10-years-briefing-document-shows/) about the proposed federal budget.
* Estimates of the effect of the 2018 tax cut on [Bloomberg](https://www.bloomberg.com/graphics/2018-tax-plan-consequences/).
Is there some actual significance to these 10-year periods? Or is it just a way of mutiplying numbers by 10 for greater dramatic effect? | 2020/02/14 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/50270",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7643/"
] | >
> Is there some actual significance to these 10-year periods?
>
>
>
Yes, it's the law.
[2 U.S. Code § 933.](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/2/933)
>
> (d) **OMB PAYGO scorecards**
>
>
>
> >
> > (1) **In general**
> >
> > OMB shall maintain and make publicly available a continuously updated document containing two PAYGO scorecards displaying the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation as determined under section 639 of this title, applying the look-back requirement in subsection (e) and the averaging requirement in subsection (f), and a separate addendum displaying the estimates of the costs of provisions designated in statute as emergency requirements.
> >
> >
> > (4) **5-year scorecard**
> >
> > The first scorecard shall display the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation in each year over the 5-year period beginning in the budget year.
> >
> >
> > (5) **10-year scorecard**
> >
> > The second scorecard shall display the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation in each year over the 10-year period beginning in the budget year.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> | There are several reason that projections are over 10 years. The primary reason is that many initiatives take several years to implement, so using a 10 year period can more accurately capture the effects. For example, building a four lane bridge takes years of planning and construction, and will likely cost billions. After it's built their are possible tolls and increases to economic activity that offset some or of that cost, three or 5 year projections may only capture the construction phase and no benefits. 10 years is a bit of a compromise between long enough to capture effects and short enough to still have some accuracy.
A more nefarious reason to use the 10 year standard is to hide the true costs of doing something. Many bills that claim to be "budget neutral" over ten years are front loaded with spending in the first few years, then have some combination of new taxes, economic increase, or fees balance out those first years of spending. Then in the later years the proposed tax is canceled or the income is reallocated to some other project, or the growth never happened so money was spent and the ROI never happens. Additionally by using a 10 year window a bill that is really 9 billion over two years in spending can be called a 10 billion over ten years by spending a nominal amount for the latter years with most being spent early on. |
50,270 | The federal budget in the US is proposed and approved annually. However, analysts and commentators very often explain budgetary measures "will cost X USD over 10 years" or "cuts program P by X USD over 10 years".
A few examples:
* [A question here on Poitics.SE](https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/7854/how-can-obamas-free-community-college-plan-budget-only-60b-for-10-years).
* An article in [The Washington Post](https://www.washingtonpost.com/business/2020/02/09/trump-budget-plan-would-fail-eliminate-deficit-over-10-years-briefing-document-shows/) about the proposed federal budget.
* Estimates of the effect of the 2018 tax cut on [Bloomberg](https://www.bloomberg.com/graphics/2018-tax-plan-consequences/).
Is there some actual significance to these 10-year periods? Or is it just a way of mutiplying numbers by 10 for greater dramatic effect? | 2020/02/14 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/50270",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7643/"
] | >
> Is there some actual significance to these 10-year periods?
>
>
>
Yes, it's the law.
[2 U.S. Code § 933.](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/2/933)
>
> (d) **OMB PAYGO scorecards**
>
>
>
> >
> > (1) **In general**
> >
> > OMB shall maintain and make publicly available a continuously updated document containing two PAYGO scorecards displaying the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation as determined under section 639 of this title, applying the look-back requirement in subsection (e) and the averaging requirement in subsection (f), and a separate addendum displaying the estimates of the costs of provisions designated in statute as emergency requirements.
> >
> >
> > (4) **5-year scorecard**
> >
> > The first scorecard shall display the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation in each year over the 5-year period beginning in the budget year.
> >
> >
> > (5) **10-year scorecard**
> >
> > The second scorecard shall display the budgetary effects of PAYGO legislation in each year over the 10-year period beginning in the budget year.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> | Interestingly a 10 year period is also important in a process known as budget reconciliation. This is, however, probably not the primary reason for using a 10 year period.
Normally passing a bill in the Senate requires 60 votes in order to avoid a filibuster. A process known as budget reconciliation allows the Senate to pass a single bill each year that changes revenue and spending with only a simple majority. They can however only do this if the bill is revenue neutral over a 10-year period. |
32,093 | I've been trying to loose weight for a while but have had pretty limited success. I lost a couple of kg's earlier in the year by cutting calories, but nothing since. Details below:
My latest regime is a two day fast (with tea and filter coffee with milk) and 4 days 20 minute kettle bell snatch x 2 (40 mins a day) 15 mins on 15 mins rest. My weight is staying around 64 - 65kg (target 56kg). I've been on the new regime for 4 weeks with no difference, I'm trying to work out what I could do next, or whether I should just wait it out some more and see. I definitely feel better, stronger and more toned, I just wish the tape measure or scales would move! On a side note - maybe the tape measure did move a little - it's actually really hard to measure accurately and the differences are so small.
I'd say on my non fasting days I generally eat yoghurt or omlettes with quark cheese for breakfast. Lunch is savory yoghurt with soft boiled eggs, omlettes, turkey mince with eggs and cabbage, sardines on rye bread, peas and paneer... that kinda thing. I'm supposed to eat low histamine, but I struggle, plus I love fish, so I guess maybe I have inflammation from the reactions a bit.
I do eat out a couple of times a week - pretty much every meal on a saturday and takeout midweek and sometimes on a sunday , alcohol is no more than two glasses of dry white or gin and tonic 0 - 1 times a week.
I don't sleep especially well, I'm a light sleeper, I'm trying to limit screen time before bed. My room is by a noisy road and I have sensitive ears so can't use ear plugs. I'm a pretty stressed person, but working on it. So I know those don't help.
Any tips or advice would be appreciated. :) | 2016/09/09 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/32093",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/23533/"
] | Not a Doctor or a dietitian/Nutritionist here, but going by logic only reason you would target 56Kg is to satisfy a BMI index value. if not you should check that out. Here's [a link](http://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/educational/lose_wt/BMI/bmicalc.htm)! to calculate it.
*(you did not mention height so i reverse looked up the BMI table)*
so a height of 5'3" is ok with 141 pounds or 64Kg
Now to your question why are you not losing weight there could be many factors
* you are gaining bone and muscle mass. Here's [a link](http://dailyburn.com/life/health/why-am-i-gaining-weight-exercising/)
* net calorie intake is more than expended
* body is adapting and storing energy ( considering your fasting)
I suggest you work with a dietitian/Nutritionist and work out a diet plan and meditation may help with stress. | First of all, let's focus on nutrition. That's the real key in weight management. Exercise helps, but since it's hard to really estimate calories burned by that (because of variability in the workouts, like form or intensity) let's just assume you want to lose weight only with nutrition (which is completely doable).
But before that a little quick note about measuring progress.
Weight and tape measurements it's a pretty good combo to measure changes, but it's not all down to that, don't forget the mirror. So take pictures of you with less clothing possible from a couple of angles once a month, you could spot changes that the scale or the tape can't tell you. You could have changed by now without knowing! Also: weight it's an immediate measure which is subjected to water fluctuations, bowel movements and such. You don't have to focus about your weight, you have to focus about your trend weight. You have to figure out if you are, in a reasonable amount of time, losing, stalling or gaining weight. There are a couple of apps that helps you with that. Wake up, use the bathroom and weigh in, then log the weight. You'll have a trend soon enough.
But let's assume again, that you are indeed stalling and not making visual progress. Weight management is all about energy, or calories in / calories out. Nutrition is not THIS simple, but if you are, for the moment, just trying to figure out how to lose weight, this assumption is all you need to know for now. So your expenditure of the week (all your steps, workouts, any activity plus your basal metabolic rate that you naturally burn by just being alive) is compensated by your intake, which is all you drink or eat. There's no escape from that. So we have to either increase the expenditure or decrease the intake.
The first step would be: figure out how much are you actually eating. Portion size is everything! Sauces adds a lot of stealthy calories too, and drinks too. I'm sorry if this looks boring, but if you are serious about it logging everything you eat or drink in an app will definitely help you. Log everything you eat or drink (that contains calories) there, eat normally for a week or two and you'll have an idea of your average daily intake. From that you start again to log everything you eat but this time you aim to lower your average daily intake by 300-500 kcals. This will create in your body all the conditions needed to lose weight, even if you'll see fluctuations you'll see a clear, straight trend line that tells you are actually losing weight.
Eating out will be a problem with this method: you can't really figure out the kcals of a meal just by looking at it. You should try to work around it.
You can keep the alcohol in moderation, try to stick to liquors which are less sugary (less kcals). If you want to really keep fasting just make sure of adjusting the kcals in the non fasting days and keep a look at portion sizes, it's easy to overeat when you come back from a fast (I've fasted several times). |
14,706,259 | I have searched a lot on this but all i found is this audio recording is only possible in google chrome.
Can you please guide us how to record and play recorded file in IE using HTML 5 ?
Thanks
-Vivek Deshmukh | 2013/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14706259",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1111551/"
] | The simple answer is that you can't. You'll need to use Flash or something. | AFAIK, IE is not really HTML5 ready yet, at least not for more advanced operations like audio recording. WebKit browsers such as Chrome or Safari are much more up to speed in that regard.
Which version(s) are you using/testing? |
772,078 | Lately i wanted to get into Windows Phone 8 development and i installed Visual Studio 2013 + Windows Phone SDK 8 + Visual Studio 2013 Latest update. My system parameters are: - 8gb ram - Windows 8.1 64bit system - Intel i5 The moment i try to run a Windows Phone project a dialog appears and it says: Title - " Cant start the windows phone emulator" Subtitle - "The Windows Phone Emulator requires Hyper-V.Your PC is missing the following pre-requisites required to run Hyper-V: -Windows 8 Professional(64 bit)"
After i saw that i checked for how to upgrade Normal Windows 8.1 to Windows 8.1 Professional. With no luck i tried to find out more about to install Hyper-V with the BIOS configuration with no luck as well.
Usually i develop on Android with Eclipse(with the Emulator) so i can't understand the reason why a emulator of Windows Phone can't run on my system.
P.S
I don't have Hyper-V feature to be turned on/off in the windows feature list.
Thanks heads up for each answer! :) | 2014/06/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/772078",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/337636/"
] | I was in more or less the same situation. Current Hyper-V implementation requires 64bit OS and virtualization support on the processor level. Sadly, this only exists in relatively newer (gen 3 and 4 Intel) under Windows. To verify if your CPU supports the necessary virtualization requirements, use [CoreInfo by Mark Russinovich](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/cc835722.aspx) from SysInternals.
If your CPU does not have the required support, you can still use a real phone for development/debugging. The good news: a Lumia 520 is only $55 in stores (probably less on eBay). | In short, hardware which supports HyperV is needed (which you have) and Windows Professional is needed to enable HyperV to run phone emulator. Windows Standard to Professional upgrade needs another licence which you can get it from Microsoft. |
772,078 | Lately i wanted to get into Windows Phone 8 development and i installed Visual Studio 2013 + Windows Phone SDK 8 + Visual Studio 2013 Latest update. My system parameters are: - 8gb ram - Windows 8.1 64bit system - Intel i5 The moment i try to run a Windows Phone project a dialog appears and it says: Title - " Cant start the windows phone emulator" Subtitle - "The Windows Phone Emulator requires Hyper-V.Your PC is missing the following pre-requisites required to run Hyper-V: -Windows 8 Professional(64 bit)"
After i saw that i checked for how to upgrade Normal Windows 8.1 to Windows 8.1 Professional. With no luck i tried to find out more about to install Hyper-V with the BIOS configuration with no luck as well.
Usually i develop on Android with Eclipse(with the Emulator) so i can't understand the reason why a emulator of Windows Phone can't run on my system.
P.S
I don't have Hyper-V feature to be turned on/off in the windows feature list.
Thanks heads up for each answer! :) | 2014/06/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/772078",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/337636/"
] | I am running Windows 8.1 Professional on a Surface tablet (i5) and a laptop (i7). Both have Visual Studio 2013 installed, both have Hyper-V enabled and both have successfully run the Phone emulator.
It would seem that your hardware is up to the task, the only thing preventing you from enabling Hyper-V and running the emulator would appear to be the Windows edition: you need at least Professional. | In short, hardware which supports HyperV is needed (which you have) and Windows Professional is needed to enable HyperV to run phone emulator. Windows Standard to Professional upgrade needs another licence which you can get it from Microsoft. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | Based on German Missions in the United States
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
Exceptions: Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State within **24 hours after the expiration of their visa**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
The 24hrs rule is almost impossible to satisfy in general cases, where a person has valid I-797 but the H1B is expired. Typically in those scenarios people continue working and make a visit to home country for visa renewal whenever they get a chance.
So unfortunate this rule is!
You can also read this page to know some exceptions:
Source: <https://www.germany-visa.org/airport-transit-visa/>
Still, there are some categories of people, who may be nationals of the above-mentioned countries, but if they belong to one of the following they do **not** need to obtain a visa of this kind:
* holder of a US valid visa
* holder of a valid or expired non-Schengen country visa issued by the US
* holders of a valid visa for a Schengen Member State, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland, Japan, Romania or UK. | As of new rules published on April-2019, people **CAN NOT** travel with Expired visa even you have valid I-797
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An aiport
transit visa must be obtained. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | July 29 2019.
Travelled via Munich to Delhi ,expired H1B . No one asks for extension. No one asked anything about it . Regular check-in.
During the check in at Lufthansa website it clearly says expired H1B is fine and no transit Visa required.
Dear please check if you fulfill the following regulations.
Nationals of India transiting through Frankfurt (FRA) or Munich (MUC), arriving from a non-Schengen Member State with a confirmed onward ticket for a flight within 24 hours to a third country which is not a Schengen Member State. They must:- have a visa issued by Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland (Rep.), Japan, Romania, USA or United Kingdom, and- stay in the international transit area of the airport, and- have documents required for their next destination.
Nationals of India transiting through Frankfurt (FRA) or Munich (MUC), arriving from a non-Schengen Member State with a confirmed onward ticket for a flight within 24 hours to a third country which is not a Schengen Member State. They must:- have a used, valid or expired visa issued by Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland (Rep.), Japan, Romania, USA or United Kingdom, and- be returning from the country that issued the visa, and- stay in the international transit area of the airport, and- have documents required for their next destination. | <https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
I797 is not valid, an airport transit visa is needed now in 2019.
>
> Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An airport
> transit visa must be obtained.
>
>
> |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | <https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
I797 is not valid, an airport transit visa is needed now in 2019.
>
> Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An airport
> transit visa must be obtained.
>
>
> | Official papers supporting your Visa status should be enough. Not getting stamped in passport is happening all the time. In some countries, immigration officers wont understand it first until they read some magical numbers on some currency notes. You are well aware of some such countries, aren't you ?
If you have sufficient papers to prove you were genuine person to be in USA, you can start planning your journey, IMHO.
I would contact Lufthansa as well as German embassy in addition to attempts on internet. It will help to get their version to a great extent. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | **Based on German Missions in the United States**
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
**Exceptions:**
**Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if**
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
**2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf> (<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>) | Yes you can. I had my friends travel Charlotte to Mumbai via Frankfurt with extension visas. Their current stamps had expired. They got new stamping done in India during their stay.
If you go via UK, its a trouble.
Amsterdam, Frankfurt, middle east all are fine. I travelled in same situation as yours in May this year via Amsterdam. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | Based on German Missions in the United States
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
Exceptions: Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State within **24 hours after the expiration of their visa**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
The 24hrs rule is almost impossible to satisfy in general cases, where a person has valid I-797 but the H1B is expired. Typically in those scenarios people continue working and make a visit to home country for visa renewal whenever they get a chance.
So unfortunate this rule is!
You can also read this page to know some exceptions:
Source: <https://www.germany-visa.org/airport-transit-visa/>
Still, there are some categories of people, who may be nationals of the above-mentioned countries, but if they belong to one of the following they do **not** need to obtain a visa of this kind:
* holder of a US valid visa
* holder of a valid or expired non-Schengen country visa issued by the US
* holders of a valid visa for a Schengen Member State, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland, Japan, Romania or UK. | <https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
I797 is not valid, an airport transit visa is needed now in 2019.
>
> Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An airport
> transit visa must be obtained.
>
>
> |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | **Based on German Missions in the United States**
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
**Exceptions:**
**Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if**
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
**2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf> (<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>) | <https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
I797 is not valid, an airport transit visa is needed now in 2019.
>
> Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An airport
> transit visa must be obtained.
>
>
> |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | **Based on German Missions in the United States**
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
**Exceptions:**
**Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if**
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
**2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf> (<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/80e28ec8a47bb057c06ca4023b155842/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>) | Based on German Missions in the United States
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
Exceptions: Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State within **24 hours after the expiration of their visa**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
The 24hrs rule is almost impossible to satisfy in general cases, where a person has valid I-797 but the H1B is expired. Typically in those scenarios people continue working and make a visit to home country for visa renewal whenever they get a chance.
So unfortunate this rule is!
You can also read this page to know some exceptions:
Source: <https://www.germany-visa.org/airport-transit-visa/>
Still, there are some categories of people, who may be nationals of the above-mentioned countries, but if they belong to one of the following they do **not** need to obtain a visa of this kind:
* holder of a US valid visa
* holder of a valid or expired non-Schengen country visa issued by the US
* holders of a valid visa for a Schengen Member State, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland, Japan, Romania or UK. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | Based on German Missions in the United States
Airport Transit visa
Nationals of the following countries are required to be in possession of an airport transit visa when passing through the international transit area of airports in Germany:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Ghana, **India**, Iran, Iraq , Jordan\*2, Lebanon, Mali, Nigeria, Pakistan, Somalia, South Sudan, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Syria, Turkey \*1
Exceptions: Nationals of the above named countries Do NOT require an airport transit visa if
1. they hold a valid visa for the United States of America, or
2. they hold a used valid or expired visa issued by the USA and return from the USA and travel to a non-Schengen Member State within **24 hours after the expiration of their visa**, or
Please refer this link below.
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
The 24hrs rule is almost impossible to satisfy in general cases, where a person has valid I-797 but the H1B is expired. Typically in those scenarios people continue working and make a visit to home country for visa renewal whenever they get a chance.
So unfortunate this rule is!
You can also read this page to know some exceptions:
Source: <https://www.germany-visa.org/airport-transit-visa/>
Still, there are some categories of people, who may be nationals of the above-mentioned countries, but if they belong to one of the following they do **not** need to obtain a visa of this kind:
* holder of a US valid visa
* holder of a valid or expired non-Schengen country visa issued by the US
* holders of a valid visa for a Schengen Member State, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland, Japan, Romania or UK. | With expired US visa, one should avoid travelling through Germany. See the link below from Germany consulate which clearly explains it.
<http://www.germany.info/Vertretung/usa/en/05__Legal/02__Directory__Services/01__Visa/__Transit__Visa.html> |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | Yes you can. I had my friends travel Charlotte to Mumbai via Frankfurt with extension visas. Their current stamps had expired. They got new stamping done in India during their stay.
If you go via UK, its a trouble.
Amsterdam, Frankfurt, middle east all are fine. I travelled in same situation as yours in May this year via Amsterdam. | Official papers supporting your Visa status should be enough. Not getting stamped in passport is happening all the time. In some countries, immigration officers wont understand it first until they read some magical numbers on some currency notes. You are well aware of some such countries, aren't you ?
If you have sufficient papers to prove you were genuine person to be in USA, you can start planning your journey, IMHO.
I would contact Lufthansa as well as German embassy in addition to attempts on internet. It will help to get their version to a great extent. |
31,126 | I am planning to travel from US to India, for which there is a Lufthansa flight that goes through Frankfurt. There I will be switching from one Lufthansa flight (Lufthansa 9053) to another (Lufthansa 758). The layover time in Frankfurt is around 2 hours.
I am an Indian citizen. I am on H1B visa with an **approved extension** (has the new I-90 form). But the visa has **not been stamped** yet in my passport. I would like to know if it is legal for me take that itinerary through Frankfurt (or) do I need a transit visa? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/31126",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/16958/"
] | July 29 2019.
Travelled via Munich to Delhi ,expired H1B . No one asks for extension. No one asked anything about it . Regular check-in.
During the check in at Lufthansa website it clearly says expired H1B is fine and no transit Visa required.
Dear please check if you fulfill the following regulations.
Nationals of India transiting through Frankfurt (FRA) or Munich (MUC), arriving from a non-Schengen Member State with a confirmed onward ticket for a flight within 24 hours to a third country which is not a Schengen Member State. They must:- have a visa issued by Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland (Rep.), Japan, Romania, USA or United Kingdom, and- stay in the international transit area of the airport, and- have documents required for their next destination.
Nationals of India transiting through Frankfurt (FRA) or Munich (MUC), arriving from a non-Schengen Member State with a confirmed onward ticket for a flight within 24 hours to a third country which is not a Schengen Member State. They must:- have a used, valid or expired visa issued by Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Ireland (Rep.), Japan, Romania, USA or United Kingdom, and- be returning from the country that issued the visa, and- stay in the international transit area of the airport, and- have documents required for their next destination. | As of new rules published on April-2019, people **CAN NOT** travel with Expired visa even you have valid I-797
<https://www.germany.info/blob/917514/fffb0bebdc4dca0c6744cc066bc3b7ca/airport-transit-country-list-data.pdf>
Please note that the advance parole (I-512) and the approval notice (I797) are not valid documents for visa free airport transit. An aiport
transit visa must be obtained. |
249,818 | I'm currently performing a migration operation from a legacy database. I need to perform migration of millions of originating rows, breaking the original content apart into multiple destination parent / child rows.
As it's not a simple 1 to 1 migration and the the resulting rows are parent / children row based on identity generated keys, what's the best mechanism for performing the migration?
I'm assuming that I can't use bulk insert as the identity values for the child rows cannot be determined at the point of generating the script content? The only solution I can currently think of is to set the identity explicitly and then have a predetermined starting point for the import.
If anyone else has any input I'd appreciate the feedback. | 2008/10/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/249818",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | This is my standard approach:
* create your new data model
* pull the data into the new DB unchanged
* write (and run) a SQL script to perform the migration
* test
* (optional) drop the tables with the legacy data
You can get a long way towards migrating the data with plain SQL. For the case you described, you might not need to deal with a single Cursor to get it across.
Running the process in Query Analyzer (or an analog in your dbms), you'll have the advantage that you can wrap everything in a Transaction so that you can roll back if anything goes wacky along the way. Write it in little bits and test it in chunks, on your dev database. Once everything is working correctly, set the script loose on your production database.
Sorted. | Thanks for the suggestion but I'd prefer to produce a programmatic solution. I'm currently using Nant / CruiseControl to automate the tests and need something I can recreate on the fly based on the current live legacy content. |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | Here is a [FAQ from the GNU site](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney). I think it answers your question:
>
> **Does the GPL allow me to sell copies
> of the program for money?**
>
>
> Yes, the GPL allows everyone to do this. The right to sell copies is part
> of the definition of free software.
> Except in one special situation, there
> is no limit on what price you can
> charge. (The one exception is the
> required written offer to provide
> source code that must accompany
> binary-only release.)
>
>
>
<http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney>
Further more:
>
> **If I distribute GPL'd software for a fee, am I required to also make it
> available to the public without a
> charge?**
>
>
> No. However, if someone pays your fee
> and gets a copy, the GPL gives them
> the freedom to release it to the
> public, with or without a fee. For
> example, someone could pay your fee,
> and then put her copy on a web site
> for the general public.
>
>
> | For GPL software, the source code must be distributed with the binary version or upon request to anyone who legally obtains the binary version.
Ergo, if you didn't buy the product from them, they are under no obligation to give you the source code.
The obvious flip side to this is that anyone who DOES legitimately get the source code is free to redistribute it as they please. |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | For GPL software, the source code must be distributed with the binary version or upon request to anyone who legally obtains the binary version.
Ergo, if you didn't buy the product from them, they are under no obligation to give you the source code.
The obvious flip side to this is that anyone who DOES legitimately get the source code is free to redistribute it as they please. | From my understanding distributing it on bittorrent would be redistribution which is permitted under the GPL without limitation (however Trademarks etc could still be violated!) This is how projects like [CentOS](http://www.centos.org/ "CentOS") work - they remove the trademarks, rebuild and then redistribute - and this is perfectly legal.
The company themselves are under no obligation to release source code unless they distribute the software to you.
So your options are:
* **Get it from someone else** (who redistributes it under the GPL)
* **Purchase the product from the company** - they'll give you the source code
I would personally suggest the latter option because it supports companies that support the GPL! |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | For GPL software, the source code must be distributed with the binary version or upon request to anyone who legally obtains the binary version.
Ergo, if you didn't buy the product from them, they are under no obligation to give you the source code.
The obvious flip side to this is that anyone who DOES legitimately get the source code is free to redistribute it as they please. | One question is whether the author wrote all the software or used any pre-existing GPLed software. If the person on the web site owns the copyright completely, then the web site may impose any conditions, including those incompatible with the GPL. Of course, releasing it under the GPL gives you some rights by itself. In particular, you can't redistribute without the source code, but you can make copies and use them.
The above practice is generally considered unfriendly by Free and Open Source Software advocates. Since it's not really honest to advertise GPLv2 and not deliver everything necessary, I'd advise being careful about the product. People who deliberately misrepresent things in advertising are likely to be selling shoddy software.
If the software contains pre-existing GPLed components, and the author didn't come to other terms with the copyright holders, then the GPL applies in full. The distributor has to provide source code (either with the executable or on request at nominal cost) and may not impose restrictions not allowed by the GPL.
There's also the possibility that the author released under GPLv2 without actually understanding the license. This happens from time to time, and frequently the FSF will quietly work with companies on getting into compliance.
In either case, it's perfectly fine to sell the software. If somebody else has the software including the source, they can redistribute freely, and it's perfectly legal for you to get it from them. |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | For GPL software, the source code must be distributed with the binary version or upon request to anyone who legally obtains the binary version.
Ergo, if you didn't buy the product from them, they are under no obligation to give you the source code.
The obvious flip side to this is that anyone who DOES legitimately get the source code is free to redistribute it as they please. | This is obviously a very simple business trick that relies on the naivity of the purchaser. It is obvious that, if the component is GPL, you can get it from any other user (bittorrent, file sharing), redistribute it and even resell it (but keep it GPL).
It is also very obvious that, if there's no other source to find/get it from, if you purchase, there is absolutely no need to pay multiple times for it. You just need to buy it once, and re-use it on all of the websites that you wish.
Even if it has some source of protection, the source code is open, so you can easily remove that protection.
Just out of curiousity, can you please give the name/website of the Joomla! component? |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | Here is a [FAQ from the GNU site](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney). I think it answers your question:
>
> **Does the GPL allow me to sell copies
> of the program for money?**
>
>
> Yes, the GPL allows everyone to do this. The right to sell copies is part
> of the definition of free software.
> Except in one special situation, there
> is no limit on what price you can
> charge. (The one exception is the
> required written offer to provide
> source code that must accompany
> binary-only release.)
>
>
>
<http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney>
Further more:
>
> **If I distribute GPL'd software for a fee, am I required to also make it
> available to the public without a
> charge?**
>
>
> No. However, if someone pays your fee
> and gets a copy, the GPL gives them
> the freedom to release it to the
> public, with or without a fee. For
> example, someone could pay your fee,
> and then put her copy on a web site
> for the general public.
>
>
> | From my understanding distributing it on bittorrent would be redistribution which is permitted under the GPL without limitation (however Trademarks etc could still be violated!) This is how projects like [CentOS](http://www.centos.org/ "CentOS") work - they remove the trademarks, rebuild and then redistribute - and this is perfectly legal.
The company themselves are under no obligation to release source code unless they distribute the software to you.
So your options are:
* **Get it from someone else** (who redistributes it under the GPL)
* **Purchase the product from the company** - they'll give you the source code
I would personally suggest the latter option because it supports companies that support the GPL! |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | Here is a [FAQ from the GNU site](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney). I think it answers your question:
>
> **Does the GPL allow me to sell copies
> of the program for money?**
>
>
> Yes, the GPL allows everyone to do this. The right to sell copies is part
> of the definition of free software.
> Except in one special situation, there
> is no limit on what price you can
> charge. (The one exception is the
> required written offer to provide
> source code that must accompany
> binary-only release.)
>
>
>
<http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney>
Further more:
>
> **If I distribute GPL'd software for a fee, am I required to also make it
> available to the public without a
> charge?**
>
>
> No. However, if someone pays your fee
> and gets a copy, the GPL gives them
> the freedom to release it to the
> public, with or without a fee. For
> example, someone could pay your fee,
> and then put her copy on a web site
> for the general public.
>
>
> | One question is whether the author wrote all the software or used any pre-existing GPLed software. If the person on the web site owns the copyright completely, then the web site may impose any conditions, including those incompatible with the GPL. Of course, releasing it under the GPL gives you some rights by itself. In particular, you can't redistribute without the source code, but you can make copies and use them.
The above practice is generally considered unfriendly by Free and Open Source Software advocates. Since it's not really honest to advertise GPLv2 and not deliver everything necessary, I'd advise being careful about the product. People who deliberately misrepresent things in advertising are likely to be selling shoddy software.
If the software contains pre-existing GPLed components, and the author didn't come to other terms with the copyright holders, then the GPL applies in full. The distributor has to provide source code (either with the executable or on request at nominal cost) and may not impose restrictions not allowed by the GPL.
There's also the possibility that the author released under GPLv2 without actually understanding the license. This happens from time to time, and frequently the FSF will quietly work with companies on getting into compliance.
In either case, it's perfectly fine to sell the software. If somebody else has the software including the source, they can redistribute freely, and it's perfectly legal for you to get it from them. |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | Here is a [FAQ from the GNU site](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney). I think it answers your question:
>
> **Does the GPL allow me to sell copies
> of the program for money?**
>
>
> Yes, the GPL allows everyone to do this. The right to sell copies is part
> of the definition of free software.
> Except in one special situation, there
> is no limit on what price you can
> charge. (The one exception is the
> required written offer to provide
> source code that must accompany
> binary-only release.)
>
>
>
<http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#DoesTheGPLAllowMoney>
Further more:
>
> **If I distribute GPL'd software for a fee, am I required to also make it
> available to the public without a
> charge?**
>
>
> No. However, if someone pays your fee
> and gets a copy, the GPL gives them
> the freedom to release it to the
> public, with or without a fee. For
> example, someone could pay your fee,
> and then put her copy on a web site
> for the general public.
>
>
> | This is obviously a very simple business trick that relies on the naivity of the purchaser. It is obvious that, if the component is GPL, you can get it from any other user (bittorrent, file sharing), redistribute it and even resell it (but keep it GPL).
It is also very obvious that, if there's no other source to find/get it from, if you purchase, there is absolutely no need to pay multiple times for it. You just need to buy it once, and re-use it on all of the websites that you wish.
Even if it has some source of protection, the source code is open, so you can easily remove that protection.
Just out of curiousity, can you please give the name/website of the Joomla! component? |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | From my understanding distributing it on bittorrent would be redistribution which is permitted under the GPL without limitation (however Trademarks etc could still be violated!) This is how projects like [CentOS](http://www.centos.org/ "CentOS") work - they remove the trademarks, rebuild and then redistribute - and this is perfectly legal.
The company themselves are under no obligation to release source code unless they distribute the software to you.
So your options are:
* **Get it from someone else** (who redistributes it under the GPL)
* **Purchase the product from the company** - they'll give you the source code
I would personally suggest the latter option because it supports companies that support the GPL! | One question is whether the author wrote all the software or used any pre-existing GPLed software. If the person on the web site owns the copyright completely, then the web site may impose any conditions, including those incompatible with the GPL. Of course, releasing it under the GPL gives you some rights by itself. In particular, you can't redistribute without the source code, but you can make copies and use them.
The above practice is generally considered unfriendly by Free and Open Source Software advocates. Since it's not really honest to advertise GPLv2 and not deliver everything necessary, I'd advise being careful about the product. People who deliberately misrepresent things in advertising are likely to be selling shoddy software.
If the software contains pre-existing GPLed components, and the author didn't come to other terms with the copyright holders, then the GPL applies in full. The distributor has to provide source code (either with the executable or on request at nominal cost) and may not impose restrictions not allowed by the GPL.
There's also the possibility that the author released under GPLv2 without actually understanding the license. This happens from time to time, and frequently the FSF will quietly work with companies on getting into compliance.
In either case, it's perfectly fine to sell the software. If somebody else has the software including the source, they can redistribute freely, and it's perfectly legal for you to get it from them. |
1,749,672 | I've seen some software (a Joomla component, to be exact) for sale on a web site. The web site says it is licensed under the GNU GPL2. However it also says you need to pay for every site you use the software on (with bulk discounts).
I know it's perfectly acceptable to sell software under the GPL, however the [license](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.html) implies that the source code must be distributed at no cost.
So is this a legitimate use of the GPL, or is it violating the license? Is it legal to download the software for free (say, from Bittorrent) and use it as I wish? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1749672",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/37947/"
] | From my understanding distributing it on bittorrent would be redistribution which is permitted under the GPL without limitation (however Trademarks etc could still be violated!) This is how projects like [CentOS](http://www.centos.org/ "CentOS") work - they remove the trademarks, rebuild and then redistribute - and this is perfectly legal.
The company themselves are under no obligation to release source code unless they distribute the software to you.
So your options are:
* **Get it from someone else** (who redistributes it under the GPL)
* **Purchase the product from the company** - they'll give you the source code
I would personally suggest the latter option because it supports companies that support the GPL! | This is obviously a very simple business trick that relies on the naivity of the purchaser. It is obvious that, if the component is GPL, you can get it from any other user (bittorrent, file sharing), redistribute it and even resell it (but keep it GPL).
It is also very obvious that, if there's no other source to find/get it from, if you purchase, there is absolutely no need to pay multiple times for it. You just need to buy it once, and re-use it on all of the websites that you wish.
Even if it has some source of protection, the source code is open, so you can easily remove that protection.
Just out of curiousity, can you please give the name/website of the Joomla! component? |
38,245,940 | I am creating a very simple database in C# which I use to store playlists and an overview of all my music. I want to make this C compatible in the future I plan to make this completely text based. The idea is that every text file is a table, and the contents are JSON format where every line of text is a record.
I don't want to have loose files for each database, so I was thinking about something like a zip file. I don't want to extract and compress every time I access a file. Is there someway I can use a stream reader/writer in C# on different files where windows only see one file?
I'm not completely convinced that this is the way to go. So I'm open to suggestions.
Update,
Im currently messing around with the "Local database" item in C#. I never payed any atention to it. It could very well be the solution.
Update2,
SQLite seems to be very simple. I have some experience with MySQL in the past with some php projects so that will give me a headstart. | 2016/07/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/38245940",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6247467/"
] | You want to use a file as a container containing different files? If so, there are a lot ways to accomplish this. These are techniques I used in the past:
* Zip:
A compressed file, such as Zip is known to behave that way, can be used as a solution for your interest. It is capable to store virtual files. They can vary in size to at least up to 1 Gigabyte (testet, but I currently don't know if there are implementation based size limits).
* SQLite:
SQLite sounds oldschool, but it stores all database related stuff into one physical file. Creating a database with tables for each virtual file should to the trick. This approach is useful if you know that your virtual files won't use a lot of bytes in size or neither reach any limit of sqlite field datatypes. As your virtual files are going to use textlines, may you can be able to form then into attributes and tuples. This way you can even use SQL specific statements to query and filter your data as you wish to.
There are still more ways to implement that kind of container format by your own, but propably needs to invest more time and work in it than getting effort out of it. Stay tuned for better ideas and may ready to use implementations :-) | Will you ever try to search between your data? Then use a real database manager, in C# the built in local database file is the simpliest choice (if you are familiar with SQL).
The zip file is a good choice for data space and compactness (a single file instead of many files) but it is very slow: for each database operation the whole zip file will be reorganized. Even a tar file (without compression) needs a continous reallocation when the content changes, and a zip file needs extra computation and relocation.
If you want something what is compressed and still standard, you can use OpenXML (ods or xlsx, does not matter) to store your data but the save operation will be slow and even slower as your database grows. |
1,621,264 | I have just done a clean Windows 8.1 (64 bit) install on a Dell XPs 12. So far so good in the sense the machine works. However checking Disk Management I see that of the 237 GB hard drive only 35% (83.96 GB) are available. According to one answer on this forum ([Windows 8 disk space usage vs Windows 7](https://superuser.com/questions/463183/windows-8-disk-space-usage-vs-windows-7)) Windows 8.1 should only take 8.1 GB or there about. I assume that it has something to do with disk partitioning. Or perhaps something of the old operating system was left on the drive although I am sure I selected the option Not to save any data during installation. I am prepared to start all over since I just reinstalled. As I am a new member you might not see the screen shot of Disk Managemen I am attaching. Thanks for the advice
[Disk Managment.jpg](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FUEfz.jpg)
---
In answer to the question I posted. I have run Disk\_Clean\_up selecting nearly all options since I was on a very new installation and thought that I could afford a system crash. The process seems to have deleted old versions of the operating system from the hard drive (also Window 8.1) giving now a 208 GB Free Space against the previous 83 GB. I will update with any problems if I encounter any.
Addendum: I have downloaded and run Spacesniffer, but found it to be a tool for advanced techies and I was not able to really deal with it. | 2021/01/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1621264",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1266964/"
] | "It depends" is about the best you are going to get.
It depends entirely on what the PD charger can put out, how intelligent the adaptor is to be able to select the right output from the PD charger and how tolerant the laptop is of "random" adaptors. Some laptops expect just a dumb power supply, others expect some simple communication or power select method.
A laptop expecting 12V might not like receiving 15 or 20 from an adaptor that is configured wrongly, or simply might not work if the adaptor fails to negotiate with the PD charger and received only 5V. 5V is all that a PD charger will put out if the USB device being plugged in fails to communicate. It *might* put out 9V if it thinks there is a fast charging phone, but don't count on it.
A tiny microcontroller could in theory talk to the PD charger to select 12V, 15V or 20V if available, so maybe an intelligent adaptor that knows what the laptop expects *could* work.
It's not down to the laptop to tell the PD charger what it wants, it's down to the $0.50 piece of plastic between your charger and your laptop and just how much faith you have in the old adage "you get what you paid for".
It depends.
If you want to use your USB C charger with confidence then you need a laptop that supports USB C charging. | It won't "just work". USB chargers will provide 5V power unless there's some circuitry that will negotiate higher voltage.
I'm quite sure that requesting 20V from a USB-PD compatible charger would work fine to power that laptop and within its design tolerances, but I'm not aware of such a product. |
7,990 | [This post](http://greywulf.net/2011/05/interesting-characters-and-the-sliding-scale/) on Greywulf's Lair explores the concept of a one axis sliding scale for character building:
>
> One thing that all of these choices brings is the idea of a sliding scale. With 4e D&D, you can choose how much of the character concept affects the build, which in turn reflects the importance the PC places on the things which shape him (or her).
>
>
>
At the risk of being overly broad:
* What framework do you use when creating characters? [see [DIP/DAS](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/7552/during-character-creation-do-you-prefer-to-develop-in-play-dip-or-develop-at-t) question for one example]
* How does this framework impact creation or playstyle?
* How generalizable is this framework? | 2011/05/21 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/7990",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/760/"
] | [Myth Weavers](http://www.myth-weavers.com/sheetindex.php) has a decent browser based 4e sheet that does an OK job of keeping track of simple stuff.
I'm sticking this in here because it was part of a redundant question I asked about this subject, but I'm definitely looking for more free options. | [PCGen](http://pcgen.sourceforge.net/01_overview.php)
-----------------------------------------------------
The free and venerable PCGen supports 4E - it's meant to be both used to generate character sheets and to be used "live". |
7,990 | [This post](http://greywulf.net/2011/05/interesting-characters-and-the-sliding-scale/) on Greywulf's Lair explores the concept of a one axis sliding scale for character building:
>
> One thing that all of these choices brings is the idea of a sliding scale. With 4e D&D, you can choose how much of the character concept affects the build, which in turn reflects the importance the PC places on the things which shape him (or her).
>
>
>
At the risk of being overly broad:
* What framework do you use when creating characters? [see [DIP/DAS](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/7552/during-character-creation-do-you-prefer-to-develop-in-play-dip-or-develop-at-t) question for one example]
* How does this framework impact creation or playstyle?
* How generalizable is this framework? | 2011/05/21 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/7990",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/760/"
] | If you are running Windows and can get your hands on the old D&D offline character builder the character sheet with that one is interactive. However, they stopped updating it before the essentials line came out. Some (read me) prefer the format of that character sheet to the one you can print online. | I had the same question! I'm working on an (early) prototype [here](http://dragonputer.azurewebsites.net/).
It's designed for phone and tablets and saves everything directly on your browser. There's a cloud sync feature, but you'll have to send me your Facebook profile to get access. That feature is handy for character entry, since you can type/paste everything on your PC, then sync and have it available on your phone.
I'm actively working on it on weekends, so shoot me an email if you want to help test or even contribute code. I'm focusing on UI and making it table-friendly right now. 4e is on it's way out, so I'm hoping to take a second pass at it to generalize and make it work for other games. I'm also a D&D newbie so I need help from more seasoned players to make it work. |
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