qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
57,889,311 | Just for the sake of curiosity , I want to know is there a way I can edit/modify Java core classes inside rt.jar. I am searching everywhere in the internet but got no relevant answers. I have also referred to Covert Java(book) but I am unable to understand it.
Note: I don't want to distribute my app. I just want to do it for my curiosity. | 2019/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/57889311",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11563308/"
] | Another answer suggested patching rt.jar
I believe this is not the best approach - you effectively cannot distribute your app (unless you have your app contenerized and you deliver Java with your app).
The way to go is to learn about [bootstrap classpath](https://riptutorial.com/java/example/20114/the-bootstrap-classpath)
This should cover most of reasonable use cases.
>
> The normal Java classloaders look for classes first in the bootstrap classpath, before checking for extensions and the application classpath. By default, the bootstrap classpath consists of the "rt.jar" file and some other important JAR files that are supplied by the JRE installation. These provide all of the classes in the standard Java SE class library, along with various "internal" implementation classes.
>
>
> Under normal circumstances, you don't need to concern yourself with this. By default, commands like java, javac and so on will use the appropriate versions of the runtime libraries.
>
>
> Very occasionally, it is necessary to override the normal behavior of the Java runtime by using an alternative version of a class in the standard libraries. For example, you might encounter a "show stopper" bug in the runtime libraries that you cannot work around by normal means. In such a situation, it is possible to create a JAR file containing the altered class and then add it to the bootstrap classpath which launching the JVM.
>
>
> | Better approach would be extending those Class and modifying the specific methods. This will not affect other project where you just wanted Java provided Class |
364 | In Greek mythology, the deceased pays a ferryman, [Charon](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charon_(mythology)), to take them across the river [Styx](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Styx). Apparently this reflects a common custom in the funeral rites of antiquity. Sometimes, though not always, a coin is placed in the deceased's mouth as a toll. This is known as [Charon's obol](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charon%27s_obol).
According to [this book](https://books.google.com/books?id=LIcL56NQ3gsC&lpg=PA67&dq=charon%20toll%20mouth&pg=PA67#v=onepage&q=charon%20toll%20mouth&f=false):
>
> In ancient times a coin, known as Charon's toll, was often placed in the mouth of a corpse prior to burial as payment to Charon, to ensure the deceased was seen safely into the underworld.
>
>
>
But why the mouth? Are there anything from Greco-Roman mythology to explain why the ferry fee should go into this orifice? | 2015/05/03 | [
"https://mythology.stackexchange.com/questions/364",
"https://mythology.stackexchange.com",
"https://mythology.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charon%27s_obol) actually has an interesting interpretation:
>
> Attempts to explain the symbolism of the rite also must negotiate the illogical placement of the coin in the mouth. The Latin term *viaticum* makes sense of Charon’s obol as “sustenance for the journey,” and it has been suggested that coins replaced offerings of food for the dead in Roman tradition.
>
>
> This dichotomy of food for the living and gold for the dead is a theme in the myth of King Midas, versions of which draw on elements of the Dionysian mysteries. The Phrygian king's famous "golden touch" was a divine gift from Dionysus, but its acceptance separated him from the human world of nourishment and reproduction: both his food and his daughter were transformed by contact with him into immutable, unreciprocal gold. In some versions of the myth, Midas's hard-won insight into the meaning of life and the limitations of earthly wealth is accompanied by conversion to the cult of Dionysus. Having learned his lessons as an initiate into the mysteries, and after ritual immersion in the river Pactolus, Midas forsakes the “bogus eternity” of gold for spiritual rebirth.
>
>
>
Wikipedia also says,
>
> In Latin, Charon's obol sometimes is called a viaticum, or "sustenance for the journey"; the placement of the coin on the mouth has been explained also as a seal to protect the deceased's soul or to prevent it from returning.
>
>
>
The basis for these interpretations are analyses of Latin writers; the theories stem from, among others, "Charon's Obol" by Susan T. Stevens (see below), *Money and the Early Greek Mind: Homer, Philosophy, Tragedy*, by Richard Seaford, and *Modern Greek Folklore and Ancient Greek Religion*, by John Cuthbert Lawson. The above quotes are condensations of their work as historians.
I may be reading too much into this, but [*The Golden Ass*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Golden_Ass), by Apuleius, [contains this passage](http://www.theoi.com/Khthonios/Kharon.html) (emphasis mine):
>
> (So even among the dead, greed enjoys its life; even that great god Charon, who gathers taxes for Dis [Haides], does not do anything for nothing. A poor man on the point of death must find his fare, and **no one will let him breathe his last until he has his copper ready.**) You must allow this squalid elder to take for your fare one of the coins you are to carry, but he must remove it form your mouth with his own hand.
>
>
>
This seems to support the idea that the coin sealed a dead person's mouth, but it could be merely a complete coincidence; "breathe his last" could be used in place of "die".
[*Charon's Obol and Other Coins in Ancient Funerary Practice*, by Susan T. Stevens](http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/1088792?uid=2134&uid=391386161&uid=3739808&uid=2&uid=391386151&uid=70&uid=3&uid=3739256&uid=60&purchase-type=article&accessType=none&sid=21106252287221&showMyJstorPss=false&seq=6&showAccess=false), gives evidence to support the *viaticum*-coin-as-sustenance theory, citing Apuleis's usage but as food, not breath. She does mention that other "Latin authors" (unspecified) wrote that the coin was used to seal the mouth to prevent the soul from escaping.
The two main theories, therefore, are
* Coins provide "sustenance" for the journey, like food, and so are placed on the mouth.
* Coins seal the mouth, which is the only opening from which a soul could escape. This could also be symbolic, e.g. representing the fact that the dead cannot talk. | Death does not occur in an instant. There is an interval between the cessation of all signs of life and the separation of the soul of the deceased from his or her body. Often, if the newly deceased was prepared for death, this latter event occurs smoothly and without a struggle. Sometimes, however, the transition from life to death is difficult (as when the newly deceased was not prepared for death and resists the separation of soul from body). In such cases, the separation can be traumatic for the spirit of the newly dead, as well as for the ferryman.
At the moment of death, the deceased's "shade" follows the body to the bank of the river. The shade gives the ferryman an obol, symbolizing the value of the ferryman's help in safely carrying body and shade to the otherworld. The ferryman places the coin in the mouth of the newly deceased to protect him (the ferryman, as well as the spirit of the dead) from the possibility that the spirit will resist being wrenched from the body. It was believed that in such cases the dead would let out a loud cry, a wail or keening that could be heard up and down the banks of the river. For the same reason, to make the journey easier on both the spirit of the dead and for the ferryman, the eyelids of the dead are closed so that he or she doesn't have to see the process of his or her soul being separated from the body. |
264,334 | I just received a new Alienware box preinstalled with two nice shiny ATI 6950 graphics cards. My goal is to use both of them to give me really good resolution and frame rate on my single monitor.
There's zero documentation with the Alienware box and nothing I can find online.
1. Do I just plug the monitor into one of the cards, and expect the two cards to do magic internally?
2. The [ATI Crossfire website](http://sites.amd.com/us/game/technology/Pages/crossfirex.aspx) indicates a need for an "external crossfirex connection cable". Do I need to buy one of these? If so, what kind of cable is it?
3. The AMD Catalyst Control Center shows the second card as "Linked" but when I go to the AMD Overdrive section, the second card is at zero temperature, and clock, suggesting it's not actually doing anything. What do I need to do to make use of both cards? Is it something that doesn't kick in until I do something graphically intensive? | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264334",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/74136/"
] | Just hook the monitor up to master card. The frames rendered by the secondary card is moved to the master card internally. You used to have to hook up a cable from the secondary card to the master card for crossfire, but that was a long time ago, and ATI has long since overcome that technological limitation.
Unless you are running a program, usually a game, for which crossfire is explicitly supported, the second card is not used. It is then put to sleep. | If the motherboard and the graphics cards are recent enough you probably won't need the external connection cable. I think I remember that SLI/Xfire still require a ribbon connector to operate. Regarding temperature *etc* does the card run in the box? if yes, the software may be just unable to acquire data. try an update maybe. |
264,334 | I just received a new Alienware box preinstalled with two nice shiny ATI 6950 graphics cards. My goal is to use both of them to give me really good resolution and frame rate on my single monitor.
There's zero documentation with the Alienware box and nothing I can find online.
1. Do I just plug the monitor into one of the cards, and expect the two cards to do magic internally?
2. The [ATI Crossfire website](http://sites.amd.com/us/game/technology/Pages/crossfirex.aspx) indicates a need for an "external crossfirex connection cable". Do I need to buy one of these? If so, what kind of cable is it?
3. The AMD Catalyst Control Center shows the second card as "Linked" but when I go to the AMD Overdrive section, the second card is at zero temperature, and clock, suggesting it's not actually doing anything. What do I need to do to make use of both cards? Is it something that doesn't kick in until I do something graphically intensive? | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264334",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/74136/"
] | The master card is the *topmost* card, the one nearest the CPU.
Plug the video cards into that one (assuming you don't need more than 3 monitors, as each ATI card supports 3 video outputs). You can effectively ignore the lower video card when connecting monitors. | If the motherboard and the graphics cards are recent enough you probably won't need the external connection cable. I think I remember that SLI/Xfire still require a ribbon connector to operate. Regarding temperature *etc* does the card run in the box? if yes, the software may be just unable to acquire data. try an update maybe. |
264,334 | I just received a new Alienware box preinstalled with two nice shiny ATI 6950 graphics cards. My goal is to use both of them to give me really good resolution and frame rate on my single monitor.
There's zero documentation with the Alienware box and nothing I can find online.
1. Do I just plug the monitor into one of the cards, and expect the two cards to do magic internally?
2. The [ATI Crossfire website](http://sites.amd.com/us/game/technology/Pages/crossfirex.aspx) indicates a need for an "external crossfirex connection cable". Do I need to buy one of these? If so, what kind of cable is it?
3. The AMD Catalyst Control Center shows the second card as "Linked" but when I go to the AMD Overdrive section, the second card is at zero temperature, and clock, suggesting it's not actually doing anything. What do I need to do to make use of both cards? Is it something that doesn't kick in until I do something graphically intensive? | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264334",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/74136/"
] | If the motherboard and the graphics cards are recent enough you probably won't need the external connection cable. I think I remember that SLI/Xfire still require a ribbon connector to operate. Regarding temperature *etc* does the card run in the box? if yes, the software may be just unable to acquire data. try an update maybe. | just to mention something obvious not mentioned yet, crossfire is for connecting two video cards together not monitors. You still connect the monitor to the one video card. The connection cable is usually a small short cable that attached to the up side west of the back panel ports between the two cards.
[here is a good example image](http://rog.asus.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/01/Crossfire-goldinger.jpg) |
264,334 | I just received a new Alienware box preinstalled with two nice shiny ATI 6950 graphics cards. My goal is to use both of them to give me really good resolution and frame rate on my single monitor.
There's zero documentation with the Alienware box and nothing I can find online.
1. Do I just plug the monitor into one of the cards, and expect the two cards to do magic internally?
2. The [ATI Crossfire website](http://sites.amd.com/us/game/technology/Pages/crossfirex.aspx) indicates a need for an "external crossfirex connection cable". Do I need to buy one of these? If so, what kind of cable is it?
3. The AMD Catalyst Control Center shows the second card as "Linked" but when I go to the AMD Overdrive section, the second card is at zero temperature, and clock, suggesting it's not actually doing anything. What do I need to do to make use of both cards? Is it something that doesn't kick in until I do something graphically intensive? | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264334",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/74136/"
] | Just hook the monitor up to master card. The frames rendered by the secondary card is moved to the master card internally. You used to have to hook up a cable from the secondary card to the master card for crossfire, but that was a long time ago, and ATI has long since overcome that technological limitation.
Unless you are running a program, usually a game, for which crossfire is explicitly supported, the second card is not used. It is then put to sleep. | just to mention something obvious not mentioned yet, crossfire is for connecting two video cards together not monitors. You still connect the monitor to the one video card. The connection cable is usually a small short cable that attached to the up side west of the back panel ports between the two cards.
[here is a good example image](http://rog.asus.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/01/Crossfire-goldinger.jpg) |
264,334 | I just received a new Alienware box preinstalled with two nice shiny ATI 6950 graphics cards. My goal is to use both of them to give me really good resolution and frame rate on my single monitor.
There's zero documentation with the Alienware box and nothing I can find online.
1. Do I just plug the monitor into one of the cards, and expect the two cards to do magic internally?
2. The [ATI Crossfire website](http://sites.amd.com/us/game/technology/Pages/crossfirex.aspx) indicates a need for an "external crossfirex connection cable". Do I need to buy one of these? If so, what kind of cable is it?
3. The AMD Catalyst Control Center shows the second card as "Linked" but when I go to the AMD Overdrive section, the second card is at zero temperature, and clock, suggesting it's not actually doing anything. What do I need to do to make use of both cards? Is it something that doesn't kick in until I do something graphically intensive? | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264334",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/74136/"
] | The master card is the *topmost* card, the one nearest the CPU.
Plug the video cards into that one (assuming you don't need more than 3 monitors, as each ATI card supports 3 video outputs). You can effectively ignore the lower video card when connecting monitors. | just to mention something obvious not mentioned yet, crossfire is for connecting two video cards together not monitors. You still connect the monitor to the one video card. The connection cable is usually a small short cable that attached to the up side west of the back panel ports between the two cards.
[here is a good example image](http://rog.asus.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/01/Crossfire-goldinger.jpg) |
3,023,183 | I'm preparing a short talk for a conference in august and I'm looking for open source projects that are using agile methods internally or have tried them in the past.
My goal is to talk about the things that work well and what won't work and promote the agile methods a little bit, because I think certain agile techniques are a good fit, but don't seem to be that common in real development.
So does anyone know projects that have tried agile methods and techniques before? I'd like to contact them for a few questions.
*Update:*
Thanks for the answers I'll contact the teams in the next weeks. :-)
(I first have to prepare the questions and an introduction...)
I am still monitoring this question, so feel free to add more answers/projects/... | 2010/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3023183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33624/"
] | I would have thought that the Open Source development model was quite contra that of agile. Most agile practices (pair programming, stand-up meetings, for example) require that the developers are co-located. On most FOSS projects, the developers are widely separated geographically. | The Twisted project uses XP plus some additional procedures that it calls the Ultimate Quality Development System:
[Twisted Matrix Development Process](http://divmod.org/trac/wiki/UltimateQualityDevelopmentSystem) |
3,023,183 | I'm preparing a short talk for a conference in august and I'm looking for open source projects that are using agile methods internally or have tried them in the past.
My goal is to talk about the things that work well and what won't work and promote the agile methods a little bit, because I think certain agile techniques are a good fit, but don't seem to be that common in real development.
So does anyone know projects that have tried agile methods and techniques before? I'd like to contact them for a few questions.
*Update:*
Thanks for the answers I'll contact the teams in the next weeks. :-)
(I first have to prepare the questions and an introduction...)
I am still monitoring this question, so feel free to add more answers/projects/... | 2010/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3023183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33624/"
] | I would have thought that the Open Source development model was quite contra that of agile. Most agile practices (pair programming, stand-up meetings, for example) require that the developers are co-located. On most FOSS projects, the developers are widely separated geographically. | You can try to contact the XWiki Team.
<http://www.xwiki.com/xwiki/bin/view/About/Team>
They have a great product, it is Open Source, Vincent Massol knows very well agile practices (espeacially tests) and the team is distributed. You can try ask for some of their "secret recipes" ;-) |
3,023,183 | I'm preparing a short talk for a conference in august and I'm looking for open source projects that are using agile methods internally or have tried them in the past.
My goal is to talk about the things that work well and what won't work and promote the agile methods a little bit, because I think certain agile techniques are a good fit, but don't seem to be that common in real development.
So does anyone know projects that have tried agile methods and techniques before? I'd like to contact them for a few questions.
*Update:*
Thanks for the answers I'll contact the teams in the next weeks. :-)
(I first have to prepare the questions and an introduction...)
I am still monitoring this question, so feel free to add more answers/projects/... | 2010/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3023183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33624/"
] | Sure, Agile favors face to face communication and most open source projects have distributed members and the distance doesn't simplify communication. Does this means you can't be Agile on an OSS project? I don't think so.
First of all, I need to say that modern tools can help to reduce the communication overhead introduced by distance: skype, phone, conference calls, video conference, collaborative editors and review tools, mail, written document, (even travel), etc. If you can avoid distance, do it. But this is not a blocker issue.
Second, Agile is in my opinion not about doing pair programming or stand-up meetings... These are just practices and practice are not an end, they are just a means. Agile is more about principles: **maximizing the delivered value** while minimizing waste **to provide the most optimal ROI** (ok, the last part may not apply for an OSS project but you still want to deliver valuable working software to your users or Darwin will make you disappear). Practices from a given methodology are a way to achieve this goal in a given context but for me Agile is still more about continuous prioritization, limiting [Work In Process](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_in_process), (i.e. short cycles and time boxes), incremental delivery, feedback loops, high quality (perceived and conceptual), [Stop-the-Line](http://www.strategosinc.com/jidoka_1.htm) culture, building a [mistake proof process](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1544642/what-is-your-most-useful-technique-for-finding-or-preventing-bugs/1544667#1544667), just enough specifications, just enough and just in time documentation, etc, etc. In other words, not doing pair-programming doesn't mean you can't be Agile.
Back to the question, I consider Ubuntu as a good example (maybe not strictly a programming example but it involves development): fixed date release cycles (every 6 months with several shorter iterations during these 6 months), strict prioritization of things to do, no date shifting (the scope varies), working software, and all this with highly distributed contributors and plenty of technologies and languages. Check [Ubuntu Development](https://wiki.ubuntu.com/UbuntuDevelopment), I'm pretty sure it's possible to contact "someone".
Another example I had in mind is [Sonar](http://www.sonarsource.org/). At some time, they were delivering their great piece of software every month (although it seems the rhythm is not so regular anymore). You can contact the dev team to discuss with them at [SonarSource](http://www.sonarsource.com/about/company/). | I would have thought that the Open Source development model was quite contra that of agile. Most agile practices (pair programming, stand-up meetings, for example) require that the developers are co-located. On most FOSS projects, the developers are widely separated geographically. |
3,023,183 | I'm preparing a short talk for a conference in august and I'm looking for open source projects that are using agile methods internally or have tried them in the past.
My goal is to talk about the things that work well and what won't work and promote the agile methods a little bit, because I think certain agile techniques are a good fit, but don't seem to be that common in real development.
So does anyone know projects that have tried agile methods and techniques before? I'd like to contact them for a few questions.
*Update:*
Thanks for the answers I'll contact the teams in the next weeks. :-)
(I first have to prepare the questions and an introduction...)
I am still monitoring this question, so feel free to add more answers/projects/... | 2010/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3023183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33624/"
] | Sure, Agile favors face to face communication and most open source projects have distributed members and the distance doesn't simplify communication. Does this means you can't be Agile on an OSS project? I don't think so.
First of all, I need to say that modern tools can help to reduce the communication overhead introduced by distance: skype, phone, conference calls, video conference, collaborative editors and review tools, mail, written document, (even travel), etc. If you can avoid distance, do it. But this is not a blocker issue.
Second, Agile is in my opinion not about doing pair programming or stand-up meetings... These are just practices and practice are not an end, they are just a means. Agile is more about principles: **maximizing the delivered value** while minimizing waste **to provide the most optimal ROI** (ok, the last part may not apply for an OSS project but you still want to deliver valuable working software to your users or Darwin will make you disappear). Practices from a given methodology are a way to achieve this goal in a given context but for me Agile is still more about continuous prioritization, limiting [Work In Process](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_in_process), (i.e. short cycles and time boxes), incremental delivery, feedback loops, high quality (perceived and conceptual), [Stop-the-Line](http://www.strategosinc.com/jidoka_1.htm) culture, building a [mistake proof process](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1544642/what-is-your-most-useful-technique-for-finding-or-preventing-bugs/1544667#1544667), just enough specifications, just enough and just in time documentation, etc, etc. In other words, not doing pair-programming doesn't mean you can't be Agile.
Back to the question, I consider Ubuntu as a good example (maybe not strictly a programming example but it involves development): fixed date release cycles (every 6 months with several shorter iterations during these 6 months), strict prioritization of things to do, no date shifting (the scope varies), working software, and all this with highly distributed contributors and plenty of technologies and languages. Check [Ubuntu Development](https://wiki.ubuntu.com/UbuntuDevelopment), I'm pretty sure it's possible to contact "someone".
Another example I had in mind is [Sonar](http://www.sonarsource.org/). At some time, they were delivering their great piece of software every month (although it seems the rhythm is not so regular anymore). You can contact the dev team to discuss with them at [SonarSource](http://www.sonarsource.com/about/company/). | The Twisted project uses XP plus some additional procedures that it calls the Ultimate Quality Development System:
[Twisted Matrix Development Process](http://divmod.org/trac/wiki/UltimateQualityDevelopmentSystem) |
3,023,183 | I'm preparing a short talk for a conference in august and I'm looking for open source projects that are using agile methods internally or have tried them in the past.
My goal is to talk about the things that work well and what won't work and promote the agile methods a little bit, because I think certain agile techniques are a good fit, but don't seem to be that common in real development.
So does anyone know projects that have tried agile methods and techniques before? I'd like to contact them for a few questions.
*Update:*
Thanks for the answers I'll contact the teams in the next weeks. :-)
(I first have to prepare the questions and an introduction...)
I am still monitoring this question, so feel free to add more answers/projects/... | 2010/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3023183",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33624/"
] | Sure, Agile favors face to face communication and most open source projects have distributed members and the distance doesn't simplify communication. Does this means you can't be Agile on an OSS project? I don't think so.
First of all, I need to say that modern tools can help to reduce the communication overhead introduced by distance: skype, phone, conference calls, video conference, collaborative editors and review tools, mail, written document, (even travel), etc. If you can avoid distance, do it. But this is not a blocker issue.
Second, Agile is in my opinion not about doing pair programming or stand-up meetings... These are just practices and practice are not an end, they are just a means. Agile is more about principles: **maximizing the delivered value** while minimizing waste **to provide the most optimal ROI** (ok, the last part may not apply for an OSS project but you still want to deliver valuable working software to your users or Darwin will make you disappear). Practices from a given methodology are a way to achieve this goal in a given context but for me Agile is still more about continuous prioritization, limiting [Work In Process](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_in_process), (i.e. short cycles and time boxes), incremental delivery, feedback loops, high quality (perceived and conceptual), [Stop-the-Line](http://www.strategosinc.com/jidoka_1.htm) culture, building a [mistake proof process](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1544642/what-is-your-most-useful-technique-for-finding-or-preventing-bugs/1544667#1544667), just enough specifications, just enough and just in time documentation, etc, etc. In other words, not doing pair-programming doesn't mean you can't be Agile.
Back to the question, I consider Ubuntu as a good example (maybe not strictly a programming example but it involves development): fixed date release cycles (every 6 months with several shorter iterations during these 6 months), strict prioritization of things to do, no date shifting (the scope varies), working software, and all this with highly distributed contributors and plenty of technologies and languages. Check [Ubuntu Development](https://wiki.ubuntu.com/UbuntuDevelopment), I'm pretty sure it's possible to contact "someone".
Another example I had in mind is [Sonar](http://www.sonarsource.org/). At some time, they were delivering their great piece of software every month (although it seems the rhythm is not so regular anymore). You can contact the dev team to discuss with them at [SonarSource](http://www.sonarsource.com/about/company/). | You can try to contact the XWiki Team.
<http://www.xwiki.com/xwiki/bin/view/About/Team>
They have a great product, it is Open Source, Vincent Massol knows very well agile practices (espeacially tests) and the team is distributed. You can try ask for some of their "secret recipes" ;-) |
181,380 | Please explain the intuition and connection behind the definition of [shrift](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/shrift?q=shrift) and [short shrift](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/short-shrift)?
How does the former imply the latter? | 2014/06/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/181380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | To me the connection is fairly direct, because "short shrift" specifically connotes that someone is impatient with someone else's *excuses*. So, a priest taking confession in a dismissive way would be a good example of that. I interpret "short" here in the sense of "less than usual" rather than "lasting a brief time". | I just encountered [this Reddit post](https://www.reddit.com/r/linguistics/comments/1gc5jc/12_old_words_that_survived_by_getting_fossilized/) which revealed the following answer to my question: see 12 [herefrom](http://www.mentalfloss.com/article/51150/12-old-words-survived-getting-fossilized-idioms).
---
12. shrift
----------
We might not know what a shrift is anymore, but we know we don't want to get a short one. "Shrift" was a word for a confession, something it seems we might want to keep short, or a penance imposed by a priest, something we would definitely want to keep short. But the phrase "short shrift" came from the practice of allowing a little time for the condemned to make a confession before being executed. So in that context, shorter was not better. |
181,380 | Please explain the intuition and connection behind the definition of [shrift](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/shrift?q=shrift) and [short shrift](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/short-shrift)?
How does the former imply the latter? | 2014/06/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/181380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | as [Anonym](https://english.stackexchange.com/users/61979/anonym) said in comments
Short Shrift was a shrift given to prisoners about to be executed. It was often brief and clumsy, not in accordance with the usual practices, and thus short.
>
> It was brief time for [confession](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/short+shrift) or absolution given to a condemned prisoner before his or her execution.
>
>
> | I just encountered [this Reddit post](https://www.reddit.com/r/linguistics/comments/1gc5jc/12_old_words_that_survived_by_getting_fossilized/) which revealed the following answer to my question: see 12 [herefrom](http://www.mentalfloss.com/article/51150/12-old-words-survived-getting-fossilized-idioms).
---
12. shrift
----------
We might not know what a shrift is anymore, but we know we don't want to get a short one. "Shrift" was a word for a confession, something it seems we might want to keep short, or a penance imposed by a priest, something we would definitely want to keep short. But the phrase "short shrift" came from the practice of allowing a little time for the condemned to make a confession before being executed. So in that context, shorter was not better. |
8,389,895 | We have an single-page web app that displays emails. Some of the emails we're viewing contain style elements that, when loaded into the DOM, affect our entire app. What's the best way to prevent this from happening? I'm currently removing style elements using the HtmlAgilityPack as shown in the post below, but I'm wondering if there's an easier way.
[Regex to remove body tag attributes (C#)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/3817821/regex-to-remove-body-tag-attributes-c) | 2011/12/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8389895",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/432477/"
] | Use `iframe`s. That will put the message into a separate document, and there will be no styling interference. | Since you said html emails, the only way to make the Css work is to give inline css style's. External CSS will never work on html mails. |
93,797 | It is often said (or implied) that Kant "dropped the ball" when he said that our knowledge of physical space as Euclidean is given to us *a priori*; but others come to his defense and say that at least by attributing a sort of abstract contingency to major principles of Euclidean geometry, Kant was theoretically open to the logical possibility of non-Euclidean systems (and at any rate, he had occasion to obscurely consider other "open-minded" options, e.g. multidimensional time).
Still, is it impossible for Kant to be substantially right, but also for modern physics to be substantially right, together? Meaning: *is it possible for space/time to sustain multiple geometries coevally?*
**Intentionality and the imagination.** Say there was a quantum field (QF) whose particles did not interact via gravitons (~G). So whether gravity is itself a function of [causal set theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_sets) causing itself to become [causal-dynamical triangulation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_dynamical_triangulation) going on to evolve into a set of [worldcrystals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_crystal), or is strictly continuous, it makes no difference to the special QF as such. So the ~GQF particles would not, I think, have any mass, and would use no energy during their interactions (or the exchanges would be uniformly virtual, or mediated only by raw entanglement; but on that last note, continue reading). Or so they wouldn't move at all, not even with gravitonic spacetime curvature. However, we suppose that when some other particle types collide with them, they do passively couple to the particles crashing into them, and become entangled with them to some degree.
Now anyway, so the ~GQF particles seem rather "epiphenomenal," so we will take to calling them *epiparticles* (not a term I coined, though I didn't see that it was used exactly here as it was elsewhere).
So consider that it seems possible, in intentional imagination/the imagining of intentions, to have perfectly straight lines. I.e., merely by internally "stipulating" that one is visualizing such a line, one does so visualize. Yet if intentions are physicalistic in nature, such as to occupy regions of spacetime, shouldn't their lines of presence and action be curved?
This is not even a hypothesis, but suppose that epiparticles uniquely couple to leptons, as leptons pass through/over them, and so the epiparticle field is a [consciousness field](https://hisdarkmaterials.fandom.com/wiki/Rusakov_field). But rather than consciousness having a strong role in physical causation as such, it seems as if it would be quite epiphenomenal, just as per the name of its particles and the actual origins of the word used for that name. Consciousness would mostly just passively experience its inputs; perhaps quantum flux and the theoretical aftermath of the Dirac sea would yield a space for microscopic apriority, but we will not dwell on what we as yet do not "know." The point is just that epiparticles are imaginary "possible examples" of a form of QF-theoretic matter that can form exactly straight lines in spacetime, by virtue of its field not coupling to the gravity field. And this is *highly* imaginary, as yet.
But still, then, can there be forms of matter, or of spacetime proper, or whatever, that either oscillate between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries (either some specific example(s) of those, or all of them, no less), or even perpetually occupy both domains? If I had studied physics instead of set theory, maybe I would know whether this would imply that the problem of reconciling QFT and general relativity will involve a mathematization in which background geometries are themselves mediated by the operations in play. I say this in the sense that one gets the impression, a little bit, sometimes, maybe, or at least I get the impression, that if photons, weak-force carriers, and gluons were "left to their own devices," they would proceed according to exactly straight lines (e.g., gluons would forge non-curved triangles from quarks). So instead, we might have to show, eventually, how non-Euclidean gravitational geometry can be integrated with Euclidean QFT possibilities.
Now the only information I've found so far by Googling for it, that seems possibly relevant to the question, is a [write-up talking about embedding non-Euclidean geometries into Euclidean ones](https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath342.htm), but this seems to make it out that the Euclidean structures subsume the other ones as the "process" unfolds, so if I were to imagine the oscillation picture mentioned above, I might have to imagine that whenever spacetime becomes Euclidean, it eventually becomes non-Euclidean again, and back and forth, except the write-up at issue looks to be saying that the "process" is a matter of higher and higher dimensions, so we'd end up with a picture of spacetime's dimensionality increasing upward, which might not be the kind of conclusion I ought to try to come to based on the available evidence more broadly.
**EDIT:** To try to avoid a lack of clarity in the above, I want to re-emphasize the initial subquestion about a QF that doesn't couple to/via the gravity field. If gravity causes spatiotemporal/dynamical curvature, then wouldn't "gravitational dark matter" be able to avoid being curved? And wouldn't a QF with this nature not have to avoid being Euclidean? Or rather, if QFT is the best ambient model of "the world" as such, then does anything in QFT logically privilege the notion that all quantum fields must couple to/via the gravity field? Or then to assume that the universe only obeys One True Geometry, no less. | 2022/09/24 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/93797",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/40843/"
] | Photons do always travel in straight lines - but across curved space.
Closed curvature spaces can be embedded in Euclidean spaces. Open curvature spaces, 'saddle shaped' ones, cannot.
Remember as well this is not only about space, but time is get warped by strong gravitational fields too.
Asking about oscillation between is like asking, 'In a world of hills and valleys can there be flat places?' Like, of course there can. In regions of space with minimal gravity fields, & low relative accelerations, it's approximately Euclidean - Special Relativity is based on this.
The nature of gravity at small scales, is much less well understood than people realise, because it is so weak it's very hard to measure. At particle scales and inside atoms, little is known.
In summary, no, time and space are relative and emergent. Absolute Euclidean space even as a convenient fiction, is dead. In fact leading theorists say [spacetime is doomed](https://pswscience.org/meeting/the-doom-of-spacetime/). | The universe is this way, already. Far away from any gravitational influences, space is locally flat. Close to a strong gravity field, it is significantly curved.
Note also that a space which is strictly euclidean would have no gravity, since that arises from spacetime curvature. |
93,797 | It is often said (or implied) that Kant "dropped the ball" when he said that our knowledge of physical space as Euclidean is given to us *a priori*; but others come to his defense and say that at least by attributing a sort of abstract contingency to major principles of Euclidean geometry, Kant was theoretically open to the logical possibility of non-Euclidean systems (and at any rate, he had occasion to obscurely consider other "open-minded" options, e.g. multidimensional time).
Still, is it impossible for Kant to be substantially right, but also for modern physics to be substantially right, together? Meaning: *is it possible for space/time to sustain multiple geometries coevally?*
**Intentionality and the imagination.** Say there was a quantum field (QF) whose particles did not interact via gravitons (~G). So whether gravity is itself a function of [causal set theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_sets) causing itself to become [causal-dynamical triangulation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_dynamical_triangulation) going on to evolve into a set of [worldcrystals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_crystal), or is strictly continuous, it makes no difference to the special QF as such. So the ~GQF particles would not, I think, have any mass, and would use no energy during their interactions (or the exchanges would be uniformly virtual, or mediated only by raw entanglement; but on that last note, continue reading). Or so they wouldn't move at all, not even with gravitonic spacetime curvature. However, we suppose that when some other particle types collide with them, they do passively couple to the particles crashing into them, and become entangled with them to some degree.
Now anyway, so the ~GQF particles seem rather "epiphenomenal," so we will take to calling them *epiparticles* (not a term I coined, though I didn't see that it was used exactly here as it was elsewhere).
So consider that it seems possible, in intentional imagination/the imagining of intentions, to have perfectly straight lines. I.e., merely by internally "stipulating" that one is visualizing such a line, one does so visualize. Yet if intentions are physicalistic in nature, such as to occupy regions of spacetime, shouldn't their lines of presence and action be curved?
This is not even a hypothesis, but suppose that epiparticles uniquely couple to leptons, as leptons pass through/over them, and so the epiparticle field is a [consciousness field](https://hisdarkmaterials.fandom.com/wiki/Rusakov_field). But rather than consciousness having a strong role in physical causation as such, it seems as if it would be quite epiphenomenal, just as per the name of its particles and the actual origins of the word used for that name. Consciousness would mostly just passively experience its inputs; perhaps quantum flux and the theoretical aftermath of the Dirac sea would yield a space for microscopic apriority, but we will not dwell on what we as yet do not "know." The point is just that epiparticles are imaginary "possible examples" of a form of QF-theoretic matter that can form exactly straight lines in spacetime, by virtue of its field not coupling to the gravity field. And this is *highly* imaginary, as yet.
But still, then, can there be forms of matter, or of spacetime proper, or whatever, that either oscillate between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries (either some specific example(s) of those, or all of them, no less), or even perpetually occupy both domains? If I had studied physics instead of set theory, maybe I would know whether this would imply that the problem of reconciling QFT and general relativity will involve a mathematization in which background geometries are themselves mediated by the operations in play. I say this in the sense that one gets the impression, a little bit, sometimes, maybe, or at least I get the impression, that if photons, weak-force carriers, and gluons were "left to their own devices," they would proceed according to exactly straight lines (e.g., gluons would forge non-curved triangles from quarks). So instead, we might have to show, eventually, how non-Euclidean gravitational geometry can be integrated with Euclidean QFT possibilities.
Now the only information I've found so far by Googling for it, that seems possibly relevant to the question, is a [write-up talking about embedding non-Euclidean geometries into Euclidean ones](https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath342.htm), but this seems to make it out that the Euclidean structures subsume the other ones as the "process" unfolds, so if I were to imagine the oscillation picture mentioned above, I might have to imagine that whenever spacetime becomes Euclidean, it eventually becomes non-Euclidean again, and back and forth, except the write-up at issue looks to be saying that the "process" is a matter of higher and higher dimensions, so we'd end up with a picture of spacetime's dimensionality increasing upward, which might not be the kind of conclusion I ought to try to come to based on the available evidence more broadly.
**EDIT:** To try to avoid a lack of clarity in the above, I want to re-emphasize the initial subquestion about a QF that doesn't couple to/via the gravity field. If gravity causes spatiotemporal/dynamical curvature, then wouldn't "gravitational dark matter" be able to avoid being curved? And wouldn't a QF with this nature not have to avoid being Euclidean? Or rather, if QFT is the best ambient model of "the world" as such, then does anything in QFT logically privilege the notion that all quantum fields must couple to/via the gravity field? Or then to assume that the universe only obeys One True Geometry, no less. | 2022/09/24 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/93797",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/40843/"
] | As a great statistician once said: “All models are wrong, but some are useful.”
Euclidean Geometry is a way of approximating reality. It is useful under some circumstances and unhelpful in others. Any model we construct for reality is an approximation and will have limits to its applicability.
So depending on what you want to know and how precisely you want to know it, yes, you could probably reach useful approximations using both Euclidean and non-Euclidean methods for the same problem. | The universe is this way, already. Far away from any gravitational influences, space is locally flat. Close to a strong gravity field, it is significantly curved.
Note also that a space which is strictly euclidean would have no gravity, since that arises from spacetime curvature. |
93,797 | It is often said (or implied) that Kant "dropped the ball" when he said that our knowledge of physical space as Euclidean is given to us *a priori*; but others come to his defense and say that at least by attributing a sort of abstract contingency to major principles of Euclidean geometry, Kant was theoretically open to the logical possibility of non-Euclidean systems (and at any rate, he had occasion to obscurely consider other "open-minded" options, e.g. multidimensional time).
Still, is it impossible for Kant to be substantially right, but also for modern physics to be substantially right, together? Meaning: *is it possible for space/time to sustain multiple geometries coevally?*
**Intentionality and the imagination.** Say there was a quantum field (QF) whose particles did not interact via gravitons (~G). So whether gravity is itself a function of [causal set theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_sets) causing itself to become [causal-dynamical triangulation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_dynamical_triangulation) going on to evolve into a set of [worldcrystals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_crystal), or is strictly continuous, it makes no difference to the special QF as such. So the ~GQF particles would not, I think, have any mass, and would use no energy during their interactions (or the exchanges would be uniformly virtual, or mediated only by raw entanglement; but on that last note, continue reading). Or so they wouldn't move at all, not even with gravitonic spacetime curvature. However, we suppose that when some other particle types collide with them, they do passively couple to the particles crashing into them, and become entangled with them to some degree.
Now anyway, so the ~GQF particles seem rather "epiphenomenal," so we will take to calling them *epiparticles* (not a term I coined, though I didn't see that it was used exactly here as it was elsewhere).
So consider that it seems possible, in intentional imagination/the imagining of intentions, to have perfectly straight lines. I.e., merely by internally "stipulating" that one is visualizing such a line, one does so visualize. Yet if intentions are physicalistic in nature, such as to occupy regions of spacetime, shouldn't their lines of presence and action be curved?
This is not even a hypothesis, but suppose that epiparticles uniquely couple to leptons, as leptons pass through/over them, and so the epiparticle field is a [consciousness field](https://hisdarkmaterials.fandom.com/wiki/Rusakov_field). But rather than consciousness having a strong role in physical causation as such, it seems as if it would be quite epiphenomenal, just as per the name of its particles and the actual origins of the word used for that name. Consciousness would mostly just passively experience its inputs; perhaps quantum flux and the theoretical aftermath of the Dirac sea would yield a space for microscopic apriority, but we will not dwell on what we as yet do not "know." The point is just that epiparticles are imaginary "possible examples" of a form of QF-theoretic matter that can form exactly straight lines in spacetime, by virtue of its field not coupling to the gravity field. And this is *highly* imaginary, as yet.
But still, then, can there be forms of matter, or of spacetime proper, or whatever, that either oscillate between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries (either some specific example(s) of those, or all of them, no less), or even perpetually occupy both domains? If I had studied physics instead of set theory, maybe I would know whether this would imply that the problem of reconciling QFT and general relativity will involve a mathematization in which background geometries are themselves mediated by the operations in play. I say this in the sense that one gets the impression, a little bit, sometimes, maybe, or at least I get the impression, that if photons, weak-force carriers, and gluons were "left to their own devices," they would proceed according to exactly straight lines (e.g., gluons would forge non-curved triangles from quarks). So instead, we might have to show, eventually, how non-Euclidean gravitational geometry can be integrated with Euclidean QFT possibilities.
Now the only information I've found so far by Googling for it, that seems possibly relevant to the question, is a [write-up talking about embedding non-Euclidean geometries into Euclidean ones](https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath342.htm), but this seems to make it out that the Euclidean structures subsume the other ones as the "process" unfolds, so if I were to imagine the oscillation picture mentioned above, I might have to imagine that whenever spacetime becomes Euclidean, it eventually becomes non-Euclidean again, and back and forth, except the write-up at issue looks to be saying that the "process" is a matter of higher and higher dimensions, so we'd end up with a picture of spacetime's dimensionality increasing upward, which might not be the kind of conclusion I ought to try to come to based on the available evidence more broadly.
**EDIT:** To try to avoid a lack of clarity in the above, I want to re-emphasize the initial subquestion about a QF that doesn't couple to/via the gravity field. If gravity causes spatiotemporal/dynamical curvature, then wouldn't "gravitational dark matter" be able to avoid being curved? And wouldn't a QF with this nature not have to avoid being Euclidean? Or rather, if QFT is the best ambient model of "the world" as such, then does anything in QFT logically privilege the notion that all quantum fields must couple to/via the gravity field? Or then to assume that the universe only obeys One True Geometry, no less. | 2022/09/24 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/93797",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/40843/"
] | Photons do always travel in straight lines - but across curved space.
Closed curvature spaces can be embedded in Euclidean spaces. Open curvature spaces, 'saddle shaped' ones, cannot.
Remember as well this is not only about space, but time is get warped by strong gravitational fields too.
Asking about oscillation between is like asking, 'In a world of hills and valleys can there be flat places?' Like, of course there can. In regions of space with minimal gravity fields, & low relative accelerations, it's approximately Euclidean - Special Relativity is based on this.
The nature of gravity at small scales, is much less well understood than people realise, because it is so weak it's very hard to measure. At particle scales and inside atoms, little is known.
In summary, no, time and space are relative and emergent. Absolute Euclidean space even as a convenient fiction, is dead. In fact leading theorists say [spacetime is doomed](https://pswscience.org/meeting/the-doom-of-spacetime/). | I’d turn to Sellars. I think upon learning about Gallilean Relativity my manifest image changed. (Before, my thought experiments violated physics!) What Conifold said about local geometry only requiring Euclidean processing might be contrasted to our language processing centers which seem less restricted and more adaptable. Instead, our manifest image including perceptual space might actually be adaptable if we train ourselves on those parts of the universe (larger scales, contemplating the twin experiment, contemplating hyperbolic or spherical global geometries).
I know the common refrain we can’t actually see in 5 dimension, but maybe that is simply because those parts of the universe, if they exist, are hard to make present by being remote and exotic. And excursions into them might be adaptive.
The brain might be capable of “evolution” and it is the environment of universe that adapts it. We know the brain physically “brings in” our outside world as neural connections.
Mathematically these embedding would be quite easy so we can say the are mathematically possible. Physically we have already have flat (your room) embedded in spherical (Earth) embedded in flat again (geometry of space), a in loose sense I’m abusing the terms slightly.
So from this vantage there are no epiparticles. Those can be eliminated. But I don’t think Kant can be right either then. |
93,797 | It is often said (or implied) that Kant "dropped the ball" when he said that our knowledge of physical space as Euclidean is given to us *a priori*; but others come to his defense and say that at least by attributing a sort of abstract contingency to major principles of Euclidean geometry, Kant was theoretically open to the logical possibility of non-Euclidean systems (and at any rate, he had occasion to obscurely consider other "open-minded" options, e.g. multidimensional time).
Still, is it impossible for Kant to be substantially right, but also for modern physics to be substantially right, together? Meaning: *is it possible for space/time to sustain multiple geometries coevally?*
**Intentionality and the imagination.** Say there was a quantum field (QF) whose particles did not interact via gravitons (~G). So whether gravity is itself a function of [causal set theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_sets) causing itself to become [causal-dynamical triangulation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_dynamical_triangulation) going on to evolve into a set of [worldcrystals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_crystal), or is strictly continuous, it makes no difference to the special QF as such. So the ~GQF particles would not, I think, have any mass, and would use no energy during their interactions (or the exchanges would be uniformly virtual, or mediated only by raw entanglement; but on that last note, continue reading). Or so they wouldn't move at all, not even with gravitonic spacetime curvature. However, we suppose that when some other particle types collide with them, they do passively couple to the particles crashing into them, and become entangled with them to some degree.
Now anyway, so the ~GQF particles seem rather "epiphenomenal," so we will take to calling them *epiparticles* (not a term I coined, though I didn't see that it was used exactly here as it was elsewhere).
So consider that it seems possible, in intentional imagination/the imagining of intentions, to have perfectly straight lines. I.e., merely by internally "stipulating" that one is visualizing such a line, one does so visualize. Yet if intentions are physicalistic in nature, such as to occupy regions of spacetime, shouldn't their lines of presence and action be curved?
This is not even a hypothesis, but suppose that epiparticles uniquely couple to leptons, as leptons pass through/over them, and so the epiparticle field is a [consciousness field](https://hisdarkmaterials.fandom.com/wiki/Rusakov_field). But rather than consciousness having a strong role in physical causation as such, it seems as if it would be quite epiphenomenal, just as per the name of its particles and the actual origins of the word used for that name. Consciousness would mostly just passively experience its inputs; perhaps quantum flux and the theoretical aftermath of the Dirac sea would yield a space for microscopic apriority, but we will not dwell on what we as yet do not "know." The point is just that epiparticles are imaginary "possible examples" of a form of QF-theoretic matter that can form exactly straight lines in spacetime, by virtue of its field not coupling to the gravity field. And this is *highly* imaginary, as yet.
But still, then, can there be forms of matter, or of spacetime proper, or whatever, that either oscillate between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries (either some specific example(s) of those, or all of them, no less), or even perpetually occupy both domains? If I had studied physics instead of set theory, maybe I would know whether this would imply that the problem of reconciling QFT and general relativity will involve a mathematization in which background geometries are themselves mediated by the operations in play. I say this in the sense that one gets the impression, a little bit, sometimes, maybe, or at least I get the impression, that if photons, weak-force carriers, and gluons were "left to their own devices," they would proceed according to exactly straight lines (e.g., gluons would forge non-curved triangles from quarks). So instead, we might have to show, eventually, how non-Euclidean gravitational geometry can be integrated with Euclidean QFT possibilities.
Now the only information I've found so far by Googling for it, that seems possibly relevant to the question, is a [write-up talking about embedding non-Euclidean geometries into Euclidean ones](https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath342.htm), but this seems to make it out that the Euclidean structures subsume the other ones as the "process" unfolds, so if I were to imagine the oscillation picture mentioned above, I might have to imagine that whenever spacetime becomes Euclidean, it eventually becomes non-Euclidean again, and back and forth, except the write-up at issue looks to be saying that the "process" is a matter of higher and higher dimensions, so we'd end up with a picture of spacetime's dimensionality increasing upward, which might not be the kind of conclusion I ought to try to come to based on the available evidence more broadly.
**EDIT:** To try to avoid a lack of clarity in the above, I want to re-emphasize the initial subquestion about a QF that doesn't couple to/via the gravity field. If gravity causes spatiotemporal/dynamical curvature, then wouldn't "gravitational dark matter" be able to avoid being curved? And wouldn't a QF with this nature not have to avoid being Euclidean? Or rather, if QFT is the best ambient model of "the world" as such, then does anything in QFT logically privilege the notion that all quantum fields must couple to/via the gravity field? Or then to assume that the universe only obeys One True Geometry, no less. | 2022/09/24 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/93797",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/40843/"
] | As a great statistician once said: “All models are wrong, but some are useful.”
Euclidean Geometry is a way of approximating reality. It is useful under some circumstances and unhelpful in others. Any model we construct for reality is an approximation and will have limits to its applicability.
So depending on what you want to know and how precisely you want to know it, yes, you could probably reach useful approximations using both Euclidean and non-Euclidean methods for the same problem. | Photons do always travel in straight lines - but across curved space.
Closed curvature spaces can be embedded in Euclidean spaces. Open curvature spaces, 'saddle shaped' ones, cannot.
Remember as well this is not only about space, but time is get warped by strong gravitational fields too.
Asking about oscillation between is like asking, 'In a world of hills and valleys can there be flat places?' Like, of course there can. In regions of space with minimal gravity fields, & low relative accelerations, it's approximately Euclidean - Special Relativity is based on this.
The nature of gravity at small scales, is much less well understood than people realise, because it is so weak it's very hard to measure. At particle scales and inside atoms, little is known.
In summary, no, time and space are relative and emergent. Absolute Euclidean space even as a convenient fiction, is dead. In fact leading theorists say [spacetime is doomed](https://pswscience.org/meeting/the-doom-of-spacetime/). |
93,797 | It is often said (or implied) that Kant "dropped the ball" when he said that our knowledge of physical space as Euclidean is given to us *a priori*; but others come to his defense and say that at least by attributing a sort of abstract contingency to major principles of Euclidean geometry, Kant was theoretically open to the logical possibility of non-Euclidean systems (and at any rate, he had occasion to obscurely consider other "open-minded" options, e.g. multidimensional time).
Still, is it impossible for Kant to be substantially right, but also for modern physics to be substantially right, together? Meaning: *is it possible for space/time to sustain multiple geometries coevally?*
**Intentionality and the imagination.** Say there was a quantum field (QF) whose particles did not interact via gravitons (~G). So whether gravity is itself a function of [causal set theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_sets) causing itself to become [causal-dynamical triangulation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_dynamical_triangulation) going on to evolve into a set of [worldcrystals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_crystal), or is strictly continuous, it makes no difference to the special QF as such. So the ~GQF particles would not, I think, have any mass, and would use no energy during their interactions (or the exchanges would be uniformly virtual, or mediated only by raw entanglement; but on that last note, continue reading). Or so they wouldn't move at all, not even with gravitonic spacetime curvature. However, we suppose that when some other particle types collide with them, they do passively couple to the particles crashing into them, and become entangled with them to some degree.
Now anyway, so the ~GQF particles seem rather "epiphenomenal," so we will take to calling them *epiparticles* (not a term I coined, though I didn't see that it was used exactly here as it was elsewhere).
So consider that it seems possible, in intentional imagination/the imagining of intentions, to have perfectly straight lines. I.e., merely by internally "stipulating" that one is visualizing such a line, one does so visualize. Yet if intentions are physicalistic in nature, such as to occupy regions of spacetime, shouldn't their lines of presence and action be curved?
This is not even a hypothesis, but suppose that epiparticles uniquely couple to leptons, as leptons pass through/over them, and so the epiparticle field is a [consciousness field](https://hisdarkmaterials.fandom.com/wiki/Rusakov_field). But rather than consciousness having a strong role in physical causation as such, it seems as if it would be quite epiphenomenal, just as per the name of its particles and the actual origins of the word used for that name. Consciousness would mostly just passively experience its inputs; perhaps quantum flux and the theoretical aftermath of the Dirac sea would yield a space for microscopic apriority, but we will not dwell on what we as yet do not "know." The point is just that epiparticles are imaginary "possible examples" of a form of QF-theoretic matter that can form exactly straight lines in spacetime, by virtue of its field not coupling to the gravity field. And this is *highly* imaginary, as yet.
But still, then, can there be forms of matter, or of spacetime proper, or whatever, that either oscillate between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries (either some specific example(s) of those, or all of them, no less), or even perpetually occupy both domains? If I had studied physics instead of set theory, maybe I would know whether this would imply that the problem of reconciling QFT and general relativity will involve a mathematization in which background geometries are themselves mediated by the operations in play. I say this in the sense that one gets the impression, a little bit, sometimes, maybe, or at least I get the impression, that if photons, weak-force carriers, and gluons were "left to their own devices," they would proceed according to exactly straight lines (e.g., gluons would forge non-curved triangles from quarks). So instead, we might have to show, eventually, how non-Euclidean gravitational geometry can be integrated with Euclidean QFT possibilities.
Now the only information I've found so far by Googling for it, that seems possibly relevant to the question, is a [write-up talking about embedding non-Euclidean geometries into Euclidean ones](https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath342.htm), but this seems to make it out that the Euclidean structures subsume the other ones as the "process" unfolds, so if I were to imagine the oscillation picture mentioned above, I might have to imagine that whenever spacetime becomes Euclidean, it eventually becomes non-Euclidean again, and back and forth, except the write-up at issue looks to be saying that the "process" is a matter of higher and higher dimensions, so we'd end up with a picture of spacetime's dimensionality increasing upward, which might not be the kind of conclusion I ought to try to come to based on the available evidence more broadly.
**EDIT:** To try to avoid a lack of clarity in the above, I want to re-emphasize the initial subquestion about a QF that doesn't couple to/via the gravity field. If gravity causes spatiotemporal/dynamical curvature, then wouldn't "gravitational dark matter" be able to avoid being curved? And wouldn't a QF with this nature not have to avoid being Euclidean? Or rather, if QFT is the best ambient model of "the world" as such, then does anything in QFT logically privilege the notion that all quantum fields must couple to/via the gravity field? Or then to assume that the universe only obeys One True Geometry, no less. | 2022/09/24 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/93797",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/40843/"
] | As a great statistician once said: “All models are wrong, but some are useful.”
Euclidean Geometry is a way of approximating reality. It is useful under some circumstances and unhelpful in others. Any model we construct for reality is an approximation and will have limits to its applicability.
So depending on what you want to know and how precisely you want to know it, yes, you could probably reach useful approximations using both Euclidean and non-Euclidean methods for the same problem. | I’d turn to Sellars. I think upon learning about Gallilean Relativity my manifest image changed. (Before, my thought experiments violated physics!) What Conifold said about local geometry only requiring Euclidean processing might be contrasted to our language processing centers which seem less restricted and more adaptable. Instead, our manifest image including perceptual space might actually be adaptable if we train ourselves on those parts of the universe (larger scales, contemplating the twin experiment, contemplating hyperbolic or spherical global geometries).
I know the common refrain we can’t actually see in 5 dimension, but maybe that is simply because those parts of the universe, if they exist, are hard to make present by being remote and exotic. And excursions into them might be adaptive.
The brain might be capable of “evolution” and it is the environment of universe that adapts it. We know the brain physically “brings in” our outside world as neural connections.
Mathematically these embedding would be quite easy so we can say the are mathematically possible. Physically we have already have flat (your room) embedded in spherical (Earth) embedded in flat again (geometry of space), a in loose sense I’m abusing the terms slightly.
So from this vantage there are no epiparticles. Those can be eliminated. But I don’t think Kant can be right either then. |
68,797 | This is past-tense narrative:
>
> Since the violin didn't fit his backpack, he'd been carrying it on his
> shoulder the whole morning.
>
>
> Since the violin hadn't fit his backpack, he'd been carrying it on his
> shoulder the whole morning.
>
>
>
Which version is the correct one? And why? | 2015/09/23 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/68797",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/1806/"
] | I think there's no point using the past perfect and the past perfect continuous in the sentence. You can rephrase it in the past simple as follows:
Since the violin didn't fit his backpack, he carried (or was carrying) it on his shoulder the whole morning. | In my dialect, the past participle of intransitive 'to fit' is 'fit'.
To fit (intransitive): to be of appropriate size, as in "The shoe fits".
**The shirt had fit well until it was put in the clothes dryer on high heat.**
The past participle of transitive fit is 'fitted'.
To fit: (transitive): to install something onto something else, as in
**We had not yet fitted the roof with rain gutters and a downspout when it began to rain.** |
27,308 | [Antimagic Field](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/spells/antimagicField.htm) notes that:
>
> (The effects of instantaneous conjurations are not affected by an antimagic field because the conjuration itself is no longer in effect, only its result.)
>
>
>
How does a healed wound (or healing a wound) function within a field? | 2013/07/20 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/27308",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/8912/"
] | You can't heal a wound with magic in an AMF, because magic does not work there.
However, cure wounds is an instantaneous spell that modifies the recipient creating a new, stable condition, like when you punch some clay: Even if you're no more punching it, the clay retains the new form.
So, if a creature that has been healed by magic enters an AMF, there's no spell in effect and the effects of the healing spells are not reverted.
It would be different if it was some heal-over-time spell, regeneration-like. While the character with such a spell healing him is inside the AMF the healing stops - and resumes once he gets out (while the round count of the spell continues to go).
The text you quoted also means that if somebody uses a conjuration spell like [*acid arrow*](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/spells/acidArrow.htm) and shoots it at somebody that's inside an AMF, the acid arrow is not made of magic: it's real acid that continues to exist in the AMF and damages the target as intended. | Antimagic has always prohibited the casting of any magic or magical abilities.
the 3.5 DMG note the following in Chapter 8 (Numbering mine, original is bullets):
>
> 1. No supernatural ability, spell-like ability, or spell works in an
> area of antimagic (but extraordinary abilities still work).
> 2. Antimagic does not dispel magic; it suppresses it. Once a magical
> effect is no longer affected by the antimagic (the antimagic
> fades, the center of the effect moves away, and so on), the magic
> returns. Spells that still have part of their duration left begin
> functioning again, magic items are once again useful, and so
> forth.
> 3. Spell areas that include both an antimagic area and a normal
> area, but are not centered in the antimagic area, still function in
> the normal area. If the spell’s center is in the antimagic area,
> then the spell is suppressed.
> 4. Golems and other constructs, elementals, outsiders, and corporeal
> undead, still function in an antimagic area (though the
> antimagic area suppresses their spellcasting and their supernatural
> and spell-like abilities normally). If such creatures are
> summoned or conjured, however, see below.
> 5. Summoned or conjured creatures of any type, as well as incorporeal
> undead, wink out if they enter the area of an antimagic
> effect. They reappear in the same spot once the field goes away.
> 6. Magic items with continuous effects, such as a bag of holding, do
> not function in the area of an antimagic effect, but their effects
> are not canceled (so the contents of the bag are unavailable, but
> neither spill out nor disappear forever).
> 7. Two antimagic areas in the same place do not cancel each other
> out, nor do they stack.
> 8. Wall of force, prismatic wall, and prismatic sphere are not affected by
> antimagic. Break enchantment, dispel magic, and greater dispel
> magic spells do not dispel antimagic. Mordenkainen’s disjunction
> has a 1% chance per caster level of destroying an antimagic field.
> If the antimagic field survives the disjunction, no items within it
> are disjoined.
>
>
>
The first point is the most important; it absolutely precludes spells cast from within or upon those within. The heal spell thus cannot work, nor can the class abilities that heal instantly. That the spell is instant is of no matter.
The confusion seems to be based upon Point 2 and point 6. Since the spell fails, there's no spell to have continuing effect nor an instant effect.
Note that the lack of effect upon instant spells is upon ones already having gone into effect before the Antimagic Zone (AMZ) is encountered; such spells have literally already ended, and thus can't be affected. They still cannot be cast into, from, or through the AMZ.
Point 4, for reference is an explicit exemption for some types; point 5 is a clarification of point 4, noting what isn't exempted but could be confused for those that are.
Point 6 is a specific example of point 2.
Point 7 and 8 are both about ending the AMZ; point 8 also includes additional exempt spells, and does not include heal spells. |
60,190 | I have acquired a desire to read Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, but I do not read Sanskrit and I do not know which translations should be trusted. What are high quality translations of the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad? | 2019/02/10 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/60190",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/32384/"
] | Here are the original texts, word by word translation, etymology and inner meanings of first two parts (Brahmins) of first chapter of Brihadaranyaka Upanishad.
<https://upanishadsinenglish.blogspot.com/2019/11/p.html>
<https://upanishadsinenglish.blogspot.com/2019/11/brihadaaranyaka-upanishada-first.html> | This translation would be useful <https://www.holybooks.com/wp-content/uploads/Brihadaranyaka-Upanishad.pdf>
Prof: S Kuppuswami Sastri's introduction begins like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Hcqwo.jpg)
This link would be helpful to know more about Prof: S Kuppuswami Sastri <http://worldcat.org/identities/lccn-n50067203/>
Another useful translation is here: <https://www.consciouslivingfoundation.org/ebooks/13/CLF-brihadaranyaka_upanishad.pdf>
About the translator: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swami_Nikhilananda> |
60,190 | I have acquired a desire to read Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, but I do not read Sanskrit and I do not know which translations should be trusted. What are high quality translations of the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad? | 2019/02/10 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/60190",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/32384/"
] | Here are the original texts, word by word translation, etymology and inner meanings of first two parts (Brahmins) of first chapter of Brihadaranyaka Upanishad.
<https://upanishadsinenglish.blogspot.com/2019/11/p.html>
<https://upanishadsinenglish.blogspot.com/2019/11/brihadaaranyaka-upanishada-first.html> | Any second hand language has limitations to exactly and accurately translate the eternal meaning of the Upnishadas (Vedas).
Any language translation has the four aspects of material errors (limitations) involved, namely, "bhrama", "pramada", "vipralipsa"& "karnapatava".
To realize the eternal knowledge of the Vedas and Upnishadas, is something sensing beyond these four errors.
We have gone through many translations available in the English, however, the best we found in the translated versions of Jagatguru Kripaluji's lectures in Vrindavan (Mathura, India). The selected verses of the Upnishadas we also found in the translations and purports by Srila A.C. Bhakti Vedanta Swami Prabhupada in ISKCON BBT Books.
The book form of the upnishada in English is also available with the Central Chinmaya Mission Trust, Mumbai. Adiguru Shankaracharya had said to a sanskrit scholar of varanasi, near the end of his life; "bhaj govindam, bhaj govindam, govindam bhaj moorkh/moodha mate..". His grace has explained all the Prime Upnishadas in his own style, however, in authoring the Gita-upnishada mahatmaya, he has said, "ekam shastram devaki-putra gitam...".
Best of luck !! |
112,893 | I have bootable ubuntu usb and everything is working fine. Note that I can boot only from usb or cd/dvd.
Now I want to install new programs, edit my own files etc... So I thought that the best solution would be to
* boot fom my external (160GB WD) or
* have root directory automatically mounted to the external hdd when booting from usb
Is any from above possible? | 2012/03/14 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/112893",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/2571/"
] | I'm currently running my Acer Aspire 5440 laptop off of an external WD Passport 500gb hard drive, and have been for a year now. I haven't had any issues with it, other than the occasional disconnect issue. I don't see any performance problems with it, as long as the computer has a good set of hardware, RAM, video, processor, etc. | All are possible !
The only thing that will bother you is the performance issues that will be very poor due to USB 2.0 input - output (read - wright) performance limitations.
You should also check for some other problems you may encounter <https://askubuntu.com/search?q=Can+I+boot+from+external+usb+hdd> |
116,308 | I used the fast setting concrete to hold an umbrella clothes line inside a five gallon bucket, but someone told me that the fast setting concrete wasn't as heavy as regular concrete.
If regular concrete is heavier than fast setting concrete, then which type of concrete is the heaviest?
Thanks,
Sean | 2017/06/11 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/116308",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/70727/"
] | The person that told you that regular concrete is heavier than fast setting concrete may be referring to the weight of the bags that they come in at the big box stores. The weight in concrete comes mostly from the aggregate, not the cement. Any difference in weight between the two types of concrete would be immaterial in your application. | Fast setting concrete should be no more or less dense than regular concrete. Fast setting concrete is typically made by using more finely ground cement and/or chemical additives that make it set up faster (chlorides or thiocyanides). In either case, this has a negligible affect on the density. |
12,689 | I am builduing a business to business website, and users are able to sign up with a personal profile and create a business (like linkedin).
I need to verify the following:
* Business Name
* Representative First & Last Name
* Address
* Phone Number
Other business sites such as [Groupon (wikihow article)](http://www.wikihow.com/Advertise-on-Groupon) verify identity by contacting each user (I'm not familiar if they ask for a business regestrition copy or how do they verify once they contact you).
But this seems slow, expensive and annoying, yet probably an effective way to verifying.
I was thinking of the sms verification code, that way I can takle down Location & Phone number, but there is all sort of way around this...
Is there a more effective way of verifying business/business owners identity and location? | 2012/03/14 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/12689",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/8406/"
] | One possibility: you could look up the company in [Dun & Bradstreet](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dun_%26_Bradstreet) database of businesses, look up the contact information for their professional contact, and contact the person listed in D&B to request verification of the business's status.
Another possibility: if the business has a [Google+ business profile](https://www.google.com/+/business/?hl=en&lr=all) or a [Facebook business page](https://www.facebook.com/business/?pages), you could use various methods to have them prove ownership of that profile. In that case, you'd basically be outsourcing verification to Google or Facebook. I don't know how secure that is. | I'm curious what you wound up doing. I was thinking of email domain verification as a first step, and then allowing businesses to update their own information. I'm not sure how easily this could be spoofed though. This might not be effective, since many small business owners don't have their own domain. Similarly, and though I like @logicalscope 's suggestion I think many small business owners would not understand or be able to obtain SSL certs either. |
8,447 | I think somebody asked a similar question earlier and understand that this will likely be closed but hope not.
Was wondering can practicing of Metta make you likeable? Or rather more approachable? Easy to talk to?
This is a very strange world, there are some people who possess some kind of unexplainable magnetism, it's like people are generally attracted to them and people pay attention when they talk.
They have never been out of the limelight.
Is it something to do with Metta? | 2015/03/28 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/8447",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4813/"
] | From the [Mettanisamsa Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an11/an11.016.piya.html):
>
> "Monks, eleven advantages are to be expected from the release
> (deliverance) of heart by familiarizing oneself with thoughts of
> loving-kindness (metta), by the cultivation of loving-kindness, by
> constantly increasing these thoughts, by regarding loving-kindness as
> a vehicle (of expression), and also as something to be treasured, by
> living in conformity with these thoughts, by putting these ideas into
> practice, and by establishing them. What are the eleven?
>
>
> 1. "He sleeps in comfort.
> 2. He awakes in comfort.
> 3. He sees no evil dreams.
> 4. **He is dear to human beings.**
> 5. He is dear to non-human beings.
> 6. Devas (gods) protect him.
> 7. Fire, poison, and sword cannot touch him.
> 8. His mind can concentrate quickly.
> 9. His countenance is serene.
> 10. He dies without being confused in mind.
> 11. If he fails to attain arahantship (the highest sanctity) here and now, he will be reborn in the brahma-world.
>
>
>
Read [this essay](http://www.vipassana.com/meditation/facets_of_metta.php) to get some exposition and experience on Metta. Particularly this experience:
>
> Once I had a meditation student who had been a child in Nazi-occupied
> Europe. She recounted an instance when she was around ten years old
> when a German soldier held a gun to her chest -- a situation that
> would readily arouse terror. Yet she related feeling no fear at all,
> thinking, "You may be able to kill my body, but you can't kill me."
> What a spacious reaction! It is in this way that lovingkindness opens
> the vastness of mind in us, which is ultimately our greatest
> protection.
>
>
> | Yes Metta is a very very important factor in the art of communication, throughout *all* the stages of the communication process.
Being **natural** (effortless) and **honest** is another core trait (Right Speech) as well as having a high level of generosity (dana paramita)
There are many others social skill factors, some of which are based on advanced NLP skills (which is a way to communicate to people using the specific way that they think--thus others cannot help but pay full attention to what they are saying).
You will not understand all these things in one day. It will take you the rest of your life to understand the many facets of social relationships especially **the fact that people will not like you if you want them to like you.** |
8,447 | I think somebody asked a similar question earlier and understand that this will likely be closed but hope not.
Was wondering can practicing of Metta make you likeable? Or rather more approachable? Easy to talk to?
This is a very strange world, there are some people who possess some kind of unexplainable magnetism, it's like people are generally attracted to them and people pay attention when they talk.
They have never been out of the limelight.
Is it something to do with Metta? | 2015/03/28 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/8447",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4813/"
] | From the [Mettanisamsa Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an11/an11.016.piya.html):
>
> "Monks, eleven advantages are to be expected from the release
> (deliverance) of heart by familiarizing oneself with thoughts of
> loving-kindness (metta), by the cultivation of loving-kindness, by
> constantly increasing these thoughts, by regarding loving-kindness as
> a vehicle (of expression), and also as something to be treasured, by
> living in conformity with these thoughts, by putting these ideas into
> practice, and by establishing them. What are the eleven?
>
>
> 1. "He sleeps in comfort.
> 2. He awakes in comfort.
> 3. He sees no evil dreams.
> 4. **He is dear to human beings.**
> 5. He is dear to non-human beings.
> 6. Devas (gods) protect him.
> 7. Fire, poison, and sword cannot touch him.
> 8. His mind can concentrate quickly.
> 9. His countenance is serene.
> 10. He dies without being confused in mind.
> 11. If he fails to attain arahantship (the highest sanctity) here and now, he will be reborn in the brahma-world.
>
>
>
Read [this essay](http://www.vipassana.com/meditation/facets_of_metta.php) to get some exposition and experience on Metta. Particularly this experience:
>
> Once I had a meditation student who had been a child in Nazi-occupied
> Europe. She recounted an instance when she was around ten years old
> when a German soldier held a gun to her chest -- a situation that
> would readily arouse terror. Yet she related feeling no fear at all,
> thinking, "You may be able to kill my body, but you can't kill me."
> What a spacious reaction! It is in this way that lovingkindness opens
> the vastness of mind in us, which is ultimately our greatest
> protection.
>
>
> | You already know it.
Depressive mind has power to transform whole world to depressive world. Angry mind has power to transform whole word to angry world. Metta mind has power to transform whole world to metta world.
When dwelling in depression, everything is depressive. When boiling in anger, everything is angry. When radiating metta, everything is shining metta.
This world will reflect back what ever you offer to it. If you have this *I like you and I want to help you* -mind towards this world, this world will reflect it back to you as *I like you and I want to help you* -world.
Why don't you try out? |
4,945,012 | I created a program that builds and draw nested cyclic graphs (with undirected edges) in a JFrame using java awt.
The problem is that if the position of the nodes is not explicitly specified, or created at random, the graph becomes very messy, with edges crossing and vertex colliding.
I would like to implement an algorithm for repositioning to better distribute the nodes, in a more homogeneous and clean way.
Can someone help me? | 2011/02/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4945012",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/368926/"
] | You may want to look at [GraphViz](http://www.graphviz.org/), which is a program to do exactly this (render graphs). It has a Java API, so you could integrate it into your program, and it's open-source, so if you'd rather implement a solution yourself, perhaps their code could provide some inspiration (just remember to check the license!)
In addition, their website has [a list of resources pertaining to graph drawing theory](http://www.graphviz.org/Theory.php), which sounds exactly like what you need. | [JGraphX](http://www.jgraph.com/jgraph.html) is native Java and includes automatic layouting options. Disclaimer - I do contribute to the project. |
228,475 | I'm just starting out in this field and I got ideas for projects I want to build but I'm running into problems, not so much with how to find the part I want or how to get it to work. but how to physically connect it. I see modules like this [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/26lCF.png)
and while I can find information on what pins I need to hook up what to, so the thing does what I want. I'm no where even close to being good enough as soldering to attach wires to modules like this. And most of the time I can't find an existing breakout board for the module I want to use. sometimes I can find one for other modules that claim to have similar functions but when I start reading though the details I find it really only shares the features I wasn't planning on using while the ones I did want aren't available.
So all that is me explaining why I need to ask is there service or something that I could use where I can get the module I want on a board? I don't mind having to either buy the module separately and sending it to them and then paying them to assemble the board. or buying the module through them and paying extra for assembly. Or is there some trick to making them myself that I haven't heard about? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/228475",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/44127/"
] | To answer your question, yes there are services like that. Places like SeeedStudio will allow you to design a PCB and get it printed, then you can choose from a list of 500 parts they have or you can send them your part and they will solder. There are many other places like this, but this was the first I thought of. Heres a link since their site it a little difficult to navigate: <http://www.seeedstudio.com/service/index.php?r=pcb>
You should note that this could end up being pretty expensive. I'd say that the better bet (at least long term) is for you to learn to solder them. Find old soldering boards or design your own and just practice a bunch until you feel confident doing it for production work. Another option would be to find a nearby university and see if they have an EE club or robotics club and ask if anybody there can solder well. You could probably pay them with pizza and/or beer and everybody would be happy. | For (small batch) production, these modules can be soldered on other PCBs, all you need is SMD pads in the right places, slightly elongated if you want to hand solder.
For development, there is usually a development kit available from the module manufacturer. |
228,475 | I'm just starting out in this field and I got ideas for projects I want to build but I'm running into problems, not so much with how to find the part I want or how to get it to work. but how to physically connect it. I see modules like this [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/26lCF.png)
and while I can find information on what pins I need to hook up what to, so the thing does what I want. I'm no where even close to being good enough as soldering to attach wires to modules like this. And most of the time I can't find an existing breakout board for the module I want to use. sometimes I can find one for other modules that claim to have similar functions but when I start reading though the details I find it really only shares the features I wasn't planning on using while the ones I did want aren't available.
So all that is me explaining why I need to ask is there service or something that I could use where I can get the module I want on a board? I don't mind having to either buy the module separately and sending it to them and then paying them to assemble the board. or buying the module through them and paying extra for assembly. Or is there some trick to making them myself that I haven't heard about? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/228475",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/44127/"
] | To answer your question, yes there are services like that. Places like SeeedStudio will allow you to design a PCB and get it printed, then you can choose from a list of 500 parts they have or you can send them your part and they will solder. There are many other places like this, but this was the first I thought of. Heres a link since their site it a little difficult to navigate: <http://www.seeedstudio.com/service/index.php?r=pcb>
You should note that this could end up being pretty expensive. I'd say that the better bet (at least long term) is for you to learn to solder them. Find old soldering boards or design your own and just practice a bunch until you feel confident doing it for production work. Another option would be to find a nearby university and see if they have an EE club or robotics club and ask if anybody there can solder well. You could probably pay them with pizza and/or beer and everybody would be happy. | You can use this free software to create a board with the pads you need, pretty simply by selecting the package type. Then drag solder.
You can download the gerber file after building it and send it to a number of companies to have it manufactured, for probably $20
[123d.circuits](https://123d.circuits.io) |
4,932 | What we know about our mammal ancestors that were alive (and survived) at the extinction event 65 million years ago? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/4932",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/1086/"
] | Many of them looked like little rodents. However, several distinct mammalian lineages were already present, including [Monotremes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotreme), marsupials and placental mammals. Throughout the whole Mesozoic era, mammals were already quite diversified! Also, even though most of the mammals that survived the [K/T boundary](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cretaceous%E2%80%93Paleogene_boundary) were rather small, there were already some larger mammals around in the Cretaceous.
Here is a nice picture of a [symmetrodont](http://www.cbc.ca/news/technology/story/2009/10/08/tech-biology-prehistoric-mammal.html):
See a nice page on [early mammals](http://dinosaurs.about.com/od/otherprehistoriclife/a/earlymammals.htm). | A recent genetic analysis suggests that they were probably bigger that we thought before :
<http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn22343-mammals-ancestor-was-not-as-puny-as-we-thought.html> |
4,932 | What we know about our mammal ancestors that were alive (and survived) at the extinction event 65 million years ago? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/4932",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/1086/"
] | Many of them looked like little rodents. However, several distinct mammalian lineages were already present, including [Monotremes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotreme), marsupials and placental mammals. Throughout the whole Mesozoic era, mammals were already quite diversified! Also, even though most of the mammals that survived the [K/T boundary](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cretaceous%E2%80%93Paleogene_boundary) were rather small, there were already some larger mammals around in the Cretaceous.
Here is a nice picture of a [symmetrodont](http://www.cbc.ca/news/technology/story/2009/10/08/tech-biology-prehistoric-mammal.html):
See a nice page on [early mammals](http://dinosaurs.about.com/od/otherprehistoriclife/a/earlymammals.htm). | In a 2013 study, that combined genetic data and morphological data, the last common ancestor of placental mammals was estimated to be a four-legged creature likely ate insects, weighed from 6 grams (about the weight of some shrews) up to 245 grams — and was more adapted for general scampering. Also, its cerebral cortex — the part of the brain linked to higher mental processes — was probably convoluted, folds linked with greater brain activity, <http://www.livescience.com/26929-mama-first-ancestor-placental-mammals.html>
The same study estimates that this ancestral creature arose some 200,000 to 400,000 years after the end of the age of dinosaurs. This is in line with what paleontology suggest... but is in contrast with other studies based purely on genetic data, which puts the last common ancestor of placental mammals 36 million year before the dinosaur extinction. (which depends on how accurate you can estimate the speed of the genetic clock which is dependent on number of generations and thus the lifespan of the animal...faster in fast breeding, short lived animal. Slower in long lived, slow breeding animals) |
4,932 | What we know about our mammal ancestors that were alive (and survived) at the extinction event 65 million years ago? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/4932",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/1086/"
] | A recent genetic analysis suggests that they were probably bigger that we thought before :
<http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn22343-mammals-ancestor-was-not-as-puny-as-we-thought.html> | In a 2013 study, that combined genetic data and morphological data, the last common ancestor of placental mammals was estimated to be a four-legged creature likely ate insects, weighed from 6 grams (about the weight of some shrews) up to 245 grams — and was more adapted for general scampering. Also, its cerebral cortex — the part of the brain linked to higher mental processes — was probably convoluted, folds linked with greater brain activity, <http://www.livescience.com/26929-mama-first-ancestor-placental-mammals.html>
The same study estimates that this ancestral creature arose some 200,000 to 400,000 years after the end of the age of dinosaurs. This is in line with what paleontology suggest... but is in contrast with other studies based purely on genetic data, which puts the last common ancestor of placental mammals 36 million year before the dinosaur extinction. (which depends on how accurate you can estimate the speed of the genetic clock which is dependent on number of generations and thus the lifespan of the animal...faster in fast breeding, short lived animal. Slower in long lived, slow breeding animals) |
172,896 | I'm intended to package up quite a lot of data in to archives so that I can store them using an on-line file storage service and to various local backups - the intention being that this will be fairly long term static storage.
I'm currently planning to compress them using 7zip into **.7z** files, but I'd rather compress the folder tree in large chucks, such that each archive will contain ~350Mb-1Gb of data (*before* compression) and I'm wondering how resilient the format is to damage.
Is the archive structured such that "minor" damage can be corrected?
Or if the damage is "serious", will it destroy the *entire* archive - or just those files in the specific site of the damage within the archive?
Essentially, the hidden question here is: should I package in to lots of small separate archives or few large ones? | 2010/08/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/172896",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/39366/"
] | Any compression tool is going to be subject to corruption issues on very large files. Your best bet is probably to use smaller files, but *NOT* volumes of a larger archive - as separate archives.
AFAIK 7zip will lose the whole archive if you have file damage in a portion of the archive. | If you want redundancy in your compression, I would suggest using rar/par/par2 files. This has been a standard for compression redundancy for files sent over newsgroups and a lot of other sources. You split your files into many rar files... and you can even be missing entire rar files and still recover your data. For data that doesn't compress well, this could actually increase the total size, but that is the price you pay for redundancy. |
172,896 | I'm intended to package up quite a lot of data in to archives so that I can store them using an on-line file storage service and to various local backups - the intention being that this will be fairly long term static storage.
I'm currently planning to compress them using 7zip into **.7z** files, but I'd rather compress the folder tree in large chucks, such that each archive will contain ~350Mb-1Gb of data (*before* compression) and I'm wondering how resilient the format is to damage.
Is the archive structured such that "minor" damage can be corrected?
Or if the damage is "serious", will it destroy the *entire* archive - or just those files in the specific site of the damage within the archive?
Essentially, the hidden question here is: should I package in to lots of small separate archives or few large ones? | 2010/08/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/172896",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/39366/"
] | Any compression tool is going to be subject to corruption issues on very large files. Your best bet is probably to use smaller files, but *NOT* volumes of a larger archive - as separate archives.
AFAIK 7zip will lose the whole archive if you have file damage in a portion of the archive. | Depending on your needs it might be better to introduce the redundancy on another level. What I want to say is you rather think about another complete copy of the files rather than trying to alleviate partial damage. Then you regularly check the checksums of these files and whenever a problem arises you replace the defective hardware and copy from an intact backup again. |
172,896 | I'm intended to package up quite a lot of data in to archives so that I can store them using an on-line file storage service and to various local backups - the intention being that this will be fairly long term static storage.
I'm currently planning to compress them using 7zip into **.7z** files, but I'd rather compress the folder tree in large chucks, such that each archive will contain ~350Mb-1Gb of data (*before* compression) and I'm wondering how resilient the format is to damage.
Is the archive structured such that "minor" damage can be corrected?
Or if the damage is "serious", will it destroy the *entire* archive - or just those files in the specific site of the damage within the archive?
Essentially, the hidden question here is: should I package in to lots of small separate archives or few large ones? | 2010/08/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/172896",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/39366/"
] | Any compression tool is going to be subject to corruption issues on very large files. Your best bet is probably to use smaller files, but *NOT* volumes of a larger archive - as separate archives.
AFAIK 7zip will lose the whole archive if you have file damage in a portion of the archive. | 7-zip will lose the whole archive even if there are only minor corruptions. This is because 7-zip only use [solid compression](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solid_compression), which means that all files are agglomerated together. However, 7-zip authors offer a tutorial on how to [manually try to fix your 7zip archive here](http://www.7-zip.org/recover.html).
If you want to be able to recover non corrupted files from a corrupted archive, you have to make a non-solid archive, such as a zip with DEFLATE. I tried several formats, including ARC which allows non-solid archives, but it was less resilient than zip. There is also the PEA format (by PEAzip) which allows for partial extraction, and RAR (by WinRAR) which specifically has an option ["keep broken files"](http://www.ghacks.net/2014/07/28/repair-extract-broken-rar-archives/) to allow partial extraction.
You can try by yourself various compression formats and see if you can still uncompress your data using [a simple data tampering python tool](https://github.com/lrq3000/pyFileFixity/blob/master/pyFileFixity/filetamper.py). |
172,896 | I'm intended to package up quite a lot of data in to archives so that I can store them using an on-line file storage service and to various local backups - the intention being that this will be fairly long term static storage.
I'm currently planning to compress them using 7zip into **.7z** files, but I'd rather compress the folder tree in large chucks, such that each archive will contain ~350Mb-1Gb of data (*before* compression) and I'm wondering how resilient the format is to damage.
Is the archive structured such that "minor" damage can be corrected?
Or if the damage is "serious", will it destroy the *entire* archive - or just those files in the specific site of the damage within the archive?
Essentially, the hidden question here is: should I package in to lots of small separate archives or few large ones? | 2010/08/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/172896",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/39366/"
] | If you want redundancy in your compression, I would suggest using rar/par/par2 files. This has been a standard for compression redundancy for files sent over newsgroups and a lot of other sources. You split your files into many rar files... and you can even be missing entire rar files and still recover your data. For data that doesn't compress well, this could actually increase the total size, but that is the price you pay for redundancy. | Depending on your needs it might be better to introduce the redundancy on another level. What I want to say is you rather think about another complete copy of the files rather than trying to alleviate partial damage. Then you regularly check the checksums of these files and whenever a problem arises you replace the defective hardware and copy from an intact backup again. |
172,896 | I'm intended to package up quite a lot of data in to archives so that I can store them using an on-line file storage service and to various local backups - the intention being that this will be fairly long term static storage.
I'm currently planning to compress them using 7zip into **.7z** files, but I'd rather compress the folder tree in large chucks, such that each archive will contain ~350Mb-1Gb of data (*before* compression) and I'm wondering how resilient the format is to damage.
Is the archive structured such that "minor" damage can be corrected?
Or if the damage is "serious", will it destroy the *entire* archive - or just those files in the specific site of the damage within the archive?
Essentially, the hidden question here is: should I package in to lots of small separate archives or few large ones? | 2010/08/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/172896",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/39366/"
] | 7-zip will lose the whole archive even if there are only minor corruptions. This is because 7-zip only use [solid compression](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solid_compression), which means that all files are agglomerated together. However, 7-zip authors offer a tutorial on how to [manually try to fix your 7zip archive here](http://www.7-zip.org/recover.html).
If you want to be able to recover non corrupted files from a corrupted archive, you have to make a non-solid archive, such as a zip with DEFLATE. I tried several formats, including ARC which allows non-solid archives, but it was less resilient than zip. There is also the PEA format (by PEAzip) which allows for partial extraction, and RAR (by WinRAR) which specifically has an option ["keep broken files"](http://www.ghacks.net/2014/07/28/repair-extract-broken-rar-archives/) to allow partial extraction.
You can try by yourself various compression formats and see if you can still uncompress your data using [a simple data tampering python tool](https://github.com/lrq3000/pyFileFixity/blob/master/pyFileFixity/filetamper.py). | Depending on your needs it might be better to introduce the redundancy on another level. What I want to say is you rather think about another complete copy of the files rather than trying to alleviate partial damage. Then you regularly check the checksums of these files and whenever a problem arises you replace the defective hardware and copy from an intact backup again. |
9,217,236 | I have a problem where I have large database that take very long time to access partly because its normalized and requires a lot of joins (its very similar to start schema right now). However, I don't care about write time/potential write anomalies and need the database to be fast for analysis Can someone please point me to good text for database schemas that are well suited for analytics and not so much for online performance?
E.g. tables: 1 table has static product information and table 2 has instances of all the times the product was bought/viewed/... certain n actions done on it, and cost payed for each such action. A lot of my work involves finding certain products on which certain actions were done.
Thanks. | 2012/02/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9217236",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/247077/"
] | "Normalized" doesn't always mean "requires lots of joins". But using surrogate keys (id numbers) usually *does*.
Build a test database, normalizing to 5NF without using id numbers for anything that has a natural key. So, for example, no id numbers for countries (use the ISO code), states, ZIP codes, categories, etc.
This kind of structure implements a space/time tradeoff. Up to a certain point, and under certain conditions, natural keys will perform faster than surrogates, because often the "key" information (cough) is carried in the natural key. So you won't need a join to get to it. But there comes a point where surrogate keys are faster, because they require less I/O, and more rows will fit in a page. You need to test to determine where that point is, and whether you can live with it. | Keep your schema as it is - ie "correct", but index fully denormalized (ie ready to render) versions of your data in a [text search engine](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Full_text_search), for example [lucene](http://lucene.apache.org/core/).
Text search engines do not offer update or join capabilities, but they are *FAST*! You won't believe how fast until to see it for yourself, but it will be in the order of couple of milliseconds.
Text search engines are so fast because they use an [inverted index](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverted_index). I've implemented them a few times, and it's always been well worth it. All you need to do is make sure every time your real data changes, you re-index whatever is affected in your text search engine. |
5,840 | My kids have been doing Tae Kwon Do for 2 years and just wondering if there was a better system for them for now. I feel they will become black belts within a year but not have mastered everything due to their age. | 2015/12/26 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/5840",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/6560/"
] | I think BJJ is the best because it generally doesn't involve striking, which probably isn't good for kids. Wrestling is another great sport for kids. | A grappling art fits very well with this age group: Wrestling, BJJ or Judo will develop spatial awareness, balance and coordination in a safe and effective fashion. The quality of the instructor is key.
Finally, nobody is really a black belt in just two years... even if they happen to wear one. |
5,840 | My kids have been doing Tae Kwon Do for 2 years and just wondering if there was a better system for them for now. I feel they will become black belts within a year but not have mastered everything due to their age. | 2015/12/26 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/5840",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/6560/"
] | >
> not have mastered everything due to their age
>
>
>
Age has nothing to do with mastery - mastery is a combination of physical refinement and academic knowledge. So you can do a kick perfectly, but that doesn't mean in itself that you've mastered it - you also have to know how and when to deliver that physically perfect kick.
>
> I feel they will become black belts within a year
>
>
>
As already mentioned, a black belt is nothing, it is just another grade. Most schools also have a distinction between the kids black belt and an adult black belt - very seldom is the knowledge gained and the training undertaken anywhere near similar for each.
>
> My kids have been doing Tae Kwon Do for 2 years
>
>
>
To get all Zen like, this training time is but a blink of the eye. Two years for most styles/arts will only take you halfway through the coloured belt grades. The learning and time taken for the later coloured belts usually gets longer and harder.
>
> just wondering if there was a better system for them for now
>
>
>
Maybe yes, maybe no - we can't suggest what art would be best because we don't know your kids and have never seen them train. What really counts is the instructor they have, rather than the art they do. Cross training in another art is great and usually complements the skills gained in the main art they practice. This means they could gain from just about any other art they decide to train in. The only way you will know is to try them. They might even improve just by going to a different TKD school as a combination of a different teacher with different students may show up flaws in their technique. | A grappling art fits very well with this age group: Wrestling, BJJ or Judo will develop spatial awareness, balance and coordination in a safe and effective fashion. The quality of the instructor is key.
Finally, nobody is really a black belt in just two years... even if they happen to wear one. |
5,840 | My kids have been doing Tae Kwon Do for 2 years and just wondering if there was a better system for them for now. I feel they will become black belts within a year but not have mastered everything due to their age. | 2015/12/26 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/5840",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/6560/"
] | >
> My kids have been doing Tae Kwon Do for 2 years and just wondering if there was a better system for them for now.
>
>
>
At this age your kids should be having fun and developing gross motor skills. Taekwon-do might be great for them depending on the instructor. The instructor needs to instill discipline in the children, and at the same time teach them basic moves (and have fun learning, of course!). If your instructor is doing that now, then I see no need for a change.
>
> I feel they will become black belts within a year but not have mastered everything due to their age.
>
>
>
It doesn't matter what belt they wear, a white belt who is eager to learn is far better than a black belt who doesn't want to train.
So don't worry! Your kids are too young to master everything in Taekwon-do. They should be learning the most basic things and build their knowledge/skills from there. Be patient and things will fall into place. Who knows, they might want to pick up another martial art or fighting style. | A grappling art fits very well with this age group: Wrestling, BJJ or Judo will develop spatial awareness, balance and coordination in a safe and effective fashion. The quality of the instructor is key.
Finally, nobody is really a black belt in just two years... even if they happen to wear one. |
408,341 | I have an old laptop Sony Vaio vgn-s580p that has install problems with 12.04.3 and 13.04.
I have tried using the WUBI as well as burning an ISO directly for both versions. Any way I try to install it I get an error that is just white text on black with nothing that I understand.
Are there any known problems with this laptop and Ubuntu? Is it just too old to run?
Here's the gobbeldegook:
 | 2014/01/20 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/408341",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/237810/"
] | Found the answer! It was just an issue of configuring the boot options with nomodeset.
<http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1613132> | It seems that iso files you've got aren't right. Validate them here: <https://help.ubuntu.com/community/UbuntuHashes>
Also, you will need at least 512MB RAM to be able to run Ubuntu properly <https://help.ubuntu.com/community/Installation/SystemRequirements> |
408,341 | I have an old laptop Sony Vaio vgn-s580p that has install problems with 12.04.3 and 13.04.
I have tried using the WUBI as well as burning an ISO directly for both versions. Any way I try to install it I get an error that is just white text on black with nothing that I understand.
Are there any known problems with this laptop and Ubuntu? Is it just too old to run?
Here's the gobbeldegook:
 | 2014/01/20 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/408341",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/237810/"
] | Found the answer! It was just an issue of configuring the boot options with nomodeset.
<http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1613132> | don't worry, your laptop is not a problem to install Ubuntu 12.04.3 and 13.04.
make sure that your HDD partitions are primary partition for destination installation drive.
may be your ISO file ahve some missing files. Better try to install Ubuntu with the help of USB Pendrive.
steps:
1.download free ubuntu OS image file from <http://www.ubuntu.com/download>
2. make pendrive bootable by using "LinuxLive USB Creator 2.8.23" tool. its free and run the file.
3.sellect drive -> choose ISO/IMG file -> assign PERSISTENCE -> format the key in FAT32 -> Click lightning icon to create bootable.
4. then restart your system. |
179,968 | I can globally change text in terminal using .bashrc, but I can't figure out how to change the white background to black. Going to terminal preferences doesn't work either. | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/179968",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/99911/"
] | Been struggling with this too. Finally found out you have to deselect "use colors from my system theme" checkbox for custom settings to take effect | * For ls, modify the LS\_COLORS, in your .bashrc or .profile
export LS\_COLORS="rs=0:di=01;34:ln=01;36:mh=00:pi=40;33:so=01;35:do=01;35:bd=40;33;01:cd=40;33;01:or=40;31;01:mi=01;05;37;41:su=37;41:sg=30;43:ca=30;41:tw=30;42:ow=34;42:st=37;44:ex=01;32:*.tar=01;31:*.tgz=01;31:*.arj=01;31:*.taz=01;31:*.lzh=01;31:*.lzma=01;31:*.tlz=01;31:*.txz=01;31:*.zip=01;31:*.z=01;31:*.Z=01;31:*.dz=01;31:*.gz=01;31:*.lz=01;31:*.xz=01;31:*.bz2=01;31:*.tbz=01;31:*.tbz2=01;31:*.bz=01;31:*.tz=01;31:*.deb=01;31:*.rpm=01;31:*.jar=01;31:*.rar=01;31:*.ace=01;31:*.zoo=01;31:*.cpio=01;31:*.7z=01;31:*.rz=01;31:*.jpg=01;35:*.jpeg=01;35:*.gif=01;35:*.bmp=01;35:*.pbm=01;35:*.pgm=01;35:*.ppm=01;35:*.tga=01;35:*.xbm=01;35:*.xpm=01;35:*.tif=01;35:*.tiff=01;35:*.png=01;35:*.svg=01;35:*.svgz=01;35:*.mng=01;35:*.pcx=01;35:*.mov=01;35:*.mpg=01;35:*.mpeg=01;35:*.m2v=01;35:*.mkv=01;35:*.ogm=01;35:*.mp4=01;35:*.m4v=01;35:*.mp4v=01;35:*.vob=01;35:*.qt=01;35:*.nuv=01;35:*.wmv=01;35:*.asf=01;35:*.rm=01;35:*.rmvb=01;35:*.flc=01;35:*.avi=01;35:*.fli=01;35:*.flv=01;35:*.gl=01;35:*.dl=01;35:*.xcf=01;35:*.xwd=01;35:*.yuv=01;35:*.cgm=01;35:*.emf=01;35:*.axv=01;35:*.anx=01;35:*.ogv=01;35:*.ogx=01;35:*.aac=01;36:*.au=01;36:*.flac=01;36:*.mid=01;36:*.midi=01;36:*.mka=01;36:*.mp3=01;36:*.mpc=01;36:*.ogg=01;36:*.ra=01;36:*.wav=01;36:*.axa=01;36:*.oga=01;36:*.spx=01;36:*.xspf=01;36:"
<https://askubuntu.com/questions/466198/how-do-i-change-the-color-for-directories-with-ls-in-the-console>
* For vi, create the file .vimrc with contents
set background=dark |
179,968 | I can globally change text in terminal using .bashrc, but I can't figure out how to change the white background to black. Going to terminal preferences doesn't work either. | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/179968",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/99911/"
] | if you want to use black background go to Edit-Preferences and select "Use dark theme" checkbox | * For ls, modify the LS\_COLORS, in your .bashrc or .profile
export LS\_COLORS="rs=0:di=01;34:ln=01;36:mh=00:pi=40;33:so=01;35:do=01;35:bd=40;33;01:cd=40;33;01:or=40;31;01:mi=01;05;37;41:su=37;41:sg=30;43:ca=30;41:tw=30;42:ow=34;42:st=37;44:ex=01;32:*.tar=01;31:*.tgz=01;31:*.arj=01;31:*.taz=01;31:*.lzh=01;31:*.lzma=01;31:*.tlz=01;31:*.txz=01;31:*.zip=01;31:*.z=01;31:*.Z=01;31:*.dz=01;31:*.gz=01;31:*.lz=01;31:*.xz=01;31:*.bz2=01;31:*.tbz=01;31:*.tbz2=01;31:*.bz=01;31:*.tz=01;31:*.deb=01;31:*.rpm=01;31:*.jar=01;31:*.rar=01;31:*.ace=01;31:*.zoo=01;31:*.cpio=01;31:*.7z=01;31:*.rz=01;31:*.jpg=01;35:*.jpeg=01;35:*.gif=01;35:*.bmp=01;35:*.pbm=01;35:*.pgm=01;35:*.ppm=01;35:*.tga=01;35:*.xbm=01;35:*.xpm=01;35:*.tif=01;35:*.tiff=01;35:*.png=01;35:*.svg=01;35:*.svgz=01;35:*.mng=01;35:*.pcx=01;35:*.mov=01;35:*.mpg=01;35:*.mpeg=01;35:*.m2v=01;35:*.mkv=01;35:*.ogm=01;35:*.mp4=01;35:*.m4v=01;35:*.mp4v=01;35:*.vob=01;35:*.qt=01;35:*.nuv=01;35:*.wmv=01;35:*.asf=01;35:*.rm=01;35:*.rmvb=01;35:*.flc=01;35:*.avi=01;35:*.fli=01;35:*.flv=01;35:*.gl=01;35:*.dl=01;35:*.xcf=01;35:*.xwd=01;35:*.yuv=01;35:*.cgm=01;35:*.emf=01;35:*.axv=01;35:*.anx=01;35:*.ogv=01;35:*.ogx=01;35:*.aac=01;36:*.au=01;36:*.flac=01;36:*.mid=01;36:*.midi=01;36:*.mka=01;36:*.mp3=01;36:*.mpc=01;36:*.ogg=01;36:*.ra=01;36:*.wav=01;36:*.axa=01;36:*.oga=01;36:*.spx=01;36:*.xspf=01;36:"
<https://askubuntu.com/questions/466198/how-do-i-change-the-color-for-directories-with-ls-in-the-console>
* For vi, create the file .vimrc with contents
set background=dark |
61,782 | I picked up an old mavic wheel, and I'm having a tough time just finding some nuts for the axles. I went through a bin at my community bike shop and couldnt find anything that fit the threads.
The wheel says CXP 22 on it.
Is there a specific kind of nut I should be looking for for these wheels? | 2019/05/07 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/61782",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/43412/"
] | Turns out i needed race style nuts. The kind of nuts that have a flared end thats independent of the rest of the nut.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kAOJl.jpg) | You could always try taking the wheel to a fixing and fasteners specialist they would be able to measure and potentially match the thread and then supply you with the correct fittings. If that drew a blank and the thread turned out to be a extremely rare type and not obtainable then a set of QR axles and skewers are cheaply available online in different standard sizes and you could just swap out the axles for something more readily available without having to change your wheelset or hubs. |
622,460 | I have recently started studying computer organisation and found that in most of the books the design of computer system is not discussed beyond functional design abstraction level (as shown in the figure)
I want to know what is the procedure to physically implement functional design of a entire computer system (cpu+memory+I/O+system bus) into actual hardware (PCB)?
Thanks!
Fig. functional design of a computer (just for illustrative purpose)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bdELi.png) | 2022/06/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/622460",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76770/"
] | In the old days, there were IC chips designed to make it possible to build a CPU on a printed circuit board. These were geared toward a so-called bit-slice architecture. These days it's not so practical to build a CPU on a printed circuit board, and professional CPUs are obviously integrated on a single chip. These are designed in Hardware Description Languages (i.e. Verilog or VHDL), and then the tools synthesize that design into a format that can be produced by a fabrication facility. Technically, there's a step (lots of steps actually) in between HDL and fabrication where the transistors are placed and routed, and much like in PCB design, this is often (?) done by engineers. But yea, building a CPU at a PCB scale today is a novelty at best, and probably more frustration than it's worth. Simulation tools are very good after all! | Do you want something *useful* to use?
In which case we don't make computers from components these days, we buy microcontrollers on boards, like Arduino, or industrially-packaged devices like PLCs.
Or do you want to make something for learning and demonstration purposes?
In which case you might want to head over to the [RetroComputing](https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com) board, where there are plenty of people building computing machines from the ground up, who would have all the resources you need. |
622,460 | I have recently started studying computer organisation and found that in most of the books the design of computer system is not discussed beyond functional design abstraction level (as shown in the figure)
I want to know what is the procedure to physically implement functional design of a entire computer system (cpu+memory+I/O+system bus) into actual hardware (PCB)?
Thanks!
Fig. functional design of a computer (just for illustrative purpose)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bdELi.png) | 2022/06/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/622460",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76770/"
] | The many of the first computers were built with discrete IC's, either by soldering or wirewrapping them together.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QMhcB.jpg)
Source: [Fan-out of the Intel 8086](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/378339/fan-out-of-the-intel-8086/378353#378353)
You can still purchase many of these chips and either build your own PCB or wirewrap them together. If you want to do this from 7400 series logic or equivalent, that can also be done. It could take anywhere from 20 to 100 Hours of time to wirewrap or design a PCB to do this, and it's a very educational experience (especially learning how to boot and run the computer with assembly). But a 2$ microprocessor can also do the same thing. | Do you want something *useful* to use?
In which case we don't make computers from components these days, we buy microcontrollers on boards, like Arduino, or industrially-packaged devices like PLCs.
Or do you want to make something for learning and demonstration purposes?
In which case you might want to head over to the [RetroComputing](https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com) board, where there are plenty of people building computing machines from the ground up, who would have all the resources you need. |
622,460 | I have recently started studying computer organisation and found that in most of the books the design of computer system is not discussed beyond functional design abstraction level (as shown in the figure)
I want to know what is the procedure to physically implement functional design of a entire computer system (cpu+memory+I/O+system bus) into actual hardware (PCB)?
Thanks!
Fig. functional design of a computer (just for illustrative purpose)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bdELi.png) | 2022/06/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/622460",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76770/"
] | In the old days, there were IC chips designed to make it possible to build a CPU on a printed circuit board. These were geared toward a so-called bit-slice architecture. These days it's not so practical to build a CPU on a printed circuit board, and professional CPUs are obviously integrated on a single chip. These are designed in Hardware Description Languages (i.e. Verilog or VHDL), and then the tools synthesize that design into a format that can be produced by a fabrication facility. Technically, there's a step (lots of steps actually) in between HDL and fabrication where the transistors are placed and routed, and much like in PCB design, this is often (?) done by engineers. But yea, building a CPU at a PCB scale today is a novelty at best, and probably more frustration than it's worth. Simulation tools are very good after all! | If you are really interested in the "deep" hardware of microcomputers, see this:
PicoBlaze or MicroBlaze ...
<https://www.xilinx.com/products/intellectual-property/picoblaze.html>
<https://web.archive.org/web/20061212041830/http://www.xilinx.com/bvdocs/appnotes/xapp213.pdf>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mvHS7.png) |
622,460 | I have recently started studying computer organisation and found that in most of the books the design of computer system is not discussed beyond functional design abstraction level (as shown in the figure)
I want to know what is the procedure to physically implement functional design of a entire computer system (cpu+memory+I/O+system bus) into actual hardware (PCB)?
Thanks!
Fig. functional design of a computer (just for illustrative purpose)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bdELi.png) | 2022/06/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/622460",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76770/"
] | The many of the first computers were built with discrete IC's, either by soldering or wirewrapping them together.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QMhcB.jpg)
Source: [Fan-out of the Intel 8086](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/378339/fan-out-of-the-intel-8086/378353#378353)
You can still purchase many of these chips and either build your own PCB or wirewrap them together. If you want to do this from 7400 series logic or equivalent, that can also be done. It could take anywhere from 20 to 100 Hours of time to wirewrap or design a PCB to do this, and it's a very educational experience (especially learning how to boot and run the computer with assembly). But a 2$ microprocessor can also do the same thing. | If you are really interested in the "deep" hardware of microcomputers, see this:
PicoBlaze or MicroBlaze ...
<https://www.xilinx.com/products/intellectual-property/picoblaze.html>
<https://web.archive.org/web/20061212041830/http://www.xilinx.com/bvdocs/appnotes/xapp213.pdf>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mvHS7.png) |
341,977 | The *Development Team* is responsible for creating/updating the *definition of “Done”*.
According to official Scrum framework, WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to create/update their definition of “Done”?
1. WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to initially **create** the *definition of “Done”*?
2. WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to **update** the *definition of “Done”*? | 2017/02/10 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/341977",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/262006/"
] | 1. Answer to 1st part:
* IMHO, during *Sprint Planning* at the very first Sprint? (I could verify this.)
2. Answer to 2nd part:
* During *Sprint Retrospective*.
>
> "During each *Sprint Retrospective*, the Scrum Team plans ways to increase product quality by adapting the *definition of “Done”* as appropriate." (compare [Scrumguides.org](http://www.scrumguides.org/scrum-guide.html#events-retro))
>
>
> | The Scrum guide is explicit in this topic. “Scrum is founded on empirical process control theory, or empiricism” and “Three pillars uphold every implementation of empirical process control: transparency, inspection, and adaptation”. Considering that, the update of the Definition of Done is the adaptation of this, it must be performed ASAP.
Some doubts about the opportunity of the update of DoD, may exist, because the Scrum Guide says that “During each Sprint Retrospective, the Scrum Team plans ways to increase product quality by adapting the definition of Done as appropriate”, but after it says that “Although improvements may be implemented at any time, the Sprint Retrospective provides a formal opportunity to focus on inspection and adaptation”.
Then, the sprint retrospective is a formal opportunity for inspection and adaptation of the DoD, but this must be done when this is necessary. |
341,977 | The *Development Team* is responsible for creating/updating the *definition of “Done”*.
According to official Scrum framework, WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to create/update their definition of “Done”?
1. WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to initially **create** the *definition of “Done”*?
2. WHEN is it most appropriate for a *Development Team* to **update** the *definition of “Done”*? | 2017/02/10 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/341977",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/262006/"
] | 1. As soon as possible. The Scrum guide does not describe this. Personally I would do it when the team is complete member wise. Preferable during the first sprint, before the first PBI is completed. Recently I have done a [one hour DoD workshop](https://waynedgrant.wordpress.com/2013/12/11/definition-of-done-workshop/) to get the initial DoD for a new team.
[Scrum shock therapy](https://www.scruminc.com/scrum-shock-therapy-how-to-change-teams/) has a DoD to get started with, maybe just use that during the first sprint:
>
> * Feature Complete
> * Code Complete
> * No known defects
> * Approved by the Product Owner
> * Production Ready
>
>
>
2. The Scrum guide [suggests that retrospectives](http://www.scrumguides.org/scrum-guide.html#events-retro) should lead to an adapted DoD. Personally I think you should update it whenever you have new insights that should be on the DoD. This could also be during planning, daily-scrums or review sessions.
>
> During each Sprint Retrospective, the Scrum Team plans ways to
> increase product quality by adapting the definition of “Done” as
> appropriate.
>
>
> | The Scrum guide is explicit in this topic. “Scrum is founded on empirical process control theory, or empiricism” and “Three pillars uphold every implementation of empirical process control: transparency, inspection, and adaptation”. Considering that, the update of the Definition of Done is the adaptation of this, it must be performed ASAP.
Some doubts about the opportunity of the update of DoD, may exist, because the Scrum Guide says that “During each Sprint Retrospective, the Scrum Team plans ways to increase product quality by adapting the definition of Done as appropriate”, but after it says that “Although improvements may be implemented at any time, the Sprint Retrospective provides a formal opportunity to focus on inspection and adaptation”.
Then, the sprint retrospective is a formal opportunity for inspection and adaptation of the DoD, but this must be done when this is necessary. |
127,690 | It's about time to replace my anode rod in my 40 gallon water heater. I am interested in trying one of these actively powered models: [https://www.amazon.com/Corro-Protec-CP-R-Titanium-Powered-Heater/dp/B01H459TAK/ref=cm\_cr\_arp\_d\_product\_top?ie=UTF8](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B01H459TAK)
because if the advert is true, this should take care of corrosion "forever", well at least with a 20 year warranty.
The major difference between this one and a standard noble-metal version, other than the fact that it's powered and made of titanium, is how short of a rod this one has. I'm assuming the rod needs to be somewhat submerged to have an effect.
How full does a home water heater usually stay? Is there a high/low water-level threshold used to determine when to control more water, or is it a continual refill? | 2017/11/24 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/127690",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/61094/"
] | A water heater stays 100% full all of the time due to the fact replacement cold water (to be heated) is being added via the cold water inlet line at the top of the water heater each time a hot water tap is opened. | Let me speak to the changing of an anode rod. I would agree that depending upon the water quality in your area, the rod may need to be changed a couple of times over the life of the tank. Regarding the fullness of the tank, it is indeed 100% full all the time. If you are concerned about the spillage of water in he process of pulling the old rod, once you shut the water off to the tank, just open a hot water faucet some where in the house lower than the top of the tank for a minute. Minimal water spillage; minimal cleanup.
Now to the difficult part. The manufacturers of these tanks for some reason are just sure that there is a very good chance of water leakage around the connecting threads of the anode rod itself. The rods are installed with such force that it is at a minimum a two man job to remove them. And even with two experienced men, it can be very difficult. Forewarned is Forearmed. |
4,943 | Well, I wanted to use some very small servos for a project and the smallest I could find there these:
<https://www.hobbyking.com/hobbyking/store/uh_viewItem.asp?idProduct=33401>
But Danny Choo (a Japanese blogger) started a business with robotic dolls some time ago and I remember him mentioning somewhere on his site that he uses servos in his dolls.
(also this pic, containing doll nudity: <https://farm4.staticflickr.com/3889/14502508165_fde682636b_o.jpg>)
This is about 60cm in height and therefore the servo in my first link is obviously too big, to e.g. fit inside the arm.
I was wondering what kind of servo(or motor in general if it's not a servo in the end) he is using that is so tiny it can fit in there.
Does anyone here have any idea? | 2014/11/09 | [
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/questions/4943",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/users/7402/"
] | The first image shows some tiny gear motors. They look kind of like this one <https://solarbotics.com/product/gm18/> from solarbotics, but smaller. Solarbotics also has some smaller geared pager motors you should look into.
Toys like this almost definitely use a custom motor and gearbox. When you tell the far-east manufacturer that you want to produce X million, they take your specs, and shop it around to their motor and gearbox houses. Then they get a completely custom motor and gearbox for dirt cheap.
I don't think i've ever seen a standard "hobby" servo in a mass manufactured product. they are too big and expensive. After all, a servo is just a motor with some type of angular feedback so a little bit of code can drive (i.e. servo) the motor to a desired angle. In a product, you want more control over where to put the sensing, and you can integrate the drive electronics with the rest of your system. | I'm currently building an humanoid and I was starting from a ball join base so, I have done a lot a research onn how to mechanise them until I found ***Danny Choo*** who give us a brilliant couple of solution. So I do the exact same things than you and ***Danny Choo***
I source the majority of my components from aliexpress since there is a lot for an humanoid. And I found that tiny motors for a ridiculous amount of cost.
that is what you are looking for, for the arm :
<http://fr.aliexpress.com/item/10PCS-DC-3V-6V-9V-micro-Planetary-gear-motor-Variable-Speed-Gearmotor-micro/32239559111.html>
some other results here
<http://fr.aliexpress.com/w/wholesale-planetary.html?initiative_id=SB_20150511024702&site=fra&groupsort=1&SortType=price_asc&shipCountry=fr&SearchText=planetary>
<http://fr.aliexpress.com/w/wholesale-planetary.html?initiative_id=SB_20150511024702&site=fra&groupsort=1&SortType=price_asc&shipCountry=fr&SearchText=planetary>
Solarbotic is really expensive, too much, the prices are insane, I never bought anythings to that seller for that reason.
you rather try aliexpress and buy your items directly from china where it is build, you could experiments some huge delay as the goods travel by boat. be aware of exchanges taxes shipping cost etc...
Keep in mind that you should add some postion sensor and electronic and programming to have a working servo. you should apreciate that :
<http://fr.aliexpress.com/item/Plastic-motor-crown-gear-white-eleven-kinds-of-standard-module-0-5-for-DIY/32229478401.html>
I didn't found a sensor to do the job yet.
before buying try to know how much tork you need and how much you'll get from the motor. |
54,939 | I am practicing major scales on guitar(2 notes per string). Going from String Low E to high E, I move my pick downward for 1st note and upward for 2nd note of the string. My question is what should be the direction(upward/downward) of the pick when I play the scales reverse(from String High E to Low E) ? | 2017/04/02 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/54939",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38187/"
] | In many beginning techniques the student is taught to keep a steady down - up pattern with the pick, to develop the muscle memory of the regular rhythm. Phrases should always start with a down pick.
To work on this, you should keep playing whatever the next direction of the pick is until you end the phrase, no double picking even on string changes (no up-ups or down-downs).
When starting the scale again on the high E, you should start with a down pick and continue the down-up pattern to the end.
EDIT: for more clarity.
The technique work I'm describing works rhythmic muscle memory of the down - up motion, specifically to build a regular motion and avoid attempts to double down or double up.
You can go up the strings with an up - down pattern as long as you keep the rhythm steady and don't double pick. You can also work just up-down, the point is to have each pick stroke alternate.
Eventually players will be able to choose whether to switch to up or down picking in a certain passage. | Practise it down up strokes
Practise it up down strokes
Then practise it starting on each of your four LH fingers. There will be different numbers of notes on the strings.
Then you'll be ready for anything. |
54,939 | I am practicing major scales on guitar(2 notes per string). Going from String Low E to high E, I move my pick downward for 1st note and upward for 2nd note of the string. My question is what should be the direction(upward/downward) of the pick when I play the scales reverse(from String High E to Low E) ? | 2017/04/02 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/54939",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/38187/"
] | This is something you really need to sort out for yourself. There are going to be anomalies in picking direction at some point in whatever anyone chooses to play. There will be times when the well revered alternate pick routine just needs to be changed, albeit for one stroke.
Part of the fun of learning something is to find your own way, rather than be guided by others. This is one such instance. Try alternatives, and if it works for you, stick with it. | Practise it down up strokes
Practise it up down strokes
Then practise it starting on each of your four LH fingers. There will be different numbers of notes on the strings.
Then you'll be ready for anything. |
6,476 | For example I have an idea to serve customer request which lets businesses handle a greater variety of customers or an idea which helps customers achieve what they want easier and in a shorter time. Can these ideas be patented? | 2014/04/24 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/6476",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/8424/"
] | There are several characteristics that a patent office will look at to determine whether the invention is patentable. These are:
1. Novelty
2. Inventive Step/Non-Obviousness
3. Industrial Applicability/Utility
It should also have a patentable subject matter.
You can search your innovation in the existing patent ([Google Patent Search](https://patents.google.com) or <http://patft.uspto.gov/netahtml/PTO/index.html/>) list. If there is no existing patent, published application, or other published document predating your application, then yes it is patentable. But it must pass all predefined test to get patent. | Patent laws are dependent on the jurisdictions in question. Your question does not explicitly state about which region (country) you are bothered about ? Whether do you want to know if this kind of an idea is patentable in America, Europe or Japan, etc. ? So taking a hypothetical case, the USPTO is quite liberal when compared to many other patent offices (which are more stringent about what qualifies for a patent). Your idea is essentially a business method, and hence it will be patentable in the USA. At the same time other stringent offices like EPO and IPO will not give you patents for such ideas because their patent laws explicitly state that abstract business methods are not patentable. |
6,476 | For example I have an idea to serve customer request which lets businesses handle a greater variety of customers or an idea which helps customers achieve what they want easier and in a shorter time. Can these ideas be patented? | 2014/04/24 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/6476",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/8424/"
] | **This answer relates to two issues. First, "is an idea patentable" and second, "what is an idea"**. Let's start with unpacking the first issue.
**Can you get a patent on an idea?**
On a most basic level, you cannot get a patent on an idea. You get a patent which covers certain implementations of the idea. This sounds like a quibble, but in the US, for example, if you did somehow manage to cover all possible implementations of an idea, the patent can be found invalid for that reason.
Moving one level up, **Can I get a patent on a method implemented using a computer?** The answer is **sometimes** yes and sometimes no and depending on the country and the technology. The USPTO is quite confused and the issue is evolving. This [link](https://www.uspto.gov/sites/default/files/documents/ieg-bus-meth-exs-dec2016.pdf) is a list of analyzed examples posted by the USPTO, some considered eligible and some not.
There is lots more where that comes from, like [here](https://www.uspto.gov/patent/laws-and-regulations/examination-policy/subject-matter-eligibility). But the answer is **often**.
The *JPO* (Japan) is clear that one **[might](https://www.jpo.go.jp/tetuzuki_e/t_tokkyo_e/files_guidelines_e/03_0100_e.pdf)** get protection for business and game related ideas, see especially page 7, section (2). The test is does the invention involve "creation of a technical idea utilizing the laws of nature".
The *EPO* (Europe) has a special trick where the business problem being solved is [ignored](https://www.epo.org/law-practice/legal-texts/html/guidelines/e/g_vii_5_4_2.htm), leading many inventions to being trivial.
**Can I get a patent on my new system?** One job of a patent professional is to figure out how to get you a patent in spite of the obstacles placed by the law and the prior art. So the answer is usually, **Yes**.
At the practical level one should ask: **Can I get a useful patent (to help my business goals)?**
This is a very fact-specific question and involves a multiprong analysis, including at least:
(a) How and where IP protection would help your business – so you should understand your business and your competitors, and
(b) What IP protection is possible - taking into account prior art, law, inventions.
**Idea vs. implementation**
This issue is at the heart of the "abstract idea" problem in the US, regarding software related inventions. Personally, I find that it is a continuum, as you add more detail, you go from a vision, to an abstract idea, to a general implementation, to a very specific and complete implementation.
If you read the [law](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/35/101), you get a patent on a process or a machine, etc., not on the idea of one. When drafting a patent application you want to claim as abstractly as you can get away with but describe in far more detail. One way of thinking about this is: If somebody copies your idea but provides a different implementation, do you think your patent should have covered it? This is a significant dilemma in patents: **The patent gives away the idea and the patent protects only some implementations thereof**.
A patent is like a cookbook. Somebody reading it should be able to follow the recipe and get the result. But the law **intends** that the same somebody be inspired by the cookbook and only gives you protection for the particular recipes **actually** described in the cookbook. In patent terms, protection is **only** for recipes or families of recipes as described and some amount of equivalents and recipes with additional ingredients, but not for other recipes that were **inspired** by reading the cookbook but use different ingredients.
*Example 1*
If you describe and claim "f=a+b", the patent possibly will not cover "f=b+a", even though they are mathematically equivalent.
*Example 2*
You file a patent on a method of filtering out customers by age and somebody else filters by shoe size or height (a reasonably good proxy for child/adult distinction), is it the same idea?
**Take home**
(1) If you ask a patent attorney to file a patent for your implementation, he will. Possibly, to your detriment.
(2) If you want to protect your idea, you need to identify it and in particular the abstract ideas behind the implementation, understand its (business) ramifications and protect all useful implementation(s), not just your own.
(3) You have to assume you will not figure out all the implementations or ramifications of your idea before you file. In fact, really understanding your idea can take years. | Patent laws are dependent on the jurisdictions in question. Your question does not explicitly state about which region (country) you are bothered about ? Whether do you want to know if this kind of an idea is patentable in America, Europe or Japan, etc. ? So taking a hypothetical case, the USPTO is quite liberal when compared to many other patent offices (which are more stringent about what qualifies for a patent). Your idea is essentially a business method, and hence it will be patentable in the USA. At the same time other stringent offices like EPO and IPO will not give you patents for such ideas because their patent laws explicitly state that abstract business methods are not patentable. |
138,352 | Following the technet articles on how to get external data into SharePoint 2013 (for testing purposes) I've created:
* Business Data Connectivity Service with Metadata Store Permissions
* Secure Store Service Application (SSS) with SQL Server credentials (and not windows credentials, since they fail too)
The credentials in SSS are owners of the database *Northwind* I'm trying to connect to. When signing in with SQL Server Credentials, the user can read and execute the database as expected.
In SharePoint Designer I'm adding the new External Content Type, providing it a name and database server, database and connecting with Impersonated custom identity referencing the SSS. When I provide the SQL Server Credentials, it fails to connect asking for windows credentials. But since windows credentials don't work on the SQL Server login either, I'm stuck in a loop I can't get out of.
Error from SharePoint Designer
Error from SQL Server Log
The Web Application has service connection to BDC, and in the Secure Store Service Application *Everyone* is member. Still - no connection made because of the access denied error. Why is that, and how do I overcome this issue? | 2015/04/15 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/138352",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/6382/"
] | As it turned out, I needed to configure an External Content Type Profile Page Host within the Business Data Connectivity Service.
When the ECT Profile Page Host was configured, I could connect to the database and see the tables from the database within SharePoint Designer.
 | SharePoint Designer does not use the Secure Store connection. Try creating the ECT first by connecting with user's identity. Once the ECT is created, modify the properties to use the Secure Store application ID. |
138,352 | Following the technet articles on how to get external data into SharePoint 2013 (for testing purposes) I've created:
* Business Data Connectivity Service with Metadata Store Permissions
* Secure Store Service Application (SSS) with SQL Server credentials (and not windows credentials, since they fail too)
The credentials in SSS are owners of the database *Northwind* I'm trying to connect to. When signing in with SQL Server Credentials, the user can read and execute the database as expected.
In SharePoint Designer I'm adding the new External Content Type, providing it a name and database server, database and connecting with Impersonated custom identity referencing the SSS. When I provide the SQL Server Credentials, it fails to connect asking for windows credentials. But since windows credentials don't work on the SQL Server login either, I'm stuck in a loop I can't get out of.
Error from SharePoint Designer
Error from SQL Server Log
The Web Application has service connection to BDC, and in the Secure Store Service Application *Everyone* is member. Still - no connection made because of the access denied error. Why is that, and how do I overcome this issue? | 2015/04/15 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/138352",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/6382/"
] | As it turned out, I needed to configure an External Content Type Profile Page Host within the Business Data Connectivity Service.
When the ECT Profile Page Host was configured, I could connect to the database and see the tables from the database within SharePoint Designer.
 | I had to grant Metadata Store Permissions:
Central Administration > Application Management > Manage service applications > BDC Service Application
* click **'Set Metadata Store Permission'**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6QtLO.png)
* then add your user and permisisons
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eRp0x.png) |
176,332 | I'm a British citizen living in the Netherlands with a permanent residence permit with type "PERMANENT RESIDENCE DOCUMENT WITHDRAWAL AGREEMENT ART. 18(1)"
According to the [website](https://ind.nl/en/living-in-the-netherlands-with-a-residence-permit/main-residency) for the Immigration and Naturalisation Services (IND) I can spend 6 months at maximum outside the Netherlands.
Typically when leaving and reentering the Netherlands they don't stamp my passport, but last time I left they did stamp it. Then when I came back ten days later they didn't stamp it.
My concern is that if I go on holiday outside Schengen next year (after the 6 months are up) and they look at my passport it'll look like I've been outside the country for too long. Another possibility is that when applying for a replacement card (the card needs to be replaced every 10 years) the IND might look at this stamp and get confused about how long I spent outside the country. Another situation where they might get confused is if I apply to naturalise and they look at my passport, and again get confused about how long I spent outside the country.
So basically my question is this, should I be concerned about this stamp at all? Does it have any legal implications at all? | 2022/09/14 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/176332",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/130835/"
] | According to the EC:
>
> Depending on national law, border guards may stamp your passport when entering and exiting your country of residence. **This practice does not serve any real purpose** as the 90-day stay limitation does not apply to beneficiaries of the EU-UK Withdrawal Agreement (including their family members) when travelling to their EU country of residence. However, to prove your residence status and associated rights (i.e. the non-applicability of the 90-day stay limitation in a 180-day period), we advise you to show your national residence documents issued (under the EU-UK Withdrawal Agreement) in your EU country of residence when crossing an external Schengen border.
>
>
>
[Furthermore](https://ec.europa.eu/info/sites/default/files/rules_for_uk_nationals_when_entering_or_leaving_the_schengen_area_for_publication_v2_en.pdf)
>
> The Commission recommends – notably as regards beneficiaries of the Withdrawal Agreement – that
> Member State border guards refrain from stamping. In any case, should stamping nevertheless take
> place, such stamp cannot affect the length of the authorised long-term stay.
>
>
>
Hence, if you have a 'missing' stamp, under EU law and the withdrawal agreement, this should not be used to infer anything about the length of time you have spent outside the EU. There are any number of reasons you would not have been stamped on entering or leaving, including departing or entering Schengen through a country who is actually following the EC's directive on stamping.
You might wish to keep additional records of your entry/departure from Schengen such as boarding passes just in case you are ever questioned on your residence status. | Whatever happens with your stamp, it is widely recognized as weak evidence. Even for visitors suspected of overstaying, the Schengen Borders Code says that other evidence can be used to show that the stamps are incorrect. That must be even more true for someone whose right of permanent residence is in question.
Even if you don't have records of your actual travel, as MJeffryes wisely suggests, other evidence that you are in the Netherlands will be useful. In fact, such evidence will be more useful, because the stamps only show your arrival in and departure from *the Schengen area,* not necessarily the Netherlands. Even incontrovertible proof that you arrived in Schiphol in January and never boarded a plane until you left from Schiphol in December does not prove that you were in the Netherlands for those eleven months, since you could have left the Netherlands on the same day and spent the next eleven months in Italy.
Don't worry about the stamp. |
175,366 | If I download a twrp image depending on the MTK processor version and not the device name/ manufacturer, will I be wrong ? and will it be 100% working?
Note: the device is not rooted, I am actually trying to root it this way(No other way is working), so let's focus on the question. | 2017/05/22 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/175366",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/221403/"
] | It doesn't work that way.
TWRP depends heavily on the `fstab` of the device model in question, which describes the partition layout of the storage. This is not related to the SoC (processor), and almost never the same between different models. | You would probably get your device bricked. When you are making a TWRP (porting or building from source) it will need your kernel, so no, TWRP from other device won't on your device. |
175,366 | If I download a twrp image depending on the MTK processor version and not the device name/ manufacturer, will I be wrong ? and will it be 100% working?
Note: the device is not rooted, I am actually trying to root it this way(No other way is working), so let's focus on the question. | 2017/05/22 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/175366",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/221403/"
] | It doesn't work that way.
TWRP depends heavily on the `fstab` of the device model in question, which describes the partition layout of the storage. This is not related to the SoC (processor), and almost never the same between different models. | Knowing the chipset is one step. You need to also know the Android version of your device. Then download a working TWRP for the MT6735 on the same Android version. You can then port it to your device as usual.
Just flashing the downloaded recovery may not work/boot up unless you port the kernel files, storage files, base etc using that from your own stock recovery. If you do this, you will get a working TWRP for your device. |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | If you're looking to develop a native GUI for Windows or OSX, I'd advise using Tkinter (i.e., the GUI library Tk with pythonic clothes on) as that gets you much closer to the native look than wxPython (wxWidgets for python). I'm not finding it easy to quantify, but to my eyes the [Windows and OSX screenshots](http://www.wxwidgets.org/about/screensh.htm). YMMV. I do know that Tk (*important:* with the Ttk widget set) is very strongly native looking.
If you're developing for Linux… I can't really honestly advise one over the other, as I've lost track what the current favored platform look is there. :-) | I would say it's a good choice if you already know and like Python. Otherwise, use the language you already know, which is Java. The one exception here is if this is a learning project, in which case I would suggest that getting experience with other languages would be a good idea.
My point here is that Python is not really any better or worse than Java for UI applications, so use whichever tool you like working with. |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | I would say it's a good choice if you already know and like Python. Otherwise, use the language you already know, which is Java. The one exception here is if this is a learning project, in which case I would suggest that getting experience with other languages would be a good idea.
My point here is that Python is not really any better or worse than Java for UI applications, so use whichever tool you like working with. | I think certain types of applications are fairly managable to write in Python.
For example [Task Coach](http://www.taskcoach.org/) is written in Python/wxPython. They use a Python2exe compiler like py2app, py2exe etc to create cross-platform, native-looking executables. |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | If you're looking to develop a native GUI for Windows or OSX, I'd advise using Tkinter (i.e., the GUI library Tk with pythonic clothes on) as that gets you much closer to the native look than wxPython (wxWidgets for python). I'm not finding it easy to quantify, but to my eyes the [Windows and OSX screenshots](http://www.wxwidgets.org/about/screensh.htm). YMMV. I do know that Tk (*important:* with the Ttk widget set) is very strongly native looking.
If you're developing for Linux… I can't really honestly advise one over the other, as I've lost track what the current favored platform look is there. :-) | The only real advice one can give for all questions like this is "give it a try and see if you like it" - other peoples opinions on programming languages (particularly on what may be their most loved or most hated languages) are rarely worth much.
However, my 5 cents worth - for knocking up quick, simple Windows GUIs, the combination of Python and wxWidgets works very well. But as I said, try it for yourself - you can put together something simple but useful in an hour or so, even without much Python experience (I certainly don't have much). |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | If you're looking to develop a native GUI for Windows or OSX, I'd advise using Tkinter (i.e., the GUI library Tk with pythonic clothes on) as that gets you much closer to the native look than wxPython (wxWidgets for python). I'm not finding it easy to quantify, but to my eyes the [Windows and OSX screenshots](http://www.wxwidgets.org/about/screensh.htm). YMMV. I do know that Tk (*important:* with the Ttk widget set) is very strongly native looking.
If you're developing for Linux… I can't really honestly advise one over the other, as I've lost track what the current favored platform look is there. :-) | In case anyone ends up here via search engine: you can quickly generate some Tkinter examples using the PAGE generator. It generates some decent code that will give you the idea of what it will take to get where you are wanting to go. It definitely requires you to acquiesce to generality, as the author states, but for someone wanting to test the waters or get a general idea of where they are going it is a good tool.
[PAGE on SourceForge](http://page.sourceforge.net/html/intro.html#). |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | I would say it's a good choice if you already know and like Python. Otherwise, use the language you already know, which is Java. The one exception here is if this is a learning project, in which case I would suggest that getting experience with other languages would be a good idea.
My point here is that Python is not really any better or worse than Java for UI applications, so use whichever tool you like working with. | In case anyone ends up here via search engine: you can quickly generate some Tkinter examples using the PAGE generator. It generates some decent code that will give you the idea of what it will take to get where you are wanting to go. It definitely requires you to acquiesce to generality, as the author states, but for someone wanting to test the waters or get a general idea of where they are going it is a good tool.
[PAGE on SourceForge](http://page.sourceforge.net/html/intro.html#). |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | The only real advice one can give for all questions like this is "give it a try and see if you like it" - other peoples opinions on programming languages (particularly on what may be their most loved or most hated languages) are rarely worth much.
However, my 5 cents worth - for knocking up quick, simple Windows GUIs, the combination of Python and wxWidgets works very well. But as I said, try it for yourself - you can put together something simple but useful in an hour or so, even without much Python experience (I certainly don't have much). | If you are restricted to developing in the Windows ecosystem, and use Visual Studio, then consider Iron Python. Iron Python is Python plus .NET objects. |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | If you're looking to develop a native GUI for Windows or OSX, I'd advise using Tkinter (i.e., the GUI library Tk with pythonic clothes on) as that gets you much closer to the native look than wxPython (wxWidgets for python). I'm not finding it easy to quantify, but to my eyes the [Windows and OSX screenshots](http://www.wxwidgets.org/about/screensh.htm). YMMV. I do know that Tk (*important:* with the Ttk widget set) is very strongly native looking.
If you're developing for Linux… I can't really honestly advise one over the other, as I've lost track what the current favored platform look is there. :-) | I think certain types of applications are fairly managable to write in Python.
For example [Task Coach](http://www.taskcoach.org/) is written in Python/wxPython. They use a Python2exe compiler like py2app, py2exe etc to create cross-platform, native-looking executables. |
84,114 | I'm looking forward to develop a desktop application using Python. I'm a beginner and I don't have sufficient expertise in Python. I'm also a Java programmer. Although I have some experience in building UIs using Swing, I see that apps developed on Swing are too damn slow. Well this might be one reason why many of the major implementations are done in C/C++ as in browsers/games.
Developing a UI in C++ might be a better option but I prefer to chose a high level programming language over C/C++. So I have opted for Python presuming that it would perform well over Java Swing as Python itself is natively build on C/C++.
So can I go ahead with this assumption that Python is better than Java Swing to develop an UI? Or do you suggest a language that is better than Python to develop UIs? If at all I go ahead with Python, which toolkit should I use Tkinter or wxPython and why? | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/84114",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/23010/"
] | The only real advice one can give for all questions like this is "give it a try and see if you like it" - other peoples opinions on programming languages (particularly on what may be their most loved or most hated languages) are rarely worth much.
However, my 5 cents worth - for knocking up quick, simple Windows GUIs, the combination of Python and wxWidgets works very well. But as I said, try it for yourself - you can put together something simple but useful in an hour or so, even without much Python experience (I certainly don't have much). | I think certain types of applications are fairly managable to write in Python.
For example [Task Coach](http://www.taskcoach.org/) is written in Python/wxPython. They use a Python2exe compiler like py2app, py2exe etc to create cross-platform, native-looking executables. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | Yes.
The current best-known example isn't strictly character-by-character, but [Wi-Fi Protected Setup](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wifi_Protected_Setup) splits the key in two halves and verifies them independently, which permits an attacker to brute-force the first half and then the second half (and makes doing so much easier).
Less well-known but possibly more damaging are various [timing attacks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timing_attack) where verification of a key, password, or other secret is done on a byte-by-byte basis, returning failure on the first mismatch. This lets an attacker know the first incorrect byte when guessing the secret, so they can figure it out one byte at a time.
Since this is a known type of attack, good cryptosystems are designed to prevent it, but as the WPS example shows, there are a lot of cryptosystems out there that aren't well-designed. | I'm not aware of any real-world cases where this is possible. There are some cryptosystems where weaknesses have allowed you to learn about specific bits (i.e., RC4 keystream bias), but even these are largely theoretical weaknesses.
Movies and TV shows portray security (and many other topics) in a way that is intended to be fascinating to your average viewer, not technologically accurate. Having a bunch of GPUs cranking away for hours or days and then suddenly getting an answer: not interesting. Similarly, staring at Burp proxy, not interesting; writing a [GUI interface using visual basic to track the killer's IP address](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hkDD03yeLnU), interesting. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | If an encryption system allows for character-per-character cracking, then it is awfully weak, and should not be used.
Mathematically, block ciphers are defined as [pseudorandom permutations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudorandom_permutation). A block cipher works over the space of blocks of length *n* bits; such a space has size 2*n*. There are 2*n*! permutations over that space (that's a factorial, meaning that the number of possible permutations is *huge*). A secure block cipher is such that it is indistinguishable from a permutation selected at random, uniformly, in the space of possible permutations: each key is supposed to correspond to such a random choice of permutation, and, crucially, all choices for all possible key values are independent of each other.
What this means, in mundane words, is that for a secure block cipher, either you have the whole key, exact down to the last bit, or you have nothing. Contrary to Hollywood depictions, an "almost good" key does not result in a "blurry plaintext": if even one key bit is wrong, you should get random junk (that is, an output which is sufficiently indistinguishable from random junk that you cannot know whether you are close to the right key or not).
---
Of course, if the encryption system is weak, anything goes. @Mark cites a case of "splitting" (in WPS) which is an atrocious weakness that can, indeed, be exploited for faster attacks. [Padding oracle attacks](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Padding_oracle_attack) also work over a byte-by-byte leak which allows for byte-by-byte reconstruction of the plaintext (not the key, but still).
Another, more technical example, is the [old PKZip stream cipher](http://www.computing.surrey.ac.uk/personal/st/J.Heather/teaching/crypto/2011/presentations/biham94known.pdf): an "homemade" stream cipher which turned out, with all the unavoidability of Death in a Greek tragedy, to be weak; the stream cipher relies on several internal "keys" which can be unravelled one by one. I encourage people interested in cryptography to study that example, because it demonstrates quite well the way a cryptanalyst thinks, and why mere accumulation of operations does not guarantee security; and the attack is light enough to be implemented in practice (total cost is around 238, which is within range of a few hours of computation on a PC with decent programming, not necessarily optimized assembly).
A lot of cryptosystems from before the computer era were breakable on a per-character basis, because they had to be executed by the human brain of the operators, and such tools are not good at using large values or doing a lot of operations. The classical transposition and substitution ciphers (a very large family) tend to fall to character frequency analysis, which is, indeed, a per-character break. | I'm not aware of any real-world cases where this is possible. There are some cryptosystems where weaknesses have allowed you to learn about specific bits (i.e., RC4 keystream bias), but even these are largely theoretical weaknesses.
Movies and TV shows portray security (and many other topics) in a way that is intended to be fascinating to your average viewer, not technologically accurate. Having a bunch of GPUs cranking away for hours or days and then suddenly getting an answer: not interesting. Similarly, staring at Burp proxy, not interesting; writing a [GUI interface using visual basic to track the killer's IP address](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hkDD03yeLnU), interesting. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | Certain side channel attacks, such as Differential Power Analysis, work by recovering key material one bit at a time. They send a statistically significant number of encryption requests through the processor, and watch power consumption that may indicate a certain operation happened. For example, when the key is rotated left in DES after each round, the CPU might consume more power if it has to carry the one.
It would certainly be possible to display the recovered bits as the attack progresses. | I'm not aware of any real-world cases where this is possible. There are some cryptosystems where weaknesses have allowed you to learn about specific bits (i.e., RC4 keystream bias), but even these are largely theoretical weaknesses.
Movies and TV shows portray security (and many other topics) in a way that is intended to be fascinating to your average viewer, not technologically accurate. Having a bunch of GPUs cranking away for hours or days and then suddenly getting an answer: not interesting. Similarly, staring at Burp proxy, not interesting; writing a [GUI interface using visual basic to track the killer's IP address](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hkDD03yeLnU), interesting. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | I'm not aware of any real-world cases where this is possible. There are some cryptosystems where weaknesses have allowed you to learn about specific bits (i.e., RC4 keystream bias), but even these are largely theoretical weaknesses.
Movies and TV shows portray security (and many other topics) in a way that is intended to be fascinating to your average viewer, not technologically accurate. Having a bunch of GPUs cranking away for hours or days and then suddenly getting an answer: not interesting. Similarly, staring at Burp proxy, not interesting; writing a [GUI interface using visual basic to track the killer's IP address](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hkDD03yeLnU), interesting. | The answer is yes, the brute force method could give you one character at a time if do it in an order. Here's why:
Consider the binary code of the password, which would be *n* bits long. If you set the first bit to 0 (or 1) and try all possible combinations with the remaining bits and none of them work, you know that the first bit is a 1 (or 0). You then do the same to the next bit and so on, revealing more and more of the password. Eventually you have enough bits to form a letter, if that is how you prefer to read it.
You can see that with each letter the password becomes exponentially easier to solve, and if the password isn't random it becomes easier to guess. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | If an encryption system allows for character-per-character cracking, then it is awfully weak, and should not be used.
Mathematically, block ciphers are defined as [pseudorandom permutations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudorandom_permutation). A block cipher works over the space of blocks of length *n* bits; such a space has size 2*n*. There are 2*n*! permutations over that space (that's a factorial, meaning that the number of possible permutations is *huge*). A secure block cipher is such that it is indistinguishable from a permutation selected at random, uniformly, in the space of possible permutations: each key is supposed to correspond to such a random choice of permutation, and, crucially, all choices for all possible key values are independent of each other.
What this means, in mundane words, is that for a secure block cipher, either you have the whole key, exact down to the last bit, or you have nothing. Contrary to Hollywood depictions, an "almost good" key does not result in a "blurry plaintext": if even one key bit is wrong, you should get random junk (that is, an output which is sufficiently indistinguishable from random junk that you cannot know whether you are close to the right key or not).
---
Of course, if the encryption system is weak, anything goes. @Mark cites a case of "splitting" (in WPS) which is an atrocious weakness that can, indeed, be exploited for faster attacks. [Padding oracle attacks](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Padding_oracle_attack) also work over a byte-by-byte leak which allows for byte-by-byte reconstruction of the plaintext (not the key, but still).
Another, more technical example, is the [old PKZip stream cipher](http://www.computing.surrey.ac.uk/personal/st/J.Heather/teaching/crypto/2011/presentations/biham94known.pdf): an "homemade" stream cipher which turned out, with all the unavoidability of Death in a Greek tragedy, to be weak; the stream cipher relies on several internal "keys" which can be unravelled one by one. I encourage people interested in cryptography to study that example, because it demonstrates quite well the way a cryptanalyst thinks, and why mere accumulation of operations does not guarantee security; and the attack is light enough to be implemented in practice (total cost is around 238, which is within range of a few hours of computation on a PC with decent programming, not necessarily optimized assembly).
A lot of cryptosystems from before the computer era were breakable on a per-character basis, because they had to be executed by the human brain of the operators, and such tools are not good at using large values or doing a lot of operations. The classical transposition and substitution ciphers (a very large family) tend to fall to character frequency analysis, which is, indeed, a per-character break. | Yes.
The current best-known example isn't strictly character-by-character, but [Wi-Fi Protected Setup](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wifi_Protected_Setup) splits the key in two halves and verifies them independently, which permits an attacker to brute-force the first half and then the second half (and makes doing so much easier).
Less well-known but possibly more damaging are various [timing attacks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timing_attack) where verification of a key, password, or other secret is done on a byte-by-byte basis, returning failure on the first mismatch. This lets an attacker know the first incorrect byte when guessing the secret, so they can figure it out one byte at a time.
Since this is a known type of attack, good cryptosystems are designed to prevent it, but as the WPS example shows, there are a lot of cryptosystems out there that aren't well-designed. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | Yes.
The current best-known example isn't strictly character-by-character, but [Wi-Fi Protected Setup](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wifi_Protected_Setup) splits the key in two halves and verifies them independently, which permits an attacker to brute-force the first half and then the second half (and makes doing so much easier).
Less well-known but possibly more damaging are various [timing attacks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timing_attack) where verification of a key, password, or other secret is done on a byte-by-byte basis, returning failure on the first mismatch. This lets an attacker know the first incorrect byte when guessing the secret, so they can figure it out one byte at a time.
Since this is a known type of attack, good cryptosystems are designed to prevent it, but as the WPS example shows, there are a lot of cryptosystems out there that aren't well-designed. | Certain side channel attacks, such as Differential Power Analysis, work by recovering key material one bit at a time. They send a statistically significant number of encryption requests through the processor, and watch power consumption that may indicate a certain operation happened. For example, when the key is rotated left in DES after each round, the CPU might consume more power if it has to carry the one.
It would certainly be possible to display the recovered bits as the attack progresses. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | Yes.
The current best-known example isn't strictly character-by-character, but [Wi-Fi Protected Setup](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wifi_Protected_Setup) splits the key in two halves and verifies them independently, which permits an attacker to brute-force the first half and then the second half (and makes doing so much easier).
Less well-known but possibly more damaging are various [timing attacks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timing_attack) where verification of a key, password, or other secret is done on a byte-by-byte basis, returning failure on the first mismatch. This lets an attacker know the first incorrect byte when guessing the secret, so they can figure it out one byte at a time.
Since this is a known type of attack, good cryptosystems are designed to prevent it, but as the WPS example shows, there are a lot of cryptosystems out there that aren't well-designed. | The answer is yes, the brute force method could give you one character at a time if do it in an order. Here's why:
Consider the binary code of the password, which would be *n* bits long. If you set the first bit to 0 (or 1) and try all possible combinations with the remaining bits and none of them work, you know that the first bit is a 1 (or 0). You then do the same to the next bit and so on, revealing more and more of the password. Eventually you have enough bits to form a letter, if that is how you prefer to read it.
You can see that with each letter the password becomes exponentially easier to solve, and if the password isn't random it becomes easier to guess. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | If an encryption system allows for character-per-character cracking, then it is awfully weak, and should not be used.
Mathematically, block ciphers are defined as [pseudorandom permutations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudorandom_permutation). A block cipher works over the space of blocks of length *n* bits; such a space has size 2*n*. There are 2*n*! permutations over that space (that's a factorial, meaning that the number of possible permutations is *huge*). A secure block cipher is such that it is indistinguishable from a permutation selected at random, uniformly, in the space of possible permutations: each key is supposed to correspond to such a random choice of permutation, and, crucially, all choices for all possible key values are independent of each other.
What this means, in mundane words, is that for a secure block cipher, either you have the whole key, exact down to the last bit, or you have nothing. Contrary to Hollywood depictions, an "almost good" key does not result in a "blurry plaintext": if even one key bit is wrong, you should get random junk (that is, an output which is sufficiently indistinguishable from random junk that you cannot know whether you are close to the right key or not).
---
Of course, if the encryption system is weak, anything goes. @Mark cites a case of "splitting" (in WPS) which is an atrocious weakness that can, indeed, be exploited for faster attacks. [Padding oracle attacks](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Padding_oracle_attack) also work over a byte-by-byte leak which allows for byte-by-byte reconstruction of the plaintext (not the key, but still).
Another, more technical example, is the [old PKZip stream cipher](http://www.computing.surrey.ac.uk/personal/st/J.Heather/teaching/crypto/2011/presentations/biham94known.pdf): an "homemade" stream cipher which turned out, with all the unavoidability of Death in a Greek tragedy, to be weak; the stream cipher relies on several internal "keys" which can be unravelled one by one. I encourage people interested in cryptography to study that example, because it demonstrates quite well the way a cryptanalyst thinks, and why mere accumulation of operations does not guarantee security; and the attack is light enough to be implemented in practice (total cost is around 238, which is within range of a few hours of computation on a PC with decent programming, not necessarily optimized assembly).
A lot of cryptosystems from before the computer era were breakable on a per-character basis, because they had to be executed by the human brain of the operators, and such tools are not good at using large values or doing a lot of operations. The classical transposition and substitution ciphers (a very large family) tend to fall to character frequency analysis, which is, indeed, a per-character break. | Certain side channel attacks, such as Differential Power Analysis, work by recovering key material one bit at a time. They send a statistically significant number of encryption requests through the processor, and watch power consumption that may indicate a certain operation happened. For example, when the key is rotated left in DES after each round, the CPU might consume more power if it has to carry the one.
It would certainly be possible to display the recovered bits as the attack progresses. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | If an encryption system allows for character-per-character cracking, then it is awfully weak, and should not be used.
Mathematically, block ciphers are defined as [pseudorandom permutations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudorandom_permutation). A block cipher works over the space of blocks of length *n* bits; such a space has size 2*n*. There are 2*n*! permutations over that space (that's a factorial, meaning that the number of possible permutations is *huge*). A secure block cipher is such that it is indistinguishable from a permutation selected at random, uniformly, in the space of possible permutations: each key is supposed to correspond to such a random choice of permutation, and, crucially, all choices for all possible key values are independent of each other.
What this means, in mundane words, is that for a secure block cipher, either you have the whole key, exact down to the last bit, or you have nothing. Contrary to Hollywood depictions, an "almost good" key does not result in a "blurry plaintext": if even one key bit is wrong, you should get random junk (that is, an output which is sufficiently indistinguishable from random junk that you cannot know whether you are close to the right key or not).
---
Of course, if the encryption system is weak, anything goes. @Mark cites a case of "splitting" (in WPS) which is an atrocious weakness that can, indeed, be exploited for faster attacks. [Padding oracle attacks](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Padding_oracle_attack) also work over a byte-by-byte leak which allows for byte-by-byte reconstruction of the plaintext (not the key, but still).
Another, more technical example, is the [old PKZip stream cipher](http://www.computing.surrey.ac.uk/personal/st/J.Heather/teaching/crypto/2011/presentations/biham94known.pdf): an "homemade" stream cipher which turned out, with all the unavoidability of Death in a Greek tragedy, to be weak; the stream cipher relies on several internal "keys" which can be unravelled one by one. I encourage people interested in cryptography to study that example, because it demonstrates quite well the way a cryptanalyst thinks, and why mere accumulation of operations does not guarantee security; and the attack is light enough to be implemented in practice (total cost is around 238, which is within range of a few hours of computation on a PC with decent programming, not necessarily optimized assembly).
A lot of cryptosystems from before the computer era were breakable on a per-character basis, because they had to be executed by the human brain of the operators, and such tools are not good at using large values or doing a lot of operations. The classical transposition and substitution ciphers (a very large family) tend to fall to character frequency analysis, which is, indeed, a per-character break. | The answer is yes, the brute force method could give you one character at a time if do it in an order. Here's why:
Consider the binary code of the password, which would be *n* bits long. If you set the first bit to 0 (or 1) and try all possible combinations with the remaining bits and none of them work, you know that the first bit is a 1 (or 0). You then do the same to the next bit and so on, revealing more and more of the password. Eventually you have enough bits to form a letter, if that is how you prefer to read it.
You can see that with each letter the password becomes exponentially easier to solve, and if the password isn't random it becomes easier to guess. |
63,140 | In movies and TV shows, characters are often depicted using devices and applications that are able to determine an encryption key or passcode character by character (or digit by digit). I am a programmer and think I have a decent idea of how encryption works in general but I'm not sure whether to take this as a simple way to display progress or if there is actually something to it.
Is this ever possible and if so what properties of an algorithm leave it susceptible to this kind of cracking? | 2014/07/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/63140",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/51963/"
] | Certain side channel attacks, such as Differential Power Analysis, work by recovering key material one bit at a time. They send a statistically significant number of encryption requests through the processor, and watch power consumption that may indicate a certain operation happened. For example, when the key is rotated left in DES after each round, the CPU might consume more power if it has to carry the one.
It would certainly be possible to display the recovered bits as the attack progresses. | The answer is yes, the brute force method could give you one character at a time if do it in an order. Here's why:
Consider the binary code of the password, which would be *n* bits long. If you set the first bit to 0 (or 1) and try all possible combinations with the remaining bits and none of them work, you know that the first bit is a 1 (or 0). You then do the same to the next bit and so on, revealing more and more of the password. Eventually you have enough bits to form a letter, if that is how you prefer to read it.
You can see that with each letter the password becomes exponentially easier to solve, and if the password isn't random it becomes easier to guess. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Your college education is about what you want - you choose your major and even within a major, you have some freedom to choose the courses you want to take.
Corporate training is about what THEY want from you and what THEY need from you to be of better use to them. In other words, they train you to fill their needs and your happiness/sense of fulfillment either in life or on the job is certainly not a priority let alone a consideration in their Weltanshaung (world outlook)
In addition, corporate training is typically very focused on immediate benefits to the organization and very narrow in scope. Basically, they want you to go out there and just get the task done. | corporate training is current, college education not so much.
corporate training courses change every day to keep up with standards and new things that someone needs to learn.
college education although current, may lack the On going new processes that are happening out there.
That's why a 3 week corporate training course cost more than a year at college. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | College training, you will find, focuses on building the base skills of a trade, and broadening your understanding of that trade so that you will be prepared to apply it in any way a company requires.
Corporate training is practically the opposite - when you are hired for a position, a corporation will want to hone your skills in a specific area, so that you can focus on solving their problems for that area.
The area that they will have you hone in on depends on the field you are in - if you're a programmer, it could be a specific coding language or a specific application you are expected to maintain. If you are in marketing, you may be trained in providing presentations and reports.
Basically, college training provides you a broad base of knowledge, but in the corporate world, your on-the-job training is to focus that knowledge and produce finished work.
Note: This is different than job training that you may get outside of regular work - often corporations that want to help their employees fill knowledge gaps will send their employees to job training, and at these training sessions you will be expected to learn a broad variety of ways to apply a particular skill, *but*, that skill will likely still be focused on the job you're expected to do when you return from training. | Corporate or corporate deposited training is very specific to your job function, or anticipated function (an upcoming upgrade or new application to support etc...). You come away with skills you can use right away.
College is a foundation - in many cases you learn "how to learn", and other "soft skills" like time management... Many people wind up in careers unrelated to their degree. I was a Computer Science major, and a bunch of us approached the dept. head(s) to suggest they change the intro level programming language to one that was actually in wide use; that way we'd get the theory as well as the practical knowledge. The dean responded, "This is an institute of higher learning, we don't teach practical skills; you're to learn those after you graduate". |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In my experience at both IT and non-IT employers, a major difference between corporate training and a university education is that students in corporate training programs are *expected* to pass.
Many university programs have so-called "weeder" courses designed to filter out those who "don't have what it takes" to move on, and many non-"weeder" courses also require *sustained effort* as well as some level of *innate ability* and *background knowledge* (often obtained in prerequisite courses, or previous levels of education). For example, to succeed in a graduate-level course on research methods, one must not only have some aptitude, but must also have a firm grounding in both basic statistics as well as the subject-matter of the field being studied (e.g. psychology, medicine, education, etc.). If you don't have these, you are very likely to fail.
Most of the corporate training courses that I have taken *do* have final exams, and some even have projects or homework. The difference is that the instructor sets things up so that it is essentially impossible to fail. If you seem to be struggling, the instructor will invite you for a "study session" in which they will essentially give you the answers so that you can move on and stop costing the company more training dollars. In fact, at the last training course I took, most of the class was actually spent *studying the actual final exam*, with only the question order changed, and we were explicitly told that this was the case. If this wasn't enough, we were told that we were allowed unlimited repeats of the final exam if, somehow, we still didn't pass after being told *all* of the answers in class.
Online training modules I have taken are also "gimme" courses, but in a slightly different way. The final exams (again, at multiple employers) are essentially *basic reading comprehension* exercises. If one of the exam questions is "Are employees permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor?", the chances are 99%+ that somewhere in the course materials is the sentence "Employees are permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor" or "Employees are not permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor". There are no synthesis, higher-order thinking, or even logical reasoning questions like you often find in a university class - it is literally "snarf and barf" memorization all the way.
Abstract, creative, and original thinking is similarly rare in corporate training in my experience - they really only care that you know it is against the rules to foo the bar and that chemical safety gowns are kept in the red closet. They *don't* test whether you know what fooing the bar really *is*, where the exact borders are between fooing the bar, reticulating the spline, and reorienting the negative parallel matrix, *why* fooing the bar is wrong, how historians have explained the process of how fooing the bar evolved from a synthesis of the medieval practices of fish slapping, doofus dunking, and fork flinging by a group of 13th century Celtic monks, and especially not whether you can handle complex real-world cases where actually going ahead and fooing the bar might actually be the most rational choice because you live in the real world where most things are gray, not black and white.
Think about it this way:
* Corporate training: *Fooing the bar is allowed only if you have obtained permission from your supervisor and are wearing a chemical safety gown. Answer the following question: "What are the two requirements that you must meet before you may foo the bar?"*
* Undergraduate course: *Fooing the bar is the process by which a bar is prepared for retransmogrification. Chemical safety gowns are typically worn during this process to protect against blowback. Complete the exercise on Page 10 of your lab manual.*
* Graduate school: *Recall yesterday's reading in which you learned about how best practices in fooing the bar evolved side-by-side with advances in chemical safety gown technology. Today we will be discussing Dood (1984)'s Five Layer Theoretical Model of Bar Fooing. Propose a methodology by which you can use this model to predict the effectiveness of chemical safety gowns at each stage. In your paper, clearly define and explain the terms "chemical", "safety", "stage", and "the". Quantify your result.*
* PhD candidacy: *Tell me something* ***I*** *don't know about fooing the bar.* | Depending on the specifics, there can be some similarities and some big differences:
Some courses I took in university could be passed by someone taking the old exams and using those to get a passing grade. In this case, the person never had to go to the lectures given or read the textbook. The exams were multiple choice which can be quite different from a corporate environment where you don't have only 4 possible choices before you to consider in how to get something done. How well does someone have to know the material after the final exam would be another way to see this.
Some corporate training may not have an exam as it may be about being present to hear the company's harassment policy or have some other orientation that may be viewed as training or on-boarding. All of my undergraduate university courses had a final exam in contrast.
Some corporate training may be outside of regular working hours that isn't necessarily the case of university courses that generally follow a schedule. I can remember going to the office on a Saturday morning to learn about ITIL and how my employer was going to bring that into the organization with this specific tool that was to be used in this way. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In my experience at both IT and non-IT employers, a major difference between corporate training and a university education is that students in corporate training programs are *expected* to pass.
Many university programs have so-called "weeder" courses designed to filter out those who "don't have what it takes" to move on, and many non-"weeder" courses also require *sustained effort* as well as some level of *innate ability* and *background knowledge* (often obtained in prerequisite courses, or previous levels of education). For example, to succeed in a graduate-level course on research methods, one must not only have some aptitude, but must also have a firm grounding in both basic statistics as well as the subject-matter of the field being studied (e.g. psychology, medicine, education, etc.). If you don't have these, you are very likely to fail.
Most of the corporate training courses that I have taken *do* have final exams, and some even have projects or homework. The difference is that the instructor sets things up so that it is essentially impossible to fail. If you seem to be struggling, the instructor will invite you for a "study session" in which they will essentially give you the answers so that you can move on and stop costing the company more training dollars. In fact, at the last training course I took, most of the class was actually spent *studying the actual final exam*, with only the question order changed, and we were explicitly told that this was the case. If this wasn't enough, we were told that we were allowed unlimited repeats of the final exam if, somehow, we still didn't pass after being told *all* of the answers in class.
Online training modules I have taken are also "gimme" courses, but in a slightly different way. The final exams (again, at multiple employers) are essentially *basic reading comprehension* exercises. If one of the exam questions is "Are employees permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor?", the chances are 99%+ that somewhere in the course materials is the sentence "Employees are permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor" or "Employees are not permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor". There are no synthesis, higher-order thinking, or even logical reasoning questions like you often find in a university class - it is literally "snarf and barf" memorization all the way.
Abstract, creative, and original thinking is similarly rare in corporate training in my experience - they really only care that you know it is against the rules to foo the bar and that chemical safety gowns are kept in the red closet. They *don't* test whether you know what fooing the bar really *is*, where the exact borders are between fooing the bar, reticulating the spline, and reorienting the negative parallel matrix, *why* fooing the bar is wrong, how historians have explained the process of how fooing the bar evolved from a synthesis of the medieval practices of fish slapping, doofus dunking, and fork flinging by a group of 13th century Celtic monks, and especially not whether you can handle complex real-world cases where actually going ahead and fooing the bar might actually be the most rational choice because you live in the real world where most things are gray, not black and white.
Think about it this way:
* Corporate training: *Fooing the bar is allowed only if you have obtained permission from your supervisor and are wearing a chemical safety gown. Answer the following question: "What are the two requirements that you must meet before you may foo the bar?"*
* Undergraduate course: *Fooing the bar is the process by which a bar is prepared for retransmogrification. Chemical safety gowns are typically worn during this process to protect against blowback. Complete the exercise on Page 10 of your lab manual.*
* Graduate school: *Recall yesterday's reading in which you learned about how best practices in fooing the bar evolved side-by-side with advances in chemical safety gown technology. Today we will be discussing Dood (1984)'s Five Layer Theoretical Model of Bar Fooing. Propose a methodology by which you can use this model to predict the effectiveness of chemical safety gowns at each stage. In your paper, clearly define and explain the terms "chemical", "safety", "stage", and "the". Quantify your result.*
* PhD candidacy: *Tell me something* ***I*** *don't know about fooing the bar.* | corporate training is current, college education not so much.
corporate training courses change every day to keep up with standards and new things that someone needs to learn.
college education although current, may lack the On going new processes that are happening out there.
That's why a 3 week corporate training course cost more than a year at college. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Your college education is about what you want - you choose your major and even within a major, you have some freedom to choose the courses you want to take.
Corporate training is about what THEY want from you and what THEY need from you to be of better use to them. In other words, they train you to fill their needs and your happiness/sense of fulfillment either in life or on the job is certainly not a priority let alone a consideration in their Weltanshaung (world outlook)
In addition, corporate training is typically very focused on immediate benefits to the organization and very narrow in scope. Basically, they want you to go out there and just get the task done. | Corporate or corporate deposited training is very specific to your job function, or anticipated function (an upcoming upgrade or new application to support etc...). You come away with skills you can use right away.
College is a foundation - in many cases you learn "how to learn", and other "soft skills" like time management... Many people wind up in careers unrelated to their degree. I was a Computer Science major, and a bunch of us approached the dept. head(s) to suggest they change the intro level programming language to one that was actually in wide use; that way we'd get the theory as well as the practical knowledge. The dean responded, "This is an institute of higher learning, we don't teach practical skills; you're to learn those after you graduate". |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Corporate or corporate deposited training is very specific to your job function, or anticipated function (an upcoming upgrade or new application to support etc...). You come away with skills you can use right away.
College is a foundation - in many cases you learn "how to learn", and other "soft skills" like time management... Many people wind up in careers unrelated to their degree. I was a Computer Science major, and a bunch of us approached the dept. head(s) to suggest they change the intro level programming language to one that was actually in wide use; that way we'd get the theory as well as the practical knowledge. The dean responded, "This is an institute of higher learning, we don't teach practical skills; you're to learn those after you graduate". | Depending on the specifics, there can be some similarities and some big differences:
Some courses I took in university could be passed by someone taking the old exams and using those to get a passing grade. In this case, the person never had to go to the lectures given or read the textbook. The exams were multiple choice which can be quite different from a corporate environment where you don't have only 4 possible choices before you to consider in how to get something done. How well does someone have to know the material after the final exam would be another way to see this.
Some corporate training may not have an exam as it may be about being present to hear the company's harassment policy or have some other orientation that may be viewed as training or on-boarding. All of my undergraduate university courses had a final exam in contrast.
Some corporate training may be outside of regular working hours that isn't necessarily the case of university courses that generally follow a schedule. I can remember going to the office on a Saturday morning to learn about ITIL and how my employer was going to bring that into the organization with this specific tool that was to be used in this way. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Your college education is about what you want - you choose your major and even within a major, you have some freedom to choose the courses you want to take.
Corporate training is about what THEY want from you and what THEY need from you to be of better use to them. In other words, they train you to fill their needs and your happiness/sense of fulfillment either in life or on the job is certainly not a priority let alone a consideration in their Weltanshaung (world outlook)
In addition, corporate training is typically very focused on immediate benefits to the organization and very narrow in scope. Basically, they want you to go out there and just get the task done. | In my experience at both IT and non-IT employers, a major difference between corporate training and a university education is that students in corporate training programs are *expected* to pass.
Many university programs have so-called "weeder" courses designed to filter out those who "don't have what it takes" to move on, and many non-"weeder" courses also require *sustained effort* as well as some level of *innate ability* and *background knowledge* (often obtained in prerequisite courses, or previous levels of education). For example, to succeed in a graduate-level course on research methods, one must not only have some aptitude, but must also have a firm grounding in both basic statistics as well as the subject-matter of the field being studied (e.g. psychology, medicine, education, etc.). If you don't have these, you are very likely to fail.
Most of the corporate training courses that I have taken *do* have final exams, and some even have projects or homework. The difference is that the instructor sets things up so that it is essentially impossible to fail. If you seem to be struggling, the instructor will invite you for a "study session" in which they will essentially give you the answers so that you can move on and stop costing the company more training dollars. In fact, at the last training course I took, most of the class was actually spent *studying the actual final exam*, with only the question order changed, and we were explicitly told that this was the case. If this wasn't enough, we were told that we were allowed unlimited repeats of the final exam if, somehow, we still didn't pass after being told *all* of the answers in class.
Online training modules I have taken are also "gimme" courses, but in a slightly different way. The final exams (again, at multiple employers) are essentially *basic reading comprehension* exercises. If one of the exam questions is "Are employees permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor?", the chances are 99%+ that somewhere in the course materials is the sentence "Employees are permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor" or "Employees are not permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor". There are no synthesis, higher-order thinking, or even logical reasoning questions like you often find in a university class - it is literally "snarf and barf" memorization all the way.
Abstract, creative, and original thinking is similarly rare in corporate training in my experience - they really only care that you know it is against the rules to foo the bar and that chemical safety gowns are kept in the red closet. They *don't* test whether you know what fooing the bar really *is*, where the exact borders are between fooing the bar, reticulating the spline, and reorienting the negative parallel matrix, *why* fooing the bar is wrong, how historians have explained the process of how fooing the bar evolved from a synthesis of the medieval practices of fish slapping, doofus dunking, and fork flinging by a group of 13th century Celtic monks, and especially not whether you can handle complex real-world cases where actually going ahead and fooing the bar might actually be the most rational choice because you live in the real world where most things are gray, not black and white.
Think about it this way:
* Corporate training: *Fooing the bar is allowed only if you have obtained permission from your supervisor and are wearing a chemical safety gown. Answer the following question: "What are the two requirements that you must meet before you may foo the bar?"*
* Undergraduate course: *Fooing the bar is the process by which a bar is prepared for retransmogrification. Chemical safety gowns are typically worn during this process to protect against blowback. Complete the exercise on Page 10 of your lab manual.*
* Graduate school: *Recall yesterday's reading in which you learned about how best practices in fooing the bar evolved side-by-side with advances in chemical safety gown technology. Today we will be discussing Dood (1984)'s Five Layer Theoretical Model of Bar Fooing. Propose a methodology by which you can use this model to predict the effectiveness of chemical safety gowns at each stage. In your paper, clearly define and explain the terms "chemical", "safety", "stage", and "the". Quantify your result.*
* PhD candidacy: *Tell me something* ***I*** *don't know about fooing the bar.* |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Corporate or corporate deposited training is very specific to your job function, or anticipated function (an upcoming upgrade or new application to support etc...). You come away with skills you can use right away.
College is a foundation - in many cases you learn "how to learn", and other "soft skills" like time management... Many people wind up in careers unrelated to their degree. I was a Computer Science major, and a bunch of us approached the dept. head(s) to suggest they change the intro level programming language to one that was actually in wide use; that way we'd get the theory as well as the practical knowledge. The dean responded, "This is an institute of higher learning, we don't teach practical skills; you're to learn those after you graduate". | corporate training is current, college education not so much.
corporate training courses change every day to keep up with standards and new things that someone needs to learn.
college education although current, may lack the On going new processes that are happening out there.
That's why a 3 week corporate training course cost more than a year at college. |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | College training, you will find, focuses on building the base skills of a trade, and broadening your understanding of that trade so that you will be prepared to apply it in any way a company requires.
Corporate training is practically the opposite - when you are hired for a position, a corporation will want to hone your skills in a specific area, so that you can focus on solving their problems for that area.
The area that they will have you hone in on depends on the field you are in - if you're a programmer, it could be a specific coding language or a specific application you are expected to maintain. If you are in marketing, you may be trained in providing presentations and reports.
Basically, college training provides you a broad base of knowledge, but in the corporate world, your on-the-job training is to focus that knowledge and produce finished work.
Note: This is different than job training that you may get outside of regular work - often corporations that want to help their employees fill knowledge gaps will send their employees to job training, and at these training sessions you will be expected to learn a broad variety of ways to apply a particular skill, *but*, that skill will likely still be focused on the job you're expected to do when you return from training. | In my experience at both IT and non-IT employers, a major difference between corporate training and a university education is that students in corporate training programs are *expected* to pass.
Many university programs have so-called "weeder" courses designed to filter out those who "don't have what it takes" to move on, and many non-"weeder" courses also require *sustained effort* as well as some level of *innate ability* and *background knowledge* (often obtained in prerequisite courses, or previous levels of education). For example, to succeed in a graduate-level course on research methods, one must not only have some aptitude, but must also have a firm grounding in both basic statistics as well as the subject-matter of the field being studied (e.g. psychology, medicine, education, etc.). If you don't have these, you are very likely to fail.
Most of the corporate training courses that I have taken *do* have final exams, and some even have projects or homework. The difference is that the instructor sets things up so that it is essentially impossible to fail. If you seem to be struggling, the instructor will invite you for a "study session" in which they will essentially give you the answers so that you can move on and stop costing the company more training dollars. In fact, at the last training course I took, most of the class was actually spent *studying the actual final exam*, with only the question order changed, and we were explicitly told that this was the case. If this wasn't enough, we were told that we were allowed unlimited repeats of the final exam if, somehow, we still didn't pass after being told *all* of the answers in class.
Online training modules I have taken are also "gimme" courses, but in a slightly different way. The final exams (again, at multiple employers) are essentially *basic reading comprehension* exercises. If one of the exam questions is "Are employees permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor?", the chances are 99%+ that somewhere in the course materials is the sentence "Employees are permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor" or "Employees are not permitted to foo the bar without the explicit permission of their supervisor". There are no synthesis, higher-order thinking, or even logical reasoning questions like you often find in a university class - it is literally "snarf and barf" memorization all the way.
Abstract, creative, and original thinking is similarly rare in corporate training in my experience - they really only care that you know it is against the rules to foo the bar and that chemical safety gowns are kept in the red closet. They *don't* test whether you know what fooing the bar really *is*, where the exact borders are between fooing the bar, reticulating the spline, and reorienting the negative parallel matrix, *why* fooing the bar is wrong, how historians have explained the process of how fooing the bar evolved from a synthesis of the medieval practices of fish slapping, doofus dunking, and fork flinging by a group of 13th century Celtic monks, and especially not whether you can handle complex real-world cases where actually going ahead and fooing the bar might actually be the most rational choice because you live in the real world where most things are gray, not black and white.
Think about it this way:
* Corporate training: *Fooing the bar is allowed only if you have obtained permission from your supervisor and are wearing a chemical safety gown. Answer the following question: "What are the two requirements that you must meet before you may foo the bar?"*
* Undergraduate course: *Fooing the bar is the process by which a bar is prepared for retransmogrification. Chemical safety gowns are typically worn during this process to protect against blowback. Complete the exercise on Page 10 of your lab manual.*
* Graduate school: *Recall yesterday's reading in which you learned about how best practices in fooing the bar evolved side-by-side with advances in chemical safety gown technology. Today we will be discussing Dood (1984)'s Five Layer Theoretical Model of Bar Fooing. Propose a methodology by which you can use this model to predict the effectiveness of chemical safety gowns at each stage. In your paper, clearly define and explain the terms "chemical", "safety", "stage", and "the". Quantify your result.*
* PhD candidacy: *Tell me something* ***I*** *don't know about fooing the bar.* |
21,007 | As said in the title, my question is how corporate training is different from college education. Does it have major differences? I think both way we learn the same things. | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/21007",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | College training, you will find, focuses on building the base skills of a trade, and broadening your understanding of that trade so that you will be prepared to apply it in any way a company requires.
Corporate training is practically the opposite - when you are hired for a position, a corporation will want to hone your skills in a specific area, so that you can focus on solving their problems for that area.
The area that they will have you hone in on depends on the field you are in - if you're a programmer, it could be a specific coding language or a specific application you are expected to maintain. If you are in marketing, you may be trained in providing presentations and reports.
Basically, college training provides you a broad base of knowledge, but in the corporate world, your on-the-job training is to focus that knowledge and produce finished work.
Note: This is different than job training that you may get outside of regular work - often corporations that want to help their employees fill knowledge gaps will send their employees to job training, and at these training sessions you will be expected to learn a broad variety of ways to apply a particular skill, *but*, that skill will likely still be focused on the job you're expected to do when you return from training. | Depending on the specifics, there can be some similarities and some big differences:
Some courses I took in university could be passed by someone taking the old exams and using those to get a passing grade. In this case, the person never had to go to the lectures given or read the textbook. The exams were multiple choice which can be quite different from a corporate environment where you don't have only 4 possible choices before you to consider in how to get something done. How well does someone have to know the material after the final exam would be another way to see this.
Some corporate training may not have an exam as it may be about being present to hear the company's harassment policy or have some other orientation that may be viewed as training or on-boarding. All of my undergraduate university courses had a final exam in contrast.
Some corporate training may be outside of regular working hours that isn't necessarily the case of university courses that generally follow a schedule. I can remember going to the office on a Saturday morning to learn about ITIL and how my employer was going to bring that into the organization with this specific tool that was to be used in this way. |
18,209 | This question asks how to find ceiling fans that don't audibly hum:
[Do any ultra quiet ceiling fans that have no motor hum exist?](https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/12770/do-any-ultra-quiet-ceiling-fans-that-have-no-motor-hum-exist)
It is something that annoys me too. I can't stand the hum a lot of ceiling fan motors make. Our current house has many Hampton Bay fans that hum like crazy.
Over time I want to upgrade these and the answers to the above mentioned question point out that a big part of the hum is due to how AC motors work and that finding fans with DC motors would be a good thing.
How does one do that? Are there particular brands that use DC motors? Or do you just have to look at the box and hope it's in the spec's some where? Is it safe to say that, in general, DC fans would hum a lot less than AC fans? Do more expensive fans tend to use DC motors or is cost not really an indication? | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/18209",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/1209/"
] | DC motors are sometimes called "DC brushless" or "ECM (Electrically Commutated Motors)" in product literature. With regard to the sticker shock, DC motors are more energy efficient than AC motors, so there will be some operational cost savings there. | Fans from big box stores like Home Depot and Lowe's tend to be cheaper because they are made from lower quality materials. Using DC motors in ceiling fans is still relatively new and most of the major fan manufacturers only have a few models that are equipped with DC motors. The major benefit of using a DC motor in a ceiling fan is lower energy consumption, NOT reduced noise level.
You can expect to pay at least $450 for a ceiling fan with a DC motor.
I suspect 1 of 3 reasons for your humming Hampton Bay ceiling fans:
1. Are you using a switch on the wall to adjust the speed of your ceiling fan? If you are using a light dimmer (or any control that is infinitely variable), your fan will often make a humming noise. You need to use a "stepped" speed control, something that clicks in 3-4 specific speeds.
2. The fans you own are cheap. Visit a ceiling fan specialty store and purchase a better fan. You'll pay more, but you will get a higher quality fan that runs quieter.
3. Very rare, but the architecture of your house can amplify the noise of a ceiling fan. If your fan is mounted on a wooden beam, fans with strong motors sometimes generate a humming noise. Possible solutions: purchase a cheaper, weaker fan OR purchase a more expensive fan, preferably and Emerson fan with a K55 motor and a flywheel or a Casablanca fan with an XLP motor and flywheel. |
3,727,194 | Can the colors of the letters, i, j, k, be changed when used as an index? For example, i could be reddish, j could be blueish and k greenish. It would be nice to use for other sets as well, such as l, m, n.
I think having more distinction between i, j would help with some indexing errors from typos.
**Edit**
I should note that the indexing is not just for a triple loop. That's easy enough and as others pointed can be removed with linq. The application is in a scientific code where mixed derivatives are being calculated across a 3d mesh with finite differences. There the indexes mix up a *lot* and its not something that can easily be abstracted. Anything that can hits the performance of the code hard. | 2010/09/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3727194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/51275/"
] | A tangential answer: Perhaps you need to try an alternative programming font, one which distinguishes more clearly the difference between i,j, and k?
(Oh, the irony of editing this in a monospace font and then seeing the answer posted in glorious proportional sans-serif.) | I'm sure it *could*. Products like ReSharper and CodeRush change the color coding of various source code elements all the time. CodeRush Express is free and might give you a helping hand towards accomplishing your goal in a relatively painless manner. Download it from <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/vcsharp/ee663901.aspx>.
Having said that... if you're running into confusion about the names might it not be more appropriate to either a) use more meaningful names or b) refactor so you aren't nested as deep in a single method? Obviously it would depend on what you're trying to accomplish with your nested loops - if it's something obvious then color coding may be an appropriate choice. |
3,727,194 | Can the colors of the letters, i, j, k, be changed when used as an index? For example, i could be reddish, j could be blueish and k greenish. It would be nice to use for other sets as well, such as l, m, n.
I think having more distinction between i, j would help with some indexing errors from typos.
**Edit**
I should note that the indexing is not just for a triple loop. That's easy enough and as others pointed can be removed with linq. The application is in a scientific code where mixed derivatives are being calculated across a 3d mesh with finite differences. There the indexes mix up a *lot* and its not something that can easily be abstracted. Anything that can hits the performance of the code hard. | 2010/09/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3727194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/51275/"
] | A tangential answer: Perhaps you need to try an alternative programming font, one which distinguishes more clearly the difference between i,j, and k?
(Oh, the irony of editing this in a monospace font and then seeing the answer posted in glorious proportional sans-serif.) | I realise it doesn't directly answer your question, but another (perhaps better) way to prevent such errors is to use well-named variables for loop indexes instead of the traditional i, j and k.
While most people agree well-named variables are important, there are a lot who still stick with these index variables - I'd same the same rules apply to them and they should have good names.
[The tricky part](http://martinfowler.com/bliki/TwoHardThings.html), of course, is coming up with the names.. |
179,828 | I downloaded the web installer [here](http://www.microsoft.com/express/Downloads/#2010-Visual-CPP) but when trying to install it just fails:
>
> Setup could not install the following
> component: Microsoft .NET Framework
> 4
>
>
>
Or is it true that VCE2010 can only be installed on 64 bit os? | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/179828",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/37018/"
] | >
> Or is it true that VCE2010 can only be installed on 64 bit os?
>
No, It isn't true.
I installed both Visual C# 2010 Express, and Visual C++ 2010 Express on a Windows-7 32-bit netbook.
.NET Framework 4.0 supports Windows XP SP3, on both 64-bit and 32-bit architectures; its prerequisites (Windows Installer 3.1, and Internet Explorer 5.01) should be fulfilled by Windows XP SP3. | Although it didn't work for you, using the ISO images worked for me. You can download the 2010 ISOs from [MSDN](http://www.microsoft.com/visualstudio/en-us/products/2010-editions/express-iso), and run them with [Daemon Tools Lite](http://www.daemon-tools.cc/eng/products/dtLite). |
179,828 | I downloaded the web installer [here](http://www.microsoft.com/express/Downloads/#2010-Visual-CPP) but when trying to install it just fails:
>
> Setup could not install the following
> component: Microsoft .NET Framework
> 4
>
>
>
Or is it true that VCE2010 can only be installed on 64 bit os? | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/179828",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/37018/"
] | Do you have an internet connection on this computer? I Guess the Webinstallation reloads some files during installation process. You could try to download and install .NET Framework 4 manually [here](http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?FamilyID=9cfb2d51-5ff4-4491-b0e5-b386f32c0992&displaylang=en), but I assume that there will be more than .NET missing. | Although it didn't work for you, using the ISO images worked for me. You can download the 2010 ISOs from [MSDN](http://www.microsoft.com/visualstudio/en-us/products/2010-editions/express-iso), and run them with [Daemon Tools Lite](http://www.daemon-tools.cc/eng/products/dtLite). |
31,470 | My wife has an '05 Honda Element and when we turn the A/C on there is a very faint whining sound. The sound is not constant, it goes on and off and you have to listen closely to hear it. The A/C is working fine, but does anyone know what might be causing the noise and if there is anything that needs to be done to prevent a future failure? | 2016/06/05 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/31470",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/17460/"
] | It sounds like normal operation of the compressor for the a/c. It is run by a belt from the engine. It is normal for it to cycle on and off while the a/c is on or while the defrost is on. As long as it doesn't sound harsh or like it is switching off and on very frequently (every 3-5 seconds), then it is probably ok. | It could possibly be your pulley causing the sound. Well I'm definitely no mechanic but have had to work on my cars more than I cared to. Your pulley is what drives your serpentene belt if you see one belt sometimes 2 n still be called a serpentine. Confusing anyways your belt goes around these pulleys which rotate pulling your belt. The sound could be the start of your pulley wearing out. Hope that answer was better than first n thank you for putn me on blast... |
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