qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
2,840 | I read today on the Wikipedia's main page:
>
> There were numerous deaths at the Berlin Wall, which stood as a
> barrier between West Berlin and East Germany from 13 August 1961 until
> 9 November 1989. Before erection of the Berlin Wall in 1961, 3.5
> million East Germans circumvented Eastern Bloc emigration
> restrictions, many by crossing over the border from East Berlin into
> West Berlin, from where they could then travel to West Germany and
> other Western European countries. Between 1961 and 1989, the Wall
> prevented almost all such emigration. The state-funded Centre for
> Contemporary History in Potsdam has given the official figure of 136
> deaths, including people attempting to escape, border guards, and
> innocent parties.
>
>
>
This makes overall impression that the number of deaths on the East-West Germany border was unusually high (note that there is even a museum dedicated to the victims).
But the number cited (136 people) looks negligible. So how this number compares to the number of deaths due to incidents and illegal crossings in other inter-state borders, such as Israel - Egypt, India - Pakistan, the USSR - China, United States - Mexico, North Africa - Europe? | 2012/08/13 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/2840",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/466/"
] | The India-Bangladesh border is particularly bloody. A [report](http://www.hrw.org/sites/default/files/reports/bangladesh1210Web.pdf) by Human Rights Watch documents nearly 1,000 killings by the India's Border Security Force (BSF) over the last decade alone. Undoubtedly, there would be many undocumented cases that would make the count higher. Considering that this border has been in existence since 1947, it would not be surprising if about multiple thousands of people have been killed along this border. | I don't think it is the sheer number of deaths that is the issue, but how they happened. That's just the way we think as humans.
For instance, far far more people die in car accidents than airplane accidents. Even accounting for deaths per-capita (or per-trip), car accidents are a far bigger problem. However, we put way more effort into preventing airline accidents. This is because people consider that a far more horrifying way to die.
I think the same principle can be applied to border crossing deaths. It could be that there are more sheer numerical deaths in a couple of bad years from US border crossings. However, those are almost entirely by people who went out into the desert to avoid patrols, and through some misadventure or the other, expired in the heat.
On the other hand, the East German border crossing deaths were generally people who were shot to death by human beings explicitly paid and equipped by the state to kill such people. That's appalling pretty much however you look at it.
The numbers involved are pretty much beside the point. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | Static typing doesn't preclude macros. For example, the static-typed [Boo language has macros](http://boo.codehaus.org/Syntactic+Macros). So does [Nemerle](http://nemerle.org/Macros_tutorial).
However, it depends on what Graham means by "true" macros. Maybe Boo and Nemerle macros are "false" by his standards. | Static typing, in which the system does not infer types, prevents truly general-purpose macros as the output of macros must remain type-safe in a very restrictive sense. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | Static typing doesn't preclude macros. For example, the static-typed [Boo language has macros](http://boo.codehaus.org/Syntactic+Macros). So does [Nemerle](http://nemerle.org/Macros_tutorial).
However, it depends on what Graham means by "true" macros. Maybe Boo and Nemerle macros are "false" by his standards. | It isn't really true that static typing precludes macros, but it generally does mean that the macro system needs to be more complicated than the unhygienic text-substitution macros familiar to many. I'm not exactly sure what Graham is trying to get at here, or what he means by "true" macros.
See [this paper](http://w210.ub.uni-tuebingen.de/dbt/volltexte/2006/2423/pdf/diss.pdf) for one take on hygienic macros in a statically typed context.
(Incidentally, I also don't agree that no language is worth using if it doesn't have macros. I think that first-class functions coupled with some of the more sophisticated modern type systems can elegantly solve most of the problems at which macros have traditionally been aimed.) |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | Static typing doesn't preclude macros. For example, the static-typed [Boo language has macros](http://boo.codehaus.org/Syntactic+Macros). So does [Nemerle](http://nemerle.org/Macros_tutorial).
However, it depends on what Graham means by "true" macros. Maybe Boo and Nemerle macros are "false" by his standards. | >
> "static typing seems to preclude true macros"
> How is this true?
>
>
>
Without a definition of "true macros" it is a meaningless claim but OCaml had both static typing and (AST-rewriting) macros before Paul Graham wrote that. He could easily have discovered that for himself but apparently did not. I don't even see a logical reason to believe that static typing precludes macros.
>
> Where are the papers?
>
>
>
I do not know of any. Lisp-style macros are unfashionable these days.
Bear in mind that Paul Graham is a philosophy major who wrote a shopping cart in Lisp that was bought by Yahoo and subsequently rewritten. He struck gold, retired young and then spent years writing stuff like this. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | Static typing doesn't preclude macros. For example, the static-typed [Boo language has macros](http://boo.codehaus.org/Syntactic+Macros). So does [Nemerle](http://nemerle.org/Macros_tutorial).
However, it depends on what Graham means by "true" macros. Maybe Boo and Nemerle macros are "false" by his standards. | Paul Graham is a proponent of having ["the whole language there all the time"](http://www.paulgraham.com/icad.html):
>
> There is no real distinction between read-time, compile-time, and
> runtime. You can compile or run code while reading, read or run code
> while compiling, and read or compile code at runtime.
>
>
> Running code at read-time lets users reprogram Lisp's syntax; running
> code at compile-time is the basis of macros; compiling at runtime is
> the basis of Lisp's use as an extension language in programs like
> Emacs; and reading at runtime enables programs to communicate using
> s-expressions, an idea recently reinvented as XML.
>
>
>
So he may be referring to the practical impossibility of defining new types at runtime in a language that expects to have all the type information at compile time, as Daniel Ribeiro [points out on his blog](https://metaphysicaldeveloper.wordpress.com/2010/06/30/the-issue-with-static-typing/):
>
> Note that you cannot make type-safe runtime metaprogramming in
> general. For instance: even though some languages allow you to create
> interfaces that do not exist on compile time, the only way to invoke
> methods from these is through non type-safe ways (such as reflection).
>
>
>
I am sure that you would have no trouble finding programmers who dispute that this capability is worth giving up the benefits that they derive from static typing. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | It isn't really true that static typing precludes macros, but it generally does mean that the macro system needs to be more complicated than the unhygienic text-substitution macros familiar to many. I'm not exactly sure what Graham is trying to get at here, or what he means by "true" macros.
See [this paper](http://w210.ub.uni-tuebingen.de/dbt/volltexte/2006/2423/pdf/diss.pdf) for one take on hygienic macros in a statically typed context.
(Incidentally, I also don't agree that no language is worth using if it doesn't have macros. I think that first-class functions coupled with some of the more sophisticated modern type systems can elegantly solve most of the problems at which macros have traditionally been aimed.) | Static typing, in which the system does not infer types, prevents truly general-purpose macros as the output of macros must remain type-safe in a very restrictive sense. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | >
> "static typing seems to preclude true macros"
> How is this true?
>
>
>
Without a definition of "true macros" it is a meaningless claim but OCaml had both static typing and (AST-rewriting) macros before Paul Graham wrote that. He could easily have discovered that for himself but apparently did not. I don't even see a logical reason to believe that static typing precludes macros.
>
> Where are the papers?
>
>
>
I do not know of any. Lisp-style macros are unfashionable these days.
Bear in mind that Paul Graham is a philosophy major who wrote a shopping cart in Lisp that was bought by Yahoo and subsequently rewritten. He struck gold, retired young and then spent years writing stuff like this. | Static typing, in which the system does not infer types, prevents truly general-purpose macros as the output of macros must remain type-safe in a very restrictive sense. |
1,583,045 | I was reading Paul Graham's "The Hundred-Year Language" article.
<http://www.paulgraham.com/hundred.html>
In there he makes a claim that static typing "preclude[s] true macros".
>
> For example, types seem to be an
> inexhaustible source of research
> papers, despite the fact that static
> typing seems to preclude true macros--
> without which, in my opinion, no
> language is worth using.
>
>
>
How is this true? Where are the papers? I tried searching on Google without success. | 2009/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1583045",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57757/"
] | Paul Graham is a proponent of having ["the whole language there all the time"](http://www.paulgraham.com/icad.html):
>
> There is no real distinction between read-time, compile-time, and
> runtime. You can compile or run code while reading, read or run code
> while compiling, and read or compile code at runtime.
>
>
> Running code at read-time lets users reprogram Lisp's syntax; running
> code at compile-time is the basis of macros; compiling at runtime is
> the basis of Lisp's use as an extension language in programs like
> Emacs; and reading at runtime enables programs to communicate using
> s-expressions, an idea recently reinvented as XML.
>
>
>
So he may be referring to the practical impossibility of defining new types at runtime in a language that expects to have all the type information at compile time, as Daniel Ribeiro [points out on his blog](https://metaphysicaldeveloper.wordpress.com/2010/06/30/the-issue-with-static-typing/):
>
> Note that you cannot make type-safe runtime metaprogramming in
> general. For instance: even though some languages allow you to create
> interfaces that do not exist on compile time, the only way to invoke
> methods from these is through non type-safe ways (such as reflection).
>
>
>
I am sure that you would have no trouble finding programmers who dispute that this capability is worth giving up the benefits that they derive from static typing. | Static typing, in which the system does not infer types, prevents truly general-purpose macros as the output of macros must remain type-safe in a very restrictive sense. |
476,200 | I'm a huge neophyte when it comes to electronics, and I'm trying to work out how to create a white noise generator for a project. I've been looking at some to base my examples off of. One of which is below from [this site.](https://www.maximintegrated.com/en/design/technical-documents/app-notes/3/3469.html)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SJWfB.png)
I see that Vin starts at the +14V. 1N759 must be the diode that is reverse-biased to produce noise. It is then amplified by two MAX2650 low noise amplifiers and then that amplified noise is outputted. Here are some questions I have about this circuit, pretty much entirely due to my lack of knowledge of electronics (of which I'm looking to better understand here):
1. What is the purpose of R1 and its connection to ground?
2. What is the purpose of the 5V output?
3. What is the purpose of the capacitors here at all? What are they serving to do? Especially C3. It doesn't even look like outputted noise goes near C3.
My complete lack of knowledge is clearly showing. Anything you could recommend that I can read to quickly figure out stuff like this would be greatly appreciated as well. | 2020/01/14 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/476200",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/179371/"
] | Things at different voltages often share the same ground.
When you say "If I wire the ground wire of a 30VDC LED and the ground wire from a 200VDC motor to a sheet of aluminum and turn it on, things are going to spark." you are making an assumption that is not necessarily true. This is where you are getting off track: "Neither of these components can share a common ground because each is operating at a different voltage"
Ground can be the same for all kinds of voltages in the same system, the same way the ground itself can be used as a point of reference when measuring different peoples' heights.
Remember, ground isn't a voltage, it is simply a reference point against which other potentials are weighed. | Not everything is "grounded" to chassis. It is normal, allowable *and often necessary* to have a circuit entirely floating from "ground".
>
> Take the electrical controls and accessory loads on a subway train or light rail. You have two separate systems: 600V-3000V line voltage, which propels the car. And 24-72V battery voltage, which runs controls, lighting and smaller accessories. These cars are able to run in multi-car trains, and they have conductive wires between them carrying the control voltage. The line voltage system MUST be "chassis ground" because the rails are the current return. One of the cars runs up on rusty rail. Its motors are trying return 400A of current from the third rail to the car's chassis to the rails, but its wheels have no contact with the rails. How does the current flow? Well, if the battery controls are chassis grounded, it will try to cross the "ground" wire in the inter-car plugs. Those things are maybe 10 AWG (4mm2). So FOOF goes the wire, and now you have 600V running around in all the control circuits, frying stuff and shocking passengers. *Not good.*
>
>
>
The same thing may well apply to an HV circuit, for instance one energizing a magnetron or luminiscent display.
Another example is the secondary of a transformer that you are bridge rectifying and tying the DC- to ground. If you try to tie the transformer secondary to ground also, then you have a short circuit.
The obvious fallacy is the belief that there is a ground, or an "aether", which is a universal reference voltage for all things. That's not true. There are safety wins by creating isolation - so the first "ground fault" between the isolated system and chassis is harmless.
So sometimes, hooking a voltage tester to "ground" is the wrong thing to do. |
94,735 | If I am protesting forcefully the actions of another, let’s call him Joe, would it be better to say:
>
> I remonstrated Joe over his choice of words in that argument.
>
>
>
or would I say:
>
> I remonstrated *with* Joe over his choice of words in that argument.
>
>
>
Because he is the target of my remonstration, no?
---
Because close votes are collecting, let me explain why a simple internet search thus far has not led to me to a definitive answer:
The link supplied which suggests that *suggests that adding “with” is usual* was quite quickly found by me, and I didn’t think it necessary to state that I had come across that link, as the whole purpose of me asking would be negated if I had never heard someone say “aren’t you to use *with* with that verb?” I’m asking because I don’t know what the difference is when the target of the remonstration is present, versus when you’re discussing someone with whom you were remonstrating, for instance, if two editors were remonstrating the closing of a publisher. That would be an obvious use of *with* to connote multiple involved parties.
I don’t say *I beat with you*, whereas I might say *I debated you* or you might say *I debated with you*. Is *remonstrated* used in the same way as *debated* in this case, where you may choose or not choose to use *with* or is *with* required when using *remonstrated*?
---
More specifically, I said it as a direct statement to him “I remonstrated you” (a smaller clause from a larger sentence, with context) | 2012/12/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/94735",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2161/"
] | There are basically two uses:
1. The use as an *intransitive* verb: when you are opposing a person, you are *remonstrating with* them, e.g. "I remonstrated with Joe".
2. The use as a *transitive* verb: when you wish to oppose an action / claim / object / person / person's behaviour, you can *remonstrate* some words of opposition. This will occur in two contexts:
* Direct speech, e.g. "'I find your behaviour appalling,' I remonstrated".
* Indirect speech: usually a clause beginning with *that* (though, as always, the *that* can be omitted), e.g. "I remonstrated that I found Joe's behaviour appalling".
All of these uses are comparable to the verb "argue":
1. "I argued with Joe"
2. * "'I find your behaviour appalling,' I argued"
* "I argued that I found Joe's behaviour appalling"
[This](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=remonstrated%20him,remonstrated%20with%20him&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=) ngrams page shows that there have been occasional instances in literature of "remonstrated him" rather than "remonstrated with him", but they are rare enough to be treated as essentially mistakes in my opinion (you have to set smoothing to 0 to even see them, and even then they are three isolated blips). | The [Collins](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/remonstrate), [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/remonstrate), and [Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/remonstrate?q=remonstrate) online dictionaries all call for *with* before the person to whom a remonstrance is directed.
Traditional grammar, which these dictionaries follow, treats this construction as an intransitive verb followed by a prepositional phrase; I prefer to regard it as a transitive phrasal verb, *remonstrate with*.
At any rate, in my experience what you call the “target” (an apt word, by the way) is always designated by the preposition *with*. *OED* offers uses with *to*, but marks these as obsolete.
Merriam-Webster also gives a transitive sense, with no examples; but the object of that verb would be the substance of the remonstrance, not the person to whom it is directed:
>
> I remonstrated [with Joe] that his choice of words was entirely inappropriate.
>
>
> |
94,735 | If I am protesting forcefully the actions of another, let’s call him Joe, would it be better to say:
>
> I remonstrated Joe over his choice of words in that argument.
>
>
>
or would I say:
>
> I remonstrated *with* Joe over his choice of words in that argument.
>
>
>
Because he is the target of my remonstration, no?
---
Because close votes are collecting, let me explain why a simple internet search thus far has not led to me to a definitive answer:
The link supplied which suggests that *suggests that adding “with” is usual* was quite quickly found by me, and I didn’t think it necessary to state that I had come across that link, as the whole purpose of me asking would be negated if I had never heard someone say “aren’t you to use *with* with that verb?” I’m asking because I don’t know what the difference is when the target of the remonstration is present, versus when you’re discussing someone with whom you were remonstrating, for instance, if two editors were remonstrating the closing of a publisher. That would be an obvious use of *with* to connote multiple involved parties.
I don’t say *I beat with you*, whereas I might say *I debated you* or you might say *I debated with you*. Is *remonstrated* used in the same way as *debated* in this case, where you may choose or not choose to use *with* or is *with* required when using *remonstrated*?
---
More specifically, I said it as a direct statement to him “I remonstrated you” (a smaller clause from a larger sentence, with context) | 2012/12/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/94735",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/2161/"
] | There are basically two uses:
1. The use as an *intransitive* verb: when you are opposing a person, you are *remonstrating with* them, e.g. "I remonstrated with Joe".
2. The use as a *transitive* verb: when you wish to oppose an action / claim / object / person / person's behaviour, you can *remonstrate* some words of opposition. This will occur in two contexts:
* Direct speech, e.g. "'I find your behaviour appalling,' I remonstrated".
* Indirect speech: usually a clause beginning with *that* (though, as always, the *that* can be omitted), e.g. "I remonstrated that I found Joe's behaviour appalling".
All of these uses are comparable to the verb "argue":
1. "I argued with Joe"
2. * "'I find your behaviour appalling,' I argued"
* "I argued that I found Joe's behaviour appalling"
[This](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=remonstrated%20him,remonstrated%20with%20him&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=) ngrams page shows that there have been occasional instances in literature of "remonstrated him" rather than "remonstrated with him", but they are rare enough to be treated as essentially mistakes in my opinion (you have to set smoothing to 0 to even see them, and even then they are three isolated blips). | All our examples are past tense, which makes the word a mouthful. And it is already a mouthful!
>
> "Remonstrate him," the cardinal said to the priest, looking down at
> the pauper.
>
>
>
>
> "A man thinks he is his ideas---so he must constantly be ready to
> remonstrate himself should he find himself mad with no response."
>
>
>
I think its cleaner to use present tense when possible. That said, the [ngram viewer](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?corpus=15&content=remonstrate%2Cremonstrated&smoothing=3&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cremonstrate%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Cremonstrated%3B%2Cc0#t1%3B%2Cremonstrate%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Cremonstrated%3B%2Cc0) shows that the past tense is much more common. |
140,420 | I have seen it rated gold in many guides, but no reasoning was provided.
Sure, you can cast Invisibility or Glitterdust now, but it is *once per day*, using a *3rd level slot*, and you need to have access to the spell in written form.
This does seem nice, but too little to matter.
Is there something I am missing? Can a Cleric activate a wand if the spell is in his head with Anyspell for example? | 2019/02/03 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/140420",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/9552/"
] | ### The relative value of flexibility and 3rd-level spell slots
Flexibility is extremely valuable, and a 3rd-level spell slot isn’t really. That’s basically what it comes down to—once per day, you can cast *any spell* of 2nd-level or lower. You don’t need to know what spell that will be, it can just be whatever spell turns out to be important. And all you need to dedicate to it is a 3rd-level spell slot.
Maybe at 5th or 6th level, when your 3rd-level spells are your highest-level spell slots, *anyspell* would not be your top choice. Maybe you would prefer to prepare whatever your other domain is offering at that level. But when you get to 7th level—and 4th-level spells—a slot of your *second-highest* spell level is vastly less valuable. And it just keeps going down in relative value, making it so much easier to spend that spell slot on the massive flexibility that *anyspell* offers. And even if you end up trading your other domain for a devotion feat per *Complete Champion*, yeah maybe that’s a small drawback at 5th and 6th but it’s far from the end of the world, and by 7th you’re better off.
### The “once per day” restriction
As for the 1/day restriction, it doesn’t really matter—all prepared spells are each once per day. You are giving up a 1/day of some other 3rd-level spell for getting this 1/day. And while flexibility is massively valuable, you ultimately want to have most of your spells be your workhorse spells—the reduction in spell level is a big deal, too. You wouldn’t want to fill *too* many slots with *anyspell*. When you’re high enough level, yeah, maybe you’d want to use more, even all 3rd-level slots for *anyspell*, but that’s by no means guaranteed. You have a pretty good chance of having a good reason to pull a rabbit out of your hat once a day, but a second time, or a third? If you’re wanting *anyspell* that much, you might want to reconsider the other spells you’re preparing. Anyway, the horribly-broken (but for different reasons) Initiate of Mystra spell could get around this, as could various options for using domain spells more (domain spontaneity, domain staffs, a *domain icon*, etc.), if you *really* wanted to.
### But the big caveat—you need a library to pull your spell from
Now, this presumes that *anyspell* requires that you be able to cast *any spell*, which requires access to the spell in written form. It is probable that recommendations for the spell are overlooking this limitation—because it is a dire one. That said, if the party has the right allies—a wizard, most likely—or the right enemies—again, mostly wizards—spellbooks full of spells may well be available. It is no great difficulty for a friendly wizard to study their books, and then hand them to the cleric for safekeeping/*anyspell* use. And if spellbooks are captured, those can also be kept by the cleric for *anyspell* use.
Nonetheless, these assumptions do not necessarily hold—and for a cleric to go out of their way to get copies of spellbooks may well be a poor use of their resources, making *anyspell* fairly useless (though it may well be worthwhile; the effect still is *really* good—but certainly non-trivial preparation if you’re going for it). Being once a day matters more here, too, since the effort of preparing for casting *anyspell* is the same no matter how many times you cast it (but this only matters so much, since the first cast per day is by far the most valuable one).
The need to heavily prepare for *anyspell* use is a therefore a **massive** caveat on the spell that by rights *should* be mentioned whenever it is recommended. The fact that it hasn’t been suggests that people are overlooking the limitation, presumably because they assume they know how *anyspell* works and don’t need to (re)read the details. In some games, it won’t be a big deal, and in others it might still be worth it, but it’s absolutely a non-trivial consideration that recommendations should be bringing to your attention. | In short: **versatility**.
---
### Versatility?
The reason that prepared spellcasters such as the Cleric or the Wizard are generally seen as Tier 1 is because of the sheer versatility of the spells they can cast: no matter the situation, they have a spell that's tailor-made for it.
No all spellcasters have the exact right spell, though, and therefore part of the optimization game for a spellcaster is finding ways to access spells that they would not normally have access to; such as spells from another spell list:
* either to obtain superb/broken spells from another list,
* or to obtain spells that cover blind spots in one's list.
A caster's power is pretty much tied to the variety of spells it can tap into, so anything expanding this spell list is worth a look.
---
### So, Anyspell?
*Anyspell*, and *Anyspell, Greater*, give access to spells from another spell list. There is indeed a limitation of 1/day each, and a written copy of the spell is necessary1, however in exchange...
When many class features allow you to pick one spell off another spell list when leveling up, or give you (*gasp*) access to *one domain*, *Anyspell* has no such limitation: every use allows you to pick a new spell. **Late choice** means choosing when you have information to inform the choice, rather than picking a spell or domain several levels before and hope they prove useful.
Furthermore, *Anyspell* gives access to **the most versatile spell list** in the game. For comparison, checking a database:
* Level 1: Cleric 149 spells, Wizard 297 spells (+99%)
* Level 2: Cleric 211 spells, Wizard 434 spells (+106%)
And *Anyspell, Greater* only builds on this to give access to 3rd, 4th and 5th level spells -- 399, 355 and 313 spells respectively.
So, *Anyspell* gives you, within 15 minutes, access to any one of 731 spells and *Anyspell, Greater* gives you, within 15 minutes, access to any one of 1067 spells.
1 *A Cleric intent on using Anyspell should find ways to procure a spellbook, with the right spells. Luckily, low-level spells are commensurately cheap; regardless of their utility.*
---
### But once per day?
Yes, once per day is quite a limitation. It's a limitation for any prepared spellcaster, though, and therefore there are often ways to work around it both in official and 3rd party material.
For example, a [*Pearl of Power*](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/magicItems/wondrousItems.htm#pearlofPower) of 3rd level (9,000 gp) and 6th level (36,000 gp) will allow to recall the spell (1/day) if necessary. I would expect prepared spellcasters to have such pearls at hand, as they are so useful.
Another example would be *Miser with Magic* (Kingdoms of Kalamar's Player's Guide, p. 88), which allows getting up to Int1 spell levels/day back with a simple Spellcraft DC.
However, keep reading, there's better ways for *Anyspell*...
1 *If you use [this Adaptation PDF](https://www.kenzerco.com/Orpg/kalamar/KPG5_feats.pdf), then the feat requires an Arcane Caster Level 7, and uses the spellcasting attribute rather than Int.*
---
### But it means taking the Spell domain!
Well, the Spell domain is a hardly a slouch: *Anyspell* (3), *Break Enchantment* (5), *Anyspell, Greater* (6), *Limited Wish* (7), *Antimagic Field* (8) and *Mordenkainen's Disjunction* (9). That's a very solid combination.
And... as usual for D&D, there are other ways to access the spell. The very broken *Initiate of Mystra* feat (Player's Guide to Faerun) also grants access to the spell...
---
### Initiate of Mystra
There are only 2 requirements for this feat: Cleric level 3rd, and patron deity Mystra. Easy, peasy, for any Cleric of Mystra.
The basic effect of the feat is to give the Cleric of Mystra access to 6 new spells: *Spell Shield* (2), *Anyspell* (3), *Spell Phylactery* (5), *Anyspell, Greater* (6), *Spellmantle* (6) and *Holy Star* (7).
In doing so, it also lifts the domain slot restriction of *Anyspell* and *Anyspell, Greater*, allowing them to be cast as regular Cleric spells: that is, from any spell slot of appropriate level.
And of course, the most broken aspect of the feat, is that it allows a Cleric to cast in a Dead Magic zone or an *Antimagic Field*, with a relatively simple Caster Level check.
---
### Conclusion
I concur, those spells are broken good. Especially when their only limitation (1/day) can relatively easily be worked around. |
140,420 | I have seen it rated gold in many guides, but no reasoning was provided.
Sure, you can cast Invisibility or Glitterdust now, but it is *once per day*, using a *3rd level slot*, and you need to have access to the spell in written form.
This does seem nice, but too little to matter.
Is there something I am missing? Can a Cleric activate a wand if the spell is in his head with Anyspell for example? | 2019/02/03 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/140420",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/9552/"
] | ### The relative value of flexibility and 3rd-level spell slots
Flexibility is extremely valuable, and a 3rd-level spell slot isn’t really. That’s basically what it comes down to—once per day, you can cast *any spell* of 2nd-level or lower. You don’t need to know what spell that will be, it can just be whatever spell turns out to be important. And all you need to dedicate to it is a 3rd-level spell slot.
Maybe at 5th or 6th level, when your 3rd-level spells are your highest-level spell slots, *anyspell* would not be your top choice. Maybe you would prefer to prepare whatever your other domain is offering at that level. But when you get to 7th level—and 4th-level spells—a slot of your *second-highest* spell level is vastly less valuable. And it just keeps going down in relative value, making it so much easier to spend that spell slot on the massive flexibility that *anyspell* offers. And even if you end up trading your other domain for a devotion feat per *Complete Champion*, yeah maybe that’s a small drawback at 5th and 6th but it’s far from the end of the world, and by 7th you’re better off.
### The “once per day” restriction
As for the 1/day restriction, it doesn’t really matter—all prepared spells are each once per day. You are giving up a 1/day of some other 3rd-level spell for getting this 1/day. And while flexibility is massively valuable, you ultimately want to have most of your spells be your workhorse spells—the reduction in spell level is a big deal, too. You wouldn’t want to fill *too* many slots with *anyspell*. When you’re high enough level, yeah, maybe you’d want to use more, even all 3rd-level slots for *anyspell*, but that’s by no means guaranteed. You have a pretty good chance of having a good reason to pull a rabbit out of your hat once a day, but a second time, or a third? If you’re wanting *anyspell* that much, you might want to reconsider the other spells you’re preparing. Anyway, the horribly-broken (but for different reasons) Initiate of Mystra spell could get around this, as could various options for using domain spells more (domain spontaneity, domain staffs, a *domain icon*, etc.), if you *really* wanted to.
### But the big caveat—you need a library to pull your spell from
Now, this presumes that *anyspell* requires that you be able to cast *any spell*, which requires access to the spell in written form. It is probable that recommendations for the spell are overlooking this limitation—because it is a dire one. That said, if the party has the right allies—a wizard, most likely—or the right enemies—again, mostly wizards—spellbooks full of spells may well be available. It is no great difficulty for a friendly wizard to study their books, and then hand them to the cleric for safekeeping/*anyspell* use. And if spellbooks are captured, those can also be kept by the cleric for *anyspell* use.
Nonetheless, these assumptions do not necessarily hold—and for a cleric to go out of their way to get copies of spellbooks may well be a poor use of their resources, making *anyspell* fairly useless (though it may well be worthwhile; the effect still is *really* good—but certainly non-trivial preparation if you’re going for it). Being once a day matters more here, too, since the effort of preparing for casting *anyspell* is the same no matter how many times you cast it (but this only matters so much, since the first cast per day is by far the most valuable one).
The need to heavily prepare for *anyspell* use is a therefore a **massive** caveat on the spell that by rights *should* be mentioned whenever it is recommended. The fact that it hasn’t been suggests that people are overlooking the limitation, presumably because they assume they know how *anyspell* works and don’t need to (re)read the details. In some games, it won’t be a big deal, and in others it might still be worth it, but it’s absolutely a non-trivial consideration that recommendations should be bringing to your attention. | Anyspell is good, but it specifically occupies the domain slot, as in the spell description. Even the feat: initiate of Mystra does not get around this.
It does allow for the spell to be cast multiple times even though it can only have one single spell in the 3rd level domain slot (and another in the 6th level domain slot for greater anyspell), still solid but not broken.
At 15 minutes casting time, it will very rarely be used more than once per day and thus usually not worthwhile to prepare multiple times during an adventure. Domain spontaneity is a bit better suited but still rarely useful on the fly.
The main appeal for the spells is to have the option to use spells like permanency and fabricate and other, particularly long lasting effect, spells and also enable the crafting of items that require certain spells. |
140,420 | I have seen it rated gold in many guides, but no reasoning was provided.
Sure, you can cast Invisibility or Glitterdust now, but it is *once per day*, using a *3rd level slot*, and you need to have access to the spell in written form.
This does seem nice, but too little to matter.
Is there something I am missing? Can a Cleric activate a wand if the spell is in his head with Anyspell for example? | 2019/02/03 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/140420",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/9552/"
] | In short: **versatility**.
---
### Versatility?
The reason that prepared spellcasters such as the Cleric or the Wizard are generally seen as Tier 1 is because of the sheer versatility of the spells they can cast: no matter the situation, they have a spell that's tailor-made for it.
No all spellcasters have the exact right spell, though, and therefore part of the optimization game for a spellcaster is finding ways to access spells that they would not normally have access to; such as spells from another spell list:
* either to obtain superb/broken spells from another list,
* or to obtain spells that cover blind spots in one's list.
A caster's power is pretty much tied to the variety of spells it can tap into, so anything expanding this spell list is worth a look.
---
### So, Anyspell?
*Anyspell*, and *Anyspell, Greater*, give access to spells from another spell list. There is indeed a limitation of 1/day each, and a written copy of the spell is necessary1, however in exchange...
When many class features allow you to pick one spell off another spell list when leveling up, or give you (*gasp*) access to *one domain*, *Anyspell* has no such limitation: every use allows you to pick a new spell. **Late choice** means choosing when you have information to inform the choice, rather than picking a spell or domain several levels before and hope they prove useful.
Furthermore, *Anyspell* gives access to **the most versatile spell list** in the game. For comparison, checking a database:
* Level 1: Cleric 149 spells, Wizard 297 spells (+99%)
* Level 2: Cleric 211 spells, Wizard 434 spells (+106%)
And *Anyspell, Greater* only builds on this to give access to 3rd, 4th and 5th level spells -- 399, 355 and 313 spells respectively.
So, *Anyspell* gives you, within 15 minutes, access to any one of 731 spells and *Anyspell, Greater* gives you, within 15 minutes, access to any one of 1067 spells.
1 *A Cleric intent on using Anyspell should find ways to procure a spellbook, with the right spells. Luckily, low-level spells are commensurately cheap; regardless of their utility.*
---
### But once per day?
Yes, once per day is quite a limitation. It's a limitation for any prepared spellcaster, though, and therefore there are often ways to work around it both in official and 3rd party material.
For example, a [*Pearl of Power*](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/magicItems/wondrousItems.htm#pearlofPower) of 3rd level (9,000 gp) and 6th level (36,000 gp) will allow to recall the spell (1/day) if necessary. I would expect prepared spellcasters to have such pearls at hand, as they are so useful.
Another example would be *Miser with Magic* (Kingdoms of Kalamar's Player's Guide, p. 88), which allows getting up to Int1 spell levels/day back with a simple Spellcraft DC.
However, keep reading, there's better ways for *Anyspell*...
1 *If you use [this Adaptation PDF](https://www.kenzerco.com/Orpg/kalamar/KPG5_feats.pdf), then the feat requires an Arcane Caster Level 7, and uses the spellcasting attribute rather than Int.*
---
### But it means taking the Spell domain!
Well, the Spell domain is a hardly a slouch: *Anyspell* (3), *Break Enchantment* (5), *Anyspell, Greater* (6), *Limited Wish* (7), *Antimagic Field* (8) and *Mordenkainen's Disjunction* (9). That's a very solid combination.
And... as usual for D&D, there are other ways to access the spell. The very broken *Initiate of Mystra* feat (Player's Guide to Faerun) also grants access to the spell...
---
### Initiate of Mystra
There are only 2 requirements for this feat: Cleric level 3rd, and patron deity Mystra. Easy, peasy, for any Cleric of Mystra.
The basic effect of the feat is to give the Cleric of Mystra access to 6 new spells: *Spell Shield* (2), *Anyspell* (3), *Spell Phylactery* (5), *Anyspell, Greater* (6), *Spellmantle* (6) and *Holy Star* (7).
In doing so, it also lifts the domain slot restriction of *Anyspell* and *Anyspell, Greater*, allowing them to be cast as regular Cleric spells: that is, from any spell slot of appropriate level.
And of course, the most broken aspect of the feat, is that it allows a Cleric to cast in a Dead Magic zone or an *Antimagic Field*, with a relatively simple Caster Level check.
---
### Conclusion
I concur, those spells are broken good. Especially when their only limitation (1/day) can relatively easily be worked around. | Anyspell is good, but it specifically occupies the domain slot, as in the spell description. Even the feat: initiate of Mystra does not get around this.
It does allow for the spell to be cast multiple times even though it can only have one single spell in the 3rd level domain slot (and another in the 6th level domain slot for greater anyspell), still solid but not broken.
At 15 minutes casting time, it will very rarely be used more than once per day and thus usually not worthwhile to prepare multiple times during an adventure. Domain spontaneity is a bit better suited but still rarely useful on the fly.
The main appeal for the spells is to have the option to use spells like permanency and fabricate and other, particularly long lasting effect, spells and also enable the crafting of items that require certain spells. |
25,730 | I would like to get the achievement **Out of Bullets** but I don't have the English version of the game. Can you please tell which is the number of mission called 'Out of Bullets'? Or post me a screenshot of that scenario? | 2011/07/03 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/25730",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/730/"
] | Okay, so this achievement is a little missleading. It's not a mission or campaign pack that's called "Out of Bullets"; instead, it refers to a specific challenge mode available to some story missions (5 in total)
 | Search for the Out Of Bullets game mode on five of the original levels. Select campaign "The Awakening" and mission "Ancient Research". |
25,730 | I would like to get the achievement **Out of Bullets** but I don't have the English version of the game. Can you please tell which is the number of mission called 'Out of Bullets'? Or post me a screenshot of that scenario? | 2011/07/03 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/25730",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/730/"
] | Okay, so this achievement is a little missleading. It's not a mission or campaign pack that's called "Out of Bullets"; instead, it refers to a specific challenge mode available to some story missions (5 in total)
 | It's not the name of an actual mission. It's a mode for the normal original levels.
See:
Edit: I took [screenshots](https://imgur.com/a/6CtvW) of the first mission that you can play in 'Out of Bullets' mode (which was added in a recent update). |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | Its very simple and clear to me, there are two kind of things which one can use to fight other.
Some weapons are kept in hand and some are thrown away, this is the basic way to define weapons in Puranas.
Shastra is something which is hand held, like a sword, a gada or any object which we fight with and which remains in our hand.
Astra is something which you have to throw on your enemy. Like the bow and arrow. | I do not have a pranaamam (authentic reference) but I am just repeating what I heard in a religious discourse by [Sri. Karunakaracharyar](https://www.facebook.com/nadadoor.ammal).
Sastras are the arrows that are used without any mantra. In the sense that they do not have any power other than obeying physics. Astras are the divine arrows that are obtained by praying against certain gods. They may not be available in the archer's [quiver](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quiver) but can be obtained by chanting the relevant mantra. These astras seems to defy many physical laws like:
* They multiply
* They act like guided weapon chasing the target
* They invoke destructive force beyond just physical force etc.
* Any object can be invoked as astra; when Rama was lying with his head on Sita's lap, he was not having any of his weapons with him. However when he understood the evil intentions of the crow, he used a blade of grass to invoke the most powerful weapon brahmastra, just by uttering the required mantra.
Lord Vishnu's Chakra is considered to be the master of all weapons. |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | First of all, the etymological definition of both, according to Monier-Williams:
**śastra**, √śas (to cut, kill, slaughter) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zas) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zastra)
– an instrument for cutting or wounding, knife, sword, dagger
– a weapon which is handled
**astra**, √as (to throw, cast, shoot at) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/23.html#asf2) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/24.html#H_astra)
– a missile weapon, bolt, arrow
– a weapon which is thrown
Technical definitions:
----------------------
1) **Ramayana**: In the introductory notes on the English translation of the Ramayana by Desiraju Hanumanta Rao & K. M. K. Murthy:
>
> "Sage Vishvamitra satisfied with the behaviour of Rama in obliging the orders of elders and performing the act that is assigned to him, gives many weapons to Rama, called śastra, astras. The weaponry is categorised mainly into two types. One is śastra - a handheld weapon like sword, lance or mace. The other is astra - a projectile missile invoked by reciting hymns."
>
>
> [(source)](http://valmikiramayan.net/utf8/baala/sarga27/bala_27_frame.htm)
>
>
>
Note that this chapter mentions the various astras used and the following chapter mentions the counter-astras.
In the footnotes:
>
> "There are some verses that depict the nature of these astras. A few of them are given under. Though we may not actually acquire a projectile power with these verses, they may at least detail what these missiles are. The source of these verses is untraceable, but they are said to be in puranas..."
>
>
>
2) **Ramayana**: Quoting M. Lakshmi in his article "Mareecha in Valmiki and Adhyatma Ramayana" (2003):
>
> "While slaying Tataki, Rama used a Sastra. Arrows may be divided as Sastras and Astras. A Sastra can only be used once. An Astra can be used again and again. If one uses the Astra, it does its work and comes back to the user. By chanting the prescribed Mantra one has to purify the Astra."
>
>
> [(source)](http://www.yabaluri.org/Web%20(1978%20-%202008)/mareechainvalmikiandadhyatmaramayanaoct2003.htm)
>
>
>
3) **Bhagavata Purana**: According to A. C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupāda in his English translation of the Śrīmad Bhāgavatam, astra concerns "weapons shot as arrows" and śastra concerns "other weapons".
[(source)](https://innerschool.org/spb/sb/10/83/20/index.html)
4) **Lalita-Sahasranama**: According to Ravi in his commentary on the Lalitā-sahasranāma, name 79:
>
> "She counters the weapons used by Bhandāsura, by using Her own. Here, two types of weaponaries are mentioned. One is astra that is thrown at the enemies in a battle field. Modern day bombs can be compared to this. Another is śastra, which is always held in hand, like a gun. The weaponaries of Lalitai aids our efforts in attaining bliss by destroying avidyā. Weapons coming out of Her hands are aimed at us in destroying the illusion of duality."
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.manblunder.com/articlesview/lalitha-sahasranamam-77-80)
>
>
>
Marathi:
--------
Finally the grammatical definition of the words in the Marathi language:
>
> śastra (शस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon. 2 A weapon figuratively, that in which one's prevalence or power consists;--as learning, beauty, sanctity, the pen &c. Applied also to any thing considered as the masterer, match, vanquisher, antidote &c., of any other thing. śa0 tuḷaṇēṃ or tōlaṇēṃ To point or set or hold in position one's weapon: also to wave or brandish it. śa0 dharaṇēṃ with vara of o. To take up arms against.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/shastra#marathi)
>
>
> astra (अस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon charmed by the recitation over it of some mystic formula: also the formula or mantra. Ex. of comp. agnyastra, vārūṇāstra, mēghāstra, sarpāstra, astravidyā, astraprayōga. 2 S A Weapon gen.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/astra#marathi)
>
>
> | I do not have a pranaamam (authentic reference) but I am just repeating what I heard in a religious discourse by [Sri. Karunakaracharyar](https://www.facebook.com/nadadoor.ammal).
Sastras are the arrows that are used without any mantra. In the sense that they do not have any power other than obeying physics. Astras are the divine arrows that are obtained by praying against certain gods. They may not be available in the archer's [quiver](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quiver) but can be obtained by chanting the relevant mantra. These astras seems to defy many physical laws like:
* They multiply
* They act like guided weapon chasing the target
* They invoke destructive force beyond just physical force etc.
* Any object can be invoked as astra; when Rama was lying with his head on Sita's lap, he was not having any of his weapons with him. However when he understood the evil intentions of the crow, he used a blade of grass to invoke the most powerful weapon brahmastra, just by uttering the required mantra.
Lord Vishnu's Chakra is considered to be the master of all weapons. |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | I do not have a pranaamam (authentic reference) but I am just repeating what I heard in a religious discourse by [Sri. Karunakaracharyar](https://www.facebook.com/nadadoor.ammal).
Sastras are the arrows that are used without any mantra. In the sense that they do not have any power other than obeying physics. Astras are the divine arrows that are obtained by praying against certain gods. They may not be available in the archer's [quiver](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quiver) but can be obtained by chanting the relevant mantra. These astras seems to defy many physical laws like:
* They multiply
* They act like guided weapon chasing the target
* They invoke destructive force beyond just physical force etc.
* Any object can be invoked as astra; when Rama was lying with his head on Sita's lap, he was not having any of his weapons with him. However when he understood the evil intentions of the crow, he used a blade of grass to invoke the most powerful weapon brahmastra, just by uttering the required mantra.
Lord Vishnu's Chakra is considered to be the master of all weapons. | Namaste ,
I tend to think of it in the sense of our physical being; ie the body (being the ‘bow’ Shastra ) and our voice (the ‘arrow’ Astra). And only empowered by the secret teachings from the deities. These ‘empowerments’ can be experienced when we follow a spiritual path with the help of realised teachers. Today we look for these ‘warrior’ qualities in the internal martial arts. |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | First of all, the etymological definition of both, according to Monier-Williams:
**śastra**, √śas (to cut, kill, slaughter) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zas) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zastra)
– an instrument for cutting or wounding, knife, sword, dagger
– a weapon which is handled
**astra**, √as (to throw, cast, shoot at) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/23.html#asf2) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/24.html#H_astra)
– a missile weapon, bolt, arrow
– a weapon which is thrown
Technical definitions:
----------------------
1) **Ramayana**: In the introductory notes on the English translation of the Ramayana by Desiraju Hanumanta Rao & K. M. K. Murthy:
>
> "Sage Vishvamitra satisfied with the behaviour of Rama in obliging the orders of elders and performing the act that is assigned to him, gives many weapons to Rama, called śastra, astras. The weaponry is categorised mainly into two types. One is śastra - a handheld weapon like sword, lance or mace. The other is astra - a projectile missile invoked by reciting hymns."
>
>
> [(source)](http://valmikiramayan.net/utf8/baala/sarga27/bala_27_frame.htm)
>
>
>
Note that this chapter mentions the various astras used and the following chapter mentions the counter-astras.
In the footnotes:
>
> "There are some verses that depict the nature of these astras. A few of them are given under. Though we may not actually acquire a projectile power with these verses, they may at least detail what these missiles are. The source of these verses is untraceable, but they are said to be in puranas..."
>
>
>
2) **Ramayana**: Quoting M. Lakshmi in his article "Mareecha in Valmiki and Adhyatma Ramayana" (2003):
>
> "While slaying Tataki, Rama used a Sastra. Arrows may be divided as Sastras and Astras. A Sastra can only be used once. An Astra can be used again and again. If one uses the Astra, it does its work and comes back to the user. By chanting the prescribed Mantra one has to purify the Astra."
>
>
> [(source)](http://www.yabaluri.org/Web%20(1978%20-%202008)/mareechainvalmikiandadhyatmaramayanaoct2003.htm)
>
>
>
3) **Bhagavata Purana**: According to A. C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupāda in his English translation of the Śrīmad Bhāgavatam, astra concerns "weapons shot as arrows" and śastra concerns "other weapons".
[(source)](https://innerschool.org/spb/sb/10/83/20/index.html)
4) **Lalita-Sahasranama**: According to Ravi in his commentary on the Lalitā-sahasranāma, name 79:
>
> "She counters the weapons used by Bhandāsura, by using Her own. Here, two types of weaponaries are mentioned. One is astra that is thrown at the enemies in a battle field. Modern day bombs can be compared to this. Another is śastra, which is always held in hand, like a gun. The weaponaries of Lalitai aids our efforts in attaining bliss by destroying avidyā. Weapons coming out of Her hands are aimed at us in destroying the illusion of duality."
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.manblunder.com/articlesview/lalitha-sahasranamam-77-80)
>
>
>
Marathi:
--------
Finally the grammatical definition of the words in the Marathi language:
>
> śastra (शस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon. 2 A weapon figuratively, that in which one's prevalence or power consists;--as learning, beauty, sanctity, the pen &c. Applied also to any thing considered as the masterer, match, vanquisher, antidote &c., of any other thing. śa0 tuḷaṇēṃ or tōlaṇēṃ To point or set or hold in position one's weapon: also to wave or brandish it. śa0 dharaṇēṃ with vara of o. To take up arms against.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/shastra#marathi)
>
>
> astra (अस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon charmed by the recitation over it of some mystic formula: also the formula or mantra. Ex. of comp. agnyastra, vārūṇāstra, mēghāstra, sarpāstra, astravidyā, astraprayōga. 2 S A Weapon gen.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/astra#marathi)
>
>
> | Its very simple and clear to me, there are two kind of things which one can use to fight other.
Some weapons are kept in hand and some are thrown away, this is the basic way to define weapons in Puranas.
Shastra is something which is hand held, like a sword, a gada or any object which we fight with and which remains in our hand.
Astra is something which you have to throw on your enemy. Like the bow and arrow. |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | Its very simple and clear to me, there are two kind of things which one can use to fight other.
Some weapons are kept in hand and some are thrown away, this is the basic way to define weapons in Puranas.
Shastra is something which is hand held, like a sword, a gada or any object which we fight with and which remains in our hand.
Astra is something which you have to throw on your enemy. Like the bow and arrow. | Namaste ,
I tend to think of it in the sense of our physical being; ie the body (being the ‘bow’ Shastra ) and our voice (the ‘arrow’ Astra). And only empowered by the secret teachings from the deities. These ‘empowerments’ can be experienced when we follow a spiritual path with the help of realised teachers. Today we look for these ‘warrior’ qualities in the internal martial arts. |
8,065 | I want to know the difference between astra & Shastra
and What type of astra & Shastra use in Mahabharata & Ramayana ? | 2015/08/10 | [
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/8065",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com",
"https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/users/3319/"
] | First of all, the etymological definition of both, according to Monier-Williams:
**śastra**, √śas (to cut, kill, slaughter) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zas) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/259.html#H_zastra)
– an instrument for cutting or wounding, knife, sword, dagger
– a weapon which is handled
**astra**, √as (to throw, cast, shoot at) [(1)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/23.html#asf2) [(2)](http://sanskrit.inria.fr/MW/24.html#H_astra)
– a missile weapon, bolt, arrow
– a weapon which is thrown
Technical definitions:
----------------------
1) **Ramayana**: In the introductory notes on the English translation of the Ramayana by Desiraju Hanumanta Rao & K. M. K. Murthy:
>
> "Sage Vishvamitra satisfied with the behaviour of Rama in obliging the orders of elders and performing the act that is assigned to him, gives many weapons to Rama, called śastra, astras. The weaponry is categorised mainly into two types. One is śastra - a handheld weapon like sword, lance or mace. The other is astra - a projectile missile invoked by reciting hymns."
>
>
> [(source)](http://valmikiramayan.net/utf8/baala/sarga27/bala_27_frame.htm)
>
>
>
Note that this chapter mentions the various astras used and the following chapter mentions the counter-astras.
In the footnotes:
>
> "There are some verses that depict the nature of these astras. A few of them are given under. Though we may not actually acquire a projectile power with these verses, they may at least detail what these missiles are. The source of these verses is untraceable, but they are said to be in puranas..."
>
>
>
2) **Ramayana**: Quoting M. Lakshmi in his article "Mareecha in Valmiki and Adhyatma Ramayana" (2003):
>
> "While slaying Tataki, Rama used a Sastra. Arrows may be divided as Sastras and Astras. A Sastra can only be used once. An Astra can be used again and again. If one uses the Astra, it does its work and comes back to the user. By chanting the prescribed Mantra one has to purify the Astra."
>
>
> [(source)](http://www.yabaluri.org/Web%20(1978%20-%202008)/mareechainvalmikiandadhyatmaramayanaoct2003.htm)
>
>
>
3) **Bhagavata Purana**: According to A. C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupāda in his English translation of the Śrīmad Bhāgavatam, astra concerns "weapons shot as arrows" and śastra concerns "other weapons".
[(source)](https://innerschool.org/spb/sb/10/83/20/index.html)
4) **Lalita-Sahasranama**: According to Ravi in his commentary on the Lalitā-sahasranāma, name 79:
>
> "She counters the weapons used by Bhandāsura, by using Her own. Here, two types of weaponaries are mentioned. One is astra that is thrown at the enemies in a battle field. Modern day bombs can be compared to this. Another is śastra, which is always held in hand, like a gun. The weaponaries of Lalitai aids our efforts in attaining bliss by destroying avidyā. Weapons coming out of Her hands are aimed at us in destroying the illusion of duality."
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.manblunder.com/articlesview/lalitha-sahasranamam-77-80)
>
>
>
Marathi:
--------
Finally the grammatical definition of the words in the Marathi language:
>
> śastra (शस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon. 2 A weapon figuratively, that in which one's prevalence or power consists;--as learning, beauty, sanctity, the pen &c. Applied also to any thing considered as the masterer, match, vanquisher, antidote &c., of any other thing. śa0 tuḷaṇēṃ or tōlaṇēṃ To point or set or hold in position one's weapon: also to wave or brandish it. śa0 dharaṇēṃ with vara of o. To take up arms against.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/shastra#marathi)
>
>
> astra (अस्त्र).—n (S) A weapon charmed by the recitation over it of some mystic formula: also the formula or mantra. Ex. of comp. agnyastra, vārūṇāstra, mēghāstra, sarpāstra, astravidyā, astraprayōga. 2 S A Weapon gen.
>
>
> [(source)](https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/astra#marathi)
>
>
> | Namaste ,
I tend to think of it in the sense of our physical being; ie the body (being the ‘bow’ Shastra ) and our voice (the ‘arrow’ Astra). And only empowered by the secret teachings from the deities. These ‘empowerments’ can be experienced when we follow a spiritual path with the help of realised teachers. Today we look for these ‘warrior’ qualities in the internal martial arts. |
452,743 | My research shows possible term for the one who completes his tasks at any cost.
1. Stubborn - Adjective -
The Cambridge Dictionary: a stubborn person is determined to do what he or she wants and refuses to do anything else.
Additionally, the Urban Dictionary (UD) a stubborn person always thinks he's right. These words made me confuse to select this term or not for the one who, whether or rain or shine, completes his tasks.
I don't mean that the term must refer to the who thinks he is right all the time. But, I need that term, that refer to the person completing his tasks such as homework, duty, etc, and is not rude to others.
Is it okay to regard this type of person as determined or tenacious? | 2018/07/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/452743",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/295228/"
] | ***golem*** can be stretched to meet the OP's definition. [Oxford Dictionaries](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/golem) defines golem as:
>
> 1(in Jewish legend) a clay figure brought to life by magic.
>
>
> 1.1 An automaton or robot
>
>
>
Oxford Dictionaries (same link as above) explains the origin:
>
> Late 19th century: from Yiddish goylem, from Hebrew gōlem ‘shapeless
> mass’
>
>
>
[Merriam Webster](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/golem) says:
>
> 1 : an artificial human being in Hebrew folklore endowed with life
>
>
> 2 : something or someone resembling a golem: such as a : automaton
> b : blockhead
>
>
>
Although the original meaning was a clay or mud figure brought to life by magic, because the meaning has been extended to a robot or automaton -- or a blockhead! -- I see no reason why it cannot also be extended to a being made from the body parts of dead people.
The body parts are inanimate, will turn into dirt eventually, and are much closer to clay or mud that are the parts of a robot. Jumbled in a heap, or if they have been dead long enough, they are shapeless. And if the creator of the golem puts the parts through a industrial size mix-master so he can mold the shape of his golem, rather than assemble it jig-saw puzzle fashion, golem is indisputably the word. | I would suggest "construct" or "amalgamation" in reference to it being a gathering of disparate parts. Some other options include...
"patchwork" from the garment industry,
"pastiche" from painting
or for a more culinary reference, "goulash" or "salmagundi"! |
452,743 | My research shows possible term for the one who completes his tasks at any cost.
1. Stubborn - Adjective -
The Cambridge Dictionary: a stubborn person is determined to do what he or she wants and refuses to do anything else.
Additionally, the Urban Dictionary (UD) a stubborn person always thinks he's right. These words made me confuse to select this term or not for the one who, whether or rain or shine, completes his tasks.
I don't mean that the term must refer to the who thinks he is right all the time. But, I need that term, that refer to the person completing his tasks such as homework, duty, etc, and is not rude to others.
Is it okay to regard this type of person as determined or tenacious? | 2018/07/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/452743",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/295228/"
] | I don't think there is a generic term. This is why, when something is metaphorically stitched together from disparate parts in a monster-like way, it is often described as "like Frankenstein's monster" or as "a Frankenstein" (with the common confusing of the two). If there were a common generic term, people would sometimes use it in this situation.
I saw in the comments that the OP is seeking a term from folklore, but Frankenstein's monster *is* the lore for this.
Golem is not a good term. There is a well-established folklore for them and it does not include using parts of human bodies. If zombie, in the old sense of a human body reanimated and controlled by magic, is not suitable, then golem is not suitable either. | I would suggest "construct" or "amalgamation" in reference to it being a gathering of disparate parts. Some other options include...
"patchwork" from the garment industry,
"pastiche" from painting
or for a more culinary reference, "goulash" or "salmagundi"! |
36,477,595 | I am new at SSRS and
currently working on managing reports and dashboards in TFS and Report Manager with my team. So I have one whole project "Management".
It has reports relatively to Departments and Employees. It does not look good with hundreds of reports in one project. I am thinking to break down these reports into "Management\_Department" and "Management\_Employees". Now the problem is Departments and Employees are connected with parameters.
My question is: is it possible to create these two separate projects but keep the flow(drill through) between Department and Employee reports, even if they are in to two different projects but the same solution.
I would appreciate any suggestion. | 2016/04/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36477595",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6172289/"
] | Yes you can. Actually you can drill to any reports deployed on the same SSRS server. Try this:
1. go to Text Box Properties, go to Action, select "go to report" (just like how you normally config the link).
2. Then, don't select reports from the drop down list. Instead, manually type in the path of the report that you want to go to. For example, /FolderName/ReportName.
If you 're not sure the path of your sub-report, you can skip creating the link and deploy the 2 reports first. Then you go to the web page where you deployed it, "Edit in Report Builder". Do the step 1 above, then you click "Browse" to select from all the reports you've deployed onto the server. I found myself can only use the "Browse" in Report Builder, but not in Visual Studio. But you can still use this method in Visual Studio, only you can't test it until you've deployed. Hope that helps. | Unfortunately, if you separate the reports into projects the **Go To Report** action will no longer work.
You could change these into **Go To URL** actions instead but then you'd need to map all the parameters and deal with the syntax issues.
I would see if there are enough non-linked reports to determine if it makes sense to break them out into separate projects.
[Passing parameter via url to sql server reporting service](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1078863/passing-parameter-via-url-to-sql-server-reporting-service)
[Change Link Target property for Jump to URL action SSRS 2008 R2 (rc:LinkTarget)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12248731/change-link-target-property-for-jump-to-url-action-ssrs-2008-r2-rclinktarget?rq=1) |
148,156 | does anyone know of a tool that can display the firmware of a hard disk? | 2010/06/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/148156",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2876/"
] | I would suggest you look for a software utility provided by the manufacturer of your hard drive. I would not expect to find a way to query the firmware version that isn't specific to a manufacturer. | If you are referring to the driver for a hard disk then that is available from Control Panel -> System -> Hardware -> Device Manager -> Disk Drives -> Driver. |
148,156 | does anyone know of a tool that can display the firmware of a hard disk? | 2010/06/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/148156",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2876/"
] | In [this thread](https://superuser.com/questions/5809/deleting-files-in-windows-xp-extremely-slow) I list the major vendors' utilities. | If you are referring to the driver for a hard disk then that is available from Control Panel -> System -> Hardware -> Device Manager -> Disk Drives -> Driver. |
148,156 | does anyone know of a tool that can display the firmware of a hard disk? | 2010/06/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/148156",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2876/"
] | Sometimes Device Manager can give up some useful information.
Under Device Manager the detailed properties for my cd-rom it drive shows the full ID string that my drive reports to windows and I know for a fact that the latest firmware is DW10, as reported by the drive. As you can see I'm on the Details tab, with the property "Device Instance Path"
It could be your drive does something similar. Sorry I couldn't check my hard drives for this though, they're hidden behind a RAID array.
 | If you are referring to the driver for a hard disk then that is available from Control Panel -> System -> Hardware -> Device Manager -> Disk Drives -> Driver. |
148,156 | does anyone know of a tool that can display the firmware of a hard disk? | 2010/06/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/148156",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2876/"
] | In [this thread](https://superuser.com/questions/5809/deleting-files-in-windows-xp-extremely-slow) I list the major vendors' utilities. | I would suggest you look for a software utility provided by the manufacturer of your hard drive. I would not expect to find a way to query the firmware version that isn't specific to a manufacturer. |
148,156 | does anyone know of a tool that can display the firmware of a hard disk? | 2010/06/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/148156",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2876/"
] | In [this thread](https://superuser.com/questions/5809/deleting-files-in-windows-xp-extremely-slow) I list the major vendors' utilities. | Sometimes Device Manager can give up some useful information.
Under Device Manager the detailed properties for my cd-rom it drive shows the full ID string that my drive reports to windows and I know for a fact that the latest firmware is DW10, as reported by the drive. As you can see I'm on the Details tab, with the property "Device Instance Path"
It could be your drive does something similar. Sorry I couldn't check my hard drives for this though, they're hidden behind a RAID array.
 |
51,728,304 | Country select of
[autocomplete demo at material-ui](https://material-ui.com/demos/autocomplete/)
uses react-select and material-ui controls,
shows multiline text, select control changes it's dimensions when country doesn't fit in one line.
I see this behaviour at CodeSandbox when I decrease width of web browser.
How can I modify demo so that country will always fit in one line,
select control will not change it's dimensions? | 2018/08/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/51728304",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6761087/"
] | Will not work. `let` was introduced in ES6. | It wouldn't work for an ES5 compiler. But using [Babel](https://babeljs.io/) will solve this issue by transpiling your ES6 code down to compatible versions. |
4,627 | Joomla! 3.3.5 was recently released and I am deploying it to a total of 6 sites. 4 of them detected the update and installed it without issue, but 2 did not. They both state that 3.3.4 is the current version, which is not the case. I have tried the 'Purge Cache' button without success as well as purging everything in 'Clear Cache' under the 'System' menu.
Any other ideas on where this might be hanging up and preventing Joomla! from detecting the update?
Thank you in advance for your assistance. | 2014/09/30 | [
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/questions/4627",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/users/32/"
] | The updates for 3.3.5 and 2.5.26 were pulled after a last minute (but minor) issue was detected.
Please see: <https://plus.google.com/+joomla/posts/XmkJAm4fCGS>
also: <https://www.facebook.com/joomla>
and: <https://twitter.com/joomla/status/517021851231744001>
As it mentions if you've already run the update (or applied it manually) it's not a problem but you will have apply the next update manually. | Are you by any chance running those sites on localhost? I'm asking because I had the same problem with a couple of development sites on localhost.
Either way, you can download the latest patch directly from [joomla.org](http://joomlacode.org/gf/project/joomla/frs/?action=FrsReleaseBrowse&frs_package_id=6952). The 3.3.4 to 3.3.5 patch is only 91.97 KB. Upload and unzip the file to your Joomla root directory, overwriting any existing file.
Remember to take a backup of your site first, just in case.
**Update:**
As Valentin pointed out, the update can be installed directly through the Extension Manager. |
7,329 | This summer we'll go to France by car for the first time. I noticed that some motorways on our route require road charge to be paid (in case it matters - we're going from Freiburg to Perpignan).
How is this charge implemented in France? Can it be paid in advance? | 2012/05/28 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/7329",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/961/"
] | The charges ("péage" in French) are collected on site. On the roads subject to fees there are toll stations ("gare de péage") where you will have to pay. There are two types of stations. In the first situation you have to pay a lump sum for using a given road section. In the second you get a ticket when you enter a section subject to fee. When you leave this section you will have to show your ticket and pay. If you enter your itinerary into the [ViaMichelin route planner](http://www.viamichelin.com/), you will see how much you will have to pay for your trip.
You can pay by cash or by credit card. There are special lanes for people who want to pay by credit card.
There is also a system called "Télépéage". For that you will need a subscription. If you have it, you can use special lanes and drive through the toll stations without having to stop. The fees are then billed every month. This system only makes sense if you use these roads frequently. | There are toll booths when you enter and leave the péage. When you leave, they look at the ticket you got when you got on to see how much to charge you. |
7,329 | This summer we'll go to France by car for the first time. I noticed that some motorways on our route require road charge to be paid (in case it matters - we're going from Freiburg to Perpignan).
How is this charge implemented in France? Can it be paid in advance? | 2012/05/28 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/7329",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/961/"
] | The charges ("péage" in French) are collected on site. On the roads subject to fees there are toll stations ("gare de péage") where you will have to pay. There are two types of stations. In the first situation you have to pay a lump sum for using a given road section. In the second you get a ticket when you enter a section subject to fee. When you leave this section you will have to show your ticket and pay. If you enter your itinerary into the [ViaMichelin route planner](http://www.viamichelin.com/), you will see how much you will have to pay for your trip.
You can pay by cash or by credit card. There are special lanes for people who want to pay by credit card.
There is also a system called "Télépéage". For that you will need a subscription. If you have it, you can use special lanes and drive through the toll stations without having to stop. The fees are then billed every month. This system only makes sense if you use these roads frequently. | You will usually pay as you exit a big city and enter another one. That is the main idea.
You can calculate exactly how much it will cost on the French Motorway Company website (I picked up the english version for you): <http://www.autoroutes.fr/index.htm?lang=en>, before getting on the road. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | Difference in speed? Yes.
Noticeable difference? Probably not.
The "polling rate" of the mouse measures how many times per second (frequency, unit *Hz*) the mouse reports its relative position to "the computer". A higher rate means it reports more frequently. Most mice these days are around 250 Hz, older mice are usually 125 Hz. Is the human eye be able to register the difference between a rate of 125 "movements" per second vs 250 per second? Probably not.
Some gaming mice are (or at least advertise to be) 1000+ Hz per second. Keep in mind that the higher the frequency, the more CPU "power" is required to register the signal from the mouse.
DPI or dots per inch, is how far your mouse moves across the screen with each movement of the mouse. These are usually options on the mouse (gaming mice typically have a button you can push to change the DPI and maybe the color so you know your current DPI). DPI is important if you have a high resolution monitor ([4K](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/4K_resolution)) where pixels are so small that moving across 100 of them is a much shorter distance than a low resolution monitor. On lower resolution a high DPI can actually work against the user as one small movement of the mouse can send the cursor flying.
Keyboards have a few different measurements for speed, but the difference is so negligible that these speeds are rarely even reported in technical specifications. Like mice, they have a polling rate, but again, differences are almost always negligible and having a high polling rate keyboard will consume more CPU resources. Keyboards also have a matrix scanning time (1 ms - 10 ms typically), which is how long it takes for the keyboard to scan all the keys (hardware dependent). If a key is pressed, it "stores" the key in a temporary buffer. Then an algorithm (0.5 ms to 10 ms) determines if the event was "real", and if so, releases it from the temporary buffer and "hands it off" to await being sent to "the computer" (when is determined by the polling rate).
Now, to actually answer your question, USB versions have a "minimum bus interval", which impacts the theoretical maximum polling rate a peripheral device can have. For example: USB 3.1 has a minimum bus interval of 125 μs, so the theoretical maximum polling rate is 8000 Hz. Here's what I could find:
**USB 1.1** and **2.0 - Low Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 125 Hz
**USB 2.0 - Full Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 1000 Hz
**USB 2.0 - High Speed**, **USB 3.0**, and **USB 3.1**
Max Polling Rate: 8000 Hz
\*Keep in mind, however, that there are other factors that can impact peripheral performance, such as your operating system, and device drivers. | The one problem you should be aware of is that [USB 1.x](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) and [USB 2.0](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_2.0) protocols are converted using so-called "transaction translators" (TTs). There are some cheap hubs that only have a single transaction translator. That means that if some USB 1 device is transferring data, it will block the hub from accepting other USB 1 connections even if the hub can communicate upstream with USB 2 high speed. Which means that USB 1 devices will compete for USB 1 bandwidth instead of USB 2 bandwidth. Worse: a low speed USB 1 device will block a full speed USB 1 device from transferring its data.
So you should check that you have multiple TTs before connecting multiple USB 1 devices to a hub. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | If you don't notice a difference, it might not really matter. You can test your input delay by plugging in the mouse directly and measuring the polling rate. Then measure again through the hub.
Look for the download link that says "Direct Input mouse rate tool" in *[Mouse DPI and USB Polling Rate](https://blog.codinghorror.com/mouse-dpi-and-usb-polling-rate/)*.
There are many online tools that measure polling rate. Here are some Google search results: <https://www.google.com/search?q=online+mouse+polling+rate+checker>
Most consumer mice are 125 Hz which is at most a 8 ms delay. Gaming mice might go up to 1000 Hz which would be 1 ms response time. I think at least USB 2.0 is required for 1000 Hz. 7 ms is not much of a difference.
The actual time it takes for a signal to travel from the mouse through the hub and to the computer is likely less than 0.1 ms. I think the most significant factor is the polling rate, or the hardware in the mouse. Some monitors have an input lag of more than 10 ms. If you are gaming, a graphics card can take anywhere from 5 ms to 100 ms to display a frame, depending on things like vsync buffers and render time. | I expect the cost to be minimal. USB 1.1 was fairly widely popular, and wasn't considered slow for such devices. (It was just too slow for certain other types of devices.)
In many cases, all you need to worry about is the slowest link in the chain, also known as the bottleneck. It doesn't matter how fast other pieces of the communication can happen if there is one point which slows things down. If the mouse cursor feels instantly responsive and so the slowest point of the communication is the perception of the person interacting with technology that moves at the speed of computer circuitry, then there's no problem.
Keyboards really don't need tons of bandwidth. Even the few people who can type over 100 words per minute (like me) are probably only utilizing a bit more than 600 bytes per minute so any version of USB can handle that with ease. Gamepads that are similarly old will easily be satisfied with such old technology. (I'm not quite so sure about some of the newest gamepads, like ones that might also be compatible with modern video game consoles.) As for the mouse, you're likely fine but I could believe mouse movement might occasionally lag enough to be noticeable for some people. Certainly it would be within the realm of being quite tolerable for most people, but some people might be slightly annoyed.
The bigger impact may actually be how responsive other devices are, such as USB drives or networking devices that may benefit more from increased availability.
An example of where that isn't the case is 802.11, also known as wireless. If you have an 802.11ac device which is backwards compatible with 802.11n and 802.11g and 802.11b and perhaps 802.11a (the slowest of which is 802.11b), that 802.11b support actually really harms 802.11ac, even if it isn't being used much. The reason is that when the wireless access point does a routine 802.11b check, that requires that the equipment is unavailable for the amount of time it takes to communicate an 802.11b frame. And 802.11b frame takes a lot longer than an faster frame like an 802.11ac frame, so you could fit multiple 802.11ac communications in the time it takes for an 802.11b frame.
(That is a more extreme example. Similarly, and 802.11g frame would be faster than 802.11b but slower than 802.11n, and an 802.11n frame would be faster than 802.11g but slower than 802.11ac)
So, simply by plugging a USB 1.1 hub in, you might require more bandwidth/processing than some newer technology, using up more time with some motherboard resources. Perhaps the biggest impact would be upon other devices that could be using similar resources on the motherboard, and the most likely culprit may be other USB devices. It might place some circuitry into a slower-but-more-compatible mode, which might have side effects like slowing down transfer speed of a USB drive.
Related question: [Why does Windows 10 assign different port numbers to the same USB port when plugging in 3.0 vs. 2.0 device?](https://superuser.com/questions/1391813/why-does-windows-10-assign-different-port-numbers-to-the-same-usb-port-when-plug?rq=1) (grawity's answer shows that different USB controller circuitry gets involved for supporting older devices. In my opinion, what I think is likely is that using such older circuitry is not likely to be "more efficient because it distributes the load between multiple controllers". Rather, it is more likely that older communications standards will just slow things down overall, for reasons similar to the Wi-Fi example I described earlier.) |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | I expect the cost to be minimal. USB 1.1 was fairly widely popular, and wasn't considered slow for such devices. (It was just too slow for certain other types of devices.)
In many cases, all you need to worry about is the slowest link in the chain, also known as the bottleneck. It doesn't matter how fast other pieces of the communication can happen if there is one point which slows things down. If the mouse cursor feels instantly responsive and so the slowest point of the communication is the perception of the person interacting with technology that moves at the speed of computer circuitry, then there's no problem.
Keyboards really don't need tons of bandwidth. Even the few people who can type over 100 words per minute (like me) are probably only utilizing a bit more than 600 bytes per minute so any version of USB can handle that with ease. Gamepads that are similarly old will easily be satisfied with such old technology. (I'm not quite so sure about some of the newest gamepads, like ones that might also be compatible with modern video game consoles.) As for the mouse, you're likely fine but I could believe mouse movement might occasionally lag enough to be noticeable for some people. Certainly it would be within the realm of being quite tolerable for most people, but some people might be slightly annoyed.
The bigger impact may actually be how responsive other devices are, such as USB drives or networking devices that may benefit more from increased availability.
An example of where that isn't the case is 802.11, also known as wireless. If you have an 802.11ac device which is backwards compatible with 802.11n and 802.11g and 802.11b and perhaps 802.11a (the slowest of which is 802.11b), that 802.11b support actually really harms 802.11ac, even if it isn't being used much. The reason is that when the wireless access point does a routine 802.11b check, that requires that the equipment is unavailable for the amount of time it takes to communicate an 802.11b frame. And 802.11b frame takes a lot longer than an faster frame like an 802.11ac frame, so you could fit multiple 802.11ac communications in the time it takes for an 802.11b frame.
(That is a more extreme example. Similarly, and 802.11g frame would be faster than 802.11b but slower than 802.11n, and an 802.11n frame would be faster than 802.11g but slower than 802.11ac)
So, simply by plugging a USB 1.1 hub in, you might require more bandwidth/processing than some newer technology, using up more time with some motherboard resources. Perhaps the biggest impact would be upon other devices that could be using similar resources on the motherboard, and the most likely culprit may be other USB devices. It might place some circuitry into a slower-but-more-compatible mode, which might have side effects like slowing down transfer speed of a USB drive.
Related question: [Why does Windows 10 assign different port numbers to the same USB port when plugging in 3.0 vs. 2.0 device?](https://superuser.com/questions/1391813/why-does-windows-10-assign-different-port-numbers-to-the-same-usb-port-when-plug?rq=1) (grawity's answer shows that different USB controller circuitry gets involved for supporting older devices. In my opinion, what I think is likely is that using such older circuitry is not likely to be "more efficient because it distributes the load between multiple controllers". Rather, it is more likely that older communications standards will just slow things down overall, for reasons similar to the Wi-Fi example I described earlier.) | As to my knowledge, there are some limitations on [USB 1 / 1.1](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) input devices (keyboards limiting simultaneous key events to like 3, and mice limiting poll speed like in the previous answers).
But I don't know if that was more a way of saving costs for the controller chips than an actual limit of the USB bus... though for mice it seems reasonable to suspect bus speed being a factor. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | Difference in speed? Yes.
Noticeable difference? Probably not.
The "polling rate" of the mouse measures how many times per second (frequency, unit *Hz*) the mouse reports its relative position to "the computer". A higher rate means it reports more frequently. Most mice these days are around 250 Hz, older mice are usually 125 Hz. Is the human eye be able to register the difference between a rate of 125 "movements" per second vs 250 per second? Probably not.
Some gaming mice are (or at least advertise to be) 1000+ Hz per second. Keep in mind that the higher the frequency, the more CPU "power" is required to register the signal from the mouse.
DPI or dots per inch, is how far your mouse moves across the screen with each movement of the mouse. These are usually options on the mouse (gaming mice typically have a button you can push to change the DPI and maybe the color so you know your current DPI). DPI is important if you have a high resolution monitor ([4K](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/4K_resolution)) where pixels are so small that moving across 100 of them is a much shorter distance than a low resolution monitor. On lower resolution a high DPI can actually work against the user as one small movement of the mouse can send the cursor flying.
Keyboards have a few different measurements for speed, but the difference is so negligible that these speeds are rarely even reported in technical specifications. Like mice, they have a polling rate, but again, differences are almost always negligible and having a high polling rate keyboard will consume more CPU resources. Keyboards also have a matrix scanning time (1 ms - 10 ms typically), which is how long it takes for the keyboard to scan all the keys (hardware dependent). If a key is pressed, it "stores" the key in a temporary buffer. Then an algorithm (0.5 ms to 10 ms) determines if the event was "real", and if so, releases it from the temporary buffer and "hands it off" to await being sent to "the computer" (when is determined by the polling rate).
Now, to actually answer your question, USB versions have a "minimum bus interval", which impacts the theoretical maximum polling rate a peripheral device can have. For example: USB 3.1 has a minimum bus interval of 125 μs, so the theoretical maximum polling rate is 8000 Hz. Here's what I could find:
**USB 1.1** and **2.0 - Low Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 125 Hz
**USB 2.0 - Full Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 1000 Hz
**USB 2.0 - High Speed**, **USB 3.0**, and **USB 3.1**
Max Polling Rate: 8000 Hz
\*Keep in mind, however, that there are other factors that can impact peripheral performance, such as your operating system, and device drivers. | Unless you are trying to recover an OS (operating system), it shouldn't really matter.
We have a Lenovo box here at work that wasn't booting, so I used a recovery CD and when it booted into the environment my mouse and keyboard were unresponsive... I had to press keys to get into it, so I know they worked before getting into the recovery OS screen.
The problem ended up being that the box had *only* USB 3.0, which I subsequently found out was incompatible in the winrecovery UI. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | If you don't notice a difference, it might not really matter. You can test your input delay by plugging in the mouse directly and measuring the polling rate. Then measure again through the hub.
Look for the download link that says "Direct Input mouse rate tool" in *[Mouse DPI and USB Polling Rate](https://blog.codinghorror.com/mouse-dpi-and-usb-polling-rate/)*.
There are many online tools that measure polling rate. Here are some Google search results: <https://www.google.com/search?q=online+mouse+polling+rate+checker>
Most consumer mice are 125 Hz which is at most a 8 ms delay. Gaming mice might go up to 1000 Hz which would be 1 ms response time. I think at least USB 2.0 is required for 1000 Hz. 7 ms is not much of a difference.
The actual time it takes for a signal to travel from the mouse through the hub and to the computer is likely less than 0.1 ms. I think the most significant factor is the polling rate, or the hardware in the mouse. Some monitors have an input lag of more than 10 ms. If you are gaming, a graphics card can take anywhere from 5 ms to 100 ms to display a frame, depending on things like vsync buffers and render time. | The additional delay from a USB hub [is](https://superuser.com/a/918245/427799) of order of tens of microseconds for low-speed hubs and under one microsecond for high speed hubs. Humans don't notice delays less than 100 milliseconds, and in fact many computer screens have a latency as long as [70 ms](https://superuser.com/a/419167/427799), which is about 1000 times longer.
So no, a 0.1% increase in total lag because of the USB hub will not matter in practice. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | If you don't notice a difference, it might not really matter. You can test your input delay by plugging in the mouse directly and measuring the polling rate. Then measure again through the hub.
Look for the download link that says "Direct Input mouse rate tool" in *[Mouse DPI and USB Polling Rate](https://blog.codinghorror.com/mouse-dpi-and-usb-polling-rate/)*.
There are many online tools that measure polling rate. Here are some Google search results: <https://www.google.com/search?q=online+mouse+polling+rate+checker>
Most consumer mice are 125 Hz which is at most a 8 ms delay. Gaming mice might go up to 1000 Hz which would be 1 ms response time. I think at least USB 2.0 is required for 1000 Hz. 7 ms is not much of a difference.
The actual time it takes for a signal to travel from the mouse through the hub and to the computer is likely less than 0.1 ms. I think the most significant factor is the polling rate, or the hardware in the mouse. Some monitors have an input lag of more than 10 ms. If you are gaming, a graphics card can take anywhere from 5 ms to 100 ms to display a frame, depending on things like vsync buffers and render time. | As to my knowledge, there are some limitations on [USB 1 / 1.1](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) input devices (keyboards limiting simultaneous key events to like 3, and mice limiting poll speed like in the previous answers).
But I don't know if that was more a way of saving costs for the controller chips than an actual limit of the USB bus... though for mice it seems reasonable to suspect bus speed being a factor. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | I expect the cost to be minimal. USB 1.1 was fairly widely popular, and wasn't considered slow for such devices. (It was just too slow for certain other types of devices.)
In many cases, all you need to worry about is the slowest link in the chain, also known as the bottleneck. It doesn't matter how fast other pieces of the communication can happen if there is one point which slows things down. If the mouse cursor feels instantly responsive and so the slowest point of the communication is the perception of the person interacting with technology that moves at the speed of computer circuitry, then there's no problem.
Keyboards really don't need tons of bandwidth. Even the few people who can type over 100 words per minute (like me) are probably only utilizing a bit more than 600 bytes per minute so any version of USB can handle that with ease. Gamepads that are similarly old will easily be satisfied with such old technology. (I'm not quite so sure about some of the newest gamepads, like ones that might also be compatible with modern video game consoles.) As for the mouse, you're likely fine but I could believe mouse movement might occasionally lag enough to be noticeable for some people. Certainly it would be within the realm of being quite tolerable for most people, but some people might be slightly annoyed.
The bigger impact may actually be how responsive other devices are, such as USB drives or networking devices that may benefit more from increased availability.
An example of where that isn't the case is 802.11, also known as wireless. If you have an 802.11ac device which is backwards compatible with 802.11n and 802.11g and 802.11b and perhaps 802.11a (the slowest of which is 802.11b), that 802.11b support actually really harms 802.11ac, even if it isn't being used much. The reason is that when the wireless access point does a routine 802.11b check, that requires that the equipment is unavailable for the amount of time it takes to communicate an 802.11b frame. And 802.11b frame takes a lot longer than an faster frame like an 802.11ac frame, so you could fit multiple 802.11ac communications in the time it takes for an 802.11b frame.
(That is a more extreme example. Similarly, and 802.11g frame would be faster than 802.11b but slower than 802.11n, and an 802.11n frame would be faster than 802.11g but slower than 802.11ac)
So, simply by plugging a USB 1.1 hub in, you might require more bandwidth/processing than some newer technology, using up more time with some motherboard resources. Perhaps the biggest impact would be upon other devices that could be using similar resources on the motherboard, and the most likely culprit may be other USB devices. It might place some circuitry into a slower-but-more-compatible mode, which might have side effects like slowing down transfer speed of a USB drive.
Related question: [Why does Windows 10 assign different port numbers to the same USB port when plugging in 3.0 vs. 2.0 device?](https://superuser.com/questions/1391813/why-does-windows-10-assign-different-port-numbers-to-the-same-usb-port-when-plug?rq=1) (grawity's answer shows that different USB controller circuitry gets involved for supporting older devices. In my opinion, what I think is likely is that using such older circuitry is not likely to be "more efficient because it distributes the load between multiple controllers". Rather, it is more likely that older communications standards will just slow things down overall, for reasons similar to the Wi-Fi example I described earlier.) | The one problem you should be aware of is that [USB 1.x](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) and [USB 2.0](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_2.0) protocols are converted using so-called "transaction translators" (TTs). There are some cheap hubs that only have a single transaction translator. That means that if some USB 1 device is transferring data, it will block the hub from accepting other USB 1 connections even if the hub can communicate upstream with USB 2 high speed. Which means that USB 1 devices will compete for USB 1 bandwidth instead of USB 2 bandwidth. Worse: a low speed USB 1 device will block a full speed USB 1 device from transferring its data.
So you should check that you have multiple TTs before connecting multiple USB 1 devices to a hub. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | Difference in speed? Yes.
Noticeable difference? Probably not.
The "polling rate" of the mouse measures how many times per second (frequency, unit *Hz*) the mouse reports its relative position to "the computer". A higher rate means it reports more frequently. Most mice these days are around 250 Hz, older mice are usually 125 Hz. Is the human eye be able to register the difference between a rate of 125 "movements" per second vs 250 per second? Probably not.
Some gaming mice are (or at least advertise to be) 1000+ Hz per second. Keep in mind that the higher the frequency, the more CPU "power" is required to register the signal from the mouse.
DPI or dots per inch, is how far your mouse moves across the screen with each movement of the mouse. These are usually options on the mouse (gaming mice typically have a button you can push to change the DPI and maybe the color so you know your current DPI). DPI is important if you have a high resolution monitor ([4K](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/4K_resolution)) where pixels are so small that moving across 100 of them is a much shorter distance than a low resolution monitor. On lower resolution a high DPI can actually work against the user as one small movement of the mouse can send the cursor flying.
Keyboards have a few different measurements for speed, but the difference is so negligible that these speeds are rarely even reported in technical specifications. Like mice, they have a polling rate, but again, differences are almost always negligible and having a high polling rate keyboard will consume more CPU resources. Keyboards also have a matrix scanning time (1 ms - 10 ms typically), which is how long it takes for the keyboard to scan all the keys (hardware dependent). If a key is pressed, it "stores" the key in a temporary buffer. Then an algorithm (0.5 ms to 10 ms) determines if the event was "real", and if so, releases it from the temporary buffer and "hands it off" to await being sent to "the computer" (when is determined by the polling rate).
Now, to actually answer your question, USB versions have a "minimum bus interval", which impacts the theoretical maximum polling rate a peripheral device can have. For example: USB 3.1 has a minimum bus interval of 125 μs, so the theoretical maximum polling rate is 8000 Hz. Here's what I could find:
**USB 1.1** and **2.0 - Low Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 125 Hz
**USB 2.0 - Full Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 1000 Hz
**USB 2.0 - High Speed**, **USB 3.0**, and **USB 3.1**
Max Polling Rate: 8000 Hz
\*Keep in mind, however, that there are other factors that can impact peripheral performance, such as your operating system, and device drivers. | As to my knowledge, there are some limitations on [USB 1 / 1.1](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) input devices (keyboards limiting simultaneous key events to like 3, and mice limiting poll speed like in the previous answers).
But I don't know if that was more a way of saving costs for the controller chips than an actual limit of the USB bus... though for mice it seems reasonable to suspect bus speed being a factor. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | The additional delay from a USB hub [is](https://superuser.com/a/918245/427799) of order of tens of microseconds for low-speed hubs and under one microsecond for high speed hubs. Humans don't notice delays less than 100 milliseconds, and in fact many computer screens have a latency as long as [70 ms](https://superuser.com/a/419167/427799), which is about 1000 times longer.
So no, a 0.1% increase in total lag because of the USB hub will not matter in practice. | The one problem you should be aware of is that [USB 1.x](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_1.x) and [USB 2.0](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/USB#USB_2.0) protocols are converted using so-called "transaction translators" (TTs). There are some cheap hubs that only have a single transaction translator. That means that if some USB 1 device is transferring data, it will block the hub from accepting other USB 1 connections even if the hub can communicate upstream with USB 2 high speed. Which means that USB 1 devices will compete for USB 1 bandwidth instead of USB 2 bandwidth. Worse: a low speed USB 1 device will block a full speed USB 1 device from transferring its data.
So you should check that you have multiple TTs before connecting multiple USB 1 devices to a hub. |
1,503,556 | We know that USB v1 - v2 -v3 has different features and signal/transfer speed, I understand that storage devices will most likely benefit from the speed feature, but does the speed affect input devices such as mouse, keyboard and game controller?
I found an old USB hub adapter/splitter which currently I dont know what USB version, I assume it's v1+ and I doubt if it's v2.0. If I plug it to laptop and plug my input devices to the splitter is there any noticeable speed difference (like input delay, etc)? | 2019/11/20 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1503556",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/722223/"
] | If you don't notice a difference, it might not really matter. You can test your input delay by plugging in the mouse directly and measuring the polling rate. Then measure again through the hub.
Look for the download link that says "Direct Input mouse rate tool" in *[Mouse DPI and USB Polling Rate](https://blog.codinghorror.com/mouse-dpi-and-usb-polling-rate/)*.
There are many online tools that measure polling rate. Here are some Google search results: <https://www.google.com/search?q=online+mouse+polling+rate+checker>
Most consumer mice are 125 Hz which is at most a 8 ms delay. Gaming mice might go up to 1000 Hz which would be 1 ms response time. I think at least USB 2.0 is required for 1000 Hz. 7 ms is not much of a difference.
The actual time it takes for a signal to travel from the mouse through the hub and to the computer is likely less than 0.1 ms. I think the most significant factor is the polling rate, or the hardware in the mouse. Some monitors have an input lag of more than 10 ms. If you are gaming, a graphics card can take anywhere from 5 ms to 100 ms to display a frame, depending on things like vsync buffers and render time. | Difference in speed? Yes.
Noticeable difference? Probably not.
The "polling rate" of the mouse measures how many times per second (frequency, unit *Hz*) the mouse reports its relative position to "the computer". A higher rate means it reports more frequently. Most mice these days are around 250 Hz, older mice are usually 125 Hz. Is the human eye be able to register the difference between a rate of 125 "movements" per second vs 250 per second? Probably not.
Some gaming mice are (or at least advertise to be) 1000+ Hz per second. Keep in mind that the higher the frequency, the more CPU "power" is required to register the signal from the mouse.
DPI or dots per inch, is how far your mouse moves across the screen with each movement of the mouse. These are usually options on the mouse (gaming mice typically have a button you can push to change the DPI and maybe the color so you know your current DPI). DPI is important if you have a high resolution monitor ([4K](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/4K_resolution)) where pixels are so small that moving across 100 of them is a much shorter distance than a low resolution monitor. On lower resolution a high DPI can actually work against the user as one small movement of the mouse can send the cursor flying.
Keyboards have a few different measurements for speed, but the difference is so negligible that these speeds are rarely even reported in technical specifications. Like mice, they have a polling rate, but again, differences are almost always negligible and having a high polling rate keyboard will consume more CPU resources. Keyboards also have a matrix scanning time (1 ms - 10 ms typically), which is how long it takes for the keyboard to scan all the keys (hardware dependent). If a key is pressed, it "stores" the key in a temporary buffer. Then an algorithm (0.5 ms to 10 ms) determines if the event was "real", and if so, releases it from the temporary buffer and "hands it off" to await being sent to "the computer" (when is determined by the polling rate).
Now, to actually answer your question, USB versions have a "minimum bus interval", which impacts the theoretical maximum polling rate a peripheral device can have. For example: USB 3.1 has a minimum bus interval of 125 μs, so the theoretical maximum polling rate is 8000 Hz. Here's what I could find:
**USB 1.1** and **2.0 - Low Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 125 Hz
**USB 2.0 - Full Speed**
Max Polling Rate: 1000 Hz
**USB 2.0 - High Speed**, **USB 3.0**, and **USB 3.1**
Max Polling Rate: 8000 Hz
\*Keep in mind, however, that there are other factors that can impact peripheral performance, such as your operating system, and device drivers. |
337,736 | My apologies if this question seems out of place, but I wasn't sure about where else I should ask it (I also couldn't find anything through Google).
I'm in the process of updating my resume, and I'm trying to describe a project that I sold.
Starting the description with "Sold a project worth $xx-xxx" seems somewhat colloquial. Is there a better (more professional) way that I could phrase "sold a project"?
Thank you in advance!
**Edit:** By "sold a project", I mean from a consulting point of view, i.e. convincing a potential client that their company should use my team's consulting services rather than our competitors'. | 2016/07/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/337736",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/185897/"
] | You can use the phrase "sold a project" to mean that you convinced a potential client to start a project with your firm, provided the context doesn't preclude that interpretation. On the proviso: if, for example, the *project* was a property development and you were a real estate agent, you may need to clarify whether you sold a property or whether you sold the idea of developing the project.
There are at least a couple ways of looking at this.
1. Sell = persuade
==================
>
> **Sell** *verb*
> 2 Persuade someone of the merits of.
> ‘he sold the idea of making a film about Tchaikovsky’
> [- ODO](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/sell)
>
>
>
In this case, what you've done is to persuade the client that it would be a good idea to start a project with your firm. You've 'sold the project', and the next phase might be to negotiate terms and conditions (or the negotiations might have formed part of the persuading). The words "the project" is a metonym for the *idea* of launching said project.
2. Project = product
====================
>
> **Sell** *verb*
> 1 Give or hand over (something) in exchange for money.
> ‘the family business had been sold off’
> [- ODO](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/sell)
>
>
>
In this case, what you're a sales person, and you have convinced the client to sign up to undertake the project itself, not just that it's a good idea. Here, selling a project takes on the same feel as selling a tangible product. What you've actually 'sold' are the services of your firm.
>
> Wanna know how to better sell your service? Package and position it like a product--these marketing experts show you how. [- entrepreneur.com](https://www.entrepreneur.com/article/159488)
>
>
> | You contracted with a client for a $xxx,xxx project or engagement. You could go on to summarize the project--e.g., "to improve its marketing strategy" or "to update its payroll system." You could go on to say that you "successfully competed with other firms to win the contract."
The web site to which you refer is, I believe, using the words "sell" and "buy," which it often places in quotation marks, as metaphors: a project manager needs to persuade a client or a boss to undertake a project. Unless it's typical in your field, "selling a project" may be inappropriate, more characteristic of real estate than consulting. |
337,736 | My apologies if this question seems out of place, but I wasn't sure about where else I should ask it (I also couldn't find anything through Google).
I'm in the process of updating my resume, and I'm trying to describe a project that I sold.
Starting the description with "Sold a project worth $xx-xxx" seems somewhat colloquial. Is there a better (more professional) way that I could phrase "sold a project"?
Thank you in advance!
**Edit:** By "sold a project", I mean from a consulting point of view, i.e. convincing a potential client that their company should use my team's consulting services rather than our competitors'. | 2016/07/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/337736",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/185897/"
] | In this context, we usually say "bid successfully" or "made a successful bid".
Here, "bid" means to submit the proposal, and "successfully" means that the proposal was accepted. | You contracted with a client for a $xxx,xxx project or engagement. You could go on to summarize the project--e.g., "to improve its marketing strategy" or "to update its payroll system." You could go on to say that you "successfully competed with other firms to win the contract."
The web site to which you refer is, I believe, using the words "sell" and "buy," which it often places in quotation marks, as metaphors: a project manager needs to persuade a client or a boss to undertake a project. Unless it's typical in your field, "selling a project" may be inappropriate, more characteristic of real estate than consulting. |
23,993 | Sorry if this is the wrong exchange, if it is could you point me in the right direction that'd be awesome!
I have a bit of a problem locally that I think there could be a simple solution that we're not seeing. I'm part of the local volunteer group that cleans the river running through the town but a lot of rubbish is thrown in. We have litter pickers to get the close bits and what is in the weeds, nets to get the closer litter that floats on the surface, and hooks to try and get the heavy items out from under water, but that's where the problem is.
A lot of the items that get thrown in take a lot of energy and time to get out. They may include things like shopping trolleys (carts), we recently pulled out part of a car exhaust, car and bike tires, large metal or wooden poles, children's toys, chairs, wrought iron bench ends, and so much more! On the edge of the water there are thick reeds to promote biodiversity in the river, and wooden beams to support the bank. The hook very often gets caught on these and gets stuck, meaning we have to put our selves in danger to free it. I would happily jump in the water, because hey its just a bit of water, but the medical team that follows us has strongly advised us not to as there are a lot of rodents around and we could contract diseases such as weil's disease. The hook we use is attached to about 5 meters of rope which allows us to throw the hook in and attempt to catch the items, but if we miss then we just have to keep trying.
Below is a model cross section of the river that may help you visualise the area.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KKwQs.jpg)
I have thought of a potential solution to this that may help. We use one or two people either side of the river who hold a guide rope which the hook is freely attached to. Each side then has a rope attached to the rope so that they can pull the hook across the guide rope. The guide is lowered into the water to hook the item and then the attached ropes can be pulled to pull the item out. If the hook or item becomes trapped or free we would simply pull the hook in the other direction to reattach or free the hook again. A model of this is also attached below.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uTTyD.jpg)
What are your thoughts on this? Could this be a valuable solution or am I just getting it completely wrong?
Thanks in advanced,
Shaun. | 2018/10/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23993",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/17706/"
] | Instead of trying to hook floating debris from shore, I'd look into grabbing it from a canoe or other suitable watercraft.
Some items may be too large to lift into a canoe without risking capsizing during the process. Since you are willing to deploy two people, you could have one on shore and one in the canoe. The one in the canoe can attach the hook easily so that the one on shore can haul in the large item.
Small items are just lifted onto the canoe directly, and only need one person. A single person could do a sweep with a canoe, then come back to work with someone else on shore for the larger and more difficult items. | I would recommend something different: change the hook you are using. No matter how you are suspending it, at some point it'll foul. What would be ideal, then, is a grappling end with a locking hinge you can remotely release to change from, roughly, an L-shape to straight shape, thus freeing it from whatever is in the muck.
I took a quick look thru some camping and climbing sites, but their grappling hooks are all designed to open upon deployment, not release remotely. You may have to search deeper, or design your own "inverted" version. |
23,993 | Sorry if this is the wrong exchange, if it is could you point me in the right direction that'd be awesome!
I have a bit of a problem locally that I think there could be a simple solution that we're not seeing. I'm part of the local volunteer group that cleans the river running through the town but a lot of rubbish is thrown in. We have litter pickers to get the close bits and what is in the weeds, nets to get the closer litter that floats on the surface, and hooks to try and get the heavy items out from under water, but that's where the problem is.
A lot of the items that get thrown in take a lot of energy and time to get out. They may include things like shopping trolleys (carts), we recently pulled out part of a car exhaust, car and bike tires, large metal or wooden poles, children's toys, chairs, wrought iron bench ends, and so much more! On the edge of the water there are thick reeds to promote biodiversity in the river, and wooden beams to support the bank. The hook very often gets caught on these and gets stuck, meaning we have to put our selves in danger to free it. I would happily jump in the water, because hey its just a bit of water, but the medical team that follows us has strongly advised us not to as there are a lot of rodents around and we could contract diseases such as weil's disease. The hook we use is attached to about 5 meters of rope which allows us to throw the hook in and attempt to catch the items, but if we miss then we just have to keep trying.
Below is a model cross section of the river that may help you visualise the area.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KKwQs.jpg)
I have thought of a potential solution to this that may help. We use one or two people either side of the river who hold a guide rope which the hook is freely attached to. Each side then has a rope attached to the rope so that they can pull the hook across the guide rope. The guide is lowered into the water to hook the item and then the attached ropes can be pulled to pull the item out. If the hook or item becomes trapped or free we would simply pull the hook in the other direction to reattach or free the hook again. A model of this is also attached below.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uTTyD.jpg)
What are your thoughts on this? Could this be a valuable solution or am I just getting it completely wrong?
Thanks in advanced,
Shaun. | 2018/10/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23993",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/17706/"
] | Seems reasonable.
In fact you probably don't need a guide rope if you just tie the hook into the centre of one long rope you can just take in slack on the appropriate side.
A further refinement would be to bring some lightweight shear legs or a [gin pole](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gin_pole). Either would provide a relatively lightweight and versatile way to allow you to lift rather than drag submerged objects. Both methods offer a reasonably efficient way to convert pulling force from ground level to a lifting force.
Essentially like a giant fishing rod or pole. Equally you have the option to use a pole with a rope fixed to the end as a large lever or with a pulley. | I would recommend something different: change the hook you are using. No matter how you are suspending it, at some point it'll foul. What would be ideal, then, is a grappling end with a locking hinge you can remotely release to change from, roughly, an L-shape to straight shape, thus freeing it from whatever is in the muck.
I took a quick look thru some camping and climbing sites, but their grappling hooks are all designed to open upon deployment, not release remotely. You may have to search deeper, or design your own "inverted" version. |
23,993 | Sorry if this is the wrong exchange, if it is could you point me in the right direction that'd be awesome!
I have a bit of a problem locally that I think there could be a simple solution that we're not seeing. I'm part of the local volunteer group that cleans the river running through the town but a lot of rubbish is thrown in. We have litter pickers to get the close bits and what is in the weeds, nets to get the closer litter that floats on the surface, and hooks to try and get the heavy items out from under water, but that's where the problem is.
A lot of the items that get thrown in take a lot of energy and time to get out. They may include things like shopping trolleys (carts), we recently pulled out part of a car exhaust, car and bike tires, large metal or wooden poles, children's toys, chairs, wrought iron bench ends, and so much more! On the edge of the water there are thick reeds to promote biodiversity in the river, and wooden beams to support the bank. The hook very often gets caught on these and gets stuck, meaning we have to put our selves in danger to free it. I would happily jump in the water, because hey its just a bit of water, but the medical team that follows us has strongly advised us not to as there are a lot of rodents around and we could contract diseases such as weil's disease. The hook we use is attached to about 5 meters of rope which allows us to throw the hook in and attempt to catch the items, but if we miss then we just have to keep trying.
Below is a model cross section of the river that may help you visualise the area.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KKwQs.jpg)
I have thought of a potential solution to this that may help. We use one or two people either side of the river who hold a guide rope which the hook is freely attached to. Each side then has a rope attached to the rope so that they can pull the hook across the guide rope. The guide is lowered into the water to hook the item and then the attached ropes can be pulled to pull the item out. If the hook or item becomes trapped or free we would simply pull the hook in the other direction to reattach or free the hook again. A model of this is also attached below.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uTTyD.jpg)
What are your thoughts on this? Could this be a valuable solution or am I just getting it completely wrong?
Thanks in advanced,
Shaun. | 2018/10/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23993",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/17706/"
] | The main problem I see here is the force you need to pull anything up. If the margins are suficiently higher than the river that will be ok, but if the margins are at almost same level you will need to do a lot of force.
For example if θ is 10°, each person will need to do 2.9 times the force one would do alone if they were right above the object. And I am ignoring the weight of the rope which is probably not negligible specially if its get moist by dipping into the river.
If the river is narrow (like 15 feet) I think it will work but with 50 feet you will start to get tired real quick.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mdthY.png) | I would recommend something different: change the hook you are using. No matter how you are suspending it, at some point it'll foul. What would be ideal, then, is a grappling end with a locking hinge you can remotely release to change from, roughly, an L-shape to straight shape, thus freeing it from whatever is in the muck.
I took a quick look thru some camping and climbing sites, but their grappling hooks are all designed to open upon deployment, not release remotely. You may have to search deeper, or design your own "inverted" version. |
23,993 | Sorry if this is the wrong exchange, if it is could you point me in the right direction that'd be awesome!
I have a bit of a problem locally that I think there could be a simple solution that we're not seeing. I'm part of the local volunteer group that cleans the river running through the town but a lot of rubbish is thrown in. We have litter pickers to get the close bits and what is in the weeds, nets to get the closer litter that floats on the surface, and hooks to try and get the heavy items out from under water, but that's where the problem is.
A lot of the items that get thrown in take a lot of energy and time to get out. They may include things like shopping trolleys (carts), we recently pulled out part of a car exhaust, car and bike tires, large metal or wooden poles, children's toys, chairs, wrought iron bench ends, and so much more! On the edge of the water there are thick reeds to promote biodiversity in the river, and wooden beams to support the bank. The hook very often gets caught on these and gets stuck, meaning we have to put our selves in danger to free it. I would happily jump in the water, because hey its just a bit of water, but the medical team that follows us has strongly advised us not to as there are a lot of rodents around and we could contract diseases such as weil's disease. The hook we use is attached to about 5 meters of rope which allows us to throw the hook in and attempt to catch the items, but if we miss then we just have to keep trying.
Below is a model cross section of the river that may help you visualise the area.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KKwQs.jpg)
I have thought of a potential solution to this that may help. We use one or two people either side of the river who hold a guide rope which the hook is freely attached to. Each side then has a rope attached to the rope so that they can pull the hook across the guide rope. The guide is lowered into the water to hook the item and then the attached ropes can be pulled to pull the item out. If the hook or item becomes trapped or free we would simply pull the hook in the other direction to reattach or free the hook again. A model of this is also attached below.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uTTyD.jpg)
What are your thoughts on this? Could this be a valuable solution or am I just getting it completely wrong?
Thanks in advanced,
Shaun. | 2018/10/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23993",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/17706/"
] | Instead of trying to hook floating debris from shore, I'd look into grabbing it from a canoe or other suitable watercraft.
Some items may be too large to lift into a canoe without risking capsizing during the process. Since you are willing to deploy two people, you could have one on shore and one in the canoe. The one in the canoe can attach the hook easily so that the one on shore can haul in the large item.
Small items are just lifted onto the canoe directly, and only need one person. A single person could do a sweep with a canoe, then come back to work with someone else on shore for the larger and more difficult items. | Seems reasonable.
In fact you probably don't need a guide rope if you just tie the hook into the centre of one long rope you can just take in slack on the appropriate side.
A further refinement would be to bring some lightweight shear legs or a [gin pole](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gin_pole). Either would provide a relatively lightweight and versatile way to allow you to lift rather than drag submerged objects. Both methods offer a reasonably efficient way to convert pulling force from ground level to a lifting force.
Essentially like a giant fishing rod or pole. Equally you have the option to use a pole with a rope fixed to the end as a large lever or with a pulley. |
23,993 | Sorry if this is the wrong exchange, if it is could you point me in the right direction that'd be awesome!
I have a bit of a problem locally that I think there could be a simple solution that we're not seeing. I'm part of the local volunteer group that cleans the river running through the town but a lot of rubbish is thrown in. We have litter pickers to get the close bits and what is in the weeds, nets to get the closer litter that floats on the surface, and hooks to try and get the heavy items out from under water, but that's where the problem is.
A lot of the items that get thrown in take a lot of energy and time to get out. They may include things like shopping trolleys (carts), we recently pulled out part of a car exhaust, car and bike tires, large metal or wooden poles, children's toys, chairs, wrought iron bench ends, and so much more! On the edge of the water there are thick reeds to promote biodiversity in the river, and wooden beams to support the bank. The hook very often gets caught on these and gets stuck, meaning we have to put our selves in danger to free it. I would happily jump in the water, because hey its just a bit of water, but the medical team that follows us has strongly advised us not to as there are a lot of rodents around and we could contract diseases such as weil's disease. The hook we use is attached to about 5 meters of rope which allows us to throw the hook in and attempt to catch the items, but if we miss then we just have to keep trying.
Below is a model cross section of the river that may help you visualise the area.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KKwQs.jpg)
I have thought of a potential solution to this that may help. We use one or two people either side of the river who hold a guide rope which the hook is freely attached to. Each side then has a rope attached to the rope so that they can pull the hook across the guide rope. The guide is lowered into the water to hook the item and then the attached ropes can be pulled to pull the item out. If the hook or item becomes trapped or free we would simply pull the hook in the other direction to reattach or free the hook again. A model of this is also attached below.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uTTyD.jpg)
What are your thoughts on this? Could this be a valuable solution or am I just getting it completely wrong?
Thanks in advanced,
Shaun. | 2018/10/01 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23993",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/17706/"
] | The main problem I see here is the force you need to pull anything up. If the margins are suficiently higher than the river that will be ok, but if the margins are at almost same level you will need to do a lot of force.
For example if θ is 10°, each person will need to do 2.9 times the force one would do alone if they were right above the object. And I am ignoring the weight of the rope which is probably not negligible specially if its get moist by dipping into the river.
If the river is narrow (like 15 feet) I think it will work but with 50 feet you will start to get tired real quick.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mdthY.png) | Seems reasonable.
In fact you probably don't need a guide rope if you just tie the hook into the centre of one long rope you can just take in slack on the appropriate side.
A further refinement would be to bring some lightweight shear legs or a [gin pole](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gin_pole). Either would provide a relatively lightweight and versatile way to allow you to lift rather than drag submerged objects. Both methods offer a reasonably efficient way to convert pulling force from ground level to a lifting force.
Essentially like a giant fishing rod or pole. Equally you have the option to use a pole with a rope fixed to the end as a large lever or with a pulley. |
30,019 | I'm a web developer, but I occasionally step over into doing some mobile app development here and there. A client recently asked me to help them develop a very simple app. The app is essentially just an HTML / jQuery form that the user fills out to reserve my clients service. Having heard a lot about phonegap, I decided to try it for the first time, along with jQuery mobile. Everything worked fine with the phonegap build, and after testing both iOS/Android work.
Although, part of the form requires users to enter their Credit Card information, so my client can book them with their own system. The card is never processed through the app, the information is just gathered and sent (via e-mail) to my client who uses their own payment gateway.
Since I used phonegap to build the app, I simply used action="https://www.my-website-with-ssl.php" on the form. Like I said, both iOS and Adroid are sending the e-mails(to my client) fine. But is this even secure? | 2013/01/31 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/30019",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/20239/"
] | Sending credit card info via e-mail is very bad and likely a violation of their merchant service agreement. Credit card details must be protected in transit and e-mail leaves it flapping in the breeze.
The SSL connection to the server or not for transmitting form data is irrelevant unless the server is somehow encrypting the e-mail to protect it and even then it is really not a very good channel to use compared to storing the information protected in a database (still likely requires PCI-DSS compliance) or simply having it directly relay the user to the payment gateway itself to sidestep compliance issues entirely. | DO NOT email credit card info - that's probably a min $500 for your client right there - and it would be your fault for allowing it. |
2,497 | Has anyone come across any online content that jumps outside the box and re-thinks how we can organize multi-windowed content more effectively than using the classic tab bar along the top of the window?
I'm building a Cocoa application that could potentially have a lot of "tabs" open at any given time and I've always found tab bar to get a bit cluttered in these cases.
An example of an alternative would be a multi-column format, where the "tabs" are actually stacked vertically in a column alongside the main window. The only issue I'd have with using this is that I already display a directory tree at the left of said window, so it might look confusing.
Another alternative I can think of would perhaps not be very accessible, but basically each "tab" would be a sort of bubble that goes into a panel which resizes both vertically and horizontally, and the layout optimize the positions of the "tabs" for space (like a jigsaw).
I dunno, I'm just really open minded to some fresh ideas on this since I know why I've found tab bars in similar apps to be a nuisance.
I'm trying to gain the benefits of quick browsing/navigation between open documents, and space-optimization at the same time.
(This app is a text editor/IDE) | 2010/11/15 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/2497",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/2526/"
] | There is Tab Candy
<http://www.azarask.in/blog/post/tabcandy/> | The [Tree Style Tab](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/5890/) plugin for Firefox is a clever implementation of multi-column, vertical tabs you described. |
2,497 | Has anyone come across any online content that jumps outside the box and re-thinks how we can organize multi-windowed content more effectively than using the classic tab bar along the top of the window?
I'm building a Cocoa application that could potentially have a lot of "tabs" open at any given time and I've always found tab bar to get a bit cluttered in these cases.
An example of an alternative would be a multi-column format, where the "tabs" are actually stacked vertically in a column alongside the main window. The only issue I'd have with using this is that I already display a directory tree at the left of said window, so it might look confusing.
Another alternative I can think of would perhaps not be very accessible, but basically each "tab" would be a sort of bubble that goes into a panel which resizes both vertically and horizontally, and the layout optimize the positions of the "tabs" for space (like a jigsaw).
I dunno, I'm just really open minded to some fresh ideas on this since I know why I've found tab bars in similar apps to be a nuisance.
I'm trying to gain the benefits of quick browsing/navigation between open documents, and space-optimization at the same time.
(This app is a text editor/IDE) | 2010/11/15 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/2497",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/2526/"
] | There is Tab Candy
<http://www.azarask.in/blog/post/tabcandy/> | Weasel Answer: Depends on the content.
If you need to compare the content of some of the windows side-by-side, tabs are one of the worst solutions.
For source code, there's an interesting prototype ([Code Bubbles](http://www.cs.brown.edu/people/acb/codebubbles_site.htm)) That breaks with the convention of using source files as organization unit.
In a similar fashion, TreeStyleTab - as posted by Patrick - exploits the hierarchy of opening tabs (at least if I understand it correctly).
So can you say anything about the data in your tabs, and how it relates? |
2,497 | Has anyone come across any online content that jumps outside the box and re-thinks how we can organize multi-windowed content more effectively than using the classic tab bar along the top of the window?
I'm building a Cocoa application that could potentially have a lot of "tabs" open at any given time and I've always found tab bar to get a bit cluttered in these cases.
An example of an alternative would be a multi-column format, where the "tabs" are actually stacked vertically in a column alongside the main window. The only issue I'd have with using this is that I already display a directory tree at the left of said window, so it might look confusing.
Another alternative I can think of would perhaps not be very accessible, but basically each "tab" would be a sort of bubble that goes into a panel which resizes both vertically and horizontally, and the layout optimize the positions of the "tabs" for space (like a jigsaw).
I dunno, I'm just really open minded to some fresh ideas on this since I know why I've found tab bars in similar apps to be a nuisance.
I'm trying to gain the benefits of quick browsing/navigation between open documents, and space-optimization at the same time.
(This app is a text editor/IDE) | 2010/11/15 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/2497",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/2526/"
] | There is Tab Candy
<http://www.azarask.in/blog/post/tabcandy/> | Checkout fisheye tabs for firefox....
the user likely cannot keep a mental note on where all that stuff is anyway, so giving them a non-click hover-based view into the tabs would work quite well.
I find myself often with 30+ tabs open... expanding the tabs near the mouse cursor is both pleasing and easy to scan tabs with.
fisheye tabs (no viewable demo, you'd have to install it)
<https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/4845/>
fisheye examples: <http://profs.etsmtl.ca/mmcguffin/research/expandingTargets/>
(but imagine that your tabs only magnify in the x dimension. |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | I was having a similar problem until I noticed that the older .NET assemblies were actually in the list, there's just some really strange sorting going on. If you sort by assembly name, you should see them in the proper order. | If, for instance, your project is Framework 4 and you want to reference say Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller (which is not in the filtered list of the .NET tab), then go to the Browse tab and enter the path to the reference item e.g. C:\Program Files\Windows Installer XML v3.5\SDK\Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller.dll |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | We've created a tool that will help you to achieve your goal. [Muse VSReferences](http://visualstudiogallery.msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/36a6eb45-a7b1-47c3-9e85-09f0aef6e879) will allow you to add a Global Assembly Cache reference to the project from Add GAC Reference menu item.
Regards
s | I was having a similar problem until I noticed that the older .NET assemblies were actually in the list, there's just some really strange sorting going on. If you sort by assembly name, you should see them in the proper order. |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | We've created a tool that will help you to achieve your goal. [Muse VSReferences](http://visualstudiogallery.msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/36a6eb45-a7b1-47c3-9e85-09f0aef6e879) will allow you to add a Global Assembly Cache reference to the project from Add GAC Reference menu item.
Regards
s | Another possibility is to go into your project’s Properties page and change the Target Framework from 4.0 to your desired Framework. You will then need to reload you application. Now your Reference should be there. Once you have added the Reference you want, change back to 4.0 and again reload.
Hope this helps. |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | Change your new application to target the .NET Framework 4 and **not** .NET Framework 4 ***Client***
"When you create a new application, some projects target the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile by default."
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc656912.aspx>
"If you are targeting the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile, you cannot reference an assembly that is not in the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile. Instead you must target the .NET Framework 4. " | I was having a similar problem until I noticed that the older .NET assemblies were actually in the list, there's just some really strange sorting going on. If you sort by assembly name, you should see them in the proper order. |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | Change your new application to target the .NET Framework 4 and **not** .NET Framework 4 ***Client***
"When you create a new application, some projects target the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile by default."
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc656912.aspx>
"If you are targeting the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile, you cannot reference an assembly that is not in the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile. Instead you must target the .NET Framework 4. " | >
> How to change the filter?
>
>
>
Very simple - you must change the Target .NET Framework for your project, as whole. It's not pain :) just RMB on project name in Solution Explorer->Properties->Application tab->Target Framework(combobox). Select what you want. Change combobox == change filter in Add Reference dialog. ;) |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | Another possibility is to go into your project’s Properties page and change the Target Framework from 4.0 to your desired Framework. You will then need to reload you application. Now your Reference should be there. Once you have added the Reference you want, change back to 4.0 and again reload.
Hope this helps. | If, for instance, your project is Framework 4 and you want to reference say Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller (which is not in the filtered list of the .NET tab), then go to the Browse tab and enter the path to the reference item e.g. C:\Program Files\Windows Installer XML v3.5\SDK\Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller.dll |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | >
> How to change the filter?
>
>
>
Very simple - you must change the Target .NET Framework for your project, as whole. It's not pain :) just RMB on project name in Solution Explorer->Properties->Application tab->Target Framework(combobox). Select what you want. Change combobox == change filter in Add Reference dialog. ;) | If, for instance, your project is Framework 4 and you want to reference say Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller (which is not in the filtered list of the .NET tab), then go to the Browse tab and enter the path to the reference item e.g. C:\Program Files\Windows Installer XML v3.5\SDK\Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller.dll |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | Change your new application to target the .NET Framework 4 and **not** .NET Framework 4 ***Client***
"When you create a new application, some projects target the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile by default."
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc656912.aspx>
"If you are targeting the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile, you cannot reference an assembly that is not in the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile. Instead you must target the .NET Framework 4. " | Another possibility is to go into your project’s Properties page and change the Target Framework from 4.0 to your desired Framework. You will then need to reload you application. Now your Reference should be there. Once you have added the Reference you want, change back to 4.0 and again reload.
Hope this helps. |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | Change your new application to target the .NET Framework 4 and **not** .NET Framework 4 ***Client***
"When you create a new application, some projects target the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile by default."
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc656912.aspx>
"If you are targeting the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile, you cannot reference an assembly that is not in the .NET Framework 4 Client Profile. Instead you must target the .NET Framework 4. " | If, for instance, your project is Framework 4 and you want to reference say Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller (which is not in the filtered list of the .NET tab), then go to the Browse tab and enter the path to the reference item e.g. C:\Program Files\Windows Installer XML v3.5\SDK\Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller.dll |
2,655,497 | I'm getting used to the new IDE (it's vc# express), but the first contact is somewhat confusing. When I open the Add Reference dialog and switch to the .NET tab, a label above the assembly list states: "Filtered to:.NET Framework 4". And it's true - I can reference .NET 4.0 assemblies only plus things like XNA 3.1. However I can't see older assemblies i.e. Managed DirectX libs, which are obviously installed on my computer as there was no trouble with adding a ref to them in vc#08.
What is this? How to change the filter? The label is read-only. These sound like dull guy's questions, but I'm out of luck in finding an answer and there is no intuitive solution.
Thanks in advance. | 2010/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2655497",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318795/"
] | >
> How to change the filter?
>
>
>
Very simple - you must change the Target .NET Framework for your project, as whole. It's not pain :) just RMB on project name in Solution Explorer->Properties->Application tab->Target Framework(combobox). Select what you want. Change combobox == change filter in Add Reference dialog. ;) | Another possibility is to go into your project’s Properties page and change the Target Framework from 4.0 to your desired Framework. You will then need to reload you application. Now your Reference should be there. Once you have added the Reference you want, change back to 4.0 and again reload.
Hope this helps. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | It seems that Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 does not include the sources anymore. There is a separate package "Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 Developer Package" now. See <http://lookfirst.com/2010/10/how-to-fix-missing-source-for-latest.html> | In my case the sources are in
/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home/src.jar
You might need to set this in the Eclipse preferences: Java - installed JREs. Select the 1.6 JVM and click edit. Now select classes.jar from the list of JRE system libraries, click source attachment and enter the path to your src.jar. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | For each update from Apple, I write a new blog post with the updated symlinks. I noticed a lot of traffic on my blog from one of the answers, so I figured I might as well update things with the latest release.
I could write a simple shell script to do this for you, but that would require you to download a file. Seems simpler to just execute a few easy commands.
This is the latest one for update 5:
<http://lookfirst.com/2011/06/fix-missing-source-for-java-mac-os-x.html> | In my case the sources are in
/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home/src.jar
You might need to set this in the Eclipse preferences: Java - installed JREs. Select the 1.6 JVM and click edit. Now select classes.jar from the list of JRE system libraries, click source attachment and enter the path to your src.jar. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | I am using Mac OS 10.8.5. I downloaded the java for Mac OS 10.7 and installed it. I found the `src.jar` file in
>
> /Library/Java/JavaVirtualMachines/1.6.0\_37-b06-434.jdk/Contents/Home/src.jar.
>
>
>
Then I
1. Opened eclipse(JUNO)
2. Eclipse > Prefereces > JAVA > Installed jre
3. Edit the java listed
In the jre system libraries section,
1. Expand the first one (i.e., classes.jar)
2. You can see that src is not attached
3. Double click that and provide the above location
That's it. | In my case the sources are in
/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home/src.jar
You might need to set this in the Eclipse preferences: Java - installed JREs. Select the 1.6 JVM and click edit. Now select classes.jar from the list of JRE system libraries, click source attachment and enter the path to your src.jar. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | In my case the sources are in
/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home/src.jar
You might need to set this in the Eclipse preferences: Java - installed JREs. Select the 1.6 JVM and click edit. Now select classes.jar from the list of JRE system libraries, click source attachment and enter the path to your src.jar. | To all the guys who's been suffering from searching the source code here and there for hours but finally get nothing.
For Eclipse to attach(imperfectly available for 1.6):
[jdk1.7.0\_21\_src\_for\_mac.zip](https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B758ryeeYYQYbTNhUEdBZUZSVlk/edit?usp=sharing) |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | It seems that Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 does not include the sources anymore. There is a separate package "Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 Developer Package" now. See <http://lookfirst.com/2010/10/how-to-fix-missing-source-for-latest.html> | For each update from Apple, I write a new blog post with the updated symlinks. I noticed a lot of traffic on my blog from one of the answers, so I figured I might as well update things with the latest release.
I could write a simple shell script to do this for you, but that would require you to download a file. Seems simpler to just execute a few easy commands.
This is the latest one for update 5:
<http://lookfirst.com/2011/06/fix-missing-source-for-java-mac-os-x.html> |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | It seems that Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 does not include the sources anymore. There is a separate package "Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 Developer Package" now. See <http://lookfirst.com/2010/10/how-to-fix-missing-source-for-latest.html> | I am using Mac OS 10.8.5. I downloaded the java for Mac OS 10.7 and installed it. I found the `src.jar` file in
>
> /Library/Java/JavaVirtualMachines/1.6.0\_37-b06-434.jdk/Contents/Home/src.jar.
>
>
>
Then I
1. Opened eclipse(JUNO)
2. Eclipse > Prefereces > JAVA > Installed jre
3. Edit the java listed
In the jre system libraries section,
1. Expand the first one (i.e., classes.jar)
2. You can see that src is not attached
3. Double click that and provide the above location
That's it. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | It seems that Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 does not include the sources anymore. There is a separate package "Java for Mac OS X 10.6 Update 3 Developer Package" now. See <http://lookfirst.com/2010/10/how-to-fix-missing-source-for-latest.html> | To all the guys who's been suffering from searching the source code here and there for hours but finally get nothing.
For Eclipse to attach(imperfectly available for 1.6):
[jdk1.7.0\_21\_src\_for\_mac.zip](https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B758ryeeYYQYbTNhUEdBZUZSVlk/edit?usp=sharing) |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | For each update from Apple, I write a new blog post with the updated symlinks. I noticed a lot of traffic on my blog from one of the answers, so I figured I might as well update things with the latest release.
I could write a simple shell script to do this for you, but that would require you to download a file. Seems simpler to just execute a few easy commands.
This is the latest one for update 5:
<http://lookfirst.com/2011/06/fix-missing-source-for-java-mac-os-x.html> | I am using Mac OS 10.8.5. I downloaded the java for Mac OS 10.7 and installed it. I found the `src.jar` file in
>
> /Library/Java/JavaVirtualMachines/1.6.0\_37-b06-434.jdk/Contents/Home/src.jar.
>
>
>
Then I
1. Opened eclipse(JUNO)
2. Eclipse > Prefereces > JAVA > Installed jre
3. Edit the java listed
In the jre system libraries section,
1. Expand the first one (i.e., classes.jar)
2. You can see that src is not attached
3. Double click that and provide the above location
That's it. |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | For each update from Apple, I write a new blog post with the updated symlinks. I noticed a lot of traffic on my blog from one of the answers, so I figured I might as well update things with the latest release.
I could write a simple shell script to do this for you, but that would require you to download a file. Seems simpler to just execute a few easy commands.
This is the latest one for update 5:
<http://lookfirst.com/2011/06/fix-missing-source-for-java-mac-os-x.html> | To all the guys who's been suffering from searching the source code here and there for hours but finally get nothing.
For Eclipse to attach(imperfectly available for 1.6):
[jdk1.7.0\_21\_src\_for\_mac.zip](https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B758ryeeYYQYbTNhUEdBZUZSVlk/edit?usp=sharing) |
4,078,141 | Is is there some way to put a publish between clients in the network in Progress 4GL.
An (ugly) way would be to "publish" (write) to the db and let all clients poll the db - but of course I would like to avoid that.
I am using in Progress OpenEdge Release 10.0B02. | 2010/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4078141",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/494775/"
] | I am using Mac OS 10.8.5. I downloaded the java for Mac OS 10.7 and installed it. I found the `src.jar` file in
>
> /Library/Java/JavaVirtualMachines/1.6.0\_37-b06-434.jdk/Contents/Home/src.jar.
>
>
>
Then I
1. Opened eclipse(JUNO)
2. Eclipse > Prefereces > JAVA > Installed jre
3. Edit the java listed
In the jre system libraries section,
1. Expand the first one (i.e., classes.jar)
2. You can see that src is not attached
3. Double click that and provide the above location
That's it. | To all the guys who's been suffering from searching the source code here and there for hours but finally get nothing.
For Eclipse to attach(imperfectly available for 1.6):
[jdk1.7.0\_21\_src\_for\_mac.zip](https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B758ryeeYYQYbTNhUEdBZUZSVlk/edit?usp=sharing) |
42,508,755 | I have a Spring boot/angular REST app which is using ng-upload-file to upload an image to the server. When uploading an image it gets saved in the
static/imgs folder correctly, however if I don't refresh the folder after upload the image does not appear, nor can I use its path to localize it before refreshing the folder.
Is there a way to configure the embedded Tomcat to auto refresh when a new file is added?
Thanks in Advance
**EDIT**:
Seems as though its an IDE problem rather than a server problem, Iam using eclipse.
Image: [http://imgur.com/a/yvLoO](https://imgur.com/a/yvLoO)
I tried checking "Refresh using native hooks or polling", but it has a few seconds delay. | 2017/02/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/42508755",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6523381/"
] | I suggest you to read about the watcher resource feature in Tomcat.
<https://tomcat.apache.org/tomcat-8.0-doc/config/context.html>
**WatchedResource** - The auto deployer will monitor the specified static resource of the web application for updates, and will reload the web application if it is updated. | After trying to deploy the project on different servers, I decided to store the images in the db instead since the image uploading is just a temporary function. |
12,367,650 | Any ideas?
Eclipse always asks me if "Text end" should be executed or "Line end" should be executed when I press the key END.
After I unbind the key bind of "Text end" on Preferences, Eclipse still asks me.
Version: Juno Release
Build id: 20120614-1722 | 2012/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12367650",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/827804/"
] | Apparently there is a bug in Juno such that there appears to be a key conflict for the **HOME** and **END** keys even when the preferences don't indicate one. The restore defaults button does not correct the problem unless you first create a conflict manually, and then use the restore defaults button.
1. Go to Window->Preferences->General->Keys
2. Make "Line Start" and "Text Start" both use ONLY the **HOME** key, to create a conflict.
3. Make "Line End" and "Text End" both use ONLY the **END** key, to create a conflict.
4. Click Apply and then OK
5. Go again to Window->Preferences->General->Keys
6. Click "Restore Defaults"
7. Click Apply and then OK
This should put things back into sync, and fix the problem; at least it did for me on Juno for 32-bit Windows 7. | Sometimes when I do not have time to mess with making the conflict and resetting in Kepler/CFEclipse, adding Shift still works to get End, Ctrl+End, Home and Ctrl+Home to select the text, and then remember to use the left arrow to unselect after Home and right arrow to unselect after End. |
12,367,650 | Any ideas?
Eclipse always asks me if "Text end" should be executed or "Line end" should be executed when I press the key END.
After I unbind the key bind of "Text end" on Preferences, Eclipse still asks me.
Version: Juno Release
Build id: 20120614-1722 | 2012/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12367650",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/827804/"
] | Apparently there is a bug in Juno such that there appears to be a key conflict for the **HOME** and **END** keys even when the preferences don't indicate one. The restore defaults button does not correct the problem unless you first create a conflict manually, and then use the restore defaults button.
1. Go to Window->Preferences->General->Keys
2. Make "Line Start" and "Text Start" both use ONLY the **HOME** key, to create a conflict.
3. Make "Line End" and "Text End" both use ONLY the **END** key, to create a conflict.
4. Click Apply and then OK
5. Go again to Window->Preferences->General->Keys
6. Click "Restore Defaults"
7. Click Apply and then OK
This should put things back into sync, and fix the problem; at least it did for me on Juno for 32-bit Windows 7. | I'm using Kepler version in Linux.
Close eclipse and open it solved my problem with home/end keys. |
12,367,650 | Any ideas?
Eclipse always asks me if "Text end" should be executed or "Line end" should be executed when I press the key END.
After I unbind the key bind of "Text end" on Preferences, Eclipse still asks me.
Version: Juno Release
Build id: 20120614-1722 | 2012/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12367650",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/827804/"
] | I'm using Kepler version in Linux.
Close eclipse and open it solved my problem with home/end keys. | Sometimes when I do not have time to mess with making the conflict and resetting in Kepler/CFEclipse, adding Shift still works to get End, Ctrl+End, Home and Ctrl+Home to select the text, and then remember to use the left arrow to unselect after Home and right arrow to unselect after End. |
4,021 | I work with a system in which the microcontroller is exposed to X-ray radiation from time to time. Exactly how much radiation is hard to say... we've never measured it.
Anyway, we've seen a mysterious form of flash corruption on a small sample of our products in which random bits in code space are transitioning from 0 to 1.
We've previously attributed this to power supply issues and the controller not being reset quickly enough while data logging is going on.
But now we may be seeing it on a newer version of our product which has a higher end controller with better brown out protection.
Is it time to consider X-rays as a possible source?
The X-rays would be released due to breaking current high currents with a vacuum interrupter.
Has anyone ever heard of something like this before on nand-flash? Most of the articles I have seen have been with respect to Airport X-rays or [X-ray inspection used in PCB FAB](http://www.spansion.com/Support/Application%20Notes/Xray_Inspection_Test_Conditions_AN.pdf) | 2015/08/14 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/4021",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | There seem to be plenty of papers suggesting X-rays could be a real problem with NAND flash. I've not read it but the abstract for [this one](https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/6616668) contains actual figures:
>
> Only a few seconds of x-ray exposure corresponding to a total dose of merely 50 rad(Si) in a real-time x-ray source are required to induce errors.
>
>
>
So if your exposure gets anywhere near this level then its not being paranoid to consider the possibility. | I would suggest this first:
set up an experiment in which the chip is *not* protected by multiple layers of aluminum and steel and see if the bit corruption rate is measurably worse.
Also set up an experiment where the soft x-ray source is made more intense by decreasing the distance between the chip and the source. Cutting that distance in half will increase the intensity by a factor of *four*. |
4,021 | I work with a system in which the microcontroller is exposed to X-ray radiation from time to time. Exactly how much radiation is hard to say... we've never measured it.
Anyway, we've seen a mysterious form of flash corruption on a small sample of our products in which random bits in code space are transitioning from 0 to 1.
We've previously attributed this to power supply issues and the controller not being reset quickly enough while data logging is going on.
But now we may be seeing it on a newer version of our product which has a higher end controller with better brown out protection.
Is it time to consider X-rays as a possible source?
The X-rays would be released due to breaking current high currents with a vacuum interrupter.
Has anyone ever heard of something like this before on nand-flash? Most of the articles I have seen have been with respect to Airport X-rays or [X-ray inspection used in PCB FAB](http://www.spansion.com/Support/Application%20Notes/Xray_Inspection_Test_Conditions_AN.pdf) | 2015/08/14 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/4021",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You should definitely consider X-rays as a possible source.
An erased flash is full of 1s. Programming a flash is full of 0s. Over time, or under some stress, flash components may lose their gate charge, which leads to 0 to 1 transition. This is a well known behavior on NAND flash, but may also happen on NOR flash, even if those ones are much more robust by design.
High energy radiations (X rays, gamma rays) are a well known source of stress for flash memories, and it is an important topic for aeronautic, aerospace and nuclear products. See [here](http://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-90-481-9431-5_19#page-1), [there](https://books.google.fr/books?id=vaq11vKwo_kC&pg=PA538&lpg=PA538&dq=cosmic+rays+NAND&source=bl&ots=UJTQOljDtX&sig=TjNEFoweghgJHtiyFWnT85PNDKQ&hl=fr&sa=X&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=cosmic%20rays%20NAND&f=false) and [there](http://www.tanisys.com/effect-radiation-solid-state-drive-ssd/) my first google results for "cosmic rays NAND".
If the issue is a power cut during program or erase, it may probably occur at any moment during the operation, and you should have some parts with many 0 to 1 transitions, and some with very few. If you always have few bit errors, it's probably something else, such as EMC or radiations.
If yours products have to resist to this kind of stress, [ECC](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_detection_and_correction#Error-correcting_code), such as Hamming codes, are made for you. Nevertheless, error management in flash memory is a big topic. | I would suggest this first:
set up an experiment in which the chip is *not* protected by multiple layers of aluminum and steel and see if the bit corruption rate is measurably worse.
Also set up an experiment where the soft x-ray source is made more intense by decreasing the distance between the chip and the source. Cutting that distance in half will increase the intensity by a factor of *four*. |
38,334,050 | I have two separate targets for Unit Testing and UI Testing in my project besides the main app . These two targets have separate schemes so that i can run them on my CI server separately. I check "Gather Code Coverage" in both of this schemes. Initially i made sure everything is working from XCode by building and running these two schemes separately using "Cmd + U" and coverage data is shown properly for both of these schemes....
In my Jenkins CI i have separate jobs for these two schemes using fastlane, Unit Test scheme is working fine and generating reports. But the UI Test Scheme always shows 0% coverage report no matter what. I don't know what am doing wrong.
Somewhere i read about UI Tests depends on Unit Tests in order for the code coverage, is that true ? If it is true then should i run Unit Tests Before performing UI Tests ?
Thanks in advance. | 2016/07/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/38334050",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5515282/"
] | **The previews answer is kind of wrong sir.** Even the Xcode shows line coverage due UITests, so of course UITest knows your code, of course it call your code to execute your UI. Only problem is that jenkins is having problem with it since an already known Apple's bug. The gather coverage data debug format have report issues.. Just have a look at the bug's [report](https://github.com/nakiostudio/xcov/issues/22#issuecomment-267843346). | >
> But the UI Test Scheme always shows 0% coverage
>
>
>
UI testing doesn't cover any code. It can't see your code. It has never heard of your code. It knows nothing of your code. It has nothing to do with your code! It merely clicks buttons and reads the interface of your app *from the outside*. In effect, all it can "see" is *the screen*. |
37,384 | I have some idea of how well I'm doing with my research in PhD, but maybe it differs from what my advisor thinks. Is it okay to ask (e.g. at the end of a meeting) how well I'm doing with my research? Can I say "Oh, by the way, how am I doing with my research?" | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/37384",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/28245/"
] | Yes, this is a fine question to ask, although I might phrase is slightly differently:
>
> "How happy are you with the progress that I am making?"
>
>
>
which makes it a little more open-ended and focuses the question more on process and progress. | I think it's fine to ask this question. It's perfectly reasonable to be interested in getting feedback from your advisor. Most advisors should be okay with this kind of question as it shows a high level of interest and willingness to improve. However, I agree that you could frame your question differently. You could ask if your advisor has any feedback on your progress or if there are any areas where you need to put in more effort. |
37,384 | I have some idea of how well I'm doing with my research in PhD, but maybe it differs from what my advisor thinks. Is it okay to ask (e.g. at the end of a meeting) how well I'm doing with my research? Can I say "Oh, by the way, how am I doing with my research?" | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/37384",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/28245/"
] | Yes, this is a fine question to ask, although I might phrase is slightly differently:
>
> "How happy are you with the progress that I am making?"
>
>
>
which makes it a little more open-ended and focuses the question more on process and progress. | I would also agree that it's fine (even good) to ask this question, but I would suggest not throwing it out at the end of the meeting, which may lead your advisor to just give a perfunctory response - for example saying that everything is fine even if s/he has concerns because they have another meeting about to start...
Instead it might be better to bring it up at the beginning of the meeting or even before the meeting in an email, which would allow your advisor to give you a more considered (and hopefully useful) response. |
37,384 | I have some idea of how well I'm doing with my research in PhD, but maybe it differs from what my advisor thinks. Is it okay to ask (e.g. at the end of a meeting) how well I'm doing with my research? Can I say "Oh, by the way, how am I doing with my research?" | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/37384",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/28245/"
] | Yes, this is a fine question to ask, although I might phrase is slightly differently:
>
> "How happy are you with the progress that I am making?"
>
>
>
which makes it a little more open-ended and focuses the question more on process and progress. | First, I think it is very easy for PhD students to err wildly (from the viewpoint of the advisor and/or more senior professionals) in all possible directions in their self-appraisal, if for no other reason than having no perspective or prior experience (and friends and peers in similar no-perspective/experience situations).
And, then, answers to the question may vary enormously depending on the precise wording. E.g., "Are you happy with my progress?" might tend to invite reassurance rather than critique. I think it is misguided to ask "Should I be working harder?", since in too many cases over-the-top "effort" ends up being seriously misdirected and only serves to exhaust you. Perhaps "How would you appraise my progress thus far?" if you really want some constructive criticism (and asked at the beginning of your meeting, rather than end). |
37,384 | I have some idea of how well I'm doing with my research in PhD, but maybe it differs from what my advisor thinks. Is it okay to ask (e.g. at the end of a meeting) how well I'm doing with my research? Can I say "Oh, by the way, how am I doing with my research?" | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/37384",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/28245/"
] | I would also agree that it's fine (even good) to ask this question, but I would suggest not throwing it out at the end of the meeting, which may lead your advisor to just give a perfunctory response - for example saying that everything is fine even if s/he has concerns because they have another meeting about to start...
Instead it might be better to bring it up at the beginning of the meeting or even before the meeting in an email, which would allow your advisor to give you a more considered (and hopefully useful) response. | I think it's fine to ask this question. It's perfectly reasonable to be interested in getting feedback from your advisor. Most advisors should be okay with this kind of question as it shows a high level of interest and willingness to improve. However, I agree that you could frame your question differently. You could ask if your advisor has any feedback on your progress or if there are any areas where you need to put in more effort. |
37,384 | I have some idea of how well I'm doing with my research in PhD, but maybe it differs from what my advisor thinks. Is it okay to ask (e.g. at the end of a meeting) how well I'm doing with my research? Can I say "Oh, by the way, how am I doing with my research?" | 2015/01/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/37384",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/28245/"
] | I would also agree that it's fine (even good) to ask this question, but I would suggest not throwing it out at the end of the meeting, which may lead your advisor to just give a perfunctory response - for example saying that everything is fine even if s/he has concerns because they have another meeting about to start...
Instead it might be better to bring it up at the beginning of the meeting or even before the meeting in an email, which would allow your advisor to give you a more considered (and hopefully useful) response. | First, I think it is very easy for PhD students to err wildly (from the viewpoint of the advisor and/or more senior professionals) in all possible directions in their self-appraisal, if for no other reason than having no perspective or prior experience (and friends and peers in similar no-perspective/experience situations).
And, then, answers to the question may vary enormously depending on the precise wording. E.g., "Are you happy with my progress?" might tend to invite reassurance rather than critique. I think it is misguided to ask "Should I be working harder?", since in too many cases over-the-top "effort" ends up being seriously misdirected and only serves to exhaust you. Perhaps "How would you appraise my progress thus far?" if you really want some constructive criticism (and asked at the beginning of your meeting, rather than end). |
310,488 | I want to hook up something to a usb-c cable, only for power. See it as lighting a LED with usb-c. However, once I cut the wire, I was surprised. I found a twisted pair (green, white) a yellow wire (I assume controller wire) a black one (I assume ground) and three red wires (which I assumed were for power). With a multi meter I then hooked up the wires (black to ground and red, one by one, for power) and looked for which of the red wires outputted power, but none of them did. Can someone explain why not, or what I am doing wrong? I can't seem to figure out the way the wire should work.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/P3Zu9.jpg) | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/310488",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/151886/"
] | A USB Type C receptacle — what you would be plugging your modified cable into — is *prohibited* from supplying power until certain conditions are met.
This is necessary to prevent damage from two devices supplying power being connected to each other with a C to C cable.
You can use a regular USB A male cable with an A to C adapter, which has the necessary pulldown resistor to be recognized and enable Vbus, or you can add [that resistor between CC and GND](https://www.chromium.org/chromium-os/cable-and-adapter-tips-and-tricks) to your cable, but that will require you to test which wire goes to which pin which may be hard without more test equipment.
Of course, as has always been the case, it is incorrect to draw more than 100 mA from a USB port without negotiating for more power or detecting a battery-charger type port. | Try connecting the control wire to one of the red wires and then test the wire again. You should get between 5 and 3 V. |
340,881 | I came across a post that used a neopronoun for a group of people that, as far as I'm aware, has not expressed a desire to be known by a neopronoun (and would not as far as I can tell).
Illustrative example (changed from the original to avoid the meta effect):
>
> A typical American would consider perself a sports fan.
>
>
>
I edited it to say (amongst other spelling corrections):
>
> A typical American would consider themselves a sports fan.
>
>
>
The edit suggestion was declined by two votes to one. The rejection reasons were:
* This edit does not make the post even a little bit easier to read, easier to find, more accurate or more accessible. Changes are either completely superfluous or actively harm readability.
* Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/perself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
I see no difference between the edit I made and changing a reference to Joan of Arc from "he" to "she", as her correct pronouns are feminine.
Did I do the right thing? Should I correct the pronouns of well known binary gendered figures and groups of people in the future or are all pronouns off limits as the rejection comment implies?
1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
3. Should I do it in the future?
4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements? | 2019/12/23 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/177540/"
] | I have recently encountered the same situation [here](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/340708/295232), and a [similar case](https://chess.meta.stackexchange.com/q/664/7297) on Chess Stack Exchange (where a user used 'he' to refer to a hypothetical character, and somebody suggested a gender-neutral version).
The FAQ on pronouns mentions [this answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/335031/define-gender-neutral-language-coc-faq/335038#335038), which gives some advice about using pronouns for hypothetical characters. In those situations, gender-neutral language is *preferred*:
>
> But sometimes you find yourself referring to a poster *or a person that a poster mentioned*:
>
>
>
IMHO (but I could be interpreting the CoC wrong) it's not *required* to do so.
So, to answer your questions:
>
> 1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
>
>
>
I wouldn't call that wrong, since it's not against the CoC.
>
> 2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
>
>
>
Yes, you were right. Parsing the word 'perself' may be hard for users who aren't used to neopronouns, and 'themselves' is clearer. This is not a case where the neopronoun is part of a user's identity, which trumps readability considerations.
>
> 3. Should I do it in the future?
>
>
>
Yes.
>
> 4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements?
>
>
>
No. You shouldn't actively search for old posts not using gender-neutral language and then mass-editing them, but if you're making other improvements, it's fine to change non-gender-neutral language. | Clarity and comprehensibility versus a person's right to define what their gender identity is.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
But what if the subject is not a single individual but a group of people defined by their nationality or by their occupation? Should Stack Exchange always embrace the usage of neopronouns, and should it always respect a user's choice of words as long as that neopronoun is inoffensive?
Across the entire Stack Exchange network, many users, unfamiliar with the pronoun FAQ and the recent changes in the CoC, will see what they think is a typo and "fix" it. By approving the suggested edit (*themselves*) proposed by the editor–which in my view was perfectly legitimate–there was the risk of initiating an edit war between the editor and the author of the post.
### Sensitive Editing
On the one hand, it's easy to mistake a neopronoun for a spelling error and suggest an edit. When edit is carried out or approved of, the author of the original post might feel hurt, annoyed, or offended. In search of validation, they could flag the edit and accuse the editor of being disrespectful or, worse still, *unwelcoming*. How should a moderator react to such a flag? Ignore it? Decline it with a boilerplate message? I think not. In the aftermath of Monica Cellio's demodding, that option is no longer available. The moderator will either have to rollback the edit or explain why that neopronoun was unacceptable....
Whereas if the author simply chose to remain silent, the editor would be unaware that their edit hurt that author's feelings or was unfavourably received and (perhaps) continue editing out any neopronouns in the future, oblivious to the storm that is brewing in the background.
Am I blowing this out of proportion? No, I don't think I am because recently, someone suggested that an edit of mine could be viewed as being unwelcoming and that simple spelling fix, which by the way was totally unrelated to neopronouns, may have contributed to the newcomer's impression that the site was unfriendly and spurred them to delete their question.
In all likelihood, we're going to see an increasing number of similar episodes in the future, as seen in @Glorfindel's cool-headed answer as well. Unfortunately, offending someone's sensibilities has become a minefield of late. No one is exempt.
Some Stack Exchange sites will be affected more than others, but on social media it seems there is a growing movement of vocal LGBTQ+ supporters who use their platform to criticise a celebrity's Tweet (etc.) by employing the slurs; homophobic, transphobic, or [TERF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feminist_views_on_transgender_topics), accusations which were also posted in comments and in posts last year. Unfortunately, this trend will continue to spread if the Stack Exchange management does not provide clear unequivocal guidelines to their volunteer moderators. It is not enough to say in the CoC
>
> Use stated pronouns (when known). When in doubt, don't use language that might offend or alienate.
>
>
>
I would hope that moderators will be provided with more substantial assistance and training.
In contrast, I do believe the reasons for rejecting the edit was done in absolute good faith, the intention was to ***respect the voice*** of the OP. But it must be pointed out that **the suggested edit–*themselves*–is completely *gender-free***. There is no one sex or gender associated with *they*, *them* and *themselves*. The editor could have suggested the singular ***themself***, although that probably opens another can of worms.
>
> A typical American would consider themself a sports fan
>
>
>
I use the pronoun *themself* quite happily myself but purists will object, leading to new discussions. Generally speaking, users and native speakers alike, remain largely unaware of the existence of these neopronouns despite their somewhat long history.
One the earliest [gender-free pronouns was coined by Michael Spivak](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spivak_pronoun) as long ago as thirty years ago
>
> In 1990, [Michael Spivak used them in his manual, The Joy of TeX, so that no person in his examples had a specified gender](https://nonbinary.miraheze.org/wiki/English_neutral_pronouns#E_.28Spivak_pronouns.29). […] Many users enjoyed choosing pronouns that didn't specify their gender. The pronouns then became a common feature of other multi-user chats made throughout the 1990s.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GZA8t.png)
The Spivak pronouns are the ones highlighted above: *e, em, eir, eirs, emself*
To sum up, like it or not, we all need patience and time to become accustomed to these new pronouns in the English language, it will not happen in the space of a year, it will take several. We are only at the beginning but the change is inevitable. |
340,881 | I came across a post that used a neopronoun for a group of people that, as far as I'm aware, has not expressed a desire to be known by a neopronoun (and would not as far as I can tell).
Illustrative example (changed from the original to avoid the meta effect):
>
> A typical American would consider perself a sports fan.
>
>
>
I edited it to say (amongst other spelling corrections):
>
> A typical American would consider themselves a sports fan.
>
>
>
The edit suggestion was declined by two votes to one. The rejection reasons were:
* This edit does not make the post even a little bit easier to read, easier to find, more accurate or more accessible. Changes are either completely superfluous or actively harm readability.
* Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/perself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
I see no difference between the edit I made and changing a reference to Joan of Arc from "he" to "she", as her correct pronouns are feminine.
Did I do the right thing? Should I correct the pronouns of well known binary gendered figures and groups of people in the future or are all pronouns off limits as the rejection comment implies?
1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
3. Should I do it in the future?
4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements? | 2019/12/23 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/177540/"
] | I have recently encountered the same situation [here](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/340708/295232), and a [similar case](https://chess.meta.stackexchange.com/q/664/7297) on Chess Stack Exchange (where a user used 'he' to refer to a hypothetical character, and somebody suggested a gender-neutral version).
The FAQ on pronouns mentions [this answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/335031/define-gender-neutral-language-coc-faq/335038#335038), which gives some advice about using pronouns for hypothetical characters. In those situations, gender-neutral language is *preferred*:
>
> But sometimes you find yourself referring to a poster *or a person that a poster mentioned*:
>
>
>
IMHO (but I could be interpreting the CoC wrong) it's not *required* to do so.
So, to answer your questions:
>
> 1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
>
>
>
I wouldn't call that wrong, since it's not against the CoC.
>
> 2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
>
>
>
Yes, you were right. Parsing the word 'perself' may be hard for users who aren't used to neopronouns, and 'themselves' is clearer. This is not a case where the neopronoun is part of a user's identity, which trumps readability considerations.
>
> 3. Should I do it in the future?
>
>
>
Yes.
>
> 4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements?
>
>
>
No. You shouldn't actively search for old posts not using gender-neutral language and then mass-editing them, but if you're making other improvements, it's fine to change non-gender-neutral language. | [I initially rejected your suggestion that may have sparked your question.](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29005)
I then stated as a custom rejection reason:
>
> Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/xyrself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
>
>
>
While the pronoun *"xyrself"* wouldn't be my first choice either, I don't see why it would have to be changed given the current Code of Conduct.
You attempt to change a genderneutral neopronoun with a more common genderneutral pronoun, and I'm not sure if that improves the answer given the current Code of Conduct. I am aware of [your most recent edit suggestion linking to this question](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014). I have not voted on that yet, awaiting what happens at this question, but I am still not sure if it improves the question. Personally, I hope to see some of the framers (to stay in the realm of politics ;)) provide their view on the matter. |
340,881 | I came across a post that used a neopronoun for a group of people that, as far as I'm aware, has not expressed a desire to be known by a neopronoun (and would not as far as I can tell).
Illustrative example (changed from the original to avoid the meta effect):
>
> A typical American would consider perself a sports fan.
>
>
>
I edited it to say (amongst other spelling corrections):
>
> A typical American would consider themselves a sports fan.
>
>
>
The edit suggestion was declined by two votes to one. The rejection reasons were:
* This edit does not make the post even a little bit easier to read, easier to find, more accurate or more accessible. Changes are either completely superfluous or actively harm readability.
* Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/perself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
I see no difference between the edit I made and changing a reference to Joan of Arc from "he" to "she", as her correct pronouns are feminine.
Did I do the right thing? Should I correct the pronouns of well known binary gendered figures and groups of people in the future or are all pronouns off limits as the rejection comment implies?
1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
3. Should I do it in the future?
4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements? | 2019/12/23 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/177540/"
] | Clarity and comprehensibility versus a person's right to define what their gender identity is.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
But what if the subject is not a single individual but a group of people defined by their nationality or by their occupation? Should Stack Exchange always embrace the usage of neopronouns, and should it always respect a user's choice of words as long as that neopronoun is inoffensive?
Across the entire Stack Exchange network, many users, unfamiliar with the pronoun FAQ and the recent changes in the CoC, will see what they think is a typo and "fix" it. By approving the suggested edit (*themselves*) proposed by the editor–which in my view was perfectly legitimate–there was the risk of initiating an edit war between the editor and the author of the post.
### Sensitive Editing
On the one hand, it's easy to mistake a neopronoun for a spelling error and suggest an edit. When edit is carried out or approved of, the author of the original post might feel hurt, annoyed, or offended. In search of validation, they could flag the edit and accuse the editor of being disrespectful or, worse still, *unwelcoming*. How should a moderator react to such a flag? Ignore it? Decline it with a boilerplate message? I think not. In the aftermath of Monica Cellio's demodding, that option is no longer available. The moderator will either have to rollback the edit or explain why that neopronoun was unacceptable....
Whereas if the author simply chose to remain silent, the editor would be unaware that their edit hurt that author's feelings or was unfavourably received and (perhaps) continue editing out any neopronouns in the future, oblivious to the storm that is brewing in the background.
Am I blowing this out of proportion? No, I don't think I am because recently, someone suggested that an edit of mine could be viewed as being unwelcoming and that simple spelling fix, which by the way was totally unrelated to neopronouns, may have contributed to the newcomer's impression that the site was unfriendly and spurred them to delete their question.
In all likelihood, we're going to see an increasing number of similar episodes in the future, as seen in @Glorfindel's cool-headed answer as well. Unfortunately, offending someone's sensibilities has become a minefield of late. No one is exempt.
Some Stack Exchange sites will be affected more than others, but on social media it seems there is a growing movement of vocal LGBTQ+ supporters who use their platform to criticise a celebrity's Tweet (etc.) by employing the slurs; homophobic, transphobic, or [TERF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feminist_views_on_transgender_topics), accusations which were also posted in comments and in posts last year. Unfortunately, this trend will continue to spread if the Stack Exchange management does not provide clear unequivocal guidelines to their volunteer moderators. It is not enough to say in the CoC
>
> Use stated pronouns (when known). When in doubt, don't use language that might offend or alienate.
>
>
>
I would hope that moderators will be provided with more substantial assistance and training.
In contrast, I do believe the reasons for rejecting the edit was done in absolute good faith, the intention was to ***respect the voice*** of the OP. But it must be pointed out that **the suggested edit–*themselves*–is completely *gender-free***. There is no one sex or gender associated with *they*, *them* and *themselves*. The editor could have suggested the singular ***themself***, although that probably opens another can of worms.
>
> A typical American would consider themself a sports fan
>
>
>
I use the pronoun *themself* quite happily myself but purists will object, leading to new discussions. Generally speaking, users and native speakers alike, remain largely unaware of the existence of these neopronouns despite their somewhat long history.
One the earliest [gender-free pronouns was coined by Michael Spivak](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spivak_pronoun) as long ago as thirty years ago
>
> In 1990, [Michael Spivak used them in his manual, The Joy of TeX, so that no person in his examples had a specified gender](https://nonbinary.miraheze.org/wiki/English_neutral_pronouns#E_.28Spivak_pronouns.29). […] Many users enjoyed choosing pronouns that didn't specify their gender. The pronouns then became a common feature of other multi-user chats made throughout the 1990s.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GZA8t.png)
The Spivak pronouns are the ones highlighted above: *e, em, eir, eirs, emself*
To sum up, like it or not, we all need patience and time to become accustomed to these new pronouns in the English language, it will not happen in the space of a year, it will take several. We are only at the beginning but the change is inevitable. | [I initially rejected your suggestion that may have sparked your question.](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29005)
I then stated as a custom rejection reason:
>
> Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/xyrself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
>
>
>
While the pronoun *"xyrself"* wouldn't be my first choice either, I don't see why it would have to be changed given the current Code of Conduct.
You attempt to change a genderneutral neopronoun with a more common genderneutral pronoun, and I'm not sure if that improves the answer given the current Code of Conduct. I am aware of [your most recent edit suggestion linking to this question](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014). I have not voted on that yet, awaiting what happens at this question, but I am still not sure if it improves the question. Personally, I hope to see some of the framers (to stay in the realm of politics ;)) provide their view on the matter. |
340,881 | I came across a post that used a neopronoun for a group of people that, as far as I'm aware, has not expressed a desire to be known by a neopronoun (and would not as far as I can tell).
Illustrative example (changed from the original to avoid the meta effect):
>
> A typical American would consider perself a sports fan.
>
>
>
I edited it to say (amongst other spelling corrections):
>
> A typical American would consider themselves a sports fan.
>
>
>
The edit suggestion was declined by two votes to one. The rejection reasons were:
* This edit does not make the post even a little bit easier to read, easier to find, more accurate or more accessible. Changes are either completely superfluous or actively harm readability.
* Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/perself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
I see no difference between the edit I made and changing a reference to Joan of Arc from "he" to "she", as her correct pronouns are feminine.
Did I do the right thing? Should I correct the pronouns of well known binary gendered figures and groups of people in the future or are all pronouns off limits as the rejection comment implies?
1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
3. Should I do it in the future?
4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements? | 2019/12/23 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/177540/"
] | Using *generic* language and pronouns is fine, and is encouraged to refer to groups as well as to individuals when the gender of the person is not known.
Using a neopronoun for someone who has not indicated a preference for it is akin to misgendering, and should not be permitted. | Clarity and comprehensibility versus a person's right to define what their gender identity is.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
But what if the subject is not a single individual but a group of people defined by their nationality or by their occupation? Should Stack Exchange always embrace the usage of neopronouns, and should it always respect a user's choice of words as long as that neopronoun is inoffensive?
Across the entire Stack Exchange network, many users, unfamiliar with the pronoun FAQ and the recent changes in the CoC, will see what they think is a typo and "fix" it. By approving the suggested edit (*themselves*) proposed by the editor–which in my view was perfectly legitimate–there was the risk of initiating an edit war between the editor and the author of the post.
### Sensitive Editing
On the one hand, it's easy to mistake a neopronoun for a spelling error and suggest an edit. When edit is carried out or approved of, the author of the original post might feel hurt, annoyed, or offended. In search of validation, they could flag the edit and accuse the editor of being disrespectful or, worse still, *unwelcoming*. How should a moderator react to such a flag? Ignore it? Decline it with a boilerplate message? I think not. In the aftermath of Monica Cellio's demodding, that option is no longer available. The moderator will either have to rollback the edit or explain why that neopronoun was unacceptable....
Whereas if the author simply chose to remain silent, the editor would be unaware that their edit hurt that author's feelings or was unfavourably received and (perhaps) continue editing out any neopronouns in the future, oblivious to the storm that is brewing in the background.
Am I blowing this out of proportion? No, I don't think I am because recently, someone suggested that an edit of mine could be viewed as being unwelcoming and that simple spelling fix, which by the way was totally unrelated to neopronouns, may have contributed to the newcomer's impression that the site was unfriendly and spurred them to delete their question.
In all likelihood, we're going to see an increasing number of similar episodes in the future, as seen in @Glorfindel's cool-headed answer as well. Unfortunately, offending someone's sensibilities has become a minefield of late. No one is exempt.
Some Stack Exchange sites will be affected more than others, but on social media it seems there is a growing movement of vocal LGBTQ+ supporters who use their platform to criticise a celebrity's Tweet (etc.) by employing the slurs; homophobic, transphobic, or [TERF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feminist_views_on_transgender_topics), accusations which were also posted in comments and in posts last year. Unfortunately, this trend will continue to spread if the Stack Exchange management does not provide clear unequivocal guidelines to their volunteer moderators. It is not enough to say in the CoC
>
> Use stated pronouns (when known). When in doubt, don't use language that might offend or alienate.
>
>
>
I would hope that moderators will be provided with more substantial assistance and training.
In contrast, I do believe the reasons for rejecting the edit was done in absolute good faith, the intention was to ***respect the voice*** of the OP. But it must be pointed out that **the suggested edit–*themselves*–is completely *gender-free***. There is no one sex or gender associated with *they*, *them* and *themselves*. The editor could have suggested the singular ***themself***, although that probably opens another can of worms.
>
> A typical American would consider themself a sports fan
>
>
>
I use the pronoun *themself* quite happily myself but purists will object, leading to new discussions. Generally speaking, users and native speakers alike, remain largely unaware of the existence of these neopronouns despite their somewhat long history.
One the earliest [gender-free pronouns was coined by Michael Spivak](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spivak_pronoun) as long ago as thirty years ago
>
> In 1990, [Michael Spivak used them in his manual, The Joy of TeX, so that no person in his examples had a specified gender](https://nonbinary.miraheze.org/wiki/English_neutral_pronouns#E_.28Spivak_pronouns.29). […] Many users enjoyed choosing pronouns that didn't specify their gender. The pronouns then became a common feature of other multi-user chats made throughout the 1990s.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GZA8t.png)
The Spivak pronouns are the ones highlighted above: *e, em, eir, eirs, emself*
To sum up, like it or not, we all need patience and time to become accustomed to these new pronouns in the English language, it will not happen in the space of a year, it will take several. We are only at the beginning but the change is inevitable. |
340,881 | I came across a post that used a neopronoun for a group of people that, as far as I'm aware, has not expressed a desire to be known by a neopronoun (and would not as far as I can tell).
Illustrative example (changed from the original to avoid the meta effect):
>
> A typical American would consider perself a sports fan.
>
>
>
I edited it to say (amongst other spelling corrections):
>
> A typical American would consider themselves a sports fan.
>
>
>
The edit suggestion was declined by two votes to one. The rejection reasons were:
* This edit does not make the post even a little bit easier to read, easier to find, more accurate or more accessible. Changes are either completely superfluous or actively harm readability.
* Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/perself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
I see no difference between the edit I made and changing a reference to Joan of Arc from "he" to "she", as her correct pronouns are feminine.
Did I do the right thing? Should I correct the pronouns of well known binary gendered figures and groups of people in the future or are all pronouns off limits as the rejection comment implies?
1. Was the original user right or wrong to use a neopronoun?
2. Was I right or wrong to change it?
3. Should I do it in the future?
4. Should pronouns be ignored when making other improvements? | 2019/12/23 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/340881",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/177540/"
] | Using *generic* language and pronouns is fine, and is encouraged to refer to groups as well as to individuals when the gender of the person is not known.
Using a neopronoun for someone who has not indicated a preference for it is akin to misgendering, and should not be permitted. | [I initially rejected your suggestion that may have sparked your question.](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29005)
I then stated as a custom rejection reason:
>
> Please don't change pronouns, see <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/xyrself> and [What does the Code of Conduct say about pronouns?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/336364/387405)
>
>
>
While the pronoun *"xyrself"* wouldn't be my first choice either, I don't see why it would have to be changed given the current Code of Conduct.
You attempt to change a genderneutral neopronoun with a more common genderneutral pronoun, and I'm not sure if that improves the answer given the current Code of Conduct. I am aware of [your most recent edit suggestion linking to this question](https://politics.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits/29014). I have not voted on that yet, awaiting what happens at this question, but I am still not sure if it improves the question. Personally, I hope to see some of the framers (to stay in the realm of politics ;)) provide their view on the matter. |
304,919 | I can see that most of the gadgets that use proprietary protocols use 433MHz, 915MHz, or 2.45GHz, but I don't understand why. 433MHz is highly regulated in the US and 915MHz can not be used in Europe. Why is that noone uses other frequencies?
What unlicensed frequencies can (or should) be used for proprietary wireless communication? Can you please help me finding a whole list of frequencies that can be used for an unlicensed wireless communication? And maybe some issues that has to ba taken into account when you select a frequency?
Thanks in advance! | 2017/05/12 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/304919",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/72659/"
] | >
> Why is that noone uses other frequencies?
>
>
>
The radio spectrum is crammed full of users, some licensed, some military and there are a few spaces left over that unlicensed users are permitted to use. Here's what the US looks like: -
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zUQN3.jpg)
If you want a more detailed view type in the link shown on the picture. You can also find details on line, for each specific band how you can use that band. For instance, maximum power, duty cycle etc..
Here's a little snap shot of more detail: -
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JCynq.png)
And for the UK there is this chart: -
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mhKkd.png) | Not that long ago, all countries had their own frequency allocation plans and there was no international standards what-so-ever. Meaning that exporting radio products was a complete nightmare.
With mobile phones and wireless becoming mainstream products, there are some attempts to standardize certain bands.
EU has started to harmonize European frequency bands (EU decision 2006/771/EC), making at least some bands standardized in EU. Similar attempts are made in South-East Asia by the Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT).
The problem is that all countries had already allocated all of their frequency bands for certain designated uses before people started to realize that standardization was necessary. Getting everyone to adapt to a standard is therefore painfully slow work, with lots of politics involved.
For example it would seem that the 434MHz vs 902MHz bands boil down to trade barriers between EU and USA. EU has allocated various miscellaneous crap of peripheral interest on the 902 band and the US has done the same on 434. It wouldn't be hard to fix this if both parties actually wanted to.
World-wide it is pretty much only the 2.4GHz band that can be exported almost everywhere. |
20,253 | This has been annoying me for the past months, well since I've been playing Dungeons & Dragons Online, that paralyzed characters still move around when getting "paralyzed". Not sure if it's the game, my client installation, my connection, or God punishing me for playing so much. Anyone have a clue? | 2011/04/18 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/20253",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/8659/"
] | Its a known long standing bug. Devs have mentioned that they "finally fixed it" a few times but it still happens quite often especially if you paralyze them when they are moving. It used to be more common though, so they are improving. | Part of the problem is lag between the player using an effect that causes paralysis, that instruction being sent from the client to the server, then the server updating the monster, and finally the server sending the updated data back to the client.
This is why the monsters appear to 'slide' to their updated position.
There's no real way to cure lag problems without letting the client override the server update, and that would open up endless avenues for hacks. |
381,134 | How can I test my website in multiple versions of firefox?
I have v2 installed. Now no matter where or how many times I install FF3, it always executes ff2..
I checked the interweb and it seems there used to be a MultiFireFox tool that could run several versions. It was for apple and I'm on windows. Furthermore all the links to it are dead.
I also found an option I could add to the executable. But since I cannot start FF3 to begin with, I reckon this doesn't make much sence.
Something like [MultipleIE](http://tredosoft.com/Multiple_IE) would be great.
Suggestions? | 2008/12/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/381134",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11333/"
] | What you need to do is set up two profiles, one for Firefox3 and on for Firefox 2. It's a pretty simple process; I've got them both running and I love it!
[Here's one way to set up two profiles](http://blog.codefront.net/2007/08/20/how-to-have-firefox-3-and-firefox-2-running-at-the-same-time/) | The general case of running two separate Firefox processes is described in [this Mozillazine article](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Opening_a_new_instance_of_Firefox_with_another_profile). There's also [this article which covers different versions specifically](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Testing_pre-release_versions).
To make life easier I recommend downloading the nightly builds in zip format rather than trying to run the installers (eg. [here's the current 2.0 trunk](http://ftp.mozilla.org/pub/mozilla.org/firefox/nightly/latest-mozilla1.8/)). |
381,134 | How can I test my website in multiple versions of firefox?
I have v2 installed. Now no matter where or how many times I install FF3, it always executes ff2..
I checked the interweb and it seems there used to be a MultiFireFox tool that could run several versions. It was for apple and I'm on windows. Furthermore all the links to it are dead.
I also found an option I could add to the executable. But since I cannot start FF3 to begin with, I reckon this doesn't make much sence.
Something like [MultipleIE](http://tredosoft.com/Multiple_IE) would be great.
Suggestions? | 2008/12/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/381134",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11333/"
] | Try out [Firefox portable](http://portableapps.com/news/2008-12-16_-_firefox_portable_3.0.5)... each version one folder. | The general case of running two separate Firefox processes is described in [this Mozillazine article](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Opening_a_new_instance_of_Firefox_with_another_profile). There's also [this article which covers different versions specifically](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Testing_pre-release_versions).
To make life easier I recommend downloading the nightly builds in zip format rather than trying to run the installers (eg. [here's the current 2.0 trunk](http://ftp.mozilla.org/pub/mozilla.org/firefox/nightly/latest-mozilla1.8/)). |
381,134 | How can I test my website in multiple versions of firefox?
I have v2 installed. Now no matter where or how many times I install FF3, it always executes ff2..
I checked the interweb and it seems there used to be a MultiFireFox tool that could run several versions. It was for apple and I'm on windows. Furthermore all the links to it are dead.
I also found an option I could add to the executable. But since I cannot start FF3 to begin with, I reckon this doesn't make much sence.
Something like [MultipleIE](http://tredosoft.com/Multiple_IE) would be great.
Suggestions? | 2008/12/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/381134",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11333/"
] | Try out [Firefox portable](http://portableapps.com/news/2008-12-16_-_firefox_portable_3.0.5)... each version one folder. | You might try setting up a few virtual machines, and installing different browser versions on each.
Ex:
* VM1 - IE6, FF1
* VM2 - IE7, FF2
* VM3 - IE8B, FF3
etc. |
381,134 | How can I test my website in multiple versions of firefox?
I have v2 installed. Now no matter where or how many times I install FF3, it always executes ff2..
I checked the interweb and it seems there used to be a MultiFireFox tool that could run several versions. It was for apple and I'm on windows. Furthermore all the links to it are dead.
I also found an option I could add to the executable. But since I cannot start FF3 to begin with, I reckon this doesn't make much sence.
Something like [MultipleIE](http://tredosoft.com/Multiple_IE) would be great.
Suggestions? | 2008/12/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/381134",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11333/"
] | You might try setting up a few virtual machines, and installing different browser versions on each.
Ex:
* VM1 - IE6, FF1
* VM2 - IE7, FF2
* VM3 - IE8B, FF3
etc. | The general case of running two separate Firefox processes is described in [this Mozillazine article](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Opening_a_new_instance_of_Firefox_with_another_profile). There's also [this article which covers different versions specifically](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Testing_pre-release_versions).
To make life easier I recommend downloading the nightly builds in zip format rather than trying to run the installers (eg. [here's the current 2.0 trunk](http://ftp.mozilla.org/pub/mozilla.org/firefox/nightly/latest-mozilla1.8/)). |
381,134 | How can I test my website in multiple versions of firefox?
I have v2 installed. Now no matter where or how many times I install FF3, it always executes ff2..
I checked the interweb and it seems there used to be a MultiFireFox tool that could run several versions. It was for apple and I'm on windows. Furthermore all the links to it are dead.
I also found an option I could add to the executable. But since I cannot start FF3 to begin with, I reckon this doesn't make much sence.
Something like [MultipleIE](http://tredosoft.com/Multiple_IE) would be great.
Suggestions? | 2008/12/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/381134",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11333/"
] | Try out [Firefox portable](http://portableapps.com/news/2008-12-16_-_firefox_portable_3.0.5)... each version one folder. | If you just have to check standalone pages (i.e not part of a flow), you can test your pages online with Browsershots - <http://browsershots.org/>
Browsershots is a free open-source online service that takes a URL & as per your choosing, checks it on a variety of browsers, different versions of each and on different Operating systems. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.