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1,184,024
What I need is to clearly differentiate between the attachments (this is an approval, this is an offer, this is a PO, etc). Is this possible, or it is working only in bulk (attach all files together)? Thanks,
2009/07/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1184024", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/168650/" ]
SharePoint does not support attachment metadata. I would suggest storing the attachments in a document library (probably with Content Types for Approval, Offer, PO, etc) with a lookup column to the associated item in your list.
You could create separate lists for each item requiring an attachment, then link those lists in a master table.
1,184,024
What I need is to clearly differentiate between the attachments (this is an approval, this is an offer, this is a PO, etc). Is this possible, or it is working only in bulk (attach all files together)? Thanks,
2009/07/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1184024", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/168650/" ]
You could create separate lists for each item requiring an attachment, then link those lists in a master table.
There are two option. 1. Add as many attachment you want to attachment column with the list. but you cannot associate metadata with that. 2. Create document library and use lookup in the list to view name of the document. so in a way it is storing the common document in library and just refer which one you are supposed to use. Custom code is another one.
1,184,024
What I need is to clearly differentiate between the attachments (this is an approval, this is an offer, this is a PO, etc). Is this possible, or it is working only in bulk (attach all files together)? Thanks,
2009/07/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1184024", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/168650/" ]
SharePoint does not support attachment metadata. I would suggest storing the attachments in a document library (probably with Content Types for Approval, Offer, PO, etc) with a lookup column to the associated item in your list.
There are two option. 1. Add as many attachment you want to attachment column with the list. but you cannot associate metadata with that. 2. Create document library and use lookup in the list to view name of the document. so in a way it is storing the common document in library and just refer which one you are supposed to use. Custom code is another one.
2,002,509
Right now, I have a console application I'm working on, which is supposed to display and update information to the console at a given interval. The problem I'm having is that with a carriage return, I can only update one line of text at a time. If I use a newline, the old line can no longer be updated using a carriage return. What can I do here?
2010/01/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2002509", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/136846/" ]
You might be able to find a [curses library](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curses_(programming_library)) variant that works on your platform.
This is a really ugly solution, but in a pinch you could always just clear the console entirely and then reprint everything. This strategy looks a bit ugly in some cases; it may make things look blinky.
2,002,509
Right now, I have a console application I'm working on, which is supposed to display and update information to the console at a given interval. The problem I'm having is that with a carriage return, I can only update one line of text at a time. If I use a newline, the old line can no longer be updated using a carriage return. What can I do here?
2010/01/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2002509", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/136846/" ]
You might be able to find a [curses library](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curses_(programming_library)) variant that works on your platform.
The correct answer is to use the curses library as mentioned by Mark. But if you're on Unix-like systems and can't be bothered with curses then the quick and dirty solution is to directly print out vt100 escape sequences: <http://ascii-table.com/ansi-escape-sequences-vt-100.php> I often do this especially in scripting languages that doesn't have a curses binding.
2,002,509
Right now, I have a console application I'm working on, which is supposed to display and update information to the console at a given interval. The problem I'm having is that with a carriage return, I can only update one line of text at a time. If I use a newline, the old line can no longer be updated using a carriage return. What can I do here?
2010/01/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2002509", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/136846/" ]
The correct answer is to use the curses library as mentioned by Mark. But if you're on Unix-like systems and can't be bothered with curses then the quick and dirty solution is to directly print out vt100 escape sequences: <http://ascii-table.com/ansi-escape-sequences-vt-100.php> I often do this especially in scripting languages that doesn't have a curses binding.
This is a really ugly solution, but in a pinch you could always just clear the console entirely and then reprint everything. This strategy looks a bit ugly in some cases; it may make things look blinky.
39,749
When Jon Snow is captured by the Wildlings in S02E08 of Game of Thrones, the Lord of Bones says > > Why would we need a dead man's bastard? > > > How did they know that Ned Stark was dead? It seems unlikely that a crow carrying the message would be north of The Wall.
2013/08/22
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/39749", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/16133/" ]
We don't know exactly how they know this, but it isn't impossible. Wildlings trade with the Night's Watch at Eastwatch-by-the-Sea. So it could be that they heard about it from the Night's Watch. Remember that Ned was warden of the North. Besides the Night's Watch, Ned would be the main force preventing the Wildling invasion, so it makes sense they would be interested in him.
Mance Rayder, himself, had been to Winterfell, incognito as a traveling minstrel (when King Robert visits at the very beginning of the saga), so the ability to for people and information to move from one side of the Wall to the other is pretty well established. Plus, as a former member of the Night's Watch, he apparently still had some sources/contacts there (which is how he heard of Robert's trip to Winterfell).
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
Good question -- in addition to the answers concerned with the various contexts in which this is asked: The ambiguity is as much a question of contrastive focus: * **How** do you like your coffee? * How **do** you like your coffee? * How do **you** like your coffee? * How do you **like** your coffee? * How do you like **your** coffee? * How do you like your **coffee**? Even context-free, emphasis on the words in bold (or any combination of words in this sentence) affects the meaning. See [Wikipedia: Focus (linguistics)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Focus_(linguistics)) for a more technical description of contrastive focus.
It's easier to see the meaning if you expand the two sentences to avoid the ambiguity: > > How do you like your coffee [to be]? > > > And the second definition: > > How do you like your coffee [in front of you]? > > > --- The latter is usually instead said without the "how" (in fact, I have a feeling including the "how" is grammatically incorrect), just as: > > *Do you like your coffee?* > > > Or even more clear: > > *How is your coffee?* > > >
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
This phrase does have two meanings in US English, as agreed by other posters. For the sake of completeness, I feel compelled to add that in British English, this is a phrase that would only be used when offering coffee. Using it as a question to affirm how much someone was enjoying their coffee would probably be understood, but would sound extremely odd. Instead, British people might say: > > "Are you enjoying your coffee?" > > > "Is that coffee OK for you?" > > > Or something similar. Divided by a common language and all that.
Good question -- in addition to the answers concerned with the various contexts in which this is asked: The ambiguity is as much a question of contrastive focus: * **How** do you like your coffee? * How **do** you like your coffee? * How do **you** like your coffee? * How do you **like** your coffee? * How do you like **your** coffee? * How do you like your **coffee**? Even context-free, emphasis on the words in bold (or any combination of words in this sentence) affects the meaning. See [Wikipedia: Focus (linguistics)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Focus_(linguistics)) for a more technical description of contrastive focus.
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
Context depends greatly on whether I ask: **before I give it to you**, where it's equivalent to *"Would you like milk/sugar/etc.?"* **after I give it to you**, where I'm asking *"Do you like it?"/"Is that coffee ok?"*
One other possible interpretation is if it's being said by someone who doesn't like coffee, in an incredulous manner: > > *How* do you like your coffee?? I hate it! > > > (This is me. :))
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
**Be careful of emphasis** There are 2 ways of emphasizing the question: 1. *How* do you like your coffee? 2. How do you like *your coffee*? The first is equivalent to 'how do you take your coffee?', so I would expect it in that context after someone has agreed to or requested some coffee. The second is equivalent to 'how are you enjoying your coffee?', so I would expect it in the context of someone having tasted some coffee they have received. To this, any answer about the quality or my enjoyment of the coffee is fine, but it is not a yes/no question ('how' requires a full answer).
One other possible interpretation is if it's being said by someone who doesn't like coffee, in an incredulous manner: > > *How* do you like your coffee?? I hate it! > > > (This is me. :))
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
Beyond the answers given by other contributors, I would also add another parse: If asked at a bar at night, when the other party is clearly not drinking coffee, the individual who asked may be implying that they will be making coffee for the other party the following morning; that is, it could also serve as an implicit pick-up line.
It's easier to see the meaning if you expand the two sentences to avoid the ambiguity: > > How do you like your coffee [to be]? > > > And the second definition: > > How do you like your coffee [in front of you]? > > > --- The latter is usually instead said without the "how" (in fact, I have a feeling including the "how" is grammatically incorrect), just as: > > *Do you like your coffee?* > > > Or even more clear: > > *How is your coffee?* > > >
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
You may use this in both situations, and indeed in others; the context will make it clear which meaning is intended: * If you ask before you start preparing the coffee, you are asking how your hearer prefers their coffee to be prepared—Do you like it strong or weak (or possibly boiled to a black sludge)? * If you ask before or as you serve the coffee, you are asking how your hearer 'takes' their coffee—Do you want cream or sugar with your coffee? * If you ask after your hearer has started drinking the coffee, you are asking about the taste of the coffee—Is the coffee OK? As for your answers, both are possible, as are many more: * It's terrific! * It's horrible! * It's coffee! * It's Blue Mountain, apparently from St Thomas Parish; rather underroasted, to my mind, and a coarser grind should be used with that press.
This phrase does have two meanings in US English, as agreed by other posters. For the sake of completeness, I feel compelled to add that in British English, this is a phrase that would only be used when offering coffee. Using it as a question to affirm how much someone was enjoying their coffee would probably be understood, but would sound extremely odd. Instead, British people might say: > > "Are you enjoying your coffee?" > > > "Is that coffee OK for you?" > > > Or something similar. Divided by a common language and all that.
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
You may use this in both situations, and indeed in others; the context will make it clear which meaning is intended: * If you ask before you start preparing the coffee, you are asking how your hearer prefers their coffee to be prepared—Do you like it strong or weak (or possibly boiled to a black sludge)? * If you ask before or as you serve the coffee, you are asking how your hearer 'takes' their coffee—Do you want cream or sugar with your coffee? * If you ask after your hearer has started drinking the coffee, you are asking about the taste of the coffee—Is the coffee OK? As for your answers, both are possible, as are many more: * It's terrific! * It's horrible! * It's coffee! * It's Blue Mountain, apparently from St Thomas Parish; rather underroasted, to my mind, and a coarser grind should be used with that press.
It's easier to see the meaning if you expand the two sentences to avoid the ambiguity: > > How do you like your coffee [to be]? > > > And the second definition: > > How do you like your coffee [in front of you]? > > > --- The latter is usually instead said without the "how" (in fact, I have a feeling including the "how" is grammatically incorrect), just as: > > *Do you like your coffee?* > > > Or even more clear: > > *How is your coffee?* > > >
39,975
> > How do you like your coffee? > > > Can I use the above sentence either on an offering situation that I ask if they like it black or with sugar, or during having situation that I ask if the coffee tastes good? When the latter is possible, can next both answers be possible? 1. I like it a lot. 2. It's good.
2014/11/20
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/39975", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/504/" ]
Beyond the answers given by other contributors, I would also add another parse: If asked at a bar at night, when the other party is clearly not drinking coffee, the individual who asked may be implying that they will be making coffee for the other party the following morning; that is, it could also serve as an implicit pick-up line.
One other possible interpretation is if it's being said by someone who doesn't like coffee, in an incredulous manner: > > *How* do you like your coffee?? I hate it! > > > (This is me. :))
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
Imagine a car just going along at constant speed. Do your free-body diagram. The net force on the car has to be zero. So the wheels have to be exerting on the ground (net at least) only a vertical force. Now imagine the car decreasing speed. There has to be a force opposite to the velocity. Free-body time again. The force on the ground has to include a force component that opposes the motion of the car. The wheels are the part touching the ground, so they must be supplying that force. Remember your Newton's laws. To stop the car must be acted on by an external force. If you call the wheels "part of" the car, then the stopping force has to be applied by the ground. Meaning the wheels have to push back exactly as hard. If you call the wheels "not part of" the car, then you can describe it as the braking mechanism applying a force to the wheels. Then it's "the wheel's problem" what it does with that force. But in that case, the car is stopped by friction between the brake mechanism and the wheel. It may be that your teacher is trying to get you to think that way.
cars stop with their brakes, which produce friction at the inside of the wheel assemblies as the wheels rotate. This friction force retards the rotation of the wheels and dissipates the kinetic energy of the car into heat in the brake parts. since the wheels are in rolling contact with the pavement, and since the wheels are being slowed by the brakes, the pavement is pushing back against the wheels at their contact point with the pavement in a direction that opposes the movement of the car. So the car as a whole slows down.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
Imagine a car just going along at constant speed. Do your free-body diagram. The net force on the car has to be zero. So the wheels have to be exerting on the ground (net at least) only a vertical force. Now imagine the car decreasing speed. There has to be a force opposite to the velocity. Free-body time again. The force on the ground has to include a force component that opposes the motion of the car. The wheels are the part touching the ground, so they must be supplying that force. Remember your Newton's laws. To stop the car must be acted on by an external force. If you call the wheels "part of" the car, then the stopping force has to be applied by the ground. Meaning the wheels have to push back exactly as hard. If you call the wheels "not part of" the car, then you can describe it as the braking mechanism applying a force to the wheels. Then it's "the wheel's problem" what it does with that force. But in that case, the car is stopped by friction between the brake mechanism and the wheel. It may be that your teacher is trying to get you to think that way.
Your teacher's explanation is a bit thin. Firstly, there are several reasons that a car might slow down. Secondly, even when specifically focusing on internal friction, there are several more factors involved. If there is kinetic friction ---------------------------- (if the wheels are sliding), then that friction is of course slowing down the car. In the cases of static friction, -------------------------------- it is correct that it is not the static friction that directly causes slowing. Only indirectly, as the static friction is a response to other factors. * **If you let go of the gas pedal and put the car in neutral**, ideally, the car will never stop. Realistically, + there is friction, as you teacher says, in axles and axle joints, bearings etc. + Also, realistically, the compression and expansion of soft rubber wheels requires work and "sucks" out energy, which is taken from the kinetic energy as well. + Also, driving on, say, a soft road (think of a sandy beach) will similarly cause deformation of the surface and thus energy lost as work. All this these non-ideal losses are usually combined into one umbrella term: **rolling friction** or **[rolling resistance](https://www.engineeringtoolbox.com/rolling-friction-resistance-d_1303.html)**. * **If you let go of the gas pedal but keep the car in gear**, the gearing system is still connected to the axle. Constantly driving the gearing is a tough task that causes a counter-torque, slowing down the car. + This is known as [engine braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Engine_braking), and is particularly useful in larger trucks. + In typical electric cars, the axle system is connected to a one-way electrical generator system, so that the car's kinetic energy is converted [back into electrical energy](https://www.explainthatstuff.com/how-regenerative-brakes-work.html) by letting it drive the generator when the intention is to slow down. This is called [regenerative braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regenerative_brake). * **If you push the brakes**, the counter-torque that slows down the car obviously comes directly from friction between the brake module and the wheel. [Depending on the type of brake](https://www.kwik-fit.com/brakes/information/how-brakes-work), this could be friction + due to the brake pads in a brake drum being squeezed onto the wheel, or + due to clamps pressing on a disc brake.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
Imagine a car just going along at constant speed. Do your free-body diagram. The net force on the car has to be zero. So the wheels have to be exerting on the ground (net at least) only a vertical force. Now imagine the car decreasing speed. There has to be a force opposite to the velocity. Free-body time again. The force on the ground has to include a force component that opposes the motion of the car. The wheels are the part touching the ground, so they must be supplying that force. Remember your Newton's laws. To stop the car must be acted on by an external force. If you call the wheels "part of" the car, then the stopping force has to be applied by the ground. Meaning the wheels have to push back exactly as hard. If you call the wheels "not part of" the car, then you can describe it as the braking mechanism applying a force to the wheels. Then it's "the wheel's problem" what it does with that force. But in that case, the car is stopped by friction between the brake mechanism and the wheel. It may be that your teacher is trying to get you to think that way.
Have you ever tried to lift yourself up by pulling your own hair? Go ahead try it. Try it really hard. You should be able to levitate a couple of inches, right? What? You got a handful of hairs in your hand and a bald patch in your skull? It should serve you right. Hopefully, you will learn that internal forces cannot change the total momentum. The friction of the gears, engine, etc. are internal to the car. They cannot change the momentum of the car. For all we care, replace the gears, engine, and breaks with a couple elves and other mythical creatures (a.k.a. hidden variables). As long as those hidden variables are internal to the system (car) they cannot change the momentum of the car. If you insist that friction cannot stop the car, I dare you to drive really fast on an icy road where there is almost no friction. Hooray for Darwinism.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
> > the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. > > > Static friction is able to supply a force. If that force is opposite the direction of motion, it is able to stop the car. In the case of your car and the brakes, that's exactly what happens. A torque from the brakes is applied to the wheel. This torque becomes a force against the ground. As long as the force is not too great, the wheel doesn't slip and the road supplies a force back on the wheel (which slows the vehicle). > > I don't think the vehicle is slowed down by the static friction between the wheel and road. > > > And yet it is. To see that this is true, let's imagine a situation where we remove static friction. Drive the car onto a patch of ice where we assume the coefficient of friction drops to zero. The car continues to drive at the same speed. When we stomp on the brakes now, a torque is still applied to the wheel, but now the force of static friction is zero. The car does not slow down and continues at the same speed. Only when (hopefully static) friction is present can we slow the car. Kinetic friction is also capable of slowing the car, but we don't want that because we don't want to skid the tires. > > ...that should be the static friction between the car and the road > > > The only portion of the car that touches the road is the wheels/tires. That is the only part where friction can develop. So to say the friction between the car and the road or the friction between the wheels and the road is the same thing.
cars stop with their brakes, which produce friction at the inside of the wheel assemblies as the wheels rotate. This friction force retards the rotation of the wheels and dissipates the kinetic energy of the car into heat in the brake parts. since the wheels are in rolling contact with the pavement, and since the wheels are being slowed by the brakes, the pavement is pushing back against the wheels at their contact point with the pavement in a direction that opposes the movement of the car. So the car as a whole slows down.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
Have you ever tried to lift yourself up by pulling your own hair? Go ahead try it. Try it really hard. You should be able to levitate a couple of inches, right? What? You got a handful of hairs in your hand and a bald patch in your skull? It should serve you right. Hopefully, you will learn that internal forces cannot change the total momentum. The friction of the gears, engine, etc. are internal to the car. They cannot change the momentum of the car. For all we care, replace the gears, engine, and breaks with a couple elves and other mythical creatures (a.k.a. hidden variables). As long as those hidden variables are internal to the system (car) they cannot change the momentum of the car. If you insist that friction cannot stop the car, I dare you to drive really fast on an icy road where there is almost no friction. Hooray for Darwinism.
cars stop with their brakes, which produce friction at the inside of the wheel assemblies as the wheels rotate. This friction force retards the rotation of the wheels and dissipates the kinetic energy of the car into heat in the brake parts. since the wheels are in rolling contact with the pavement, and since the wheels are being slowed by the brakes, the pavement is pushing back against the wheels at their contact point with the pavement in a direction that opposes the movement of the car. So the car as a whole slows down.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
> > the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. > > > Static friction is able to supply a force. If that force is opposite the direction of motion, it is able to stop the car. In the case of your car and the brakes, that's exactly what happens. A torque from the brakes is applied to the wheel. This torque becomes a force against the ground. As long as the force is not too great, the wheel doesn't slip and the road supplies a force back on the wheel (which slows the vehicle). > > I don't think the vehicle is slowed down by the static friction between the wheel and road. > > > And yet it is. To see that this is true, let's imagine a situation where we remove static friction. Drive the car onto a patch of ice where we assume the coefficient of friction drops to zero. The car continues to drive at the same speed. When we stomp on the brakes now, a torque is still applied to the wheel, but now the force of static friction is zero. The car does not slow down and continues at the same speed. Only when (hopefully static) friction is present can we slow the car. Kinetic friction is also capable of slowing the car, but we don't want that because we don't want to skid the tires. > > ...that should be the static friction between the car and the road > > > The only portion of the car that touches the road is the wheels/tires. That is the only part where friction can develop. So to say the friction between the car and the road or the friction between the wheels and the road is the same thing.
Your teacher's explanation is a bit thin. Firstly, there are several reasons that a car might slow down. Secondly, even when specifically focusing on internal friction, there are several more factors involved. If there is kinetic friction ---------------------------- (if the wheels are sliding), then that friction is of course slowing down the car. In the cases of static friction, -------------------------------- it is correct that it is not the static friction that directly causes slowing. Only indirectly, as the static friction is a response to other factors. * **If you let go of the gas pedal and put the car in neutral**, ideally, the car will never stop. Realistically, + there is friction, as you teacher says, in axles and axle joints, bearings etc. + Also, realistically, the compression and expansion of soft rubber wheels requires work and "sucks" out energy, which is taken from the kinetic energy as well. + Also, driving on, say, a soft road (think of a sandy beach) will similarly cause deformation of the surface and thus energy lost as work. All this these non-ideal losses are usually combined into one umbrella term: **rolling friction** or **[rolling resistance](https://www.engineeringtoolbox.com/rolling-friction-resistance-d_1303.html)**. * **If you let go of the gas pedal but keep the car in gear**, the gearing system is still connected to the axle. Constantly driving the gearing is a tough task that causes a counter-torque, slowing down the car. + This is known as [engine braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Engine_braking), and is particularly useful in larger trucks. + In typical electric cars, the axle system is connected to a one-way electrical generator system, so that the car's kinetic energy is converted [back into electrical energy](https://www.explainthatstuff.com/how-regenerative-brakes-work.html) by letting it drive the generator when the intention is to slow down. This is called [regenerative braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regenerative_brake). * **If you push the brakes**, the counter-torque that slows down the car obviously comes directly from friction between the brake module and the wheel. [Depending on the type of brake](https://www.kwik-fit.com/brakes/information/how-brakes-work), this could be friction + due to the brake pads in a brake drum being squeezed onto the wheel, or + due to clamps pressing on a disc brake.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
Have you ever tried to lift yourself up by pulling your own hair? Go ahead try it. Try it really hard. You should be able to levitate a couple of inches, right? What? You got a handful of hairs in your hand and a bald patch in your skull? It should serve you right. Hopefully, you will learn that internal forces cannot change the total momentum. The friction of the gears, engine, etc. are internal to the car. They cannot change the momentum of the car. For all we care, replace the gears, engine, and breaks with a couple elves and other mythical creatures (a.k.a. hidden variables). As long as those hidden variables are internal to the system (car) they cannot change the momentum of the car. If you insist that friction cannot stop the car, I dare you to drive really fast on an icy road where there is almost no friction. Hooray for Darwinism.
Your teacher's explanation is a bit thin. Firstly, there are several reasons that a car might slow down. Secondly, even when specifically focusing on internal friction, there are several more factors involved. If there is kinetic friction ---------------------------- (if the wheels are sliding), then that friction is of course slowing down the car. In the cases of static friction, -------------------------------- it is correct that it is not the static friction that directly causes slowing. Only indirectly, as the static friction is a response to other factors. * **If you let go of the gas pedal and put the car in neutral**, ideally, the car will never stop. Realistically, + there is friction, as you teacher says, in axles and axle joints, bearings etc. + Also, realistically, the compression and expansion of soft rubber wheels requires work and "sucks" out energy, which is taken from the kinetic energy as well. + Also, driving on, say, a soft road (think of a sandy beach) will similarly cause deformation of the surface and thus energy lost as work. All this these non-ideal losses are usually combined into one umbrella term: **rolling friction** or **[rolling resistance](https://www.engineeringtoolbox.com/rolling-friction-resistance-d_1303.html)**. * **If you let go of the gas pedal but keep the car in gear**, the gearing system is still connected to the axle. Constantly driving the gearing is a tough task that causes a counter-torque, slowing down the car. + This is known as [engine braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Engine_braking), and is particularly useful in larger trucks. + In typical electric cars, the axle system is connected to a one-way electrical generator system, so that the car's kinetic energy is converted [back into electrical energy](https://www.explainthatstuff.com/how-regenerative-brakes-work.html) by letting it drive the generator when the intention is to slow down. This is called [regenerative braking](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regenerative_brake). * **If you push the brakes**, the counter-torque that slows down the car obviously comes directly from friction between the brake module and the wheel. [Depending on the type of brake](https://www.kwik-fit.com/brakes/information/how-brakes-work), this could be friction + due to the brake pads in a brake drum being squeezed onto the wheel, or + due to clamps pressing on a disc brake.
488,742
I've been doing physics problems regarding cars for a while. I understand that there is a static friction (which appears when the wheel is rolling) and kinetic friction (which appears when the wheel is sliding). However, the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. In fact, when I asked this question to my teacher a long time ago, he said that it is actually the friction between the axle and the wheel that stops the car, and the road friction actually helps the car to move. But I know that when the car slips, the friction decreases and thus stopping time increases. How could this possible be linked to the axle? What is going on?
2019/06/28
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/488742", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/170120/" ]
> > the way I'm visualizing it, static friction between the tire and road should not stop a car. > > > Static friction is able to supply a force. If that force is opposite the direction of motion, it is able to stop the car. In the case of your car and the brakes, that's exactly what happens. A torque from the brakes is applied to the wheel. This torque becomes a force against the ground. As long as the force is not too great, the wheel doesn't slip and the road supplies a force back on the wheel (which slows the vehicle). > > I don't think the vehicle is slowed down by the static friction between the wheel and road. > > > And yet it is. To see that this is true, let's imagine a situation where we remove static friction. Drive the car onto a patch of ice where we assume the coefficient of friction drops to zero. The car continues to drive at the same speed. When we stomp on the brakes now, a torque is still applied to the wheel, but now the force of static friction is zero. The car does not slow down and continues at the same speed. Only when (hopefully static) friction is present can we slow the car. Kinetic friction is also capable of slowing the car, but we don't want that because we don't want to skid the tires. > > ...that should be the static friction between the car and the road > > > The only portion of the car that touches the road is the wheels/tires. That is the only part where friction can develop. So to say the friction between the car and the road or the friction between the wheels and the road is the same thing.
Have you ever tried to lift yourself up by pulling your own hair? Go ahead try it. Try it really hard. You should be able to levitate a couple of inches, right? What? You got a handful of hairs in your hand and a bald patch in your skull? It should serve you right. Hopefully, you will learn that internal forces cannot change the total momentum. The friction of the gears, engine, etc. are internal to the car. They cannot change the momentum of the car. For all we care, replace the gears, engine, and breaks with a couple elves and other mythical creatures (a.k.a. hidden variables). As long as those hidden variables are internal to the system (car) they cannot change the momentum of the car. If you insist that friction cannot stop the car, I dare you to drive really fast on an icy road where there is almost no friction. Hooray for Darwinism.
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
I hate to be the bearer of bad news, but Crystal Reports for Visual Studio .NET is not designed for click-once deployment. Crystal Reports is a native application, and the assemblies you use to deal with the report depend on many non-.NET libraries. Lots of COM objects that require registration, support DLL's that have to be installed... Licensing information that must be placed somewhere (Crystal Reports has always been big on licensing). In theory, if your application is running full-trust you could monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports for .NET runtime, and duplicate it in c#, but that is a lot of work, and will be unreliable at best. Sadly, the final answer is you can't. You might check out Active Reports, or some of the other pure .NET reporting solutions.
I am almost sure that there is a redistributable package of libraries that ships with the final version of Crystal Reports when you buy it (not sure if this package ships with the Visual Studio version).
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
I hate to be the bearer of bad news, but Crystal Reports for Visual Studio .NET is not designed for click-once deployment. Crystal Reports is a native application, and the assemblies you use to deal with the report depend on many non-.NET libraries. Lots of COM objects that require registration, support DLL's that have to be installed... Licensing information that must be placed somewhere (Crystal Reports has always been big on licensing). In theory, if your application is running full-trust you could monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports for .NET runtime, and duplicate it in c#, but that is a lot of work, and will be unreliable at best. Sadly, the final answer is you can't. You might check out Active Reports, or some of the other pure .NET reporting solutions.
I'd provide a separate link to the Crystal Redistributable on the installation site and build a check in the ClickOnce app for the presence of the Crystal files.
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
I hate to be the bearer of bad news, but Crystal Reports for Visual Studio .NET is not designed for click-once deployment. Crystal Reports is a native application, and the assemblies you use to deal with the report depend on many non-.NET libraries. Lots of COM objects that require registration, support DLL's that have to be installed... Licensing information that must be placed somewhere (Crystal Reports has always been big on licensing). In theory, if your application is running full-trust you could monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports for .NET runtime, and duplicate it in c#, but that is a lot of work, and will be unreliable at best. Sadly, the final answer is you can't. You might check out Active Reports, or some of the other pure .NET reporting solutions.
You can add CR runtime merge module to your click-one MSI package, MSI will take care of merge module installation, It merges crystal report runtime installation files\process to your application click-one package. <https://origin.softwaredownloads.sap.com/public/site/index.html>
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
If you are dead-set on doing it yourself, you can monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports runtime to see what files/registry entries/settings it creates/modifies. Alternatively, you can decompile the msi or download and decompile the mst transform file from Crystal Reports. Once you know what it is doing, write something to do it yourself.
I am almost sure that there is a redistributable package of libraries that ships with the final version of Crystal Reports when you buy it (not sure if this package ships with the Visual Studio version).
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
If you are dead-set on doing it yourself, you can monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports runtime to see what files/registry entries/settings it creates/modifies. Alternatively, you can decompile the msi or download and decompile the mst transform file from Crystal Reports. Once you know what it is doing, write something to do it yourself.
I'd provide a separate link to the Crystal Redistributable on the installation site and build a check in the ClickOnce app for the presence of the Crystal files.
1,695,546
I believe the conventional way to deploy Crystal Report with a .NET program is to set it as a prerequisite in the publish settings and then a .msi will be packaged with the ClickOnce files on the web/network/CD/wtv. When the user runs setup.exe, it will check whether Crystal Report is on the client computer. If not, it runs the Crystal Report .msi. But that will always require admin rights. My question is, is it possible to package Crystal Report's dlls along with other application's output assemblies so that no explicit install is required? My application makes use of many many components and including a dll with the install is sufficient for most of them. Could I do the same with Crystal Report?
2009/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1695546", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167638/" ]
If you are dead-set on doing it yourself, you can monitor the installation of the Crystal Reports runtime to see what files/registry entries/settings it creates/modifies. Alternatively, you can decompile the msi or download and decompile the mst transform file from Crystal Reports. Once you know what it is doing, write something to do it yourself.
You can add CR runtime merge module to your click-one MSI package, MSI will take care of merge module installation, It merges crystal report runtime installation files\process to your application click-one package. <https://origin.softwaredownloads.sap.com/public/site/index.html>
3,818,426
How do I build a XML-RPC web service in C#?
2010/09/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3818426", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/103264/" ]
You could implement either a generic handler (.ashx) or an ASP.NET 2.0-compatible service (.asmx). You would then need to handle the XML parsing and construction either using .NET classes for XML or just on your own. Edit: I took out information about WCF since the question changed, making it irrelevant.
if you mean RPC where you cliend simply sends raw XML via form variables, etc, and you parse it in the implementation of your service, .net 3.5 and wcf support out of the box POX services. <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa395208.aspx>
3,818,426
How do I build a XML-RPC web service in C#?
2010/09/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3818426", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/103264/" ]
I've seen some people produce "web services" that are just simple .aspx pages that spits out Xml instead of html. The "proper" way to do this is to probably to [implement your own custom http handler](http://www.developer.com/net/asp/article.php/3565541/Use-Custom-HTTP-Handlers-in-Your-ASPNET-Applications.htm) though. That said, **you should have a really good reason to not use SOAP based services** before you go to all that effort. **UPDATE:** Have you seen [XML-RPC.NET](http://xml-rpc.net/)? > > [It] is a library for implementing XML-RPC Services and clients in the .NET environment. > > >
if you mean RPC where you cliend simply sends raw XML via form variables, etc, and you parse it in the implementation of your service, .net 3.5 and wcf support out of the box POX services. <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa395208.aspx>
13,786,042
I have field type string that can get two type of values on it: 1. simple field e.g. **p1** 2. complex fields **p1/p2/p3/p4** Now I have 2 questions: 1. how can I identify that the type is complex **with little effort as possible** since the check is runs in loop? 2. when I got type complex I need to store **the last two properties** for example p3 and P4?
2012/12/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13786042", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
<https://github.com/sgbj/Dukpt.NET> - Great introduction. You'll need the specification to understand the code as it was written with clever brevity in mind, not readability. I used it 6 months ago to not only learn about DUKPT, but to implement the embedded C libraries for biometric sensor device.
There is a ANSI standard that defines DUKPT, X9.24-1 but that uses DES both for the encryption/decryption and to produce the keys. Since you said BDK and KSN, I imagine this is what you have in mind. I expect you did not get any responses (even after the extended period of four hours) because you said AES and DUKPT in the same posting. (People in the know read that and say, RTFM.) It is not C# but I believe there is a DUKPT.m file by "Mikhail Burshteyn" pointed to on Stack Exchange or somewhere in the last six months or so. There is also pieces of code in C that I wrote to illustrate how to decrypt. (Something that is not covered worth a darn in the standard.) If you want source code in C# that you can cut and paste, I think you will be disappointed.
13,786,042
I have field type string that can get two type of values on it: 1. simple field e.g. **p1** 2. complex fields **p1/p2/p3/p4** Now I have 2 questions: 1. how can I identify that the type is complex **with little effort as possible** since the check is runs in loop? 2. when I got type complex I need to store **the last two properties** for example p3 and P4?
2012/12/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13786042", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
As mentioned in last post ANSI standard that defines DUKPT, X9.24-1 in 3DES mode, that means Dukpt uses 3DES algorithm to generate Key(not to encrypt or decrypt data) and it is known as 3DES-DUKPT.Another type is AES-DUKPT, which uses AES-ECB mode to generate key. Both have common inputs Base derivation Key(BDK) and KSN with different size. For 3DES-DUKPT, BDK = 16 bytes(always) and KSN = 10 bytes. For AES-DUKPT, BDK = 16, 24, 32 bytes(depend upon AES key size) and KSN = 12 bytes. Input KSN consist of Key\_serial\_number and Counter. Input BDK and Key\_serial\_number (from KSN) generates IPEK. And IPEK with Counter(from KSN) generates Encryption / Decryption key for data.
There is a ANSI standard that defines DUKPT, X9.24-1 but that uses DES both for the encryption/decryption and to produce the keys. Since you said BDK and KSN, I imagine this is what you have in mind. I expect you did not get any responses (even after the extended period of four hours) because you said AES and DUKPT in the same posting. (People in the know read that and say, RTFM.) It is not C# but I believe there is a DUKPT.m file by "Mikhail Burshteyn" pointed to on Stack Exchange or somewhere in the last six months or so. There is also pieces of code in C that I wrote to illustrate how to decrypt. (Something that is not covered worth a darn in the standard.) If you want source code in C# that you can cut and paste, I think you will be disappointed.
462
I was asked how to save all the magento media assets in Amazon S3. I thought about using a PHP Stream Wrapper like this one: <https://github.com/punkave/aS3StreamWrapper> and just set the media folder to s3:\mybucket\mediaFolder Does anyone has experience with this? Or better use something like this: [https://github.com/sstoiana/magento-s3](https://github.com/sstoiana/magneto-s3) But this extension doesn't look good. Any other recommendations?
2013/02/01
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/462", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/217/" ]
[OnePica's CDN extension](http://www.magentocommerce.com/magento-connect/6274.html) is very handy out of the box for this functionality and supports more than just S3. Quote: "Currently, the extension integrates with Amazon S3, Coral CDN, Mosso/Rackspace Cloud Files, and any CDN, server or service that supports FTP, FTPS, or SFTP."
[Found another extension built by arkadedigital](https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3) <https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3>
462
I was asked how to save all the magento media assets in Amazon S3. I thought about using a PHP Stream Wrapper like this one: <https://github.com/punkave/aS3StreamWrapper> and just set the media folder to s3:\mybucket\mediaFolder Does anyone has experience with this? Or better use something like this: [https://github.com/sstoiana/magento-s3](https://github.com/sstoiana/magneto-s3) But this extension doesn't look good. Any other recommendations?
2013/02/01
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/462", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/217/" ]
[OnePica's CDN extension](http://www.magentocommerce.com/magento-connect/6274.html) is very handy out of the box for this functionality and supports more than just S3. Quote: "Currently, the extension integrates with Amazon S3, Coral CDN, Mosso/Rackspace Cloud Files, and any CDN, server or service that supports FTP, FTPS, or SFTP."
Well, now that a couple years have gone by I think it's important to note that there are multiple plugins available that will move and serve assets from S3 / CDN. Google searches turn up plenty of options. Here's one on GitHub: <https://github.com/magefm/cdn> Here's one on Magento's Connect marketplace: <http://www.magentocommerce.com/magento-connect/aws-s3-cdn-for-product-images.html> I have not tried these particular extensions yet but will be for an upcoming project. There are others out there, too. I'd have to disagree with @Sonassi, using separate storage to allow the cheapest server configuration still with good performance is really considered the best practice today. For example, simply use S3 to move all static content off your web server helps the server use far less bandwidth and allow more concurrent users and less overall server power needed. And, if you're in a single datacenter like most people these days, and say it's in Dallas, then there's no doubt that people in Western Europe will be served much faster with a Global CDN like Cloudfront. So, using storage separate from your web server to lower bandwidth usage allows you to use only 1 server when you would need more sooner without this approach, and using CDN will greatly increase global load times.
462
I was asked how to save all the magento media assets in Amazon S3. I thought about using a PHP Stream Wrapper like this one: <https://github.com/punkave/aS3StreamWrapper> and just set the media folder to s3:\mybucket\mediaFolder Does anyone has experience with this? Or better use something like this: [https://github.com/sstoiana/magento-s3](https://github.com/sstoiana/magneto-s3) But this extension doesn't look good. Any other recommendations?
2013/02/01
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/462", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/217/" ]
[OnePica's CDN extension](http://www.magentocommerce.com/magento-connect/6274.html) is very handy out of the box for this functionality and supports more than just S3. Quote: "Currently, the extension integrates with Amazon S3, Coral CDN, Mosso/Rackspace Cloud Files, and any CDN, server or service that supports FTP, FTPS, or SFTP."
OnePica's CDN extension is not the solution it only works for product images not to mention you need to set the correct TTL for its own cache life time which will timeout much earlier than default Magento. All you cms wysiwyg image will be in media folder but not using S3, you will end up uploading all your media image to S3. Use cloudfront will be good but you will still need a NFS to share your media folder across all your frontend nodes and backend nodes. Or you need to build your own interface to save file on S3, and you also need to handle errors (think about someone upload extreme large file whether your code can handle that before S3 API timeout) Other way just save media storage in your extra RDS (database) and individual resize cache image will still save in your app server local media folder, but it is ok as cloudfront will cache them already.
462
I was asked how to save all the magento media assets in Amazon S3. I thought about using a PHP Stream Wrapper like this one: <https://github.com/punkave/aS3StreamWrapper> and just set the media folder to s3:\mybucket\mediaFolder Does anyone has experience with this? Or better use something like this: [https://github.com/sstoiana/magento-s3](https://github.com/sstoiana/magneto-s3) But this extension doesn't look good. Any other recommendations?
2013/02/01
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/462", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/217/" ]
I prefer having a separate "admin" node(admin.example.com) and keeping media folders there. This way you would save yourself with NFS cost as well as issue with syncing etc. any CDN (I use cloudfront) could then be connected with admin node media folders, and be configured for all stores. Other benefits of using admin node is, you could move all crons(reindexing and other crons) , scheduled tasks(product imports, inventory & order sync etc) at admin node and save frontend nodes cpu processing. Edit: As last answer didnt actually addressed OP's question. Magento Media Assets in Amazon S3? Well I believe Magento already has got so much processing overhead, that I think it'd be good idea to keep it from s3 syncing/streaming, and use local media folder instead.
[Found another extension built by arkadedigital](https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3) <https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3>
462
I was asked how to save all the magento media assets in Amazon S3. I thought about using a PHP Stream Wrapper like this one: <https://github.com/punkave/aS3StreamWrapper> and just set the media folder to s3:\mybucket\mediaFolder Does anyone has experience with this? Or better use something like this: [https://github.com/sstoiana/magento-s3](https://github.com/sstoiana/magneto-s3) But this extension doesn't look good. Any other recommendations?
2013/02/01
[ "https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/462", "https://magento.stackexchange.com", "https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/217/" ]
OnePica's CDN extension is not the solution it only works for product images not to mention you need to set the correct TTL for its own cache life time which will timeout much earlier than default Magento. All you cms wysiwyg image will be in media folder but not using S3, you will end up uploading all your media image to S3. Use cloudfront will be good but you will still need a NFS to share your media folder across all your frontend nodes and backend nodes. Or you need to build your own interface to save file on S3, and you also need to handle errors (think about someone upload extreme large file whether your code can handle that before S3 API timeout) Other way just save media storage in your extra RDS (database) and individual resize cache image will still save in your app server local media folder, but it is ok as cloudfront will cache them already.
[Found another extension built by arkadedigital](https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3) <https://github.com/arkadedigital/magento-s3>
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Every guitar player is different so it depends. I have a friend who took piano lessons and read music before learning guitar and she would much rather know the names of the notes. I play based on sound and feel and knowing where to put my fingers relative to where they are now to get to the note I want next relative to the note I am on. But I have a musical ear. If you want me to play something, I would rather hear it than see it on tab. If you give me standard notation and ask me to play what is written I will get back to you in a few days. If I hear it, I can play it back immediately. I personally have no need to know the names of the notes I am playing while I am playing them (I **could** tell you if I **thought** about it). I just need to know how to make what I hear in my brain translate to my instrument and the easiest way for me to do that is to start on the right note and go from there. I am quite certain that if I was improvising and I tried to **engage the part of my brain that would allow me to identify the notes** I was playing, it would stifle my creativity and instinct. I think the best improvisers play by **allowing their mind to engage with their soul and play what "feels" right. Thinking about the NAME of the note they wanted to play next - would short circuit that connection.** Who cares what the note is called as long as it sounds good! If you can improvise without knowing the **names** of the notes you are playing, your time will be better spent improving your craft by playing more - than by **trying to learn to identify each note you are playing while improvising.** That is my assessment based on my own personal playing style. Your mileage may vary.
I'd memorize the relation of the roots to the tonic for analysis and overview. However, I find it more musical, if I have to try and verbalize, to remember the relation of a note and the current (and sometimes previous and/or next) root.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Guitar is a three-dimensional instrument, where you are almost forced to know things in multiple locations. Here's something I think is of paramount importance: when you learn a tune on guitar, you should always practice playing chord and melody together. That way you really learn to link the two things together. It has to become almost automatic. Then when you improvise, you should be able to see (and play) chords at almost any time as you go by. About note spelling when you play, I think it has to do with different areas of the brain. It's the same thing that happens when you speak another language. These are two different processes: one process is knowing and using that language directly, without translating it. The other process is translating what you say into your own native language. That's what simultaneous interprets do. But they never do the two things together; always sequentially. So when you play, you bypass the names and go to the heart of things. If you really know these things, you won't need anything else. If you listened to music for enough time, you would tell most chords by ear, as if I’m listening to a D chord on the radio I know it’s D. And if I can hear their quality, find them on the fretboard, and play them, what else do I need?
I do think some of the answers so far are awesome. Let me please add by indicating something I was taught in music school. The mode of a sequence of notes is also important, as the mode one is in can actually alter what the ear "hears." For example the relative minor of CM is Am. The "notes" are exactly the same when no accidentals are present, yet we hear them differently when we look at the "root" note. As I improvise, I often use modal shifts as a means of running from one key to another, or one section of the music to another (like at the end of a bridge). It's amazing what you can do by shifting run from (as above) CM to Am to AM when one rests on A as the "root" note for a moment before heading off into a key signature with 3 sharps. [The Circle of Fifths](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circle_of_fifths) [The Modes of Music](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mode_(music))
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
With the guitar being a positional instrument, meaning one can play the same tune in many different keys but retain the same fingering and strings, merely moving where on the neck the tune is played, then knowing note names as the tune unfolds is not necessary. The relationship between the tonic and other notes, as far as where they are relatively speaking, fret and string, is easier to remember. In fact, there is often no need to reference from the tonic, but from the last note played. A lot of the time the next note will either be on the same string or an adjacent one, so knowing the various scale patterns is far more useful for improv. than the names of the notes. That's the academic side which (in my opinion) doesn't often come into play (sorry for the pun) during improvising.
It probably depends on how you 'hear' music. For example ... Absolute pitch : I have recently been playing with a folk vocalist who doen'st play an instrument so we spent a bit of time getting the song into the right key for her. Her first choice was always pretty much the orignal key of a recording she'd learnt from - any other key felt 'odd', implying she might have something like perfect pitch. I think at that stage at least she's hearing music kind of in absolute terms : eg a C is a C , not a D even if you transpose. If your'e like this then perhaps it's more comfortable to work out the individual notes and get to know the fretboard that way. That's a lot to remeber though. Relative to Tonic : If you're able to hear the interval between the tonic and the notes of a tune (eg it's a 3rd. . then a 5th then a bent-up 7th rrelative to the tonic .. ) then maybe this is the way to think of your scales. Relative to the last note : Up two tones, down a full tone . .etc This seems a bit alien to me in that there's little notion of a "Home" note (ie the tonic) but if that's how you hear tunes then maybe this is a way forward. To me, thinking in terms of an interval from the tonic is most intuitive as it means remembering only one instance of a scale, and is transferrable up and down the neck. The relevant scale becomes a "shape" of notes on the neck whcih makes life easier. It also works on other instruments, although if you move to a piano you start to see that pianists may think in terms of absolutes, or have to remeber different 'shapes' for each key as the black/white notes translate to different patterns depending on the key.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Every guitar player is different so it depends. I have a friend who took piano lessons and read music before learning guitar and she would much rather know the names of the notes. I play based on sound and feel and knowing where to put my fingers relative to where they are now to get to the note I want next relative to the note I am on. But I have a musical ear. If you want me to play something, I would rather hear it than see it on tab. If you give me standard notation and ask me to play what is written I will get back to you in a few days. If I hear it, I can play it back immediately. I personally have no need to know the names of the notes I am playing while I am playing them (I **could** tell you if I **thought** about it). I just need to know how to make what I hear in my brain translate to my instrument and the easiest way for me to do that is to start on the right note and go from there. I am quite certain that if I was improvising and I tried to **engage the part of my brain that would allow me to identify the notes** I was playing, it would stifle my creativity and instinct. I think the best improvisers play by **allowing their mind to engage with their soul and play what "feels" right. Thinking about the NAME of the note they wanted to play next - would short circuit that connection.** Who cares what the note is called as long as it sounds good! If you can improvise without knowing the **names** of the notes you are playing, your time will be better spent improving your craft by playing more - than by **trying to learn to identify each note you are playing while improvising.** That is my assessment based on my own personal playing style. Your mileage may vary.
Good question. It depends on how you interpret music in your mind. I myself prefer scale degrees. If you can easily understand the space between the tonic and the actual notes, then you should choose the scale degrees also. However, you should really keep in mind that you have a good outcome.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Every guitar player is different so it depends. I have a friend who took piano lessons and read music before learning guitar and she would much rather know the names of the notes. I play based on sound and feel and knowing where to put my fingers relative to where they are now to get to the note I want next relative to the note I am on. But I have a musical ear. If you want me to play something, I would rather hear it than see it on tab. If you give me standard notation and ask me to play what is written I will get back to you in a few days. If I hear it, I can play it back immediately. I personally have no need to know the names of the notes I am playing while I am playing them (I **could** tell you if I **thought** about it). I just need to know how to make what I hear in my brain translate to my instrument and the easiest way for me to do that is to start on the right note and go from there. I am quite certain that if I was improvising and I tried to **engage the part of my brain that would allow me to identify the notes** I was playing, it would stifle my creativity and instinct. I think the best improvisers play by **allowing their mind to engage with their soul and play what "feels" right. Thinking about the NAME of the note they wanted to play next - would short circuit that connection.** Who cares what the note is called as long as it sounds good! If you can improvise without knowing the **names** of the notes you are playing, your time will be better spent improving your craft by playing more - than by **trying to learn to identify each note you are playing while improvising.** That is my assessment based on my own personal playing style. Your mileage may vary.
I do think some of the answers so far are awesome. Let me please add by indicating something I was taught in music school. The mode of a sequence of notes is also important, as the mode one is in can actually alter what the ear "hears." For example the relative minor of CM is Am. The "notes" are exactly the same when no accidentals are present, yet we hear them differently when we look at the "root" note. As I improvise, I often use modal shifts as a means of running from one key to another, or one section of the music to another (like at the end of a bridge). It's amazing what you can do by shifting run from (as above) CM to Am to AM when one rests on A as the "root" note for a moment before heading off into a key signature with 3 sharps. [The Circle of Fifths](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circle_of_fifths) [The Modes of Music](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mode_(music))
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
With the guitar being a positional instrument, meaning one can play the same tune in many different keys but retain the same fingering and strings, merely moving where on the neck the tune is played, then knowing note names as the tune unfolds is not necessary. The relationship between the tonic and other notes, as far as where they are relatively speaking, fret and string, is easier to remember. In fact, there is often no need to reference from the tonic, but from the last note played. A lot of the time the next note will either be on the same string or an adjacent one, so knowing the various scale patterns is far more useful for improv. than the names of the notes. That's the academic side which (in my opinion) doesn't often come into play (sorry for the pun) during improvising.
I'd memorize the relation of the roots to the tonic for analysis and overview. However, I find it more musical, if I have to try and verbalize, to remember the relation of a note and the current (and sometimes previous and/or next) root.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
With the guitar being a positional instrument, meaning one can play the same tune in many different keys but retain the same fingering and strings, merely moving where on the neck the tune is played, then knowing note names as the tune unfolds is not necessary. The relationship between the tonic and other notes, as far as where they are relatively speaking, fret and string, is easier to remember. In fact, there is often no need to reference from the tonic, but from the last note played. A lot of the time the next note will either be on the same string or an adjacent one, so knowing the various scale patterns is far more useful for improv. than the names of the notes. That's the academic side which (in my opinion) doesn't often come into play (sorry for the pun) during improvising.
Guitar is a three-dimensional instrument, where you are almost forced to know things in multiple locations. Here's something I think is of paramount importance: when you learn a tune on guitar, you should always practice playing chord and melody together. That way you really learn to link the two things together. It has to become almost automatic. Then when you improvise, you should be able to see (and play) chords at almost any time as you go by. About note spelling when you play, I think it has to do with different areas of the brain. It's the same thing that happens when you speak another language. These are two different processes: one process is knowing and using that language directly, without translating it. The other process is translating what you say into your own native language. That's what simultaneous interprets do. But they never do the two things together; always sequentially. So when you play, you bypass the names and go to the heart of things. If you really know these things, you won't need anything else. If you listened to music for enough time, you would tell most chords by ear, as if I’m listening to a D chord on the radio I know it’s D. And if I can hear their quality, find them on the fretboard, and play them, what else do I need?
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Guitar is a three-dimensional instrument, where you are almost forced to know things in multiple locations. Here's something I think is of paramount importance: when you learn a tune on guitar, you should always practice playing chord and melody together. That way you really learn to link the two things together. It has to become almost automatic. Then when you improvise, you should be able to see (and play) chords at almost any time as you go by. About note spelling when you play, I think it has to do with different areas of the brain. It's the same thing that happens when you speak another language. These are two different processes: one process is knowing and using that language directly, without translating it. The other process is translating what you say into your own native language. That's what simultaneous interprets do. But they never do the two things together; always sequentially. So when you play, you bypass the names and go to the heart of things. If you really know these things, you won't need anything else. If you listened to music for enough time, you would tell most chords by ear, as if I’m listening to a D chord on the radio I know it’s D. And if I can hear their quality, find them on the fretboard, and play them, what else do I need?
I think it would be better to think the scale degrees. For instance, let's say you play E (V) and then Am (i); if you think in scale degrees, then you will lead the notes that consist the V (E major chord) to the tonic chord (A minor). This way, you make the listener believe that there is some connection between the notes you play. They are two degrees of a scale. If you only think the notes, then it might not give the best sound outcome (the chords might not sound connected with each other). The notes will be the same, no matter how you think them, but the way you think, does affect the sound outcome.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Every guitar player is different so it depends. I have a friend who took piano lessons and read music before learning guitar and she would much rather know the names of the notes. I play based on sound and feel and knowing where to put my fingers relative to where they are now to get to the note I want next relative to the note I am on. But I have a musical ear. If you want me to play something, I would rather hear it than see it on tab. If you give me standard notation and ask me to play what is written I will get back to you in a few days. If I hear it, I can play it back immediately. I personally have no need to know the names of the notes I am playing while I am playing them (I **could** tell you if I **thought** about it). I just need to know how to make what I hear in my brain translate to my instrument and the easiest way for me to do that is to start on the right note and go from there. I am quite certain that if I was improvising and I tried to **engage the part of my brain that would allow me to identify the notes** I was playing, it would stifle my creativity and instinct. I think the best improvisers play by **allowing their mind to engage with their soul and play what "feels" right. Thinking about the NAME of the note they wanted to play next - would short circuit that connection.** Who cares what the note is called as long as it sounds good! If you can improvise without knowing the **names** of the notes you are playing, your time will be better spent improving your craft by playing more - than by **trying to learn to identify each note you are playing while improvising.** That is my assessment based on my own personal playing style. Your mileage may vary.
I think it would be better to think the scale degrees. For instance, let's say you play E (V) and then Am (i); if you think in scale degrees, then you will lead the notes that consist the V (E major chord) to the tonic chord (A minor). This way, you make the listener believe that there is some connection between the notes you play. They are two degrees of a scale. If you only think the notes, then it might not give the best sound outcome (the chords might not sound connected with each other). The notes will be the same, no matter how you think them, but the way you think, does affect the sound outcome.
30,997
When playing guitar,especially improvising,is it best to think of the notes a actual lettered notes or Scale degrees related to a tonic ? Since the keys are easily movable , I'm thinking that its better just to know the degree you want to play and knowing where that is related to the tonic.
2015/03/22
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/30997", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/950/" ]
Every guitar player is different so it depends. I have a friend who took piano lessons and read music before learning guitar and she would much rather know the names of the notes. I play based on sound and feel and knowing where to put my fingers relative to where they are now to get to the note I want next relative to the note I am on. But I have a musical ear. If you want me to play something, I would rather hear it than see it on tab. If you give me standard notation and ask me to play what is written I will get back to you in a few days. If I hear it, I can play it back immediately. I personally have no need to know the names of the notes I am playing while I am playing them (I **could** tell you if I **thought** about it). I just need to know how to make what I hear in my brain translate to my instrument and the easiest way for me to do that is to start on the right note and go from there. I am quite certain that if I was improvising and I tried to **engage the part of my brain that would allow me to identify the notes** I was playing, it would stifle my creativity and instinct. I think the best improvisers play by **allowing their mind to engage with their soul and play what "feels" right. Thinking about the NAME of the note they wanted to play next - would short circuit that connection.** Who cares what the note is called as long as it sounds good! If you can improvise without knowing the **names** of the notes you are playing, your time will be better spent improving your craft by playing more - than by **trying to learn to identify each note you are playing while improvising.** That is my assessment based on my own personal playing style. Your mileage may vary.
It probably depends on how you 'hear' music. For example ... Absolute pitch : I have recently been playing with a folk vocalist who doen'st play an instrument so we spent a bit of time getting the song into the right key for her. Her first choice was always pretty much the orignal key of a recording she'd learnt from - any other key felt 'odd', implying she might have something like perfect pitch. I think at that stage at least she's hearing music kind of in absolute terms : eg a C is a C , not a D even if you transpose. If your'e like this then perhaps it's more comfortable to work out the individual notes and get to know the fretboard that way. That's a lot to remeber though. Relative to Tonic : If you're able to hear the interval between the tonic and the notes of a tune (eg it's a 3rd. . then a 5th then a bent-up 7th rrelative to the tonic .. ) then maybe this is the way to think of your scales. Relative to the last note : Up two tones, down a full tone . .etc This seems a bit alien to me in that there's little notion of a "Home" note (ie the tonic) but if that's how you hear tunes then maybe this is a way forward. To me, thinking in terms of an interval from the tonic is most intuitive as it means remembering only one instance of a scale, and is transferrable up and down the neck. The relevant scale becomes a "shape" of notes on the neck whcih makes life easier. It also works on other instruments, although if you move to a piano you start to see that pianists may think in terms of absolutes, or have to remeber different 'shapes' for each key as the black/white notes translate to different patterns depending on the key.
24,514
It has been my belief that one of the nice features of the original Atari ST is that it has support "out-of-the-box" for a hard disk drive connected via its built-in ACSI port- similar to the way you can connect an external SCSI drive to a Macintosh Plus and have it just work. However, I see a lot of information online about hard disk driver software for the Atari ST. This usually comes with complicated caveats regarding TOS versions and HDD partitioning. *Question*: Can a bare stock, original Atari 520ST, with TOS 1.0x ROM, boot from a connected hard drive, without any special boot floppy or 3rd party driver? Assuming the answer is affirmative, what limitations are there with such a setup? And which 3rd party driver(s) or special partitioning software should be used to best overcome the limitations?
2022/05/17
[ "https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/24514", "https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com", "https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/users/4335/" ]
> > Question: Can a bare stock, original Atari 520ST, with TOS 1.0x ROM, boot from a connected hard drive, without any special boot floppy or 3rd party driver? > > > Yes, as long as it's fitted with a proper partition/boot sector and hard disk driver (usually AHDI.SYS). > > Assuming the answer is affirmative, what limitations are there with such a setup? And which 3rd party driver(s) or special partitioning software should be used to best overcome the limitations? > > > There are none, just many ways to screw it when tinkering. Let's look how the Atari ST boot works: * Look at the first Floppy (Drive A:) for an executable sector at Side 0, Track 1, Sector 1 + If one is found, go ahead and execute it * If none is found check the AHCI drive (HD) for a a partition sector (again at logical sector 0 + If one is found, check if executable + If executable, then do so * If neither worked, bring up the default desktop, optional with a DESKTOP.INF if found on Drive A: (no matter if bootable or not) Looks straight forward, so where do all these 'Drivers' come into play? Well, they need to be loaded from disk, either Floppy or HD. On a properly initialized HD, the partition/boot sector contains a loader which loads AHDI.SYS (or whatever 3rd party to be used), which in turn hooks the RWABS vectors - Read or Write ABSolute (IIRC) - the OS vector to read a block from any device. So in theory it would as well be fine if the driver is loaded from Floppy by some automated or manual process - except, the DOS layer only adds a C drive to the list of drives, if a proper partition/boot sector is found. Some drivers overcome this by 'informing' DOS independent of what it detected. That's also the way to install a new HD. --- Follow up question: *So why are there so many problems reported?* Simple answer: PEOPLE. Possible issues are: * Having a bootable floppy (still very common back then) * Deleting the driver * Having the HD not ready when turning the ST on makes the DISK invisible * Changing Partitions without correcting the bootable signature * and several more Personally I never had any issue with an ST Hard drive. Neither the original SH20 nor third party.
Yes you can boot any Atari/TT/Falcon from a hard disk you just need a driver there are a couple of commercial drivers still available with active support. Peter Putnik's driver he's still active on all the big atari forums and <https://www.hddriver.net/en/> There are some limits on partition sizes - TOS limitations: TOS 1.00-1.02 : max partition size is 256 MB TOS 1.04-4.02 : max partition size is 512 MB TOS 4.04 - max p. size is 1 GB. And I think there is a bug if memory serves me in TOS versions below 1.4 so if you want a hard disk on an STFM you really want 1.4 or on an STE or above 1.6 2.0x.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, fifth edition (1961) has this roundabout explanation for the origin of the phrase: > > **brass off,** *v.i.* To grumble : military : C. 20. F[raser] & Gibbons[, *Soldier and Sailor Words and Phrases* (1925)]. Perhaps ex *part brass-rags*. > > > And here's Partridge's entry for *part brass-rags*: > > **part brass-rags.** To quarrel : naval (from ca. 1890) > by 1900 military. Bowen[, *Sea Slang* (1929)], 'From the bluejacket's habit of sharing brass cleaning rags with his particular friend'. > > > It appears from these references that *brass off* was in use by the 1920s. The same meaning of *brass off* appears in Eric Partridge, [*Slang To-day and Yesterday*] (1935). The "Supplement" section in Partridge's *Dictionary of Slang*, fifth edition, which collects all of the addenda to the first edition (of 1937), runs to almost 400 pages. It contains the following additional entries for *brass off* and *brassed off*: > > **brass off.**—2. To reprimand severely: Services: since about 1939. H[unt] & P[ringle, *Service Slang* (1943)]. > > > ... > > > **brassed off**. Disgruntled, fed up: Services, orig. (?): Royal Naval since ca. 1927; general since ca. 1939. ,,, Sometimes a synonym for *browned off*; sometimes regarded as a shade milder. > > > However, John Ayto & John Simpson, *The Oxford Dictionary of Modern Slang* (1992) have a more conservative estimate of the date of origin of *brassed off*: > > **brassed off** [adjective orig services'] Fed up. 1941– P. Brennan et al. Very tired and **brassed off**, we bundled our kit on our shoulders (1943). > > > A Google Books search for the various relevant phrases produces some interesting and fairly early results. From Mary Gaunt, [Moving Finger](https://books.google.com/books?id=PnshAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA137&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CEAQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1895): > > "You boy, trim that lamp," said Harper angrily. "Look here, my lad, you just keep your tongue lashed amidships, and don't go gassing about things that don't concern you in the least, or you and I'll **part brass rags**." > > > And from George Goodenough, [*The Handy Man Afloat & Ashore*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5P8KAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA162&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CDIQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1901): > > A "*monkey's fist*" is anything that puzzles us, of which we can't make out the meaning or reason. Chums are often called *raggies*, from the fact that they generally establish a partnership in the brass rags used for polishing stanchions, &c., on deck. To ***part brass rags*** signifies a dissolution of partnership and friendly relations. > > > From Charles Gardner, [*First Blood for the R.A.F.: The Valorous Story of the Advanced Air Striking Force in France*](https://books.google.com/books?id=RFqgAAAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CEIQ6AEwBg) (1940) [combined snippets]: > > My last two nights in Paris I had a good time. Noel and I met Cobber—up for a day's leave to see the 73 Squadron doctor off to England. Cobber said he was "**brassed-off**," especially after he had got half-way home once, only to be called back to hand over his flight and teach two new-comers the way around. If ever anyone deserved a rest that boy does. > > > This use of *brassed off* certainly appears to mean "fed up" in the sense of being at one's limit to tolerate (without any sense of boredom). Two other sources source from 1941 have interpretations of their own. From John Hammerton, [*ABC of the RAF: Handbook for All Branches of the Air Force*](https://books.google.com/books?id=zBEZAAAAIAAJ&q=%22brolly+parachute%22&dq=%22brolly+parachute%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=-wSSVIzQCs7toASY6ICoBA&ved=0CD0Q6AEwBQ) (1941) sees *brassed off* as being not merely a related term to *browned off*, but a diminutive of it. > > **Brassed off** Diminutive of "browned off." > > > ... > > > **Browned off** To be "fed up." > > > From Bernard De Voto, [*Saturday Review*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7G0gAQAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAQ) (1941) [snippet view]: > > ***Brassed Off***. To be very much fed up with boredom. (See also *Browned off*; *Completely cheesed*.) > > > *Browned off*. To be fed up with boredom. > > > ... > > > *Completely cheesed*. Pretty much fed up with it all. > > > So whereas Hammerton sees *brassed off* as a diminutive of *browned off* with no particular connection to boredom, De Voto regards it as an intensifier of *browned off*—both of which, unlike *completely cheesed*, he links particularly to boredom. Two newspaper accounts give further accounts of the term. One—from "[When Is an Airman Cheesed?](https://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/96695195?searchTerm=%22brassed+off%22)" in the *[Gawler, South Australia] Bunyip* (July 18, 1941)—at least partially endorses De Voto's view: > > There are three degrees of dejection. The first is the Stage of being "browned off," the second being "**brassed off**," and the third, which means that there is no hope for you, of being completely "cheesed." > > > But the second—published about 10 months earlier—reports the reprimand meaning that Partridge mentions in his 1961 *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*. From William McGuffin, "[Better 'Flap' Your Hardest, You 'Erks', or You'll be 'Buttoned Up' by the 'Nasties'](https://cdnc.ucr.edu/cgi-bin/cdnc?a=d&d=SCS19400915.1.5&e=-------en--20--1--txt-txIN-%252522brassed+off%252522-------1)," in the *Santa Cruz [California] Sentinel* (September 15, 1940): > > If you would converse intelligently with the modern warrior you should know the following additions to the slanguage which have come out of a year of war: > > > **Brassed off**—bawled out. > > > I find it hard to believe that *brassed off* in the attested (but divergent) World War II senses of "bawled out" and "fed up" has no connection to *brass off* in the 1920s and 1930s sense of "to grumble." However, Google Books and Elephind searches don't yield any published examples of *brass off* (or *brassed off*) in conversational or descriptive use during the 1920s and 1930s, so the print record isn't especially helpful here.
"Top Brass" meant command, because of their brass insignia. "Brassed Off" might mean told off by military authority, in a slang sense.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
This NGram suggests **brassed off** came later than **brass monkey**, as used in the expression *cold enough to freeze the balls/nose off a brass monkey*. I know some of the earlier usages for *brass monkey* here don't actually have that figurative meaning, but plenty do. In light of that, I would simply say that "brassed off" actually *derives* from the earlier expression. If you've been kept hanging about in the cold, that's a typical situation where you'd be "brassed off". Huge numbers of slang expressions are assigned naval/military origins, and I suppose it's always possible sailors were more in the habit of using that colourful metaphor for *biting cold*, but I doubt it's got anything to do with actual specific things made of brass on ships or similar. ![.](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qSfwh.png)
My understanding of the phrase is that it originated from the practise of sharpening an engineer's twist drill. The sharp cutting edge was dulled. Otherwise the sharp cutting edge would bite into the brass and chatter. If the cutting edge was removed it could cut into brass sheet or solid bar without any trouble. Hence the drill had been brassed off. I cannot see the connection between the usual understanding of the phrase as in hacked off, pissed off etc.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
This NGram suggests **brassed off** came later than **brass monkey**, as used in the expression *cold enough to freeze the balls/nose off a brass monkey*. I know some of the earlier usages for *brass monkey* here don't actually have that figurative meaning, but plenty do. In light of that, I would simply say that "brassed off" actually *derives* from the earlier expression. If you've been kept hanging about in the cold, that's a typical situation where you'd be "brassed off". Huge numbers of slang expressions are assigned naval/military origins, and I suppose it's always possible sailors were more in the habit of using that colourful metaphor for *biting cold*, but I doubt it's got anything to do with actual specific things made of brass on ships or similar. ![.](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qSfwh.png)
Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, fifth edition (1961) has this roundabout explanation for the origin of the phrase: > > **brass off,** *v.i.* To grumble : military : C. 20. F[raser] & Gibbons[, *Soldier and Sailor Words and Phrases* (1925)]. Perhaps ex *part brass-rags*. > > > And here's Partridge's entry for *part brass-rags*: > > **part brass-rags.** To quarrel : naval (from ca. 1890) > by 1900 military. Bowen[, *Sea Slang* (1929)], 'From the bluejacket's habit of sharing brass cleaning rags with his particular friend'. > > > It appears from these references that *brass off* was in use by the 1920s. The same meaning of *brass off* appears in Eric Partridge, [*Slang To-day and Yesterday*] (1935). The "Supplement" section in Partridge's *Dictionary of Slang*, fifth edition, which collects all of the addenda to the first edition (of 1937), runs to almost 400 pages. It contains the following additional entries for *brass off* and *brassed off*: > > **brass off.**—2. To reprimand severely: Services: since about 1939. H[unt] & P[ringle, *Service Slang* (1943)]. > > > ... > > > **brassed off**. Disgruntled, fed up: Services, orig. (?): Royal Naval since ca. 1927; general since ca. 1939. ,,, Sometimes a synonym for *browned off*; sometimes regarded as a shade milder. > > > However, John Ayto & John Simpson, *The Oxford Dictionary of Modern Slang* (1992) have a more conservative estimate of the date of origin of *brassed off*: > > **brassed off** [adjective orig services'] Fed up. 1941– P. Brennan et al. Very tired and **brassed off**, we bundled our kit on our shoulders (1943). > > > A Google Books search for the various relevant phrases produces some interesting and fairly early results. From Mary Gaunt, [Moving Finger](https://books.google.com/books?id=PnshAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA137&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CEAQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1895): > > "You boy, trim that lamp," said Harper angrily. "Look here, my lad, you just keep your tongue lashed amidships, and don't go gassing about things that don't concern you in the least, or you and I'll **part brass rags**." > > > And from George Goodenough, [*The Handy Man Afloat & Ashore*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5P8KAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA162&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CDIQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1901): > > A "*monkey's fist*" is anything that puzzles us, of which we can't make out the meaning or reason. Chums are often called *raggies*, from the fact that they generally establish a partnership in the brass rags used for polishing stanchions, &c., on deck. To ***part brass rags*** signifies a dissolution of partnership and friendly relations. > > > From Charles Gardner, [*First Blood for the R.A.F.: The Valorous Story of the Advanced Air Striking Force in France*](https://books.google.com/books?id=RFqgAAAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CEIQ6AEwBg) (1940) [combined snippets]: > > My last two nights in Paris I had a good time. Noel and I met Cobber—up for a day's leave to see the 73 Squadron doctor off to England. Cobber said he was "**brassed-off**," especially after he had got half-way home once, only to be called back to hand over his flight and teach two new-comers the way around. If ever anyone deserved a rest that boy does. > > > This use of *brassed off* certainly appears to mean "fed up" in the sense of being at one's limit to tolerate (without any sense of boredom). Two other sources source from 1941 have interpretations of their own. From John Hammerton, [*ABC of the RAF: Handbook for All Branches of the Air Force*](https://books.google.com/books?id=zBEZAAAAIAAJ&q=%22brolly+parachute%22&dq=%22brolly+parachute%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=-wSSVIzQCs7toASY6ICoBA&ved=0CD0Q6AEwBQ) (1941) sees *brassed off* as being not merely a related term to *browned off*, but a diminutive of it. > > **Brassed off** Diminutive of "browned off." > > > ... > > > **Browned off** To be "fed up." > > > From Bernard De Voto, [*Saturday Review*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7G0gAQAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAQ) (1941) [snippet view]: > > ***Brassed Off***. To be very much fed up with boredom. (See also *Browned off*; *Completely cheesed*.) > > > *Browned off*. To be fed up with boredom. > > > ... > > > *Completely cheesed*. Pretty much fed up with it all. > > > So whereas Hammerton sees *brassed off* as a diminutive of *browned off* with no particular connection to boredom, De Voto regards it as an intensifier of *browned off*—both of which, unlike *completely cheesed*, he links particularly to boredom. Two newspaper accounts give further accounts of the term. One—from "[When Is an Airman Cheesed?](https://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/96695195?searchTerm=%22brassed+off%22)" in the *[Gawler, South Australia] Bunyip* (July 18, 1941)—at least partially endorses De Voto's view: > > There are three degrees of dejection. The first is the Stage of being "browned off," the second being "**brassed off**," and the third, which means that there is no hope for you, of being completely "cheesed." > > > But the second—published about 10 months earlier—reports the reprimand meaning that Partridge mentions in his 1961 *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*. From William McGuffin, "[Better 'Flap' Your Hardest, You 'Erks', or You'll be 'Buttoned Up' by the 'Nasties'](https://cdnc.ucr.edu/cgi-bin/cdnc?a=d&d=SCS19400915.1.5&e=-------en--20--1--txt-txIN-%252522brassed+off%252522-------1)," in the *Santa Cruz [California] Sentinel* (September 15, 1940): > > If you would converse intelligently with the modern warrior you should know the following additions to the slanguage which have come out of a year of war: > > > **Brassed off**—bawled out. > > > I find it hard to believe that *brassed off* in the attested (but divergent) World War II senses of "bawled out" and "fed up" has no connection to *brass off* in the 1920s and 1930s sense of "to grumble." However, Google Books and Elephind searches don't yield any published examples of *brass off* (or *brassed off*) in conversational or descriptive use during the 1920s and 1930s, so the print record isn't especially helpful here.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
The OED reckons it came from "Service slang", and cites 'browned off' as a comparison. The earliest use there is 1941; taken together with the Ngram, this leads me to believe it arose suddenly and untraceably, as slang does, among the troops (probably the RAF, who were very inventive in such matters), and proved so useful it spread everywhere.
My understanding of the phrase is that it originated from the practise of sharpening an engineer's twist drill. The sharp cutting edge was dulled. Otherwise the sharp cutting edge would bite into the brass and chatter. If the cutting edge was removed it could cut into brass sheet or solid bar without any trouble. Hence the drill had been brassed off. I cannot see the connection between the usual understanding of the phrase as in hacked off, pissed off etc.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, fifth edition (1961) has this roundabout explanation for the origin of the phrase: > > **brass off,** *v.i.* To grumble : military : C. 20. F[raser] & Gibbons[, *Soldier and Sailor Words and Phrases* (1925)]. Perhaps ex *part brass-rags*. > > > And here's Partridge's entry for *part brass-rags*: > > **part brass-rags.** To quarrel : naval (from ca. 1890) > by 1900 military. Bowen[, *Sea Slang* (1929)], 'From the bluejacket's habit of sharing brass cleaning rags with his particular friend'. > > > It appears from these references that *brass off* was in use by the 1920s. The same meaning of *brass off* appears in Eric Partridge, [*Slang To-day and Yesterday*] (1935). The "Supplement" section in Partridge's *Dictionary of Slang*, fifth edition, which collects all of the addenda to the first edition (of 1937), runs to almost 400 pages. It contains the following additional entries for *brass off* and *brassed off*: > > **brass off.**—2. To reprimand severely: Services: since about 1939. H[unt] & P[ringle, *Service Slang* (1943)]. > > > ... > > > **brassed off**. Disgruntled, fed up: Services, orig. (?): Royal Naval since ca. 1927; general since ca. 1939. ,,, Sometimes a synonym for *browned off*; sometimes regarded as a shade milder. > > > However, John Ayto & John Simpson, *The Oxford Dictionary of Modern Slang* (1992) have a more conservative estimate of the date of origin of *brassed off*: > > **brassed off** [adjective orig services'] Fed up. 1941– P. Brennan et al. Very tired and **brassed off**, we bundled our kit on our shoulders (1943). > > > A Google Books search for the various relevant phrases produces some interesting and fairly early results. From Mary Gaunt, [Moving Finger](https://books.google.com/books?id=PnshAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA137&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CEAQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1895): > > "You boy, trim that lamp," said Harper angrily. "Look here, my lad, you just keep your tongue lashed amidships, and don't go gassing about things that don't concern you in the least, or you and I'll **part brass rags**." > > > And from George Goodenough, [*The Handy Man Afloat & Ashore*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5P8KAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA162&dq=%22part+brass+rags%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=efuRVPDXH4resAS4tYGQBA&ved=0CDIQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22part%20brass%20rags%22&f=false) (1901): > > A "*monkey's fist*" is anything that puzzles us, of which we can't make out the meaning or reason. Chums are often called *raggies*, from the fact that they generally establish a partnership in the brass rags used for polishing stanchions, &c., on deck. To ***part brass rags*** signifies a dissolution of partnership and friendly relations. > > > From Charles Gardner, [*First Blood for the R.A.F.: The Valorous Story of the Advanced Air Striking Force in France*](https://books.google.com/books?id=RFqgAAAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CEIQ6AEwBg) (1940) [combined snippets]: > > My last two nights in Paris I had a good time. Noel and I met Cobber—up for a day's leave to see the 73 Squadron doctor off to England. Cobber said he was "**brassed-off**," especially after he had got half-way home once, only to be called back to hand over his flight and teach two new-comers the way around. If ever anyone deserved a rest that boy does. > > > This use of *brassed off* certainly appears to mean "fed up" in the sense of being at one's limit to tolerate (without any sense of boredom). Two other sources source from 1941 have interpretations of their own. From John Hammerton, [*ABC of the RAF: Handbook for All Branches of the Air Force*](https://books.google.com/books?id=zBEZAAAAIAAJ&q=%22brolly+parachute%22&dq=%22brolly+parachute%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=-wSSVIzQCs7toASY6ICoBA&ved=0CD0Q6AEwBQ) (1941) sees *brassed off* as being not merely a related term to *browned off*, but a diminutive of it. > > **Brassed off** Diminutive of "browned off." > > > ... > > > **Browned off** To be "fed up." > > > From Bernard De Voto, [*Saturday Review*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7G0gAQAAMAAJ&q=%22brassed+off%22&dq=%22brassed+off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=awKSVLCEF4qtogTkooKQAw&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAQ) (1941) [snippet view]: > > ***Brassed Off***. To be very much fed up with boredom. (See also *Browned off*; *Completely cheesed*.) > > > *Browned off*. To be fed up with boredom. > > > ... > > > *Completely cheesed*. Pretty much fed up with it all. > > > So whereas Hammerton sees *brassed off* as a diminutive of *browned off* with no particular connection to boredom, De Voto regards it as an intensifier of *browned off*—both of which, unlike *completely cheesed*, he links particularly to boredom. Two newspaper accounts give further accounts of the term. One—from "[When Is an Airman Cheesed?](https://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/96695195?searchTerm=%22brassed+off%22)" in the *[Gawler, South Australia] Bunyip* (July 18, 1941)—at least partially endorses De Voto's view: > > There are three degrees of dejection. The first is the Stage of being "browned off," the second being "**brassed off**," and the third, which means that there is no hope for you, of being completely "cheesed." > > > But the second—published about 10 months earlier—reports the reprimand meaning that Partridge mentions in his 1961 *Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*. From William McGuffin, "[Better 'Flap' Your Hardest, You 'Erks', or You'll be 'Buttoned Up' by the 'Nasties'](https://cdnc.ucr.edu/cgi-bin/cdnc?a=d&d=SCS19400915.1.5&e=-------en--20--1--txt-txIN-%252522brassed+off%252522-------1)," in the *Santa Cruz [California] Sentinel* (September 15, 1940): > > If you would converse intelligently with the modern warrior you should know the following additions to the slanguage which have come out of a year of war: > > > **Brassed off**—bawled out. > > > I find it hard to believe that *brassed off* in the attested (but divergent) World War II senses of "bawled out" and "fed up" has no connection to *brass off* in the 1920s and 1930s sense of "to grumble." However, Google Books and Elephind searches don't yield any published examples of *brass off* (or *brassed off*) in conversational or descriptive use during the 1920s and 1930s, so the print record isn't especially helpful here.
Brassed off comes from the over cleaning of brass, with a rag and abrasive polish, which resulted in the brass being rubbed through to the base metal underneath the brass coating, and certainly a centaury before the nineteen thirty’s as some ‘experts’ suggest.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
The OED reckons it came from "Service slang", and cites 'browned off' as a comparison. The earliest use there is 1941; taken together with the Ngram, this leads me to believe it arose suddenly and untraceably, as slang does, among the troops (probably the RAF, who were very inventive in such matters), and proved so useful it spread everywhere.
Brassed off comes from the over cleaning of brass, with a rag and abrasive polish, which resulted in the brass being rubbed through to the base metal underneath the brass coating, and certainly a centaury before the nineteen thirty’s as some ‘experts’ suggest.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
The OED reckons it came from "Service slang", and cites 'browned off' as a comparison. The earliest use there is 1941; taken together with the Ngram, this leads me to believe it arose suddenly and untraceably, as slang does, among the troops (probably the RAF, who were very inventive in such matters), and proved so useful it spread everywhere.
"Top Brass" meant command, because of their brass insignia. "Brassed Off" might mean told off by military authority, in a slang sense.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
"Top Brass" meant command, because of their brass insignia. "Brassed Off" might mean told off by military authority, in a slang sense.
Brassed off comes from the over cleaning of brass, with a rag and abrasive polish, which resulted in the brass being rubbed through to the base metal underneath the brass coating, and certainly a centaury before the nineteen thirty’s as some ‘experts’ suggest.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
"Top Brass" meant command, because of their brass insignia. "Brassed Off" might mean told off by military authority, in a slang sense.
My understanding of the phrase is that it originated from the practise of sharpening an engineer's twist drill. The sharp cutting edge was dulled. Otherwise the sharp cutting edge would bite into the brass and chatter. If the cutting edge was removed it could cut into brass sheet or solid bar without any trouble. Hence the drill had been brassed off. I cannot see the connection between the usual understanding of the phrase as in hacked off, pissed off etc.
35,909
Brass bands were being discussed today which naturally led to someone claiming to be *brassed off* about something, meaning disgruntled or annoyed. Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Michael Quinion over at [World Wide Words](http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-bra2.htm) suggests the phrase may have arisen from the Royal Navy's use of cleaning brasswork as a punishment, but that doesn't seem altogether convincing.
2011/07/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35909", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/305/" ]
This NGram suggests **brassed off** came later than **brass monkey**, as used in the expression *cold enough to freeze the balls/nose off a brass monkey*. I know some of the earlier usages for *brass monkey* here don't actually have that figurative meaning, but plenty do. In light of that, I would simply say that "brassed off" actually *derives* from the earlier expression. If you've been kept hanging about in the cold, that's a typical situation where you'd be "brassed off". Huge numbers of slang expressions are assigned naval/military origins, and I suppose it's always possible sailors were more in the habit of using that colourful metaphor for *biting cold*, but I doubt it's got anything to do with actual specific things made of brass on ships or similar. ![.](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qSfwh.png)
"Top Brass" meant command, because of their brass insignia. "Brassed Off" might mean told off by military authority, in a slang sense.
48,617
I want to go to [Medan city center (Indonesia)](https://www.google.com.sg/maps/place/Medan,+Medan+City,+North+Sumatra,+Republic+of+Indonesia/@2.7016627,101.5396721,7z/data=!4m2!3m1!1s0x303131cc1c3eb2fd:0x23d431c8a6908262) when arriving by plane at [Medan International airport (called Kualanamu International Airport).](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kualanamu_International_Airport) Can I take a public bus? A tuk tuk? A rickshaw? A taxi? If you have info on the prices (interesting for travellers on a budget) that'd be great too.
2015/06/02
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/48617", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/9395/" ]
### Your Options Include Airport Train, Airport Shuttle, Buses, Taxis, and Renting a Car [The Kualanamu airport website has a page dedicated to airport transfer information.](http://www.kualanamu-airport.co.id/en/guides/transportation) Several options are listed there along with the approximate prices for each solution. [Being the first Sumatran airport to be directly linked to the city centre via rail](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kualanamu_International_Airport), I think the Airport Train might be a good solution to reach Medan city. According to the linked website the cost of a train ride is (as of November 15th (I'm assuming) 2014) 80.000`Rp`. Buying several tickets at once entitles you to proportionally discounted fares. Below is a screenshot of the linked website with more information on the Airport train: ![Airport train info screenshot](https://i.stack.imgur.com/m8rz0.png) More information can be found on [the website of Railink the company managing the trains](http://www.railink.co.id). For completeness sake, your other options are buses, Airport shuttle, taxis and renting a car.
The best and cheapest option is a public bus, the Perum Damri bus. The last bus departs at 12pm to Medan city.
48,617
I want to go to [Medan city center (Indonesia)](https://www.google.com.sg/maps/place/Medan,+Medan+City,+North+Sumatra,+Republic+of+Indonesia/@2.7016627,101.5396721,7z/data=!4m2!3m1!1s0x303131cc1c3eb2fd:0x23d431c8a6908262) when arriving by plane at [Medan International airport (called Kualanamu International Airport).](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kualanamu_International_Airport) Can I take a public bus? A tuk tuk? A rickshaw? A taxi? If you have info on the prices (interesting for travellers on a budget) that'd be great too.
2015/06/02
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/48617", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/9395/" ]
The airport is about 16km from the city center. --- The information below is from **May 2015** Options I know of: * Public bus: charges 20'000 IDR, it takes about 45min. * Taxi: charges circa 150'000 IDR --- ### Resources <http://www.virtualtourist.com/travel/Asia/Indonesia/North_Sumatra_Province/Medan-1213225/Transportation-Medan-TG-C-1.html>
The best and cheapest option is a public bus, the Perum Damri bus. The last bus departs at 12pm to Medan city.
55,835
I mostly ride touristic style, and its not uncommon descents of few hundred meters or even 1000 meters (vertically, usually average gradient is around 5-10%). What's the best technique to brake to avoid glazing of brakes? Theory ====== I've heard following advices: * pulse brake instead of constantly braking * use alternately front and rear brake * create as much of aerodynamic drag as you can to reduce the pressure on brakes Apart from that, I have following theories: * brake pads have some temperature above which they will start to glaze, so I should brake in such way, to avoid exceeding this temperature * if I brake suddenly with great power, brake pads/disc rotors/rims will have to absorb a lot of energy which translates to heat, if I brake gently - less heat is generated * if I brake with both brakes energy will be divided between two brakes so as heat (though not necessarily evenly - division depends on the force applied on brake levers) * the greater the speed, the greater aero drag, so if I go faster, less energy (in total) will need to be absorbed by brakes * the lower the speed, the longer the time that it takes to ride, so longer the time to dissipate the heat from brake system Braking strategies ================== So based on all above I have two strategies for braking: 1. Brake as little as possible, but when needed (ex. before hairpin turn) brake shortly with great power and both brakes 2. Brake constantly using both brakes and maintain low speed (below 20km/h?) First strategy is trying to use as much aero drag as possible and then it will generate a lot of heat in brake system. Though during the brakes it will have time to cool down again. Second strategy maintains constant high temperature of brakes, but provided low travelling speed I assume that temperature will not exceed glazing temperature. These strategies I discarded: 1. Brake constantly and maintain low speed using alternating brakes. This means that although the brake that's not operating is chilling down the other gets full load and its temperature will be higher improving risk of exceeding glazing temperature. Experiences =========== I've already glazed a few disc rotors: 1. In my commuting bike, I have one hill (700m long, 4% gradient), and I brake shortly but with great force 2. In my trekking bike - downhill on straight asphalt, starting with gradient above 10% where I gained ~50km/h later I tried to not gain any more speed using alternating brakes technique Also I have a feeling, that after glazing, when I experience lower braking strength, if I ride a few downhills when I'm more gentle towards this brake it regains its effectiveness. Is it possible? Though it might be problem solvable using different means (reduce my weight, use larger rotors). I'm looking that would work best, even on non-disc-brake bikes. EDIT: Final Question ============== To reduce number of variables, my final question is: Given: 1. The speed **Vn** - which is the speed the biker would get if he would not brake nor pedal at all, when areo drag is preventing him from gaining any more speed from gravitational force. 2. Desired speed the biker would like to go **Vd = R \* Vn** What are the optimum braking strategies that: 1. Minimize time that it takes to ride 10km of such slope 2. Prevent brakes glazing Depending on the **R**. If **R >= 1** then the strategy is just not to brake at all, that's easy, but how to brake if **R=0.5** or even **R=0.1**?
2018/07/14
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/55835", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/38573/" ]
Brakes work by turning kinetic energy into heat through friction. As you heat up the system there generally is less capacity to absorb more heat (in addition to physical changes in the brake system component). Constantly dragging your brakes is probably the worst strategy. Tandem bikes do this but they typically have one braking system dedicated to being a drag brake, and a separate braking system to be used for stopping. If the drag brake fails from overheating the primary brake system should be unaffected. The reason constant drag braking is a bad strategy if you do not have a dedicated drag brake is as follows: 1. The brakes never get a chance to cool off, building up heat over time which can make them ineffective if for example you need to suddenly stop; 2. If you are drag braking to maintain a slow speed then you are not taking advantage for aerodynamic drag. Drag goes up with the cube of velocity. As such you get the highest braking force from aerodynamic drag the faster you go (yes it does sound crazy). 3. If you are not effectively using aerodynamic drag you are forcing your brakes to do proportional more work (i.e., heat) than if you let your speed run up then brake. Depending on your tolerance for speed (I am personally happy running my speed up to 90+ km/hr), the optimal strategy is to let your speed run up, do a period of braking where you drop your speed down (e.g., go from 80 km/hr down to 40 km/hr), let off the brakes and let your speed run up. This lets you cool off your brakes as well as use aerodynamic drag to your advantage. The key is to try and have long periods between a braking bought so you can get as much heat out of your brakes. If the period between a braking bought is too short (e.g., pulsing your brakes) you will start to get excessive heat build up in your brakes eventually leading to fade and even failure in some extreme circumstances.
*Metal pads on disc brakes* (a bit much for a comment). The metal pads on my tourer were better than ever after the second descent on [this ride](https://www.strava.com/activities/1672382419) (the first big descent had a lunch stop in it but was otherwise similar). This was the first time I'd come down anything like this so was quite cautious, i.e. on the brakes quite a bit -- probably too much but the bike can take it. To give an idea of my descending style here's the [top of that second descent on video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JOt2b1dmzaA). Note the left hand operates the back brake on my British bike; if you look carefully you can see when I change from decelerating to not accelerating too much (those hairpins are steep) and I relax the brake slightly (clearer with my cable discs than it would be with hydraulics). Front brake behaviour was similar.
55,835
I mostly ride touristic style, and its not uncommon descents of few hundred meters or even 1000 meters (vertically, usually average gradient is around 5-10%). What's the best technique to brake to avoid glazing of brakes? Theory ====== I've heard following advices: * pulse brake instead of constantly braking * use alternately front and rear brake * create as much of aerodynamic drag as you can to reduce the pressure on brakes Apart from that, I have following theories: * brake pads have some temperature above which they will start to glaze, so I should brake in such way, to avoid exceeding this temperature * if I brake suddenly with great power, brake pads/disc rotors/rims will have to absorb a lot of energy which translates to heat, if I brake gently - less heat is generated * if I brake with both brakes energy will be divided between two brakes so as heat (though not necessarily evenly - division depends on the force applied on brake levers) * the greater the speed, the greater aero drag, so if I go faster, less energy (in total) will need to be absorbed by brakes * the lower the speed, the longer the time that it takes to ride, so longer the time to dissipate the heat from brake system Braking strategies ================== So based on all above I have two strategies for braking: 1. Brake as little as possible, but when needed (ex. before hairpin turn) brake shortly with great power and both brakes 2. Brake constantly using both brakes and maintain low speed (below 20km/h?) First strategy is trying to use as much aero drag as possible and then it will generate a lot of heat in brake system. Though during the brakes it will have time to cool down again. Second strategy maintains constant high temperature of brakes, but provided low travelling speed I assume that temperature will not exceed glazing temperature. These strategies I discarded: 1. Brake constantly and maintain low speed using alternating brakes. This means that although the brake that's not operating is chilling down the other gets full load and its temperature will be higher improving risk of exceeding glazing temperature. Experiences =========== I've already glazed a few disc rotors: 1. In my commuting bike, I have one hill (700m long, 4% gradient), and I brake shortly but with great force 2. In my trekking bike - downhill on straight asphalt, starting with gradient above 10% where I gained ~50km/h later I tried to not gain any more speed using alternating brakes technique Also I have a feeling, that after glazing, when I experience lower braking strength, if I ride a few downhills when I'm more gentle towards this brake it regains its effectiveness. Is it possible? Though it might be problem solvable using different means (reduce my weight, use larger rotors). I'm looking that would work best, even on non-disc-brake bikes. EDIT: Final Question ============== To reduce number of variables, my final question is: Given: 1. The speed **Vn** - which is the speed the biker would get if he would not brake nor pedal at all, when areo drag is preventing him from gaining any more speed from gravitational force. 2. Desired speed the biker would like to go **Vd = R \* Vn** What are the optimum braking strategies that: 1. Minimize time that it takes to ride 10km of such slope 2. Prevent brakes glazing Depending on the **R**. If **R >= 1** then the strategy is just not to brake at all, that's easy, but how to brake if **R=0.5** or even **R=0.1**?
2018/07/14
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/55835", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/38573/" ]
Issues with glazing on 5-10% gradient descents indicate that overall bike technique/confidence is what needs improvement, braking less and harder is more the culmination of good technique and the resulting confidence, rather than a skill per-se. Yes you need to un-learn the bad habit of braking too much and dragging the brakes, but in order to do so, you must learn other good habits. Turns etc vary but I haven't been on a 10degree or less road decent where I've considered braking for years (except traffic light related/traffic related etc braking) But firstly and most simply: **Non techinque related** Change to: 1. Metal pads. Check your discs are compatible, also check your disc width more regularly; metal pads will wear them faster. 2. Larger rotors. Check your frame/fork are compatible. 3. Finned pads. 4. Ice-tec and similar rotors. 5. Brakes that take pads with larger surface areas. **Technique related** Learn to ride faster. Harder, less frequent braking is all well and good, but ultimately this results in riding faster and harder, doing this safely involves an overall improvement in your whole descending skill set, and ideally intimate knowledge of your bike, so that you can be even more confident it's not going to fail you at speed. *edit: much of this was written with the assumption of 10% decent mountain biking, since I kind of skimmed the question and it didn't cross my mind that one could brake so much that one glazed the pads on 10% road decent. However it's largely valid for road riding also.* Ultimately one of the most important skills for more rapid descending is reading the terrain, looking further ahead, planning where you will brake. This becomes second nature after a while, but can be frustrating until you start to notice improvement. Everyone can always get better at this skill and it is IME a huge factor in fear/confidence. Fundamentally it's information processing and decision making. If you can't process fast enough and decide fast enough then no matter your other skills, you can't make use of them properly and safely. If you are afraid you can't really be in full control because you are distracted, not focused. It is important to remember to listen to that fear, some days, it's just not your day for whatever reason. If you know the reason, work on it. If you don't, then accept the off-day, pushing the fear out of your mind and gun-ho charging like you did some other day can be disastrous if you don't both recognize and address the cause of the fear. How to go faster (i.e. result in braking less) Learn. Self teach and/or pay for lessons. If you self teach make sure to record yourself practicing so you can instantly review your technique; it's easy to learn the theory and delude yourself into thinking you are putting it into practice. Practice. Practice does not just mean "go ride", it means ride something you find tricky, then analyze it, consider what the theory says about riding it and then repeat and review that section till you're putting the theory into practice automatically. Don't think about going faster, it is a meaningless thing to think about; going faster is a by-product of better technique; the technique is HOW you go faster and that is what you should be thinking about. Of all the techniques for going faster, braking less has the most per-requisites. You can only brake less when you can process, decide and react faster, i.e. when all your other skills can take less braking. It's very rare to come across some one who needs to specifically focus on braking less, as opposed to all the skills that will enable them to do so and have the confidence to do so. Note that *generally* not braking in corners could be considered "learning not to brake" but the process is generally one of learning to corner, with all the skills that entails and learning not to brake is more a matter of unlearning one of the worst and most dangerous bad habits, rather than learning an actual skill. The only time you really need to learn to brake less, is if you feel totally confident all the time at the speed you are going and want to go faster, but are still stuck in your old ways, subconsciously feathering. Note that this behavior, when all technique appears to be good -apart from braking-, is more often than not, actually a sign of not having total confidence, which is often actually caused by not looking ahead enough and not processing information fast enough. **Lastly** Some bike adjustment to increase descending confidence is also an option. This can involve lowering your seat post before the descent (or get a dropper, there are some decent cheap options around), *edit: removed the purely MTB related suggestions (and yes I would use a dropper post even on a road bike myself)*
*Metal pads on disc brakes* (a bit much for a comment). The metal pads on my tourer were better than ever after the second descent on [this ride](https://www.strava.com/activities/1672382419) (the first big descent had a lunch stop in it but was otherwise similar). This was the first time I'd come down anything like this so was quite cautious, i.e. on the brakes quite a bit -- probably too much but the bike can take it. To give an idea of my descending style here's the [top of that second descent on video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JOt2b1dmzaA). Note the left hand operates the back brake on my British bike; if you look carefully you can see when I change from decelerating to not accelerating too much (those hairpins are steep) and I relax the brake slightly (clearer with my cable discs than it would be with hydraulics). Front brake behaviour was similar.
24,530
Some land-based fighter aircraft have a drogue-chute to help them slow down during landing. * Do any current models of commercial aircraft have a similar mechanism? * Secondly, would such a mechanism help aircraft in making a better landing and reduce landing related incidents/ accidents?
2016/01/22
[ "https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/24530", "https://aviation.stackexchange.com", "https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/1678/" ]
It is called a [drogue parachute](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drogue_parachute) and I don't think that any of the present generation large commercial aircraft use them. That said, a number of older commercial aircraft have used them, a good example being the Sud Caravelle. [![Caravelle drogue](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vQgzK.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vQgzK.jpg) Image from eu.airliners.net There are some issues with using drogue chutes in a commercial airliner, which would limit their effectiveness. * Most commercial airliners have thrust reversers already. * For it to be effective, the parachute has to be quite huge. For example, the Handley Page Victor, which had MTOW in the range of A320, had a drogue chute 48' (or 14.6m) in diameter. The chute would occupy volume and increase weight. * If drogue chutes are used, they have to be packed before every flight, which will increase turnaround times. Another option is to replace them at the end of every deployment, which would increase costs. * Deployment failure/partial deployment/Uncommanded deployment will affect the safety of the flight. * The need to use a drogue chute can limit the crosswind landing of the airliner significantly. * Aircraft dragging a huge chute during taxiing back to the ramp is not a good idea from FoD point of view.
With the improvement of the brakes and reverse thrust, parachutes are no longer an option for airlines. Nowadays the carbon brakes are the best brakes in the aviation market, together with auto brakes, reversers and speed brakes, most of the new generation aircrafts are landing much shorter compared with old generations, the reject takeoff is almost automatic and with the correct calculation the runway overrun accidents are decreasing considerably. As the effectiveness of the thrust reversers are better at high speed, most of the airlines uses reverser thrust in idle, the pilots are suggested in case of using other than idle reversers, to apply reverser thrust until 80 knots or 60 kts after landing, auto brakes combined with Carbon Brakes and a speed brake, give to the aircraft shorter stop distance than before. The brake temperature is much better in carbon brakes, hot temperatures are still a problem in case of reject takeoff but for long taxis is no longer a problem. So parachutes are retired in commercial aviation. Hope this explanation helps. ;)
24,530
Some land-based fighter aircraft have a drogue-chute to help them slow down during landing. * Do any current models of commercial aircraft have a similar mechanism? * Secondly, would such a mechanism help aircraft in making a better landing and reduce landing related incidents/ accidents?
2016/01/22
[ "https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/24530", "https://aviation.stackexchange.com", "https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/1678/" ]
It is called a [drogue parachute](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drogue_parachute) and I don't think that any of the present generation large commercial aircraft use them. That said, a number of older commercial aircraft have used them, a good example being the Sud Caravelle. [![Caravelle drogue](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vQgzK.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vQgzK.jpg) Image from eu.airliners.net There are some issues with using drogue chutes in a commercial airliner, which would limit their effectiveness. * Most commercial airliners have thrust reversers already. * For it to be effective, the parachute has to be quite huge. For example, the Handley Page Victor, which had MTOW in the range of A320, had a drogue chute 48' (or 14.6m) in diameter. The chute would occupy volume and increase weight. * If drogue chutes are used, they have to be packed before every flight, which will increase turnaround times. Another option is to replace them at the end of every deployment, which would increase costs. * Deployment failure/partial deployment/Uncommanded deployment will affect the safety of the flight. * The need to use a drogue chute can limit the crosswind landing of the airliner significantly. * Aircraft dragging a huge chute during taxiing back to the ramp is not a good idea from FoD point of view.
The full list of airliners and business jets is: * Sud Aviation Caravelle * Tupolev Tu-104 * Tupolev Tu-124 * Tupolev Tu-144 * Concorde prototypes * Learjet 25 * Learjet 35 * Dassault Falcon 20 [![Concorde during brake tests](https://i.stack.imgur.com/57z9r.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/57z9r.jpg) Concorde during brake tests (picture [source](http://thumbs.media.smithsonianmag.com/filer/concorde_d.jpg__600x0_q85_upscale.jpg)) Even some gliders used them (SHK, HKS, SB-5, Salto) [![Hirth SHK with brake chute](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mok2J.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mok2J.jpg) Hirth SHK with brake chute (picture [source](http://cdn.c.photoshelter.com/img-get/I0000n7nq8gwb3N8/s/900/900/20100606-0007Hwei.jpg)) Brake chutes increase drag and allow a steeper approach, which helps to control the touchdown point with great precision. If the aircraft is too high, just push the stick forward - the drag of the chute prevents the aircraft from accelerating too much and the increased drag at higher speed gets rid of the excess height quickly. On the ground the drag of the chute reduces the rollout distance which is especially helpful for aircraft with a high touchdown speed.
60,242,008
I am trying to understand SHA uniqueness in simple terms. For example let us assume there are only messages with maximum length of 4 bits (binery) in whole world. Number of possible messages with different lengths is * 2 for single bit length * 2^2 for double bit length * 2^3 for 3 bit length * 2^4 for 4 bit length that would be 2+4+8+16 = 30 (31 if we consider empty message 2^0 = 1) Lets us consider SHA3(for example) with output length of 3bits (binery), so maximum possible number of digest are 8. How can a digest be unique if we need to map 30 messages to 8, or why is it hard to find digest collision for 2 unique messages
2020/02/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60242008", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10618876/" ]
I'm not sure what you mean by "SHA uniqueness". An SHA value (any version) is not unique, it cannot be, because it maps an infinite number of inputs (an input of any length) to a finite number of outputs. A cryptographic hash function has three important properties (which make it a crypto hash, over a regular hash): * strong collision resistance: it is very difficult (computationally infeasible, ie. "not practically possible") to find two inputs that produce the same output (even if you can choose both) * weak collision resistance: for a given input, it is computationally infeasible to find another input that gives the same hash value (you can choose one input to match the output of a given input) * preimage resistance: for a hash value, it's computationally infeasible to find an input that produces that output (it's "one-way") The only problem in your example is the size. With such small numbers it doesn't make sense of course. But if the hash value is say 512 bits, it suddenly gets really time consuming and hence practically impossible to brute force.
Any SHA3 variant will have digests with more than 100 bits. The terminology has probably confused you, because SHA256 has 256 bits, while SHA3 is considered the third generation of SHA algorithms (and does NOT have 3 bits of lenght). Generally speaking it's not hard to find a hash collision by brute-forcing (alas, it's time-consuming), what is difficult is producing a collision that is also meaningful in its context. For example, assume you have a source file for an important application, that hashes to a digest. If an attacker tried to alter the source file in a way to introduce a vulnerability, while also hashing to the same digest, he'd have to introduce a lot of random gibberish, making the attack obvious.
60,242,008
I am trying to understand SHA uniqueness in simple terms. For example let us assume there are only messages with maximum length of 4 bits (binery) in whole world. Number of possible messages with different lengths is * 2 for single bit length * 2^2 for double bit length * 2^3 for 3 bit length * 2^4 for 4 bit length that would be 2+4+8+16 = 30 (31 if we consider empty message 2^0 = 1) Lets us consider SHA3(for example) with output length of 3bits (binery), so maximum possible number of digest are 8. How can a digest be unique if we need to map 30 messages to 8, or why is it hard to find digest collision for 2 unique messages
2020/02/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60242008", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10618876/" ]
"SHA3 which has digest length of 3bits" I think this question is based on one bit misunderstanding. SHA-3 is a **family of hashes** that has the same output bit size as SHA-2. SHA-2 has bit sizes 224, 256, 384 or 512 for SHA-224, SHA-256, SHA-384 and SHA-512 respectively. Of course, SHA-2 already took those identifiers, so SHA-3 will have SHA3-224, SHA3-256, SHA3-384 and SHA3-512. There were some proposals to use a different acronym, but those failed. Still, SHA-3 hashes have near infinite input, so there will be many hashes that map to the same value. However, since it is not possible reverse any SHA-3 algorithm, it should be impossible to find a collision. That is, unless SHA-3 is broken, as it is not provably secure.
Any SHA3 variant will have digests with more than 100 bits. The terminology has probably confused you, because SHA256 has 256 bits, while SHA3 is considered the third generation of SHA algorithms (and does NOT have 3 bits of lenght). Generally speaking it's not hard to find a hash collision by brute-forcing (alas, it's time-consuming), what is difficult is producing a collision that is also meaningful in its context. For example, assume you have a source file for an important application, that hashes to a digest. If an attacker tried to alter the source file in a way to introduce a vulnerability, while also hashing to the same digest, he'd have to introduce a lot of random gibberish, making the attack obvious.
60,242,008
I am trying to understand SHA uniqueness in simple terms. For example let us assume there are only messages with maximum length of 4 bits (binery) in whole world. Number of possible messages with different lengths is * 2 for single bit length * 2^2 for double bit length * 2^3 for 3 bit length * 2^4 for 4 bit length that would be 2+4+8+16 = 30 (31 if we consider empty message 2^0 = 1) Lets us consider SHA3(for example) with output length of 3bits (binery), so maximum possible number of digest are 8. How can a digest be unique if we need to map 30 messages to 8, or why is it hard to find digest collision for 2 unique messages
2020/02/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60242008", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10618876/" ]
I'm not sure what you mean by "SHA uniqueness". An SHA value (any version) is not unique, it cannot be, because it maps an infinite number of inputs (an input of any length) to a finite number of outputs. A cryptographic hash function has three important properties (which make it a crypto hash, over a regular hash): * strong collision resistance: it is very difficult (computationally infeasible, ie. "not practically possible") to find two inputs that produce the same output (even if you can choose both) * weak collision resistance: for a given input, it is computationally infeasible to find another input that gives the same hash value (you can choose one input to match the output of a given input) * preimage resistance: for a hash value, it's computationally infeasible to find an input that produces that output (it's "one-way") The only problem in your example is the size. With such small numbers it doesn't make sense of course. But if the hash value is say 512 bits, it suddenly gets really time consuming and hence practically impossible to brute force.
"SHA3 which has digest length of 3bits" I think this question is based on one bit misunderstanding. SHA-3 is a **family of hashes** that has the same output bit size as SHA-2. SHA-2 has bit sizes 224, 256, 384 or 512 for SHA-224, SHA-256, SHA-384 and SHA-512 respectively. Of course, SHA-2 already took those identifiers, so SHA-3 will have SHA3-224, SHA3-256, SHA3-384 and SHA3-512. There were some proposals to use a different acronym, but those failed. Still, SHA-3 hashes have near infinite input, so there will be many hashes that map to the same value. However, since it is not possible reverse any SHA-3 algorithm, it should be impossible to find a collision. That is, unless SHA-3 is broken, as it is not provably secure.
5,749
My boss asked me to setup a secured area online, which will contain all the FTP, MySQL etc details related to our web products. This online area must be secured and will only be accessible by the user we define. It should be easy to understand and should have functionality to download details in PDF or in word format etc. And should be able to handle following type of scenario: A client has 10 websites so we'll need to store FTP, MYSQL etc details related to 10 websites, so CMS should be able to accept and present the data in easy way. Do anyone has any suggestions for me to handle such kind scenario. Please help. Thanks!
2010/11/22
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/5749", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/3398/" ]
You can use all three tools without penalty or issue. There's absolutely no reason for a search engine to levy a penalty on a website that uses tools that has no direct effect on the website itself (i.e. these tools aren't altering your code or using "techniques" to manipulate the search results). These tools are just informative. Nothing nefarious about them.
[I asked](https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/5268/multiple-webmaster-tools-accounts-on-website) a while ago if it was ok to have multiple accounts of the same "brand" of webmasters tools (i.e. 2 google accounts on one website - one for me one for an SEO company brought in) and it was ok. I personally only use google - which generates 80% of our traffic. But I can't imagine a situation where using yahoo/bing/google on the same website will cause any problems.
5,749
My boss asked me to setup a secured area online, which will contain all the FTP, MySQL etc details related to our web products. This online area must be secured and will only be accessible by the user we define. It should be easy to understand and should have functionality to download details in PDF or in word format etc. And should be able to handle following type of scenario: A client has 10 websites so we'll need to store FTP, MYSQL etc details related to 10 websites, so CMS should be able to accept and present the data in easy way. Do anyone has any suggestions for me to handle such kind scenario. Please help. Thanks!
2010/11/22
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/5749", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/3398/" ]
Not only can you, but it's my opinion that you should. Each of them offer their own variation of information. The biggest benefit is you'll be aware of any problems with a particular search engine by using all three (i.e. maybe Bing encounters an error crawling your website, but Y! & GG don't). The exception being that Yahoo! has switched to Bing search results, but their crawler is still chugging along.
[I asked](https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/5268/multiple-webmaster-tools-accounts-on-website) a while ago if it was ok to have multiple accounts of the same "brand" of webmasters tools (i.e. 2 google accounts on one website - one for me one for an SEO company brought in) and it was ok. I personally only use google - which generates 80% of our traffic. But I can't imagine a situation where using yahoo/bing/google on the same website will cause any problems.
5,749
My boss asked me to setup a secured area online, which will contain all the FTP, MySQL etc details related to our web products. This online area must be secured and will only be accessible by the user we define. It should be easy to understand and should have functionality to download details in PDF or in word format etc. And should be able to handle following type of scenario: A client has 10 websites so we'll need to store FTP, MYSQL etc details related to 10 websites, so CMS should be able to accept and present the data in easy way. Do anyone has any suggestions for me to handle such kind scenario. Please help. Thanks!
2010/11/22
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/5749", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/3398/" ]
You can use all three tools without penalty or issue. There's absolutely no reason for a search engine to levy a penalty on a website that uses tools that has no direct effect on the website itself (i.e. these tools aren't altering your code or using "techniques" to manipulate the search results). These tools are just informative. Nothing nefarious about them.
Not only can you, but it's my opinion that you should. Each of them offer their own variation of information. The biggest benefit is you'll be aware of any problems with a particular search engine by using all three (i.e. maybe Bing encounters an error crawling your website, but Y! & GG don't). The exception being that Yahoo! has switched to Bing search results, but their crawler is still chugging along.
12,094
How can I turn a given normal application into a Windows service under Windows XP? EDIT: This is a server application, so it has no GUI and does not require any input or output.
2009/05/25
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/12094", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/2272/" ]
Use [SRVANY.EXE](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/137890) from Windows \* Resource Kit For Cygwin applications Use [cygrunsrv](http://cygwin.com/packages/) (NT/W2K service initiator)
[FireDaemon](http://www.firedaemon.com/) is another option for doing this.
12,094
How can I turn a given normal application into a Windows service under Windows XP? EDIT: This is a server application, so it has no GUI and does not require any input or output.
2009/05/25
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/12094", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/2272/" ]
Also, once you successfully started your normal application as a service, I would suggest to test how the application behaves when you log off. Some applications (old ones?) don't like receiving the message that is sent when logging of or shutting down the computer.
[FireDaemon](http://www.firedaemon.com/) is another option for doing this.
29,475
My shower pan, made of gel-coated fiber glass, has three cracks, as shown in the photo below. The cracks radiate fairly straight from the drain in the center at twelve, four, and eight o'clock. (All of the other white streaks are just gel-coat coloring.) I ground away the cracks and filled them with epoxy, which seems to work okay for the time being. But I would like to know what my options are for a more permanent fix that won't significantly reduce the value. Replacing the pan is the last thing I want to do. The pan matches the shower walls and a whirlpool bath. A lot of things would have to come out to get to the pan, and I can't imagine a matching pan replacement would be found. I saw a video where someone had what appeared to be a process for this kind of repair. This involved what looked like an epoxied sheet that covers the entire pan bottom on the top side. I don't know what this is called and I don't know what kind of tradesman I should contact to do this sort of fix. (It doesn't seem like something that a plumber/pipe-fitter type would specialize in.) If someone can point me in the right direction for this, I would appreciate it. Any other ideas on what I can do and what is common for addressing this sort of problem would be appreciated. The shower is on the second floor and there is some water damage to the ceiling below. As I walk around the shower pan, I can hear some creaking, and I assume this will lead to flexing and open the cracks up again. I may need to resolve that, too, in the final fix. Does anyone have any suggestions about this? Also, help with the tags would be appreciated. **Update** From what I have seen in the answers and comments, I need to seriously reconsider how I might remove the pan from the top, remove the subfloor, mitigate any water damage between the subfloor and ceiling below, then rebuild in reverse. I need to understand how the pan is seated, so I have to examine the situation a little more. But I may be able (with some risk of damage) to remove the shower wall on the shower-head side and remove the short wall under the seat at the other end. Remove the glass enclosure (I did this once before, but I did a hell of a job gluing it back together :( )Without removing the wall opposite the glass door, I might be able to lift the pan out carefully. I have to disengage the drain first, and I don't know how that attaches to the pan. (Do I need to open up the ceiling below so I can get to it from there?) This sounds complicated mostly because I'm guessing how it's all put together and how things are fastened to each other. My goal would be to repair the pan rather than replace it. Putting it back together, I suppose I can strengthen the pan with fiberglass on the bottom. As for dealing with irregularities that could cause it to rock, isn't there something I can bed the pan onto the subfloor with? ![cracked and repaired shower pan](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Pxz9j.jpg)
2013/07/09
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/29475", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6048/" ]
You need to fall out of love with this pan - it is broke. Why would you want to go through all of this work and compromise your work with a broken pan? This is a decent size project - GET A NEW PAN. If you want cheap get a used (unbroken) pan off of craigslist. These pans are not that much compared to how much it will cost you to do this again.
You are trying to build a temple on a broken foundation. No amount of patching will fix the broken connection between the drain and the pan. Without some type of oversize flange drain (e.g., [Schluter Kerdi Drain](http://www.schluter.com/8_2_kerdi_drain_3963.aspx)), there is no way to transfer the water from a overlaid membrane into the drain proper, because the seal around the drain to the pan has failed. As far as the creaking goes, once you open up the ceiling, you will see if the subfloor is intact or water damaged. If intact, some cross bracing under the pan area can be installed (2x material of the same depth as the joists, can be hung with [joist hangers](http://www.manasquanfasteners.com/Simpson_LUS)). The typical source of the problem is insufficient web structure under the pan, allowing flexing. Another source is too large a cut-out of the subfloor and drain movement. AFA who, a contractor specializing in remodeling and baths. It is a blend of trades: plumbing, tile setting, carpentry, drywall.
29,475
My shower pan, made of gel-coated fiber glass, has three cracks, as shown in the photo below. The cracks radiate fairly straight from the drain in the center at twelve, four, and eight o'clock. (All of the other white streaks are just gel-coat coloring.) I ground away the cracks and filled them with epoxy, which seems to work okay for the time being. But I would like to know what my options are for a more permanent fix that won't significantly reduce the value. Replacing the pan is the last thing I want to do. The pan matches the shower walls and a whirlpool bath. A lot of things would have to come out to get to the pan, and I can't imagine a matching pan replacement would be found. I saw a video where someone had what appeared to be a process for this kind of repair. This involved what looked like an epoxied sheet that covers the entire pan bottom on the top side. I don't know what this is called and I don't know what kind of tradesman I should contact to do this sort of fix. (It doesn't seem like something that a plumber/pipe-fitter type would specialize in.) If someone can point me in the right direction for this, I would appreciate it. Any other ideas on what I can do and what is common for addressing this sort of problem would be appreciated. The shower is on the second floor and there is some water damage to the ceiling below. As I walk around the shower pan, I can hear some creaking, and I assume this will lead to flexing and open the cracks up again. I may need to resolve that, too, in the final fix. Does anyone have any suggestions about this? Also, help with the tags would be appreciated. **Update** From what I have seen in the answers and comments, I need to seriously reconsider how I might remove the pan from the top, remove the subfloor, mitigate any water damage between the subfloor and ceiling below, then rebuild in reverse. I need to understand how the pan is seated, so I have to examine the situation a little more. But I may be able (with some risk of damage) to remove the shower wall on the shower-head side and remove the short wall under the seat at the other end. Remove the glass enclosure (I did this once before, but I did a hell of a job gluing it back together :( )Without removing the wall opposite the glass door, I might be able to lift the pan out carefully. I have to disengage the drain first, and I don't know how that attaches to the pan. (Do I need to open up the ceiling below so I can get to it from there?) This sounds complicated mostly because I'm guessing how it's all put together and how things are fastened to each other. My goal would be to repair the pan rather than replace it. Putting it back together, I suppose I can strengthen the pan with fiberglass on the bottom. As for dealing with irregularities that could cause it to rock, isn't there something I can bed the pan onto the subfloor with? ![cracked and repaired shower pan](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Pxz9j.jpg)
2013/07/09
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/29475", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6048/" ]
You are trying to build a temple on a broken foundation. No amount of patching will fix the broken connection between the drain and the pan. Without some type of oversize flange drain (e.g., [Schluter Kerdi Drain](http://www.schluter.com/8_2_kerdi_drain_3963.aspx)), there is no way to transfer the water from a overlaid membrane into the drain proper, because the seal around the drain to the pan has failed. As far as the creaking goes, once you open up the ceiling, you will see if the subfloor is intact or water damaged. If intact, some cross bracing under the pan area can be installed (2x material of the same depth as the joists, can be hung with [joist hangers](http://www.manasquanfasteners.com/Simpson_LUS)). The typical source of the problem is insufficient web structure under the pan, allowing flexing. Another source is too large a cut-out of the subfloor and drain movement. AFA who, a contractor specializing in remodeling and baths. It is a blend of trades: plumbing, tile setting, carpentry, drywall.
I have recently repaired a cracked leaking shower pan. Here's the process I used: Use a 4" mini grinder with a 1/8" thick metal cutting wheel. If you think the drain to pipe connection has failed, mark an 8 to 10 in. square around the drain, then cut through the pan. A short blade jig saw will work for this part and makes less dust, it's just a little slower. Lift out the loose pieces of pan and inspect. If there's little to no structural damage to the floor decking and ceiling joists, clean and paint mildewed wood with Terminate Wood Preservative and Treatment. Cut out remaining cracks to a width of 1" to 2". Mix Premixed mortar with water till it is pourable and spreads rather than piles up when poured on a flat surface. According to how large your pan is, you will use 4 to 5 or more 50 lb. bags. Fill the entire void under the pan to within a 1/4" of the surface; don't worry if you pour too much as you can scratch this out before it sets up. Give it 2 or 3 days to set up. Now mix and pour a 2 part fiberglass resin and pour to within a 1/16" of the surface. This is a little more tricky to get level right, so first apply tape around the edges and have rags and acetone on hand for clean up. Lowes, Home Depot etc., sell a tub and shower crack repair kit that you will mix and fill the remaining 1/16th inch depression to bring the surface flush with adjoining undamaged pan. Let cure and polish per kit instructions. NOTE: If upon your initial inspection, after you have removed the first pieces of pan, you find more than minimal damage/rot you must make necessary repairs to the floor decking and joist from underneath and then continue as described above.
29,475
My shower pan, made of gel-coated fiber glass, has three cracks, as shown in the photo below. The cracks radiate fairly straight from the drain in the center at twelve, four, and eight o'clock. (All of the other white streaks are just gel-coat coloring.) I ground away the cracks and filled them with epoxy, which seems to work okay for the time being. But I would like to know what my options are for a more permanent fix that won't significantly reduce the value. Replacing the pan is the last thing I want to do. The pan matches the shower walls and a whirlpool bath. A lot of things would have to come out to get to the pan, and I can't imagine a matching pan replacement would be found. I saw a video where someone had what appeared to be a process for this kind of repair. This involved what looked like an epoxied sheet that covers the entire pan bottom on the top side. I don't know what this is called and I don't know what kind of tradesman I should contact to do this sort of fix. (It doesn't seem like something that a plumber/pipe-fitter type would specialize in.) If someone can point me in the right direction for this, I would appreciate it. Any other ideas on what I can do and what is common for addressing this sort of problem would be appreciated. The shower is on the second floor and there is some water damage to the ceiling below. As I walk around the shower pan, I can hear some creaking, and I assume this will lead to flexing and open the cracks up again. I may need to resolve that, too, in the final fix. Does anyone have any suggestions about this? Also, help with the tags would be appreciated. **Update** From what I have seen in the answers and comments, I need to seriously reconsider how I might remove the pan from the top, remove the subfloor, mitigate any water damage between the subfloor and ceiling below, then rebuild in reverse. I need to understand how the pan is seated, so I have to examine the situation a little more. But I may be able (with some risk of damage) to remove the shower wall on the shower-head side and remove the short wall under the seat at the other end. Remove the glass enclosure (I did this once before, but I did a hell of a job gluing it back together :( )Without removing the wall opposite the glass door, I might be able to lift the pan out carefully. I have to disengage the drain first, and I don't know how that attaches to the pan. (Do I need to open up the ceiling below so I can get to it from there?) This sounds complicated mostly because I'm guessing how it's all put together and how things are fastened to each other. My goal would be to repair the pan rather than replace it. Putting it back together, I suppose I can strengthen the pan with fiberglass on the bottom. As for dealing with irregularities that could cause it to rock, isn't there something I can bed the pan onto the subfloor with? ![cracked and repaired shower pan](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Pxz9j.jpg)
2013/07/09
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/29475", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6048/" ]
You need to fall out of love with this pan - it is broke. Why would you want to go through all of this work and compromise your work with a broken pan? This is a decent size project - GET A NEW PAN. If you want cheap get a used (unbroken) pan off of craigslist. These pans are not that much compared to how much it will cost you to do this again.
What you need is called an Tub Inlay. It consists of what appears to be a bathmat that is fused to the shower floor giving it strength. Look for a local tub refinishing company, many of them provide this service. Make sure you ask about the adhesive they use. You want to make sure the adhesive being used fuses the inlay to the shower pan and not just glues it down. All the DIY kits I have seen merely glue it down. This will cause problems over time. The down side is that you will be limited in color. Usually they are bone or white. If you need help locating someone that can help you, let me know.
29,475
My shower pan, made of gel-coated fiber glass, has three cracks, as shown in the photo below. The cracks radiate fairly straight from the drain in the center at twelve, four, and eight o'clock. (All of the other white streaks are just gel-coat coloring.) I ground away the cracks and filled them with epoxy, which seems to work okay for the time being. But I would like to know what my options are for a more permanent fix that won't significantly reduce the value. Replacing the pan is the last thing I want to do. The pan matches the shower walls and a whirlpool bath. A lot of things would have to come out to get to the pan, and I can't imagine a matching pan replacement would be found. I saw a video where someone had what appeared to be a process for this kind of repair. This involved what looked like an epoxied sheet that covers the entire pan bottom on the top side. I don't know what this is called and I don't know what kind of tradesman I should contact to do this sort of fix. (It doesn't seem like something that a plumber/pipe-fitter type would specialize in.) If someone can point me in the right direction for this, I would appreciate it. Any other ideas on what I can do and what is common for addressing this sort of problem would be appreciated. The shower is on the second floor and there is some water damage to the ceiling below. As I walk around the shower pan, I can hear some creaking, and I assume this will lead to flexing and open the cracks up again. I may need to resolve that, too, in the final fix. Does anyone have any suggestions about this? Also, help with the tags would be appreciated. **Update** From what I have seen in the answers and comments, I need to seriously reconsider how I might remove the pan from the top, remove the subfloor, mitigate any water damage between the subfloor and ceiling below, then rebuild in reverse. I need to understand how the pan is seated, so I have to examine the situation a little more. But I may be able (with some risk of damage) to remove the shower wall on the shower-head side and remove the short wall under the seat at the other end. Remove the glass enclosure (I did this once before, but I did a hell of a job gluing it back together :( )Without removing the wall opposite the glass door, I might be able to lift the pan out carefully. I have to disengage the drain first, and I don't know how that attaches to the pan. (Do I need to open up the ceiling below so I can get to it from there?) This sounds complicated mostly because I'm guessing how it's all put together and how things are fastened to each other. My goal would be to repair the pan rather than replace it. Putting it back together, I suppose I can strengthen the pan with fiberglass on the bottom. As for dealing with irregularities that could cause it to rock, isn't there something I can bed the pan onto the subfloor with? ![cracked and repaired shower pan](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Pxz9j.jpg)
2013/07/09
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/29475", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6048/" ]
You need to fall out of love with this pan - it is broke. Why would you want to go through all of this work and compromise your work with a broken pan? This is a decent size project - GET A NEW PAN. If you want cheap get a used (unbroken) pan off of craigslist. These pans are not that much compared to how much it will cost you to do this again.
I have recently repaired a cracked leaking shower pan. Here's the process I used: Use a 4" mini grinder with a 1/8" thick metal cutting wheel. If you think the drain to pipe connection has failed, mark an 8 to 10 in. square around the drain, then cut through the pan. A short blade jig saw will work for this part and makes less dust, it's just a little slower. Lift out the loose pieces of pan and inspect. If there's little to no structural damage to the floor decking and ceiling joists, clean and paint mildewed wood with Terminate Wood Preservative and Treatment. Cut out remaining cracks to a width of 1" to 2". Mix Premixed mortar with water till it is pourable and spreads rather than piles up when poured on a flat surface. According to how large your pan is, you will use 4 to 5 or more 50 lb. bags. Fill the entire void under the pan to within a 1/4" of the surface; don't worry if you pour too much as you can scratch this out before it sets up. Give it 2 or 3 days to set up. Now mix and pour a 2 part fiberglass resin and pour to within a 1/16" of the surface. This is a little more tricky to get level right, so first apply tape around the edges and have rags and acetone on hand for clean up. Lowes, Home Depot etc., sell a tub and shower crack repair kit that you will mix and fill the remaining 1/16th inch depression to bring the surface flush with adjoining undamaged pan. Let cure and polish per kit instructions. NOTE: If upon your initial inspection, after you have removed the first pieces of pan, you find more than minimal damage/rot you must make necessary repairs to the floor decking and joist from underneath and then continue as described above.
29,475
My shower pan, made of gel-coated fiber glass, has three cracks, as shown in the photo below. The cracks radiate fairly straight from the drain in the center at twelve, four, and eight o'clock. (All of the other white streaks are just gel-coat coloring.) I ground away the cracks and filled them with epoxy, which seems to work okay for the time being. But I would like to know what my options are for a more permanent fix that won't significantly reduce the value. Replacing the pan is the last thing I want to do. The pan matches the shower walls and a whirlpool bath. A lot of things would have to come out to get to the pan, and I can't imagine a matching pan replacement would be found. I saw a video where someone had what appeared to be a process for this kind of repair. This involved what looked like an epoxied sheet that covers the entire pan bottom on the top side. I don't know what this is called and I don't know what kind of tradesman I should contact to do this sort of fix. (It doesn't seem like something that a plumber/pipe-fitter type would specialize in.) If someone can point me in the right direction for this, I would appreciate it. Any other ideas on what I can do and what is common for addressing this sort of problem would be appreciated. The shower is on the second floor and there is some water damage to the ceiling below. As I walk around the shower pan, I can hear some creaking, and I assume this will lead to flexing and open the cracks up again. I may need to resolve that, too, in the final fix. Does anyone have any suggestions about this? Also, help with the tags would be appreciated. **Update** From what I have seen in the answers and comments, I need to seriously reconsider how I might remove the pan from the top, remove the subfloor, mitigate any water damage between the subfloor and ceiling below, then rebuild in reverse. I need to understand how the pan is seated, so I have to examine the situation a little more. But I may be able (with some risk of damage) to remove the shower wall on the shower-head side and remove the short wall under the seat at the other end. Remove the glass enclosure (I did this once before, but I did a hell of a job gluing it back together :( )Without removing the wall opposite the glass door, I might be able to lift the pan out carefully. I have to disengage the drain first, and I don't know how that attaches to the pan. (Do I need to open up the ceiling below so I can get to it from there?) This sounds complicated mostly because I'm guessing how it's all put together and how things are fastened to each other. My goal would be to repair the pan rather than replace it. Putting it back together, I suppose I can strengthen the pan with fiberglass on the bottom. As for dealing with irregularities that could cause it to rock, isn't there something I can bed the pan onto the subfloor with? ![cracked and repaired shower pan](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Pxz9j.jpg)
2013/07/09
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/29475", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6048/" ]
What you need is called an Tub Inlay. It consists of what appears to be a bathmat that is fused to the shower floor giving it strength. Look for a local tub refinishing company, many of them provide this service. Make sure you ask about the adhesive they use. You want to make sure the adhesive being used fuses the inlay to the shower pan and not just glues it down. All the DIY kits I have seen merely glue it down. This will cause problems over time. The down side is that you will be limited in color. Usually they are bone or white. If you need help locating someone that can help you, let me know.
I have recently repaired a cracked leaking shower pan. Here's the process I used: Use a 4" mini grinder with a 1/8" thick metal cutting wheel. If you think the drain to pipe connection has failed, mark an 8 to 10 in. square around the drain, then cut through the pan. A short blade jig saw will work for this part and makes less dust, it's just a little slower. Lift out the loose pieces of pan and inspect. If there's little to no structural damage to the floor decking and ceiling joists, clean and paint mildewed wood with Terminate Wood Preservative and Treatment. Cut out remaining cracks to a width of 1" to 2". Mix Premixed mortar with water till it is pourable and spreads rather than piles up when poured on a flat surface. According to how large your pan is, you will use 4 to 5 or more 50 lb. bags. Fill the entire void under the pan to within a 1/4" of the surface; don't worry if you pour too much as you can scratch this out before it sets up. Give it 2 or 3 days to set up. Now mix and pour a 2 part fiberglass resin and pour to within a 1/16" of the surface. This is a little more tricky to get level right, so first apply tape around the edges and have rags and acetone on hand for clean up. Lowes, Home Depot etc., sell a tub and shower crack repair kit that you will mix and fill the remaining 1/16th inch depression to bring the surface flush with adjoining undamaged pan. Let cure and polish per kit instructions. NOTE: If upon your initial inspection, after you have removed the first pieces of pan, you find more than minimal damage/rot you must make necessary repairs to the floor decking and joist from underneath and then continue as described above.
59,041,787
I have integrated GitLab CE and Jenkins. There is a GitLab hook that is triggered when a merge request is created. A Jenkins pipeline then executes all the integration tests and accepts the merge if everything pass. I also have another hook for when code is pushed, but in this case just the unit tests are executed. Everything runs fine, but if there is an open MR and a fix is pushed to the branch, both hooks are triggered. The push hook executes the unit tests, and the MR hooks also executes the unit tests and the integration tests. This first execution is useless. If there is a MR open in GitLab, how do I prevent the push hook to be triggered? To quickly abort the push build in Jenkins is also a good solution. Edit: I don't want to have two Jenkins jobs. We've tried it and our users get confused. We also need to maintain the code for two jobs.
2019/11/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/59041787", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10335/" ]
> > Edit: I don't want to have two Jenkins jobs. We've tried it and our users get confused. We also need to maintain the code for two jobs. > > > In this case, the [Generic Webhook Trigger](https://plugins.jenkins.io/generic-webhook-trigger) will help you to configure **execution only for specific webhook token.** You might also check those plugins [Conditional Build Step](https://plugins.jenkins.io/conditional-buildstep) and [Run Condition](https://plugins.jenkins.io/run-condition) they allow you to specify on which condition a job is executed. Solution suggested before edit : When a merge request is opened you want to prevent the push hook to be triggered. In order to do so in your Jenkins Pipeline, in the Build Triggers section tick the following : * *Build when a change is pushed to GitLab. GitLab CI Service URL:* + Opened Merge Requests Events [![Jenkins_pipeline_BuildTriggers_configuration](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uQMbf.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uQMbf.png) In GitLab, go to Settings > Integrations and in your WebHook only tick the following : [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IlAzT.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IlAzT.png) This way you have a pipeline that is **only triggered by Opened Merge Requests Events.** You said that : > > The push hook executes the unit tests, and the MR hooks also executes the unit tests and the integration tests. This first execution is useless. > > > From my understanding **you only need the MR hook to be triggered**, since it also executes unit tests. But if you need unit test to be executed **on push events**, you should create a new job or a new pipeline that is triggered **only by Push Events.** In order to do so in your Jenkins Pipeline or job, in the Build Triggers section tick the following : * *Build when a change is pushed to GitLab. GitLab CI Service URL:* + Push Events [![Jenkins_BuildTriggers_configuration_onlyPushEvents](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HQ8gy.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HQ8gy.png) In GitLab, go to Settings > Integrations and in your WebHook only tick the following : [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/r5Gtz.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/r5Gtz.png) That way when a fix is pushed only this job or pipeline will be executed (only unit tests). And when a Merge Request is created only the pipeline associated with this event is executed (all tests).
There are different types of events which can be added for a Jenkins Job, so in your case you have to do:- 1. Add only "Push events" for the Job in which you want the build when code is pushed. 2. Add only "Merge request events" for the Job in which you want the build when merge request is raised. Please refer the below while adding the webhooks in GitLab:- [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/l56Fy.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/l56Fy.png) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8y0X6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8y0X6.png)
193,899
When I was much younger (1980's), my brother and I recall watching a movie at a sci-fi convention. The premise of the movie is that there's some white paste, resembling marshmallow fluff, that enters the market and everyone eats it and starts acting mysteriously, and becomes addicted to eating it and forcing others to eat it. There are two very distinct scenes I can remember: 1. The protagonist, a kid, was being sat down at the table and forced by his (very 80s looking) family to eat the paste. The boy runs to the bathroom and grabs some toothpaste, and replaces his dinner plate with that in order to convince his fanatic family that he has indulged in the stuff. 2. Later on, possibly after a chase scene, they get to a manufacturing plant which actually turns out to be some machines that were actually just harvesting the stuff out of the ground (possibly via mining) but had been collected into a giant pool. I seem to remember the name of the product being "Stuff", but I am not 100% sure on this.
2018/08/30
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/193899", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/103076/" ]
This is [*The Stuff*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Stuff) (1985) > > Several railroad workers discover a yogurt-like white substance bubbling out of the ground. These workers find it to be sweet and addictive. Later, the substance, marketed as "The Stuff," is being sold to the general public in containers like ice cream. It is marketed as having no calories and as being sweet, creamy, and filling. The Stuff quickly becomes a nationwide craze and drastically hurts the sales of ice cream. > > >
[*The Stuff*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Stuff) (1985) is clearly what you are remembering. > > Several railroad workers discover a yogurt-like white substance bubbling out of the ground. These workers find it to be sweet and addictive. Later, the substance, marketed as "The Stuff," is being sold to the general public in containers like ice cream. It is marketed as having no calories and as being sweet, creamy, and filling. The Stuff quickly becomes a nationwide craze and drastically hurts the sales of ice cream. > > > [...] > > > Under their commissions, Rutherford conducts an investigation into The Stuff. His efforts reveal, to his initial horror, that the craze for the dessert is far deadlier than anyone had believed: The Stuff is actually a living, parasitic, and possibly sentient organism that gradually takes over the brain; it then mutates those who eat it into bizarre zombie-like creatures, before consuming them from the inside and leaving them literal empty shells of their former selves. > > > A young boy named Jason also discovers The Stuff is alive and sees how it affects his family and how they are adamant towards his beliefs on The Stuff. He gets arrested for vandalizing a supermarket display of The Stuff, attracting the attention of Rutherford, who comes to his aid. > > >
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
Ask yourself the following before you press the shutter: 1 - **Is it a good location?** I'm quite familiar with that location so I'll mention some specifics: the Longfellow bridge is a beautiful view in person, but there are 2 flaws that make it tough to produce a compelling photo. (1) It's a narrow bridge, roughly a quarter mile long but the sidewalk is 2 feet wide. So your **options for composition are very limited**. (2) You're about a half mile away from land, with a lot of water and sky in the way, so it doesn't always lend itself to wide-angle shots. In general **you want to get as close as you can**. In addition you want to make sure everything in the frame is something you want in the frame. It doesn't really apply here since the view is nice, but if there's a big ugly water tower or boarded up building in the way, that may not be something you want. 2 - **Is it a unique location?** As you said, it's postcard pretty. Meaning everyone who comes by wants to get that shot. And since the bridge is so narrow, everyone is taking the exact same picture. And in this case I do mean as similar as you can get. Try taking a shot from somewhere people don't always do it. If you can get on a roof somewhere, that's great - everyone else is stuck with the same perspective at ground level. Or if you can figure out how to make a location that most people skip work for you, that's even better. For example, if there's a fence in the way, get right up to it and shoot with a wide aperture to hide it. 2.5 - **Is there something unique about the location RIGHT NOW?** All that said, you can make a great shot in a cliché location by being in the right spot at the right time. People have taken a trillion shots of the moon, but if you get a silhouette hot air balloon or bald eagle right in front of it, that's pretty cool. As far as a skyline goes, are the buildings lit up a funny color for a sports team? Are there fireworks? Are the Blue Angels flying overhead? These are just a couple ideas. 3 - **Is the image well-composed?** You should always be asking this, but just a refresher - is everything that I want in the image, actually in the image? Is there anything in there that I don't want in there? The good thing about cityscapes is you usually have time to recompose, try again if some ugly tourist hat pops up in front of you. In this case, the boats are really nice - they add some interest to the image. On the other hand, that bird in the top middle is distracting. 4 - **What's compelling about the image?** Last, why are you taking the picture? You have to ask yourself is it just a nice snapshot, or are you trying to show something. What's special about this that I'm taking a picture of it? Do the colors look special at sunset, is there motion that you can freeze, or can you add motion by using a slower shutter speed? There's nothing "wrong" with a snapshot, but generally there's no artistic intent in there. What's your intent?
Some possibilities are to look for stand-out items or different perspectives or elements which look different. (OK - why not just summarise that as striking and/or different?). Many landscapes tend to not have much detail, so getting something to stand out can be difficult. So involving the foreground which is close so that it can look big can help. There is of course the risk that you are converting the photo to "Thing with landscape backdrop" rather than "landscape". I like taking (at least some) shots which are noticeably different - whether that makes them post card suitable is another matter. Imagine a view of a railway station taken at night. There may be some signs and railings and track, and a platform and maybe a building. Akin to a middle distance landscape. Does your mental picture look like anything like the photo below? You said your sample photo was from an esplanade. Does it have railings, vanishing points, a wall etc ? **Look for trains ...** ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cbjqi.jpg) --- [**Here's a landscape**](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=213517312055105&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - actually more sea than land but I think it qualifies. Please excuse the noisiness - as I recall it's a crop and I think it wa a somewhat hurried shot for reasons which will be obvious when viewed. That may be too far away from what you want to do with a landscape, but maybe not. Taken from somewhat higher up [this is a landscape - or a city scape](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=209574435782726&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - taken lower down wit the foreground getting in the way of the nice view it's something else. Maybe too far away from what you want. Not a bad postcard though :-). Fog and mist can help. Especially if transitioning. This is not photoshopped - just standard adjustments as they say. You may have to wait a while for this sort of thing but other versions that remove details occur. Sunrise, sunset, rain ... . ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tppdi.jpg) [Same again but totally different](http://a6.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-snc6/257729_152989398107897_100001905146167_332635_6225119_o.jpg) - 95%+ of the time this is a very pretty but very normal city view. But on some days ... . [Look for some visual props](http://a8.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-ash4/259710_148742238532613_100001905146167_304170_2924681_o.jpg) - one this good may be hard to find on some occasions. Anon ...
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
Ask yourself the following before you press the shutter: 1 - **Is it a good location?** I'm quite familiar with that location so I'll mention some specifics: the Longfellow bridge is a beautiful view in person, but there are 2 flaws that make it tough to produce a compelling photo. (1) It's a narrow bridge, roughly a quarter mile long but the sidewalk is 2 feet wide. So your **options for composition are very limited**. (2) You're about a half mile away from land, with a lot of water and sky in the way, so it doesn't always lend itself to wide-angle shots. In general **you want to get as close as you can**. In addition you want to make sure everything in the frame is something you want in the frame. It doesn't really apply here since the view is nice, but if there's a big ugly water tower or boarded up building in the way, that may not be something you want. 2 - **Is it a unique location?** As you said, it's postcard pretty. Meaning everyone who comes by wants to get that shot. And since the bridge is so narrow, everyone is taking the exact same picture. And in this case I do mean as similar as you can get. Try taking a shot from somewhere people don't always do it. If you can get on a roof somewhere, that's great - everyone else is stuck with the same perspective at ground level. Or if you can figure out how to make a location that most people skip work for you, that's even better. For example, if there's a fence in the way, get right up to it and shoot with a wide aperture to hide it. 2.5 - **Is there something unique about the location RIGHT NOW?** All that said, you can make a great shot in a cliché location by being in the right spot at the right time. People have taken a trillion shots of the moon, but if you get a silhouette hot air balloon or bald eagle right in front of it, that's pretty cool. As far as a skyline goes, are the buildings lit up a funny color for a sports team? Are there fireworks? Are the Blue Angels flying overhead? These are just a couple ideas. 3 - **Is the image well-composed?** You should always be asking this, but just a refresher - is everything that I want in the image, actually in the image? Is there anything in there that I don't want in there? The good thing about cityscapes is you usually have time to recompose, try again if some ugly tourist hat pops up in front of you. In this case, the boats are really nice - they add some interest to the image. On the other hand, that bird in the top middle is distracting. 4 - **What's compelling about the image?** Last, why are you taking the picture? You have to ask yourself is it just a nice snapshot, or are you trying to show something. What's special about this that I'm taking a picture of it? Do the colors look special at sunset, is there motion that you can freeze, or can you add motion by using a slower shutter speed? There's nothing "wrong" with a snapshot, but generally there's no artistic intent in there. What's your intent?
My 5 cents: Some nature's effects will be a good (or maybe the best) option on this photo. **Clouds**: before weather change, for example before storm, or big clouds of interested forms. **Fog**: in the morning before, or just during sunrise. **Time**: sunrise or sunset or eclipse of the sun! :) (I don't that place, maybe it's impossible to catch the sun from "useful" point). **Composition**: big ship, or ordered line or yacht (regatta), fire ship: some object to "cheer up" this composition. **[Fireworks](http://500px.com/photo/8004974)**: maybe it's possible.
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
Ask yourself the following before you press the shutter: 1 - **Is it a good location?** I'm quite familiar with that location so I'll mention some specifics: the Longfellow bridge is a beautiful view in person, but there are 2 flaws that make it tough to produce a compelling photo. (1) It's a narrow bridge, roughly a quarter mile long but the sidewalk is 2 feet wide. So your **options for composition are very limited**. (2) You're about a half mile away from land, with a lot of water and sky in the way, so it doesn't always lend itself to wide-angle shots. In general **you want to get as close as you can**. In addition you want to make sure everything in the frame is something you want in the frame. It doesn't really apply here since the view is nice, but if there's a big ugly water tower or boarded up building in the way, that may not be something you want. 2 - **Is it a unique location?** As you said, it's postcard pretty. Meaning everyone who comes by wants to get that shot. And since the bridge is so narrow, everyone is taking the exact same picture. And in this case I do mean as similar as you can get. Try taking a shot from somewhere people don't always do it. If you can get on a roof somewhere, that's great - everyone else is stuck with the same perspective at ground level. Or if you can figure out how to make a location that most people skip work for you, that's even better. For example, if there's a fence in the way, get right up to it and shoot with a wide aperture to hide it. 2.5 - **Is there something unique about the location RIGHT NOW?** All that said, you can make a great shot in a cliché location by being in the right spot at the right time. People have taken a trillion shots of the moon, but if you get a silhouette hot air balloon or bald eagle right in front of it, that's pretty cool. As far as a skyline goes, are the buildings lit up a funny color for a sports team? Are there fireworks? Are the Blue Angels flying overhead? These are just a couple ideas. 3 - **Is the image well-composed?** You should always be asking this, but just a refresher - is everything that I want in the image, actually in the image? Is there anything in there that I don't want in there? The good thing about cityscapes is you usually have time to recompose, try again if some ugly tourist hat pops up in front of you. In this case, the boats are really nice - they add some interest to the image. On the other hand, that bird in the top middle is distracting. 4 - **What's compelling about the image?** Last, why are you taking the picture? You have to ask yourself is it just a nice snapshot, or are you trying to show something. What's special about this that I'm taking a picture of it? Do the colors look special at sunset, is there motion that you can freeze, or can you add motion by using a slower shutter speed? There's nothing "wrong" with a snapshot, but generally there's no artistic intent in there. What's your intent?
@DHall gave a good, complete answer. To give you a concrete example (and I have not stood on the same bridge as you did so I don't have an apples-to-apples image), I shot this: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EmeRt.jpg) The differences between the two image (in my mind) are: * In your image, the skyline occupies so little of the image that its impact is very low. * In your image, nothing is distinctive about the clear sky or the blue water that hooks the viewer. Why I chose to show my image is that it features a sky, a skyline, and water in the foreground. The treatment is a bit different, though. I waited for a particular time of day when the water would work for me, giving me reflections and an abstract leading-in foreground (the lights on the ferry boat give additional motion to what would otherwise be a "nice" but static image). There is also something happening in the sky, so it's not just a canvas of solid color which detracts from the effectiveness of the skyline as a central component. You might have been more successful by cropping to a more "panoramic" aspect ratio, thereby emphasizing what's important and cropping out much of the sky and water, while still leaving enough to provide a sense of place: [![crop of example image](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
My 5 cents: Some nature's effects will be a good (or maybe the best) option on this photo. **Clouds**: before weather change, for example before storm, or big clouds of interested forms. **Fog**: in the morning before, or just during sunrise. **Time**: sunrise or sunset or eclipse of the sun! :) (I don't that place, maybe it's impossible to catch the sun from "useful" point). **Composition**: big ship, or ordered line or yacht (regatta), fire ship: some object to "cheer up" this composition. **[Fireworks](http://500px.com/photo/8004974)**: maybe it's possible.
Some possibilities are to look for stand-out items or different perspectives or elements which look different. (OK - why not just summarise that as striking and/or different?). Many landscapes tend to not have much detail, so getting something to stand out can be difficult. So involving the foreground which is close so that it can look big can help. There is of course the risk that you are converting the photo to "Thing with landscape backdrop" rather than "landscape". I like taking (at least some) shots which are noticeably different - whether that makes them post card suitable is another matter. Imagine a view of a railway station taken at night. There may be some signs and railings and track, and a platform and maybe a building. Akin to a middle distance landscape. Does your mental picture look like anything like the photo below? You said your sample photo was from an esplanade. Does it have railings, vanishing points, a wall etc ? **Look for trains ...** ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cbjqi.jpg) --- [**Here's a landscape**](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=213517312055105&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - actually more sea than land but I think it qualifies. Please excuse the noisiness - as I recall it's a crop and I think it wa a somewhat hurried shot for reasons which will be obvious when viewed. That may be too far away from what you want to do with a landscape, but maybe not. Taken from somewhat higher up [this is a landscape - or a city scape](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=209574435782726&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - taken lower down wit the foreground getting in the way of the nice view it's something else. Maybe too far away from what you want. Not a bad postcard though :-). Fog and mist can help. Especially if transitioning. This is not photoshopped - just standard adjustments as they say. You may have to wait a while for this sort of thing but other versions that remove details occur. Sunrise, sunset, rain ... . ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tppdi.jpg) [Same again but totally different](http://a6.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-snc6/257729_152989398107897_100001905146167_332635_6225119_o.jpg) - 95%+ of the time this is a very pretty but very normal city view. But on some days ... . [Look for some visual props](http://a8.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-ash4/259710_148742238532613_100001905146167_304170_2924681_o.jpg) - one this good may be hard to find on some occasions. Anon ...
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
@DHall gave a good, complete answer. To give you a concrete example (and I have not stood on the same bridge as you did so I don't have an apples-to-apples image), I shot this: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EmeRt.jpg) The differences between the two image (in my mind) are: * In your image, the skyline occupies so little of the image that its impact is very low. * In your image, nothing is distinctive about the clear sky or the blue water that hooks the viewer. Why I chose to show my image is that it features a sky, a skyline, and water in the foreground. The treatment is a bit different, though. I waited for a particular time of day when the water would work for me, giving me reflections and an abstract leading-in foreground (the lights on the ferry boat give additional motion to what would otherwise be a "nice" but static image). There is also something happening in the sky, so it's not just a canvas of solid color which detracts from the effectiveness of the skyline as a central component. You might have been more successful by cropping to a more "panoramic" aspect ratio, thereby emphasizing what's important and cropping out much of the sky and water, while still leaving enough to provide a sense of place: [![crop of example image](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)
Some possibilities are to look for stand-out items or different perspectives or elements which look different. (OK - why not just summarise that as striking and/or different?). Many landscapes tend to not have much detail, so getting something to stand out can be difficult. So involving the foreground which is close so that it can look big can help. There is of course the risk that you are converting the photo to "Thing with landscape backdrop" rather than "landscape". I like taking (at least some) shots which are noticeably different - whether that makes them post card suitable is another matter. Imagine a view of a railway station taken at night. There may be some signs and railings and track, and a platform and maybe a building. Akin to a middle distance landscape. Does your mental picture look like anything like the photo below? You said your sample photo was from an esplanade. Does it have railings, vanishing points, a wall etc ? **Look for trains ...** ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cbjqi.jpg) --- [**Here's a landscape**](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=213517312055105&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - actually more sea than land but I think it qualifies. Please excuse the noisiness - as I recall it's a crop and I think it wa a somewhat hurried shot for reasons which will be obvious when viewed. That may be too far away from what you want to do with a landscape, but maybe not. Taken from somewhat higher up [this is a landscape - or a city scape](http://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=209574435782726&set=a.133775133362657.27663.100001905146167&type=3&theater) - taken lower down wit the foreground getting in the way of the nice view it's something else. Maybe too far away from what you want. Not a bad postcard though :-). Fog and mist can help. Especially if transitioning. This is not photoshopped - just standard adjustments as they say. You may have to wait a while for this sort of thing but other versions that remove details occur. Sunrise, sunset, rain ... . ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tppdi.jpg) [Same again but totally different](http://a6.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-snc6/257729_152989398107897_100001905146167_332635_6225119_o.jpg) - 95%+ of the time this is a very pretty but very normal city view. But on some days ... . [Look for some visual props](http://a8.sphotos.ak.fbcdn.net/hphotos-ak-ash4/259710_148742238532613_100001905146167_304170_2924681_o.jpg) - one this good may be hard to find on some occasions. Anon ...
23,820
I was down by Boston's Charles River Esplanade yesterday, and it was picture-postcard pretty. I took a break from my usual practice of taking pictures of my kids to take a picture of the view from the Longfellow Bridge: ![The Charles River and Back Bay neighborhood as seen from the Longfellow Bridge](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JbJHl.jpg) And yep, it's postcard pretty. It looks like one of a million generic images one can find on 50¢ postcards in corner stores all over town — and in every other town in the world with a slightly different scene. This is why I tend to make sure there's *people* in my pictures; I understand people and how they are unique and expressive, and can, in my best moments, make photographs of them that capture some of their special humanity. In a grand, metaphorical way, cities are often described as having personality — can one capture this in a cityscape photograph, or does that really only come out in street photography with *details* of people or architecture? I've seen some amazing cityscapes that did feel effective, but I can't really identify or quantify what it is about them that makes them work. One could obviously go all postmodern on this, and apply special effects either in camera or in post-processing. But I'm not talking about that. I'm wondering about the straight genre of cityscapes — how can I say something more than "forgettable done-before postcard image"?
2012/05/28
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/23820", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/1943/" ]
@DHall gave a good, complete answer. To give you a concrete example (and I have not stood on the same bridge as you did so I don't have an apples-to-apples image), I shot this: ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EmeRt.jpg) The differences between the two image (in my mind) are: * In your image, the skyline occupies so little of the image that its impact is very low. * In your image, nothing is distinctive about the clear sky or the blue water that hooks the viewer. Why I chose to show my image is that it features a sky, a skyline, and water in the foreground. The treatment is a bit different, though. I waited for a particular time of day when the water would work for me, giving me reflections and an abstract leading-in foreground (the lights on the ferry boat give additional motion to what would otherwise be a "nice" but static image). There is also something happening in the sky, so it's not just a canvas of solid color which detracts from the effectiveness of the skyline as a central component. You might have been more successful by cropping to a more "panoramic" aspect ratio, thereby emphasizing what's important and cropping out much of the sky and water, while still leaving enough to provide a sense of place: [![crop of example image](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YEKZz.jpg)
My 5 cents: Some nature's effects will be a good (or maybe the best) option on this photo. **Clouds**: before weather change, for example before storm, or big clouds of interested forms. **Fog**: in the morning before, or just during sunrise. **Time**: sunrise or sunset or eclipse of the sun! :) (I don't that place, maybe it's impossible to catch the sun from "useful" point). **Composition**: big ship, or ordered line or yacht (regatta), fire ship: some object to "cheer up" this composition. **[Fireworks](http://500px.com/photo/8004974)**: maybe it's possible.
645,113
I was wondering if anyone could tell me a little more about this: > > For the tests in Module 3 you need a clock generator that supplies single clock pulses with a well-defined positive (rising) and negative (falling) edge. This can be built using the 74HC14 hex Schmitt trigger (or a 74HC132 quad NAND Schmitt trigger with one pin connected high), by adding a capacitor and a resistor. > > > According to the circuit that I have on Logisim, two DFFs should be connected to a clock, but I don't know if it is the output on the schematic in the lab instructions that should be connected to 1CLK and 2CLK respectively on the DFF. Picture: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CyZN3m.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CyZN3m.jpg) Picture of my circuit from logisim: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/C49KN.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/C49KN.png) For reference, the circuits I have at my disposal are these: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PyEQa.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PyEQa.jpg) If you need more information I could happily provide them. The breadboard we are using have 60 columns across the bus terminals. We are only allowed to use one breadboard.
2022/12/05
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/645113", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/326152/" ]
> > For the tests in Module 3 you need a clock generator that supplies single clock pulses with a well-defined positive (rising) and negative (falling) edge. > > > What this means, in this context, is that your clock should have edges that rise and fall sharply. In addition, the clock should not "chatter" (i.e. give you multiple rising and falling edges) each time the button is pressed or released. The given circuit is a debounce circuit, that conditions the signal from the switch to do just that. The input to the Schmitt trigger will rise or fall slowly, and may not do so monotonically (search on "switch debounce" for an explanation of why). If the circuit is designed correctly for the given switch, the *output* of the Schmitt trigger will snap from low to high, and high to low, once for each switch press or release, and as fast as the Schmitt trigger can drive it. For reference, if you look at the data sheets for your D flip flops, you'll see that they have a minimum rise and a minimum fall time specified -- many clocked circuit needs to have a sharp edge on the clock, or they get confused. This sets the requirement for that "well defined" clock edge.
The first circuit is designed to debounce the switch. As shown it should work provided the time constant of R2 and C are significantly longer than the expected bounce time of the switch (typically a few milliseconds). Virtually any Schmitt trigger IC will do the job, you only appear to have the 74HC14 available. And yes, the debounced clock should be connected to both clock inputs of the d-type flipflops. Your diagram is almost the same as circuit "C" in [this article](https://www.circuitbasics.com/switch-debouncing/). By the way, what is the logic circuit supposed to do? I'm sure I've seen something very similar in another recent question here.
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
As far as our subjective opinions are concerned, the primary use of flip-flop for me is a set of logic gates that comprise a single bit of memory. But that's just me and I don't think this would have any impact. The secondary meaning is a person (politician) who changes allegiances (and opinions) to be always "with the winner", a person of dubious morals and no loyalty, attaching no value for own declarations. This is a definitely negative connotation and it could be a popular meaning with an impact.
*Flip-flops*, as you probably know, are a kind of footwear worn without socks and of which one part passes between the big toe and the adjacent toe. The name comes from the way in which the sole oscillates between the ground and the sole of the foot. They are known in some places as thongs. Some British politicians have used the term to suggest the inconstancy of opponents. On the whole, it has connotations of triviality and is, I’d have thought, best avoided for any serious purpose.
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
I would associate the phrase *Flip-flop nation* with the sort of poverty illustrated here... ![Poverty in the Congo](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fSzIA.jpg) ...where it's implied that the entire nation is only shod in flip-flops, if that. I suppose that this depend on the understanding of *flip-flop,* which I take to be the rather fetching pink footwear at the bottom-left of the picture (as opposed to electronic devices or politicians). Consequently the phrase is undesirable. You would be contrasting the affluence of those who can afford to visit far-flung places with the inhabitants of those countries. (Image from *[What Shoes Gotta Do With It?](http://www.endingextremepoverty.org/2011/02/what-shoes-gotta-do-with-it.html)*, purely as an illustration, not a political statement)
*Flip-flops*, as you probably know, are a kind of footwear worn without socks and of which one part passes between the big toe and the adjacent toe. The name comes from the way in which the sole oscillates between the ground and the sole of the foot. They are known in some places as thongs. Some British politicians have used the term to suggest the inconstancy of opponents. On the whole, it has connotations of triviality and is, I’d have thought, best avoided for any serious purpose.
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
As far as our subjective opinions are concerned, the primary use of flip-flop for me is a set of logic gates that comprise a single bit of memory. But that's just me and I don't think this would have any impact. The secondary meaning is a person (politician) who changes allegiances (and opinions) to be always "with the winner", a person of dubious morals and no loyalty, attaching no value for own declarations. This is a definitely negative connotation and it could be a popular meaning with an impact.
I'm having a hard time making the jump from *flip flop* to travel and multicultural experiences. Perhaps *to and fro* carries the connotation that you're trying to convey? From NOAD: > > **to and fro** *noun* constant movement backward and forward > >                                     • constant change in action, attitude, or focus. > > > Whereas for flip-flop: > > **flip-flop** > *noun* > 1 a light sandal, typically of plastic or rubber, with a thong between the big and 2nd toe. > > 2 a backward somersault or handspring. > > 3 informal an abrupt reversal of policy : *his flip-flop on taxes*. > > 4 Electronics a switching circuit that works by changing from one stable state to another, or through an unstable state back to its stable state, in response to a triggering pulse. > > > *verb* [intrans.] > 1 [with adverbial of direction] move with a flapping sound or motion : *she flip-flopped off the porch in battered sneakers*. > > 2 perform a backward somersault or handspring : [figurative] *Julie's stomach flip-flopped*. > > 3 [informal] make an abrupt reversal of policy : *the candidate flip-flopped on a number of issues.* > > > Then again, I don't know if *To-and-Fro Nation* would be catchy enough for your tastes. Also, *to and fro* can have negative connotations of its own; NOAD also says: > > **to and fro** *verb* move constantly backward and forward > >                                    • repeatedly discuss or think about something without making any progress. > > >
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
As far as our subjective opinions are concerned, the primary use of flip-flop for me is a set of logic gates that comprise a single bit of memory. But that's just me and I don't think this would have any impact. The secondary meaning is a person (politician) who changes allegiances (and opinions) to be always "with the winner", a person of dubious morals and no loyalty, attaching no value for own declarations. This is a definitely negative connotation and it could be a popular meaning with an impact.
I'll agree with others that "flip-flop" probably does not convey the idea you want. Yes, if I heard "Flip-Flop Nation", my first thought would be, "country of people who change their minds constantly". Next thought would be "country of people who wear sandals". If told neither of these were correct, I might think of SF's definition and say "country where electronic logic circuits are fabricated". Perhaps you need to clarify what you DO want to say. Are you trying to say "nation of people who travel a lot"? "Nation of people who know a lot about other cultures"? Literal phrases would be "Travelling Nation", "Well-travelled nation", "Wandering Nation", "Mobile Nation", "Culturally-Aware Nation", "Culturally-Sensitive Nation", "Global Nation", "Nation of World Learners", etc, though none of those are particularly clever or catchy and most or all are subject to alternative interpretations. I'm not sure if you consider "nation" an essential part of the phrase. Perhaps something more along the lines of "Global Travellers", "Culture Travellers", "International Awareness", etc etc.
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
I would associate the phrase *Flip-flop nation* with the sort of poverty illustrated here... ![Poverty in the Congo](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fSzIA.jpg) ...where it's implied that the entire nation is only shod in flip-flops, if that. I suppose that this depend on the understanding of *flip-flop,* which I take to be the rather fetching pink footwear at the bottom-left of the picture (as opposed to electronic devices or politicians). Consequently the phrase is undesirable. You would be contrasting the affluence of those who can afford to visit far-flung places with the inhabitants of those countries. (Image from *[What Shoes Gotta Do With It?](http://www.endingextremepoverty.org/2011/02/what-shoes-gotta-do-with-it.html)*, purely as an illustration, not a political statement)
I'm having a hard time making the jump from *flip flop* to travel and multicultural experiences. Perhaps *to and fro* carries the connotation that you're trying to convey? From NOAD: > > **to and fro** *noun* constant movement backward and forward > >                                     • constant change in action, attitude, or focus. > > > Whereas for flip-flop: > > **flip-flop** > *noun* > 1 a light sandal, typically of plastic or rubber, with a thong between the big and 2nd toe. > > 2 a backward somersault or handspring. > > 3 informal an abrupt reversal of policy : *his flip-flop on taxes*. > > 4 Electronics a switching circuit that works by changing from one stable state to another, or through an unstable state back to its stable state, in response to a triggering pulse. > > > *verb* [intrans.] > 1 [with adverbial of direction] move with a flapping sound or motion : *she flip-flopped off the porch in battered sneakers*. > > 2 perform a backward somersault or handspring : [figurative] *Julie's stomach flip-flopped*. > > 3 [informal] make an abrupt reversal of policy : *the candidate flip-flopped on a number of issues.* > > > Then again, I don't know if *To-and-Fro Nation* would be catchy enough for your tastes. Also, *to and fro* can have negative connotations of its own; NOAD also says: > > **to and fro** *verb* move constantly backward and forward > >                                    • repeatedly discuss or think about something without making any progress. > > >
88,069
I need help with the connotation of the phrase *flip flop*. Let me explain – I am working on a small project that is meant to promote travelling and education through travelling and getting to know other cultures. I have to come up with a catchy name for it. “Flip-flop nation” came to mind but I was wondering if used in this way the phrase carries the right emotional association. I know that *flip flop* also has several negative meanings. I would appreciate any insight on this subject.
2012/10/25
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/88069", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/28948/" ]
I would associate the phrase *Flip-flop nation* with the sort of poverty illustrated here... ![Poverty in the Congo](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fSzIA.jpg) ...where it's implied that the entire nation is only shod in flip-flops, if that. I suppose that this depend on the understanding of *flip-flop,* which I take to be the rather fetching pink footwear at the bottom-left of the picture (as opposed to electronic devices or politicians). Consequently the phrase is undesirable. You would be contrasting the affluence of those who can afford to visit far-flung places with the inhabitants of those countries. (Image from *[What Shoes Gotta Do With It?](http://www.endingextremepoverty.org/2011/02/what-shoes-gotta-do-with-it.html)*, purely as an illustration, not a political statement)
I'll agree with others that "flip-flop" probably does not convey the idea you want. Yes, if I heard "Flip-Flop Nation", my first thought would be, "country of people who change their minds constantly". Next thought would be "country of people who wear sandals". If told neither of these were correct, I might think of SF's definition and say "country where electronic logic circuits are fabricated". Perhaps you need to clarify what you DO want to say. Are you trying to say "nation of people who travel a lot"? "Nation of people who know a lot about other cultures"? Literal phrases would be "Travelling Nation", "Well-travelled nation", "Wandering Nation", "Mobile Nation", "Culturally-Aware Nation", "Culturally-Sensitive Nation", "Global Nation", "Nation of World Learners", etc, though none of those are particularly clever or catchy and most or all are subject to alternative interpretations. I'm not sure if you consider "nation" an essential part of the phrase. Perhaps something more along the lines of "Global Travellers", "Culture Travellers", "International Awareness", etc etc.
30,564,442
Suppose you have a PHP script that (for whatever reason) takes several minutes to run. If the user closes the browser while the script is running, does the script stop running, or does it execute instructions up to the end of the script?
2015/06/01
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30564442", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2644137/" ]
PHP is a server-side language. All processing is done on the server, not in the client. Once the request is sent to the server, the client loses control over it. This means that the server's configuration on timing out will come into effect on such long queries, but closing your browser will have no effect. If you have used client-side (such as javascript) to submit multiple requests to the server-side language over a 5 minute time period, then yes, closing the browser will in fact interupt that process and prevent it from completing. A good read about the differences if you wanted to read it: <https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/171203/what-are-the-differences-between-server-side-and-client-side-programming>
There's not a reliable way for the server to know that the client no longer cares about the request. In general, it will keep running until something stops it.
207,325
> > There are no items for you to review, matching the filter "[vba] > [excel-vba]" > > > I know all I have been reviewing lately have had a filter on it but I didn't expect to run out after a few days of reviewing :O The last questions I was reviewing were about 2 years old. Where does that >90K come from then? (*which tags?*) I'd rather maintain the good quality of my reviews and avoid other tags which I am not too familiar with so I do not necessarily want to jump into other tags. Any suggestions what I can do for *the rest of the day?* <=sarcasm How difficult is it to review other tags in terms of audits?
2013/11/14
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/207325", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
When you run out of posts to review for your chosen tags, then I'd filter on 'Too broad' and 'Primarily opinion based'. Most questions already flagged for those reasons are very easy to recognize as close candidates. Skip any that are unclear to you, but those two reasons should easily exhaust your daily review votes for weeks on end.
Start by removing the tags that you have and see what comes up. In cases where you are unfamiliar with the subject matter and don't want to make a judgement you can just press 'skip'. After you do that for a bunch of posts, you get an idea about which tags don't have enough reviews.
481,243
I was wondering different packages are usually handled. Specifically, the SMD packages. Are there any benefits to having all components in a single package? For example, I have all of my resistors and capacitors in 0402 package but one of the capacitors is nearly 10x in cost for this package size vs say 0805. Does it make sense to use the cheaper one or would such a choice in turn make assembly more expensive?
2020/02/14
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/481243", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/203618/" ]
From a perspective of pure mechanics of an assembly house there is no difference whatsoever to using different package IF it is same SMD type. SMDs are assembled by pick-and-place machines which don’t really care about package size as long as it is size the machine can handle (going some super small packages may significantly reduce number of houses that can do assembly for you because the machine they have may not be capable of handling those sizes). In other words if the bulk of your components is in 0402, then you will be pretty safe going bigger packages for some of the components. Things changes if you want to mix SMD and THT components as (again) some houses may not have machines capable of reliably placing THT ones and thus requiring manual work to place those. Or they may not even have wave soldering machine, which again would lead to manual soldering.
You'd have to check with your manufacturer to be sure. Very small packages, (0402 is pretty standard now though), "blind" packages (BGA etc), and having lots of different parts (there will be a limit on the number of reels on the pick and place machine) will raise the cost. Tiny and/or blind packages will also reduce your yield. BOM consolidation allows you to buy more of the same component, taking advantage of bulk cost reduction and also reducing opportunities for incorrect orders. Another factor to consider is that there is always wastage in the pick and place - let's say you lose 10 of each components per run. If you only have 10 BOM lines your overhead is 100 wasted components. If you have 100 BOM lines, your overhead becomes 1000 wasted components. So, if you get a 10X reduction in cost by reusing a BOM line then do it. If the cost of adding a BOM line is less than reuse, then just add it.
33,573,692
I parse documents from a JSON, which will be added as children of a parent document. I just post the items to the index, without taking care about the id. Sometimes there will be updates to the JSON and items will be added to it. So e.g. I parsed 2 documents from the JSON and after a week or two I parse the same JSON again. This time the JSON contains 3 documents. I found answers like: 'remove all children and insert all items again.', but I doubt this is the solution I'm looking for. I could compare each item to the children of my target-parent and add new documents, if there is no equal child. I wondered if there is a way, to let elasticsearch handle duplicates.
2015/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33573692", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1118527/" ]
Duplication needs to be handled in ID handling itself. Choose a key that is unique for a document and make that as the \_id. In the the key is too large or it is multiple keys , create a SHAH checksum out of it and make that as the \_id. If you already have dedupes in the database , you can use terms aggregation nested with top\_hits aggregation to detect those. You can read more about this approach [here](https://qbox.io/blog/minimizing-document-duplication-in-elasticsearch).
When adding a new document to elasticsearch, it first scans the existing documents to see if any of the IDs match. If there is already an existing document with that ID, the document will be updated instead of adding in a duplicate document (the version field will be updated at the same time to track the amount of updates that have occurred). You will therefore need to keep track of your document IDs somehow and maintain the same IDs throughout matching documents to eliminate the possibility of duplicates.
145,857
Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software. The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine.
2014/09/18
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/" ]
The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out, but if you do anything that would require a password entry like managing your wish list, a Touch ID prompt comes up giving you the option to use your fingerprint instead of typing in your password
Ok, I just figured this out (finally), "and yes it does work". But it seems to be a combination of several of the answers provided above. Probably the most important thing to point out is Tpoccu's posting. "The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out", but if you're anything like me and you log out every time you're finished with the App, continue reading... The first thing you'll need to do is go to Settings and scroll down to the Amazon App on your iPhone 6 (minimum) with an "Up To Date iOS", then scroll down to "Use Biometric authentication when available" and turn that on as Nura suggested. Once that's done go to Settings/Passwords & Accounts/Website & App Passwords and Tap the “+” (top right) to provide the credentials that the App needs, and type in www.amazon.com under the Website Address and then just type in your Username and Password as Mr D suggested and you're done. Then the next time you open the Amazon App and tap the Sign In button the App will ask you if you want to associate the App with the password that you saved earlier, just tap Ok and touch the finger print reader and you will be logged into the App automatically. I hope this helps!
145,857
Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software. The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine.
2014/09/18
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/" ]
I just received this email from Amazon that refutes the existence of the feature: > > Hello, > > > Thank you for contacting Amazon. I've researched "Touch ID" feature > and found this feature it isn't available with the Amazon Appstore > apps at this time. We're constantly adding apps and features to our > selection, and features not unavailable now may become available in > the future. > > > I've forwarded your message to our Appstore development team for > consideration. > > > We look forward to seeing you again soon. > > > Best regards, > Devender K > > >
You're not alone, no one knows how to turn it on (or off!) [Amazon app for iPhone adds Touch ID support, but nobody knows how to turn it on…or off](http://www.geekwire.com/2014/amazon-app-iphone-gives-new-meaning-1-click-touch-id-support/) A friend of mine says it works on his iPhone 6+. And so, I log into the same Amazon app on my iPhone 6, via name and password, I order products, manage my wish list, and *never* see the TouchID interface appear. So strange!
145,857
Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software. The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine.
2014/09/18
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/" ]
Go to settings, scroll down till you find a list of downloaded apps. Locate and tap Amazon app. You will find toggle switch to turn on/off touch id feature. Good Luck.
You're not alone, no one knows how to turn it on (or off!) [Amazon app for iPhone adds Touch ID support, but nobody knows how to turn it on…or off](http://www.geekwire.com/2014/amazon-app-iphone-gives-new-meaning-1-click-touch-id-support/) A friend of mine says it works on his iPhone 6+. And so, I log into the same Amazon app on my iPhone 6, via name and password, I order products, manage my wish list, and *never* see the TouchID interface appear. So strange!